PinoyBix Engineering Mechanics

Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.
1.What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two forces which are perpendicular to each other? The two
forces are 20 units and 30 units respectively.
A. 36
B. 42
C. 25
D. 40
2. A rope is stretched between two rigid walls 40 feet apart. At the midpoint, a load of 100 lbs was placed that
caused it to sag 5 feet. Compute the approximate tension in the rope.
A. 206 lbs
B. 150 lbs
C. 280 lbs
D. 240 lbs
3. What is the effective component applied on the box that is being pulled by a 30 N force inclined at 30 degrees
with horizontal?
A. 36.21 N
B. 25.98 N
C. 15.32 N
D. 20.62 N
4. A post is supported by a guy wire which exerts a pull of 100 N on the top of the post. If the angle between the
wire and the ground is 60 degrees, what is the horizontal component of the force supporting the pole?
A. 86.6 N
B. 50.0 N
C. 76.6 N
D. 98.5 N
5. The resultant of two forces in a plane is 400 N at 120 degrees. If one of the forces is 200 lbs at 20 degrees what is
the other force?
A. 347.77 N at 114.85 degrees

B. 435.77 N at 104.37 degrees
C. 357.56 N at 114.24 degrees
D. 477.27 N at 144.38 degrees
6. Determine the resultant of the following forces: A = 600 N at 40 degrees, B = 800 N at 160 degrees and C = 200
N at 300 degrees.
A. 532.78 N, 55.32 degrees

B. 435.94 N, 235.12 degrees
C. 522.68 N, 111.57 degrees
D. 627.89 N, 225.81 degrees
7. A collar, which may slide on a vertical rod is subjected three forces. Force A is 1200 N vertically upward, Force
B is 800 N at an angle of 60 degrees from the vertical and a force F which is vertically downward to the right. Find
the direction of F if its magnitude is 2400 N and the resultant is horizontal.
A. 41.61 degrees
B. 43.52 degrees
C. 40.13 degrees
D. 45.52 degrees
8. Given the 3-dimensional vectors: A = i(xy) + j(2yz) + k(3zx) and B = i(yz) + j(2zx) + k(3xy). Determine the
scalar product at the point (1,2,3).
A. 144
B. 138
C. 132
D. 126
9. Determine the divergence of the vector: V = i(x2) + j(-xy) + k(xyz) at the point (3,2,1).
A. 9.00
B. 11.00
C. 13.00
D. 7.00
10.The three vectors described by 10 cm/ at 120k degrees, k = 0, 1, 2 encompass the sides of an equilateral triangle.
Determine the magnitude of the vector cross product: 0.5 [ (10/ at 0 deg) x (10/ at 120 deg) ].
A. 86.6
B. 25.0
C. 50.0
D. 43.3
11. The 5 vectors: 10 cm/ at 72k degrees, k = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 encompass the sides of a regular pentagon. Determine the
magnitude of the vector cross product: 2.5 [ (10/ at 144 deg) x (10/ at 216 deg) ].
A. 198.1
B. 237.7
C. 285.2
D. 165.1
12. What is the angle between two vectors A and B if A = 4i - 12j + 6k and B = 24i 8j + 6k?
A. 168.45 degrees
B. 84.32 degrees
C. 86.32 degrees
D. -84.64 degrees
13. Given the 3-dimensional vectors : A = i (xy) + j (2yz) + k (3zx), B = i (yz) + j (2zx) + k (3xy). Determine the
magnitude of the vector sum |A + B| at coordinates (3,2,1).
A. 32.92
B. 29.88
C. 27.20
D. 24.73
14. What is the cross product A x B of the vectors, A = I + 4j + 6k and B = 2i + 3j + 5k ?
A. i j k
B. i + j+ k
C. 2i + 7j 5k
D. 2i + 7j + 5k
15. A simply supported beam is five meters in length. It carries a uniformly distributed load including its own
weight of 300 N/m and a concentrated load of 100 N, 2 meters from the left end. Find the reactions if reaction A at
the left end and reaction B at the right end.
A. RA = 810 N, RB = 700 N
B. RA = 820 N, RB = 690 N
C. RA = 830 N, RB = 680 N
D. RA = 840 N, RB = 670 N
16. A man can exert a maximum pull of 1,000 N but wishes to lift a new stone door for his cave weighing 20,000 N.
If he uses a lever how much closer must the fulcrum be to the stone than to his hand?
A. 10 times nearer
B. 20 times farther
C. 10 times farther
D. 20 times nearer
17. A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 500 ft apart. The load is 500 lbs per
horizontal foot including the weight of the cable. The sag of the cable is 30 ft. Calculate the total length of the cable.
A. 503.21 ft
B. 504.76 ft
C. 505.12 ft
D. 506.03 ft
18. The weight of a transmission cable is 1.5 kg/m distributed horizontally. If the maximum safe tension of the cable
is 60000 kg and the allowable sag is 30 m, determine the horizontal distance between the electric posts supporting
the transmission cable.
A. 897 m
B. 926 m
C. 967 m
D. 976 m
19. A cable 45.5 m long is carrying a uniformly distributed load along its span. If the cable is strung between two
posts at the same level, 40 m apart, compute the smallest value that the cable may sag.
A. 12.14 m
B. 10.12 m
C. 9.71 m
D. 8.62 m
20.A pipeline crossing a river is suspended from a steel cable stretched between two posts 100 m apart. The weight
of the pipe is 14 kg/m while the cable weighs 1 kg/m assumed to be uniformly distributed horizontally. If the
allowed sag is 2 m, determine the tension of the cable at the post.
A. 9047.28 kg
B. 9404.95 kg
C. 9545.88 kg
D. 9245.37 kg
21. The distance between supports of a transmission cable is 20 m apart. The cable is loaded with a uniformly
distributed load of 20 kN/m throughout its span. The maximum sag of the cable is 4 m. What is the maximum
tension of the cable if one of the supports is 2 meters above the other?
A. 415.53 N
B. 413.43 N
C. 427.33 N
D. 414.13 N
22. A cable weighing 0.4 pound per foot and 800 feet long is to be suspended with sag of 80 feet. Determine the
maximum tension of the cable.
A. 403 kg
B. 456 kg
C. 416 kg
D. 425 kg
23. A cable 200 m long weighs 50 N/m and is supported from two points at the same elevation. Determine the
required sag if the maximum tension that the cable can carry shall not exceed 8000 N.
A. 35.1 m
B. 28.2 m
C. 40.3 m
D. 31.3 m
24. A transmission cable 300 m long, weighs 600 kg. The tensions at the ends of the cable are 400 kg and 450 kg.
Find the distance of its lowest point to the ground.
A. 145 m
B. 148 m
C. 150 m
D. 153 m
25. A 250 kg block rests on a 30 degrees plane. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.20, determine the horizontal
force P applied on the block to start the block moving up the plane.
A. 59.30 kg
B. 58.10 kg
C. 219.71 kg
D. 265.29 kg
26. Compute the number of turns of the rope to be wound around a pole in order to support a man weighing 600 N
with an input force of 10 N. Note: coefficient of friction is 0.30.
A. 2.172
B. 3.123
C. 1.234
D. 4.234
27. A block weighing 500 N is held by a rope that passes over a horizontal drum. The coefficient of friction between
the rope and the drum is 0.15. If the angle of contact is 150 degrees, compute the force that will raise the object.
A. 740.7 N
B. 760.6 N
C. 770.5 N
D. 780.8 N
28. A cirlce has a diameter of 20 cm. Determine the moment of inertia of the circular area relative to the axis
perpendicular to the area though the center of the circle in cm4.
A. 14,280
B. 15,708
C. 17,279
D. 19,007
29. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of stationary rigid body?
A. Statics
B. Kinetics
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics
30. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in motion under the action
of forces?
A. Statics
B. Strenght of materials
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics
31. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body in motion without reference
to the force that causes the motion?
A. Statics
B. Kinetics
C. Kinematics
D. Dynamics
32. What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid body together?
A. Natural force
B. External force
C. Internal force
D. Concentrated force
33. What refers to a pair of equal, opposite and parallel forces?
A. Couple
B. Moment
C. Torque
D. All of the above
34. What is a concurrent force system?
A. All forces act at the same point.

