Istqb
Istqb
Istqb
1: How many test cases are required to cover 100% 0 - switch coverage respectively
from X2?
Exhibit:
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration
Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testw are items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.
A. ii,
B. ii,
C. i,
D. i,
iv and v.
iii and iv,
ii and iv.
iii and v.
C. a, b and f
D. a, d and e
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 5: Which is a potential product risk factor?
A. Failure of third party vendor
B. Training issues
C. Problems requirements definition
D. Poor software functionality
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 6: Who typically use static analysis tools?
A. Customers and users
B. Developers and designers
C. Business and systems analysts
D. System and acceptance testers
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?
A. Developers.
B. Analysts.
C. Testers.
D. Incident Managers.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?
A. The name
B. Version of
C. Suggestions
D. Actual and
case specification.
design specification.
procedure specification.
results.
Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which
statement BEST details those for developers
i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.
A.
B.
C.
D.
i,
ii.
ii,
ii.
Questio
n No.
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ct
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Q. 1
Q. 2
Q. 3
Q. 4
Q. 5
Q. 6
Q. 7
Q. 8
Q. 9
Q. 10
B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes
and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.
C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been
introduced as a result of changes.
D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
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Q. 11
Q. 12
Q. 13
Q. 14
Q. 15
Q. 16
Q. 17
Q. 18
Q. 19
Q. 20
Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is
VALID?
Rule 1
Rule 2
Rule 3
Rule 4
Age
<21
yrs
21-29
yrs
3050yrs
> 50yrs
Insurance
Class
A or B
B. C or
D
C or D
Premium
100
90
70
70
Excess
2,500
2,500
500
1000
Conditions
Actions
Options:
A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. i, ii, iv.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?
A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test tools?
i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.
Options:
A. ii and iv
B. ii and iii
C. i and iv
D. i and iii
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 28: Which of the following can be considered as success factors when deploying a new tool in
an organization?
A. Providing coaching to users and defining usage guidelines
B. Monitoring tool usage and reducing the need for risk analysis
C. Improving processes and focusing more on component testing
D. Assessing testing completion and minimizing code reviews
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?
A. To define when a test level is complete.
B. To determine when a test has completed.
C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
D. To determine whether a test has passed.
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
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Q. 21
Q. 22
Q. 23
Q. 24
Q. 25
Q. 26
Q. 27
Q. 28
Q. 29
Q. 30
Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY associated?
A. Tool support for performance and monitoring.
B. Tool support for static testing.
C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?
i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.
A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements.
1.Decision Table Testing
2.Decision Testing
3.State Transition Testing
4.Exploratory Testing
W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement structured testing.
X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on current conditions or
previous history.
Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have been exercised during
testing.
Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.
Options:
A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to
derive test cases based on the specification of a component?
A. Black Box Techniques.
B. White Box Techniques.
C. Glass Box Techniques.
D. Experience Based Techniques.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?
A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 36: Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below?
S. Process-compliant approaches
T. Heuristic approaches
U. Consultative approaches
V. Regression-averse approaches
1. Includes reuse of existing test material
2. Listens to suggestions from technology experts
3. Adheres to industry-specific standards
4. Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently
Exhibit:
A. A
B. ABD
C. ABCD
D. ACD
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box) techniques?
A. Test cases can be easily automated.
B. Test cases are independent of each other.
C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system .
D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
Questio
n No.
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ct
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Q. 31
Q. 32
Q. 33
Q. 34
Q. 35
Q. 36
Q. 37
Q. 38
Q. 39
Q. 40
Q. 41: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component testing:
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 46: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model.
These include (choose one or more of the following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the
project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low
rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs.
D. All of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
A. Deviations from standards,
B. Requirement defects,
C. Design defects,
D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E. All of the above.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective
A. Identifying defects.
B. Fixing defects.
C. A. and B
D. None of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 49: What techniques would be MOST appropriate if the specifications are outdated?
A. Structure-based and experienced-based techniques
B. Black-box and specification-based techniques
C. Specification-based and structure-based techniques
D. Structure-based technique and exhaustive testing
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
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Q. 41
Q. 42
Q. 43
Q. 44
Q. 45
Q. 46
Q. 47
Q. 48
Q. 49
Q. 50
Q. 51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very
little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that
could be spent on other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 52: Poor software characteristics are
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 53: System testing should investigate
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Q. 59: Which of the following is a potential risk in using test support tools?
A. Under estimating the effort needed to maintain the test assets
B. Losing access to important testing information when needed
C. Relying too much on qualitative and quantitative assessments
D. Lowering the morale of the test team because of repetition
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 60: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % statement coverage?
if ((temperature < 0) or
(temperature > 100)) {
alert ("DANGER");
if ((speed > 100) and (load <= 50)) {
speed = 50;
}
} else {
check = false;
}
A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Questio
n No.
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ct
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Q. 51
Q. 52
Q. 53
Q. 54
Q. 55
Q. 56
Q. 57
Q. 58
Q. 59
Q. 60
Q. 61: X has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the
appropriate one
A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. 1, 0, 1, 99
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 62: Which is not a testing principle
A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 63: What consists of a set of input values, execution pre conditions and expected results?
A. Test
B. Test
C. Test
D. Test
script
procedure specification
case
data
Q. 68: Which of the following MAIN activity is part of the fundamental test process?
A. Initiating and planning
B. Documenting r oot-causes
C. Capturing lessons learned
D. Planning and control
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 69: Purpose of test design technique is
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 70: One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the
following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion?
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person s opinion, and ask for someone else s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
Questio
n No.
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Q. 61
Q. 62
Q. 63
Q. 64
Q. 65
Q. 66
Q. 67
Q. 68
Q. 69
Q. 70
Q. 71: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 72: A software model that cant be used in functional testing
A. Process flow model
B. State transaction model
A. W, X and Y
B. W, X, Y and Z
C. W and X
D. W, X and Z
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 77: What is the main purpose of Informal review
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 78: Which is not a Component testing
A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 79: Which test can be performed at all test levels?
A. System testing
B. Operational testing
C. Structural testing
D. Integration testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 80: Which is not the fundamental test process
A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None
Questio
n No.
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t
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Q. 71
Q. 72
Q. 73
Q. 74
Q. 75
Q. 76
Q. 77
Q. 78
Q. 79
Q. 80
Q. 81: The ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output
products.
A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
Questio
n No.
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t
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Q. 81
Q. 82
Q. 83
Q. 84
Q. 85
Q. 86
Q. 87
Q. 88
Q. 89
Q. 90
Q. 99: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction
between integrated components is :
A. System Level Testing
B. Integration Level Testing
C. Unit Level Testing
D. Component Testing
Q. 100: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:A. Breadth Test and Depth Test
B. Re-testing
C. Confirmation Testing
D. Sanity Testing
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
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Q. 91
Q. 92
Q. 93
Q. 94
Q. 95
Q. 96
Q. 97
Q. 98
Q. 99
Q. 100
Q. 101: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the
temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalance values
which belong to the same class.
