GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.
Navigating to a Question :
7. To answer a question, do the following:
a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
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c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
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and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.

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to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
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You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
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before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
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answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.
11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
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answering will be considered for evaluation.
Choosing a Section :
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in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
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select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will

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automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.
Changing the Optional Section :
18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
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questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
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20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.

GATE 2014 Examination

CH: Chemical Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes

Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
Declaration by the candidate:
I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.

GATE 2014

SET- 1

General Aptitude -GA

Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1

A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.
The word closest in meaning to comprehension is
(A) understanding

Q.2

(B) meaning

(C) concentration

(D) stability

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

Q.3

(B) virtues

(C) choices

(D) strength

20
14

(A) vice

Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.
Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajans request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

Q.4

If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0
(C) is parallel to the x-axis

A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?

AT

Q.5

(B) has a slope of +1

(D) has a slope of 1

Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6

Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(B) EPVZB

(C) ITZDF

(D) OYEIK

(A) ALRVX
Q.7

Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisals floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

GA

Anuj
6
2
4
2

Bhola
2
6
2
4

Chandan
5
5
6
6

Dilip
1
1
3
1

Eswar
3
3
1
3

Faisal
4
4
5
5

1/2

GATE 2014

SET- 1

General Aptitude -GA

Q.8

The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9

One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0

(C) 1.5

(D) 1.25

The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)

20
14

Q.10

(B) 2.5

AT

(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December

(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall

(A) (i) and (ii)

(C) (ii) and (iii)

GA

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

2/2

GATE 2014

CHEMICAL CH

Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1

Gradient of a scalar variable is always

(A) a vector

Q.2

(B) a scalar

(C) a dot product

(D) zero

For the time domain function f (t ) = t 2 , which ONE of the following is the Laplace transform of
t

f (t )dt ?
0

Q.3

3
s4

(B)

1
4s 2

(C)

f *( x) f ( x) dx is ALWAYS
a

(B) negative

(C) real

(D) imaginary

AT

If f ( x) is a real and continuous function of x, the Taylor series expansion of f ( x) about its
minima will NEVER have a term containing

(B) second derivative

(G

(A) first derivative

(C) third derivative

(D) any higher derivative

From the following list, identify the properties which are equal in both vapour and liquid phases at
equilibrium
Q. Temperature

R. Chemical potential

S. Enthalpy

P. Density

(A) P and Q only

CH

2
s4

(A) positive

Q.5

(D)

If f *( x) is the complex conjugate of=

f ( x) cos( x) + i sin( x) , then for real a and b,
b

Q.4

2
s3

20
14
)

(A)

(B) Q and R only

(C) R and S only

(D) P and S only

1/14

GATE 2014

Q.6

CHEMICAL CH

In a closed system, the isentropic expansion of an ideal gas with constant specific heats is
represented by
(A)

(B)

ln(P)

ln(P)

ln(V)

ln(V)

Match the following

Q.7

Group 2

ni T , P ,n ji

Q.

ni S ,V ,n ji

0
Greaction

exp

RT

(n d )

C
S.

CH

I. Arrhenius equation

(G

P.

AT

Group 1

R.

20
14
)

(D)

(C)

i T ,P

=0

II. Reaction equilibrium constant

III. Chemical potential

IV. Gibbs-Duhem equation

(A) QIII, RI, SII

(B) QIII, RII, SIV

(C) PIII, RII, SIV

(D) PIII, RIV, SI

2/14

GATE 2014

Q.8

CHEMICAL CH

In order to achieve the same conversion under identical reaction conditions and feed flow rate for a
non-autocatalytic reaction of positive order, the volume of an ideal CSTR is

(A) always greater than that of an ideal PFR

(B) always smaller than that of an ideal PFR
(C) same as that of an ideal PFR

Integral of the time-weighted absolute error (ITAE) is expressed as

(A)

Q.10

(t )
dt
t2

(B)

(t )
dt
t

(C)

t (t ) dt

(D)

(t ) dt

A unit IMPULSE response of a first order system with time constant and steady state gain K p is

(A)

1 et /
K p

AT

given by

(B)

K pet /

(C)

K p et /

(D)

Kp

et /

In a completely opaque medium, if 50% of the incident monochromatic radiation is absorbed, then
which of the following statements are CORRECT?