B. All forces have the same line of action.
C. All forces are parallel with one another.
D. All forces are in the same plane.
35. When will a three-force member be considered in equilibrium?
A. When the sum of the two forces is equal to the third force.
B. When they are concurrent or parallel.
C. When they are coplanar.
D. All of the above
36. A roller support has how many reactions?
A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
37. A link or cable support has how many reactions?
A. None
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
38. A build-in, fixed support has how many reactions and moment?
A. 1 reaction and 1 moment

B. 2 reactions and 1 moment
C. 1 reaction and 2 moments
D. 2 reactions and no moment
39. Which support has one moment?
A. Frictionless guide
B. Pin connection
C. Fixed support
D. Roller
40. What is the science that describes and predicts the effect on bodies at rest or in motion by forces acting on it?
A. Engineering Mechanics
B. Theory of Structures
C. Mechanics of Materials
D. Strength of Materials
41. What refers to a negligible body when compared to the distances involved regarding its motion?
A. Particle
B. Atomic substance
C. Element
D. Quarks
42. The resulting force of a distributed load is always acting at:
A. the center of the beam subjected to the distributed load

B. the centroid of the area of the loading curve
C. the 1/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
D. the 2/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
43. The resultant force of a distributed load is always equal to:
A. twice the area under the loading curve

B. half the area under the loading curve
C. the area under the loading curve
D. one-fourth the area under the loading curve
44. When a body has more supports than are necessary to maintain equilibrium, the body is said to be _____.
A. in static equilibrium
B. in dynamic equilibrium
C. statically determine
D. statically indeterminate
45. When does an equation be considered dimensionally homogeneous?
A. When it is unitless
B. When the dimensions of the various terms on the left side of the equation is not the same as the
dimensions of the various terms on the right side.
C. When the degree of the left side of the equation is the same as the right side.
D. When the dimensions of various terms on the left side of the equation is the same as the dimensions of
the various terms on the right side.
46. What refers to the branch of mathematics which deals with the dimensions of quantities?
A. Unit analysis
B. Dimensional analysis
C. System analysis
D. Homogeneity analysis
47. What is a simple beam?
A. A beam supported only at its ends.

B. A beam supported with a fixed support at one end and non on the other end.
C. A beam with more than two supports.
D. A beam with only one support at the midspan.
48. What assumption is used in the analysis of uniform flexible cable?
A. Cable is flexible.
B. Cable is inextensible.
C. The weight of the cable is very small when compared to the loads supported by the cable.
D. All of the above
49. The sum of individual moments about a point caused by multiple concurrent forces is equal to the moment of
the resultant force about the same point. This statement is known as ____.
A. Pappus proposition
B. D Alemberts principle
C. Varignons theorem
D. Newtons method
50. Two forces acting on a particle may be replaced by a single force called resultant which can be obtained by
drawing diagonal of parallelogram, which has the sides equal to the given forces. This statement is known as
_____.
A. Pappus Propositions
B. Principle of Transmissibility
C. Parallelogram Law
D. Varignons Theorem
51. The condition of equilibrium or motion of a rigid body remains unchanged if a force acting at a given point of
the rigid body is replaced by a force of same magnitude and direction, but acting at a different point provided that
the two forces have the same line of action. This statement is known as ______.
A. Pappus Propositions
B. Principle of Transmissibility
C. Parallelogram Law
D. Varignons Theorem
52. If two forces acting simultaneously on a particle can be represented by the two sides of a triangle taken in order
that the third side represents the resultant in the opposite order. This statement is known as ______.
A. Principle of Transmissibility
B. Parallelogram Law
C. Varignons Theorem
D. Triangle Law of Forces
53. If a number of concurrent forces acting simultaneously on a particle, are represented in magnitude and direction
by the sides of polygon taken in order, then the resultant of this system of forces is represented by the closing side of
the polygon in the opposite in the opposite order. This statement is known as _____.
A. Principle of Transmissibility
B. Parallelogram Law
C. Polygon Law
D. Triangle Law of Forces
54. A beam with more than one supports is called ______.
A. cantilever beam
B. simple beam
C. complex beam
D. continuous beam
55. A truss consisting of coplanar members is called _____.
A. plane truss
B. space truss
C. ideal truss
D. rigid truss
56. A truss consisting of non-coplanar members is called ______.
A. plane truss
B. space truss
C. ideal truss
D. rigid truss
57. What method of determining the bar force of a truss if only few members are required?
A. Methods of joints
B. Method of section
C. Maxwells diagram
D. Method of superposition
58. Which of the following statements about friction is FALSE?
A. The direction of frictional force on a surface is such as to oppose the tendency of one surface to slide
relative to the other.
B. The total frictional force is dependent on the area of contact between the two surfaces.
C. The magnitude of the frictional force is equal to the force which tends to move the body till the limiting
value is reached.
D. Friction force is always less than the force required to prevent motion.
59. In the analysis of friction, the angle between the normal force and the resultant force _____ the angle of friction.
A. may be greater than or less than

B. is greater than
C. is less than
D. is equal to
60. When a block is place on an inclined plane, its steepest inclination to which the block will be in equilibrium is
called _____.
A. angle of friction
B. angle of reaction
C. angle of normal
D. angle of repose
61. What is usually used to move heavy loads by applying a force which is usually smaller that the weight of the
load?
A. Axle
B. Incline plane
C. Wedge
D. Belt
62. The angle of inclined plane of a jack screw is also known as ______.
A. angle of thread
B. angle of lead
C. angle of friction
D. angle of pitch
63. Center of gravity for a two dimensional body is the point at which the entire _____ acts regardless of the
orientation of the body.
A. mass
B. weight
C. mass or weight
D. volume
64. Second moment of area is the product of:
A. area and square of the distance from the reference axis

B. area and distance from the reference axis
C. square of the area and distance from the reference axis
D. square of the area and square of the distance from the reference axis
65. Moment of inertia of an area about an axis is equal to the sum of moment of inertia about an axis passing
through the centroid parallel to the given axis and ____.
A. area and square of the distance between two parallel axes

B. area and distance between two parallel axes
C. square of the area and distance between two parallel axes
D. square of the area and square of the distance between two parallel axes
66. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia?
A. kg-m4
B. kg-m3
C. kg-m
D. kg-m2
67. The number of independent degrees of freedom is:
A. Square root of the square of the difference of total degrees of freedom number of constrain equations
B. Square root of the total degrees of freedom number of constrain equations
C. Total degrees of freedom number of constrain equations
D. Total degrees of freedom half the number of constrain equations
68. What velocity is normally referred to as the derivative of position vector with respect to time?
A. Decreasing velocity
B. Average velocity
C. Instantaneous velocity
D. Increasing velocity
69. What refers to a force by which work done on a particle as it moves around any closed path is zero?
A. Natural force
B. Virtual force
C. Conservative force
D. Non-conservative force
70. When a force causes a change in mechanical energy when it moves around a closed path, it is said to be ______
force.
A. natural
B. virtual
C. conservative
D. non-conservative
71. The following are quantities that describe motion and uses Newtons law of motion and dAlemberts principle
except one. Which one?
A. Time
B. Mass
C. Acceleration
D. Force
72. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of work and energy?
A. Force, mass, velocity, time

B. Force, mass, acceleration
C. Force, mass, distance, velocity
D. Force, weight, distance, time
73. Which of the following set of quantities that describe motion and uses the principle of impulse and momentum?
A. Force, mass, velocity, time

B. Force, mass, distance, velocity
C. Force, mass, distance, velocity
D. Force, weight, distance, time
74. The principles of kinetics of particles are derived from which law?
A. Newtons first law

B. Newtons second law
C. Newtons third law
D. dAlemberts principle
75. What type of impact is when the motion of one or both of the colliding bodies is not directed along the line
impact?
A. Central impact
B. Eccentric impact
C. Direct impact
D. Oblique impact
76. What type of impact is when the centers of mass of colliding bodies are not located on the line of impact?
A. Central impact
B. Eccentric impact
C. Direct impact
D. Oblique impact
77. If the coefficient of restitution is zero, the impact is ______.
A. partially plastic
B. perfectly inelastic
C. perfectly elastic
D. partially elastic
78. A uniform circular motion can be considered as a combination of ______.
A. linear velocity and impulse

