200 PMP Practice Questions
200 PMP Practice Questions
200 PMP Practice Questions
200Questions
94Correct Answers
47%Correct Answers
1. A typical title for a Project Manager in a weak matrix structure is:
Project Coordinator
Project Manager
Project Leader
Program Manager
Explanation:
Answer (a) Project Coordinator. Project Manager in a weak matrix organization typically
performs the coordination role.
of view
Explanation:
Answer (b) A product can spawn a single project in its life. Product lifecycle management
(PLM) is the process of managing the entire lifecycle of a product from its conception,
through design and manufacture, to service and disposal. PLM integrates people, data,
processes, and business systems to provide a product information backbone for companies.
The five stages of each product lifecycle are product development, introduction, growth,
maturity, and decline. A product can spawn or require many projects over its life.
Explanation:
Answer (a) The charter is important because it formally authorizes a project. The Project
Manager must do whatever she can to get the charter issued.
organization
Portfolio Manager
Project Manager
Stakeholder
Explanation:
Answer (b) Portfolio Manager. Portfolio refers to a collection of projects or programs grouped
together to facilitate effective management to meet strategic business objectives and the
person managing it is called a portfolio Manager. Portfolio management describes methods
for analyzing and collectively managing a group of current or proposed projects based on
numerous key characteristics like business objectives, technical strategy goal etc.
Project Charter
Explanation:
Answer (b) The Project sponsor is in the develop project charter process, in project
integration management and using statement of work to understand the product
requirements and descriptions. The output of this process is a project charter, which once
approved formally initiates the project. A project charter documents high-level project
descriptions and business needs of the project, along with a current understanding of the
customer's needs, risks, name of the sponsor, and so on.
stakeholders
Explanation:
Answer (d) Giving extras to stakeholders to win them over amounts to gold plating or (even
worse) unethical practices, so it is not recommended.
Explanation:
Answer (b) The entire project team is usually not available during initiation, therefore this is
the likely answer.
Sponsor and project manager together are developing the project charter
Explanation:
Answer (b). As per the new examination content outline, project manager will not develop the
project charter. He will participate in developing the project charter.
10. Harry has been assigned the flyover construction project and he is in
the process of initiating the project. In order to meet the customer's
project expectations, based on the business and compliance
requirements, which of the following should Harry define FIRST?
Key deliverables
Project schedule
Explanation:
Answer (a) According to PMI's classification, the Project Manager should define the Key
deliverables of the project based on the business and compliance requirements in order to
meet the customer's project expectations.
Project Charter
Expert Judgment
Explanation:
Answer (c) Expert judgment is a tool and technique for the 'identify stakeholders' process
and is not an input.
12. One phase is planned at any given time and the planning for the
next is carried out as work progresses on the current phase and
deliverables. Which of the following correctly defines the above text?
Overlapping relationship
Sequential relationship
Multi-phase relationship
Iterative relationship
Explanation:
Answer (d) An iterative relationship is where one phase is planned at any given time and the
planning for the next is carried out as work progresses on the current phase or deliverable.
The project has the highest probability of project success during the Initiating
process group
process group
Initiating process group includes the develop project charter and identify
stakeholders process
Explanation:
Answer (d) Initiating process group includes the develop project charter and identify
stakeholders process. Option(a) specifies the risk involvement, option(b) specifies probability
of success.
14. Which of the following is NOT true about the project charter?
It provides the Project Manager the authority to assign organization
resources
It states what the project is, what the project will deliver, and how all the
Project lifecycle
Feedback loop
Product development
Explanation:
Answer (a) Product lifecycle consists of generally sequential, non-overlapping product
phases determined by the manufacturing and control need of the organization. For more
details on product lifecycle, refer to PMBOK 5th edition PN 38.
The specific project will not influence the constraints on which the Project
17. A Project Manager has defined the key deliverables of the project
based on the business and compliance requirements. He is now
identifying and documenting high-level risks, assumptions and
constraints based on current environment, historical data and/or expert
judgment, in order to identify project limitations and propose an
implementation approach. Which process group is he in?
Initiating
Planning
Executing
Closing
Explanation:
Answer (a) It is during the initiating process group that we identify and document high-level
risks, assumptions, and constraints in order to identify project limitations and thereafter
propose an implementation approach.
18. All of the following are functions of the 'project management office'
except,
Monitoring compliance with project management standards policies,
Explanation:
Answer (b) Ability to influence the final characteristics of the product without impacting the
cost is highest at the start. Cost and staffing levels are low at the start. Uncertainty is
greatest at the start of the project. Stakeholder influences are greatest at the start of the
project and decrease over the life of the project.
20. Your development team is waiting for the design team to finish their
work. As a Project Manager, you have decided to use this approach to
reduce uncertainty in the project. Which of the following relationships
does this describe?
Iterative relationship
Sequential relationship
Overlapping relationship
Common relationship
Explanation:
Answer (b) Sequential relationship. A sequential relationship is the stage where a phase can
only start once the previous phase is complete. The step-by-step nature of the approach
reduces uncertainty but may eliminate options for reducing the schedule.
Stakeholders can not exert influence over the project, its deliverables, or
the stakeholders
Explanation:
Answer (b) This statement is wrong as stakeholders can exert influence over the project, its
deliverables, and team members.
22. You are developing the project charter for the new project assigned
to you. Which of the following is NOT part of the enterprise
environmental factors?
Lessons learned from previous projects
Explanation:
Answer (a) Lessons learned are part of the organizational process assets.
23. You are being hired to manage a highway construction project for a
contractor working for XYZ. The sponsor is a project officer who works
for the XYZ municipal government. You have three separate teams
working all three shifts, with a separate manager for each team. Each
team has members from two different unions, and each union has its
own representative. Who is the BEST person to approve the project
charter?
Project Manager
Union representatives
Team Managers
Explanation:
Answer (c) Project Officer who works for XYZ. Since this person is the sponsor, he is
responsible for approving and signing the charter.
24. Two members of a team are disagreeing about the right electric
parameters for testing a newly designed chipset. Who is in the best
position to help resolve this issue?
Project Manager
Project Sponsor
Functional Manager
Customer
Explanation:
Answer (c) The issue requires functional expertise and hence the functional Managers are
best able to assist in this matter.
Explanation:
Answer (d) These are parts of the corporate knowledge base in organizational process
assets. The others are examples of enterprise and environmental factors. It refers to both
internal and external environmental factors that surround or influence project success either
positively or negatively. To go through a list of examples for enterprise and environmental
factors refer to PMBOK 5th edition Introduction PN 28.
26. A hospital is installing a new management system to computerize
the hospital functions. For this purpose, representatives from several
departments are selected to create a task force assigned to implement
the project. This organization structure is called?
Functional Organization
Projectized Organization
Composite Organization
Explanation:
Answer (c) Many times even a fundamentally functional organization may create a special
project team to handle a critical project. This may have many characteristics of a project team
in a projectized organization. The team may include full-time staff from different functional
departments, may develop its own set of operating procedures, and may operate outside the
standard, formalized reporting structure.
Planning
Execution
28. A Project Manager and his team have finished creating the Work
Breakdown Structure (WBS) and Work Breakdown Structure dictionary.
Afterwards, he prepares a detailed and itemized documentation of all of
the schedule activities that are part of the project. What should he do
NEXT ?
Create Network Diagram for the project
Explanation:
Answer (a) The Project Manager has created a WBS, a WBS dictionary, and an activity list in
the planning stage. The next step would be to create a network diagram for the project.
Quality standards and metrics can be identified once project schedule and budget are
determined. Option C, is done as part of project initiation and is completed much earlier.
Option D, is done in the executing stage of the project.
Customer
Explanation:
Answer (c) Since nothing is given about the organization structure, we have to assume that it
is a matrix or functional organization, where the resources are owned by the functional
Managers and they would provide and identify these resources.
Leader
Communicator
Differentiator
Explanation:
Answer (a) The role of a Project Manager is the combination of all the above options, but the
one that is most critical to the project's success is that of an Integrator. As described in the
question, a Project Manager is expected to integrate the project management processes and
coordinate the process phases through the project management cycle to ensure that all
areas of the project come together to successfully deliver the project. Integration involves
pulling together all aspects of project management including scope, cost, schedule, quality,
and communication in addition to working with other departments such as Legal, Human
Resources, Training, Contract Administration, and Information Technology.
