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Sankalp IIT
A M UST D O T EST S ERIES FOR S URE S HOT S UCCESS
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Time : 3 hrs. VineetLoomba.com AITS - 1 Max. Marks: 360

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Topics covered in various subjects :

Physics : Mathematical Tools (Graphs & Vectors), Physics and Measurement, Kinematics, Laws of

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Motion

Chemistry :

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Some basic concepts of Chemistry, States of Matter (Gaseous & Liquid), Atomic Structure,
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties; Chemical Bonding and Molecular
Structure
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Mathematics : Sets, Relations, Functions, Trigonometric ratios and Identities, Trigonometric Equations,
Inverse Trigonometric Functions, Heights and Distances

Instructions:
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(i) Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

(ii) The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

(iii) There are three parts in the question paper. Distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for
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each correct response.

Part A PHYSICS (120 marks) Questions No.1 to 30 consist FOUR (4) marks each for each correct
response.
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Part B CHEMISTRY (120 marks) Questions No.31 to 60 consist FOUR (4) marks each for each correct
response.
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Part C MATHEMATICS (120 marks) Questions No.61 to 90 consist FOUR (4) marks each for each
correct response.

(iv) One fourth () marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
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the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

(v) Pattern of the Question: Section I : Multiple Type Objective Questions (Straight Single Choice Multiple
Type Questions); Section II: Assertion Reason Type Questions; Section III: Comprehension
Type Questions : (One Comprehension Type Question should have 3 questions - Multiple Concept Ques-
tions); Section IV: Straight Objective Questions: (Straight Single Choice - Multiple Concept Questions
and/or Difficulty/Lengthy calculations & Application based questions)
Class (XII) 2

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Class (XII)
All India Test Series
3

[PART-A:PHYSICS]
SECTION - I (3) 3.5 s (4) 6.5 s
Straight Single Choice Multiple Type Questions / 7. An object A of mass m is thrown from point A
Application Based Single Choice Questions horizontally with a velocity of 10 m/s. Simultaneously
This section contains 16 multiple choice questions numbered another object of mass 2m is from B at an angle of
1 to 16. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), 60 with the horizontal towards with the same
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. magnitude of initial velocity as that of the first object.
The two objects move in the same vertical plane.
Choose the correct answer : Choose the incorrect statement.
2x B
x 60
1. In the equation a n sin 1 1 the
2ax x 2 a
value of n is
A
(1) 0 (2) 1 30 m
(3) 2 (4) 3 20 m
2. Linear momentum of a body is increased by 0.1%

m
keeping mass of the body constant. Percentage
increase in its kinetic energy is (1) Relative acceleration between them is zero
(1) 0.1% (2) 0.05% (2) For collision relative velocity of B w.r.t. A should

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(3) 0.2% (4) 0.4% be along BA
(3) Relative motion between them will be non-
The volume of a body is 2 m 3. The volume of this
3.
body in a system in which unit of length is x m will be

(1) 2x3 (2) 3

2
.c uniform
(4) Initial horizontal components of A and B are
different
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x 8. ABCDEFA is a regular hexagon and its centre is at
2
(3) 2x (4) O. The vector sum OA OB OC OD OE is
x

4. The volume of a sphere is 2.44 cm3. The volume of (1) OA (2) OB
16 such spheres taking into account the significant
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(3) OC (4) Zero

figure is
9. A cart is moving along x-direction with a velocity
(1) 38 (2) 39.0 3 m/s. A person on the cart throws a stone with a
(3) 38.88 (4) 38.8 velocity of 6 m/s relative to himself. In the frame of
reference of the cart, the stone is thrown in y z
5. Spotlight S rotates in a horizontal plane with constant plane making an angle of 30 with vertical z-axis. The
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angular velocity. The spot of light P moves with speed velocity of projection of the stone (with respect to
0.6 m/s along the wall at a distance of 3 m when ground) is
= 60. The angular velocity of spotlight is
(1) 3i 3 j 3 3 k
S
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(2) 3i 4 j 3 3 k
3m
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P (3) 3 3 i 4 j 3 k