B. simple harmonic motion and momentum
C. two simple harmonic motions
D. rectilinear translation and curvilinear translation
79. The motion of a particle is defined by the relation x = (1/3)t 3 3t2 + 8t + 2 where x is the distance in meters and
is the time in seconds. What is the time when the velocity is zero?
A. 2 seconds
B. 3 seconds
C. 5 seconds
D. 7 seconds
80. A particle moves along a straight line with the equation x = 16t + 4t 2 3t3 where x is the distance in ft and t is
the time in second. Compute the acceleration of the particle after 2 seconds.
A. 28 ft/s2
B. 30 ft/s2
C. 17 ft/s2
D. 24 ft/s2
81. Two cars A and B traveling in the same direction and stopped at a highway traffic sign. As the signal turns green
car A accelerates at constant rate of 1 m/s2. Two seconds later the second car B accelerates at constant rate of 1.3
m/s2. When will the second car B overtakes the first car A?
A. 16.27 s
B. 30.45 s
C. 20.32 s
D. 10.45 s
82. Two buses start at the same time towards each other from terminals A and B, 8 km apart. The time needed for
the first bus to travel from A to B is 8 minutes, and of the second bus from B to A is 10 minutes. How much is the
time needed by each bus to meet each if they traveled at their respective uniform speeds?
A. 5.45 min
B. 10.7 min
C. 4.44 min
D. 2.45 min
83. A train changes its speed uniformly from 60 mph to 30 mph in a distance of 1500 ft. What is its acceleration?
A. 1.94d ft/s2
B. 2.04 ft/s2
C. 2.04 ft/s2
D. 1.94 ft/s2
84. A car starts from rest and has a constant acceleration of 3 ft/s2. Find the average velocity during the first 10
seconds of motion.
A. 13 ft/s
B. 15 ft/s
C. 14 ft/s
D. 20 ft/s
85. A man aimed his rifle at the bulls eye of a target 50 m away. If the speed of the bullet is 500 m/s, how far below
the bulls eye does the bullet strikes the target?
A. 5.0 cm
B. 6.8 cm
C. 5.7 cm
D. 6.0 cm
86. A man driving his car at a constant rate of 40 mph suddenly sees a sheep crossing the road 60 feet ahead.
Compute the constant deceleration (in feet/second2) required to avoid hitting the sheep? Assume a reaction time of
0.5 second before the man applies the brake.
A. 34.65
B. 44.54
C. 55.65
D. 67.87
87. A ball is thrown vertically into the air at 120 m/s. After 3 seconds, another ball is thrown vertically. What is the
velocity must the second ball have to pass the first ball at 100 m from the ground?
A. 105.89 m/s
B. 107.72 m/s
C. 108.12 m/s
D. 110.72 m/s
88. A ball is dropped from a height of 60 meters above ground. How long does it take to hit the ground?
A. 2.1 s
B. 3.5 s
C. 5.5 s
D. 1.3 s
89. A ball is thrown vertically upward from the ground and a student gazing out of the window sees it moving
upward pass him at 5 m/s. The window is 10 m above the ground. How high does the ball go above the ground?
A. 15.25 m
B. 14.87 m
C. 9.97 m
D. 11.28 m
90. A ball thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 3 m/s from the window of a tall building. The ball
strikes the sidewalk at the ground level 4 seconds later. Determine the velocity with which the ball strikes the
ground.
A. 39.25 m/s
B. 38.50 m/s
C. 37.75 m/s
D. 36.24 m/s
91. A player throws a baseball upward with an initial velocity of 30 ft/sec and catches it with a baseball glove. When
will the ball strike the glove? Assume the glove is position in the same elevation when the ball left his hand.
A. 0.48 s
B. 0.60 s
C. 1.20 s
D. 1.86 s
92. A highway curve has a super elevation of 7 degrees. What is the radius of the curve such that there will be no
lateral pressure between the tires and the roadway at a speed of 40 mph?
A. 265.71 m
B. 438.34 m
C. 345.34 m
D. 330.78 m
93. A baseball is thrown a horizontal plane following a parabolic path with an initial velocity of 100 m/s at an angle
of 30o above the horizontal. Solve the distance from the throwing point that the ball attains its original level.
A. 890 m
B. 883 m
C. 858 m
D. 820 m
94. Compute the minimum distance that a truck slides on a horizontal asphalt road if it is traveling at 20 m/s? The
coefficient to sliding friction between asphalt and rubber tire is at 0.50. The weight of the truck is 8000 kg.
A. 40.8
B. 48.5
C. 35.3
D. 31.4
95. A projectile is fired from a cliff 300 m high with an initial velocity of 400 m/s. If the firing angle is 30 o from the
horizontal, compute the horizontal range of the projectile.
A. 15.74 km
B. 14.54 km
C. 12.31 km
D. 20.43 km
96. A 25 g mass bullet was fired at the wall. The bullets speed upon hitting the wall is 350 m/s. What is the average
force (in Newton) if the bullet penetrates 10 cm?
A. 14,543.2 N
B. 11,342.2 N
C. 10,543.3 N
D. 15,312.5 N
97. A girl tied 80 gram toy plane of a string which he rotated to form a vertical circular motion with a diameter a
1000 mm. Compute for the maximum pull exerted on the string by the toy plane if got loose leaving at the bottom of
the circle at 25 m/s.
A. 0.002 kN
B. 0.05 kN
C. 0.2 kN
D. 0.1 kN
98. A gun is shot into a 0.50 kN block which is hanging from a rope of 1.8 m long. The weight of the bullet is equal
to 5 N with a muzzle velocity of 320 m/s. How high will the block swing after it was hit by the bullet?
A. 0.51 m
B. 0.53 m
C. 0.32 m
D. 0.12 m
99. A train weighing 1000 KN is being pulled up a 2% grade. The trains resistance is 5N/kN. The trains velocity
was increased from 6 to 12 m/s in a distance of 300 m. Compute the maximum power developed by the locomotive.
A. 600 kW
B. 450 kW
C. 520 kW
D. 320 kW
100. Determine the angle of super elevation for a highway curve of 600 ft radius so that there will be no side thrust
for a speed of 45 mph.
A. 1d3.45o
B. 12.71o
C. 11.23o
D. 10.45o
101. An airplane acquires a take-off velocity of 150 mph on a 2-mile runway. If the plane started from rest and the
acceleration remains constant, what is the time required to reach take-off speed?
A. 40 s
B. 45 s
C. 58 s
D. 96 s
102. Water drops from a faucet at the rate of 4 drops per second. What is the distance between two successive drops
1 second after the first drop has fallen.
A. 5.32 ft
B. 8.24 ft
C. 7.04 ft
D. 9.43 ft
103. A body which is 16.1 lb rests on a horizontal plane and acted upon by a 10-lb force. Find the acceleration of the
body if the coefficient of friction between the plane and the body is 0.2. Note: 1 lbf = 32.2 lbm-ft/s2.
A. 12.34 ft/s2
B. 11.57 ft/s2
C. 15.57 ft/s2
D. 13.56 ft/s2
104. A man on an elevator weighs 180 lbf. Compute the force exerted by the man on the floor of the elevator if it is
accelerating upward at 5 ft/s2.
A. 207.95 lbf
B. 210.45 lbf
C. 190.56 lbf
D. 205.54 lbf
105. A 10-lb stone is fastened to a 2-ft cord and is whirled in a vertical circle. Determine the tension in the cord
when it is rotated at 100 rpm.
A. 47.95 lbf
B. 58.08 lbf
C. 19.56 lbf
D. 20.54 lbf
106. An archer must split the apple atop his partners head from a distance of 30 m. The arrow is horizontal when
aimed directly to the apple. At what angle must he aim in order to hit the apple with the arrow traveling at a speed of
35 m/s.
A. 8.35o
B. 10.55o
C. 3.25o
D. 6.95o
107. A hollow spherical shell has a radius of 5 units and mass of 10. What is its mass moment of inertia?
A. 108.45
B. 123.34
C. 187.54
D. 165.67
108. A coin 20mg is place on the smooth edge of a 25 cm-radius phonograph record as the record is brought up to its
normal rational speed of 45 rmp. What must be the coefficient of friction between the coin and the record if the coin
is not to slip off?
A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.64
D. 0.78
109. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1.67m/s2. If an astronaut can throw a ball 10 m straight upward
on earth, how high should this man be able to throw the ball on the moon? Assume that the throwing speeds are the
same in the two cases.
A. 58.67
B. 50.84
C. 65.67
D. 45.67
110. A tennis ball is dropped into a cement floor from a height of 2 m. It rebounds to a height of 1.8 m. What
fraction of energy did it lose in the process of striking the floor?
A. One-tenth
B. One-fourth
C. One-third
D. One-seventh
111. A car is a rest on a sloping driveway. By experiment the driver releases the brake of the car and let the car
move at constant acceleration. How fast will the car be moving when it reaches the street? Note: The street is 4 m
below the original position of the car.
A. 8.86 m/s
B. 50.45 m/s
C. 6.65 m/s
D. 9.65 m/s
112. A solid sphere is placed at the top of a 45 o incline. When released, it freely rolls down. What will be its linear
speed at the foot of the incline which is 2.0 m below the initial position of the cylinder?
A. 4.86 m/s
B. 5.29 m/s
C. 6.43 m/s
D. 3.55 m/s
113. A ball is dropped from a height y above a smooth floor. How high will rebound if the coefficient of restitution
between the ball and the floor is 0.60?
A. 0.45y
B. 0.40y
C. 0.60y
D. 0.36y
114. A ball is thrown at an angle of 32.5 o from the horizontal towards a smooth floor. At what angle will it rebound
if the coefficient of between the ball and the floor is 0.30?
A. 11.33o
B. 8.67o
C. 9.12o
D. 10.82o
115. A 1.62-ounce marble attains a velocity of 170 mph (249.3 ft/s) in a hunting slingshot. The contract with the
sling is 1/15th second. What is the average force on the marble during contact?
A. 12.54 lbf
B. 14.56 lbf
C. 11.75 lbf
D. 10.67 lbf
116. A man weighs 128 lb on the surface of the earth (radius = 3960 miles). At what distance above the surface of
the earth would he weight 80 lb?
A. 3000 miles
B. 2345 miles
C. 7546 miles
D. 1049 miles
117. A steel wheel 800 mm in diameter rolls on a horizontal steel rail. It carries a load of 700 N. The coefficient of
rolling resistance is 0.250 mm. What is the force P necessary to roll the wheel along the rail?
A. 0.34 N
B. 0.54 N
C. 0.44 N
D. 0.14 N
118. An electron strikes the screen of the cathode ray tube with a velocity of 10 to the 9 th power cm/s. Compute its
kinetic energy in erg. The mass of an electron is 9 x 10^-31 kg?
A. 4.5 x 10^-10 erg

B. 3.0 x 10^-10 erg
C. 2.5 x 10^-10 erg
D. 1.5 x 10^-10 erg
119. One calculates the work of a force on a rigid body exactly the same as one would calculate the work for a
particle.
A. power of a couple
B. work of a force
C. work of a couple
D. work-energy relation
101. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.
A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above
102. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.
A. scalars
B. vectors
C. tensors
103. The product of a scalar and a vector is a
A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
104. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1
A. moment vector
B. tensor
C. unit vector
D. vector unity
105. It is sometimes called the scalar product.
A. dot product
B. vector product
C. cross product
D. unit scalar
106. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is used.
A. vector product
B. scalar product
C. dot product
D. vector sum
107. It is sometimes called the vector product.
A. dot product
B. cross product
C. tensor product
D. unit vector
108. Which of the following statements is false?
A. The cross product is commutative.