(G

Q.11

Q.9

20
14
)

(D) smaller than that of an ideal PFR only for first order reaction

P. 50% of the incident radiation is reflected

Q. 25% of the incident radiation is reflected

R. 25% of the incident radiation is transmitted

S. No incident radiation is transmitted

(A) P and S only

Q.12

(C) P and Q only

(D) R and S only

In case of a pressure driven laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid of viscosity () through a horizontal
circular pipe, the velocity of the fluid is proportional to

(A)

CH

(B) Q and R only

(B)

0.5

(C)

(D)

0.5

3/14

GATE 2014

Q.13

CHEMICAL CH

Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

P. For a rheopectic fluid, the apparent viscosity increases with time under a constant applied
shear stress
Q. For a pseudoplastic fluid, the apparent viscosity decreases with time under a constant applied
shear stress
R. For a Bingham plastic, the apparent viscosity increases exponentially with the deformation rate

(A) P and Q only

Q.14

(C) R and S only

(D) P and S only

Assume that an ordinary mercury-in-glass thermometer follows first order dynamics with a time
constant of 10 s. It is at a steady state temperature of 0 C. At time t = 0, the thermometer is
suddenly immersed in a constant temperature bath at 100 C. The time required (in s) for the
thermometer to read 95 C, approximately is
(B) 40

(C) 30

(D) 20

(A) 60

Packed towers are preferred for gas-liquid mass transfer operations with foaming liquids because

AT

Q.15

(B) Q and R only

20
14
)

S. For a dilatant fluid, the apparent viscosity increases with increasing deformation rate

(A) in packed towers, high liquid to gas ratios are best handled
(B) in packed towers, continuous contact of gas and liquid takes place

(G

(C) packed towers are packed with random packings

(D) in packed towers, the gas is not bubbled through the liquid pool

A spherical storage vessel is quarterfilled with toluene. The diameter of the vent at the top of the
vessel is 1/20th of the diameter of the vessel. Under the steady state condition, the diffusive flux of
toluene is maximum at

Q.16

(A) the surface of the liquid

(B) the mid-plane of the vessel
(C) the vent
(D) a distance 20 times the diameter of the vent away from the vent

CH

4/14

GATE 2014

Q.18

Q.19

Q.20

In order to produce fine solid particles between 5 and 10 m, the appropriate size reducing
equipment is
(A) fluid energy mill

(B) hammer mill

(C) jaw crusher

(D) smooth roll crusher

Slurries are most conveniently pumped by a

(A) syringe pump

(B) diaphragm pump

(C) vacuum pump

(D) gear pump

20
14
)

Q.17

CHEMICAL CH

Assuming the mass transfer coefficients in the gas and the liquid phases are comparable, the
absorption of CO2 from reformer gas (CO2+H2) into an aqueous solution of diethanolamine is
controlled by
(A) gas phase resistance

(B) liquid phase resistance

(C) both gas and liquid phase resistances

(D) composition of the reformer gas

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT for the surface renewal theory?

(A) Mass transfer takes place at steady state

(B) Mass transfer takes place at unsteady state

AT

(C) Contact time is same for all the liquid elements

(D) Mass transfer depends only on the film resistance

Steam economy of a multiple effect evaporator system is defined as

(G

Q.21

(A) kilogram of steam used per hour

(B) kilogram of steam consumed in all the effects for each kilogram of steam fed
(C) kilogram of steam used in all the effects for each kilogram of water vaporized per hour

(D) kilogram of water vaporized from all the effects for each kilogram of steam fed to the first

effect

Q.22

Decomposition efficiency (D) of an electrolytic cell used for producing NaOH is defined as

(A) D = (grams of NaOH produced / grams of NaCl decomposed) x 100

(B) D = (grams of NaOH produced / grams of NaCl charged) x 100
(C) D = (gram equivalents of NaOH produced / gram equivalents of NaCl charged) x 100
(D) D = (theoretical current to produce one gram equivalent / actual current to produce one gram
equivalent) x 100

