Examiner Manual

oint Aviation Authorities
FLIGHT EXAMINERS
MANUAL
AEROPLANE AND HELICOPTER
Version 18/2005
Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18)

THIS PAGE IS LEFT INTENTIONALLY BLANK
Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18)

JAA Administrative and Guidance Material
Section 5: Personnel Licensing Part 2: Procedures
Chapter 11 Standardisation of Examiners
This chapter is designed to be copied as a stand alone Flight Examiners Manual (FEM).
With the exception of extracts from JAR-FCL this chapter contains guidance for National Authorities in
their training and management of examiners. The guidance and procedures contained in this chapter
will enhance the application of standards and best practices to meet JAR-FCL requirements.
Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 1 01.10.05


Contents of the FEM
The FEM comprises 11 modules. The FEM is intended to be the main reference manual for the training
and subsequent reference of examiners.
JAR-FCL references are shown in italics. Examiners are not to rely on those references unless they
are checked against the most recent version of JAR-FCL.
Each module contains quick reference tables. These are intended to provide the examiner with a
precise of the essential requirements for each test/check. At the discretion of the National Authority
these tables may be extracted into a Flight Examiners Handbook (FEH).
An index to the topics within each module is shown at the start of that module. The following table
describes the purpose of each module.
Module 1 – General Requirements Pg 07

Guidance material for the National Authority in its management of its flight examiners
Module 2 – Examiner Training – Pg 17

A guide to the practical training of examiners
Module 3 – Test Standards Aeroplane Pg 33

Tables give a practical guide to the criteria to be considered by the examiner when assessing each
item of JAR-FCL Aeroplane tests and checks
Module 4 – Test Standards Helicopter Pg 83

Tables give a practical guide to the criteria to be considered by the examiner when assessing each
item of JAR-FCL Helicopter tests and checks
Module 5 – Test Tolerances (Aeroplane and Helicopter)

One table shows the tolerances applicable to all JAR-FCL tests and checks
Module 6 – PPL Skill Test (Aeroplane and Helicopter) Pg 86

A guide to the structure of the PPL skill test for the training of the FE for the PPL
Module 7 – CPL Skill Test (Aeroplane and Helicopter) Pg 92

A guide to the structure of the CPL skill test for the training of the FE for the CPL
Module 8- Instrument Rating - IR (Aeroplane and Helicopter) Pg 99

A guide to the structure of the IR skill test for the IRE and proficiency checks for the IRE and CRE
Module 9 – Type and Class Skill Test and Proficiency Checks (Aeroplane and Helicopter)
A guide to the structure of the skill test for rating issue and the revalidation proficiency check for the
TRE and CRE
Module 10 – ATPL Skill Test Pg 102

A guide to the structure of the ATPL skill test for the TRE
Module 11 – Instructor Skill Test and Proficiency Checks (Aeroplane and Helicopter) Pg 106
A guide to the structure of flight instructor initial skill tests and revalidation proficiency checks for the
FIE


MODULE 1 – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
Guidance material for the National Authority in its management of its flight examiners.
Contents:
1.1 Standardisation arrangements for examiners

1.2 Register of Examiners
1.3 Initial Selection and Knowledge tests
1.4 Examiner Qualifications and Roles
1.5 Examiner Training
1.6 Authorisation
1.7 Addition of Privileges
1.8 Multiple roles
1.9 Period of validity of an authorisation
1.10 Examiner Reauthorisation
1.11 Authority to sign documentation after the Skill Test/Proficiency Check
1.12 Restrictions to the testing of applicants
1.1 Standardisation arrangements for examiners
JAR-FCL 1.030/2.030
The National Authority will designate and authorise as Examiners suitably qualified persons of integrity
to conduct, on its behalf, skill tests and proficiency checks. The minimum ratings for Examiners are
detailed in JAR-FCL 1 and 2, Subpart I. The Authority will notify examiner responsibilities and
privileges to them individually, in writing, specifying the type of skill tests and proficiency checks that
may be conducted.
Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 4

All Examiners must be suitably trained, qualified and experienced for their role on the relevant type/class
of aeroplane/helicopter. No specific rules on qualification can be made because the particular
circumstance of each organisation will differ. It is important, however, that in every instance, the Examiner
should, by background and experience, have the professional respect of the aviation community.

An examiner will be designated and authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL and will be:
(a) a flight inspector from an Authority; or

(b) an instructor from a Registered Facility, FTO, TRTO; manufacturer‘s facility or
subcontracted facility; or
(c) a pilot holding a specific authorisation from a JAA Member State.
AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 2

Any dispensation from the qualification requirements of JAR–FCL 1.425/2.425(a) through (c)
should be limited to circumstances in which a fully qualified examiner cannot be made available.
Such circumstances may, for example, include skill tests on a new or rare type or class, for which
the examiner should at least hold an instructor rating on an aeroplane/helicopter having the same
kind and number of engines and of the same order of mass. (See also JAR-FCL
1.220/2.220(a)(4)- consider also the level of technology)

Inspectors of the Authority supervising examiners will ideally meet the same requirements as the
examiners being supervised. However, it is unlikely that they could be so qualified on the large variety
of types and tasks for which they have a responsibility and, since they normally only observe training
and testing, it is acceptable if they are qualified for the role of an inspector.
1.1.1 Authorisation as Senior Examiner

Hold a valid/current Flight Examiner Authorisation
Have Examiner experience level acceptable to the NAA
Have produced a number of skill tests/proficiency checks conducted as JAR-FCL Examiner
The Authority may conduct a pre-assessment of the applicant/candidate carrying out a Skill
Test/Proficiency Check under supervision of an Inspector of the Authority
Applicants will be required to attend a Senior Examiner Briefing / Course / Seminar arranged by NAA.
Content and duration will be determined by NAA and should include:
Pre course self-study

Legislation
The role of the Senior Examiner
JAR-FCL examiner assessment (Standardisation acc. AMC 1.425/2.425)
NAA Administrative requirements
Period of validity
Senior Examiner has an authorisation as Examiner also with validity acc. JAR-FCL 1.430/2.430
Re-Authorisation
The re-authorisation of Senior Examiner is at the discretion of the authority and will include re-
assessment arrangements established by the NAA

1.2 Register of examiners
The Authority should maintain a register of examiners, containing the files of examiners who meet the
requirements for the approvals sought.
Examiners who are approved for assignment to the national examiner reserve will be categorised by
the geographical area(s), which the examiner can serve, and by the type(s) of approval sought.
Examiners need not have a residence within the designating geographical area of jurisdiction;
however, an examiner must be able to provide examiner service in the area in order to be
considered for approval.
Examiner candidates shall apply to the national Authority. A recommendation for the approval of a
candidate who does not meet all of the applicable requirements may be accepted and will be forwarded
to the Authority for consideration. The recommendation should include a statement of all special
circumstances affecting the approval.
Where an examiner has relocated to another Member state he must apply for reinstatement at the
new Authority through that Authority from which his authorisation was previously issued. The
application is then processed as though it were an initial application.
1.3 Initial Selection and Knowledge Tests
If the candidate meets the applicable JAR-FCL criteria, the Authority will advise the candidate in writing
if that application is accepted. The candidate may be called to undergo pre-approval Initial Flight
Selection and Knowledge Tests.
At the discretion of the National Authority the candidate shall take, as an Initial Flight Selection Test,
the skill test applicable to the examiner approval sought.

Use of ‘Dummies’ during the Acceptance Test for an Initial Examiners Authorisation
Definitions
It is necessary to clarify the roles of the respective members of the Initial Acceptance Flight Test as
follows:
Applicant: Pilot requiring a Rating etc
Candidate: Pilot requiring Initial Examiners Authorisation
Dummy: Pilot acting as an Applicant
Acceptance Test: Flight Test conducted by a Senior Examiner (SEN) for an Initial Examiners
Authorisation
The purpose of the acceptance test is to prove that the candidate for an Initial Examiners Authorisation
is proficient and capable to undertake the duties of an examiner.
Duties of Crew During Acceptance Tests
It is important that all Pre-Flight Briefings are thorough and that all members of the flight are aware of
their duties and responsibilities throughout the Acceptance Test.
‘Dummy’
The primary duty of a ‗Dummy‘ is to act as an applicant in all aspects of the flight and should have
available the relevant paperwork to show the examiner when requested. During the flight it is important
that he makes some errors (whether by accident or by design is not important), so that the candidate
must observe, exercise judgement, assess and have something to debrief on. The errors are
important so that the candidate can be seen completing paperwork and detailing any retesting or
retraining that may be considered necessary. The ‗dummy‘ must not make the errors too subtle or set
any traps for the candidate; he must try to produce a typical flight from a marginal applicant. The
purpose of the flight is to ensure that the candidate is aware of his duties as an Examiner. A ‗Pass‘ with
no errors would prove very little. Therefore the ‗dummy‘ needs to be an experienced examiner. Any
other pilot acting as ‗dummy‘ may be reluctant to make errors in case they would be recorded against
him and have the possibility of losing his rating, also, he may not be sufficiently experienced to produce
convincing errors.
Senior Examiner.(SEN)
The SEN must brief the candidate at the commencement of the exercise on their relative roles; i.e. The
candidate will conduct the flight test without hindrance from the SEN, including briefings, conduct of
flight, assessment and debrief and documentation. The SEN should remain as unobtrusive as possible
throughout the test, but at the same time observing the ‗dummy‘ and the candidate.
Following the completed flight, the SEN and the ‗dummy‘ compare notes of the flight, after which the
SEN debriefs the candidate.
Responsibilities
Captaincy

The candidate or his company would normally provide the aeroplane. When the candidate is
occupying a pilot‘s seat, he is the only one with a clear view and full access to the controls, and often is
most familiar with the type, he must be the Captain and the safety of the flight is his responsibility.
However, the SEN and the ‗Dummy‘ also have an overriding responsibility not to endanger the
aeroplane, but they may not have full access to lookout or controls.

1.4 Examiner Qualifications and Roles
JAR-FCL 1.420/2.420
There will be six roles for Examiners (Aeroplanes) and five roles for Examiners (Helicopters):
a. Flight Examiner (FE) (A) and (H).

b. Type Rating Examiner (TRE) (A) and (H).
c. Class Rating Examiner (CRE) (A).
d. Instrument Rating Examiner (IRE) (A) and (H).
e. Synthetic Flight Examiner (SFE) (A) and (H).
f. Flight Instructor Examiner (FIE) (A) and (H).
1.4.1 Pre-requisites
JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425 (a)

Before training and at all times when the examiner authorisation is to be exercised (unless
dispensation is given by the Authority) examiners are to:
Hold a licence and rating granting privileges at least equal to the licence or rating for
which they are authorised to conduct tests/checks.
Be qualified to act as pilot-in-command of each aeroplane/helicopter for which they are

authorised unless specified otherwise.
Hold the relevant flight instructor rating, unless specified otherwise.
1.4.2 Roles
Quick reference:
AEROPLANES AND HELICOPTER

FE(PPL) AUTHORISATION
JAR reference: JAR-FCL 1.425/2,425
Who can test: An Inspector or Senior Examiner appointed by the Authority
Form used: National Form
Test format: Based on the PPL Skill test: brief, conduct and assess a skill test flown by
an examiner acting as the applicant.
Where an authorisation is required for Multi engine aeroplane/helicopter the
test is to be conducted in that type/class
FE(CPL) AUTHORISATION
JAR reference: JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425
Test format: Based on the CPL skill test: brief, conduct and assess a skill test flown by
an examiner acting as the applicant.
Where an authorisation is required for Multi engine aeroplane/helicopter the
TRE AUTHORISATION

Test format: Based on the ATPL skill test: brief, conduct and assess a skill test flown by
an applicant, or an examiner acting as the applicant.
The authorisation will be type specific
CRE AUTHORISATION (not applicable to helicopter)

JAR reference: JAR-FCL 1.425
Test format: Based on the test for which the authorisation is sought: brief, conduct and
assess a skill test or proficiency check profile for a SPA rating, flown by the
examiner acting as the applicants.
Where an authorisation is required for Multi engine aeroplane the test is to
be conducted in that type/class
Where instrument rating revalidation privileges are required the test is to
include all instrument rating test/check requirements
IRE AUTHORISATION
Test format: Based on the Instrument Rating skill test: brief, conduct and assess a skill
test flown by an examiner acting as the applicant.
Where an authorisation is required for multi engine aeroplane/helicopter the
SFE AUTHORISATION
Test format: Based on the type rating skill test: brief, conduct and assess a skill test
flown by an applicant, or an examiner or acting as the applicant.
The authorisation will be flight simulator and Type Specific
FIE AUTHORISATION
Test format: Based on the Flight Instructor skill test: brief, conduct and assess an
instructor skill test flown by the examiner acting as the applicant.
Present a Long Briefing on a subject from JAR-AMC 1.340/2.340 (45
minutes) as an example briefing to a student flight instructor.
Take an oral exam on a range of subjects from JAR-AMC 1.340/2.340 (2
hours)
Where an authorisation is required for both single and multi engine
aeroplane the required multi engine elements of test are to be conducted in
that type/class as a second flight
1.5 Examiner training
Training for a first examiner authorisation shall not commence until the Authority has selected and
approved the candidate for training.

Where a current examiner authorisation is held the Authority shall specify the required elements of
training required.
Where an examiner no longer holds a valid authorisation the Authority shall apply both selection
requirements and specify the required elements of training required.
Examiner Training content is explained at Module 2.
1.6 Authorisation
JAR–FCL 1.030/2.030
The Authority will maintain a list of all examiners it has authorised stating for which roles they are
authorised. The list will be made available to TRTOs, FTOs and registered facilities within the JAA
Member State. The Authority will determine by which means the examiners will be allocated to the skill
test.
The Authority will advise each applicant of the examiner(s) it has designated for the conduct of
the skill test for the issue of an ATPL(A/(H)).
A central JAA data base of all JAR-FCL examiners is being developed for future use by all
member states. Examiners shall be issued with a document showing precise details of:
their authorisation
aeroplane/helicopter on which they may test/check
any restrictions to the authorisation any further privileges to the authorisation
The grant of an authorisation will require the successful completion of the appropriate examiner
acceptance test
1.7 Addition of privileges

Where the examiner requires the addition of a Type/Class, or other previously untested privilege
to his authorisation, the Authority shall ensure that suitable training and testing is conducted
before approving the altered authorisation
1.8 Multiple roles

JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425(b)
Providing that the examiners meet the ratings and experience requirements for each separate
role undertaken, examiners are not confined to a single role as FE, TRE, CRE, IRE, SFE, or FIE.
However, the Authority may also limit number of examiners roles, types and classes or specific
makes and basic models on which any examiner may test.
1.9 Period of validity of an Authorisation

JAR-FCL 1.430/2.430
An examiner‘s authorisation is valid for not more than three years. Examiners are re-authorised at the
discretion of the Authority, and in accordance with Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425.
1.10 Examiner Reauthorisation

Examiners may be reauthorised in accordance with JAR–FCL 1.430/2.430. To be reauthorised,
the examiner should have conducted at least two skill tests or proficiency checks in every yearly

period within the three year authorisation period. One of the skill tests or proficiency checks given
by the examiner within the last 12 months of the authorisation period should have been observed
by an inspector of the Authority or by a senior examiner specifically authorised for this purpose .
Quick reference:
AEROPLANE
FE/FIE/CRE/TRE/SFE REAUTHORISATION
JAR reference: Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425
Reauthorisation An examiner‘s authorisation is valid for not more than three years and shall be
reauthorised at the discretion of the Authority
Form used: National forms
Test format: Conduct at least 2 Skill tests or Proficiency checks in every yearly period
within the 3 year authorisation period
1 test in the last 12 months to be observed or a ‗dummy‘ test
Compliance with current standardisation arrangements
Demonstration of knowledge of JAR-FCL and operational documents
Quick reference
HELICOPTER
FE/FIE/TRE/SFE REAUTHORISATION
Reauthorisation Valid 3 years, shall be reauthorised in accordance with JAR-FCL 2.430
Form used: National forms
Test format: Conduct at least 2 Skill tests or Proficiency checks in every yearly period
within the 3 year authorisation period
1 test in the last 12 months to be observed or a ‗dummy‘ test
Compliance with current standardisation arrangements
Demonstration of knowledge of JAR-FCL and operational documents
Combined Reauthorisation
Where an examiner holds more than one authorisation the National Authority may approve the
reauthorisation subject to compliance with the table ‗Combination of Examiner Authorisations,‘ below.
The National Authority shall identify which of the authorisations held is to be used as the basis for
observation. Other authorisations held by that examiner may then be checked orally to ensure the
examiner can demonstrate:
compliance with the required administration

knowledge of changes to JAR-FCL formats or requirements
standardisation with JAR-FCL and National examiner requirements
A new authorisation cannot be added by oral check alone and is to be actioned as an initial
authorisation.
Quick reference:
Combination of Examiner Re-authorisations

Examiner Who can test Combined Reauthorisation - format
Authorisations
IRE Inspector or Senior 1. Observation of the test/check identified by the
FIE Examiner National Authority.
FE.CPL authorised by the
FE.PPL Authority 2. Oral questioning of all authorisations held to check
TRE for:

SFE compliance with the required administration
CRE knowledge of changes to JAR-FCL formats or
requirements
standardisation with JAR-FCL and National
examiner requirements.
1.11 Authority to sign documentation after the Skill test/Proficiency check
The Authority may grant examiners authorisation to sign licence pages for the revalidation of items
successfully passed by Proficiency Check.
In the case of a practical test with an actual applicant and an unsuccessful examiner applicant, the
inspector will complete and sign the appropriate documentation.
1.12 Restrictions to the testing of applicants
Notification of Examiners
JAR-FCL 1.030/2.030
Examiners shall not test applicants to whom flight instruction has been given by them for that licence or
rating except with the express consent in writing of the Authority
Integrated course skill testing outside JAA Member States
Appendix 1(c) to JAR-FCL 1.055 paragraph 6 and Appendix 1b to JAR-FCL 2.055 para (b)
On completion of the required training, the skill test for the CPL(A/H) in Phase 4 of the ATP integrated
course may be taken with a locally-based FE(A/H) designated and authorised by the JAA approving
Authority, provided that the examiner is authorised in accordance with JAR-FCL Subpart I and
completely independent from the FTO except with the expressed consent in writing of the approving
Authority.