31. A key stakeholder from the quality department wants to know more
on how the process tailoring was done by the project team. Additionally,
he would like to know the rational for selecting processes, their
implementation level details, and how they will be used to manage the
interdependencies. Which document should the Project Manager refer
him to?
Project Statement of Work
Explanation:
Answer (c) The results of process tailoring by the project team are captured in the project
management plan, along with all the other information required by the stakeholder.
32. A Project Manager has invited key stakeholders and team members
for the first meeting of the project. The agenda of the meeting is to
announce the start of the project, outline the project goals and
objectives, as well as communicate the project success criteria. The
Project Manager also plans to discuss the individual roles and
responsibilities, along with the commitment of the stakeholders. What is
this activity called?
Project Sign- off meeting
Explanation:
Answer (d) The kick off meeting which is done in the beginning of the project and then before
starting each new project phase has four main objectives: a) Publicly state the beginning of
the project; b) Outline the project goals as well as the individual roles and responsibilities of
team members; c) Clarify the expectations of all parties; d) Create a commitment by all those
who influence the project's outcome.
33. You are a Project Manager of a highly visible and critical project in
your company. This project was initiated with much fanfare and you have
some of the best technical experts as a part of the project team. You are
in process planning and detailing the scope of the project when you
hear the project is being terminated. What could be the MOST likely
cause?
Senior management didn't approve the project charter
Explanation:
Answer (c) The answer to this question can be reached by process of elimination. Since the
project is already initiated and is in the planning stage Option A, and (d) can't be true. There
is no evidence to believe Option B, and the most probable explanation could be failure to
support project by sponsor. The term sponsor, by definition, suggests a financial
responsibility. This sponsor is thought to 'own' the project and is considered responsible for
ensuring its success. He/she is also typically the one who proposes the project in the first
place; whose business unit reaps its benefits.
34. You are working on a project to build a hybrid car which would run
on both diesel, as well as electricity. This car would have a 1000 cc
engine and work on a regenerative braking system. It should be able to
seat four passengers including a driver and comply with Euro 4
emission norms. This information should be captured in which of the
following documents?
Product Scope
Project Scope
Scope baseline
Explanation:
Answer (a) If you got confused with project scope, remember that the above statements
describe the features, functions, and requirements which are part of defining product scope.
To differentiate project scope from product scope read through the definition of each. Product
scope: the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result. Project
scope: the work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result with
the specified features and functions. The product scope describes the thing or service that
will exist as a result of your project. The project scope, on the other hand, describes all of the
work to create the product scope. It includes all of the work, and only the required work, to
complete the project deliverable. Note: completion of project scope is measured against the
project management plan, project scope statement and its associated Work Breakdown
Structure (WBS ), WBS dictionary, and scope baseline. Completion of product scope is
measured against product features or requirements.
Requirements Documentation
Issue Log
Explanation:
Answer (c) The Project Manager is in the process of 'collect requirements' which has the
output - requirements documentation. This document describes how individual requirements
meet the business need for the project. It is important that the requirements documented are
unambiguous (measurable and testable), traceable, and acceptable to key stakeholders.
Option A, stakeholder register is only a list of stakeholders in the project, whereas Option B,
stakeholder management strategy describes the strategy to manage stakeholder
expectations. Option D, issue log is a document to capture project issues.
productivity
Conduct knowledge sessions where each member appraise the team about
his culture
Explanation:
Answer (b) Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and WBS dictionary with the team. The
Project Manager wants the team to take ownership, as well as understand how their
individual project activities affect the overall project deliverable (the big picture). He also
wants the team to develop bonding. All these objectives are met when the team gets involved
in creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and WBS dictionary. Option A, may not be
always possible due to physical constraints in the project. Option D, has limited utility but
Option B, is the best choice as it fulfills multiple project objectives.
37. You are a Project Manager working on a critical project. You track
the project schedule closely. While going through the critical path, you
realize that the project is showing negative float. What is your BEST
response to the situation?
Use a schedule compression technique
Explanation:
Answer (a) The best option is to compress the project schedule because the critical path
activities can be delayed thus resulting in a negative float. In this case, the Project Manager
should use a schedule compression technique such as fast tracking or crashing.
Use this approved schedule duration as a baseline and start tracking the
project
methods
Explanation:
Answer (c) Use this approved schedule as a baseline and start tracking the project. The
Project Manager is in the process 'develop schedule'. Since he has already derived an
approved project schedule, it implies Option A,,(b) and (d) are already completed as part of
the processes estimate activity resources, develop schedule, and sequence activities. The
next step would be to treat this estimate as a schedule baseline and start tracking the project
as part of the process 'control schedule'.
39. As a Project Manager you are estimating the duration of your project
activities using PERT technique (Program Evaluation and Review
technique). For a particular project activity, your optimistic estimate is 41
days, pessimistic estimate is 89 days and most Likely estimate is 60
days. What would be the expected duration and range of the estimate
for this activity?
61.67 +/- 8.00
31.27 +/-8.00
61.67 +/-3.00
31.27 +/-3.00
Explanation:
Answer (a) 61.67 +/- 8.00 PERT allows the estimator to include three estimates: optimistic,
pessimistic, and most likely, given by the equation: Expected Duration = [P + 4(ML) + O]/6
and range is +/- standard deviation = (P-O)/6, where P is the pessimistic estimate, ML is the
most likely estimate, and O is the optimistic estimate. Using this method the correct answers
comes out to be 61.67 days and Range (+/-Standard Deviation) as 8.00.
40. A project activity has the following values for the earliest and latest it
can start and earliest and latest it can be completed. An activity's Late
Start (LS) is 5/day and Late Finish is (LF) 10/day. Similarly Early Start
(ES) is 3/day and Early finish (EF) is 8/day. What is the float of this
activity?
0 days
4 days
2 days
-3 days
Explanation:
Answer (c) Float for an activity can be calculated using any of the two formula (i.e. Float =
LS-ES or LF-EF). In this case, float = 5-3 or 10- 8 or 2 days. Remember, float or slack is the
amount of time a task in a project network can be delayed without causing a delay to
subsequent tasks (free float) or the project completion date (total float).
41. An activity cannot be started until the predecessor also starts. This
is an example of:
Finish-to-Start
Finish-to-Finish
Start-to-Start
Start-to-Finish
Explanation:
Answer (c) This is an example of a start-to-start dependency. It means that B can't start
before A starts or in another words Activity B can start after Activity A has started.
Explanation:
Answer (d) Communications management plan contains details of how the communication
needs of the project's stakeholders will be met.
Templates
Extreme Programming
Just in Time
Explanation:
Answer (a) Rolling wave planning is a form of progressive elaboration where work to be
accomplished in the near term is planned in detail and future work is planned at a higher
level of the Work Breakdown Structure. Therefore, work can exist at various levels of detail
depending on where it is in the project lifecycle. As more information is known about
upcoming events, the higher level work packages can be decomposed further. Option B,
templates which are usually standardized would not be a very helpful tool for evolving
requirements. Option C, and (d) are not recognized tools and techniques of project time
management.
44. The optimistic time estimate for an activity is 11 days; pessimistic is
25 days and most likely is 15 days. What is the expected time for this
activity?
16 days
15 days
21 days
18 days
Explanation:
Answer (a) Expected time = (O + 4M + P)/6 = 16
Explanation:
Answer (c) The formula for variance = [( Pessimistic-Optimistic)/6]squared. The answer is 4.
dependencies
Explanation:
Answer (b) Critical path activities do not have any float. If any activity on the critical path is
delayed, the completion of the project will be delayed by an equal amount. To determine the
critical path, we have to add the amount of time estimated for the duration of each activity to
the previous activity.
47. You are a Project Manager and in the early phase of estimating the
cost of the project. You use the analogous method of estimating and
have come up with the rough order of magnitude. While presenting it to
your sponsor and stakeholders, one of the stakeholders asks if you have
also done lifecycle costing for the project. What is your BEST response?
Project Cost estimating is primarily concerned with cost of the resources
needed to complete the project and needn't consider any other costs
Since it is the initial stage of the project cost details required for lifecycle
costing of the project are not available and hence it is not relevant
Lifecycle costing provides the lowest long- term cost of ownership and
48. As a Project Manager you are working with your team to explore
alternatives to decrease project cost without compromising on
performance or scope of the project. You are most probably using which
of the following techniques?
