Pharm Cvs Mcqs
Pharm Cvs Mcqs
Pharm Cvs Mcqs
cardiac glycosides.
1. Diuretics
2. Methyl dopa
a. Lowers the heart rate and cardiac output more than clonidine
does
b. Causes reduction in renal vascular resistance
c. Has minimal CNS side effects
d. Has 80% bioavailability
e. Usual therapeutic dose is about 1 2 mg/day
3. Propranolol
a. Is a B1 specific blocker
b. Causes prominent postural hypotension
c. Inhibits the stimulation of renin production by catecholamines
d. Has a half life of 12 hours
e. Has no effect on plasma lipids
4. Hydralazine
a. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Clonidine
c. Minoxidil
d. Hydralazine
e. Phentolamine
7. The following drugs when combined with ACE inhibitors may produce
troublesome problems EXCEPT
a. Diclofenac
b. Potassium supplements
c. Spironolactone
d. Lithium
e. Theophylline
8. The nitrates
a. Nifedipine
b. Felodipine
c. Diltiazem
d. Nimodipine
e. Verapamil
11. Which of the following calcium channel blockers has the longest
plasma half life?
a. Felodipine
b. Diltiazem
c. Amlodipine
d. Nimodipine
e. Verapamil
a. Hyperkalaemia
b. Hypercalcaemia
c. Hypermagnesaemia
d. Hyperuricaemia
e. Hypernatraemia
14. Digoxin
15. Drugs which may increase digoxin effect include all of the following
EXCEPT
a. Amiodarone
b. Diltiazem
c. Frusemide
d. Quinidine
e. Antacids
16. Which of the following drugs has the smallest volume of distribution?
a. Chloroquine
b. Verapamil
c. Imipramine
d. Warfarin
e. Digoxin
Pharmacology Answers
1. E
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. E
8. E
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. E
16. D
Physiology MCQs: Circulation
04/06/02
a. Ventricular muscle
b. Bundle of His
c. Atrial pathways
d. AV node
e. Purkinje system
4. Regarding cardiac arrhythmias
a. p waves
b. Slurred QRS complex
c. Tall peaked T waves
d. QRS complex = 0.2 secs
e. Irregular rhythm
a. Eating
b. Pregnancy
c. Sleep
d. High environmental temperature
e. Exercise
a. 500 ml/min
b. 1.5 litres/min
c. 3.5 litres / min
d. 5 litres/min
e. 7 litres/min
11. Causes of increased interstitial fluid volume and oedema include all
of the following EXCEPT
12. Stimuli which increase gastrin secretion include all of the following
EXCEPT
a. Secretin
b. Increased vagal discharge
c. Luminal distention
d. Peptides and amino acids
e. Calcium
14. Contents of the normal gastric juice include all of the following
EXCEPT
a. Intrinsic factor
b. Lipase
c. Pepsins
d. Sulphate
e. Calcium
1. E
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. D
10. B
11. D
12. A
13. C
14. E
15. A
Heart
1. Myocardial infarction
a. Is characterized by necrosis beginning approximately 30 minutes
after coronary occlusion
b. Most often involves occlusion of the left circumflex coronary artery
c. Are apparent macroscopically at around one hour after coronary
occlusion
d. Typically results in liquefactive necrosis
e. Is subendocardial if only two thirds of the ventricular wall is involved
2. regarding the changes to myocardium after MI
a. pallor at 24 hours
b. wavy fibres are found centrally
c. decreased contractility after 5 minutes
d. liquefactive necrosis is typical
e. sarcoplasm is resorbed by leukocytes
3. In compensated cardiac hypertrophy changes include:
a. Diffuse fibrosis
b. Hyperplasia
c. Decreased sarcomeres
d. Increased capillary density
e. Increased capillary/myocyte ratio
4. endocarditis in IV drug abusers typically
a. involves the mitral valve
b. is caused by candida albicans
c. does not cause fever
d. has a better prognosis than other types of endocarditis
e. is caused by staph aureus
5. The commonest cause of fungal endocarditis is
a. Actinomycosis
b. aspergillus
c. ?