MODULE 2 – EXAMINER TRAINING
A guide to the practical training of examiners.
Contents:
2.1 General
2.2 Training Content
2.3 Test/Check Standards
2.4 Purpose of test and checks
2.5 Examiner preparation for test/check
2.6 Weather minima
2.7 Pre flight – briefing
2.8 Applicant‘s planning and facilities
2.9 Airmanship
2.10 Assessment System
2.10.1 Flight Management

2.10.2 Conduct of test/check
2.10.3 Repeat items
2.10.4 Pass/fail criteria
2.10.5 The result
2.11 Post flight – debrief

2.12 Complaints and Appeals
2.1 General
IEM FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 3

It is intended that all applicants for authorisation should have received some formal training for this
purpose before undertaking a test flight with an inspector/senior examiner. The training should be
acceptable to the inspector observing the applicant.

The standards of competence of pilots depends to a great extent on the competence of examiners.
Examiners will be briefed by the Authority on the JAR–FCL requirements, the conduct of skill tests and
proficiency checks, and their documentation and reporting. Examiners should also be briefed on the
protection requirements for personal data, liability, accident insurance and fees, as applicable in the
JAA Member State concerned.

An inspector of the Authority, or a senior examiner, will observe all examiner applicants conducting a
test on an ‗applicant‘ in an aeroplane/helicopter for which examiner authorisation is sought. Items from
the ‗Syllabi for training and skill tests/proficiency check will be selected by the inspector for examination
of the ‗applicant‘ by the examiner applicant. Having agreed with the inspector the content of the test,
the examiner applicant will be expected to manage the entire test. This will include briefing, the conduct
of the flight, assessment and debriefing of the ‗applicant‘. The inspector/senior examiner will discuss
the assessment with the examiner applicant before the ‗applicant‘ is debriefed and informed of the
result

2.2 Training Content
2.2.1 Trainers

Inspectors of the Authority supervising examiners will ideally meet the same requirements as the
examiners being supervised. However, it is unlikely that they could be so qualified on the large
variety of types and tasks for which they have a responsibility and, since they normally only
observe training and testing, it is acceptable if they are qualified for the role of an inspector.

The Authority will employ, or have available, a sufficient number of inspectors or senior examiners to
conduct, supervise and/or inspect the standardisation arrangements according to JAR-FCL
1.425(c)/2.425(c).
2.2.2 Role and duties of the examiner
AMC-FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 4

The standardisation arrangements should include, as appropriate to the role of the examiner, at least the
following instruction:
(i) those national requirements relevant to their examination duties;

(ii) fundamentals of human performance and limitations relevant to flight examination;
(iii) fundamentals of evaluation relevant to examinee‘s performance;
(iv) JAR-FCL, related JARs and Joint Implementation Procedures (JIP)
(v) Quality System as related to JAR-FCL; and
(vi) Multi-Crew Co-operation (MCC), Human Performance and Limitations, if applicable.
All items above are core knowledge requirements for an examiner and are recommended as core
course material. This core course may be studied before recommended examiner training is
commenced. The core course may utilise any training format and would be prepared by the Authority.
2.2.3 Specific Flight Test and Check training
Detailed knowledge of the tests and checks for which the authorisation is sought is required. Training is
to cover:
a. Knowledge and management of the test for which the authorisation is to be sought.
These are described in the relevant Modules in this FEM.
b. Knowledge of the administrative procedures pertaining to that test/check
c. For an initial examiner authorisation practical training in the examination of the test
profile sought is required.
d. An Examiner Authorisation Acceptance Test (EAAT) flight with an Inspector or senior
examiner designated by the Authority, eg. for FE (PPL) this is to be the PPL skill test.

Examples of acceptable means of compliance for initial examiner training
CRE TRE FE(PPL) FE(CPL) FIE IRE
Core JAR FEM package
course FEH where this is used nationally
Training course on JAR-FCL requirements and procedures
Package self test
Ground
training
Test of Core Course material
Test /check profiles
SE/ME test/check differences training (as required)
Partial pass criteria
Repeat criteria
Aborted test
Fail criteria
Use of STDs for test/check (as required)
One half day to cover:
Administration
Revalidation by experience (SEP & TMG) only
Flight test Two skill test/ One skill Two skill test/ proficiency check under supervision
and check proficiency test or
training check under proficiency
(flight) supervision check
under
supervision
Additional
training To be determined by the National Authority
Flight test Examiner Authorisation Acceptance Test (EAAT) with an inspector/seniorexaminer

(additional authorised by the Authority
to course)
2.3 Test/Check Standards
Standards of performance are central to a consistent conduct of tests and checks by Examiners
throughout JAA member states:
a. Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 2

Examiners shall consistently apply JAR-FCL standards during a test/check. However, as
the circumstances of each test/check conducted by an examiner may vary, it is also
important that an examiner‘s test/check assessment takes into account any adverse
condition(s) encountered during the test/check.
b. It is emphasised that test/check applicants should concern themselves only with flying and
operating the aeroplane/helicopter to the best of their ability. Definition of, and compliance
with, the Test Standards is the responsibility of the Examiner, however these are shown in
Modules 3 and 4 in the interest of openness and as a reference for the Examiner and
applicant
c. The Examiner is expected to display sound judgement particularly when establishing any
abnormal or simulated emergency exercise so that the safety of the flight is never placed at
risk.

d. Throughout the flight compliance with briefing/checklists, procedures, anti-icing and de-
icing precautions, airmanship, ATC liaison and compliance, RT procedures, flight
management and MCC (where applicable) will be assessed.
e. Examiners are reminded that applicants may appeal against the conduct of any test/check
in accordance with National regulations.
2.4 Purpose of a test/check
Definitions: JAR-FCL 1.001/2.001
A Flight Test or Skill test is a demonstration of knowledge and skill for a licence or rating
issue and may include such oral examination as the Examiner may determine necessary.
A Proficiency Check is a demonstration of continuing knowledge and skill to revalidate or

renew ratings and may include such oral examination as the Examiner may determine
necessary.
The purpose of a test/check is to:
AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 9: Determine through practical demonstration during a

test/check that an applicant has acquired or maintained the required level of knowledge and
skill/proficiency;
AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 10: Improve training and flight instruction in registered
facilities, FTOs and TRTOs by feedback of information from examiners concerning
items/sections of tests/checks that are most frequently failed;
AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 11: Assist in maintaining and, where possible,
improving air safety standards by having examiners display good airmanship and flight
discipline during tests/checks.

Before undertaking a test/check an examiner will verify that the aeroplane/helicopter or synthetic training
device intended to be used, is suitable and appropriately equipped for the test/check. Only
aeroplane/helicopter or synthetic training devices approved by the Authority for skill testing/proficiency
checking may be used.
a. AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 25c: Pre-flight briefing should include:

- test/check sequence;
- power setting and speeds; and
- safety considerations
b. AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 25d: In-flight exercises will include:

- each relevant item/section of the test/check
c. AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 25e: Post-flight de-briefing should include:

- assessment/evaluation of the applicant
- documentation of the test/check with the applicants FI present, if possible.
2.5 Examiner preparation for test/check
AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 25a

A test/check is comprised of:
- oral examination on the ground (where applicable);
- pre-flight briefing;

- in-flight exercises; and
-post-flight de-briefing
Examiner Approach

An examiner should encourage a friendly and relaxed atmosphere to develop both before and during a
test/check flight. A negative or hostile approach should not be used. During the test/check flight, the
examiner should avoid negative comments or criticisms and all assessments should be reserved for the
de-briefing.

An examiner should supervise all aspects of the test/check flight preparation, including, where necessary,
obtaining or assuring an ATC ―slot‖ time.

An examiner will plan a test/check in accordance with JAR-FCL requirements. Only the manoeuvres and
procedures set out in the appropriate test/check form will be undertaken. The same examiner should not
re-examine a failed applicant without the agreement of the applicant.
The examiner shall be the pilot-in-command, except in circumstances agreed by the examiner.
Test/check scheduling
AMC-FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 5

An examiner should plan per working day not more than three test checks relating to PPL, CPL, IR or
class rating, or more than two tests/checks related to FI, CPL/IR and ATPL or more than four tests/checks
relating to type/rating.

An examiner should plan at least three hours for a PPL, CPL, IR or class rating test/checks, and at least
four hours for FI, CPL/IR, ATPL or type rating tests/checks, including pre-flight briefing and preparation,
conduct of the test/check, de-briefing and evaluation of the applicant and documentation.

An examiner should allow an applicant adequate time to prepare for a test/check, normally not more than
one hour.

An examiner should plan a test/check flight so that the flight time in an aeroplane/helicopter or ground
time in an approved synthetic training device is not less than:
- 90 minutes for PPL and CPL, including navigation section;

- 60 minutes for IR, FI and single pilot type/class rating; and
- 120 minutes for CPL/IR and ATPL.
Preparing for the applicant
AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 18 (modified)

Before meeting the applicant the Examiner must be properly prepared for the flight. The Examiner
should supervise all aspects of the test/check flight preparation, including, where necessary, obtaining
or assuring an ATC services as required.

The Examiner will plan a test/check in accordance with JAR-FCL requirements. Only those
manoeuvres and procedures required in the appropriate test/check form will be undertaken.

a. Adequate and appropriate briefing/debriefing facilities must be used for all tests.
b. Instruction for the associated theoretical knowledge examinations shall always have
been completed before each skill test is taken.
c. Knowledge elements not evident in the demonstrated skills may be tested by
questioning, at anytime, during the flight event. Questioning in flight should be used
judiciously so that safety is not jeopardised. Questions may be deferred until after the
flight portion of the test is completed.
d. For aeroplane/helicopter requiring only one pilot, the examiner may not assist the
applicant in the management of the aeroplane/helicopter, radio communications,
tuning and identifying navigational equipment, and using navigation charts.
e. If occupying a pilot seat the examiner shall not take part in the operation of the
aeroplane/helicopter other than for safety.
f. Flight Safety shall be the prime consideration at all times. The examiner, applicant
and any other crew shall be alert for other traffic.
Expansion of the details of the items a. to f. above are covered under the relevant paragraph headings
below.
Route/profile planning

A test/check is intended to represent a practical flight. Accordingly, an examiner may set practical
scenarios for an applicant while ensuring that the applicant is not confused and air safety is not
compromised.
2.6 Weather minima

A test/check flight will be conducted in accordance with the aeroplane/helicopter flight manual (AFM) and,
if applicable, the aeroplane/helicopter operators manual (AOM).

A test/check flight will be conducted within the limitations contained in the operations manual of a
FTO/TRTO and, where applicable, the operations manual of a registered facility.
The National Authority may have determined for examiners the minimum conditions, below which
assessment may be considered too difficult, by using the table below.
Quick reference:
Surface Wind:
National Authority to produce it own minima
Cloud Ceiling:
Visibility:
Pre-flight preparation requires the applicant to assess the weather conditions and make his decision
whether to proceed with the flight. The applicant must take into account the requirements of all the

sections of the test that he is taking. The Examiner is to assess the applicant‘s decision. A decision to
continue when the weather is forecast below the limits required to complete the flight shall be
considered a fail item for test/check
Those sections/items of the test which are required to be flown by sole reference to instruments will be
simulated by using suitable equipment to simulate IMC.
Awareness of icing conditions must be displayed by regularly checking the outside air temperature and
carburettor heat where appropriate. The applicant should be able to use any anti/de-icing equipment
fitted to the aeroplane/helicopter. If actual ice is present the necessary equipment or actions must be
used. Training or preparation must ensure an operating procedure for using aeroplane/helicopter icing
equipment particularly with reference to pitot heaters, carburettor heat, engine/propeller and airframe
anti-icing. The aeroplane/helicopter must not be flown deliberately into icing conditions if this is
contrary to the aeroplane/helicopter flight manual
2.7 Pre Flight – briefing
Examiner approach
The performance of an applicant under test conditions will often be adversely affected by some degree
of nervous tension, but the Examiner can do much to redress the balance in his favour by the adoption
of a friendly and sympathetic attitude. Any suggestion of haste during briefing should be avoided and
the applicant should be encouraged to ask as many questions as he wishes at the conclusion of each
section. Clear and unhurried instructions at this stage will not only serve to put the applicant at his
ease, but will ensure when airborne that the flight proceeds smoothly and without unnecessary delay.
Construction of the Briefing

The pre flight briefing may be given as one or more separate elements, as required, to give the
applicant the maximum opportunity to understand and prepare what is required of him.
Briefing content

The applicant should be given time and facilities to prepare for the test flight. The briefing should cover
the following:
a. the objective of the flight
b. licensing checks, as necessary
c. freedom for the applicant to ask questions
d. operating procedures to be followed (e.g. operators manual)
e. weather assessment
f. operating capacity of applicant and examiner
g. aims to be identified by applicant
h. simulated weather assumptions (e.g. icing, cloud base)
i. contents of exercise to be performed
j. agreed speed and handling parameters (e.g. V-speeds, bank angle)
k. use of R/T
l. respective roles of applicant and examiner (e.g. during emergency)
m. administrative procedures (e.g. submission of flight plan) in flight

Examiner training must focus on the requirements to maintain the necessary level of communication
with the applicant. The following check details should be followed by the examiner applicant:
a. involvement of examiner in a multi-pilot operating environment
b. the need to give the ‗applicant‘ precise instructions
c. responsibility for safe conduct of the flight
d. intervention by examiner, when necessary
e. use of screens
f. liaison with ATC and the need for concise, easily understood intentions
g. prompting the ‗applicant‘ regarding required sequence of events (e.g. following a go-
around)

h keeping brief, factual and unobtrusive notes
2.8 Applicant’s Planning and facilities