Benchmarking
Reverse Engineering
Process Analysis
Value Analysis
Explanation:
Answer (d) Value analysis is also referred to as 'value management' or 'value methodology'
(VM), and 'value analysis' (VA). It requires the systematic approach to identify project
functions and assign values to those functions to get the functions at lowest overall cost
without loss of performance.
49. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Determine
budget process?
Monte Carlo analysis
Delphi technique
Parametric estimation
Explanation:
Answer (c) Funding limit reconciliation is one of the techniques used in the Determine budget
process. See Page 208 of the PMBOK 5th edition.
50. Which of the following are the MOST important to derive the total
funding requirements and periodic funding requirements of the project?
Management Reserve and Contingency Reserve
Explanation:
Answer (b) The total funds required in the project are those included in cost baseline, plus
management reserve if any. Remember, the cost baseline includes contingency reserves
because the cost baseline will include projected expenditures plus anticipated liabilities.
Please refer to PMBOK 5th edition Project Cost Management PN 206 for more details.
51. As a Project Manager for the project in the planning stage, you have
derived the cost estimates by estimating the cost of individual work
packages. It is summarized to higher levels for reporting and tracking.
What would be the range of estimates from the actual?
-50 percent to +100 percent
Explanation:
Answer (d) This is the definitive range derived during the latter part of the project when
project information is available in sufficient detail. The estimates could become more refined
to a range of -5 percent to +10 percent from the actual. This estimate is usually derived using
the bottoms up estimation technique.
52. You are a Project Manager planning to launch a new product in the
market. For this purpose, you are analyzing the existing products in the
market to understand their best practices. You also compare industry
standards for performance metrics including cost, cycle time,
productivity, and quality to come up with your own product metrics. You
are doing which of the following activities?
Cost Benefit Analysis
Value Engineering
Benchmarking
Process Analysis
Explanation:
Answer (c) Benchmarking is a management tool through which a plan for evaluation,
measurement, and improvement is implemented. It is the process of comparing the business
processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, and/or quality to
another that is widely considered to be an industry standard benchmark or best practice. The
objective of Benchmarking is: (1) to determine what and where improvements are called for;
(2) how other firms achieve their high performance levels; (3) use this information to improve
the firm's performance. Option D, process analysis is a tool and technique of the quality
assurance process which involves following steps in the quality improvement plan to identify
needed improvements. Please refer PMBOK 5th edition Project Quality Management PN 239
for more details.
53. A Project Manager has derived quality metrics along with tolerance
limits for his project. He is in which part of the quality management
knowledge area?
Plan Quality Management
Perform Quality Assurance
Define Scope
Explanation:
Answer (a) Quality metrics are determined as an output to the process plan quality, along
with tolerance limits for each of them. A metric would give the actual value or the
measurement of a project or product attribute, whereas a tolerance defines the allowable
variations on the metrics. The selection of these metrics in a project would heavily depend on
the type of the project and the objective of collecting the metrics.
Explanation:
Answer (c) While Option B, describes how the project management team will implement the
quality policy of their organization; the process improvement plan is more focused on
enhancing the value of the process in a project. It includes determining process boundaries,
process metrics, targets for improved performances, etc. Please refer PMBOK 5th edition
Project Quality Management PN 241 for more details.
55. In order to determine the target fuel efficiency for a hybrid car being
designed, a Project Manager is looking at published statistics for similar
models in the industry. The technique being used is called:
Brainstorming
Benchmarking
Statistical sampling
Design of Experiments
Explanation:
Answer (b) What the Project Manager is trying to do is essentially look at the industry
benchmark and make sure that the product is in line with it. This is the benchmarking
technique.
Appraisal cost
Cost of training
Explanation:
Answer (c) Internal failure cost (including failure found by the project internally like rework
and scrap) are not part of the cost of conformance. All the failure costs (including external
failure costs) are referred to as the cost of poor quality. Remember, the cost of conformance
denotes the money spent during the project to avoid failures. Please refer PMBOK 5th edition
Project Quality Management PN 235 for more details.
Resource Leveling
Schedule Compression
Explanation:
Answer (c) Resource leveling is required whenever individual bars in the Resource
Histogram extend beyond the maximum allowed hours. Resource leveling can be done by
either adding more resources or modifying the schedule. Option A, Reducing scope or (b)
extending working hours would be detrimental to the project's success and is not
recommended here. Option D, schedule compression which can be done through either
crashing or fast tracking wouldn't necessarily be helpful. Since specific bars are showing an
overflow, it can be best tackled using resource leveling.
Safety
Physiological
Hygiene Factors
Explanation:
Answer (a) According to Maslow, there are five levels of human needs from bottom to top.
They are: physiological, safety, social, esteem, self-actualization. Option D, Hygiene factors
are part of Herzberg's theory.
The key person responsible for communicating the information on the project
The milestone meeting should be attended by all the major key stakeholders
The project has teams working in different geographical locations and time
shifts
Explanation:
Answer (b) The key person responsible for communicating information on the project may not
be available through the entire project. A communication constraint is usually derived from
specific legislation or regulation (Option A), organizational policies (Option C), or a project
constraint (Option D) which limits the project's options during communication management.
However, (Option B) is an uncertain event or risk in the project which needs to be addressed
through risk management.
Risk Neutral
Risk Mitigator
Explanation:
Answer (b) Someone who doesn't want to take risks is called risk averse and the Project
Manager seems to be part of such an organization. Option C, risk neutral describes a
person/or an organization which is indifferent to the risk and Option A, risk seeker suggests
an aptitude to take risks with an opportunity for higher returns. Option D, risk mitigation is a
risk response strategy and is an invalid choice.
61. Which of the following is NOT a tool used in the perform qualitative
risk analysis process?
Probability and Impact Matrix
Risk Prioritization
Explanation:
Answer (c) Monte Carlo Simulations are typically associated with the quantitative risk
analysis process. It generates the output as a range instead of a fixed value and shows how
likely the output value is to occur in the range.
curing
Test lab preparation can start 5 days before the product is made available for
test
Both test planning and product development can start simultaneously after
design is finalized
Crash tests cannot be carried out until a working final model is made
available
Explanation:
Answer (b) Lead means that the successor activity can start in advance of the predecessor
activity.
Parametric Estimating
Explanation:
Answer (b) Parametric estimating is an estimation technique which utilizes the statistical
relationship that exists between a series of historical data and a particular delineated list of
other variables. Some examples of these variables include square footage in a construction
project, the number of lines or code that exist in a software application, and other similar
variables. This information is then implemented for the purpose of calculating and
demonstrating an estimate for the activity parameters.
64. In which form of contract will the cost risk lie with the seller?
CPIF
T and M
CPAF
FP
Explanation:
Answer (d) Cost risk lies with the seller in a Fixed price contract.
Explanation:
Answer (b) A RFP requests for a detailed proposal.
Execution
Explanation:
Answer (c) The executing process group involves coordinating people and resources, as well
as integrating and performing the activities of the project in accordance with the project
management plan.
Explanation:
Answer (b) As a team member, you need to respond to the request - even if you do not
personally agree with it. Since you have already tried to reason with the Project Manager,
option-C is also not appropriate.
68. A Project Manager realizes that a lot of time and effort is spent by
his team in capturing the data during product testing. The best option to
address the issue is?
To stop capturing the data as it doesn't add any value to the project activity
Allocate a time at the end of the day to update all the data together
Explanation:
Answer (d) The best alternative is the one which eliminates the root cause of the problem
and prevents subsequent changes. Here the main problem is the inefficient use of time and
effort of team members in capturing the data. The best way to address this is to automate the
process thus reducing both time and effort. Option B, could result in incorrect and incomplete
data because it's not recorded at the time of capturing. Whereas Option A and Option C,
suggest the Project Manager evade the responsibility of producing valid project data.
Find a replacement for the senior tester and ensure he completes knowledge
performance
Notify the customer about probable delay in the final deliverable to avoid
surprise later
Explanation:
Answer (a) Ensure product is compliant to government health standards. This question
exemplifies a typical scenario when a Project Manager needs to integrate information and
prioritize the most critical issue. In this scenario, Option C, is part of gold plating and is not
actually required in the project. Option B, can pose some trouble to the Project Manager. The
question doesn't clearly establish whether the resource is leaving before or after the final
delivery. There is no indication that his absence would adversely affect the project delivery. In
this situation, the most important thing to focus on should be the compliance testing because
it is a mandatory requirement on the project.