d. candida
e. blatomycosis
6. With regard to MI
a. Gross necrotic changes are present within 3-5 hours
b. Irreversible cell injury occurs in less than 10 minutes
c. Fibrotic scarring is completed in less than 2 weeks
d. Death occurs in 20% of cases in less than 2 hours
e. Is most commonly caused by occlusion of the left circumflex coronary
artery
7. Regarding pericarditis
a. Constrictive pericarditis only rarely follows suppurative pericarditis
b. Primary pericarditis is usually bacterial in origin
c. Serous pericarditis may be due to uraemia
d. Fibrinous pericarditis is due to Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection
until proven ptherwise
e. Haemorrhagic pericarditis is most commonly due to Klebsiella
infection
8. A young man presents with central chest pain presumed to be
associated with vasoconstriction. The most likely cause of the pain is
local
a. Hypoxia
b. Decreased ATP
c. Increased CO2
d. Catecholamines acting on alpha 1 receptors
e. Acetylcholine stimulation
9. An adult male with an ejection fraction of 80% could be due to
a. Myocardial ischaemia
b. Arrythmia
c. Thiamine deficiency
d. ?
e. ?
10. The cause of fluid retention peripherally with congestive cardiac
failure is
a. Increased renin
b. Increased GFR
c. Increased angiotensin II
d. Increased aldosterone
e. ?
11. rheumatic carditis is associated with
a. Curschmann spirals
b. Ito cells
c. Aschoff bodies
d. Nutmeg cells
e. Reed-Sternberg cells
12. Regarding myocardial infarction:
a. The size of the infarct is independent of collateral circulation
b. Is mainly precipitated by vasospasm
c. Irreversible tissue damage appears within 30 minutes
d. Acute cellular swelling is due to ATP depletion
e. Occlusion of right coronary artery is responsible for most infarcts in
the anterior wall of the left ventricle
13. The most common form of congenital heart disease is
a. Coarctation of the aorta
b. Tetralogy of Fallot
c. ASD
d. PDA
e. VSD
14. Myocardial infarction:
a. Is usually a consequence of coronary vessel occlusion by embolus
b. Is characterized morphologically by liquefactive necrosis
c. Is most commonly complicated by ventricular rupture
d. Can be either transmural or subendocardial
e. Is apparent on light microscopy within minutes
15. All of the following are cardiac compensatory responses that occur
in heart failure except:
a. Cardiac muscle fibre stretching
b. Increased adrenergic receptors on cardiac cells
c. Chamber hypertrophy
d. Decreased heart rate
e. Increased vasopressin levels
16. The most common cause of pericarditis is
a. SLE
b. Drug hypersensitivity
c. Trauma
d. Post myocardial infarction
e. Bacterial
17. all of the following are features of rheumatic fever EXCEPT
a. carditis
b. subcutaneous nodules
c. erythema nodosum
d. elevated antistreptolysin
e. Aschoff bodies in the heart
18. The histological appearance of contraction bands in association with
acute myocardial infarction indicate:
a. Previous old myocardial infarction
b. Early aneurismal formation
c. Compensatory responses to decreased myocardial contractility
d. A right ventricular infarct
e. Recent reperfusion therapy
19. After occlusion of a coronary artery
a. The ischaemia is most pronounced in the epicardial region
b. Loss of contractility only occurs when ultrastructural changes in the
myocyte are present
c. Reperfusion of the ischaemic area can result in new cellular damage,
due to the generation of oxygen free radicals
d. Q waves on the ECG are diagnostic of transmural infarction
e. None of the above are true
20. In compensated heart failure
a. Right atrial pressure drops
b. Maximum cardiac output is unchanged
c. Resting cardiac output is unchanged
d. Renin level eventually drops below premorbid level
e. Fluid retention plays no role
21. Infective endocarditis
a. In the acute form, is most commonly caused by streptococci
b. Involves abnormal valves in most acute cases
c. Is confirmed by positive blood cultures in less than 50% of cases
d. May cause splenic infarction
e. May cause MacCallums plaques to form on affected valves
22. cor pulmonale may be caused by
a. congenital heart disease
b. mitral stenosis
c. left ventricular failure
d. primary pulmonary hypertension
e. aortic regurgitation
23. Post myocardial infarction
a. ATP is down to 50% at 10 minutes
b. Irreversible cell injury occurs within 5 minutes
c. ATP depletion begins at 2 minutes
d. Microvascular injury occurs within 30 minutes
e. Wavy fibres are seen within 20 minutes
24. congestive heart failure can be caused by:
a. vitamin A deficiency
b. niacin deficiency
c. vitamin D deficiency
d. thiamine deficiency
e. vitamin B2 deficiency
25. Regarding acute endocarditis
a. It has a mortality of <20%
b. It is caused by virulent organisms
c. 30% is caused by bacteria
d. ?