A.12,16,22
B.24,27,17
C.22,23,24
D.14,15,19
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 102: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 103: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase
A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
C. Comparing actual results
D. Designing the Tests
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 104: Link Testing is also called as :
C. Performance Testing
D. Functionality Testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 109: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a
formal review.
A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 110: The Test Cases Derived from use cases
A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system
C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level
Questio
n No.
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t
Answe
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Q. 101
Q. 102
Q. 103
Q. 104
Q. 105
Q. 106
Q. 107
Q. 108
Q. 109
Q. 110
Q. 111: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the
Valid Equivalence class
A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 112: Which of the following are potential benefits of using test support tools?
A. Ensuring greater consistency and minimizing software project risks
B. Reducing repetitive work and gaining easy access to test information
C. Performing objective assessment and reducing the need for training
D. Allowing for greater reliance on the tool to automate the test process
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 113: Which statements correctly describe certain phases of a formal review?
Questio
n No.
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Q. 111
Q. 112
Q. 113
Q. 114
Q. 115
Q. 116
Q. 117
Q. 118
Q. 119
Q. 120
Q. 121: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the
test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 122: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to
25. Identify the invalid Equivalance class
A. 17
B. 19
C. 24
D. 21
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 123: Exhaustive Testing is
A. Is impractical but possible
B. Is practically possible
C. Is impractical and impossible
D. Is always possible
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 124: Which tool needs to interface with other office automation software in order to generate
reports in the format required by the organization?
A. Progress tracking tools
B. Test management tools
C. Metrics management tools
D. Test execution tools
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 125: Which one is not comes under international standard
A. IEC
B. IEEE
C. ISO
D. All of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 126: In which phase static tests are used
A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Coding
D. All of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Questio
n No.
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Q. 121
Q. 122
Q. 123
Q. 124
Q. 125
Q. 126
Q. 127
Q. 128
Q. 129
Q. 130
Q. 131: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on maintenance.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 132: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the
original defect has been successfully removed. This is called
A. Regression testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Confirmation testing
D. None of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 133: Which of the following is a valid objective of an incident report?
A. Prove that the tester is contributing to the quality of the system.
B. Provides test management ideas for test process improvement.
C. Gives a statistical way to determine which modules to redesign.
D. Provides developers a way to critique their individual work processes.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 134: When to stop Testing?
A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
D. None above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 135: Which of the following are success factors for reviews?
I. Clear objectives for each review.
II. Checklists and/or roles are used to increase effectiveness of defect identification.
III. There is an emphasis on process improvement.
IV. People issues and psychological aspects are not reviewed.
A. I and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. IV
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 136: Structure is unknown for which type of development project
A. Traditional system development
B. Iterative development
C. System maintenance
D. Purchased/contracted software
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
Q. 131
Q. 132
Q. 133
Q. 134
Q. 135
Q. 136
Q. 137
Q. 138
Q. 139
Q. 140
Q. 141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified independent reviewer
to detect defects.
A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Review
D. Non Conformance
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 142: Which of the following are MAJOR test implementation and execution tasks?
I. Repeating test activities
II. Creating test suites
III. Reporting discrepancies
IV. Logging the outcome
V. Analyzing lessons learned
A. II, III and IV
B. I, III, IV and V
C. I, II, III and IV
D. III, IV and V
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 143: Which tasks are performed by a test leader versus a tester?
S. Writing a project test strategy
T. Selecting tools to support testing
U. Preparing and acquiring data
V. Scheduling tests
A. Test leader: S and V; Tester: T and U
B. Test leader: S, T and V; Tester: U
C. Test leader: S, U and V; Tester: T
D. Test leader: S; Tester: T, U and V
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 144: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing
A. Performance
B. Record/Playback
C. A. & B.
D. None
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
C. Process-driven testing
D. Keyword-driven testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 150: The principal attributes of tools and automation are
A. Speed & efficiency
B. Accuracy & precision
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
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Q. 141
Q. 142
Q. 143
Q. 144
Q. 145
Q. 146
Q. 147
Q. 148
Q. 149
Q. 150
Q. 151: In ______ testing doesn't know anything about the sofware being tested; it just clicks or types
randomly.
A. Random testing
B. Gorilla testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. Dumb monkey testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an application system is
called
A. Checklist
B. Checkpoint review
C. Decision table
D. Decision tree
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 153: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function
is operational is called
A. Black-box testing
B. Glass-box testing
C. Grey-box testing
D. White-box testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 154: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision directions
executed by the test case designed is called
A. Condition coverage
B. Decision/Condition coverage
C. Decision Coverage
D. Branch coverage
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 155: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design specifications.
A. Test Summary report
B. Test Log
C. Test Incident Report
D. Test Script
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 156: Which test investigates both functional and non-functional system requirements?
A. Alpha testing
B. System testing
C. Acceptance testing
D. Confirmation testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 157: Which test ensures that modifications did not introduce new problems?
A. Stress testing
B. Black-box testing
C. Structural testing
D. Regression testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 158: Which of the following are potential benefits of adding tools to the test
process?
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
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Q. 151
Q. 152
Q. 153
Q. 154
Q. 155
Q. 156
Q. 157
Q. 158
Q. 159
Q. 160
Q. 161: What is the ratio of the number of failures relative to a category and a unit of measure?
A. Failure rate
B. Defect density
C. Failure mode
D. Fault tolerance
Q. 162: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes
A. Programming standard violations
B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
C. Security vulnerabilities
D. All Above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 163: EULA stands for
A. End Usability License Agreement
B. End User License Agreement
C. End User License Arrangement
D. End User License Attachment
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 164: What test can be conducted for off - the - shelf software to get market feedback?
A. Beta testing
B. Usability testing
C. Alpha testing
D. COTS testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 165: CAST stands for
A. Computer Aided Software Testing
B. Computer Aided Software Tools
C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
D. None
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 166: How can software defects in future projects be prevented from reoccurring?
A. Creating documentation procedures and allocating resource contingencies
B. Asking programmers to perform a thorough and independent testing
C. Combining levels of testing and mandating inspections of all documents
D. Documenting lessons learned and determining the root cause of problems
A. Initiation, Preparation, Informal Review Meeting, Status, Rework, and Follow up.
B. Planning, Preparation, Technical Review, Rework, and Closure.
C. Preparation, Inspection, Rework, Closure, and Follow up.
D. Planning, Kick off, Individual Preparation, Review Meeting, Rework, and Follow up.
Questio
n No.