70. You are a Project Manager taking over a project midway. It is in the
execution phase. You would like to know more about project
deliverables, work required to complete those deliverables, project
constraints, assumptions, etc. Which of the following documents would
be MOST useful?
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS
Requirements Documentation
Activity List
Explanation:
Answer (d) The Project Manager should refer to the project scope statement as it captures all
of the details related to the project scope including product acceptance criteria, scope
description, project deliverables, constraints, assumptions, etc. Option A, and Option C,
define project scope at the smaller work package and activity level respectively. Option B,
Requirements Documentation captures requirements of the project related to quality,
functional and non-functional requirements, support requirements, etc. and is an incorrect.
71. Which of the following is an output of the Direct and Manage project
work process?
Project Charter updates
Work performance information
Change requests
Explanation:
Answer (d) Change request is one of the outputs of this process.
Escalate the matter to the senior management of the contractor as per the
escalation matrix
Issue a formal show-cause notice asking why the contract should not be
submitted
Inform the senior management and customer about the possibility of delay to
73. You are managing an e- banking solution project when the Vice-
President of the company calls you to discuss an opportunity to manage
a critical company project which can boost your career and professional
experience. Your e-banking solution project is due to complete in 3
weeks. What is your best response to the Vice-President?
You would surely like to manage both the projects together as the latter is a
You would use a compression technique to finish your current project faster
Since the new project is more critical to the organization, you could take this
project immediately and your earlier project can be managed by someone else. It
is coming to a close anyway.
The project should first develop an approved project charter which would
74. You are managing a large project team that has some new members
joining. You would like to take the entire team through the project
schedule and update them on where the project stands with respect to
the original plan. Which of the following charts would be most helpful for
this purpose?
Gantt Chart
Milestone Chart
Schedule Baseline
Explanation:
Answer (a) A Gantt chart is a bar chart that shows the activities of a project, when each must
take place, and how long each will take. As the project progresses, bars are shaded to show
which activities have been completed. People assigned to each task also can be
represented. This is the most effective tool to show the people assigned to the project where
they are with respect to the original plan.
Depreciation
Sunk Costs
Explanation:
Answer (a) Opportunity cost is the cost of the opportunity that was foregone in choosing a
different option.
76. You are a Project Manager for an IT company in the final phases of
project execution. Your project status is well within the budget and you
are almost a week ahead of your schedule. During the final testing
phase of the project, you realize that the performance of the product can
be increased by almost 20% of the expected value by doing minor code
changes in two modules. This change would require an additional 2
days of work. What should you do NEXT?
Analyze the various alternatives and do a detailed impact analysis before
for consideration
Discuss the change and impact with customer and seek his approval
Explanation:
Answer (d) Ignore the change as it is gold plating and should be avoided. This is an example
of gold plating because this requirement is not actually part of the contract. Such additions
are usually based on a perceived notion of what the customer would like rather than a
specific requirement from the customer. Gold plating is defined in simple words as adding
more to the system than is specified in the requirements. Gold plating can increase operation
and maintenance costs, as well as reduce quality.
77. A Project Manager is going through the defect report reviewing the
bugs reported during the testing cycle of a software project. The report
has information on the severity of the bug, origin of the bug, possible
resolutions, along with the owner and reporter of the bug. The Project
Manager wants to prioritize the bug fixing activities by evaluating the top
three most frequent reasons for the defects. Which of the following tools
should he use?
Control chart
Fishbone diagram
Scatter diagram
Pareto chart
Explanation:
Answer (d) Pareto charts works on the Pareto principal which states 80% of the problems
usually stem from 20% of the causes. Pareto charts can be used for defect analysis by
arranging defects data so that the few vital factors that are causing most of the problems
reveal themselves. Concentrating improvement efforts on these few will have a greater
impact and be more cost-effective than undirected efforts.
78. A team is complaining that every quality audit invariable audits their
module, but other modules are not audited at the same frequency. What
is the best explanation that can be provided?
A module gets audited more frequently because it has maximum issues
Next time, we shall make sure that all modules get audited at the same
frequency
Explanation:
Answer (c) The logic for selecting modules for audit should be outlined in the quality
management plan and should be followed.
board
Analyze the impact of the change on project quality objectives and quality
planning
Update the project management plans and other project documents
Statistical Sampling
Audit
Verification
Explanation:
Answer (a) Inspection is the examination of work or a product to determine whether it
conforms to documented standards. It is also called peer reviews, reviews audits, or
walkthroughs. Inspection can be done at any level in the project and can also be used to
validate defect repairs.
Explanation:
Answer (c) Team building is an ongoing activity and these activities must be planned
throughout the project.
82. You are managing one of the most technically challenging and
complex projects for your company. In the beginning of the project, there
used to be heated arguments on the team regarding the best approach
to solving a problem. However, the project is well into the execution
stage and the team has finished designing the architecture of the
product. They seem to have developed a good understanding of the
system. What is the most appropriate way to handle project conflicts at
this stage?
You should continue to determine the best solution and ask team to
implement it
You should let the team explore the best alternatives amongst themselves
You should invite ideas from everyone in the team to arrive at the best
solution
You should make the decision based on consensus from majority of the team
Explanation:
Answer (b) You should let the team explore the best alternatives amongst themselves while
you facilitate and support them. A Project Manager needs to provide more direction in the
beginning of the project because he knows the best way to plan the project. However, as the
project team matures and develops an understanding during project execution phase, the
Project Manager needs to transition to a support role. Your leadership style could be
coaching, facilitating, or supporting.
83. Your software project is in the critical system testing stage when two
of the senior members of the team come to you with a conflict on usage
of the simulation software during testing. One senior member claims
that the other person keeps the software engaged for almost all of the
working hours of the project. You decide to change their working
schedules so that they no longer overlap. You are using which of the
following techniques for conflict resolution?
Compromising
Collaborating
Forcing
Smoothing
Explanation:
Answer (b) The collaborating or problem solving approach is the best bet as the PM is
solving the project problem by taking out the overlapping of activities.
Explanation:
Answer (b) Probable delay in the next delivery represents a project risk and is not an issue
as the event is uncertain. This may or may not happen in future.
85. A Project Manager is working on shortlisting, interviewing, and
selecting candidates for the open positions within the project as per the
job descriptions. Which process group is being worked on here?
Planning
Initiating
Controlling
Executing
Explanation:
Answer (d) The process being worked on is Acquire project team, which is part of the
executing process group.
86. A Project Manager likes to involve his team in the decision making
process. Whenever there are issues which require urgent decisions, he
calls the team to work out a solution together. This approach is
Correct, because it helps to get team buy- in and as well as their
the problem
Incorrect, as lot of time and effort of the project team is spent on decisions
Face-to-face-meeting
Explanation:
Answer (c) A face-to-face meeting is ideal for project communication. It gives the Project
Manager an avenue to understand the reasons for discontent and clarify their doubts. Face-
to- face meetings have an added advantage of being accompanied with non-verbal (body
movements, physical mannerisms) and paralingual (pitch and tone of voice) communication
methods.
team member
Team Member, since he implied he understood the discussion and didn't ask
and concise and confirm that team member truly understands the message
Explanation:
Answer (d) In the communication model, it is the sender's responsibility to make the
message clear, complete, and concise so that the recipient can receive it. The sender must
also confirm that the recipient truly understands the message. In this scenario, the Project
Manager is at fault. For more information refer to PMBOK 5th edition Project
Communications Management PN 293.
992
424
32
Explanation:
Answer (a) 496. This is directly based on the formula n*( n-1 )/2. If n is the number of
stakeholders in the project, the total possible communication channels = n*( n-1 )/2. The
project has 25 team members, 3 team leads, 3 support team members, and the Project
Manager. That makes it 32 people and 496 possible communication channels. Please Refer
PMBOK 5th edition Project Communications Management PN 292.
Explanation:
Answer (c) A project communication management plan would capture the details of the
escalation paths on a project.
Remove his name from the list of stakeholders and avoid communicating with
him further on project status
Incorporate the requirements of the stakeholder and then take his approval
Talk to your Project Sponsor about the issue and take his approval before
is not possible to address all of them in this release due to project constraints.