The Examiner shall conduct each test/check in such a manner as to conform to the guidance given by
the Authority such that each applicant is allowed adequate time for the test, normally not more than one
hour.
Adequate Planning facilities must be available to the applicant. The examiner will check that the
applicant is aware of where resources are. A quiet briefing room should be used so that the planning
can be completed without interruption or distraction.
Planning shall be completed without assistance from other students or instructors. Current ATC and
Met information must be obtained. Any booking requirements should be made, by the applicant, in
adequate time for the flight.
A flight log should be prepared and the Examiner may request a copy. The log may include
such items as:
Route (including flight to the planned alternate aerodrome)
Communication and navaid frequencies (note that where this information is clearly
displayed on planning documents, such as the charts to be used, it is not necessary
to copy that information to the log)
Planned levels and altitudes
Timings, ETAs
MSA, safety height or minimum levels/altitudes
Fuel (showing contingency fuel and space to plot fuel remaining at way points)
Space for logging ATIS and clearances in a chronological order
The route may require flight through airspace other than Class G airspace and consideration should be
given to any special precautions during planning.
Planning and preparation must be completed by the crew using material acceptable to the National
Authority. Computerised flight/navigation plans or aeroplane/helicopter mass and balance calculations
may be used during the allowed planning period. The applicant remains solely responsible for all
planning calculations.
Applicants will be required to calculate take off and landing performance for the conditions prevailing,
usually for the most limiting runway expected on the flight.
2.9 Airmanship
2.9.1 Definition
The complex of all resources (knowledge, attitude and skills) enabling the pilot to safely handle his
aeroplane/helicopter with due regard to rules and regulations, whatever the circumstances, both on the
ground and in the air. Human resources includes all other groups routinely working with the pilot who
are involved in decisions that are required to operate a flight safely. These groups may include, but are
not limited to: dispatchers, cabin crewmembers, maintenance personnel and air traffic controllers.
Airmanship is not a single task but is a set of competencies, which must be evident in all tasks,
conducted throughout the practical test standard as applied to a skill test or proficiency check.
2.9.2 Airmanship competencies

Airmanship competencies may be grouped into three clusters of observable behaviour:
1. COMMUNICATIONS PROCESSES AND DECISIONS
a. Briefing
b. Inquiry/Advocacy/Assertiveness
c. Self-Criticism
d. Communication with available personnel resources
e. Use of checklists

f. Decision making
2. BUILDING AND MAINTENANCE OF FLIGHT COOPERATION
a. Leadership/Team skills
b. Interpersonal Relationships
3. WORKLOAD MANAGEMENT AND SITUATIONAL AWARENESS
a. Preparation/Planning
b. Vigilance
c. Workload Distribution
d. Distraction Avoidance
e. Avoidance of undesirable situations (e.g., wake turbulence, inadequate
aeroplane/helicopter spacing)
2.9.3 How the Examiner Assesses Airmanship

The majority of aviation accidents and incidents are due to poor resource management failures by the
pilot. Fewer are due to technical failures.
Pass/Fail judgements based solely on Airmanship issues must be carefully chosen since they may be
entirely subjective. It is not practical to give a comprehensive list of Airmanship considerations,
however, the 3 ‗cluster areas‘ described above include items which the applicant may forget to
complete (e.g. correct radio calls) while others are an indication of his capacity to deal with present or
evolving flight conditions (e.g. poor spacing from other aeroplane/helicopter or airspace awareness). It
is, therefore, the examiner‘s role to observe how the applicant manages the resources available to him
to achieve a safe and uneventful flight. The examiner must be satisfied that the success of the flight
was a result of good airmanship and not good luck.
If the applicant shows early and consistent awareness of airmanship considerations (e.g. repetitive
checking of icing conditions in a level cruise clear of icing conditions) the examiner may allow the
applicant to brief only changes during the remainder of the flight.
Examiners themselves are required to exercise proper Airmanship competencies in conducting

tests/checks as well as expecting the same from applicants.

2.10 Assessment System
2.10.1 Flight management

An examiner should maintain a flight log and assessment record during the test/check for reference
during the post/flight de-brief.
This record should be compiled without alerting or attracting the attention of the applicant
Communications in flight should only be necessary:
to prompt the applicant regarding required sequence of events using concise and easily
understood intentions (e.g. following a go-around)
AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 28: An examiner should be flexible to the possibility of
changes arising to pre-flight briefs due to ATC instructions, or other circumstances
affecting the test/check.
AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 29: Where changes arise to a planned test/check an
examiner should be satisfied that the applicant understands and accepts the changes.
Otherwise, the test/check flight should be terminated.
JAR FCL 1.170/2.170 paragraph 6: Should an applicant choose not to continue a

test/check for reasons considered inadequate by an examiner, the applicant shall retake
the entire skill test. If the test/check is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the
examiner, only those items/sections not completed will be tested in a further flight.
AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 21 (last sentence): An examiner should terminate a

test/check only for the purpose of assessing the applicant, or for safety reasons.
Except when the Examiner has to give guidance or a reminder, the applicant should be allowed to
conduct the flight without interruption. It should be remembered, however, that the Examiner is
responsible for the safe conduct of the flight and the prevention of any infringements.
2.10.2 Conduct of Test/check

Each item within a test/check section should be completed and assessed separately. The test/check
schedule, as briefed, should not, normally, be altered by an examiner.

Marginal or questionable performance of a test/check item should not influence an examiner‘s
assessment of any subsequent items.

An examiner should verify the requirements and limitations of a test/check with an applicant during the
pre-flight briefing.

When a test/check is completed or discontinued, an examiner should de-brief the applicant and give
reasons for items/sections failed. In the event of a failed or discontinued skill test or proficiency check, the
examiner should provide appropriate advice to assist the applicant in re-tests/re-checks.

Any comment on, or disagreement with, an examiner‘s test/check evaluation/assessment made during a
debrief will be recorded by the examiner on the test/check report, and will be signed by the examiner and
countersigned by the applicant.

Although test/checks may specify flight test tolerances, an applicant should not be expected to achieve
these at the expense of smoothness or stable flight. An examiner should make due allowance for
unavoidable deviations due to turbulence, ATC instructions, etc.

The examiner applicant should refer to the flight test tolerances given in (JAR–FCL and Module 5 for
the appropriate test) Attention should be paid to the following points:
a. questions from the ‗applicant‘
b. give results of the test and any sections failed
c. give reasons for failure
2.10.3 Repeat items

At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test/check may be repeated once by
the applicant. An examiner may terminate a test/check at any stage, if it is considered that the applicant‘s
competency requires a complete re-test/re-check.
2.10.4 Pass/Fail criteria
The examiner is to check JAR-FCL references for pass fail criteria relevant to the test to be conducted.
In general the guidance is:
For SPA: The applicant shall pass all sections of the skill test/proficiency check. If any item in a
section is failed, that section is failed. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to
take the entire test/check again. Any applicant failing only one section shall take the failed section
again. Failure in any section of the re-test/re-check including those sections that have been
passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant to take the entir e test/check again.
For MPA: The applicant shall pass all sections of the skill test/proficiency check. Failure of more than
five items will require the applicant to take the entire test/check again. Any applicant failing 5 or less
items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any item on the re-test/check including those items
that have been passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant to take the entire check/test
again.

2.10.5 The Result
There are several methods for evaluating an applicant‘s performance. National Authorities may select
the method which they wish to use. Two methods will be considered here:
A Grading
B Objective Assessment
A Grading
Grading is an option on some forms used for tests/checks. However, its use is optional.
The "Acceptable Performance" section of each exercise outlines the grading criteria. These criteria
assume no unusual circumstances. Consideration shall be given to unavoidable deviations from the
published criteria due to weather, traffic or other situations beyond the reasonable control of the
applicant. To avoid the need to compensate for such situations, the tests should be conducted under
normal conditions whenever possible.
Description
Grade
5 The ideal performance under existing conditions. Anticipates and adapts easily to
changing or unusual flight situations.
4 Aim of exercise safely achieved with very few minor variations from ideal. Performance
shows smooth control of aeroplane/helicopter.
3 Aim of the exercise safely achieved with frequent minor but no major variations from
the ideal.
2 Aim of the exercise safely achieved. Performance includes not more than one major
variation from the ideal and may include frequent minor variations from the ideal.
1 Aim of exercise safely achieved in a rough manner. Performance includes more than
one major variation from the ideal and indicates a level of skill or knowledge, which
results in a marginally acceptable performance.
0 Any one of the following will result in an assessment of fail:
Aim of exercise not completed

Insufficient level of knowledge to ensure safety.
Aim of exercise completed but at expense of using unsafe airmanship and/or
handling errors.
Dangerous aeroplane/helicopter handling requiring assistance from examiner.
Tolerances specified in the flight test standards exceeded.
Written remarks are required when awarding a flight test exercise a mark of 2 or less. The remarks
should be clear and concise and in the case of an exercise assessed as:
Grades 1 or 2 reflect the major variation(s) from the Acceptable Performance for the exercise as
outlined in the appropriate flight test standards; or 0 reflect the appropriate item or items that result in
an assessment of fail as listed in the Grading Scale section of the flight test Standard(s).
During a flight test, it is sometimes difficult to write clear and concise remarks. It is recommended that
examiners use notes made during the flight test to complete a final copy of the Flight Test Report. This
provides the examiner with the opportunity of referencing the appropriate flight test standards while
writing final comments.
The diagram shown below will assist the examiner in following a logical sequence of steps to arrive at a
mark when evaluating the applicant‘s performance of a particular flight test item. By starting at the top
of the diagram and mentally reviewing and answering each question in sequence, it is possible to arrive

at a mark to be awarded. The accuracy of the assessment will depend entirely on the examiner‘s
knowledge of the Acceptable Performance requirements for each flight test exercise and the Grading
Scale.
Was performance acceptable? NO

0
YES
Were there errors? NO

5
YES
Were the errors major? NO How many minor?
YES
How many errors? Frequent Few
More than 1 Only 1

3 4
1 2
B Objective Assessment
Satisfactory Performance
The ability of an applicant to safely perform the required assignments is based on:
Performing the assignments specified in the Examiner‘s Manual for the licence or rating
sought within the approved standards
Demonstrating control of the aeroplane/helicopter and flight with the successful outcome of
each assignment performed never seriously in doubt
Demonstrating sound judgement and crew resource management and single-pilot
competence if the aeroplane/helicopter is type certificated for single-pilot operations
Unsatisfactory Performance
Consistently exceeding the relevant tolerances stated in Module 5, or failure to take prompt, corrective
action when tolerances are exceeded is indicative of unsatisfactory performance. The tolerances
represent the performance expected in good flying conditions. Any action or lack thereof, by the
applicant, who requires corrective intervention by the examiner to maintain safe flight, shall be
disqualifying.
If a repeat item is not clearly satisfactory, the examiner shall consider it unsatisfactory
Result
An examiner will use one of the following terms of assessment:

Quick reference:
AEROPLANE
Reference The examiner is to check JAR-FCL references for pass fail criteria relevant to
the test to be conducted. In general the guidance is:
Pass The applicant shall pass all sections of the skill test or proficiency check
Partial Pass For SPA: If any item in a section is failed, that section is failed. Any
applicant failing only one section shall take the failed section again. The
applicant retaking only that failed section, plus the departure section often
completes the partial pass. Should either of those two be failed at a second
attempt then the result of that test if a fail.
For MPA: Any applicant failing 5 or less items shall take the failed items
again.
Fail For SPA: If any item in a section is failed, that section is failed. Failure in
more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test/check
again. Failure in any section of the re-test/re-check including those sections
that have been passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant to
take the entire test/check again.
For MPA: The applicant shall pass all sections of the skill test/proficiency check.
Failure of more than five items will require the applicant to take the entire
test/check again. Failure in any item on the re-test/check including those items
that have been passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant to take the
entire check/test again.
AMC FCL 1.425 PARAGRAPH 21

provided that any of the following apply:
i. the flight test tolerances have been exceeded after the examiner has
made due allowance for turbulence or ATC instructions;
ii. the aim of the test/check is not completed;
iii. the aim of exercise is completed but at the expense of unsafe flight,
violation of a rule or regulation, poor airmanship or rough handling;
iv. an acceptable level of knowledge is not demonstrated;
v. an acceptable level of flight management is not demonstrated; or
vi. the intervention of the examiner or safety pilot is required in the interest of
safety.
Incomplete Should an applicant choose not to continue a test/check for reasons considered
tests inadequate by an examiner, the applicant shall retake the entire skill test. If the
test/check is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only
those items/sections not completed will be tested in a further flight.
Quick reference:
HELICOPTER

Reference The examiner is to check JAR-FCL references for pass fail criteria relevant to
the test to be conducted. In general the guidance is:
Pass Provided the applicant demonstrates the required level of knowledge,
skill/proficiency and, where applicable, remains within the flight test tolerances for
the licence or rating
Partial Pass The partial pass is not always an option on test/check. However, when
applicable it is used to indicate that only one section of the test profile was failed.
The applicant retaking only that failed section, plus the departure section often
completes the partial pass. Should either of those two be failed at a second
attempt then the result of that test if a fail.
Fail Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.425 paragraph 21 b.

A ―fail‖ provided that any of the following apply:
i. the flight test tolerances have been exceeded after the examiner has
made due allowance for turbulence or ATC instructions;
ii. the aim of the test/check is not completed;
iii. the aim of exercise is completed but at the expense of unsafe flight,
violation of a rule or regulation, poor airmanship or rough handling;
iv. an acceptable level of knowledge is not demonstrated;
v. an acceptable level of flight management is not demonstrated; or
vi. the intervention of the examiner or safety pilot is required in the interest of
safety.
Incomplete Should an applicant choose not to continue a test/check for reasons considered
tests inadequate by an examiner, the applicant shall retake the entire skill test. If the
test/check is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only
those items/sections not completed will be tested in a further flight.
2.11 Post flight - debrief
Post flight procedures will require accurate assessment of the flight and communication to the
applicant of his result. The examiner must:
take the time necessary to consider a fair, unbiased and correct assessment of the
test/check
deliver a clear decision on the result of the test/check with precise details of the reason
for each failed item indicating any fail result in a friendly but firm manner.
where an existing rating has been failed instruct the applicant on the implications of his
result
direct the applicant in the administration required following his result
Having completed the flight and the administration the examiner may then offer guidance on any
aspect of the flight.
IEM FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 7 (modified)

The following points may be discussed:
a. advise the applicant how to avoid or correct mistakes
b. mention any other points of criticism noted
c. give any advice considered helpful
2.12 Complaints and Appeals

If at any time during or after the test a complaint of a serious nature is made by an applicant on the
conduct of his test/check, the Examiner should not become involved in discussion with the applicant.
Complaints or appeals shall be dealt with according to National Authority regulations

MODULE 3 –
TEST STANDARDS – AEROPLANE
The Tables in this module give a practical guide to the criteria to be considered by the examiner when
assessing each item of JAR-FCL aeroplane/helicopter tests and checks. The table should be used in
conjunction with the appropriate JAR-FCL 1 test schedule.
INTRODUCTORY NOTES
Using a reference system of 7 Phases of Flight the Module 3 table describes the required competency
standards for every item of tests or check listed in JAR-FCL 1.
The Phase of Flight headings are:
Page
1 PRE FLIGHT PROCEDURES 3-1
2 TAKE OFF AND DEPARTURE PROCEDURE 3-7
3 GENERAL HANDLING 3-11
4 ENROUTE PROCEDURES 3-17
5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES 3-22
6 INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES 3-30
7 ARRIVAL AND LANDING PROCEDURES 3-37
NIGHT OPERATIONS 3-43
(Applies to all phases of flight)
The table is separated into 4 columns as follows:
PHASE OF FLIGHT
OBJECTIVE TECHNICAL PROCEDURAL NONTECHNICAL
Title of assessed item taken from JAR-FCL schedule
This cell describes competence
This cell describes that This cell describes This cell describes criteria encapsulated by
which is to be determined competence criteria that competence criteria in Airmanship, CRM, decision
by the examiner. involve the applicant complying with procedures, making, awareness, threat and
demonstrating knowledge operating manuals, ATC error management etc.
and skills in operating clearances, published
systems or controlling the procedures and checklists.
aeroplane
General
In most phases of flight there are competencies that apply to a group of manoeuvres e.g. turns, or even the whole
phase. In order to avoid repetition, the common competencies are grouped under the ‘General’ item heading.
Examiners must refer to both the ’General’ heading criteria and the criteria under the specific item being assessed
e.g. ‘Turns General ‘ plus ‘Steep Turns’ as the specific item. Multiple cell borders at the beginning and end of the
group identify the group.
Note: It is possible sometimes to place a competence in either of 2 columns because physical skills,
knowledge etc cannot always be clearly separated; for assessment this is not critical. The intention is to
assist the examiner in identifying what competencies are required for satisfactory performance of a test
item and to assist in identifying why an applicant may have failed to achieve a pass in an item.
Airmanship. Several of the test schedules require the assessment of Airmanship. In general and
especially for SPA tests this word covers Non-technical areas of competency. Airmanship is the

complex of all resources enabling the pilot safely to handle his aircraft with due regard to rules and
regulations and good aviation practice, whatever the circumstances, both on the ground and in the air.
It is not practical to give a comprehensive list of airmanship considerations, however, the Nontechnical
column attempts to describe as many of these items as possible. Errors in this area should not
constitute reason for failure unless satisfactory achievement of the Objective or the safety of the flight
are compromised. It is the examiner‘s role to observe how the applicant manages the resources
available to him to achieve a safe and uneventful flight. If the applicant shows early and consistent
awareness of particular airmanship considerations (e.g. repetitive checking of icing conditions in a level
cruise clear of icing conditions) the examiner may allow the applicant to brief only changes during the
remainder of the flight.
Examiners are required to exercise proper Airmanship/nontechnical competencies in conducting

tests/checks as well as expecting the same from applicants.