(1) 0.3 rad/s (4) 3 3 i 3 j 4 k

(2) 0.2 rad/s 10. The initial velocity of a body is 11 m/s towards north
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and its acceleration is 2 m/s2 towards south. The

(3) 0.4 rad/s
distance travelled by the body in 6th second is
(4) 0.05 rad/s
(1) 1 m (2) 0.5 m
6. A body is thrown vertically upward with a speed of
(3) 0.25 m (4) Zero
40 m/s at t = 0 and another body of same mass is
projected with same velocity at t = 3 s. Time t at 11. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of radius
which they will collide is 100 m with a constant speed. A bob is suspended
(1) 4.5 s (2) 5.5 s from the roof of the car by a light and small rigid rod.

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Class (XII)
All India Test Series
4
The angle made by the rod with reference to its initial (1) = (m1 + m2)g (2) < (m1 + m2)g
vertical line is 45 as shown in figure. The speed of
the car is (3) > (m1 + m2)g (4) (m1 + m2)g
15. In the arrangement the maximum value of F for
which both the blocks move together is
45
2 kg
= 0.3
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 10ms1 3 kg
=0 F
(3) 15 m/s (4) 20 m/s
(1) 10 N (2) 15 N
12. In the arrangement shown the pulley is massless and
frictionless. The acceleration of the pulley is (3) 20 N (4) 25 N
16. If the coefficient of friction between tyres and road is
F 1 then the minimum time taken by the car starting
from rest to travel through 500 m is
(1) 5 s (2) 10 s

m
(3) 15 s (4) 20 s
m SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions

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Directions : Questions number 17 to 21 are Assertion-

(1)
F 2 mg
m
(2)
F 2 mg
2m .c Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains
two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-
2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
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answer. You have to select the correct choice.
F 2 mg F 2 mg
(3) 4m (4) 8m 17. A particle Q is projected at t = 0 along the horizontal
string with speed v from point A
13. In the arrangement shown if B exerts a force f on C
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then the force F acting on A is A Q B

A B C P
F
mA mB mC
Frictionless Particle P is sliding down a frictionless hemispherical
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bowl such that horizontal component of its velocity is

m mB m mC v when passes the point A at t = 0.
(1) f A 1 (2) f A 1
mC mB Statement-1 : Time taken by the particle P will be less
than, time taken by the particle Q to reach B.
m mC mA
(3) f B 1 (4) f 1 and
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m A m
B mC
Statement-2 : Horizontal displacement for both the
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14. In the arrangement shown pulley is massless and particles are equal.
frictionless and spring balance is light. The reading of (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
spring balance is Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
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(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
18. Statement-1 : The magnitude of relative velocity of A
m2 m1 with respect to B is lesser than the speed of either,
when they are moving in same direction.

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 All India Test Series
Class (XII) 5
and (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 : If velocity of A is VA, velocity of B is VB Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
then velocity of A with reference to B is given by Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
VAB VA VB
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Statement-1
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for SECTION - III
Statement-1
Comprehension Type Questions
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Directions : Question No. 22 to 24 are based on the
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True following paragraph.
19. Statement-1 : Earth is a non-inertial frame because A lift starts from rest at t = 0 sec and ascends with constant
the earth is revolving round the sun. acceleration of a = 2ms2. At t = 2 sec, A loose bolt separates
from the ceiling of lift. The height of lift is 2 m.

m
and
Statement-2 : Accelerated frame is a non-inertial frame 2ms2
of reference.