You will revisit them for the next phase.
Explanation:
Answer (d) This should be addressed as part of 'manage stakeholder expectations'. A
Project Manager should proactively work with stakeholders to manage their expectations,
address concerns and resolve issues. For more information please refer to PMBOK 5th
edition Project Communication Management PN 287.
stakeholder's needs
Explanation:
Answer (a) The communication management plan determines the project stakeholder
information needs and defines the communication approach. It is the document that needs to
be referred to resolve stakeholder's issues. Since the stakeholder is receiving timely
performance reports options (b) and (c) are not correct.
93. A Project Manager in an e-learning project is using free
downloadable tutorials via the Internet to reach out to large audiences.
This communication method is called:
Interactive Communication
Pull Communication
Push Communication
Personal communication
Explanation:
Answer (b) This is an example of a pull communication method which is used for large
volumes of information or for large audiences that require the recipients to access the
communication content at their own discretion. It is easier to recall pull communication as
'pulling of information' as desired by the receiver at his discretion. For more information
please refer to PMBOK 5th edition Project Communication Management PN 295.
94. In one of the project status meetings, two of the senior team
members get into an argument regarding the introduction of a new tool
to automate time sheet filling. Which of the following would provide you
maximum insight on the conversation?
The content and timing of conversation
technology used
Explanation:
Answer (d) Option D, includes non-verbal and paralingual forms which are critical for
effective communication and form more than 55% of all communication.
95. A CEO from his Paris office wishes to communicate with the
technical officer in China. The correct procedure would be?
The CEO will encode the message from French to Chinese, the technical
The CEO will decode the message from French to Chinese, technical staff
The CEO will encode the message from Chinese to French; technical staff
The CEO will decode the message from French to Chinese, technical staff
Formal Written
Informal, Written
Informal, Verbal
Explanation:
Answer (b) As this is the second notice to the team member for poor performance, it should
be communicated in a formal written manner.
Change Log
Issue Log
Explanation:
Answer (d) An issue log is the output of Manage stakeholder engagements. All the other
options are inputs to the process.
Stakeholder register
Explanation:
Answer (a) Issue log is an output to manage stakeholder expectations.
Pull Communication
Push Communication
Communication model
Explanation:
Answer (c) Push communication is sending information to specific recipients who need to
know the information. This ensures that the information is distributed, but doesn't actually
certify that it actually reached or was understood by the intended audience. Examples of
push communication include letters and press releases. For more information please refer to
PMBOK 5th edition Project Communication Management PN 295.
18 to 22 days
18 days
22 to 24 days
Explanation:
Answer (b) The estimated duration for 5 testing cycles of 4 days each is 20 days. The correct
estimation range is 18 to 22 days.
Esteem
Social
Safety
Explanation:
Answer (d) Actually physiological is at the lowest level of the hierarchy. But among the given
choices, safety is at the lowest tier.
Control Quality
Quality Metrics
Explanation:
Answer (a) Quality assurance focuses on the process and is done throughout the project
execution.
Actively accept the risk and allocate time and cost reserve in contingency
fund
Explanation:
Answer (c) In this situation the Project Manager has no information on the timing, anticipated
frequency, or impact of the expected rough weather. Option D, will not give any valuable
information. The best option is (c) to accept the risk, but plan a contingency reserve in terms
of cost and time in case the risk occurs. Option A, and B are passive approach and are not
recommended for a good Project Manager who should be always proactive in his approach
towards risk management.
104. Which of the following is NOT a likely outcome of trying to fast track
a project?
Reduce the level of risk
Explanation:
Answer (a) Fast tracking (getting more tasks to go in parallel) will likely increase risk, rework
in order to reduce the time taken.
Communicate to the vendor that any possible delay would attract a fine and
Revisit your project schedule and look at alternatives to reduce the impact of
the delay
Since there is no official communication from the vendor, you need to use
Analytical techniques
Procurement Negotiations
Make-or-buy analysis
Explanation:
Answer (d) The Project Manager is in the process of conduct procurements and all of the
above are tools and techniques that can be used in the process except teaming agreements
which is part of the plan procurement process. For more information refer PMBOK 5th edition
Project Procurement Management PN 354.
Only opportunities
Explanation:
Answer A. As per the new examination content outline, take the advantage of opportunities.
Privity
Dispute resolution
Force Majeure
Explanation:
Answer (d) The Force Majeure clause protects both parties from liabilities due to unforeseen
events on which nobody has control.
109. You have recently joined a new construction company and you find
that your employer is violating the construction permit issued by the
local city government. What should you do?
Inform the city authority of the violation
Talk to your employer to find out if they are aware they are breaking the law
Explanation:
Answer (b) The best option is to first talk to your employer to discuss your findings and know
their perspective. It would also help you verify your observation.
stakeholders
Explanation:
Answer (d) Since a project's success is heavily dependent on stakeholders favorable
acceptance of the project, it is important to have effective communication with stakeholders,
especially during project meetings. For this purpose, the Project Manager should research
and understand his stakeholders expectations before presenting project progress reports.
exclusively for your project instead of using existing tool in the organization
Use the most cost effective technique and involve everyone to explain its
usage
peers project
112. You are interviewing candidates for a position in the project, when
you receive the resume of a distant relative who is desperately in need
of a job. What should you do?
Give him the job but insist on good performance
Explanation:
Answer (c) The right thing to do is to declare your personal interest and excuse yourself from
the selection process.
113. As a Project Manager you have a large team reporting to you with
two members working on this technology for the first time. At the
beginning of the project, you were concerned that the members wouldn't
be able to contribute as much due to technical complexity of the project.
However, you spent time and gave them the required training in order to
perform. During your assessment, you find some areas which still
require improvement. What should you do next ?
Discuss this with the functional Manager asking him to assign these
resources in some other project as you have already spent enough effort of them
Give them more challenging assignments so that they fail and you have
Assess their current weak areas and provide more focused training with
regular feedback
Call them in your chamber and give them a warning that this is their last
technical skills
personal experience
exercise
profession grow
Explanation:
Answer (b) The Project Manager is sharing his lessons learned and best practices to the
project management knowledge base.
Explanation:
Answer (d) In case of conflicting claims, it is best to refer them to claims administration.
Claims administration resolves claims according to the contract's dispute resolution
procedures when the buyer and seller cannot resolve a claim on their own. Claims
administration documents, processes, monitors, and manages claims during the life of the
contract, usually according to the contract terms.
Accept the gift and keep it confidential so that there is no loss of face for your
organization
Take a break from project work to go on a small vacation during local New
Year time
Explanation:
Answer (b) Since the company policy forbids the Project Manager from accepting any gifts,
he should consult his Project Sponsor and legal department.
117. Your project has faced some unforeseen issues that have delayed
it. The project is very critical for the company and it has to meet the
scheduled deadline. In order to meet the deadline your team would have
to work over the weekends for the next two weeks. However, you know
that many of the team members will have some personal commitments
and it will be very difficult for them to work for seven consecutive days.
What is the BEST option for you?
Hire additional resources and brief them about the project
Discuss the situation with the team and give them the choice to willingly work
overtime
Send an official mail making it compulsory for the team to come and work
118. You are a Project Manager who is in the process of performing the
work defined in the project management plan to achieve the project
objectives. Which process are you in ?
Develop Project Management Plan
Explanation:
Answer (c) The Project Manager is currently in the process of direct and manage project
work which is a part of the execution process group.
119. A Project Manager is discussing the observed variations between
planned and actual values of the defects with his quality engineer. He
realizes that he has forgotten to identify one of the important metrics to
analyze defects. Which process group is the Project Manager in if he
evaluates the current result for the metric to see if it requires corrective
actions?
Planning
Executing
Quality Audit
Explanation:
Answer (c) The activity of identifying applicable quality standards, processes, and metrics is
completed as part project planning. In this case, the Project Manager is evaluating the
variation in the current results for the new metric and whether it requires corrective action. He
is in the 'monitor and control' process group.
Control limits
Pareto charts
Tolerances
Explanation:
Answer (b) Tolerances or specification limits are customer specified limitations. These limits
are meant for the purpose of controlling the process - hence they are control limits.
121. The Project Manager is reviewing the issue log as part of his
execution activity. Which of the following would be the least appropriate
activity for the Project Manager to perform as part of the monitoring and
controlling process group activity?