PRE-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
Licences
To determine that the

Pilot licence privileges and limitations.
applicant exhibits knowledge
Medical certificate class and duration and how to renew it.
of the elements related to
licence and documents by Pilot logbook or flight records.
explaining-
Flight Documents
To determine that the Airworthiness and registration certificates.

applicant exhibits knowledge Operating limitations, placards, and instrument markings.
of the elements related to Weight and balance data and equipment list.
flight preparation, with regard Airworthiness directives, compliance records, maintenance requirements,
to: and appropriate records.
NOTAMS
Weather information
To determine that the Weather reports and forecasts.

applicant exhibits adequate Pilot and radar reports.
knowledge of the elements Surface analysis charts.
related to aviation weather Radar summary charts.
information by obtaining, Significant weather prognostics.
reading, and analysing the Winds and temperatures aloft.
applicable items such as-
Freezing level charts
Stability charts.
Severe weather outlook charts.
Tables and conversion graphs.
SIGMETs.
ATIS and VOLMET reports.
Correctly analyses the assembled weather information pertaining to the
proposed route of flight and destination aerodrome, and determines whether
an alternate aerodrome is required, and, if required, whether the selected
alternate aerodrome meets the regulatory requirement.
Makes a competent ―go/no-go‖ decision based on available weather
information.
Completes the appropriate checklist.

National Airspace System
To determine that the Basic VFR Weather Minimums - for all classes of airspace.
applicant exhibits
knowledge of the elements Airspace classes – their boundaries and specifications IFR/VFR for
related to the National the following :
Airspace System by
explaining: o Class A.
o Class B.
o Class C.
o Class D.
o Class E.
o Class F.
o Class G.
Special use airspace and other airspace areas.

Preparation of Flight Plan
To determine that the

applicant exhibits adequate
Exhibits adequate knowledge of the aeroplane‘s performance
knowledge of the elements
capabilities by calculating the estimated time en-route and total fuel
by presenting and
requirement based upon such factors as-
explaining a pre-planned
o Power settings.
flight as previously
o Operating altitude or flight level.
assigned by the examiner
o Wind.
(pre-planning at examiner‘s
o Fuel reserve requirements.
discretion). The Examiner
Selects and correctly interprets the current and applicable en-route
must ensure that the
charts, maps, SID (standard instrument departure), STAR (standard
Applicant:-
terminal arrival), and standard instrument approach procedure
charts, as appropriate to the flight.
Note; The flight should be
Obtains and correctly interprets applicable NOTAM information.
planned using marginal
weather conditions and Determines the calculated performance is within the aeroplane‘s
conform to the regulatory capability and operating limitations.
requirements for flight rules Completes and files a flight plan in a manner that accurately reflects
within the airspace in which the conditions of the proposed flight.
the flight will be conducted.

Mass and Balance Calculation
To determine that the Computes the centre-of-gravity location for a specific Demonstrates good planning and
applicant: load condition (as specified by the examiner), including knowledge of procedures in applying
adding, removing, or shifting mass. operational factors affecting
Determines if the computed centre of gravity is within aeroplane performance.
the forward and aft centre-of-gravity limits, and that
lateral fuel balance is within limits for takeoff and
landing.
Performance Calculation
To determine that the A thorough knowledge of the adverse effects of

applicant exhibits adequate exceeding any limitation.
knowledge of performance Proficient use of (as appropriate to the aeroplane)
and limitations, including: performance charts, tables, graphs, or other data
relating to items such as:
o Accelerate-stop distance.
o Accelerate-go distance.
o Takeoff performance-all engines, engine(s)
inoperative.
o Climb performance including segmented climb
performance; with all engines operating-with one or
more engine(s) inoperative, and with other engine
malfunctions as may be appropriate.
o Service ceiling-all engines, engine(s) inoperative(s),
including drift down, if appropriate.
o Cruise performance.
o Fuel consumption, range, and endurance.
o Descent performance.
o Go-around from rejected landings.
o Operational factors affecting aeroplane
performance.
o Other performance data appropriate to the test
aeroplane.
Describing (as appropriate to the aeroplane) the
airspeeds used during specific phases of flight.
Describing the effects of meteorological conditions upon
performance characteristics and correctly applies these
factors to a specific chart, table, graph or other
performance data.

Theoretical Knowledge
To determine that the The examiner is expected to question the applicant on a selection from
applicant exhibits adequate the following list.
knowledge appropriate to Landing gear-indicators, brakes, antiskid, tyres, nose-wheel steering, and
the aeroplane; its systems shock absorbers.
and components; its Engine-controls and indications, induction system, carburettor and fuel
normal, abnormal, and injection, turbocharging, cooling, fire detection/protection, mounting
emergency procedures; points, turbine wheels, compressors, and de-icing, anti-icing, and other
and uses the correct related components.
terminology with regard to Propellers-type, controls, feathering/unfeathering, autofeather, negative
the following items: torque sensing, synchronising, and synchrophasing.
Fuel system-capacity; drains; pumps; controls; indicators; crossfeeding;
transferring; jettison; fuel grade, colour and additives; fuelling and
defueling procedures; and substitutions, if applicable.
Note: Applicants must Oil system-capacity, grade, quantities, and indicators.
exhibit adequate knowledge Hydraulic system-capacity, pumps, pressure, reservoirs, grade, and
of the contents of the Pilot‘s regulators.
Operating Handbook or
Electrical system-alternators, generators, battery, circuit breakers and
AFM with regard to the
protection devices, controls, indicators, and external and auxiliary power
systems and components
sources and ratings.
listed ; the Minimum
Environmental systems heating, cooling, ventilation, oxygen and
Equipment List (MEL), if
pressurisation, controls, indicators, and regulating devices.
appropriate; and the
Operations Specifications, Avionics and communications-autopilot; flight director; Electronic Flight
if applicable Indicating Systems (EFIS); Flight Management System(s) (FMS); Radar;
Inertial Navigation Systems (INS); Global Positioning System (GPS);
VOR, NDB, ILS/MLS, RNAV systems and components; indicating
devices; transponder; emergency locator transmitter, TCAS, EGPWS.
Ice protection-anti-ice, de-ice, pitot-static system protection, propeller,
windshield, wing and tail surfaces.
Crewmember and passenger equipment-oxygen system, survival gear,
emergency exits, evacuation procedures and crew duties, and quick
donning oxygen mask for crewmembers and passengers.
Flight controls-ailerons, elevator(s), rudder(s), winglets, control tabs,
balance tabs, stabiliser, flaps, spoilers, and leading edge flaps/slats and
trim systems.
Pitot-static system with associated instruments and the power source for
the flight instruments.

Inspection of Aeroplane and Equipment
To determine that the Required instruments and equipment for day VFR.(night if applicable)
applicant exhibits Procedures and limitations for operating the aeroplane with inoperative
knowledge of the following instruments.
elements: Exhibits adequate knowledge of the pre-flight inspection procedures including:
NOTE: If a flight o The purpose of inspecting the items which must be checked
engineer is a required o How to detect possible defects.
crewmember for a o The corrective action to take.
particular type aeroplane, o Process for obtaining an MEL to include a letter of authorisation.
the actual visual inspection o When a special flight permit would be required.
may be waived. The o Procedures for obtaining a special flight permit.
actual visual inspection
may be replaced by using Exhibits adequate knowledge of the operational status of the aeroplane by
an approved pictorial locating and explaining the significance and importance of related documents
means that realistically such as:
portrays the location and o Airworthiness and registration certificates.
detail of inspection items. o Operating limitations, handbooks, and manuals.
On aeroplanes requiring a o Mass and balance data.
flight engineer, a candidate o Maintenance requirements, tests, and appropriate records applicable to the
must demonstrate proposed flight or operation; and maintenance that may be performed by
adequate knowledge of the the pilot
flight engineer functions for Uses the checklist to inspect the aeroplane externally and internally.
the safe completion of the Verifies the aeroplane is safe for flight by emphasising (as appropriate) the
flight if the flight engineer need to look at and explain the purpose of inspecting items such as:
becomes ill or incapacitated o Engine, including controls and indicators.
during a flight. o Fuel quantity, grade, type, contamination safeguards, and servicing
procedures.
o Oil quantity, grade, and type.
o Hydraulic fluid quantity, grade, type, and servicing procedures.
o Oxygen quantity, pressures, servicing procedures, and associated systems
and equipment for crew and passengers.
o Hull, landing gear, float devices, brakes, and steering system.
o Tires for condition, inflation, and correct mounting, where applicable.
o Fire protection/detection systems for proper operation, servicing, pressures,
and discharge indications.
o Pneumatic system pressures and servicing.
o Ground environmental systems for proper servicing and operation.
o (Reserved)
o Flight control systems including trim, spoilers, and leading/trailing edge.
o Anti-ice, de-ice systems, servicing, and operation.
Co-ordinates with ground crew and ensures adequate clearance prior to

moving any devices such as door, hatches, and flight control surfaces.
Complies with the provisions of the appropriate Operations Specifications, if
applicable, as they pertain to the particular aeroplane and operation.
Demonstrates proper operation of all applicable aeroplane systems.
Notes any discrepancies, determines if the aeroplane is airworthy and safe for
flight, or takes the proper corrective action.
Checks the general area around the aeroplane for hazards to the safety of the
aeroplane and personnel.
Makes a correct passenger and departure briefing
Performs all items up to start procedures by systematically following the check
list items.
Engine starting
To determine that the Use of an auxiliary power unit (APU) or external power source (GPU and/or
applicant exhibits adequate ASU).
knowledge of the correct Starting under various atmospheric conditions, normal and abnormal starting
engine start procedures limitations, and the proper action required in the event of a malfunction.
including: Ensuring the ground safety procedures are followed during the before-start,
start, and after-start phases.
Ensuring the use of appropriate ground crew personnel during the start
procedures.
All items of the start procedures by systematically following the approved
briefing/checklist items for the before-start, start, and after-start phases.
Demonstrates sound judgement and operating practices in those instances
where specific instructions or briefing/checklist items are not published.
Completes the appropriate briefing/checklist.

TAKE – OFF AND DEPARTURE PROCEDURES (TAKE-OFF)
Taxiing
To determine that the Demonstrates proficiency by maintaining correct Exhibits adequate knowledge of Maintains constant vigilance and lookout
applicant exhibits adequate and positive aeroplane control. safe taxi procedures (as during taxi operation.
knowledge of safe taxi Maintains proper spacing on other aeroplane, appropriate to the aeroplane Demonstrates correct crew co-ordination
procedures: obstructions, and persons. including push-back or powerback, (MPA)
as may be applicable). Divides attention properly inside and
Accomplishes the applicable outside cockpit.
briefing/checklist items and Obtains appropriate clearance before
performs recommended crossing/entering active runways.
procedures.
Complies with instructions issued
by ATC (or the examiner
simulating ATC).
Observes runway hold lines,
localizer and glide slope critical
areas, beacons, and other surface
control markings and lighting.
Before Take-off
To determine that the Ensures that all systems are within their normal Exhibits adequate knowledge of Divides attention properly inside and
applicant exhibits adequate operating range prior to beginning, during the the pre-takeoff checks by stating outside cockpit.
knowledge of the pre-take-off performance of, and at the completion of those the reason for checking the items Determines if the aeroplane is safe for the
procedures and actions: checks required by the approved checklist. outlined on the checklist and proposed flight or requires maintenance.
Ensures that the aeroplane is correctly explaining how to detect possible Ensures that correct crew and passenger
configured for take-off malfunctions. briefings are completed
Explains, as may be requested by Ensures or confirms that passengers,
the examiner, any normal or crew etc are correctly secured for take-off.
abnormal system-operating Obtains appropriate take-off clearance
characteristic or limitation and the using standard R/T phraseology
corrective action for a specific Notes any surface conditions,
malfunction. obstructions or other hazards that might
Determines the aeroplane‘s hinder a safe takeoff.
takeoff performance, considering
such factors as wind, density
altitude, weight, temperature,
pressure altitude, and runway
condition and length.
Completes the appropriate
checklist.

Take-off (General)
To determine the Applicant Aligns the aeroplane on the runway centreline. Verifies and correctly applies Correct crew co-ordination as required by
exhibits adequate knowledge Applies the controls correctly to maintain correction for the existing wind type of operation (MPA)
of normal takeoffs and longitudinal alignment on the centreline of the component to the takeoff Correctly assesses aeroplane
climbs including (as runway prior to initiating and during the take-off. performance. acceleration during take-off.
appropriate to the aeroplane) Completes required checks prior Correctly assesses take-off and climb
airspeeds, configurations, Correctly sets take-off power. to starting takeoff to verify the hazards particularly those related to
and emergency/ abnormal expected engine performance. obstacles.
procedures. Adjusts the controls to attain the desired pitch Performs all required pre-takeoff
attitude at the predetermined airspeed to obtain checks.
the desired performance. Monitors engine controls,
Maintains the appropriate climb attitude. settings, and instruments during
takeoff to ensure all
Performs or calls for and verifies the predetermined parameters are
accomplishment of gear and flap retractions, maintained.
power adjustments, and other required pilot Uses the applicable noise
related activities at the required airspeeds within abatement and wake turbulence
the tolerances established in the Pilot‘s Operating avoidance procedures, as
Handbook or AFM. required.
Adjusts the engine controls as recommended by briefing and checklist.
the approved guidance for the existing conditions.
Achieves the appropriate airspeeds and climb
segment airspeeds.
Maintains desired heading.
Instrument Take-off see Take-off (General)
To determine that the Sets the applicable radios/flight instruments to the Accomplishes the appropriate Takes into account, prior to beginning the
applicant exhibits adequate desired setting prior to initiating the takeoff. briefing/checklist items to ensure takeoff, operational factors which could
knowledge of an instrument that the aeroplane systems affect the manoeuvre such as Takeoff
takeoff with instrument Transitions smoothly and accurately from visual applicable to the instrument Warning Inhibit Systems or other
meteorological conditions meteorological conditions to actual or simulated takeoff are operating properly. aeroplane characteristics, runway length,
simulated at or before instrument meteorological conditions. Complies with ATC clearances surface conditions, wind, wake
reaching an altitude of 100 and instructions issued by ATC turbulence, obstructions, and other
feet (30 meters) AGL: (or the examiner simulating related factors that could adversely affect
ATC). safety.