e. ?
26. A 50 year old man with an acute myocardial infarction has a BP
130/80. He can maintain his BP because of:
a. An absolute increase in cardiac output
b. Increased systolic filling pressure
c. Increased right atrial pressure
d. Increased water absorption
e. Decreased sympathetic outflow
27. What is the most common histological change seen in myocardial
infarction less than 24 hours duration?
a. Pallor and oedema
b. Haemorrhage
c. Hyperaemic border
d. Liquefactive necrosis
e. ?
28. With regard to acute coronary occlusion
a. Collaterals do not flow for 4-6 hours
b. Striking loss of contractility within 60 seconds
c. 50% recanalise spontaneously
d. ischaemia occurs after 60 minutes
e. ?
29. In hypertensive cardiac disease there is:
a. Flattening of trabeculae
b. Insterstitial fibrosis
c. Dilation of the left ventricle
d. ?
e. ?
30. Acute severe MI causes:
a. Pulmonary oedema
b. Thoracic pressure
c. Increased right atrial pressure
d. Decreased aterial pressure
e. ?
31. Coronary thrombus
a. If asymptomatic, carries a low risk
b. Increased tissue plasminogen activator inhibitor causes extension of
thrombus
c. Vessels mostly occluded to decrease blood velocity
d. Is at increased risk of because of mechanical stressors
e. 50-75% occlusion is likely to cause infarction
32. The most common complication of acute myocardial infarctionis
a. Sudden cardiac death
b. Congestive cardiac failure
c. Valvular dysfunction due to papillary muscle rupture
d. Ventricular aneurysm
e. Arrythmia
33. in the developed world, the most common cause of myocarditis is
a. SLE
b. HIV
c. Enteroviruses
d. Chlamydiae
e. Drug hypersensitivity
34. Plaque associated thrombosis is associated with all EXCEPT:
a. Transmural MI
b. Subendocardial MI
c. Unstable angina
d. Stable angina
e. Sudden cardiac death
35. in left heart failure
a. failure is typically secondary to right heart failure
b. ascites is a predominant feature
c. right heart failure is rarely, if ever, associated with left heart failure
d. renal congestion and acute tubular necrosis are less common
e. pulmonary congestion and oedema are rare
36. Regarding myocardial infarction
a. Subendocardial infarcts are most common
b. Approximately 30% of transmural infarcts are due to vasospasm
c. Irreversible cell injury occurs within 20-40 minutes
d. Reperfusion does not salvage reversibly damaged cells
e. Irreversible injury does not first occur in the subendocardial zone
37. congestive cardiac failure is characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. perivascular and interstitial transudate
b. Kerley A lines on chest Xray
c. Activation of renin-angiotentin-aldosterone system
d. Haemosiderin-containing macrophages in the alveoli
e. Progressive oedematous widening of alveolar septa
38. Pertaining to ischaemic heart disease:
a. Coronary atherosclerosis begins to form in middle age
b. 50% of people with this condition have underlying atherosclerotic
plaques
c. acute myocardial infarction occurs mostly by embolus occluding the
artery
d. Prinzmetal angina occurs due to coronary artery spasm
e. Subendocardial infarcts always occur from reduced systemic blood
pressure
39. Regarding macroscopic changes in myocardial infarcts:
a. Changes may be accentuated as early as 1-2 hours by histochemical
stains
b. By 18-24 hours infarcted tissue becomes dark and swollen
c. In the first week, the lesion becomes sharply defined, yellow and soft
d. At four days, a rim of hyperaemic granulation tissue appears
e. A fibrous scar is well established at two weeks
Answers Heart
1. a
2. a
3. a
4. e
5. d
6. d
7. c
8. a?d?