B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.
C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.
D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.
109. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the ________.
A. line of apsides
B. line of reaction
C. line of vector
D. line of action
110. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.
A. parallel
B. coplanar
C. concurrent
D. two-dimensional
111. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.
A. coplanar
B. two-dimensional
C. A or B
112. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.
A. internal force
B. external force
C. body force
D. surface force
113. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.
A. continuum translation
B. discrete translation
C. finite translation
D. steady translation
114. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components about P.
A. Cavalieris Theorem
B. Pascals Theorem
C. Varignons Theorem
D. Torricellis Theorem
115. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.
A. moment
B. momentum
C. impulse
D. torsion
116. A couple is composed of two forces that are
A. equal
B. equal and opposite
C. equal and different lines of action
D. equal, opposite and different lines of action
117. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?
A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.

B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.
C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.
D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.
118. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle , the component of weight (w) parallel to incline is
__________.
A. w sin
B. w cos
C. w tan
D. w cot
119. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass
120. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass
121. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to
A. lbm-ft/s2
B. g-cm/s2
C. kg-m/s2
D. kgf
122. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is called
A. ground reflected force

B. gravity reflected force
C. ground reaction force
D. gravity reaction force
123. The gravity in the moon is about
A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2
124. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point called
A. center of force
B. center of reaction
C. center of reflection
D. center of pressure
125. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?
A. mass of the load

B. acceleration of gravity
C. moment arm
D. all of the above
126. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is called
A. moment arm
B. moment distance
C. lever arm
D. A or C
127. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted by the force
___________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. is unchanged
D. becomes zero
128. The moment of force is zero when
A. the applied force is zero.

B. the force is applied at the moment axis.
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.
D. all of the above
129. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when acting in given
directions.
A. resolution of forces
B. integration of forces
C. composition of forces
D. quantization of forces
130. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics
A. Gilbert Lewis
B. Stephen Timoshenko
C. J. Gordon
D. A. Cotrell
131. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.
A. Discrete Mechanics
B. Finite Element Method
C. Continuum Mechanics
D. Contact Mechanics
132. Which of the following is an example of contact force?
A. gravitational force
B. magnetic force
C. air resistance force
D. electric force
133. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.
A. dynamic friction
B. static friction
C. kinetic friction
D. sliding friction
134. Given = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if pulled with a
force of 3 N.
A. remain at rest
B. move
C. accelerate
D. B and C
135. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.

B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.
D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.
136. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform accelerations are often
referred to as
A. UVATS
B. SUVAT
C. UVATS
D. Either of the above
137. Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the time rate of change
of its linear momentum. This is known as Newtons ___________ of motion.
A. Zeroth Law
B. First Law
C. Second Law
D. Third Law
138. It is also known as quantity of motion.
A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. acceleration
139. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely fills the space it
occupies.
A. Finite Element
B. Contact
C. Discrete
D. Continuum
140. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be made.
A. Brayton Number
B. Knudsen Number
C. Reynolds Number
D. Prandtl Number
141. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles of the moving
continuum body.
A. Material Derivative
B. Continual Derivative
C. Particle Derivative
D. Quantum Derivative
142. Material derivative is also known as __________.
A. substantial derivative
B. commoving derivative
C. convective derivative
D. all of the above
143. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed configuration is called the
________.
A. displacement vector
B. position vector
C. displacement field
D. position field
144. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.
A. position field
B. action field
C. displacement field
D. path field
145. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.
A. Continuum Mechanics
B. Solid Mechanics
C. Fluid Mechanics
D. Discrete Mechanics
146. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.
A. Particle Image Velocimetry

B. Particle Image Accelerometry
C. Particle Image Flowmeter
D. Particle Image Viscosimetry
147. A fluid at rest has no
A. longitudinal stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress
148. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.
A. compressibility
B. plasticity
C. elasticity
D. viscosity
149. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the external pressure and
internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.
A. Navier Stokes Equations

B. Torricelli Equations
C. Reynolds Equations
D. Lagrangian Equations
150. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow
A. Newtonian fluid
B. non-Newtonian fluid
C. Lagrangian fluid
D. non-Lagrangian fluid
151. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?
A. oobleck
B. pudding
C. water
D. paint
152. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then
A. no forces are acting on the object.

B. the forces acting the object are balanced.
C. the object is in equilibrium state.
D. either of the above
153. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.
A. reactant
B. equilibrant
C. buoyant
D. reverse effective force
154. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10 and 15 N at 100 is
A.18 N at 246
B. 18 N at 66
C. 25 N at -114
D. 25 N at 66
155. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act
A. center of gravity
B. centroid
C. center of mass
D. all of the above are correct
156. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will
A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry

B. lie anywhere on the area
C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry
D. not lie on the line of symmetry
157. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also be called moment of
inertia.
A. determine the state of stress in a section

B. calculate the resistance to buckling
C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam
D. all of the above
158. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal axis to another
parallel axis.
A. moment of axis theorem

B. transfer formula
C. parallel axis theorem
D. B or C
159. The moment of force is zero when
A. the applied force is zero

B. the force is applied at the moment axis
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis
D. all of the above
160. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is
A. 1/5 mr2
B. 2/5 mr2
C. 3/5 mr2
D. 4/5 mr2
161. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is
A. 1/6 mr2
B. 1/3 mr2
C. 1/2 mr2
D. 2/3 mr2
162. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is distributed about
the reference axis.
A. moment of area
B. second moment of area
C. third moment of area
D. fourth moment of area
163. It is the materials ability to resist twisting
A. mass moment of inertia

B. moment of area
C. second moment of area
D. polar moment of area
164. Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by the object. This is known as the ____________.
A. Bernoullis Principle
B. Torricellis Principle
C. Archimedes Principle
D. Pascals Principle
165. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or partially immersed.
A. Archimedes force
B. fluid pressure
C. buoyancy
D. weight reaction
166. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of weight 3 N. Determine
the tension in the string.
A. 13 N
B. 7 N
C. 10 N
D. 3 N
167. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.
A. tends to rise
B. tends to sink
C. A or B
168. It is the rate of change of velocity
A. displacement
B. acceleration
C. momentum
D. impulse
169. Impulse is equal to ________.
A. force x time
B. change in momentum
C. A or B
170. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are known as
__________.
A. elastic collisions
B. inelastic collisions
C. static collisions
D. plastic collisions
171. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the momentum change of
the object?
A. 1 N-s
B. 400 N-s
C. 0.5 N-s
D. 200 N-s
172. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the magnitude of the
impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?
A. 1 N-s
B. 5 N-s
C. 10 N-s
D. 20 N-s
173. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.
A. momentum
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. acceleration
174. The SI unit for angular velocity is
A. degrees per second

B. revolutions per second
C. mils per second
D. radians per second
175. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula
A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity

B. mass x linear velocity
C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity
D. mass x angular velocity
176. The time derivative of angular momentum is called
A. angular velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. work
D. torque
177. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system can be known at
once.
A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle

B. particle momentum principle
C. particle position principle
D. Bohrs uncertainty principle
178. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is
A. kg-m2
B. kg-m4
C. m4
D. m2
179. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for determining the internal
forces and reactions on that structure.
A. statically determinate
B. statically indeterminate
C. dynamically determinate
D. dynamically indeterminate
180. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant acceleration without having
a known time interval.
A. Bernoullis equation
B. Torricellis equation
C. Newtons equation
D. Cavendishs equation
181. Torricellis equation of motion is
A. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + 2as
B. Vf = Vi + at
C. Vf 2 = Vi 2 + at
D. Vf = Vi + 2as
182. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?
A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.