Assess the corrective actions on the issue register
Review the issue and determine if the issue should be avoided, mitigated,
transferred or accepted
Explanation:
Answer (d) Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer and Accept are risk response strategies where there is
an element of uncertainty involved. It is not appropriate for issue management, because
issues are present in here and now.
responsibilities
Meet with the project team to understand open issues in the project
Conduct a meeting with the customer to understand his concern over project
progress
Improve project schedule and cost control measure so that SPI and CPI
product
124. A Project Manager has made a major release in the project. The
customer comes back a week after the release saying that he is not
entirely satisfied with the deliverable. What should the Project Manager
do NEXT?
Continue with the next deliverable as needs to finish the project on time
Talk to the senior Manager to discuss the customer concern and resolution
Ensure that next deliverables has enough features which customer would
objectives
Explanation:
Answer (d) Verifying the project scope includes reviewing deliverables to ensure that each is
completed satisfactorily. If this is successful, it should provide customer satisfaction. Option
C, is gold plating i.e. providing the customers something they didn't ask for and wouldn't
solve the problem. Option A, and B avoid addressing the main problem directly and are not
recommended.
Executing
Controlling
Closing
Explanation:
Answer (c) The decision to close a project (normal or abnormal termination) is taken during
the controlling processes.
126. Your project is in the final stages of testing and the team is
interacting with the customer on daily basis to update him with the
project status and incorporate his feedback. Which of the following
would be the most critical process to be followed in this scenario?
Control Quality
Control Scope
Manage Communications
Control Risks
Explanation:
Answer (b) In this case, based on customer feedback, frequent changes are expected to be
done by the team. Remember, when a change is presented, a part of considering the change
involves additional planning. The Project Manager and the team must examine how the
change affects the project work and knowledge areas. Thus Control scope ensures the
project scope is protected from unnecessary changes and all eligible changes are done
using the scope change control system. Option A, Control Quality is more focused on
ensuring conformance to documented standards and is not the correct choice.
Risk Response
Verbal communication from key stakeholders
Explanation:
Answer (d) Undocumented changes should never be allowed by the Project Manager. He
should ensure that whenever a change is requested, the impact on features and functions of
the product (including that on the triple constraints) is documented with a change request.
Only then should the change continue through integrated change control. Option A, value-
added changes describe changes in the scope that would provide benefits in terms of cost
reduction etc. Option B, errors and omissions could be both in project scope, which is the
work to complete the project and the product scope which are the features and functions of
the deliverables. Option C, risk response involves changes in the scope required to mitigate
an identified risk. Of all the above events which would result in possible change of scope,
Option D, verbal undocumented changes poses maximum potential threat to a project.
3 days
1 day
5 days
Explanation:
Answer is C. We can calculate EF=ES+D=2+5=7 and LS=LF-D=8-5=3. The formula for Total
float is LS-ES or LF-EF. The answer is 1 day.
Precedence diagram
Control chart
Explanation:
Answer (a) A milestone chart depicts key events along a timescale. It is used for top level
reporting, so management does not become bogged down in the minutia of the project or
projects. Milestones on a milestone chart can be shown in various colors or with markings
that indicate status. It can also contain other information related to the project(s) like
customer, responsibility, duration, or phase of the milestone etc.
130. You are trying to figure out if there is a correlation between the
slack time available in a shift with the number of rejected components
produced during the shift. Which is the tool that you will use to analyze
this?
Pareto charts
Ishikawa diagrams
Histograms
Scatter diagrams
Explanation:
Answer (d) Scatter diagrams are used to plot data between two variables to figure out if there
is a pattern or correlation between them.
Do a Root cause analysis with the team to determine how this design flaw
could have been missed and if there could be more potential problems with the
design
Proceed with the change and communicate the impact on project schedule
Trend Analysis
133. As a Project Manager you realize that the initial budget cost,
Budget at Completion (BAC) for your project is no longer viable. You
need to develop a new Estimate At Completion (EAC) forecast
assuming current variances would continue in the future. Which of the
following formula should you use for calculating EAC? Here AC is the
Actual Cost, EV is the Earned Value, PV is the Planned Value.
EAC = AC + ETC
EAC = EV/PV
Explanation:
Answer (d) This method assumes current variances to be typical of the future. The remaining
work is assumed to be performed at the same cumulative cost performance index (CPI) as
what has been incurred by the project to date.
Control Costs
Explanation:
Answer (b) Earned value management is a tool and technique of the Control Costs process.
See page 215 of PMBOK, 5th edition.
135. A project team with a CPI of 0.78 is looking for options to reduce
cost. Which of the following should be the BEST option to choose?
Reduce a test cycle, in the System Testing phase
Explanation:
Answer (d) Option C, wouldn't reduce cost. Option A, and (b) would always have a negative
effect as they compromise on quality or scope. Of all the available Options, D is the one with
the minimum negative effect.
Explanation:
Answer (a) EMV when there is no insurance is -500,000 * 0.1 = $50,000. EMV when there is
insurance is -(20,000+ 0.1*10,000) = -21,000. Therefore, it makes sense to buy insurance.
137. A project has a CV of -$500 and SPI of 1.2. What can be said
about the project?
Your project is over budget and behind schedule
Explanation:
Answer (c) CV < 0 means over budget; SPI > 1 means ahead of schedule
138. As a manager you would like to get the status on the remaining
work with respect to the funds remaining. Which of the following
measures will give you the information?
To-Complete Performance Index
Variance Analysis
Trend Analysis
Explanation:
Answer (a) To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the calculated projection of cost
performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management
goal. The formula to calculate TCPI is = Work Remaining (BAC-EV)/Funds Remaining (BAC-
AC) or (EAC-AC) where AC is the Actual Cost, EV is the Earned Value, EAC is Estimate at
Completion and BAC is Budget at Completion.
To prioritize issues
To examine trends
Explanation:
Answer (b) Pareto charts based on the 80-20 rule are useful for prioritizing from among a
number of possible causes - because it helps focus on the 20% causes that result in 80% of
the issues.
0.9973
0.5
0.68
Explanation:
Answer (d) Based on the property of the normal distribution.
Validate Scope
Control Quality
Explanation:
Answer (d) Quality control is the process of examining specific project deliverables to ensure
they are in accordance with the requirements/specifications.
142. Your project is going through an audit cycle when one of the senior
auditor points out that the target value for Schedule Performance Index
(SPI) is set to low value and it should be increased by at least 5 percent.
You try to tell him that this target value is as per the organization
baseline and cannot be changed. Which of the following is CORRECT
statement in this case?
The Auditor is right, as the project has critical deadline to meet and hence
The Auditor is right; as the target value for SPI is a benchmark for the project
The Project Manager is right, the schedule is not critical in the project and
derived from its process maturity level and should be followed by the project
Explanation:
Answer (d) Most organizations set up an organization level baseline called process capability
baselines. PCB or Process Capability Baseline specifies what results to expect when a
process is followed. Using PCB a project can predict at the gross level, effort required at
various stages, defect densities, overall quality, and productivity. In this case, the Project
Manager is right to set the target values of his project metrics based on the organization
baseline value.
Control Schedule
Validate Scope
Explanation:
Answer (d) Scope validation is the process of accepting or rejecting the project's
deliverables.
Conflict Management
Co-location
Explanation:
Answer (c) The Project Manager is in the process of developing project teams and all the
others except conflict management are tools and techniques used in the process. Conflict
management is part of manage project team. For more information please refer to PMBOK
5th edition Project Human Resource Management PN 282.
145. What is the top source of conflict on a project from the following?
Schedule
Project priorities
Administrative procedures
Personality
Explanation:
Answer (a) The top-ranking source of conflict is schedule. Scheduling is probably one of the
toughest obligations of most Project Managers. Next in the list are project priorities because
Managers need to attend to the projects of the organization, sometimes conflict arises when
not all projects are given attention and importance. Third, on the list is manpower resource.
Lack of individuals to work on a certain project may cause pressure. When people start to
feel the intensity of pressure, they also start cramming and become less motivated to work
on it. Technical conflict and administrative procedures come next on the list. Finally, cost
objectives and personality conflicts complete the list of seven sources of conflict.
Status Report
Forecasting Report
Trend Report
Explanation:
Answer (d) A trend report would capture this information. Option A, earned value integrates
scope, cost, and schedule measures to assess current project performance. Option B, status
reports describes where the project is currently based on the performance measurement
baseline. Option C, forecasting report is used to predict future project status and
performance.