9. c
10. d
11. c
12. d
13. e
14. d
15. d
16. d
17. c
18. e
19. c
20. c
21. d
22. d
23. a
24. d
25. b
26. a
27. a
28. b
29. b
30. a
31. b?
32. e
33. c
34. d
35. d
36. c
37. b
38. d
39. c
Blood Vessels
back
1. In atherosclerosis the cells at the centre of the plaque are
a. Macrophages
b. Foam cells
c. Leukocytes
d. Smooth muscle cells
e. ?
2. All of the following are major risk factors for atherosclerosis EXCEPT:
a. Obesity
b. Hyperlipidaemia
c. Smoking
d. Hypertension
e. Diabetes
3. Which risk factors have the greatest association with atherosclerosis?
a. Hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hyperlipidaemia
b. Hypertension, male, family history
c. Hypertension, obesity, sedentary lifestyle
d. Hypertension, female, OCP
e. Age, family history, sex
4. Malignant hypertension
a. 75% recover with no loss of renal function
b. is associated with abnormal renin levels
c. ?
d. ?
e. affects 1-5% of HT sufferers
5. In the current view of pathogenesis, atherosclerosis involves:
a. Smooth muscle migration into adventitia
b. Chronic endothelial injury
c. Lymphocytes engulfing lipids
d. Endothelial cell proliferation
e. Collagen degradation
6. Aortic dissection
a. Occurs most commonly in women
b. Is most commonly caused by atherosclerosis
c. Can be associated with inherited connective tissue disorders
d. Most commonly causes death by disruption of the aortic valve
e. Is most commonly preceded by an internal tear occurring in areas of
atherosclerotic plaque
7. possible causes of secondary hypertension include
a. hypothyroidism
b. reduced intracranial pressure
c. low serum renin
d. addisons disease
e. glomerulonephritis
8. atherosclerosis
a. when advanced is rarely calcified
b. mainly affects the media of arteries
c. commonly affects renal arteries
d. produces lesions commonly containing neutrophils
e. can cause aneurysmal dilation when severe
9. Regarding giant cell arteritis, which statement is INCORRECT?
a. Affects medium arteries
b. Affects small arteries including vertebral
c. Affects small arteries including ophthalmic
d. Has an increased prevalence of HLA-DR4
e. Has no gastrointestinal manifestations
10. Select the true statement concerning atherosclerosis
a. Congenital absence of LDL cholesterol leads to premature
atherosclerosis
b. Thoracic aorta is more likely to be involved than the abdominal
c. Fatty streaks appear in the aortas of children as young as 1 year
d. Fatty streaks are destined to become atherosclerotic plaques
e. Endothelial disruption always precedes atheroma development
11. Select the false statement concerning atherosclerosis
a. Familial hypercholesterolaemia is associated with inadequate hepatic
uptake of LDL
b. CMV has been detected in human atheromatous plaques
c. Fibrous atheromatous plaques are capable of regression
d. Foam cells can be considered to be specialized macrophages
e. Atherosclerosis is associated with medial calcific sclerosis
12. With regard to aortic dissection, which is INCORRECT?
a. It tends to occur in 40-60 year old men
b. Approximately 90% of non-traumatic cases occur in patients with
antecedent hypertension
c. It is usually associated with marked dilation of the aorta
d. It is unusual in the presence of substantial atherosclerosis
e. It is usually caused by an intimal tear within 10cm of the aortic valve
13. Regarding the plaque in atherosclerosis, which is CORRECT?
a. Mixture of cells and connective tissure matrix
b. Rarely causes microemboli
c. Coronary arteries are the most affected
d. Thoracic aorta is more affected than the abdominal aorta
e. ?