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t
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Q. 161
Q. 162
Q. 163
Q. 164
Q. 165
Q. 166
Q. 167
Q. 168
Q. 169
Q. 170
Q. 171: Which of the following are success factors when rolling out a new tool?
I. Roll the tool out to the entire organization to ensure reasonably even coverage.
II. Avoid changing existing processes to reduce impact of the tool.
Q. 175: During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
A. When the code is complete.
B. When the design is complete.
C. When the software requirements have been approved.
D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 176: "How much testing is enough?"
A. This question is impossible to answer
B. This question is easy to answer
C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 177: Which approaches can help increase the quality of software?
I. Incorporating rigorous testing
II. Preventing change requests
III. Establishing defects metrics
IV. Allocating schedule contingencies
A. I and II are true; III and IV are false
B. II and IV are true; I and II are false
C. I and IV are true; II and III are false
D. I and III are true; II and IV are false
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 178: Features to be tested, approach, item pass / fail criteria and test deliverables should be
specified in which document?
A. Test
B. Test
C. Test
D. Test
case specification
procedure specification
plan
design specification
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
r
Q. 171
Q. 172
Q. 173
Q. 174
Q. 175
Q. 176
Q. 177
Q. 178
Q. 179
Q. 180
Q. 181: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
A. Functionality
B. Usability
C. Supportability
D. Maintainability
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 182: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
A. Lack of technical documentation
B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 183: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
A. Missing Statements
B. Unused Branches
C. Dead Code
D. Unused Statement
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 184: Given the Following program
IFX<>=Z
THENStatement2;
END
McCabesCyclomaticComplexityis:
A.2
B.3
C.4
D. 5
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested
and passes it test data.
A. Stub
B. Driver
C. Proxy
D. None of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 186: Pick the best definition of quality
A. Quality is job one
B. Zero defects
C. Conformance to requirements
D. Work as designed
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 187: Boundary value testing
A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
C. Tests combinations of input circumstances
D. Is used in white box testing strategy
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 188: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
A. 0,1900,2004,2005
B. 1900, 2004
C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
r
Q. 181
Q. 182
Q. 183
Q. 184
Q. 185
Q. 186
Q. 187
Q. 188
Q. 189
Q. 190
Q. 193: Which documents specify features to - be tested, approach, and pass / fail criteria?
A. Test
B. Test
C. Test
D. Test
procedure specification
level
case specification
plan
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) Wwhen the project manager says
A. v & w are true, x z are false
B. w, x & y are true, v & z are false
C. w & y are true, v, x & z are false
D. w is true, v, x y and z are false
E. All of the above are true
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 199: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
A. Execution
B. Design
C. Planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 200: What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside your country,
versus testing software developed by a contractor within your country?
A. Does not meet people needs
B. Cultural difference
C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
D. Relinquishments of control
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
r
Q. 191
Q. 192
Q. 193
Q. 194
Q. 195
Q. 196
Q. 197
Q. 198
Q. 199
Q. 200
Q. 201: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
A. Project plan
B. Business plan
C. Support plan
D. None of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 202: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is
called:
A. A dynamic analysis tool
B. A test execution tool
C. A debugging tool
D. A test management tool
E. A configuration management tool
procedure specification
design specification
case specification
plan
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 201
Q. 202
Q. 203
Q. 204
Q. 205
Q. 206
Q. 207
Q. 208
Q. 209
Q. 210
A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 211
Q. 212
Q. 213
Q. 214
Q. 215
Q. 216
Q. 217
Q. 218
Q. 219
Q. 220
A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
E. A mistake
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 229: Which of the following can be tested as part of operational testing?
A. Component interaction
B. Probe effect
C. State transition
D. Disaster recovery
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 230: Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start "outlook"
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
r
Q. 221
Q. 222
Q. 223
Q. 224
Q. 225
Q. 226
Q. 227
Q. 228
Q. 229
Q. 230
Q. 233: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in
E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 234: Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
A. Measuring response time
B. Measuring transaction rates
C. Recovery testing
D. Simulating many users
E. Generating many transactions
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 235: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
D. To know when test planning is complete
E. To plan when to stop testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q.
236:
IF
C
ELSE
C
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print "Error"
ENDIF
Given
A
=
=
the
following
>
code,
which
B
is
true:
THEN
B
(i.e.
not
software
to
be
versions)
tested
environments
plans
D. Test environment
E. Test specification
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 231
Q. 232
Q. 233
Q. 234
Q. 235
Q. 236
Q. 237
Q. 238
Q. 239
Q. 240
Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
A. A,C,B
B. B,C,A
C. A,B,C
D. C,B,A
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 244: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % decision coverage?
If (p = q) {
s = s + 1;
if (a < S) {
t = 10;
}
} else if (p > q) {
t = 5;
}
A. 3
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 245: Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
A. Black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
B. White box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
D. Black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
E. White box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 246: Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
A. No, because they apply to development documentation
B. No, because they are normally applied before testing
C. No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
D. Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
E. Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 247:The main focus of acceptance testing is:
A. Finding faults in the system
B. Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
C. Testing the system with other systems
D. Testing for a business perspective
E. Testing by an independent test team
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 248: Which of the following can help testers understand the root causes of defects from
previous projects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Cause-and-effect diagram
C. Lessons learned
D. Fishbone diagram
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 241
Q. 242
Q. 243
Q. 244
Q. 245
Q. 246
Q. 247
Q. 248
Q. 249
Q. 250
results
A.Only
important
B.Only
used
C.Never
specified
D.Most
useful
when
E. Derived from the code
are:
in
system
component
in
in
specified
in
testing
testing
advance
advance
is:
by
by
customers
customers
at
at
their
their
software
own
developers
site
site
C.Performed
by
D. Useful to test bespoke software
an
independent
test
team
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 251
Q. 252
Q. 253
Q. 254
Q. 255
Q. 256
Q. 257
Q. 258
Q. 259
Q. 260
Q. 261: One of the fields on a form contains a text box, which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case.
Identify the invalid Equivalance class value.
A. CLASS
B. cLASS
C. CLass
D. CLa01ss
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 262: The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following:
A. Explaining the objective
B. Fixing defects found typically done by author
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 263: Peer Reviews are also called as :
A. Inspection
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical Review
D. Formal Review
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 264: Validation involves which of the following
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 261
Q. 262
Q. 263
Q. 264
Q. 265
Q. 266
Q. 267
Q. 268
Q. 269
Q. 270
Q. 271. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is
called as
A. Configuration Control
B. Status Accounting
C. Configuration Identification
D. Configuration Identification
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
A. Specifications
B. Test Cases
C. Test Data
D. Test Design
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 276: Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 277: Impact Analysis helps to decide:
A. How much regression testing should be done.
B. Exit Criteria
C. How many more test cases need to written.
D. Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 278: Drivers are also known as:
i.
ii.
iii.