B. It appears to act outward the body.
C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.
D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.
183. Centripetal acceleration
A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.
D. changes nothing about velocity.
184. Tangential acceleration
A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.
D. changes nothing about velocity.
185. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic force manifest.
A. Eforce
B. Tforce
C. Kforce
D. Gforce
186. The value of Gforce is equal to
A. 1.211 x 1041 N
B. 1.211 x 1042 N
C. 1.211 x 1043 N
D. 1.211 x 1044 N
187. The gravitational force constant has the units
A. m3 kg-1 s-2
B. N kg-1 s-2
C. m2 kg-1 s-2
D. N kg-1 m-1
188. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is
A. 1.02 x 1057 N
B. 1.02 x 10-57 N
C. 1.02 x 10-67 N
D. 1.02 x 1067 N
189. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is
A. 4 x 1011 m3 s-2
B. 4 x 1014 m3 s-2
C. 4 x 108 m3 s-2
D. 4 x 1010 m3 s-2
190. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 10 22 kg, determine the acceleration due to
gravity on the moon.
A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2
191. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat surface.
A. rolling resistance
B. rolling friction
C. rolling drag
D. either of the above
192. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?
A. type of material
B. dimensions
C. both A and B
193. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as
A. coefficient of rolling friction

B. coefficient of friction
C. coefficient of resistance
D. rolling friction constant
194. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is
A. 0.0002 0.0010
B. 0.005
C. 0.02
D. 0.3
195. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is
A. 0.0002 0.0010
B. 0.1 0.2
C. 0.01 0.015
D. 0.05 0.06
196. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.
A. factor of safety
B. mechanical factor
C. mechanical advantage
D. mechanical coefficient
197. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.
A. quantum mechanics
B. classical mechanics
C. discrete mechanics
D. continuum mechanics
198. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j 90k (N).
A. 130 N
B. 120 N
C. 100 N
D. 110 N
199. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.
A. 18
B. 16
C. 14
D. 12
200. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = Uxi 4j + 6k and V = 3i + 2j 3k.
Determine the component Ux.
A. 5.67
B. 6.67
C. 7.67
D. 8.67
201. It is the science which deals with bodies in motion or at rest with specific attention being directed primarily to
the external effects of a force or a system.
a) statics
b) thermodynamics
c) kinetics
d) mechanics
202. Deals with the conditions of equilibrium of rigid bodies acted upon by a balanced systems of forces.
a) statics
b) thermodynamics
c) kinetics
d) mechanics
203. Deals with bodies being acted upon by an unbalanced system of forces the resultant of which causes the body
to be accelerated.
a) statics
b) kinematics
c) dynamics
d) kinetics
204. Deals with the geometry of motion.
a) statics
b) kinematics
c) dynamics
d) kinetics
205. Deals with the forces required to produced motion.
a) statics
b) kinematics
c) dynamics
d) kinetics
206. A specific amount of matter all particles of which remain at fixed distance to each other.
a) mass
b) force
c) rigid body
d) static body
207. Results when a body is acted upon by the force.
a) bending
b) deformation
c) scattering
d) compression
208. A fixed body property of a body which determines its resistance to change in motion.
a) mass
b) force
c) rigid body
d) static body
209. The action of one body on another body which changes or tends to change the motion of the body acted on.
a) mass
b) force
c) rigid body
d) static body
210. It is the intensity of the force.
a) magnitude
b) direction
c) mass
d) force
211. Sense and slope of angles with respect to reference axes.
a) magnitude
b) direction
c) mass
d) force
212. The resultant of two forces which is the diagonal formed on the vectors of this force.
a) parallelogram law
b) equilibrium law
c) superposition law
d) action and reaction
213. Any pressure on the support causes an equal and opposite pressure from the support.
b) equilibrium law
214. Two forces on a rigid body will in no way to be changed if we added or subtract from them another system of
forces in equilibrium.
b) equilibrium law
215. Quantities which possess magnitude.
a) tensors
b) vector quantities
c) system of forces
d) scalar quantities
216. Quantities having both magnitude and direction.
a) tensors
c) system of forces
217. Quantities which posses magnitude but require two or more directional aspects.
a) tensors
c) system of forces
d) scalar quantities ans.a
218. When several forces act in a given situation.
a) tensors
c) system of forces
219. All forces of the system are in a common line action.
a) concurrent,coplanar
b) collinear forces system
c) parallel,coplanar
d) non concurrent,coplanar
220. The action lines of all the forces are in the same plane and intersect a common point.
221. The action lines of all the forces of the system are parallel and lie in the same plane.
222. The action lines of all the forces of the system are in the same plane,but they are not parallel and dont intersect
in a common point.
223. The action lines of all the forces are not in the same plane and intersect a common point.
a) concurrent,non coplanar
c) parallel,non coplanar
d) non concurrent,non coplanar,non parallel
224. The action lines of all the forces of the system are parallel and not all lie in the same plane.
225. The action lines of all the forces of the system are all not in the same plane, but they are all not parallel and do
not all intersect in a common point.
226. The simplest force system that can replace the original system without changing its external effect.
a) couple
b) resultant
c) composition
d) graphical
227. A pair of parallel forces having same magnitude but opposite senses.
a) couple
b) resultant
c) composition
d) graphical
228. The process of replacing a force system by its resultant
a) couple
b) resultant
c) composition
d) graphical
229. A pictorial representation in solving a system
a) couple
b) resultant
c) composition
d) graphical
230. Is used to obtain the magnitude and direction of the resultant of any two concurrent forces.
b) resolution
c) cosine law
d) triangle law
231. An analytical method of finding the resultant of concurrent forces.
b) resolution
c) cosine law
d) triangle law
232. Means that either one of two coplanar forces having the given force as resultant.
a) components
b) polygon method
c) moment of force
d) couple
233. Is used to check the results obtained from the resolution and composition method.
a) components
b) polygon method
c) moment of force
d) couple
234. Is a vector quantity that is represented as a vector along the moment axis.
a) components
b) polygon method
c) moment of force
d) couple
235. The algebraic sum of the moment of its forces about any axis perpendicular to the plane of the couple.
a) the magnitude of the couple

b) the slope of the plane of the couple.
c) the sense of rotation of the couple.
d) the moment of the couple.
236. The force of attraction of the earth on a body.
a) mass
b) density
c) weight
d) direction ans.c
237. Theorem of pappus which state that the surface area of any solid of revolution is the product of the length
multiplied by the distance travelled.
a) 1st proposition
b) 2nd proposition
c) 3rd proposition
d) 4th proposition
238. The surface area of the square of sphere is equal to the length of semi-circle multiplied by the distance travelled
by the centroid of a semi circle.
a) 1st proposition
b) 2nd proposition
c) 3rd proposition
d) 4th proposition
239. The volume of any solid of revolution is the product of the generating area .
a) 1st proposition
b) 2nd proposition
c) 3rd proposition
d) 4th proposition
240. Theorem used in locating the centroid of the semicircle arc.
a) pythagorean theorem
b) newtons theorem
c) pappus theorem
d) none of the above ans.c
241. A system of forces acting on a body which has no resultant.
a) free body diagram

b) equilibrium
c) coplanar
d) force
242. Is a sketch of a body completely isolated or free from all other bodies.
a) free body diagram

b) equilibrium
c) coplanar
d) force
243. Is a definite amount of matter the parts of which are fixed in position relative to one another.
a) mass
b) force
c) rigid body
d) static body
244. Is the action exerted by one body upon another.
a) mass
b) force
c) rigid body
d) static body
245. A unit of force
a) meter squared
b) pascal
c) pounds
d) newton
246. The external effect of a force in a rigid body is the same for all points along its line of action.
a) principle of transmissibility of a force

b) axioms of mechanics
c) characteristics of force
d) scalar and vector quantities
247. The resultant of two forces is the diagonal formed on two vectors of those forces.
b) resolution
c) cosine law
d) triangle law
248. The forces are in equilibrium only when equal in magnitude ,opposite in direction and collinear in action.
a) principle of transmissibility of a force

b) axioms of mechanics
c) characteristics of force
d) scalar and vector quantities
249. Is a convenient corollary of the parallelogram law.
b) resolution
c) cosine law
d) triangle law
250. The determination of the resultant of 3 or more concurrent forces that are not collinear.
a) resultant of concurrent,coplanar
251. Addition which is followed by the parallelogram law described by the figure.
a) resolution of the vector

b) addition of the vector
c) equilibrium equation for a particle
d) particle
252. An object with inertia but of negligible dimension.

d) particle
253. A particle is in equilibrium if the resultant of all forces acting on the particle is equal to zero.

d) particle
254. In a rectangular coordinate system the equilibrium equations can be represented by three scalar equations.
a) equilibrium equation in component form

b) free body diagram
c) string or cable
d) linear spring
255. A mechanical device that can only transmit a tensile force along itself.

c) string or cable
d) linear spring
256. A mechanical device that can which exerts a force along its line of its action and proportional to its extension.