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(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; 2m
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-
1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
.c 22. After what time, will the bolt (after being loosen) strike
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Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for with the floor of lift
Statement-1
1
(1) 1.9 sec (2) sec
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False 2
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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1
(3) sec (4) 1.5 sec
20. Statement-1 : For one dimensional motion the angle 3
between acceleration and velocity will be either zero
23. The displacement of bolt (after being loosen) till it
or 180.
strikes with floor
and
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1 5
Statement-2 : If velocity of a particle is always (1) m (2) m
3 3
perpendicular to acceleration then the particle must
be moving on a circular path. 4 5 4
(3) m (4) m
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; 3 3 3
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Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

24. The speed with which bolt strikes with floor of lift
Statement-1
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(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; 10 1 10 1

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for (1) 4 ms (2) 4 ms
3 3
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False 10 10 1
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(3) ms1 (4) 2 ms

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True 3 3

21. Statement-1 : Newtons second law of motion is valid

SECTION - IV
in inertial frame only.
and
Straight Objective Questions
Statement-2 : Newtons first and third law are Directions : Question No. 25 to 30 are based on the
contained in second law. following Multiple concept questions and/or difficulty/
lengthy calculations & application based questions.

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 Class (XII)
All India Test Series 6

25. A block slides down an inclined plane with constant 28. A body released from a given height H hits a fixed
velocity. It is then projected up the same plane, with inclined plane in its path at a height h. As a result of
an initial velocity V0. It will move before coming to rest this impact the direction of the velocity of the body
is becomes horizontal. Total flight time of the body is
(Assume that collision is elastic)
( angle which the inclined plane makes with
2 O
vertical)
(1)
g
H h h
V02
(1) 2 H
2g cos (2)
g
H h h
h
V02
(2) 1
2g sin (3)
g
H h h x

V02 1
(3)
4g cos (4)
g

H h h
V02 29. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius
(4) r = 2m. The speed of particle is increasing at the

m
4g sin constant rate of 4.5 ms2. At the instant when speed
26. A cylinder mounted on an horizontal axle. A massless of the particle is 3ms 1 , the angle between
string wound on it two and half turn and connected direction of total acceleration and tangential direction,

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to two masses m and 3m. If the system is in limiting will be
equilibrium, the coefficient of friction between the (1) 45
string and the pulley surface is

(1)
1
5
ln(3) (2)
1

ln(3) .c (2) 30
(3) 60

1
ba
1 1 (4) Tan1
(3) ln(5) (4) ln(5) 2
2 30. A particle is vertically projected with initial speed of 20
27. The coordinates of a particle moving in a plane are ms1, freely under gravity. The time interval between
given by x(t) = acos(pt) and y(t) = bsin(pt), where a, the incidents when the particle will be at the height of
b(<a) and p are positive constant of appropriate 10m above the point of projection, is
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dimensions, displacement of the particle from

1
10ms2 =g u = 20ms
t = 0 to t
2p
(1) a + b (1) 4 2 sec
(2) 2a + b
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(2) 2 sec
a 2 b2 (3) 2 2 sec
(3)
2
(4) 2 sec
(4) a2 b2
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PreparedBy:
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7

[PART-B:CHEMISTRY]
SECTION - I (1) 1 atm (2) 2 atm
Straight Single Choice Multiple Type Questions / (3) 0.5 atm (4) 0.75 atm
Application Based Single Choice Questions
This section contains 16 multiple choice questions numbered 38. In which of the following electron transition in Li+2
31 to 46. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), same wavelength is observed as 4 2 transition of
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. He+?
(1) 4 3

31. The hybridisation of N & C in CH2 NH2 are (2) 6 4
(3) 6 3
respectively
(4) No transition is possible
(1) sp3, sp2 (2) sp2, sp2
39. Which of the following is correct relationship?
(3) sp2, sp3 (4) sp2, sp
n2
32. Which of the following has highest electron affinity? (1) Radius of orbit
z2

m
(1) F (2) B
z2
(2) K.E.
(3) Cl (4) O n

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33. In a container having movable piston, 1 mole CO2 z3
(3) Force of attraction
gas is filled. If at same temperature one mole CO2 is n3
further introduced, the density of gas will be
(assuming ideal behavior)

(1) Unchanged (2) Doubled

.c (4) Time of revolution
n3
z2
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40. Which of the following has different number of radial
(3) Halved (4) Unpredictable nodes?
(1) 4 d (2) 3 p
34. Same number of atoms as 4 gram H 2 gas are
present in (3) 2 s (4) 3 d
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(1) 64 gram SO2 gas (2) 56 gram N2 gas 41. If Aufbau principle is not allowed the maximum
number of elements in 4th period of periodic table will
(3) 40 gram SO3 gas (4) Both (2) & (3) be

35. The equivalent weight of HCl when it is treated with (1) 8 (2) 18
K2Cr2O7 is (M is molar mass of HCl) (3) 32 (4) 50
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42. Which of the following is correct about Charles'law ?