A.
i
,
B.
i
,
C.
ii
,
D. All of the above are true
Spade
harness
Scaffolding
Test
ii
iii
iii
are
are
are
true
true
true
and
and
and
iii
ii
i
is
is
is
false
false
false
A.Topdown
B.Big-bang
C.Bottom_up
D.Functional_incrementation.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 280: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a
formal review.
A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 271
Q. 272
Q. 273
Q. 274
Q. 275
Q. 276
Q. 277
Q. 278
Q. 279
Q. 280
Rule1
Rule2
Rule3
Rule4
Yes
Yes
No
No
Conditions
Citibank
Card
Member
Type of
Room
Silver
Platinum
Silver
Platinum
Yes
No
No
No
N/A
Yes
N/A
No
Actions
Offer
upgrade
To Gold
Luxury
Offer
upgrade to
Silver
Q. 284: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which
sections of the test incident report should the following details be recorded?
a) Test incident report identifier
b) Summary
c) Incident description
d) Impact
1. Expected results
2. Actual results
3. Procedure step
4. Environment
5. Revision level
6. Date and time
A. a: 3; b: 5; c: 1, 2, 4 and 6
B. b: 5; c: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
C. b: 5 and 6; c: 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. a: 5; c: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 285: Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects
introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or
unrelated software component:
A. Re Testing
B. Confirmation Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Negative Testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 286: Consider the following state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the following represents an
invalid state transition?
A. OFF to ON
B. ON to OFF
C. FAULT to ON
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 287: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for
writing:
A. User Acceptance Test Cases
B. Integration Level Test Cases
C. Unit Level Test Cases
D. Program specifications
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 288: Regression testing should be performed:
i. Every week
ii. After the software has changed
iii. As often as possible
iv. When the environment has changed
v. When the project manager says
A. i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
B. ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
C. ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
D. ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 289: Which input combinations will a knowledgeable tester MOST LIKELY use to uncover
potential errors when testing a surname field?
A. Wilson, de Costa and Morgan
B. Go, Cheenaswamimuthusami and Venkatsewaran
C. Smit, Smyth and Smithson
D. O'Lever, Lesa-Brit and Jewel De
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 290: Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are:
A. Designed by persons who write the software under test
B. Designed by a person from a different section
C. Designed by a person from a different organization
D. Designed by another person
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 281
Q. 282
Q. 283
Q. 284
Q. 285
Q. 286
Q. 287
Q. 288
Q. 289
Q. 290
Q. 298: Which test is OFTEN the responsibility of the customers or users of the system?
A. Usability testing
B. Functional testing
C. Maintenance testing
D. Acceptance testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 299: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.
D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 300: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free.
The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 291
Q. 292
Q. 293
Q. 294
Q. 295
Q. 296
Q. 297
Q. 298
Q. 299
Q. 300
Q. 303: Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to _______
A. Performance testing
B. Recovery testing
C. GUI testing
D. User requirements.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 304: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers
A. Dynamic analysis tool
B. Static Analysis tool.
C. Maintenance tool.
D. Configuration tool.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 305: Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate
A. Number of independent paths in the basis set of a program
B. Number of binary decisions + 1
C. Number bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have been
executed at least once
D. Number of branches and decisions
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 306: Which of the following is not included in Test Plan.
A. Features to be tested.
B. Environmental needs.
C. Suspension criteria.
D. Expected results.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 307: Software quality is not relevant to _______
A. Correctness
B. Usability
C. Viability
D. Reusability.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Test
Test
Test
a.
b.
c.
Measures
Effort
required
Reallocation
A.
B.
C.
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
estimation
control
monitoring
of
1-b,
1-b,
1-c,
tracking
perform
to
of
2-c,
2-a,
2-a,
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
process
activities
resources
3-a
3-c
3-b
Q. 301
Q. 302
Q. 303
Q. 304
Q. 305
Q. 306
Q. 307
Q. 308
Q. 309
Q. 310
1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CIs in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CIs and their versions in the system are known
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a.
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 312: Integration testing in the large involves:
A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.
B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.
C. Testing a system with a large number of users.
D. Combing software components and testing them in one go.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 313: How are error guessing and exploratory testing similar?
A. Both
B. Both
C. Both
D. Both
are
are
are
are
Q. 315: In a formal review, who is primarily responsible for the documents to be reviewed?
A. Author
B. Manager
C. Moderator
D. Reviewers
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 316: What type of testing will you perform on internet banking solution?
A. System integration
B. Functional testing
C. Non-functional testing.
D. Requirements testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 317: Which of the following are false?
A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved.
B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 318: Testing is not done to ______
A. Find faults
B. Improve quality
C. Check user friendliness.
D. Improve software accuracy
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 319: A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system. Which of the following is true?
A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system.
B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed.
C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested.
D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 320: People who dont participate in technical reviews
A. Analysts
B. Management
C. Developers
D. Testers
Questio
n No.2
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 311
Q. 312
Q. 313
Q. 314
Q. 315
Q. 316
Q. 317
Q. 318
Q. 319
Q. 320
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 321
Q. 322
Q. 323
Q. 324
Q. 325
Q. 326
Q. 327
Q. 328
Q. 329
Q. 330
A. Be easy to maintain.
B. Be unlikely to cause a failure.
C. Never fail under any circumstances.
D. Be written according to coding standards
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 332: Which test design techniques should a tester use to respectively achieve the following:
(a) Check the documented features of the system,
(b) ensure 100 % decision c overage, and
(c) detect likely defects and distribution?
A. Specification-based, data driven testing, and defect density techniques
B. Specification-based, branch coverage, and exploratory techniques
C. Structure-based, equivalence partitioning, and exploratory techniques
D. Specification-based, structure-based, and experience-based techniques
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 333: Faults found by users are due to:
A. Poor quality software
B. Poor software and poor testing
C. Bad luck
D. Insufficient time for testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 334: An incident logging system
A. Only records defects
B. Is of limited value
C. Is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
D. Should be used only by the test team.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 335: The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. Why?
A. The documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
B. Wages are rising
C. The fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
D. None of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 336: Which set of test data demonstrates equivalence partitioning to check whether a customer
is a teenager or not?
A. 10, 15 and 19 years
B. 13, 19 and 25 years
C. 13, 16 and 19 years
D. 12, 13 and 20 years
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 337: Which technique if OFTEN considered as an extension of equivalence partitioning?
A. Decision table testing
B. State transition testing
C. Use case testing
D. Boundary value analysis
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 338: Software testing activities should start
A. As soon as the code is written
B. During the design stage
C. When the requirements have been formally documented
D. As soon as possible in the development life cycle
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 339: A company by the name Software Testing Genius Inc. decides to use functional test execution
automation tool for testing GUI of their product. The GUI is expected to change frequently. Software
Testing Genius Inc. has put some of the manual testers through a 3-day training program on how to use
the tool. Which of the following is likely to be true?
A. Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience
B. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate
C. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes
D. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 340: A test design technique is
A. A process for selecting test cases
B. A process for determining expected outputs
C. A way to measure the quality of software
D. A way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 331
Q. 332
Q. 333
Q. 334
Q. 335
Q. 336
Q. 337
Q. 338
Q. 339
Q. 340
Q. 341: What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
A. Impact analysis
B. Code coverage
C. Gap analysts
D. Cyclomatic complexity
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 346: Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
A. Design based
B. Big-bang
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 347: Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
A. State analysis
B. Coverage analysis
C. Dynamic analysis
D. Memory analysis
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 348: Which of the following statements are true?
A. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
B. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
C. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
D. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 349: Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed
for testing (the test phases) by:
A. Reducing test time
B. No change
C. Increasing test time
D. Cant say
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 350: Which of the following is a black box design technique?
A. Statement testing
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Error- guessing
D. Usability testing
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 341
Q. 342
Q. 343
Q. 344
Q. 345
Q. 346
Q. 347
Q. 348
Q. 349
Q. 350
A. State-Transition
B. Usability
C. Performance
D. Security
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 357: Which of the following is the component test standard?
A. IEEE 829
B. IEEE 610
C. BS7925-1
D. BS7925-2
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 358: A program validates a numeric field as follows:
Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are
rejected. Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
A. 10,11,21
B. 3,20,21
C. 3,10,22
D. 10,21,22
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 359: Which of the following are KEY tasks of a test leader?
i. Understanding the project risks
ii. Measuring performance of components
iii. Scheduling tests and other activities
iv. Using monitoring tools as needed
A. i and iii
B. i and ii
C. iii and iv
D. ii and iii
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 360: Which of the following is a static test?
A. Code inspection
B. Coverage analysis
C. Usability assessment
D. Installation test
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 351
Q. 352
Q. 353
Q. 354
Q. 355
Q. 356
Q. 357
Q. 358
Q. 359
Q. 360
A. Large
B. Small
C. Difficult to write
D. Difficult to test
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 362: Which of the following is the odd one out?
A. White box
B. Glass box
C. Structural
D. Functional
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 363: Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?
A. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing
B. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing
C. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
D. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 364: What is the KEY difference between black-box and white-box testing?
A. Black-box
B. Black-box
C. Black-box
D. Black-box
A. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
B. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
C. It can only be used for reviewing design and code
D. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 367: Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?
A. Because it is an industry standard
B. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the edges of the range
of values
C. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are considered in the test
cases
D. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 368: If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
A. 100% Equivalence class coverage
B. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
C. 100% Statement coverage
D. 100% Multiple condition coverage
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 369: A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce
the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be
best?
A. Logic-based testing
B. Use-case-based testing
C. State transition testing
D. Systematic testing according to the V-model
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 370: In system testing...
A. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested
B. Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated in a review
C. Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated in a review
D. Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 361
Q. 362
Q. 363
Q. 364
Q. 365
Q. 366
Q. 367
Q. 368
Q. 369
Q. 370
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 371
Q. 372
Q. 373
Q. 374
Q. 375
Q. 376
Q. 377
Q. 378
Q. 379
Q. 380
A. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S4
B. SO-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2
C. SO-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3
D. SO-S1-S2-S3-S4-S1
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 384: What test items should be put under configuration management?
A. The test object, the test material and the test environment
B. The problem reports and the test material
C. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
D. The test object and the test material
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 385: This part of a program is given:
WHILE (condition A)
Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage?
A. One
B. Indefinite
C. Two
D. Four
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 386: What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
A. To specify when to stop the testing activity
B. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
C. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
D. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 387:If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
A. 100% branch coverage
B. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
C. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage
D. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 388: Using the diagram below, which test suite will uncover invalid state transitions for
employee status reporting software?
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 381
Q. 382
Q. 383
Q. 384
Q. 385
Q. 386
Q. 387
Q. 388
Q. 389
Q. 390
A. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3-S1
B. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S2-S3-S1
C. SO-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3-S1
D. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 391
Q. 392
Q. 393
Q. 394
Q. 395
Q. 396
Q. 397
Q. 398
Q. 399
Q. 400
Q. 401: Input and output combinations that will be treated the same way by the system can be
tested using which technique?
A. Boundary value
B. Equivalence partition
C. Decision table
D. State transition
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 402: Branch Coverage
case specification
plan
procedure specification
design specification
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 401
Q. 402
Q. 403
Q. 404
Q. 405
Q. 406
Q. 407
Q. 408
Q. 409
Q. 410
Q. 412: _________ reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the code and one or two
other programmers or testers.
A. Formal Reviews
B. Peer Reviews
C. Semi Formal Reviews
D. All of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 413: In ________ testing test cases i.e input to the software are created based on the specifications
languages
A. State Transition Testing
B. Random Testing
C. Syntax Testing
D. Penetration testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 414: Stochastic testing is an example of which test approach or strategy?
A. Model-based
B. Analytical
C. Methodical
D. Heuristic
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 415: Verification activities during design stages are
A. Reviewing and Inspecting
B. Inspecting and Testing
C. Reviewing and Testing
D. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 416: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which
of the following sections is part of the test summary report?
a) Test summary and report identifier of Summary
c) Variances
d) Anomalies
e) Comprehensive assessment
f) Approvals
A. a, b, e and f
B. a, b, c, d and f
C. a, b, c, e and f
D. a, b, c and f
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 417: What is the name of a temporary software component that is used to call another
component for testing purposes?
A. Domain
B. Use case
C. Stub
D. Driver
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 418: Size of a project is defined in terms of all the following except
A. Person days
B. Person hours
C. Calendar months
D. None of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 419: Testing responsibilities:
Tester 1 Verify that the program is able to display images clearly on all 10 of the monitors in the lab
Tester 2 - Make sure the program instructions are easy to use Security concerns are important for which type of
applications
Tester 3 Verify that the calculation module works correctly by using both scripts and ad hoc testing. Which
term is used to refer to the testing that is performed by
Tester 3 in the above scenario?
A. Unit testing
B. Algorithm specific testing
C. Compatibility testing
D. Black box testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 420: Objective of review meeting is
A. To identify problems with design
B. To solve the problems with design
C. Both A. and B
D. None of the above.
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 411
Q. 412
Q. 413
Q. 414
Q. 415
Q. 416
Q. 417
Q. 418
Q. 419
Q. 420
Q. 421: QC is
A. Phase building activity
B. Intermediate activity
C. End of Phase activity
D. Design activity
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 422: Which tool store information about versions and builds of software and testware
A. Test Management tool
B. Requirements management tool
C. Configuration management tool
D. Static analysis too;
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 423: Testing Process comprised of
A. Test Plan and Test Cases
B. Test log and Test Status
C. Defect Tracking
D. All of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 424: Preparing and automating test cases before coding is called
A.Test_first_approach
B.Test-driven_development
C.Both_A&_B.