CH

5/14

GATE 2014

Q.23

CHEMICAL CH

The vessel dispersion number for an ideal CSTR is

(A) 1

Q.24

(B) 0

(C) 1

(D)

Catalytic cracking is
(A) a hydrogen addition process

(C) an exothermic process

(D) a coking process

Q.25

20
14
)

(B) a carbon rejection process

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

(A) The major components of biodiesel are triglycerides
(B) Biodiesel is essentially a mixture of ethyl esters
(C) Biodiesel is highly aromatic

Consider the following differential equation

(G

Q.26

AT

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

(D) Biodiesel has a very low aniline point

dy
=
x + ln( y ) ; y =
2 at x =
0
dx

The solution of this equation at x = 0.4 using Euler method with a step size of h = 0.2
is___________

Q.27

The integrating factor for the differential equation

dy
y

=+
(1 x) is
dx 1 + x

(A)

CH

1
1+ x

(B) (1 + x)

(C) x(1 + x)

(D)

x
1+ x

6/14

GATE 2014

Q.28

CHEMICAL CH

d2y
dy
+ x2
+ x3 y =
e x is a
2
dx
dx

The differential equation

(A) non-linear differential equation of first degree

(B) linear differential equation of first degree
(C) linear differential equation of second degree
(D) non-linear differential equation of second degree

Q.29

Consider the following two normal distributions

f 2=
( x)
If and

20
14
)

f1 =
( x) exp( x 2 )
1
1 2

exp
( x + 2 x + 1)
2
4

denote the mean and standard deviation, respectively, then

2
2
(B) 1 < 2 and 1 > 2

2
2
(C) 1 > 2 and 1 < 2

2
2
(D) 1 > 2 and 1 > 2

2
2
(A) 1 < 2 and 1 < 2

In rolling of two fair dice, the outcome of an experiment is considered to be the sum of the numbers
appearing on the dice. The probability is highest for the outcome of ____________

Q.31

A spherical ball of benzoic acid (diameter = 1.5 cm) is submerged in a pool of still water. The
solubility and diffusivity of benzoic acid in water are 0.03 kmol/m3 and 1.25 x 10-9 m2/s
respectively. Sherwood number is given as Sh = 2.0 + 0.6 Re0.5Sc0.33. The initial rate of dissolution
(in kmol/s) of benzoic acid approximately is

(G

AT

Q.30

(B)

3.5410-12

(C)

3.5410-13

(D) 3.5410-14

(A) 3.5410-11

Q.32

CH

A wet solid of 100 kg is dried from a moisture content of 40 wt% to 10 wt%. The critical moisture
content is 15 wt% and the equilibrium moisture content is negligible. All moisture contents are on
dry basis. The falling rate is considered to be linear. It takes 5 hours to dry the material in the
constant rate period. The duration (in hours) of the falling rate period is ___________

7/14

GATE 2014

CHEMICAL CH

A brick wall of 20 cm thickness has thermal conductivity of 0.7 W m-1 K-1. An insulation of
thermal conductivity 0.2 W m-1 K-1 is to be applied on one side of the wall, so that the heat transfer
through the wall is reduced by 75%. The same temperature difference is maintained across the wall
before and after applying the insulation. The required thickness (in cm) of the insulation is
____________

Q.34

An oil with a flow rate of 1000 kg/h is to be cooled using water in a double-pipe counter-flow heat
exchanger from a temperature of 70 C to 40 C. Water enters the exchanger at 25 C and leaves at
40 C. The specific heats of oil and water are 2 kJ kg-1 K-1 and 4.2 kJ kg-1 K-1, respectively. The
overall heat transfer coefficient is 0.2 kW m-2 K-1. The minimum heat exchanger area (in m2)
required for this operation is ______________

Q.35

Which ONE of the following is CORRECT for an ideal gas in a closed system?