c) string or cable
d) linear spring
257. The tension in the cable is the same on both sides of the pulley.
a) frictionless pulley
b) static equilibrium for a rigid body]
c) newtons 3rd law
d) composite bodies and external source
258. Each action has a reaction equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
b) static equilibrium for a rigid body]
c) newtons 3rd law
259. Forces and couples which are a result of interaction between one part of an object and another part of it will not
appear in the free body diagram of the whole object.
b) static equilibrium for a rigid body
c) newtons 3rd law
260. Each force or couple putted on a free diagram represents a model of how a body is affected by its surroundings.
a) a two force member

b) a three force member
c) forces and couples of a free body
d) truss
261. It is a structure made of two force members all pin is connected to each other.

d) truss
262. A body which has forces applied onto it at only two points and no couples applied onto it at all.

d) truss
263. A body which has forces applied onto it at only three points and no couples applied onto it at all.

d) truss
264. This method uses the free body diagram of joints in the structure to determine the forces in each member.
a) method of joints
b) the method of sections
c) zero force member
d) a redundant joint
265. This method uses free body diagrams of sections of the truss to obtain unknown forces.
a) method of joints
266. Some members in the truss which cannot carry load.
a) method of joints
267. In the free diagram load is directly transmitted from each member to the one opposite without any interaction.
a) method of joints
268. this members must be removed from the truss,otherwise one will have a insufficient number of equations.
a) redundant members
b) mechanism
c) curved members
d) none of the above
269. Sometimes there is too much freedom in a structure, the following structure cannot carry load since it will
collapse under the load.
b) mechanism
c) curved members
270. Two forces acting on a two force member are along the line connecting the two points on which the loads are
applied.
b) mechanism
c) curved members
271. A general triangular object which is placed between two objects to either hold them in place or is used to move
one relative to the other.
a) screw
b) self locking screw
c) frames
d) wedges
272. It is a combination of a two wedges obtain from the opening the helical treads..
a) screw
c) frames
d) wedges
273. If the lead angle is selected such that in the absence of a screwing moment.
a) screw
c) frames
d) wedges
274. Is the second moment of area around a given axis.
a) area moment of inertia

b) radius of gyration
c) parallel axis theorem
275. Can be calculated if we have a rectangular coordinate system,one can define the area moment of inertial around
the axis.

276. It is the distance away from the axis that all the area can be concentrated to result in the same moment of
inertia.

277. The explicit form of the laws of mechanics depend on this and is used to reference the motions.
a) eulers law
b) linear momentum of particle
c) linear momentum of a body
d) inertial frame
278. Law which governs the motion for a rigid body
a) eulers law
d) inertial frame
279. For a single particle of mass its linear momentum by its mass times its velocity.
a) eulers law
d) inertial frame
280. Is assumed to be the sum of the linear momentum of its particles.
a) eulers law
d) inertial frame
281. For a particle of mass is defined as the moment of linear momentum around the point.
a) angular momentum of a rigid body

b) angular momentum of a particle
c) angular velocity
d) angular acceleration
282. A vector itself which has a magnitude equal to the rate of rotation.

c) angular velocity
283. Is the rate of change of the angular velocity with respect to time.

c) angular velocity
284. When two surface come into contact forces are applied by each other surface on the other.
a) friction force
b) kinetic friction
c) static friction
d) pending motion
285. The frictional forces that can result between two surfaces slide relative to each other.
a) friction force
b) kinetic friction
c) static friction
d) pending motion
286. The frictional forces that can result when two surfaces are sliding to each other is proportional to the normal
force applied on the surface.
a) friction force
b) kinetic friction
c) static friction
d) pending motion
287. Refers to the state just before surfaces start to slip.
a) friction force
b) kinetic friction
c) static friction
d) pending motion
288. Is a method for predicting failure of a structure containing a crack.
a) fracture mechanics
b) continuum mechanics
c) deformation mechanics
d) fluid mechanics
289. The study of deformations typically in the elastic range.
d) fluid mechanics ans.c
290. It is the study on how fluids react to forces.
d) fluid mechanics
291. A method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.
d) fluid mechanics
292. Under this condition the forces or vectors are transformed into a polygon.
a) directional condition
b) analytical condition
c) hydraulics
d) graphical condition
293. If three or more non-parallel forces or vectors are in equilibrium they must be concurrent.
c) hydraulics
294. If forces or vectors are in equilibrium then it must satisfy the three static equations.
c) hydraulics
295. It is the application of fluid mechanics in engineering.
c) hydraulics
296. When the loading is uniformly distributed horizontally the cable is analyzed as.
a) parabolic cable
b) catenary
c) projectile
d) rotation
297. When the loading is distributed along the cable the cable is analyzed as
a) parabolic cable
b) catenary
c) projectile
d) rotation ans.b
298. Is one whose action is not confined to or associated with a unique line in space.
a) sliding vector
b) free vector
c) fixed vector
299. Is one for which a unique line in space must be maintained along which the quantity acts.
a) sliding vector
b) free vector
c) fixed vector
300. Is one which a unique point of application is specified and therefore the vector occupies a particular position in
space.
a) sliding vector
b) free vector
c) fixed vector
301. It is defined as the science which considers the effects of forces on rigid bodies
a. Kinetics
b. Engineering Mechanics
c. Statics
d. Dynamics.
302. It considers the effects is distribution of forces on rigid bodies which are and remain at rest.
a. Dynamics
b. kinetics
c. statics
d. kinematics
303. It is define as a definite amount of matter the parts which are fixed in position relative to each other.
a. kinematics
b. force system
c. rigid body
d. dynamics
304. It is the branch of mechanics which deals with the study of bodies in motion
a. statics
b. dynamics
c. kinetics
d. none of the above.
305. It is defined as a condition in which the resultant of a system of force is equal to zero.
a. resultant
b. axes
c. Equilibrium
d. displacement
306. The forces by which determine how the loads applied to a structure are distributed throughout the structure.
a. force system
b. analysis of structure
c. rigid body
d. none of the above
307. In _____ the members are subjected to bending action.
a. forces
b. trusses
c. frames
d. structure
308. In _____ the internal force in a bar is directed along the axis of bars.
a. frame
b. structure
c. forces
d. trusses
309. It may be defined as the contact resistance exerted by one body upon a second body when the second body
moves or tends to move past the first body.
a. resistance
b. pressure
c. friction
d. motion
310. The term ______ is used when rotating to the center of gravity of a weightless figure such as a line, an area or a
volumes.
a. centroid
b. axis
c. area
d. base
311. The moment of inertia is sometimes called the _______________.
a. parallel axis
b. second moment of area
c. polar moment of inertia
312. The term ________ is used to describe another mathematical expression appears and appears must frequently in
column formulas.
a. radius of gyration
b. centroidal axis
c. moments of inertia
d. mohrs circle
313. The moment of inertia of an area is defined by the equation?
a. I =Ak2
b. Ir+Iy
c. Sp2dA
d. SxydA
314. The pendulum clock was developed by ________
a. Robert Hooke
b. Hygens
c. Galileo
d. Aristotle
315. It is the geometry of motion.
a. static
b. kinematics
c. kinetic
d. dynamics
316. It is the branch of mechanics that relates the force acting on a body to its mass and acceleration.
a. Dynamics
b. statics
c. kinematic
d. kinetic.
317. The ____ expresses the relation between the external forces applied to a system of particles and the effective
force on each particle of the system.
a. Newtons Law of Motion

b. Dalemberts principle
c. Inertia force of particle
318. It is defined as the motion of a rigid body in which a straight live passing through any two point of the body
always remain parallel to its initial position.
a. Translation
b. velocity
c. acceleration
319. The motion of translating body moving in a straight line is called _______.
a. rectilinear translation
b. curve linear translation
c. parallel axis
d. kinematic equation of motion
320. The path of the translating body is curved, the motion becomes _____.
a. rectilinear translation
b. parallel axes
c. curve linear translation
321. The area under a v-t curve represents the change in ______
a. displacement
b. velocity
c. mass
d. acceleration
322. The area under an a-t curve represents the change in _______
a. acceleration
b. displacement
c. velocity
323. When the principle of the motion of the center of gravity is applied to rectilinear translation we obtain _____.
a. x = w?ga
b. 10/ga
c. x =q/g
324. The normal component of acceleration is expressed by______.
a. n =v2/r
b. t = dv/dt
c. = n + t
325. It is define as that motion of rigid body in which the particles move in a circular paths with their centers on a
fixed straight line.
a. translation
b. rotation
c. acceleration
326. ________ is measured in radians by the angular distance swept through by any radians of or line in the rotating
body
a. angular displacement
b. angular velocity
c. angular acceleration
327. It is defined as the motion of rigid body in which all particles in the body remain at a constant distance from a
fixed reference plane.
a. angular velocity
b. plane motion
c. rotation
d. translation
328. The expression w/2g v2 is defined as _________.
a. resultant work
b. kinetic energy
c. acceleration
329. The expression S8oX.ds define as _________
a. kinetic energy
b. resultant work
c. work energy equation
330. It is a motion which repeats itself after a define internal of time
a. frequency
b. vibration
c. precession
331. The maximum displacement of the body from its equilibrium position is known as the ____ of the vibration.
a. frequency
b. acceleration
c. amplitude
d. force
332. Each repetition of the motion is called a _______.
a. period
b. vibrations
c. cycle
333. The ____ of the vibration is the reciprocal of the period and is measured in cycles per second.
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. vibrations
334. The time required to complete one oscillation backward and forward is called the _____ of the motion.
a. cycle
b. vibrations
c. period
335. The condition existing when the impressed frequency is equal to the natural frequency is known as_______.
a. resonance
b. displacement
c. cycle
d. amplitude
336. The speed of rotation at which resonance occurs is called ________.
a. cycle
b. vibrations
c. critical speed
d. rotation
337. the = w2s is the mathematical description for _________
a. simple harmonic motion