D.None
of
the
above
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 421
Q. 422
Q. 423
Q. 424
Q. 425
Q. 426
Q. 427
Q. 428
Q. 429
Q. 430
Q. 435: Review is one of the methods of V&V. The other methods are
A. Inspection
B. Walkthrough
C. Testing
D. All of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 436: Which review is inexpensive
A. Informal Review
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical review
D. Inspection
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 437: Following are some of the testing risks
A. Budget, Test environment
B. Budget, Number of qualified test resources
C. Budget, Number of qualified test resources, Test environment
D. None of the above
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 438: Random Testing
A. Program is tested randomly sampling the input.
B. A black-box testing technique
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of the above.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 439: Which of the following is TRUE when introducing a new tool into a test environment?
A. Changes to existing test processes should not be needed with the new tool.
B. A site license will be needed to reduce the cost per seat of the tool.
C. The tool should be rolled out as quickly as possible to maximize ROI.
D. Introducing the tool to the organization should start with a pilot project.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 440: Reliability, usablility, efficiency are
A. Functional characteristics
B. Non functional characteristics
C. Both A. & B.
D. None of the above
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 431
Q. 432
Q. 433
Q. 434
Q. 435
Q. 436
Q. 437
Q. 438
Q. 439
Q. 440
Q. 445: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is
properly performed. The following should be checked for correctness
1. Re-initialization
2. Restart
3. Data Recovery
4. Check Point Mechanism
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 446: Data flow analysis studies:
A. Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.
C. The use of data on paths through the code.
D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 447: Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
A. Statement testing
B. Path testing
C. Data flow testing
D. State transition testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 448: Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
A. It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
B. It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
C. It reduces defect multiplication.
D. It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 449: Which test is usually run many times and generally evolve slowly?
A. Performance testing
B. Stress testing
C. Reliability testing
D. Regression testing
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 441
Q. 442
Q. 443
Q. 444
Q. 445
Q. 446
Q. 447
Q. 448
Q. 449
Q. 450
design specification
item
procedure specification
plan
checks for interactions: integration for components, use case for actions
are black-box techniques: integration is low-level, use case is high-level
are static testing: developers perform integration, users execute use case tests
are V&V techniques: integration is for validation, use case is for verification
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 451
Q. 452
Q. 453
Q. 454
Q. 455
Q. 456
Q. 457
Q. 458
Q. 459
Q. 460
A. Is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
B. Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
C. Is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
D. Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 470: In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
A. Find as many faults as possible.
B. Test high risk areas.
C. Obtain good test coverage.
D. Test whatever is easiest to test.
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 461
Q. 462
Q. 463
Q. 464
Q. 465
Q. 466
Q. 467
Q. 468
Q. 469
Q. 470
Q. 471: The most important thing about early test design is that it:
A. Makes test preparation easier.
B. Means inspections are not required.
C. Can prevent fault multiplication.
D. Will find all faults.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 472: Which of the following are potential drawbacks of independence in testing?
01. Independent testers may feel they are not part of the development team
02. Developers may lose a sense of personal responsibility for quality
03. Project managers will not have as much control on the project
04. Customers may end up requesting features that are technically impossible
A. 01 and 02
B. 01, 02 and 03
C. 03 and 04
D. 01, 02, 03 and 04
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 473: Integration testing in the small:
A. Tests the individual components that have been developed.
B. Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
C. Only uses components that form part of the live system.
D. Tests interfaces to other systems.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 474: Which of the following requirements is testable?
x - Test estimation
y - Incident management
z - Configuration control
1 - Calculation of required test resources
2 - Maintenance of record of test results
3 - Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - Report on deviation from test plan
5 - Tracking of anomalous test results
A. v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
B. v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
C. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
D. v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 480: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has 4000 of salary tax free. The next 1500 is taxed at 10% The next 28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
A. 1500
B. 32001
C. 33501
D. 28000
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 471
Q. 472
Q. 473
Q. 474
Q. 475
Q. 476
Q. 477
Q. 478
Q. 479
Q. 480
iii,
iii,
iii,
ii,
i,
iv,
ii,
iii,
iv,
i,
i,
i,
ii.
ii.
iv.
iv.
D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 490: Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME
equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20%
discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
A. 17, 18, 19.
B. 29, 30, 31.
C. 18, 29, 30.
D. 17, 29, 31.
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 481
Q. 482
Q. 483
Q. 484
Q. 485
Q. 486
Q. 487
Q. 488
Q. 489
Q. 490
Q. 493: During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?
A Test implementation and execution.
B Evaluating test exit criteria.
C Test analysis and design.
D Test planning and control.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 494: What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
A. To communicate how incidents will be managed.
B. To communicate how testing will be performed.
C. To produce a test schedule.
D. To produce a work breakdown structure.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 495: Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?
A. Test plan.
B. Test procedure specification.
C. Test case specification.
D. Test design specification.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 496: Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
A. Determining the test approach.
B. Preparing test specifications.
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 497: What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
A. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
B. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 491
Q. 492
Q. 493
Q. 494
Q. 495
Q. 496
Q. 497
Q. 498
Q. 499
Q. 500
Q. 502: Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?
A. Evaluate testers competence to use the tool.
B. Complete the testing of a key project.
C. Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D. Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 503: What is an informal test design technique where a tester uses information gained while
testing to design new and better tests?
A. Error guessing
B. Exploratory testing
C. Use case testing
D. Decision table testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 504: Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
A. Extent of testing.
B. Scope for the use of test automation.
C. Size of the test team.
D. Requirement for regression testing.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 505: When should testing be stopped?
A. When all the planned tests have been run
B. When time has run out
C. When all faults have been fixed correctly
D. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 506: Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options Regression testing should be
performed:
i Once a month
ii When a defect has been fixed
iii When the test environment has changed
iv When the software has changed
A. ii and iv.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iii.
D. i and iii.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 507: The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black
or white box techniques:
i Information about how the software is constructed.
ii Models of the system, software or components.
iii Analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv Analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?
A. ii and iii.
B. ii and iv.
C. i and iv.
D. i and iii.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 508: Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
A. The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B. The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C. The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D. The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 509: Based on the error guessing test design technique, which of the following will an
experienced tester MOST LIKELY test in calendar software?
i. First two letters of the month, e.g., MA can represent March or May
ii. First letter of the day, e.g., T can mean Tuesday or Thursday
iii. Leap year
iv. Number of days in a month
v. Three-digit days and months
A. i, ii, iv and v
B. iii and iv
C. i, ii, iii and iv
D. i, ii and v
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 510: Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?i. Provide developers and other
parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 501
Q. 502
Q. 503
Q. 504
Q. 505
Q. 506
Q. 507
Q. 508
Q. 509
Q. 510
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 514: Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Code
Because
Because
risk-based
Because
risk-based
Because
testing
everything
is
not
testing
is
the
most
efficient
approach
to
testing
is
the
most
effective
way
to
software
is
inherently
feasible.
finding
bugs.
show
value.
risky.