M 5M
(1) (2)
6 3
V
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7M 7M (1) (2) P
(3) (4)
3 6
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T (kelvin) V
36. For which of the following gas molar volume at N.T.P.
will be greater than 22.4L?
2
V
(1) CO2
(3) (4) All of these
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(2) He

(3) N2 T
43. In Bohrs atomic model which of the following
(4) No such gas is possible properties related to an orbit is independent to mass
37. Vapour pressure inside a container is 1 atm at 100C. of electron?
If at same temperature volume of container becomes (1) Velocity (2) Time of revolution
half, the final vapour pressure will be
(3) Kinetic energy (4) Radius

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 Class (XII)
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44. Which has maximum vapour pressure at a given Statement-2 : HCl reacts with K2Cr2O7 & reduces it.
temperature?
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
OH OH
CHO Statement-1

(1) (2) (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
NO2
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

OH (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

OH
49. Statement-1 : For hypothetical g subshell, value of
(3) (4) azimuthal quantum no. will be 4.

CHO and
COOH Statement-2 : For g subshell the minimum value of
principal quantum number will be 5.
45. A gas can be liquified
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) above its critical temperature

m
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-
(2) at its critical temperature 1
(3) below its critical temperature (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

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(4) at any temperature Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
46. How many grams of H2O can be formed by 8 grams
of each H2 and O2 gases?
(1) 9 g
(3) 18 g
(2) 16 g
(4) 12 g
.c (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
50. Statement-1 : According to M.O. theory, O2+ possess
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paramagnetic character
SECTION - II and
Assertion Reason Type Questions Statement-2 : The stability of O2+ greater than O2.
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Directions : Questions number 47 to 51 are Assertion- (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-
2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
answer. You have to select the correct choice. Statement-1
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47. Statement-1 : If one mole acetic acid is completely (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
neutrallised by NaOH, 13.7 kcal heat is released. (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
and 51. Statement-1 : The energy of an electron is largely
determined by its principal quantum number
e

Statement-2 : Acetic acid is a weak acid.

and
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
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Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-2 : The principal qunatum number is a

Statement-1 measure of the most possible distance of binding the
electron around the nucleus
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
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Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1 Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
48. Statement-1 : In selection of acidic medium for
K2Cr2O7, HCl can not be used as acid. (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
and

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 Class (XII)
All India Test Series 9
55. Which type of bond is not present in HNO2 molecule?
SECTION - III
(1) Covalent
Comprehension Type Questions
Directions : Question No. 52 to 54 are based on the (2) Co-ordinate
following paragraph. (3) Ionic
The resultant bond moments is called dipole moment. The (4) Ionic as well as co-ordinate
bond moment can be calculated as = q d
56. Among the following the molecule with the highest
For calculation of dipole moment for two bond moment dipolemoment is
1 & 2.
(1) CH3 Cl (2) CH2Cl2
1
(3) CHCl3 (4) CCl4

2 57. 0.3 mole Zn, 0.5 mole Fe & 1.1 mole S are mixed to
form maximum amount of Zn(FeS2)2. Which of the
following statements are correct?
12 22 212 cos

m
(i) Fe is limiting reagent
52. If dipole moment of bromobenzene x debye, the (ii) 0.25 mole Zn(FeS2) is formed
dipole moment of 1, 2, 3, 5-tetrabromo-benzene is
(iii) Zn is completely consumed

o
(1) x debye (2) 2x debye (1) I & III (2) II & III

(3) 5x debye (4)