Crosswind Take-off see Take-off (General)
Sets correct configuration for cross wind take- Ensures operation of the
To determine that the off and makes suitable adjustments to airspeed aircraft within the airframe Correctly assesses the cross wind component
applicant exhibits adequate as required. limitations as determined by the
knowledge of crosswind Applies the controls correctly for the cross wind Pilots‘ Operating Handbook /
takeoff and climb condition, to maintain longitudinal alignment on AFM and Operations Manual,
techniques: the centreline of the runway prior to initiating as appropriate
and during the takeoff.
NOTE: If no crosswind Transitions smoothly and accurately from the
condition exists, the use of runway, into balanced, climbing flight
proper techniques may be maintaining the runway centreline.
orally checked.
Short field Operations see Take-off (General)
Sets correct configuration for short field take-off Determines maximum
To determine that the and makes suitable adjustments to airspeed as performance, configuration,
applicant exhibits adequate required. power and airspeeds in
knowledge of short-field Taxies into the takeoff position so as to allow accordance with Operations
take-off and initial climb: maximum utilisation of available takeoff area Manual or AFM.
and aligns the aeroplane on the runway
centreline.
Rotates at the recommended airspeed, lifts off
and accelerates to the recommended obstacle
clearance airspeed or VX.
Establishes the pitch attitude for the
recommended obstacle clearance airspeed, or
VX and maintains that airspeed until the
obstacle is cleared, or until the aeroplane is 50
feet (20 meters) above the surface whichever is
greater.
After clearing the obstacle, accelerates to and
maintains best rate of climb airspeed or Vy,
Maintains takeoff power to a safe manoeuvring
altitude.
Maintains directional control and proper wind-
drift correction throughout the takeoff and climb.
Take-off at Maximum Mass see Take-off (General)

Sets correct configuration for maximum mass take-off Determines maximum
To determine that the and makes suitable adjustments to airspeed as performance, configuration,
applicant exhibits required. power and airspeeds in
knowledge of the elements Positions and aligns the aeroplane for maximum accordance with Operations
of takeoff and climb at utilisation of available takeoff area. Manual or AFM.
maximum take-off mass: Establishes the pitch attitude for the recommended
obstacle clearance airspeed, or VX and maintains that

airspeed until the obstacle is cleared, or until the
aeroplane is 50 feet (20 meters) above the surface.
Establishes correct obstacle clearance track during
climb.
TAKE-OFF AND DEPARTURE PROCEDURES (AERODROME DEPARTURE)

ATC Clearances
To determine that the Sets the appropriate communication and navigation Determines that it is possible to Copies correctly, in a timely
applicant exhibits adequate frequencies and transponder codes in compliance comply with ATC clearance manner, the ATC clearance as
knowledge of the elements with the ATC clearance. Uses standard phraseology when issued.
related to ATC clearances reading back clearance. Interprets correctly the ATC
and pilot/controller clearance received and, when
responsibilities to include necessary, requests clarification,
tower en-route control and verification, or change.
clearance Reads back correctly, in a timely
manner, the ATC clearance in the
NOTE: The ATC clearance sequence received.
may be an actual or simulated
ATC clearance based upon
the flight plan.
IFR/VFR Departures
To determine that the Makes correct use of Instruments, flight director, Uses the current and appropriate Interprets correctly the ATC
applicant exhibits adequate autopilot, navigation equipment and communication navigation publications for the clearance received and, when
knowledge of VFR or IFR equipment appropriate to the performance of the proposed flight. necessary, requests clarification,
departure procedures: procedure. verification, or change.
Performs the aeroplane
Intercepts, in a timely manner, all courses, radials, briefing/checklist items appropriate to Demonstrates terrain awareness,
and bearings (QDM/QDR‘s) appropriate to the the departure. orientation, division of attention, and
procedure, route, ATC clearance, or as directed by Establishes communications with proper planning.
the examiner. ATC, using proper phraseology. Ensures that correct crew and
Maintains the appropriate airspeed, altitude, Complies, in a timely manner, with all passenger briefings are completed
headings. ATC clearances, instructions, and Liaises with other crewmembers for
restrictions. correct operation of the aircraft
Exhibits adequate knowledge of two- systems during departure. (MPA)
way communications failure Demonstrates orientation, division of
procedures. attention, and proper planning.
Adheres to airspeed restrictions and In VMC, demonstrates adequate
adjustments required by regulations, lookout and traffic avoidance.
ATC, the Pilot‘s Operating Handbook,
the AFM, and the examiner.
Complies with the provisions of the
climb profile, SID, and other
departure procedures, as appropriate.

Performs correct altimetry
procedures, in accordance with the
regulations, operational procedures
and ATC requirements.
GENERAL HANDLING OR MANOEUVRES

Normal Operation of All Systems
To determine that the applicant possesses Demonstrates the proper use of the Completes the appropriate checklist Liaise with other crewmembers for
adequate knowledge of the normal and aeroplane systems, subsystems, and correct operation of the aircraft systems.
devices (as may be determined by the Follow correct procedures for
abnormal procedures of the systems, controlling the aircraft with or without
subsystems, and devices relative to the examiner) appropriate to the
aeroplane. automatic flight control systems, in
aeroplane type (as may be determined by the accordance with the Aircraft /
examiner) Systems Manual and Operations
manual, as appropriate
Aeroplane control (General)
Exhibits safe control of the aeroplane by
To determine that the Applicant exhibits safe observing: Demonstrates correct use of cockpit Maintains adequate lookout, before,
control of the aeroplane throughout the flight and Magnitude of control input check lists during and after execution of any
any manoeuvres required by the examiner: Smoothness of control, within the Demonstrates management and manoeuvre by visual references.
limitations of the airframe and control monitoring of engine(s) and other Demonstrates correct crew co-
Note: Where JAR FCL requires Instrument flight systems. aeroplane systems. ordination as required by type of
to be demonstrated, Simulated IMC conditions Follows correct procedures for operation (MPA).
must be generated by a means acceptable to controlling the aircraft with automatic Divides attention properly inside and
the National Authority and the Examiner. This flight control systems, in accordance outside cockpit.
method is to be agreed with the applicant, before with the Pilots‘ Operating Handbook / Demonstrates orientation throughout
flight. AFM and Operations manual, as the manoeuvres.
appropriate. Ensures that correct crew and
passenger briefings are completed.
Turns (General)
Transition to the turning attitude, using Follow correct procedures for the Maintain adequate lookout, before,
To determine that the Applicant exhibits safe proper instrument crosschecks and controlling the aircraft with/without during and after turning by visual
control of the aeroplane by reference to visual co-ordinated control application. automatic flight control systems, in references.
attitudes (and by instruments where appropriate Turn onto specific visual references accordance with the Aircraft / Systems Demonstrate orientation throughout
to the flight) and is able to; and headings by visual references Manual and Operations manual, as the manoeuvre
(and solely by reference to appropriate Liaise with other crew members for
instruments where appropriate to the lookout (MPA)
flight). Follow appropriate SOP for the
confirmation of intended heading
(MPA).

Normal Operation of All Systems
Medium Turns (30º bank) see Aeroplane Control (General) and Turns (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits safe Establishes the configuration

control of the aircraft during level, constant specified by the examiner.
airspeed, medium (30° bank) turns and; Maintains the assigned altitude and
airspeed throughout the turn

Steep Turns (45º bank or More) see Aeroplane Control (General) and Turns (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Selects a safe height as

adequate knowledge of steep turns (if recommended by the manufacturer,
applicable to the aeroplane) and the factors training syllabus, or other training
associated with performance, wing loading, directive, or as agreed with the
angle of bank, stall speed, pitch, power Examiner.
requirements, and over-banking tendencies: Establishes the recommended entry
airspeed, in straight and level flight.
Rolls into a co-ordinated turn of 360º
with a bank angle of not less than 45º.
Maintains the bank angle in a stable,
balanced turn.
Applies smooth co-ordinated pitch,
bank, and power adjustments to
maintain the specified altitude,
attitude and airspeed.
Avoids any indication of an
approaching stall, abnormal flight
attitude, or exceeding any structural
or operating limitation during any part
of the manoeuvre.
Rolls out of the turn, stabilises the
aeroplane in straight-and level flight
or, at the discretion of the examiner,
reverses the direction of turn and
repeats the manoeuvre in the
opposite direction.
Recovers accurately onto the desired
heading and at the desired airspeed
for straight and level flight.

Aeroplane Specific Handling Including Critical Mach No., Buffet and Tuck Under. see Aeroplane Control (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes the recommended

knowledge of, and recognises, the elements configuration and airspeed/Mach, and
related to Tuck under and Mach buffets, after maintain that airspeed/Mach
reaching the critical Mach number, and other Uses proper technique to enter into,
specific flight characteristics of the aeroplane operate within, and recover from,
(e.g. Dutch Roll): specific flight situations.
Note: an aeroplane may not be used for this

exercise
Straight and level flight at constant speed and with speed changes see Aeroplane Control (General)
Objective. To determine that the Applicant Maintains altitude, heading and

exhibits safe control of the aircraft, by balance, by visual references (and
reference to visual attitudes (and by solely by reference to instruments, if
instruments where appropriate) in balanced, applicable to flight) using correct
straight and level flight: instrument confirmation, and co-
ordinated control application.
Maintains altitude, heading and
balance, whilst accelerating /
decelerating to specific speeds, as
determined by the Aircraft Flight,
Operations or Training manual, or as
specified by the Examiner.
Maintains altitude, heading and
balance, at different airspeeds, power
settings and configurations as
determined by the Aircraft Flight /
Operations or Training manuals or as
specified by the Examiner.
Climbs (General) see Aeroplane Control (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Transitions to the climb power setting Applies correct altimeter setting Uses correct RT phraseology for level
knowledge of the elements related to climbing and pitch attitude, on an assigned procedures as appropriate to the level change requests and instructions from
at different speeds and configurations, by heading, using proper instrument change required. ATC
visual references (and solely by reference to crosschecks and interpretation, and Follows appropriate procedure for the
instruments, if applicable to flight) throughout co-ordinated control application. confirmation of intended level (MPA)
all operational levels of the aeroplane: Demonstrates climbing at correct
airspeed, to specific altitudes / levels,
in straight flight, and whilst turning onto

specific headings.
Levels off at the assigned altitude or
level and establishes straight and level
cruise.
Climbing at Vy see Aeroplane Control (General) and Climbs (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes best rate of climb speed
Demonstrates knowledge of climb
knowledge of the performance elements and configuration, specified in the
performance and procedures.
relevant to climbing the best rate of climb in Pilots‘ Operating Handbook / AFM.
accordance with the Pilots‘ Operating
Handbook / AFM:
Climbing at Vx see Aeroplane Control (General) and Climbs (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes best angle of climb speed Demonstrates knowledge of obstacle
knowledge of the performance elements and configuration, specified in the clearance climb requirements
relevant to climbing at the best angle of climb Pilots‘ Operating Handbook / AFM.
(obstacle clearance climb) in accordance with Turns onto specified headings whilst
the Pilots‘ Operating Handbook / AFM: preserving the best angle of climb.
Transitions to climbing flight at best
rate or other configuration, as
determined by the examiner.
Flight at Critically High Airspeed see Aeroplane Control (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Recognises the critical high airspeed. Follows the appropriate action in
knowledge of the elements related to critically accordance with the flight manual
Establishes the recommended
high airspeeds. configuration and airspeed, and
maintains that airspeed
Controls aeroplane smoothly within
aeroplane limitations.
Flight at Critically Low Airspeed see Aeroplane Control (General)

Objective. To determine that the applicant Recognises the critical low airspeed.
exhibits knowledge of the elements related to Establishes the recommended Follows the appropriate action in
critically low airspeed. configuration and airspeed, and accordance with the flight manual
maintains that airspeed and desired
heading
Controls aeroplane smoothly within
aeroplane limitations.
Stalling General see Aeroplane Control (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Slowly establishes the pitch attitude Selects an entry altitude in Ensures the aeroplane is in a safe area
adequate knowledge of the factors which (using trim or elevator/stabiliser), bank accordance with safety requirements. and clear of hazards prior to
influence stall characteristics, including the use angle, and power setting that will When accomplished in an FTD or accomplishing an approach to a stall.
of various drag configurations, power settings, induce stall at the desired target flight simulator, the entry altitude may
pitch attitudes, mass, and bank angles. Also, airspeed. Trim must not be used at be at low, intermediate, or high
exhibits adequate knowledge of the proper less than 1.3 of Vs altitude as appropriate for the
procedure for resuming normal flight: aeroplane and the configuration, at
Recognizes and announces the first the discretion of the examiner
indication of a stall appropriate to the
specific aeroplane design and initiates Completes appropriate before stalling
recovery as directed by the examiner. checklist.
Recovers to a reference airspeed,
altitude and heading, allowing only the
acceptable altitude or airspeed loss,
and heading deviation using
manufacturers recommended
technique.
Demonstrates smooth, positive control
during entry, approach to a stall, and
recovery.
Full Stall & Recovery in the Clean Configuration see Aeroplane Control (General) and Stalling (General)

To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains level flight and desired
adequate knowledge of the full stall and heading on entry.
recovery with entry from level flight with gear Recovers at the first sign of the full
and flaps retracted: stall or as directed by examiner.
Approach to Stall & Recovery in Different Configurations see Aeroplane Control (General) and Stalling (General)
Configures the aeroplane as required Selects an entry altitude in
To determine that the applicant exhibits by the examiner, from level flight, or accordance with AFM or POH.
knowledge of the elements related to descending as if on an approach path. Completes the appropriate
manoeuvring during slow flight and Recovers at the first indication of an briefing/checklist including go-around
approaching a stall in various configurations: impending stall as appropriate to or after take-off checks.
aeroplane design, and initiates
recovery or as directed by the
examiner.
Retracts gear and flaps as appropriate.
Descent With and Without Power see Aeroplane Control (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes the descent configuration Apply correct changes to altimeter
knowledge of the elements related to visual settings as appropriate to the level
Transitions to the descent pitch change required.
attitude/instrument flying during straight, attitude and power setting on an
constant airspeed and constant rate descents: assigned heading using proper Use correct RT phraseology for level
instrument crosscheck and change requests and instructions
interpretation, and co-ordinated control from ATC.
application.
Level off at the assigned altitude with
correct co-ordination of power, attitude
and balance.
Achieves straight and level flight at the
assigned altitude, at the correct speed,
heading and in trim.
Recovery from Unusual Attitudes (visual and instrument flying) see Aeroplane Control (General)

To determine that the applicant exhibits Recovers promptly to a stabilised level Demonstrates orientation, division of
knowledge of the elements related to attitude flight attitude using smooth, co- attention, and proper planning.
flying during recovery from unusual attitudes. ordinated control application in the
correct sequence using visual attitude Recognises unusual flight attitudes.
Note: includes recovery from spiral dive. flying or instruments as required.
Avoids exceeding airframe limitations.
Limited Panel Instrument Flying see Aeroplane Control (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Does not exceed airframe limitations. Turns on the pitot heat well before Demonstrates orientation, division of
knowledge of the elements related to attitude Turns using no more than rate 1. flying in cloud or visible precipitation attention, and proper planning.
instrument flying with limited panel during When making small heading no matter what the temperature.
straight-and-level flight, straight, constant corrections with the magnetic compass Opens a dedicated alternate source
airspeed climbs, straight constant airspeed — as when tracking a VOR radial or of static air for the aeroplane‘s pitot-
descents, turns to headings and unusual localizer — use timed turns static instruments.
attitudes solely by reference to the basic flight Does not chase instrument indications Completes the appropriate checklist.
instruments to simulate a system failure, a or is not overcontrolling Use correct R/T procedures with ATC.
failure of the vacuum- and gyro-powered Maintains a proper instrument scan.
instruments (e.g. the attitude and heading Maintains heading altitude and
indicators ) using proper instrument crosscheck airspeed within the prescribed limits
and interpretation, and co-ordinated control
application
EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
Flight Planning

EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
To determine that the applicant exhibits Plots a course for the intended route of Uses appropriate current aeronautical
knowledge of flight planning by planning a flight. charts.
VFR navigation flight as assigned by the Identifies airspace, obstructions, and Extracts and records pertinent
examiner. The flight shall be planned using terrain features. information from NOTAM‘S, the
latest forecast/actual weather. Selects easily identifiable en route Aerodrome/Facility Directory, and other
checkpoints. flight publications.
Selects the most favourable altitudes. Completes a navigation log and files a
Computes headings, flight time, and fuel VFR flight plan.
requirements.
Selects appropriate navigation
systems/facilities and communication
frequencies.
Confirms availability of alternate
aerodromes.
VFR Navigation (Dead reckoning, Map reading and Orientation.)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Follows the pre-planned track solely by Corrects for and records the differences Divides attention properly inside and
knowledge of the elements related VFR reference to landmarks. between pre-flight fuel, groundspeed, and outside cockpit.
navigation. Identifies landmarks by relating surface heading and time calculations and those Demonstrates orientation, division of
features to chart symbols. determined en route. attention, and proper planning
Navigates by means of pre-computed Completes all appropriate checklists. Maintains adequate lookout for other air
headings, groundspeeds, and elapsed Uses correct altimetry procedures. traffic.
time.
Verifies the aeroplane‘s position in
relation to the flight-planned route.
Correctly assesses track error and makes
suitable adjustments to heading.
Arrives at the en route checkpoints and
destination at the revised ETA.

EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
Navigation Systems & Radar Services
To determine that the applicant exhibits Locates the aeroplane‘s position using Selects, identifies and checks the
knowledge of the elements related to radials, bearing (QDM/QDR‘s), DME range appropriate navigation system/facility.
navigation systems and radar services. or co-ordinates, as appropriate. Uses proper communication procedures
Intercepts and tracks a given radial or when utilising ATC radar services
bearing (QDM/QDR), if appropriate. Completes all appropriate checklists
Recognises and describes the indication of Uses the appropriate level of service for
station passage, if appropriate. phase of flight
Recognises signal loss and takes
appropriate action.
Lookout & Collision Avoidance

To determine that the applicant exhibits Uses proper visual scanning technique. Correctly divides attention inside and
collision avoidance by adequate lookout. outside the cockpit.
Understands relationship between poor
In IMC makes suitable use of radar services visual scanning habits and increased Correctly shares lookout and collision
or other sources of traffic information to avoid collision risk. avoidance task with other crew members
collision. Uses TCAS or other collision avoidance Uses correct R/T procedure for collision
equipment if fitted. avoidance.
Takes appropriate avoiding action if Uses correct TCAS procedure where
required. appropriate.
Requests correct level of radar service
appropriate to flight conditions.
Avoids situations that involve the greatest
collision risk.
Maintenance of Altitude, Heading & Speed
To determine that the applicant is able to fly Maintains straight-and-level flight by visual Completes checklist items Demonstrates correct crew co-ordination
accurately while carrying out other activities attitude flying (or solely by reference to
such as navigation. instruments in IMC) using proper
instrument crosscheck and interpretation,
and co-ordinated control application.
Maintains the applicable airspeed,
headings and altitude
Altimeter Setting

EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
To determine that the applicant applies correct Applies correct altimeter sub scale Demonstrates correct crew co-ordination
altimeter setting procedures: settings for each stage of flight as required by type of operation (MPA)
Carries out altimeter checks and altitude
call–out in accordance with Operations
Manual.
Timing & Revision of ETA‘s
To determine that the applicant correctly Ensures arrival at navigation point at Monitors flight progress and uses
assesses and adjusts timing (ETA) ETA 3 minutes. flight plan to give estimated time of
arrival (ETA) at navigation points.
Note: also see VFR Navigation Revises ETA when appropriate.
Monitoring of Flight Progress, Flight Log, Fuel Usage, Instrument Monitoring
To determine that the applicant can maintain Maintains a flight log of Clearances, Manages cockpit duties in an
good cockpit management, monitor the flight position fixes, times, ETAs, fuel efficient manner.
and keep suitable records. states, and information as required Ensures correct division of crew
by Operating Procedures, such that duties.(MPA)
the flight may be reconstructed from
the log after landing. Monitors fuel usage.
Monitors aircraft systems and
instruments.
Observation of Weather Conditions
To determine that the applicant is able to Exhibits adequate knowledge of the Complies with Operations Manual or Exhibits adequate assessment when
assess weather conditions, decide whether elements of observation of weather aircraft manual weather limitations. VFR flight is proposed and sky
flight may continue in accordance with VFR, conditions and obtaining preflight conditions or visibilities are present,
or plan and execute alternative action. weather briefings and in-flight or forecast, that would make flight
weather information. under VFR doubtful.
Exhibits adequate assessment of
winds aloft.
Exhibits adequate assessment of
current and reported weather
conditions.
Makes satisfactory GO/NO GO or in-
flight decisions based on correct
assessment of weather conditions.
Plans and correctly executes
weather avoidance when necessary
in-flight.
Diversion to Alternate Destination/Aerodrome

EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
To determine that the applicant exhibits Selects an appropriate alternate
adequate knowledge of planning and Maintains the applicable airspeed, Completes the appropriate checklist. aerodrome if necessary.
executing a diversion from pre-planned track headings and altitude Obtains appropriate ATC service. Plans a suitable route to the new
to an alternative destination/aerodrome Exhibits adequate navigational skill Completes flight log. destination.
to reach destination within time limit. Complies with Operations Manual Diverts promptly toward the new
Note: Diversion to a new destination is procedures. destination
normally initiated by the examiner Makes an accurate estimate of
heading, groundspeed, arrival time,
and fuel consumption to the
alternate aerodrome/destination
Intercepting & Tracking Radio Navigation Aids (VOR, NDB, DME)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Intercepts and tracks a specific Correctly tunes and identifies the Correctly utilises crew to operate
adequate knowledge of the use of Radio bearing/radial (QDM/QDR) to or facility. equipment and identify navigational
Navigation aids, and is able to intercept and from the NDB facility, using Correctly sets cockpit displays (HSI, aids (MPA).
maintain specified bearings or radials or appropriate interception procedures. RMI etc.)
tracks. Intercepts and tracks a specific Correctly monitors the facility for
DME arc if required, using failure (failure flags, coding etc as
appropriate interception procedures. appropriate)
Maintains, while intercepting and Recognises facility failure, and,
tracking, the applicable airspeed, when required, reports the failure to
headings and altitude. ATC.
Applies proper correction for wind to Determines accurately the relative
maintain track. bearing (QDM/QDR) of the VOR/
NDB facility.
Determines the aircraft position
relative to the facility.
Ice Protection Procedures

EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES
To determine that the applicant exhibits Inspects all surfaces of the Taxies and accomplishes the before Monitors ice accretion during flight.
knowledge of the elements related to ice aeroplane with emphasis on ice. takeoff check adhering to good
operating practice for flight into icing Plans and executes ice avoidance if
protection equipment and procedures. Clears all surfaces of ice before necessary.
conditions.
flight
Performs takeoff and climb, cruise, Demonstrates correct crew co-
Operates anti/de-icing equipment descent and landing with emphasis ordination as required by type of
correctly. on correct procedures in icing operation.
conditions.
Completes all appropriate
briefing/checklists.
ATC Liaison – Compliance, RT Procedures – Airmanship (applies to all phases of flight)
To determine that the applicant uses correct Operates radio equipment correctly. Uses ICAO R/T phraseology. Manages flight safely with due
R/T procedures, complies with ATC regard to weather, other traffic and
Operates transponder correctly. Speaks clearly on R/T. procedures – see description of
instructions and conducts the flight efficiently
and safely. Reads back clearances correctly. Airmanship on page****
Complies with ATC clearances or

instructions.

ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains control of aeroplane Demonstrates the proper procedure Shows correct fault diagnosis
adequate knowledge of the for any emergency/abnormal Confirms fault diagnosis (with other
abnormal/emergency procedures (as may be situation (as determined by the crew members in MPA)
determined by the examiner) relating to the examiner) in the appropriate Reviews causal factors (with other
particular aeroplane type. approved AFM. crew members in MPA)
Identifies alternative courses of
Notes: Completes the appropriate action
Examiner selects suitable abnormal/emergency checklist. Involves other crew members in
malfunctions in accordance with the option analysis (MPA)
JAR test schedule and aeroplane Considers and shares the risks of
type. alternative courses of action
It is strictly forbidden to disengage Confirms intended plan of action
circuit breakers to simulate any kind (with other crew members in MPA)
of system failure(s) /malfunctions(s) Ensures that correct crew and
in the aeroplane. passenger briefings are completed
Depending on the aeroplane used Divides attention properly inside and
these items may be checked by outside cockpit.
other means i.e. oral or by ‗touch-
Maintains adequate lookout, before,
drills‘ if required for safety
during and after execution of any
While simulating engine failure on a manoeuvre by visual references.
multi engine aeroplane, the
Alerts ATC if necessary and obtains
examiner or the safety pilot must be
appropriate level of service
able to cope with a real failure on an
other engine.
The examiner or the safety pilot
must also know the alarm inhibitions
and the inefficacy of a continuous
alarm due to any failure simulation.
Rejected Take-off see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Abandons the takeoff if any major Accomplishes the appropriate engine Takes into account, prior to
adequate knowledge of the technique and problem or failure occurs at a point failure or other procedures and/or beginning the takeoff, operational
procedure for accomplishing a rejected takeoff during the takeoff where the abort briefing/checklists as set forth in the factors, which could affect the
after engine/system(s) failure/warnings, procedure can be initiated and the Pilot‘s Operating Handbook or AFM. manoeuvre such as Takeoff
including related safety factors. aeroplane can be safely stopped on Completes the appropriate Warning Inhibit Systems or other
the remaining runway/stop way. briefing/checklist. aeroplane characteristics, runway
Note: if no FTD available a rejected take-off Uses spoilers, propeller reverse, length, surface conditions, wind,
reasonable speed must be determined (e.g. thrust reverse, wheel brakes, and obstructions, and other related
50% of VMCA ) giving due consideration to other drag/braking devices, as factors that could affect takeoff
aeroplane characteristics, runway length, appropriate, maintaining positive performance and could adversely

surface conditions, wind direction, brake heat control in such a manner as to bring affect safety.
energy, and any other factors that might the aeroplane to a safe stop. Identifies critical situation and
adversely affect safety. makes timely decision to abandon
take-off.
Informs ATC when practicable.
Simulated Engine Failure Between V1 & V2 (ME Aeroplanes Simulator Only) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains the aeroplane alignment Completes required checks prior to Takes into account, prior to
adequate knowledge of the procedures used with the heading appropriate for starting takeoff to verify the expected beginning the takeoff, operational
during engine failure on takeoff, the climb performance and terrain engine performance. factors which could affect the
appropriate reference airspeeds, and the clearance when engine failure manoeuvre such as Takeoff
specific pilot actions required. occurs. Warning Inhibit Systems or other
Adjusts the engine controls as aeroplane characteristics, runway
recommended by the approved length, surface conditions, wind,
SIMULATOR ONLY: wake turbulence, obstructions, and
guidance for the existing conditions.
On a multi-engine aeroplane with published
other related factors that could
V1, VR, and/or V2 speeds (performance Class
adversely affect safety.
A), the failure of the most critical engine
Identifies critical situation and
should be simulated at a point:
makes timely decision to continue
take-off.
After V1 and prior to V2; or
As close as possible after V1 when V1 and V2
or V1 and VR are identical.
Simulated Engine Failure After Take- off, (SE Aeroplane Only) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the candidate exhibits Maintains control following engine Carries out the recommended Recognises engine failure.
knowledge of the elements related to engine failure emergency procedure.
Attempts to determine the reason
failure after take-off. Establishes the recommended glide Follows the checklist to verify for the engine malfunction, if
airspeed. procedures for securing the engine. appropriate.
Trims the aeroplane, and maintains Demonstrates engine restart in Selects a suitable landing area,
control. accordance with recommended noting any surface conditions,
procedures if appropriate obstructions or other hazards that
Simulates feathering the propeller if might hinder a safe landing.
applicable.
Flies a suitable approach to chosen
landing area such that a safe
landing would not be in doubt.

Simulated Engine Failure After Take-off, ME Aeroplane Only see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the candidate exhibits Maintains control following engine Carries out the recommended Recognises engine failure promptly,
knowledge of the elements related to engine failure. emergency procedure. and correctly identifies inoperative
failure after take-off. engine.
Reduces drag, and verifies the
inoperative engine. Assesses the aeroplane‘s
performance capabilities and makes
Secures the inoperative engine, if suitable decision to continue climb,
appropriate. return to aerodrome or prepare for a
Simulates feathering the propeller of forced landing.
the inoperative engine, if
appropriate.
Establishes VYSE; if obstructions are
present, establishes V XSE or VMC
+10, whichever is greater, until
obstructions are cleared, then
transitions to VYSE..
Banks toward the operating engine
up to 5 as required for best
performance, trims the aeroplane
and maintains control.
Monitors the operating engine and
makes adjustments as necessary.
Simulated Engine Failure, Shutdown and Restart at Safe Height (ME Aeroplanes Only) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains positive aeroplane control Follows the prescribed aeroplane Correctly identifies and verifies the
adequate knowledge of the flight to maintain co-ordinated flight, and checklist, and verifies the inoperative engine(s) after the
characteristics and controllability associated properly trims for that condition. procedures for securing the failure
with manoeuvring with engine(s) inoperative. inoperative engine(s).
Sets engine controls, reduces drag Determines the cause for the
To determine that the applicant can as necessary Demonstrates proper engine restart engine(s) failure and if a restart is a
demonstrate an engine restart in flight. procedures in accordance with viable option.
Maintains the operating engine(s) approved procedure/checklist or the
Note: These procedures must be initiated within acceptable operating limits. manufacturer‘s recommended
at a safe height

procedures and pertinent checklist
Maintains desired altitude when a items.
constant altitude is specified and is
within the capability of the
aeroplane.
Maintains the desired airspeed and
heading.
Simulated Engine Failure During Approach (ME Aeroplanes Only) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains crosswind correction and Carries out the recommended Recognises engine failure promptly,
knowledge of the elements related to an directional control throughout the emergency procedure. and correctly identifies inoperative
approach and landing with an inoperative approach and landing. engine.
engine. Sets the engine controls, reduces Considers the wind conditions,
drag, and identifies and verifies the landing surface, and obstructions,
inoperative engine after simulated and selects the most suitable
engine failure. touchdown point.
Simulates feathering the propeller of
the inoperative engine, if
appropriate.
Establishes the recommended best
engine inoperative approach landing
configuration, and airspeed.
Monitors the operating engine and
Maintains a stabilised approach and
the recommended approach
airspeed until landing is assured.
Makes smooth, timely, and correct
control application during the round
out and touchdown.
Touches down smoothly at the
predetermined zone, with no drift,
and with the aeroplane‘s longitudinal
axis aligned with and over the
runway centreline.
Asymmetric Approach (ME Aeroplane Only) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)

To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes and maintains the Complies with the published Displays efficient cockpit
knowledge of the elements related to a recommended flight attitude and approach procedure. management procedures throughout
published instrument approach with one configuration for the best the approach.
performance for all manoeuvring Applies additional allowance to
engine inoperative (by reference to approach minima as required for
instruments). necessary for the instrument
approach procedure. asymmetric condition.
Note: see ‘Instrument Approach Maintains a stabilised approach and
Procedures’ for assessment of instrument the recommended approach
procedures and apply the additional criteria for airspeed until landing is assured.
asymmetric approaches.
Monitors the operating engine(s) and
Go-around with Engine(s) (Simulated) Inoperative (ME Aeroplane Only) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Applies the appropriate power Accomplishes the appropriate Makes a timely decision to reject the
adequate knowledge of a go-around setting for the flight condition and briefing/checklist items in a timely landing for actual or simulated
procedure with one engine simulated establishes a pitch attitude manner in accordance with approved circumstances and makes
inoperative, including the conditions that necessary to obtain the desired procedures. appropriate notification when safety-
dictate a rejected landing, the importance of a performance. of-flight is not an issue.
timely decision, the recommended airspeeds. Establishes a positive rate of climb
and climb at the appropriate
airspeed to the correct acceleration
altitude.
Retracts the wing flaps/drag devices
and landing gear, if appropriate, in
the correct sequence.
Trims the aeroplane as necessary,
and maintains the proper ground
track and altitudes during the
rejected landing procedure.
Landing with Engine(s) (Simulated) Inoperative (ME Aeroplane Only) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes the approach and Completes the applicable before
adequate knowledge of the flight landing configuration appropriate for landing checklist.
characteristics and controllability associated the runway and meteorological
conditions; and adjusts the engine Completes the applicable after-
with manoeuvring to a landing with (a) landing briefing/checklist items in a
engine(s) inoperative (or simulated controls as required.
timely manner, after clearing the
inoperative) including the controllability factors Maintains a stabilised approach and runway, and as recommended by the
associated with manoeuvring, and the the desired airspeed manufacturer.
applicable emergency procedures.