U
H
V = nR

V S
S P

A binary distillation column is operating with a mixed feed containing 20 mol% vapour. If the feed
quality is changed to 80 mol% vapour, the change in the slope of the q-line is ________________

(G

Q.36

H
U
P = nR

P S
S V

(D)

AT

(C)

H
H
nR
P=

P S
S P

(B)

U
U
V = nR

V S
S V

(A)

20
14
)

Q.33

Q.37 A homogeneous reaction ( R P ) occurs in a batch reactor. The conversion of the reactant R is

67% after 10 minutes and 80% after 20 minutes. The rate equation for this reaction is

k CR2
(B) rR =

k CR 3
(C) rR =

(D) rR =
k CR0.5

(A) rR =
k

CH

8/14

GATE 2014

Q.38

CHEMICAL CH

A vapour phase catalytic reaction

( Q + R S ) follows

Rideal mechanism (R and S are not

adsorbed). Initially, the mixture contains only the reactants in equimolar ratio. The surface reaction
step is rate controlling. With constants a and b, the initial rate of reaction ( ro ) in terms of total
pressure ( PT ) is given by

aPT
1 + bPT

(B) ro =

aPT2
1 + bPT

(D) ro =

aPT
1 + bPT2

(A) ro =

aPT2
(1 + bPT ) 2

Q.39

20
14
)

(C) ro =

An incompressible fluid is flowing through a contraction section of length L and has a 1-D (x-

direction) steady state velocity distribution,=

u u0 1 +

2x
. If u0 = 2 m/s and L = 3 m, the
L

convective acceleration (in m/s2) of the fluid at L is _____________

Group 1

Match the following

AT

Q.40

Group 2

Tank in series model

I.

Non-isothermal reaction

Q.

Liquid-liquid extraction

II.

Mixer-settler

R.

Optimum temperature progression

III.

PFR with axial mixing

S.

Thiele modulus

IV.

Solid catalyzed reaction

(G

P.

(A) PII, QIV, RI, SIII

(D) PIII, QII, RI, SIV

(C) PIII, QI, RII, SIV

(B) PI, QII, RIII, SIV

Q.41

CH

Two elemental gases (A and B) are reacting to form a liquid (C) in a steady state process as per the
reaction A + B C . The single-pass conversion of the reaction is only 20% and hence recycle is
used. The product is separated completely in pure form. The fresh feed has 49 mol% of A and B
each along with 2 mol% impurities. The maximum allowable impurities in the recycle stream is 20
mol%. The amount of purge stream (in moles) per 100 moles of the fresh feed is ___________

9/14

GATE 2014

Q.42

CHEMICAL CH

Carbon monoxide (CO) is burnt in presence of 200% excess pure oxygen and the flame temperature
achieved is 2298 K. The inlet streams are at 25 C. The standard heat of formation (at 25 C) of CO
and CO2 are 110 kJ mol-1 and 390 kJ mol-1, respectively. The heat capacities (in J mol-1 K-1) of
the components are

C pO = 25 + 14 103 T
2

C pCO = 25 + 42 103 T
2

20
14
)

where, T is the temperature in K. The heat loss (in kJ) per mole of CO burnt is_____________

A cash flow of Rs. 12,000 per year is received at the end of each year (uniform periodic payment)
for 7 consecutive years. The rate of interest is 9% per year compounded annually. The present
worth (in Rs.) of such cash flow at time zero is __________

Q.44

A polymer plant with a production capacity of 10,000 tons per year has an overall yield of 70%, on
mass basis (kg of product per kg of raw material). The raw material costs Rs. 50,000 per ton. A
process modification is proposed to increase the overall yield to 75% with an investment of Rs. 12.5
crore. In how many years can the invested amount be recovered with the additional profit?
___________

Q.45

A step change of magnitude 2 is introduced into a system having the following transfer function

AT

Q.43

(G

G (s) =

2
s + 2s + 4
2

The percent overshoot is ____________

CH

10/14

GATE 2014

Given below is a simplified block diagram of a feedforward control system.