2
5
x debye
.c (3) I & II (4) I, II & III
58. No. of resonating structure & bond order of
PO43 are respectively
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53. Which of the following has maximum dipole moment?
(1) 4, 2 (2) 5, 2.5
(1) o-chlorotoluene (2) m-chlorotoluene (3) 5, 1.25 (4) 4, 1.25
(3) p-chlorotoluene (4) Same in all of these 59. The magnetic moment of Mn +n is 4.9 B.M.
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The number of unpaired e and value of x are

54. The net dipole moment is zero in
respectively
(1) PBr2Cl3 (2) PBr3Cl2 (1) 4, 1 (2) 5, 3
(3) 4, 3 (4) 5, 1
(3) SF4 (4) ICl
5
60. The moles of KMnO4 required in alkaline medium to
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SECTION - IV convert 1 mole Sb2S3 in SbO43 and SO2 gas are

Straight Objective Question (1) 4.4

Directions : Question No. 55 to 60 are based on (Straight (2) 22

e

Single Choice - Multiple Concept Questions and/or (3) 20

Difficulty/Lengthy calculations & Application based
questions) (4) 4
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 Class (XII)
All India Test Series 10

[PART-C:MATHEMATICS]
SECTION - I x y z
Straight Single Choice Multiple Type Questions / 3 will be (where x, y and
1 1
tan x tan y tan1 z
Application Based Single Choice Questions
z are three distinct non zero real numbers)
This section contains 16 multiple choice questions numbered
61 to 76. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), (1) Zero (2) One
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(3) Three (4) Infinite
sin2 x 2 cos x 2 2 68. The numerical value of the expression
61. If 3 31sin 2 x 2 sin x 28 , then the
tan620 33 tan420 + 27 tan220 is
numerical value of tan x can be
(1) 0 (2) 3
(1) 1 (2) 1
(3) 1 (4) 2
(3) 0 (4) Non-existent
69. Let a and b be two real numbers such that

62. If 2sincossiny = sinsin( + y), where 2

sina + sinb =
2

m
n
, , , n Z , then tan, tan, tany are in
2 6
cosa + cosb =
(1) A.P. 2

o
(2) G.P. then (a + b) may be equal to

(3) H.P.
(4) A.G.P. with common ratio greater than 1
63. functions
.c (1)

6

(2)

4

ba
(3) (4)
If 2tan2x 5secx = 1 has exactly 7 distinct roots in the 3 2

n 2x x
interval x 0, , n N, then the least value of n is 70. Period of sin + cos is equal to
2
10! 9!
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(1) 13 (2) 15
10!
(3) 11 (4) 9 (1) 9.9! (2)
2
64. Let A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} be two (3) 10! (4) 2.10!
given sets. A function f from A to B is defined such
71. If tan35 = a, then the value of
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that f(i) f(j) for i > j. The total number of such

possible functions is tan 215 tan 125
(1) 50 (2) 71 tan 235 tan 325 in terms of a is
(3) 65 (4) 56
a2 1 a2 1
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65. The set of values of k for which the inequality (1) (2)
x2 kx + sin1 (sin4) > 0 holds good is a2 1 1 a 2
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(1) (2) R
1 a 2 a2 1
(3) (2, 2) (4) R+ (3) (4)
1 a2 a2 1
66. The function f defined as f(x) = cos2x + sin2x
72. Let a function f : R (, 1) is given by
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f(x) = 1 2x, then its inverse is

(1) Has fundamental period
2 (1) 1 + log2(x) (2) 1 log2(x)
(2) Has fundamental period (3) log2(1 x) (4) log2 (1 x)
(3) Is not a periodic function 73. Range of the function f(x) = log (x2 + 4x + 5) is
(4) Is a periodic function, having no fundamental (1) (log 2, ) (2) (, )
period (3) [log 5, ] (4) [0, )
67. The number of possible solution(s) of the equation

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 Class (XII) All India Test Series 11
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
3
74. If tan = 3 and , , then the value of the Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-
2
1
cos2 (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
expression is
sin4 cos4 Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
3 2
(1) (2)
41 41 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