Maintains the operating engine(s)

within acceptable operating limits
Accomplishes a smooth, positively
controlled transition from final
approach to touchdown.
Uses spoilers, propeller reverse,
thrust reversers, wheel brakes, and
other drag/braking devices, as
appropriate, in such a manner to
bring the aeroplane to a safe stop
after landing.
Maintains positive directional control
and crosswind corrections during the
after-landing roll.
Emergency & Survival Equipment see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Location in the aeroplane.

knowledge of the elements related to Method of operation or use.
emergency equipment and survival gear
appropriate to the aeroplane provided for the Servicing requirements.
flight test.
Method of safe storage.
Note: Examiner questions applicant on
location and use of emergency equipment. Equipment and survival gear
appropriate for operation in various
climates and topographical
environments
Simulated Forced Landing (SE Aeroplane Only) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)

To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains positive control throughout Follows the emergency checklist Selects a suitable aerodrome or
adequate knowledge of the flight the manoeuvre. items appropriate to the aeroplane landing area, which is within the
characteristics, approach and forced performance capability of the
Establishes and maintains the aeroplane.
(emergency) landing procedures, and related recommended best glide airspeed
procedures to use in the event of an engine and configuration during a simulated Takes into account altitude, wind,
failure (as appropriate to the aeroplane). engine failure. terrain, obstructions, and other
pertinent operational factors.
NOTE: No simulated engine failure shall be Establishes a proper flight circuit to
given by the examiner in an aeroplane when the selected aerodrome or landing Determines the cause for the
an actual touchdown could not be safely area simulated engine failure (if altitude
completed should it become necessary. permits) and if a restart is a viable
Uses configuration devices such as option.
landing gear and flaps in a manner
recommended by the manufacturer
and/or approved.
Flies a suitable approach to chosen
landing area such that a safe
Simulated Precautionary Landing (With Power) – (SE Aeroplane Only) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains the appropriate heading, Selects the best course of action
knowledge of the elements related to lost and if necessary, climbs. when given a lost situation.
procedures and precautionary forced landing Establishes a proper flight circuit to Attempts to identify nearest
with power. the selected aerodrome or landing prominent landmark(s).
area.
Uses available navigation aids
Flies a suitable approach to chosen and/or contacts an appropriate
landing area such that a safe facility for assistance.
Plans a precautionary landing if
deteriorating weather and/or fuel
exhaustion is impending.
Selects a suitable aerodrome or
landing area, which is within the

performance capability of the
aeroplane.
Fire Drills see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant possesses Exhibits adequate knowledge of fire Demonstrates proper procedures in Identifies source of smoke/fire in a
adequate knowledge of the emergency detection and extinguishing accordance with approved timely manner.
procedures (as may be determined by the systems. procedure/briefing/checklist or the
manufacturer‘s recommended Takes care of passenger/crew
examiner) relating to the particular aeroplane Performs all actions required by the safety.
type. procedures
fire drills.
Initiates emergency
Maintains aeroplane control. descent/diversion if appropriate.
Wind shear During Take-off & Landing see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Demonstrates sound judgement and Performs all procedures required for
adequate knowledge of wind shear at take- knowledge of the aeroplane wind shear at take-off/landing and
off/landing. manoeuvring capabilities throughout aeroplane control in a smooth,
the procedure. positive, and timely manner.
Adjusts aeroplane configuration and
speeds as appropriate.
Maintains smooth and positive
control within aeroplane limitations.
Simulated Cabin Pressure Failure/Emergency Descent See Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Demonstrates sound judgement and Demonstrates proper procedures in
adequate knowledge (simulated) cabin knowledge of the aeroplane accordance with approved
pressure failure/emergency descent. manoeuvring capabilities throughout procedure/briefing/checklist or the
the procedure. manufacturer‘s recommended
procedures and pertinent
Performs emergency descent in a briefing/checklist items.
smooth, positive, and timely manner
without exceeding limitations.
Incapacitation of Flight Crew Member (only for MPA) see Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains aeroplane control in a Performs all procedures for Identifies crew incapacitation in a
adequate knowledge of incapacitation of flight smooth, positive, and timely incapacitation of flight crewmember timely manner.

crewmember. manner. in accordance with approved
procedure/briefing/checklist or the Ensures safety of crewmember and
manufacturer‘s recommended clear of aeroplane controls.
procedures and pertinent
briefing/checklist items.

INSTRUMENT PROCEDURES
Arrival Procedures and Instrument Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant, In actual or Makes correct use of Instruments, Uses the current and appropriate Interprets correctly the ATC clearance
simulated instrument conditions, exhibits flight director, autopilot, navigation navigation publications for the received and, when necessary,
adequate knowledge of En Route Low and High equipment and communication proposed flight. requests clarification, verification, or
Altitude Charts, STARS, Instrument Approach equipment appropriate to the Performs the aeroplane change.
Procedure Charts, and related pilot and performance of the procedure. briefing/checklist items appropriate to Demonstrates terrain awareness,
controller responsibilities. Intercepts, in a timely manner, all the arrival. orientation, division of attention, and
courses, radials, and bearings Establishes communications with proper planning.
(QDM/QDR‘s) appropriate to the ATC, using proper phraseology. Ensures that correct crew and
procedure, route, ATC clearance, or Complies, in a timely manner, with all passenger briefings are completed
as directed by the examiner. ATC clearances, instructions, and Liaises with other crew members for
Establishes, where appropriate, a rate restrictions. correct operation of the aircraft
of descent consistent with the Exhibits adequate knowledge of two- systems during approach and landing
aeroplane operating characteristics way communications failure Demonstrates orientation, division of
and safety. procedures. attention, and proper planning
Maintains the appropriate airspeed- Adheres to airspeed restrictions and
altitude, headings and accurately adjustments required by regulations,
tracks radials, courses, and bearing ATC, the Pilot‘s Operating Handbook,
(QDM/QDR‘s). the AFM, and the examiner.
Complies with the provisions of the
descent profile, STAR, and other
arrival procedures, as appropriate.
Performs correct altimetry procedures,
in accordance with the regulations,
operational procedures and ATC
requirements.

Setting Navigation Aids and Identification of Facilities see Arrival Procedures and Instrument Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant correctly selects Tunes and identifies navigational Monitors Navigation equipment for
and identifies all navigation and communications facilities as appropriate to the signal/equipment failure.
equipment, instrument references, flight director procedure.
and associated navigational aids, for descent Correctly selects Navigational aids to
and arrival and exhibits adequate knowledge of flight instruments such as HSI, RMI,
the Morse Code. OBS, flight director, autopilot etc. as
appropriate.
Demonstrates adequate knowledge of
Morse Code to identify aids.
Demonstrates correct use of course
indicators to indicate QDM/QDR.
Demonstrates correct use of
communications equipment including
SSR equipment.
Approach and Landing Briefing, Including Descent, Approach and Landing Checks see Arrival Procedures and Instrument Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant exhibits Demonstrates sound judgement and Presents proper briefings in Involves other crew members in the
adequate knowledge of approach and landing consideration of the aeroplane accordance with the operator‘s briefing and correctly follows correct
briefings, whether single or multi-pilot, including manoeuvring capabilities throughout standard, approved procedures or the SOP for confirmation of the intended
descent, approach and landing checks. the briefings. manufacturer‘s recommended approach procedure, approach minima
procedures for the correct operation of and missed approach procedure.
Performs all procedures required and the aircraft systems.
NOTES: maintains aeroplane control in a Demonstrates orientation, division of
smooth, positive, and timely manner. attention and proper planning for the
The approach briefing should include weather approach and landing phase.
considerations and confirmation of instrument
approach procedure minima. All procedures, Includes due consideration for missed
checks and drills in preparation for landing and approach procedures and diversion
for missed approach. The briefing shall include planning, in the briefing.
appropriate corrections for PEC and temperature
adjustments, as well as performance
considerations and reference speeds to be
used.
The applicant shall be required also, to ensure

that the passengers receive a safety briefing.

Holding Procedures see Arrival Procedures and Instrument Procedures (General)
To determine that the applicant, Changes to the recommended Recognises arrival at the clearance
In actual or simulated instrument conditions, holding airspeed appropriate for the limit or holding fix.
exhibits adequate knowledge of and proficiency aeroplane and holding altitude, so as
to cross the holding fix at or below Follows appropriate entry procedures in
in holding procedures for standard and non- accordance with standard operational
standard, published and non-published IFR maximum holding airspeed.
procedures or as required by ATC or
holding patterns. Uses wind-drift correction techniques the examiner.
accurately to maintain the
appropriate joining and holding Complies with ATC reporting
pattern and to establish and maintain requirements.
the correct tracks and bearings. Uses the correct timing criteria where
Maintains the appropriate airspeed, required by the holding procedure, ATC
altitude and headings accurately to or the examiner‘s instructions.
establish and maintain the correct Makes appropriate adjustments to the
tracks and bearings. procedure timing, to allow for the
Demonstrates adequate knowledge effects of known wind.
of holding endurance, including, but Makes appropriate adjustments in order
not necessarily limited to, fuel on to arrive over the holding fix as close as
board, fuel flow while holding, fuel possible to the ―Expected Approach
required to alternate, etc. Time‖.

Instrument Approaches (General )
To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes the appropriate aeroplane Selects, tunes, identifies, and Establishes two-way communications
adequate knowledge of altitude, speed and configuration and airspeed considering monitors the operational status of with ATC using the proper
heading control and performs a stabilised turbulence, wind shear, microburst ground and aeroplane navigation communications phraseology and
approach in the correct configuration. conditions, or other meteorological equipment used for the approach. techniques.
and operating conditions.
Advises ATC anytime the applicant is Copies correctly, in a timely manner,
Prior to beginning the final approach unable to comply with a clearance. the ATC clearance as issued.
segment, maintains the desired
altitude, heading and airspeed and Completes the aeroplane Ensures that correct crew and
accurately tracks radials, courses, and briefing/checklist items appropriate to passenger briefings are completed
bearings, in accordance with the the phase of flight or approach
segment, including engine out Ensures or confirms that passengers,
approach procedure or as directed by crew etc are correctly secured for
ATC. approach and landing
briefing/checklists. landing.
Demonstrates satisfactory altitude, Demonstrates correct crew co-
speed and heading control, with the Follows the published approach
procedure in accordance with ATC ordination as required by type of
aircraft in trim such that a stable operation
approach path is achieved and instructions, or as directed by the
maintained to the approach minima. examiner. Demonstrates orientation throughout
Makes appropriate adjustments to the the manoeuvre
Transitions to a normal landing
approach only when the aeroplane is procedure timing, to allow for the Encourages participation of other
in a position from which a descent to a effects of known wind. crewmembers in accordance with
landing on the runway can be made at Applies the necessary adjustments to approved SOP.
a normal rate of descent using normal the published approach minima
manoeuvring. criteria for the aeroplane approach
category, and with due regard for
o NOTAMS
o Inoperative navigation
equipment
o Inoperative visual aids
associated with the landing
environment.
o Reported weather conditions
briefing/checklist.

Precision approach see Instrument Approaches (General )
To determine that the applicant exhibits Intercepts and tracks localizer within See Instrument Approaches General See Instrument Approaches General
adequate knowledge and skill in accomplishing prescribed limits.
the precision instrument approach procedures, Establishes a predetermined rate of
as determined by the examiner, with all engines descent at the point where the
operating, and / or with one engine inoperative, electronic glide slope begins, in order
where applicable. to follow the glide slope. Maintains
electronic glide slope within prescribed
limits.
Arrives at the DA/DH in such a
NOTE: Precision approaches, using position that a landing, go-around or
aeroplane NAVAID equipment for centreline and circling approach may be
glide slope guidance may be accomplished in accomplished safely.
simulated or actual instrument conditions to
Decision Altitude/Height (DA/DH) and must be Avoids descent below the DA/DH
flown without the use of an autopilot. before initiating a missed approach
procedure or transitioning to a landing.
Where the approach is required to be flown with
one engine inoperative, simulated engine shut- Initiates immediately the missed
down must be completed before the final approach, when at the DA/DH, if the
approach segment. This engine out condition required visual references for the
should be preserved until completion of the runway are not unmistakably visible
landing run or throughout the go-around and identifiable.
procedure. Maintains localizer and glide slope
during the visual descent from DA/DH
For ILS displays with a normal scale, the to a point over the runway where glide
approach should be contained within a half scale slope must be abandoned to
deflection of the localizer and glide slope accomplish a normal landing.
indications. For aircraft with an expanded scale
display of the localizer, the approach should be
contained within the full scale deflection of the
localizer and half scale deflection of the glide
slope indications.
Non Precision approach see Instrument Approaches (General )

To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes a rate of descent that will Demonstrates adequate judgement and
adequate knowledge and skill in accomplishing ensure arrival at the MDA/H (at, or prior to knowledge of the aeroplane. performance in
the non-precision instrument approach reaching, the visual descent point if order to comply with published approach
procedures, as determined by the examiner, with published) with the aeroplane in a position procedures equipment used for the
all engines operating, and / or with one engine from which a descent from MDA/H to a approach.
inoperative, where applicable. landing on the intended runway can be
made, at a normal rate using normal
manoeuvring.
Executes the missed approach if the
required visual references for the intended
runway are not unmistakably visible and
identifiable at the missed approach point.
Circling Approach see Instrument Approaches (General )
To determine that the applicant exhibits Demonstrates knowledge of circling Confirms the direction of traffic and adheres Demonstrates sound
adequate, knowledge and skill in accomplishing approach categories, speeds and to all restrictions and instructions issued by judgement and knowledge of
circling approach procedures, as determined by procedures. ATC. the aeroplane manoeuvring
operational conditions, or by the examiner, with Uses the appropriate aeroplane Maintains the correct circling pattern and capabilities throughout the
all engines operating, and / or with one engine configuration for normal and abnormal follows any prescribed tracks in accordance circling approach.
inoperative, where applicable. situations and procedures. with the published procedure or as directed
Manoeuvres the aeroplane, by visual by ATC or the Examiner.
references, after reaching the authorised Turns in the appropriate direction, when a
circling approach altitude, to maintain a missed approach is dictated during the
flight path that permits a normal landing circling approach, and uses the correct
on a runway at least 90° from the final procedure and aeroplane configuration.
approach course, or according to
published procedure.
Maintains at least the published minimum
circling level throughout the circling
procedure until a position is reached, from
which a descent to a normal landing can
be made.
Maintains visual contact with the landing
threshold throughout the circling
procedure.
Performs the procedure without excessive
manoeuvring and without exceeding the
normal operating limits of the aeroplane
(the angle of bank should not normally
exceed 30°).

Go-Around & Missed approach see Instrument Approaches (General )
To determine that the applicant exhibits Initiates the missed approach procedure Follows the recommended aeroplane Requests clearance, if
adequate knowledge and skill in the application promptly by the timely application of briefing/checklist items appropriate to the appropriate, to the alternate
of missed approach procedures associated with power, establishes the proper climb go-around procedure for the aeroplane used. aerodrome, another
standard instrument procedures. attitude, and re-configures the aircraft in Complies with the appropriate missed approach, a holding fix, or as
accordance with the approved approach procedure or ATC clearance directed by the examiner.
procedures. Interprets correctly the ATC
Maintains the desired altitudes, airspeed, clearance received and, when
heading and accurately tracks courses, necessary, requests
radials, and bearings. clarification, verification, or
change.

ARRIVAL AND LANDING PROCEDURES
Aerodrome Arrival Procedures
To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains the appropriate airspeed- Uses the current and appropriate Establishes communications with
adequate knowledge of the appropriate altitude, headings navigation publications for the ATC, using proper phraseology.
arrival procedures and relevant pilot and Exhibits adequate knowledge of two- proposed arrival routeing. Interprets correctly the ATC
controller responsibilities, and makes proper way communications failure Complies in a timely manner with clearance received and, when
reference to the appropriate navigation procedures. ATC instructions and airspace necessary, requests clarification,
publications and charts. restrictions. verification, or change.
Performs the aeroplane briefing / Demonstrates terrain awareness,
checklist items appropriate to the orientation, division of attention, and
arrival. proper planning.
Performs correct altimetry Liaises with other crewmembers for
procedures, in accordance with the correct operation of the aircraft
regulations, operational procedures systems throughout the arrival phase.
and ATC requirements. Divides attention properly inside and
Completes the appropriate outside cockpit.
checklist. Ensures that correct crew and
passenger briefings are completed
Liaises with other crew members for
lookout (where appropriate)

All landings (Including Normal Landing) General
To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes the recommended Completes the appropriate Ensures or confirms that passengers and
satisfactory knowledge and skill in the approach and landing configuration pre-landing checklist crew are correctly secured for take-off /
execution of landings, with due regard for and airspeed, and adjusts pitch Completes the appropriate landing.
recommended approach angles, airspeed, attitude and power as required, to after-landing checklist items. Correctly interprets the ATC clearance
configuration, performance limitations, wake maintain the correct approach path received and, when necessary, requests
turbulence, and safety factors (as appropriate and airspeed. clarification, verification or change
to the aeroplane). Maintains a ground track that ensures Liaises with other crew members for
the desired traffic circuit will be flown, correct operation of the aircraft systems
taking into account any obstructions during approach and landing.
and ATC or examiner requirements. Considers the wind conditions, landing
Makes proper correction for drift, surface and obstructions, and selects the
(using existing wind conditions ) and correct touch down point.
maintains a precise ground track. Listens to the RT environment to establish
Achieves and maintains a stabilised satisfactory awareness of other traffic
approach. Demonstrates orientation, division of
Accomplishes a smooth, positively attention, and proper planning
controlled transition from final Divides attention properly inside and
approach to touchdown. outside cockpit.
Achieves a landing within the Maintains adequate look-out for other
designated touchdown zone, at the aeroplanes
correct speed, in the correct attitude Notes any surface conditions, obstructions
and on the runway centreline. or other hazards that might hinder a safe
Touches down with no side drift and takeoff / landing
with the aeroplane aligned with the Shows consideration for other aeroplanes
runway centreline. on the ground and in the air
Maintains positive directional control
throughout the landing roll.
Uses spoilers, propeller reverse,
thrust reverse, wheel brakes, and
other drag/braking devices, as
appropriate, in such a manner to bring
the aeroplane to a safe stop.