b. work energy method
c. plane motion
338. __________ is the time rate at which work is done on a body.
a. motion
b. cycle
c. power
d. resultant
339. The __________ is a traditional unit equivalent to 550 ftlb of work per sec, or 33,000 ft-lb of work per min.
a. watt
b. kilowatt
c. horse power
340. It is the ratio of power output to power input.
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. efficiency
341. It is defined as that which changes, or tends to change, the state of motion of a body.
a. acceleration
b. force
c. speed
d. velocity
342. An axis passing through the centroid of an area is known as a _________
a. parallel axis
b. centroidal axis
c. radius
343. It is defined as the time rate of change of displacement.
a. speed
b. velocity
c. distance
344. It is defined as the time rate of change of velocity
a. displacement
b. speed
c. acceleration
345. The _______ is a force that results from the attraction between the mass of the body and the mass of the earth.
a. weight
b. density
c. volume
346. The line joining the center of gravity and the center of rotation will be called______.
a. T axis
b. N axis
c. Z axis
d. Y axis
347. The line through the center of rotation perpendicular to N will be called _________.
a. Z axis
b. N axis
c. T axis
348. The axis of rotation will be called the ______.
a. N axis
b. Z axis
c. T axis
349. The _____________ are called the normal and tangential axes since they are respectively normal and tangent to
the path of the center of gravity.
a. rotating axes
b. center of percussion
c. centroidal axis
350. A _______________ is defined as a particle at the end of a weightless cord that is allowed to vibrate in a
vertical arc of a circle under the influence of gravity and the tension in the cord.
a. force vibrations
b. simple pendulum
c. plane motion
351. A simply supported beam is 5 meters in length. It carries a uniformly distributed load including its own weight
of 300 N/m and a concentrated load of 100 N, 2 meters from the left end. Find the reactions if reaction A is at the
left end and reaction B at the right end.
A. Ra = 810 N & Rb = 700 N

B. Ra = 700 N & Rb = 800 N
C. Ra = 810 N & Rb = 780 N
D. Ra = 700 N & Rb =8 10 N
352. A beam of span x meters with uniform loading of w kilograms per meter is supported at one end (A) and a
distance of 2 m from the other end (B). Find the reaction at support A.
A. (wx^2)/ [2(x-2)] kg
B. [wx(x-4)]/[2(x-2)] kg
C. [wx(x-2)]/[2(x-2)] kg
D. wx/[2(x-2)] kg
353. When one boy is sitting 1.2 m from the center of a see-saw, another boy must to sit on the other side 1.5 m
from the center to maintain an even balance. However, when the first boy carries an additional weight of 14 kg and
sit 1.8 m from the center, the second boy must move to 3 m from the center to balance. Neglecting the weight of the
see-saw, find the weight of the heavier boy.
A. 30 kg
B. 42 kg
C. 34 kg
D. 45 kg
354. A 40 kg block is resting on an inclined plane making an angle of 20 from the horizontal. If the coefficient of
friction is 0.60, determine the force parallel to the incline that must be applied to cause impending motion down the
plane.
A. 82
B. 77
C. 87
D. 72
355. A 250 lb. block is initially at rest on a flat surface that is inclined at 30. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is
0.30 and the coefficient of static friction is 0.40, find the force required to start the block moving up the plane.
A. 190 lb
B. 212 lb
C. 125 lb
D. 75 lb
356. A 600 N block rests in a surface inclined at 30. Determine the horizontal force P required to prevent the block
from sliding down. Angle of friction between the block and the inclined plane is 15.
A. 160.75 N
B. 198.55 N
C. 164.60 N
D. 190.45 N
357. Assume the three force vectors intersect at a single point.
F1 = 4i + 2j + 5k
F2 = 2i + 7j 3k
F3 = 2i j + 6k
What is the magnitude of the resultant force vector, R?
A. 14
B. 12
C. 13
D. 15
358. Given the 3-dimensional vectors:
A = i(xy) + j(2yz) + k(3zx)
B = i(yz) + j(2zx) + k(xy)
Determine the magnitude of the vector sum |A + B| at coordinates (3,2,1).
A. 32.92
B. 29.92
C. 27.20
D. 24.73
359. At what angle does the force F = 6.23i 2.38j +4.92 kN makes with the x-axis?
A. 39.2 deg
B. 40.2 deg
C. 41.3 deg
D. 42.2 deg
360. Assume the three force vectors intersect at a single point.
F1 = i + 3j + 4k
F2 = 2i + 7j k
F3 = -i + 4j + 2k
What is the magnitude of the resultant force vector, R?
A. 15
B. 13.23
C. 14.73
D. 16.16
361. A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 500 ft apart, the load is 500 lbs.
per horizontal foot including the weight of the cable. The sag of the cable is 30 feet. Calculate the total length of the
cable.
A. 503.76 ft.
B. 502.76 ft
C. 504.76 ft
D. 501.76 ft
362. A cable supported at two points of same level has a unit weight, of 0.02 kg per meter of horizontal distance.
The allowed sag is 0.02 m and a maximum tension at the lowest point of 1200 kg and a factor of safety of 2.
Calculate the allowable spacing of the poles assuming a parabolic cable.
A. 64.02 m
B. 66.37 m
C. 67.76 m
D. 69.28 m
363. A cable carrier a horizontal load of 20 kg/m. Neglecting its own weight, find the maximum tension on the cable
if the distance between the supports is 100 m and the sag is 5 m.
A. 5099 kg
B. 5059 kg
C. 5199 kg
D. 5215 kg
364. Determine the sag of a flexible wire cable weighing 60 N/m over two frictionless pulleys 100m apart and
carrying one 10 kN weight at each end. Assume the weight of the cable to be uniformly distributed horizontally. The
cable extends 5 m beyond each pulley to the point they are attached to the weights.
A. 7.2 m
B. 7.4 m
C. 7.6 m
D. 7.8 m
365. A copper cable is suspended between two supports on the same level, spaced 600 m apart. The cable hangs
under the influence of its own weight only. Under these conditions, it is desired to calculate the maximum sag (at the
center of the span) when the maximum stress in the material is 1000 kg/cm^2. The cross section of the cable is 1.77
sq. cm. weight of the cable = 1.5 kg/m. Use parabolic equation.
A. 42.26 m
B. 43.26 m
C. 44.26 m
D. 45.26 m
366. A cable weighing 0.4 kg/m and 800m long is to be suspended with a sag of 80 m. Determine the maximum
tension.
A. 414 kg
B. 420 kg
C. 416 kg
D. 400 kg
367. A cable weighing 60 N/m is suspended between two supports on the same level at 300 m apart. The sag is 60
m. Compute the distance of the lowest point of the cable from the ground level.
A. 205.5 m
B. 196.8 m
C. 200.5 m
D. 188.2 m
368. Find the location of the centroid of the composite area consisting of a 10-inch square surmounted by a semi-
circle. The centroid of a semicircle is located 4r/3 above the base (diameter) of the semi circle of radius r.
A. 6.0 inches from the bottom

B. 6.2 inches from the bottom
C. 6.4 inches from the bottom
D. 7.0 inches from the bottom
369. Electrical loads are arranged on horizontal x,y axes as follows:
Load x-coordinate y- coordinate Kilowatt-load