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 511
Q. 512
Q. 513
Q. 514
Q. 515
Q. 516
Q. 517
Q. 518
Q. 519
Q. 520
C. ii, iv, v.
D. ii, iii, v.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 525: In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to
be begun?
A. After the software or system has been produced.
B. During development.
C. As early as possible.
D. During requirements analysis.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 526: Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
C. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
D. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 527: Functional system testing is:
A. Testing that the system functions with other systems
B. Testing that the components that comprise the system function together
C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
D. Testing the system performs functions within specified response times
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 528: Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
A. Operating systems
B. Test documentation
C. Live data
D. User requirement documents
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 529: What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 521
Q. 522
Q. 523
Q. 524
Q. 525
Q. 526
Q. 527
Q. 528
Q. 529
Q. 530
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 539: The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 540: Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the
impact of proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 531
Q. 532
Q. 533
Q. 534
Q. 535
Q. 536
Q. 537
Q. 538
Q. 539
Q. 540
Q. 541: A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements,or both are combined
all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 542: You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says
that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working
days after the due date. You can not change the resources( work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will
take to be able to finish the testing in time.
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 543: There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works
on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would
not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 544: Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human
input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 545: Which of the following assertions about code coverage are correct?
A. Statement coverage usually requires more test case suites
B. 100 % statement coverage guarantees 100 % decision coverage
C. 100 % decision coverage implies 100 % statement coverage
D. Decision tables cannot be used to list statement coverage values
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 546: Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?
A. It includes functional testing
B. It includes loop testing
C. It is usually done after black-box testing
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 547: "The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation" done by
A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 548: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % condition coverage?
if ((temperature < 0) or
(temperature > 100)) {
alert ("DANGER");
if ((speed > 100) and (load <= 50)) {
speed = 50;
}
} else {
check = false;
}
A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 549: Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing
B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 550: Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.
A. I, II&III
B.II, III&IV
C.I, II&IV
D.I, III&IV
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 541
Q. 542
Q. 543
Q. 544
Q. 545
Q. 546
Q. 547
Q. 548
Q. 549
Q. 550
the
customer
existing
project
plan
managers management style
its
current
pace
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the
system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other
means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a
test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 560: Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing
B. Usability testing
C. Component testing
D. Maintainability testing
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 551
Q. 552
Q. 553
Q. 554
Q. 555
Q. 556
Q. 557
Q. 558
Q. 559
Q. 560
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 564: Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs?
Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 565: Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799
B. BS 7925/2
C. ISO/IEC 926/1
D. ISO/IEC 2382/1
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 566: The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program
during system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 567: During the testing of a module tester X finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer
rejects the same, saying that its not a bug. What X should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 568: One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies
converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test
results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is
responsible for this incident?
A.Test_managers_faults
B.Test_lead_faults
C.Test_manager
D.Testers_faults
and
project
manager
only
only
faults
only
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 561
Q. 562
Q. 563
Q. 564
Q. 565
Q. 566
Q. 567
Q. 568
Q. 569
Q. 570
Q. 571: A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web
application. The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 572: What type of risk includes potential failure areas in the software?
A. Probed risks
B. Product risks
C. Economic risks
D. Requirements risks
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 573: Consider the following statements
i. A incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments
v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
A. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
E. i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 574: Which test suite will check for an invalid transition using the diagram below?
A. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S4
B. S0-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3
C. S0-S1-S3-S1-S2-S1
D. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 575: Who OFTEN performs system testing and acceptance testing, respectively?
A. Senior programmers and professional testers
B. Technical system testers and potential customers
C. Independent test team and users of the system
D. Development team and customers of the system
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 576: Which test levels are USUALLY included in the common type of V-model?
A. Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, and regression testing
B. Component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing
C. Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing, and data driven testing
D. Alpha testing, beta testing, black-box testing, and white-box testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 577: Which general testing principles are characterized by the descriptions below?
W) Early testing
X) Defect clustering
Y) Pesticide paradox
Z) Absence-of-errors fallacy
1) Testing should start at the beginning of the project
2) Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
3) Small Number of modules contain the most defects
4) Test cases must be regularly renewed and revised
A. W1, X2, Y3, and Z4
B. W1, X3, Y4, and Z2
C. W2, X3, Y1, and Z4
D. W1, X4, Y2, and Z3
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 578: How are (a) static analysis tools and (b) performance testing tools different?
A. (a) helps in enforcing coding standards; (b) tests system performance
B. (a) analyzes security vulnerabilities; (b) measures the effectiveness of test cases
C. (a) prepares codes prior to testing; (b) prepares codes prior to stress testing
D. (a) highlights unreachable conditions; (b) improves system performance
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 579: In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The
maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the
exam.
a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 580: Which of the following describe test control actions that may occur during testing?
I. Setting an entry criterion that developers must retest fixes before fixes are accepted into a build.
II. Changing the test schedule due to availability of a test environment.
Questio
n No.
Correc
t
Answe
r
Q. 571
Q. 572
Q. 573
Q. 574
Q. 575
Q. 576
Q. 577
Q. 578
Q. 579
Q. 580
Q. 581: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
Rule 1
Rule 2
Rule 3
Rule 4
Indian Resident?
False
True
True
True
Dont
Care
False
True
True
Married
Dont
Care
Dont
Care
False
True
Issue Membership?
False
False
True
True
Offer 10%
discount?
False
False
True
False
Conditions
Actions
Rule 1
Rule 2
Rule 3
Rule 4
Indian Resident?
False
True
True
True
Dont
Care
False
True
True
Married
Dont
Care
Dont
Care
False
True
Issue Membership?
False
False
True
True
Offer 10%
discount?
False
False
True
False
Conditions
Actions
Explanation:
For TC1: follow the path in green color
(The person is Indian resident, so select only True options.
The person is aged between 18-55, so select only True
The person is a married, so again select only True
For this person, the actions under Rule 4 will be applied. That is, issue membership and no discount)
For TC3: follow the path in blue color
(The person is not Indian resident, so select only False (under Rule 1)
The person is not aged between 18-55. No need to select any path, as it is written Dont care.
The person is married. No need to select any path, as it is written Dont care.
For this person, the actions under Rule1 will be applied, That is, Dont issue membership and no discount.)
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
A. These are cheapest to detect during early phases of development & becomes more & more expensive to fix
in the later phases.
B. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
D. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 586: What is non-functional testing?
A. Testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements
B. Testing the internal structure of the system to ensure its built correctly
C. Testing the way the system works without regard to the level of test
D. Testing characteristics such as usability or reliability
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 587: Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
A. Boundary value analysis
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Security testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 588: Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?
I. Decision tables are useful when dealing with multiple inputs that do not interact.
II. The strength of a decision table is that it creates combinations of inputs that might not otherwise been
evaluated.
III. Decision tables are useful when trying to capture system requirements that contain logical conditions.
IV. Each column of a decision table corresponds to a business rule that defines a unique combination of
conditions.
A. II, III and IV
B. I and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 589: Which of the following are metrics (measurements) that a test group may use to monitor
progress?
I. Subjective confidence of the testers in the product
II. The number of testers currently testing
III. Percentage of planned test cases prepared
IV. Defects found and fixed
A. I only
B. I, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. II and IV
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 581
Q. 582
Q. 583
Q. 584
Q. 585
Q. 586
Q. 587
Q. 588
Q. 589
Q. 590
Functional
Functional
Functional
test
requirement
specifications
cases
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 591
Q. 592
Q. 593
Q. 594
Q. 595
Q. 596
Q. 597
Q. 598
Q. 599
Q. 600
A. The objective of testing is always to find defects by causing failures when executing.
B. Test activities end after the tests are executed and deviations are documented.
C. The true level of quality cannot be learned by dynamic testing.
D. Both dynamic and static testing can be used to achieve similar objectives.
<<<<<<
===================
Q. 602: Which activities are included in the Test Analysis and Design phase?
A. Design of test cases that verify that user functions are correct.
B. The design of test cases for testing the internal structure of the system.
>>>>>>
C. Test case design that is based on an analysis of the behavior of the component without reference to its
internal workings.
D. The design of test cases to ensure that the organization has defined exactly what the customer wants.
Q. 604: Which of the following statements are true about component testing?
II
and
II
IV
Q. 605: Which activities are included in Test Analysis and Design? TOO SIMILAR TO
56????
A. Developing test procedures, identifying test data, developing test harnesses, identifying required tools.
B. Reviewing the test basis, identifying test conditions, identifying test data, and designing the environment setup.
C. Reviewing requirements, determining the test approach, designing and prioritizing test cases.
D. Evaluating test object testability, verifying the test environment set up, identifying required infrastructure.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 606: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Testers cannot help developers improve their skills through good defect documentation.
B. People align their plans with objectives set by management if they understand them.
C. Testing is a constructive activity when seen in the management of product risks.
D. Avoiding the author bias is a good reason to have an independent test group.
Q. 607: Which of the following are major test documents? (choose the best answer)
1) Test plan
2) Test case
3) Test design
4) Test procedure
5) Defect report
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 3, and 4
C.
D. All the above
1,
3,
4,
and
A. I, II and III
B.
C.
III
I
and
and
IV
III
Q. 609: Which of the following is a risk of using a test execution tool based on record
and playback?
A. The ability to run automated scripts unattended may require increased hardware capacity.
B. Testers may be tempted to create too many automated test scripts.
C. Manual testers may be replaced by the tool and not be available when needed.
D. Automated scripts may be unstable when encountering unexpected events.
Q. 610: Which of the following statements are true for the equivalence partitioning
test technique?
I. Divides possible inputs into classes that have the same behavior
II. Can be used to create both positive and negative test cases
III. Makes use of only positive test cases for the equivalence partitions
IV. Must always include at least two values from every equivalence partition
V. Can be used only for input testing
A.IandII
B. I, II and V
C. I, III and IV
D. I and V
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 601
Q. 602
Q. 603
Q. 604
Q. 605
Q. 606
Q. 607
Q. 608
Q. 609
Q. 610
Q. 611: The use of test automation would provide the best return on investment for which of the
following?
A. Unit testing
B. Usability testing
C. Regression testing
D. Acceptance testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 612: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Component integration testing tests the interactions between different systems and is done after component
testing.
B. Component integration testing tests the interactions between different systems and may be done after system
testing.
C. Component integration testing tests the interactions between software components and is done during
acceptance testing.
D. Component integration testing tests the interactions between software components and is done after
component testing.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 613: Which of the following can be used to measure progress against the exit criteria?
W. Number of test cases that passed or failed
X. Number of detects found in a unit of code
Y. Dates for milestones and deliverables
Z. Subjective confidence of testers in the product
A. W, X, Y and Z
B. W, X and Y
C. W and X
D. W, X and Z
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 614: Which of the following is a fundamental principle of software defect prevention?
A. Software quality engineering must evaluate all errors.
B. A balance of white-box and black-box testing is necessary.
C. A single root cause taxonomy should be used by all projects.
D. Feedback to the individuals who introduced the defect is essential.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 615: The best time to influence the quality of a system design is in the _______.
A. Planning Phase
B. Analysis Phase
C. Design Phase
D. Testing Phase
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 616: Which combination of p, q and r values will ensure 100 % statement coverage?
if (p = q) {
r = r + 1;
if (r < 5) {
s = 10;
}
} else if (p > q) {
s = 5;
}
A. p=5,q=5,r=5
p=5,q=4,r=-1
B. p=5,q=1,r=3
p=4,q=4,r=5
C. p=3,q=3,r=3
p=-1,q=-2,r=3
D. p=-1,q=-1,r=0
p= -2, q= -1,r=0
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 617: Which of the following BEST describes the task partition between test manager and tester?
A. The test manager plans, organizes and creates the test specifications, while the tester implements, prioritizes
and executes tests.
B. The test manager plans, monitors and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs, executes tests
and evaluates the results.
C. The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses
the tools and controls their use.
D. The test manager reviews tests developed by others, while the tester selects tools to support testing.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 618: Which of the following might be a concern of a test group relying on a test design tool?
A. The tool may not generate sufficient tests for verifying all aspects of the test object.
B. The tools playback function may not work the same for all testers workstations.
C. The tool might take too much time to run, putting the schedule at jeopardy.
D. The tools test logs may require that the test group upgrade the server memory
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 619: Which of the following statements about the benefits of deriving test cases from use cases are
true?
I. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for system and acceptance testing.
II. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful only for automated testing
III. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for unit testing.
IV. Deriving test cases from use cases is helpful for testing the interaction and interference between different
components.
A. I
B. I and II.
C. III
D. I and IV
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 620: In a formal inspection process, which is TRUE?
A. Failures can be found when the correct inspectors are included.
B. Metrics are included in the inspection process.
C. The checking rate is related to the number of pages of the inspected document.
D. Its purpose is to get some benefit in an inexpensive way.
Questio
n No.
Corre
ct
Answe
r
Q. 611
Q. 612
Q. 613
Q. 614
Q. 615
Q. 616
Q. 617
Q. 618
Q. 619
Q. 620