Explanation:
Answer (c) Cost Variance = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC). Positive cost variance
indicates that the project is under budget. Similarly, Schedule Variance = Earned Value (EV)
- Planned Value (PV). Positive schedule variance indicates that the project is ahead of
schedule.
149. A Project Manager wants to perform some tests on the product that
might end up destroying the product. What technique can be used to get
around this problem?
Statistical sampling
Regression testing
Automated testing
Stability testing
Explanation:
Answer (a) In case the test is likely to prove destructive, they are typically performed on a
sample.
150. A project team is in the process of risk tracking and control. The
risk control action defined by the mitigation and contingency plans is
being implemented in accordance with the details of those plans. Who is
responsible for implementing these actions?
Project Manager
Project Team
Risk Owner
Risk Manager
Explanation:
Answer (c) Risk owner for that particular risk is responsible for implementing the actions
defined by mitigation and contingency plan in risk management. A risk owner for a risk is
identified during the planning stage of risk management and he helps to assess the risk and
produce probability and impact information. He also develops risk mitigation and contingency
plans, provides status data for respective risk issues and assists in evaluating risk control
action effectiveness. The risk owner also documents threshold criteria of high and medium
risks and supports the identification of new risks.
Check
Card
Carryover
Explanation:
Answer (b) PDCA stand for Plan-Do-Check-Act.
-2000
16000
-6000
Explanation:
Answer (b) Cost variance = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC). Here, Earned Value is
uniformly spread over entire project duration. So earned value at the 6th month = [(Total
Cost)/ (Total Project months)] * Months completed i.e.=( $36,000/12)*6 = $ 18,000. Cost
Variance = $18,000-$20,000 = -$2,000
Common causes are easier to predict and handle than Special causes
Explanation:
Answer (a) There are two types of variation that can be distinguished using control charts
namely, the variations inherent in a process, for example, product design or choice of
materials and special causes of variation i.e., variations from unexpected sources, for
example, human error or a power failure. When the process is in control it is solely governed
by common causes and is indicated as data points lying within control limits. In this case the
only way to improve a process is to make a fundamental change, for example, upgrade
equipment, change procedures, or provide more training. Whereas, the presence of a special
cause would result in data points falling outside the control limit or show trend. Special
causes of variation must be removed before the control chart can be used to monitor the
performance of a process to make it stable and predictable.
154. After awarding contract to one of the sellers, you realize you have
missed a clause for delay in the contract and want to modify it. How
should you proceed further?
Contract is legally binding and cannot be changed once signed
Project Manager should inform the seller about the change in next meeting
Project Manager should inform the seller about the change through a formal
written communication
Project Manager should proceed with Contract Change control System at his
end
Explanation:
Answer (d) Project Manager should proceed with Contract Change control System at his
end.
Capture all the change requests, along with their current status and follow
Terminate the existing contract and sign a similar one based on the same
Explanation:
Answer (a) There are strong reasons for the Project Manager to terminate the existing
contract and re-negotiate the terms and conditions. As the earlier contract was cost
reimbursable, the Project Manager had limited information on the contract scope of work. It
may not be true now since some work has been done and Project Manager would be in a
better position to negotiate. Also since there are too many change requests with no clarity on
how many of them would be approved, it is difficult for Project Manager to continue work. The
best option for Project Manager in this case is Option A,.
156. As a Project Manager, you are conducting a structured review of
the seller's progress to deliver the project within the contract
specifications. Your objective is to determine progress with respect to
the procurement statement of work. You would be doing this review in
which stage of the project?
Before contract closure
Explanation:
Answer (c) The Project Manager is doing a procurement performance review as part of the
process 'administer procurements'. It is a structured review of the seller's progress to deliver
project scope and quality, within cost and on schedule, as compared to the contract. For
more information refer PMBOK 5th edition Project Procurement Management PN 379.
157. You are managing a complex, critical project and have made a lot
of efforts to make the team technically competitive during the process.
The project is in the final acceptance testing stage when a senior
resource comes to discuss his plans of continuing his education and
leaving this current assignment. He would require a positive
recommendation for work from you to fulfill admission requirements.
What should you do?
Tell him that you wouldn't recommend him as he has broken your trust by
Immediately ask functional Manager to remove him from the project and give
schedule
Compliment him on his decision and suggest him to leave project whenever
158. You are managing a software project which is due for design
document release next week. You are currently reviewing the document,
when an influential stakeholder asks you to add a feature to the existing
design. This stakeholder has earlier also tried to bother you with
unreasonable demands at the last days of release. What is the best you
can do in this situation?
Report his behavior to the senior Manager suggesting them why he should
As this person is influential, you have no option but to listen to him and add
the functionality
Determine the impact of this change on your schedule and their constraints
Ask him to raise a written change request form and then follow integrated
change control
Explanation:
Answer (d) It is important that a Project Manager should consider written and well
documented change requests for the project.
159. Of the following, which conflict resolution technique is believed to
generate the LEAST enduring positive results?
Problem Solving
Avoidance
Compromising
Forcing
Explanation:
Answer (d) Forcing is the only technique that can generate the LEAST positive enduring
results.
160. While monitoring the project you find that an accepted risk is going
to occur. Which of the following will you use to develop for the response:
Risk Response Plan
Fallback Plan
Mitigation Plan
Risk Register
Explanation:
Answer (b) The fallback plan includes an alternative set of actions and tasks available in the
event that the primary plan needs to be abandoned because of issues, risks, or other
causes.
161. Tom has been recently promoted to Project Manager for a short
term IT project. Jim, an experienced Project Manager, has suggested to
him that the most important task for a Project Manager to be successful
is communication with the stakeholders. He explains to him that Tom
should communicate the project status to the stakeholders to get some
feedback. How will this help Tom on his project?
All the stakeholders will be happy with Tom
This will ensure that the project aligns with the business needs
Explanation:
Answer (b) A Project Manager may send detailed project information and project status to
concerned stakeholders but he needs to communicate the project status, in different formats,
with the stakeholders to get their feedback which will ensure that his project aligns with the
business needs and there will be less unsatisfied stakeholders.
162. A Project Manager has made the final delivery to the customer and
the team is in the process of completing administrative and contract
closure. The team has also completed the final version of the lessons
learned in corporate database. Which of the following is a critical activity
that the Project Manager should complete before formally closing the
project?
Confirm that all the requirements in the project are met
Explanation:
Answer (c) The most important part of project closure is to get formal sign-off from the
customer. As it indicates, the customer considers the project completed and accepts the
completed project. Formal sign-off in a contracting situation constitutes legal acceptance.
final deliverable
success
Explanation:
Answer (d) Documenting lessons learnt is part of closure, but applying those learning or
findings happens during the project planning (not closure) processes.
164. Just a couple of weeks before the close of a project, the customer
submits a request for a new feature, which has a major impact. The
customer further expects this to be completed within the original cost
and schedule baseline. What should the Project Manager do?
Meet with the team to understand the impact
Ask the team to voluntarily work extra hours to get the feature completed
Explanation:
Answer (d) The impact is already known to be significant and there doesn't seem to be
enough time to rally the situation around. The best course of action is to ask senior
management to take a call on this situation, because the customer is expecting a change
which is not easily achievable.
165. During final payment for a contract, you were surprised to see 2
line items in the invoice pertaining to features that were requested by
some members of your team. These items were not really necessary for
your project. What should you do about the invoice?
Ask the team members why they requested the unnecessary items
Pay as per original contract and start arbitration proceedings for the rest
Explanation:
Answer (d) Irrespective of whether they were necessary or not, it is a fact that they were
requested by your team members and therefore you cannot escape the liability to pay for
them.
Safety procedures
Training needs
Explanation:
Answer (a) A Resource Histogram is a bar chart that shows the amount of time that a
resource is scheduled to work over a series of time periods.
167. Which of the following is the correct order of actions that you take
during the closing processes?
Get formal acceptance, release the team, write lessons learned, close the
contract
Write lessons learned, release the team, get formal acceptance, close the
contract
Get formal acceptance, close the contract, write lessons learned, release the
team
Explanation:
Answer (c) One important fact is that you need your team's help when you're writing the
lessons learned. That's why you can't release the team until the lessons learned are
documented and added to the organizational process assets. Also, the last thing you do on
the project is close the contract. Remember, release the project team is no longer part of
closing as per the new RDS study conducted by PMI. This was amended in 2011 itself.