1 0 2 100
2 1 1 180
3 1 3 200
4 2 0 120
5 2 4 150
6 3 1 200
7 3 3 180
8 4 2 100
A. x = 2.000, y = 2.049
B. x = 2.163, y = 2.195
C. x = 1.854, y = 2.211
D. x = 2.146, y = 1.902
370. A rectangle has a base of 3 cm and a height of 6 cm. What is its second moment of area (in cm^4) about an axis
through the center of gravity and parallel to the base?
A. 64
B. 34
C. 44
D. 54
371. A circle has a diameter of 20 cm. Determine the moment of inertia of the circular area relative to the axis
perpendicular to the area through the center of the circle in cm^4.
A. 14,280
B. 15,708
C. 17,279
D. 19,007
372. The moment of inertia of a section 2 wide x 2 0 high about an axes 10 above the bottom edge of the
section is:
A. 1834 in^4
B. 384 in^4
C. 9214 in^4
D. 2304 in^4
373. An isosceles triangle has a 10cm base and a 10 cm altitude. Determine the moment of inertia of the triangular
area relative to a line parallel to the base and through the upper vertex in cm^4.
A. 2750
B. 3025
C. 2500
D. 2273
374. What is the moment of inertia of a cylinder of radius 5 m and mass of 5 kg?
A. 120 kg-m^2
B. 80 kg-m^2
C. 62.5 kg-m^2
D. 72.5 kg-m^2
375. What is the inertia of a bowling ball (mass = 0.5 kg) of radius 15 cm rotating at an angular speed of 10 rpm for
6 seconds?
A. 0.001 kg-m^2
B. 0.002 kg-m^2
C. 0.005 kg-m^2
D. 0.0045 kg-m^2
376. What is the acceleration of the body that increases in velocity from 20 m/s to 40 m/s in 3 seconds?
A. 5.00 m/s^2
B. 6.67 m/s^2
C. 7.00 m/s^2
D. 8.00 m/s^2
377. How far does an automobile move while its speed increases uniformly from 15 kph to 45kph in 20 seconds?
A. 185 m
B. 167 m
C. 200 m
D. 172 m
378. A train passing point A at a speed of 72 kph accelerates at 0.75 m/s^2 for one minute along a straight path then
decelerates at 1.0 m/s^2. How far in km from point A will it be 2 minutes after passing point A?
A. 3.60 km
B. 4.65 km
C. 6.49 km
D. 7.30 km
379. From a speed of 75 kph a car decelerates at the rate of 500 m/min^2 along a straight path. How far in meters
will it travel in 45 seconds?
A. 790.293 m
B. 791.357 m
C. 793.238 m
D. 796.875 m
380. A train starting at initial velocity of 30 kph travels a distance of 21 km in 18 minutes. Determine the
acceleration of the train at this instant.
A. 0.0043 m/s^2
B. 0.0206 m/s^2
C. 0.0865 m/s^2
D. 0.3820 m/s^2
381. An automobile moving at a constant velocity of a 15 m/sec passes a gasoline station. Two seconds later,
another automobile leaves the gasoline station and accelerates at a constant rate of 2 m/sec^2. How soon will the
second automobile overtake the first?
A. 15.3 sec
B. 16.8 sec
C. 13.5 sec
D. 18.6 sec
382. If a particle position is given by the expression x(t) = 3.4t^3 5.4t meters, what is the acceleration of the
particle after t=5 seconds?
A. 1.02 m/s^2
B. 102 m/s^2
C. 3.4 m/s^2
D. 18.1 m/s^2
383. The distance a body travels is a function of time and is given by x(t) = 18t + 9t^2. Find its velocity at t=2.
A. 36
B. 54
C. 24
D. 20
384. Determine the velocity of progress with the given equation: D = 20t + 5/(t+1) when t = 4 seconds.
A. 18.6 m/s
B. 19.8 m/s
C. 21.2 m/s
D. 22.4 m/s
385. A ball is dropped from a building 100 m high. If the mass of the ball is 10 gm after what time will the ball
strike the earth?
A. 4.52 s
B. 4.42 s
C. 5.61 s
D. 2.45 s
386. A ball is dropped from the roof of a building 40 meters tall will hit the ground with the velocity of;
A. 50 m/sec
B. 28 m/sec
C. 19.8 m/sec
D. 30 m/sec
387. Using a powerful air gun, a steel ball is shot vertically upward with a velocity of 80 meters per second,
followed by another shot after 5 seconds. Find the initial velocity of the second ball in order to meet the first ball
150 meters from the ground.
A. 65.3 m/sec
B. 45.1 m/sec
C. 56.2 m/sec
D. 61.3 m/sec
388. A ball is thrown vertically upward from the ground and a student gazing out of the window sees it moving
upward pass him at 5 m/sec. The window is 10 m above the ground. How high does the ball go above the ground?
A. 15.25 m
B. 14.87 m
C. 9.97 m
D. 11.30 m
389. A ball is dropped from a height of 60 meters above the ground. How long does it take to hit the ground?
A. 2.1 sec
B. 3.5 sec
C. 5.5 sec
D. 1.3 sec
390. A baseball is thrown from a horizontal plane following a parabolic path with an initial velocity of 100 m/s at an
angle of 30 above the horizontal. How far from the throwing point will the ball attain its original level?
A. 890 m
B. 883 m
C. 880 m
D. 875 m
391. A plane dropped a bomb at an elevation of 1000 meters from the ground intended to hit the target at an
elevation of 200 meters from the ground. If the plane was flying at a velocity of 300 km/hr, at what distance from
the target must the bomb be dropped to hit the target. Wind velocity and atmospheric pressure to be disregarded.
A. 1024.2 m
B. 1055.6 m
C. 1075.5 m
D. 1064.2 m
392. The muzzle velocity of a projectile is 1500 fps and the distance of the target is 10 miles. The angle of elevation
of the gun must be:
A. 21 59
B. 22 41
C. 24 43
D. 25 18
393. A shot is fired at an angle of 45 degrees with the horizontal and a velocity of 300 fps. Calculate, to the nearest
value, the range of the projectile.
A. 932 yards
B. 1200 yards
C. 3500 yards
D. 4000 yards
394. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an angle of 30 degrees with the horizontal. Find the maximum height
that it could reach.
A. 31.86 m
B. 31.28 m
C. 30.62 m
D. 30.12 m
395. A shot is fired with an angle of 45 with the horizontal with a velocity of 300 ft/s. Find the maximum height
and range that the projectile can cover, respectively.
A. 800 ft, 1600 ft

B. 923 ft, 3500 ft
C. 700 ft, 2800 ft
D. 1800 ft, 3000 ft
396. A ball is thrown from a tower 30 m high above the ground with a velocity of 300 m/s directed at 20 from the
horizontal. How long will the ball hit the ground?
A. 21.2 s
B. 22.2 s
C. 23.2 s
D. 24.2 s
397. In the last two second of NBA finals featuring Chicago Bulls VS Utah Jazz, with the latter ahead by 2 points
with the former 94-92 count. Bulls Michael Jordan decides to shoot from a certain point on the rainbow territory
which counts 3 point if converted. During the play, if Jordan releases the ball at 7 m from the basket and 2.15 m
above the ground and an inclination of 40 with the horizontal and assuming no block was made by the opponents,
at what velocity will the ball be given to cast the winning basket? The basket is 10 feet from the ground.
A. 8.57 m/s
B. 8.86 m/s
C. 9.03 m/s
D. 9.27 m/s
398. A projectile is fired with a muzzle velocity of 300 m/s from a gun aimed upward at an angle of 20 with the
horizontal, from the top of a building 30 m high above a level ground. With what velocity will it hit the ground in
m/s?
A. 298 m/s
B. 299 m/s
C. 300 m/s
D. 301 m/s
399. A stone is thrown upward at an angle of 30 with the horizontal. It lands 60 m measured horizontally and 2 m
below measured vertically from its point of release. Determine the initial velocity of the stone in m/s.
A. 22.35 m/s
B. 23.35 m/s
C. 24.35 m/s
D. 25.35 m/s
400. A wooden block having a weight of 50 N is placed at a distance of 1.5 m from the center of a circular platform
rotating at a speed of 2 radians per second. Determine the minimum coefficient of friction of the block so that it will
not slide. Radius of the circular platform is 3 m.
A. 0.55
B. 0.58
C. 0.61
D. 0.65

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Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.

A. 347.77 N at 114.85 degrees

A. 532.78 N, 55.32 degrees

A. All forces act at the same point.

A. 1 reaction and 1 moment

A. the center of the beam subjected to the distributed load

A. twice the area under the loading curve

A. A beam supported only at its ends.

A. may be greater than or less than

A. area and square of the distance from the reference axis

A. area and square of the distance between two parallel axes

A. Force, mass, velocity, time

A. Force, mass, velocity, time

A. Newtons first law

A. linear velocity and impulse

A. 4.5 x 10^-10 erg

A. The cross product is commutative.

A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.

A. ground reflected force

A. mass of the load

A. the applied force is zero.

A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.

A. Particle Image Velocimetry

A. Navier Stokes Equations

A. no forces are acting on the object.

A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry

A. determine the state of stress in a section

A. moment of axis theorem

A. the applied force is zero

A. mass moment of inertia

A. degrees per second

A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity

A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle

A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

A. coefficient of rolling friction

a) the magnitude of the couple

a) free body diagram

a) free body diagram

a) principle of transmissibility of a force

a) principle of transmissibility of a force

a) resolution of the vector

a) resolution of the vector

a) resolution of the vector

a) equilibrium equation in component form

a) equilibrium equation in component form

a) equilibrium equation in component form

a) a two force member

a) a two force member

a) a two force member

a) a two force member

a) area moment of inertia

a) area moment of inertia

a) area moment of inertia

a) angular momentum of a rigid body

a) angular momentum of a rigid body

a) angular momentum of a rigid body

a. Newtons Law of Motion