1 5 (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(3) (4)
41 41 79. Statement-1 : tan1 (1/2) + tan1(2) = /2
75. Number of solutions of y = 2x and y = tanx for x lying and
in [0, 4] is Statement-2 : tan1 (1/x) + tan1(x) = /2, x R
(1) 3 (2) 4 {0}
(3) 2 (4) 5 (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
76. The interval of a for which f : R R given as Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
f(x) = ax3 + x2 + 2x + 3 is one-one function is Statement-1

m
(1) (0, ) (2) ( , ) (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
1 Statement-1

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(3) , (4) (6, )
6 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions .c 80. Let f(x) = 1+ x2, g(x) = 4, x R
Statement-1 : (fog)(x) = 17
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Directions : Questions number 77 to 81 are Assertion- and
Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains
two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement- Statement-2 : Range of g lies in domain of f.
2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
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answer. You have to select the correct choice. Statement-1

77. Statement-1 : A function f, f : R R, defined as (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
f(x) = 3x + cosx is an invertible function Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
and
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
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Statement-2 : A function is an invertible function if and (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
only if, it is one-one as well as onto function.
81. Let f: R R given by
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; f(x) = ax5 + bx2 + c, a, b, c R
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 : f is onto function
e

Statement-1
and
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
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Statement-2 : Odd degree polynomials are onto

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for functions for x R
Statement-1
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
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(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
78. Statement-1 : The complete solution set of Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
[cot1x]2 6[cot1x] + 9 0, where [ . ] denotes greatest Statement-1
integer function is [cot3, ). (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
and (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Statement-2 : The range of f(x) = cot1x is (0, ).

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 Class (XII)
All India Test Series 12

SECTION - III 86. If 2f(x) + 3f(1/x) = x2 1, then f(x) is

Comprehension Type Questions (1) a periodic function
Directions : Question No. 82 to 84 are based on the (2) an even function
following paragraph.
(3) an odd function
Let cos 1 , cos 2 , cos 3 are roots of the equation
6x3 11x2 + 6x 1 = 0 (4) even and odd both

1 2 3
82. Value of cos2 + cos2 + cos2 is equal to 87. If , , then the number of solution(s) of the
2 2 2 2 2
equation
4 2
(1) (2) 2
5 3 1 tan 1 tan .sec 2 2tan
0 will be

29 (1) Two (2) Zero

(3) 0 (4)
12 (3) Four (4) Infinite
83. Value of cos31 + cos32 + cos33 is equal to 88. If sin1x + sin1y + sin1z = , then

m
1321 1241
(1) (2) x 1 x 2 y 1 y 2 z 1 z2 , when simplified
216 216
reduces to
58 (1) 4xyz (2) 2xyz

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(3) 0 (4)
216 (3) xyz (4) 6xyz
84. Value of cos 21 + cos 22 + cos 23 is equal to

(1)
5
18
(2)
1
6
.c 89. If x [0, 10] and y R, then the number of
solutions of the equation

12 sinx + 5cosx = 2y2 8y + 21 will be

ba
1 5 (1) 10 (2) 5
(3) (4)
9 18
(3) 15 (4) Zero
SECTION - IV
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90. The value of

Straight Objective Question
Directions : Question No. 85 to 90 are based on (Straight 1 1 1 1 1
Single Choice - Multiple Concept Questions and/or tan1(1) + tan1 + tan tan ........ 10
3 7
13
Difficulty/Lengthy calculations & Application based
questions) terms is
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85. Let R = {(1, 3), (4, 2), (2, 4), (2, 3), (3, 1)} on set A
(1) cot1(10) (2) tan1(10)
= {1, 2, 3, 4}. Minimum number of ordered pairs to
be added in R such that extended relation is an (3) tan1(11) (4) cot1(11)
equivalence relation is
e

(1) 1 (2) 9
(3) 12 (4) 11
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Class (XII)
All India Test Series 13

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16.
A B C D

31.
A B C D
.c
46.
A B C D

61.
A B C D

76.
A B C D
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2. 17. 32. 47. 62. 77.

3. 18. 33. 48. 63. 78.

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4. 19. 34. 49. 64. 79.

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9. 24. 39. 54. 69. 84.

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10. 25. 40. 55. 70. 85.

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