168. Your project just completed, and one of your subcontractors has
sent you the tickets for the next IPL cricket match to thank you for your
business. What is the BEST way to respond?
Thank the subcontractor, but do not give him preference in the next RFP
Ask for tickets for the entire team, so that it is fair to everyone
Report the subcontractor to PMI
Explanation:
Answer (b) The PMP Code of Professional Conduct says that you're not allowed to accept
any kind of gift, not even if it's after the project has finished. That would be the same thing as
taking a bribe.
Informal Verbal
Formal Written
Formal Verbal
Explanation:
Answer (c) All project reports must be communicated as formal written documents.
Accepted Deliverables
Explanation:
Answer (c) Accepted deliverables is an input to the Close project or phase process.
171. Which of the following is NOT a possible use for historical records?
To establish organizational performance benchmarks
Explanation:
Answer (c) Historical records from one project cannot become part of the closure reports of
other (future) projects.
172. During the closing, final project report needs to be sent based on
which document?
Stakeholder management plan
Project charter
Contract
Explanation:
Answer (B). As per the new examination content outline, it is communications management
plan.
173. Which one of the following is the last step of project closing?
Archive Project Documents
Explanation:
Answer (b) All of the stated options are activities conducted during project closing. Measure
customer satisfaction at the end of the project is the last step in the closing process group.
This is as per the new changes suggested by the PMI RDS Study.
174. What are the two closing procedures in project lifecycle known as?
Contract close out and Verify Scope
Explanation:
Answer (b) The two closing procedures in project lifecycle are known contract close out and
administrative closure. Contract closeout is the administrative procedure associated with the
end of the business agreement with the supplier and the archiving of documents in the
contract file. Administrative closure is a procedural mechanism to temporarily stop removal
proceedings by removing the case from the immigration judge's or BIA's calendar.
Process
such as the project management plan, scope, cost, risk registers, quality
baselines
The formal acceptance documentation formally indicates that the customer
After the Close Project or Phase process is complete, the Project Manager
Explanation:
Answer (c) Project C:NPV $ 70,000 to be completed in 9 years. The project with highest
value of NPV should be selected. The information on number of years to complete the
project is irrelevant as it is already considered while calculating the value of NPV. NPV is
defined as: The difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value
of cash outflows. Remember, NPV is used in capital budgeting to analyze the profitability of
an investment or project.
Philips Crosby
Genichi Taguchi
Explanation:
Answer (b) PDCA (plan-do-check-act) is an iterative four-step problem solving process
typically used in business process improvement. It is also known as the Deming cycle,
Shewhart cycle, Deming wheel, or plan-do-study-act. It was proposed by W. Edwards
Deming in the 1950's and suggests that business processes should be analyzed and
measured to identify sources of variations that cause products to deviate from customer
requirements. He recommended that business processes be placed in a continuous
feedback loop so that Managers can identify and change the parts of the process that need
improvements. Plan: Design or revise business process components to improve results. Do:
Implement the plan and measure its performance. Check: Assess the measurements and
report the results to decision makers. Act: Decide on changes needed to improve the
process.
178. All of the statements about the Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
or Activity-on-Arrow (AOA) are true EXCEPT
The nodes are used to represent activity and arrows show activity
dependency
Explanation:
Answer (a) In the arrow diagramming method (ADM), the arrows are used to represent
activities. The nodes represent activity dependency.
179. A project team working on a water purification plant is determining
the right combination of flow rate, dosage of chlorine and residence time
in the oxidation chamber to achieve the best results. What is the
technique being applied?
Benchmarking
Statistical Sampling
Design of Experiments
Explanation:
Answer (c) Design of experiments is the technique of finding out the optimum combination of
factors that help achieve a certain target objective.
Kaizen
Deming cycle
Explanation:
Answer (a) Ishikawa diagrams or fish-bone diagrams are used to perform root cause
analysis.
Explanation:
Answer (b) The outcome of negotiations is to work out a fair deal.
182. All of the following are true for decision trees except,
Clearly lay out the problem so that all options can be challenged
of achieving them.
Explanation:
Answer (d) The financial approval which is required by the finance department may be
dependent on multiple parameters, not only the result evaluated from the decision trees.
80/20 Rule
Explanation:
Answer (b) Although Option A, appears correct, Tom Pareto is an ambiguous name. If it had
only been the Pareto Principle then that would've been a correct answer.
184. Once the risks have been identified on the project, the next step is
to manage the risks. Of the following, which is NOT a suitable way of
managing the risks?
By using existing assets
By contingency planning
By Brainstorming
Explanation:
Answer (d) Brainstorming is a tool and technique for risk identification. All of the other options
are ways of managing the risks. Existing assets may involve improvements to existing
methods and systems, changes in responsibility, etc. Contingency planning may help you in
minimizing the effect, if it happens. Investing in new resources may help in reducing or
insuring you against risk.
Strategy
Share
Styles
Explanation:
Answer (c) McKinsey's 7S's are Strategy, Structure, Systems, Shared Values, Skills, Styles,
and Staff.
186. A method used for making decisions includes the following steps:
a. List your options as rows on a table and the factors you need to
consider as columns b. You score each option/factor combination and
weight this score by the relative importance of the factor. Add these
scores up to give an overall score for each option. Of the following,
which is NOT this tool?
Decision Matrix Analysis
Explanation:
Answer (d) This tool is referred to as Grid Analysis or Decision Matrix Analysis or Pugh
Matrix Analysis or Multi-Attribute Utility Theory. Paired Comparison Analysis is an estimation
tool.
Explanation:
Answer (d) For influence maps, you require the importance, relationships among
stakeholders, and the amount of influence stakeholders have over others.
188. Which of the following is the power that is based on the ability to
reward?
Coercive Power
Reward Power
Legitimate Power
Prize Power
Explanation:
Answer (b) The power that a Project Manager may possess to reward is referred to as
reward power.
189. Which of the following is NOT the personal style defined by Merrill
and Reid in their employee motivation theory?
Driver
Amiable
Expressive
Affiliation
Explanation:
Answer (d) Merill and Reid in their employee motivation theory define the following personal
styles, viz. Driver, Amiable, Expressive, and Analytical.
190. Which statement is correct for human resource management plan?
HR plan assists how resource will be utilized
Explanation:
Answer (B). As per new examination content outline, 'assigned' replaces 'utilized'. Option (c)
and (d) are part of communication and stakeholder management plan respectively.
Fear of competition
Explanation:
Answer (d) Unwillingness of subordinate to delegate authority.
193. What does the DMAIC process in Six Sigma stand for?
Define the Problem, Measure and Analysis, Improve and Control
Explanation:
Answer (a) DMAIC stands for Define the Problem, Measure and Analysis, Improve and
Control.
194. During the executing, the change requests are raised in the project.
The project manager is implementing these changes by following the
change management plan. Which parameter/s should be implemented?
Choose the best answer.
Corrective actions
Preventive actions
Approved changes
Explanation:
Answer (D). As per new examination content outline, implement approved changes and
corrective actions. Earlier it was only corrective actions.
common understanding of the key deliverables, milestones, and their roles and
responsibilities.
Create WBS
Explanation:
Answer (c). Options (a) and (b) are part of executing. Option (d) is part of planning. Inform
stakeholders of the approved project charter, in order to ensure common understanding of
the key deliverables, milestones, and their roles and responsibilities is the new task defined
in the examination content outline.
196. Out of the following, who is not a QUALITY guru, i.e. one who has
stated a theory on quality?
Joseph M. Juran
Merby U. Crosmy
Edwards Deming
Kaoru Ishikawa
Explanation:
Answer (b) The correct name is Merby U. Crosmy.
Only scope
Explanation:
Answer (c). As per the new examination content outline, budget is also included. Earlier it
was based on scope and schedule.
Risk baseline
Cost baseline
Schedule baseline
Explanation:
Answer (b) Risk baseline is not a valid project baseline. It is an accepted and approved
project plan.
Explanation:
Answer (D). As per new examination content outline, it is not to satisfy customer
requirements. It is to meet business needs and project requirements.
Only opportunities
Customer need
Explanation:
Answer (B). As per new examination content outline, even the opportunities should be
considered.
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