14. Regarding atherosclerosis
a. Coronart arteries equally affected as renal arteries
b. Exclusively affects medium and large arteries
c. Increased incidence in hypothyroidism
d. Decreased incidence in nephritic syndrome
e. ?
15. Atherosclerotic plaques
a. Are located within the media
b. Involve the coronary arteries most heavily
c. Contain foam cells that are derived from macrophages and smooth
muscle cells
d. Are commonly found in arteries of the upper limb
e. Are rarely found at the ostia of branches of the descending aorta
16. false aneurysms
a. remain in the confines of the circulatory system
b. include berry aneurysms
c. can be fusiform or saccular
d. are produced by a leak at the junction of a vascular graft with a
natural artery
e. are commonly caused by syphilis
17. The most common cause of aortic dissection in the elderly
a. Hypertension
b. Marfans syndrome
c. Connective tissue disorders
d. Ischaemic heart disease
e. Aortic valvular disorders
18. Atherosclerosis
a. Is initiated by endothelial injury
b. Is a disease of the media of blood vessels
c. Predominantly involves arterioles
d. Is most common in the internal carotid arteries
e. Begins in middle age
19. Regarding atherosclerosis
a. The risk is directly related to HDL (high density lipoprotein) levels
b. The current response to injury hypothesis considers it to be an
acute inflammatory response to endothelial injury of arterial walls
c. It typically beings in childhood, but only manifests itself in later life
d. It involves smaller elastic and larger muscular arteries
e. 20% of all deaths in USA are attributable to this disease process
a. Atheroma plaques composing of large amount soft foam cells and lipid ,
are less likely to rupture than those with smaller amounts of lipid
b. A severely stenotic plaque is required as a precipitating lesion for
patients who develop myocardial infarcts
c. In the coronary arteries it is usually around 70% of a fixed occlusion that
is required to get stenosis and the signs of angina.
d. Haemorrhage into a plaque is considered the most dangerous
complication
2.In aneurysms
a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Lung
d. Adrenal gland
5. Of the following arteries, which is least likely to be affected by atherosclerosis?
a. Vessels in the Circle of Willis
b. Popliteal
c. Coronary
d. Abdominal aorta
6. Which of the following is not a major risk factor for atherosclerosis?
a. Family history
b. Cigarette smoking
c. Obesity
d. Male gender
7. Regarding hypertension
a. Kawasaki disease
b. Takayasu disease
c. Churg Strauss
d. Wegners granulomatosis
9. In Giant cell arteritis
a. It only affects the temporal arteries
b. Is an uncommon vasculitis in the elderly in USA
c. Thought to be a T cell mediated immune response against an unknown
agent
d. A negative biopsy rules out the diagnosis
a. CHF
b. Pregnancy
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. All the above
a. Weight gain
b. Dyspnoea
c. Fatigue
d. Chest pain on exertion
16. Which is the most likely cause of cyanosis in early post natal life?
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Transposition of the great arteries
c. Truncus arteriosis
d. Tricuspid atresia
a. Arrhythmia
b. Myocardial rupture
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Mural thrombus
a. Aortic stenosis
b. Aortic regurgitation
c. Mitral stenosis
d. Mitral regurgitation
21. Which is not a major criteria for rheumatic fever
a. Sydenham chorea
b. Subcutaneous nodules
c. Pancarditis
d. Erythema multiforme
22, The most likely organism responsible for prosthetic valve endocarditis is
a. Staphylococci epidermis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococci viridans
d. Haemophilus influenza
23. the most common form of pericarditis is
a. Purulent
b. Haemorrhagic
c. Fibrinous
d. Caseous
24. Regarding myocardial infarcts
ANSWERS
1.c
2.c
3.a
4.d
5.a
6.c
7.c
8a
9c
10 d
11 d
12 d ( should read IS a risk factor)
13 d
14 a
15 b
16a
17d
18 b
19 b
20 a
21 d
22 a
23 c
24 c
25 c
26 d
27 c
28 c
29 a
30 d