The transfer function of the process is G p =

Gd =

(A)

5
and the disturbance transfer function is
s +1

20
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)

Q.46

CHEMICAL CH

1
. The transfer function of the PERFECT feedforward controller, G f ( s ) is
s + 2s + 1
2

5
( s + 1)3

(B)

5
( s + 1)

(C)

1
5( s + 1)

(D) 5( s + 1)

The bottom face of a horizontal slab of thickness 6 mm is maintained at 300 C. The top face is
exposed to a flowing gas at 30 C. The thermal conductivity of the slab is 1.5 W m-1 K-1 and the
convective heat transfer coefficient is 30 W m-2 K-1. At steady state, the temperature (in C) of the
top face is __________

Q.48

In a steady incompressible flow, the velocity distribution is given by V = 3 xi Pyj + 5 zk , where,

AT

Q.47

Match the following

Group 1
Turbulence
NPSH
Ergun equation
Rotameter
Power number

Q.49

(G

V is in m/s and x, y, and z are in m. In order to satisfy the mass conservation, the value of the
constant P (in s-1) is __________

P.
Q.
R.
S.
T.

CH

I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.

Group 2
Reciprocating pump
Packed bed
Fluctuating velocity
Impeller
Vena contracta

(A) PIII, RII, TIV

(B) QV, RII, SIII

(C) PIII, RIV, TII

(D) QIII, SV, TIV

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GATE 2014

CHEMICAL CH

Q.50

In a steady and incompressible flow of a fluid (density = 1.25 kg m-3), the difference between
stagnation and static pressures at the same location in the flow is 30 mm of mercury (density =
13600 kg m-3). Considering gravitational acceleration as 10 m s-2, the fluid speed (in m s-1) is
______________

Q.51

Consider a binary liquid mixture at equilibrium with its vapour at 25 C.

B
where t is in C and p in Torr.
t +C

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)

sat
Antoine equation for this system is given as log10 pi = A

The Antoine constants (A, B, and C) for the system are given in the following table.
Component
1
2

A
7.0
6.5

B
1210
1206

C
230
223

The vapour phase is assumed to be ideal and the activity coefficients ( i ) for the non-ideal liquid
phase are given by

ln(=
1 ) x22 [2 0.6 x1 ]

ln(
=
2 ) x12 [1.7 + 0.6 x2 ]

A process with transfer function, G p =

(G

Q.52

AT

If the mole fraction of component 1 in liquid phase (x1) is 0.11, then the mole fraction of
component 1 in vapour phase (y1) is ___________

2
is to be controlled by a feedback proportional
s 1

controller with a gain Kc. If the transfer functions of all other elements in the control loop are unity,

then which ONE of the following conditions produces a stable closed loop response?

(A) K c = 0.25

CH

(B) 0 < K c < 0.25

(C) 0.25 < K c < 0.5

(D) K c > 0.5

12/14

GATE 2014

Consider the following block diagram for a closed-loop feedback control system

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Q.53

CHEMICAL CH

A proportional controller is being used with K c = 4 . If a step change in disturbance of

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r].

AT

Q.54

magnitude 2 affects the system, then the value of the offset is ____________

Assertion: Significant combustion of coke takes place only if it is heated at higher temperature in
presence of air.
Reason: C + O 2 CO 2 is an exothermic reaction.

(G

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) [a] is correct but [r] is false

(D) Both [a] and [r] are false

CH

13/14

GATE 2014

Q.55

CHEMICAL CH

Match the raw materials of Groups 1 and 2 with the final products of Group 3
Group 1

Group 2
Q1: Ammonia
Q2: 1-Butene
Q3: Ethylene glycol
Q4: Hexamethylene diamine

R1: Synthetic fibre

R2: Nylon 66
R3: LLDPE
R4: Acrylonitrile

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P1: Ethylene
P2: Propylene
P3: Adipic acid
P4: Terephthalic acid

Group 3

(A) P1+Q2R3; P2+Q1R4; P3+Q4R2; P4+Q3R1

(B) P1+Q1R3; P2+Q3R1; P3+Q4R4; P4+Q2R2

(C) P1+Q2R2; P2+Q3R1; P3+Q4R3; P4+Q1R4
(D) P1+Q1R4; P2+Q2R3; P3+Q4R2; P4+Q3R1

(G

AT

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

CH

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