Short Field Approach & Landing See All Landings General
To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains a stabilised approach and

satisfactory knowledge and skill in the achieves the recommended approach
execution of a short-field approach and airspeed, or in its absence at 1.3 VSO
landing. , with gust factor applied
Achieves a landing, accurately within
the runway touchdown zone.
Applies brakes, spoilers, reverse
thrust and / or such other devices for
the slowing of the aircraft in
accordance with the manufacturers
recommendations, to stop in the
shortest distance consistent with
safety and the certificated
performance of the aircraft.
Flapless Landing See All Landings General
To determine that the applicant exhibits Maintains a stabilised approach at an Makes due allowance for
satisfactory knowledge and skill in the appropriate approach speed, in landing performance in the no
execution of a safe landing without flaps or accordance with the Pilot‘s Operating flap/no slat configuration.
with slats /flaps malfunction. Handbook / AFM
Accomplishes a smooth, positively
controlled transition from final
approach to touchdown.

Approach and Landing with Idle Power (Single Engine Aeroplanes Only) See All Landings General
To determine that the applicant exhibits Reduces to idle power in such a Uses correct RT phraseology to
satisfactory knowledge and skill in the position as to achieve a glide obtain the appropriate clearance
execution of a safe landing with the engine at and advise ATC of any technical
descent and landing on the
idle power. problem.
runway, in an area pre-selected
Makes due allowance for traffic
by the applicant or nominated by pattern and other aeroplanes
the examiner. Correctly assess effect of wind
Adjusts pitch attitude to maintain on glide performance.
the correct gliding airspeed.
Uses drag and configuration
changes to ensure the touchdown
point is within the selected area.
Applies brakes, to stop in the
shortest distance consistent with
safety.

Landing with simulated jammed horizontal stabiliser in any out-of-trim position See All Landings General
To determine that the applicant exhibits Demonstrates sound judgement and Demonstrates proper procedures in Demonstrates satisfactory
adequate knowledge of the factors which knowledge of the aeroplane accordance with approved situation / problem analysis
influence control of the aircraft with jammed manoeuvring capabilities throughout procedure/briefing/checklist or the Involves other crew members in
stabilizer, in any out-of-trim position, the procedure. manufacturer‘s recommended problem analysis (MPA)
including the use of various drag Maintains safe aeroplane control in a procedures and pertinent Shows correct fault diagnosis
configurations, power settings, pitch smooth, positive, and timely manner. briefing/checklist items. Confirms fault diagnosis (with
attitudes, weights, and bank angles other crew members in MPA)
Reviews causal factors (with
other crew members in MPA)
Identifies alternative courses of
action, if appropriate
Involves other crew members in
option analysis (MPA)
Confirms intended plan of action
(with other crew members in
MPA)
Uses correct RT phraseology to
obtain the appropriate clearance
and advise ATC of any technical
problem.
Touch and go
To determine that the applicant exhibits Establishes the recommended take- Complies with the appropriate traffic Makes a timely decision to
knowledge of the elements related to a touch off configuration and applies take-off pattern and noise abatement discontinue the landing.
and go including the importance of a timely power, to transition safely to a normal procedures.
decision to continue or to stop on the runway. or short field take-off, as appropriate
to the aircraft type and the conditions
Maintains directional control and drift
correction.
Establishes a safe climb in the correct
configuration and at the correct
speed.

Go-around from low height
To determine that the applicant exhibits Applies the appropriate power setting Accomplishes the appropriate checklist Makes a timely decision to reject
adequate knowledge and skill in a rejected for the flight condition and establishes items in a timely manner in accordance the landing for actual or
landing procedure, including the conditions a pitch attitude necessary to obtain with approved procedures. simulated circumstances and
that dictate a rejected landing, the the desired performance. makes appropriate notification
importance of a timely decision, the Retracts the wing flaps/drag devices when safety-of-flight is not an
recommended airspeeds, and also the and landing gear, if appropriate, in the issue.
appropriate re-configuration procedure. correct sequence and at a safe Demonstrates proper
altitude, establishes a positive rate of consultation with other crew
NOTE: The manoeuvre may be combined climb and the appropriate airspeed members (MPA)
with visual, instrument, circling, or missed Trims the aeroplane as necessary, Liaises with other crew
approach procedures, but instrument and maintains the proper ground track members for correct operation
conditions need not be simulated below 100 during the rejected landing procedure. of the aircraft systems whilst
feet (30 meters) above the runway. This changing power setting,
manoeuvre should be initiated in the landing configuration and airspeed
configuration, when approximately 50 feet (15 (MPA).
meters) above the runway and approximately Correctly interprets the ATC
over the runway threshold or as clearance received and, when
recommended. necessary, requests
clarification, verification or
change
After Landing and taxiing
To determine that the applicant exhibits Demonstrates proficiency by Accomplishes the applicable Demonstrates correct crew co-
adequate knowledge of safe after landing and maintaining correct and positive briefing/checklist items and performs ordination as required by type of
taxi procedures as appropriate. control. the recommended procedures. operation (MPA)
Maintains proper spacing on other Complies with instructions issued by Ensures that correct crew and
aeroplane, obstructions, and persons. ATC (or the examiner simulating ATC). passenger briefings are
Maintains the appropriate speed completed
Observes runway hold lines, localizer
Maintains constant vigilance and and glide slope critical areas, and other Liaises with other crew
aeroplane control during the taxi surface control markings and lighting. members for lookout (MPA)
operation.
Completes the appropriate checklist. Divides attention properly inside and
outside cockpit.
Parking and Securing

To determine that the applicant exhibits Correctly parks and secures Completes the aeroplane flight records
adequate knowledge of parking and securing aeroplane. including flight time records and
aeroplane procedures. discrepancies.

NIGHT OPERATIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL FLIGHT PHASES
Night Preparation
To determine that the applicant exhibits Lighting systems identifying Safety precautions and emergencies Physiological aspects of night
knowledge of the elements related to night aerodromes, runways, taxiways and peculiar to night flying. flying including the effects of
operations by explaining: obstructions, and pilot controlled changing light conditions, coping
lighting. with illusions, and how the pilot‘s
Aeroplane lighting systems. physical condition affects visual
acuity.
Personal equipment essential for
night flight.
Night orientation, navigation, and
chart reading techniques.
Night Operation including Night circuit, go-around and landing with landing lights off
To determine that the applicant exhibits Inspects the interior and exterior of Completes all appropriate
knowledge of the elements related to night the aeroplane with emphasis on those briefing/checklists.
flight. items essential for night flight.
Taxies adhering to good operating
practice for night conditions.
Performs takeoffs and climbs with
emphasis on correct visual and
instrument references.
Navigates and maintains orientation .
Approaches, lands, and taxies,
adhering to good operating practices
for night conditions.


MODULE 4 – TEST STANDARDS – HELICOPTER
The tables in this module give a practical guide to the criteria to be considered by the examiner when
assessing each item of JAR-FCL aeroplane/helicopter tests and checks
NOT INCLUDED IN THIS (DRAFT FEM) VERSION 18


Module 5 - TEST TOLERANCES (Aeroplane and Helicopter).
The nominated tolerances are extracted from JAR-FCL with some additional figures for standardisation
and general guidance of examiners shown in italics.
Tolerance figures are to be used as the basis for assessment on the perfect day in an easily handled
aeroplane/helicopter. Since this combination is rare, the examiner shall make allowance for turbulent
conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the type of aeroplane/helicopter used.
Applicants may be advised that, during the flight, they should concern themselves only with flying and
operating the aeroplane/helicopter to the best of their ability and not attempt to remain within the
tolerances to the detriment of smooth handling.
5.1 Aeroplane
Quick reference:
Test tolerences - Refer to JAR-FCL 1 for changes to this quick reference table
IR, ATPL and all type or
PROFILE PPL Skill CPL Skill class skill test and
Test Test proficiency checks
Altitude or Height (in feet)

Normal Flight 150 100 100
With simulated engine failure 200 150 100
Limited or partial panel 200 200
Starting go-around at decision alt/ht + 50 / - 0
(one engine inoperative
+ 100 / - 0)
Minimum descent altitude / height + 50 / - 0
(one engine inoperative
+100/ - 0)
Circling minima + 100 / - 0
Tracking
On radio aids 10 5 5
Precision approach half scale deflection
azimuth and glidepath
DME arcing 1nm
Heading
All engines operating 10 10 5
With simulated engine failure 15 15 10
Limited or Partial panel 15 15
Speeds (in knots)

Take-off / Vr + 10 / - 0 +5/-0 +5/-0
Climb and approach 15 10 5
Vat / Vref + 15 / - 5 +5/-0 +5 /-0
Cruise 15 10 5
Limited or Partial Panel 10 10
With simulated engine failure + 15 / - 5 + 10 / - 5 + 10 / - 5
Blue Line speed or Vyse / V2 5 5 5
Maximum airspeed error in any other regime 15 10 10

5.2 Helicopter
Quick reference:
Test tolerances - Refer to JAR-FCL 2 for changes to this quick reference table
IR, ATPL and all type
PROFILE PPL Skill CPL Skill skill tests and
Test Test proficiency checks
Altitude or Height (in feet)

starting a go-around at
DH + 50
MDH/MDA + 50 – 0
With simulated engine failure 200 150
Hovering IGE 2
Heading & Tracking

With simulated engine failure 15 15 On precision approach -
half scale deflection
azimuth and glidepath
Speeds (in knots)

Take-off/approach -10 / +15 5 All engines operating
+5/-0
All other regimes 15 10 With simulated engine
failure +10 -5
Ground Drift (in feet)

Take-off, hover IGE 3 3
Landing No No
sideways sideways
or or
backwards backwards
movement movement

M0DULE 6 – PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE (AEROPLANE AND HELICOPTER) – PPL (A/H)
A guide to the structure of the PPL skill test for the training of the FE for the PPL
The following comments and information are offered to assist the examiner to conduct a thorough flight
test. These suggestions will aid in making accurate assessments of the applicant‘s skill and
knowledge. All items of the skill test should be performed utilising the Flight Test Standards of Module
3/4 and Tolerances of Module 5.
6.1 Aeroplane
Quick Reference:
JAR reference: Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.130 & 1.135
Who can test: FE, provided that they are individually authorised for this role
Examiners shall not test applicants to whom they have given flight instruction for
that licence, (Progress and Safety Checks do not count as flight instruction).
When an attempt is taken as two flights both parts are to be conducted by the
same examiner.
Form used: National Forms
6.2 Foreword
Every item of every section is to be assessed by the FE.
Some items must be assessed through a dedicated exercice, for instance, item 2.h.i (stalling) requires
an airwork exercise as a medium. Other items are assessed without setting a particular drill because:
they can be assessed through the normal situations of the flight. For instance, items
2.c.ii and 2.c.iii (climbing turns and levelling off) have a chance to be observable within
the very first minutes of the flight.
they are assessed through the whole flight, or a portion of it. For instance, items 2.a or
3.h (ATC liaison) or item 3.b maintaining altitude, heading and speed.
6.3 Single Engine – Aeroplane/helicopter
6.3.1 Aeroplane/helicopter Familiarisation and Preparation for Flight
6.3.1.1 Documents and Airworthiness.
a. Ensure that questions asked are relative to the aeroplane/helicopter being used for the flight
test.
6.3.1.2 Aeroplane/helicopter Performance
a. The applicant may use the Pilot Operating Handbook to determine information other than
essential performance speeds listed in the flight test standards as memory items.
b. Record the answers given to questions regarding the best angle of climb speed, best rate of
climb speed, stall speed in the landing configuration and manoeuvring speed so that during the flight
test the actual speeds flown in the appropriate exercises may be compared. Questions relating to the

Pilot Operating Handbook should be ―operational‖ questions, particularly if the conditions of
temperature wind strength; etc. existing at the time of flight test can be utilised.
6.3.1.3 Mass and Balance - Loading.
a. Make this a practical exercise and relate the mass and balance problem to the proposed
cross-country flight. The applicant should also be asked to correct an out of CG situation, and
questioned to determine understanding of extreme CG locations and the resulting effect on
aeroplane/helicopter handling and performance.
b. Should there be any doubt with regard to the completed mass and balance form presented by
an applicant, the level of knowledge should be determined by thorough questioning in this area.
6.3.1.4 Pre-Flight Inspection.

After the applicant has completed the pre-flight inspection a few questions relating to the flight test
aeroplane/helicopter should be asked. For example, the effect of the carburettor intake filters being
blocked or its location and, subsequently, determining whether the applicant knows the function of all
intakes, screens and filters.
6.3.1.5 Engine Starting and Run-up, Use of Briefing/checklists.

a. Check to see if the applicant uses the briefing/checklist provided in the aeroplane/helicopter. If
the examiner does not agree with the content of the briefing/checklist, the applicant should not be
penalised. This would be an item for the examiner to discuss with the training unit or establishment,
and if necessary the Authority.
b. The check carried out by an applicant should cover at least the items mentioned in the
appropriate Pilot Operating Handbook. The applicant should be questioned at this time to determine
what action would be taken if the checks revealed a problem, (e.g. excessive magneto-drop,
instruments not indicating when mixture or carburettor heat controls, etc. are selected and/or reset).
c. The applicant is expected to conduct the oral passenger safety briefing at this time.
6.3.1.6 Ancillary Controls

The applicant should be knowledgeable concerning the use of the carburettor heat, mixture control and
any other ancillary controls fitted to the aeroplane/helicopter used for the flight test. Leaning
procedures should be examined during the flight, or tested orally. Use of the mixture control to smooth
out rough running following the application and removal of carburettor heat in flight should be assessed
if such conditions exist, or be examined by questioning.
6.3.1.7 Taxiing
If the test is conducted under zero or light wind conditions, it is appropriate that, while taxiing, the
applicant be asked to demonstrate how the controls should be held under varying wind conditions, for
example cross wind, or a wind blowing from a front or rear quarter.
6.3.1.8 Steep Turn

For the steep turn, remember that the applicant is being assessed on 4 parameters: altitude, airspeed,
and angle of bank and recovery heading. Therefore, your request must be specific in all four areas to
avoid confusion.
The reference point for resuming straight flight should be narrow but prominent, and clearly visible. The
examiner must take time to ensure that the applicant has in mind the
same reference point in order to avoid inaccurate assessment.
6.3.1.9 Slow Flight

The aim of this exercise is to determine that the applicant can establish slow flight, control the
aeroplane/helicopter and return to normal airspeeds.

The applicant must be able to set the aeroplane in slow flight and change heading with appropriate
angle of bank and then resume normal flight, at all times keeping control (bank, speed, altitude, slip).
Failure to prevent a stall must be assessed as a fail.
6.3.1.10 Stall
The examiner must be aware of the manufacturer‘s recommendation in this regard for the type of
aeroplane to be used on the flight test. The FCL requirement is for a clean stall with a minimum loss of
altitude.
6.3.1.11 Takeoff
a. It is suggested that the examiner does not request a specific take-off; rather it is recommended
a scenario be used so that the applicant is required to decide what procedure to use.
b. Aircraft configuration and airspeeds utilised should be those specified in the Pilot Operating
Handbook.
6.3.1.12 Circuit
If possible, it is recommended that both controlled and uncontrolled aerodromes be used during the
test if they are conveniently available in order to check that the appropriate procedures are correctly
utilised.
6.3.1.13 Approach and Landing

In assessing the ability to land within a pre-determined touchdown zone it is not intended that
examiners turn this item into a spot landing exercise, rather the applicant‘s ability to land within a
specified portion of the runway is to be assessed. The overshoot will be assessed in conjunction with
this exercise.
6.3.1.14 Simulated Precautionary Landing

When requesting this exercise be specific when outlining the reasons requiring a landing; if it is due to
simulated weather conditions, then clearly specify the simulated ceiling, visibility, etc., and do not alter
them during the procedure.
Remember, the aim of the exercise is to carry out the procedures for safe landing in a suitable area
and provided the procedure used is organised and logical and the aircraft configuration is as stipulated
in the Pilot Operating Handbook, examiners should not be adversely influenced if the procedure varies
slightly from their own procedure. If a suitable aerodrome is available, it is desirable to ask the
applicant to carry the approach through to a landing. This will enable the examiner to assess ability to
carry out a short or soft field landing with this exercise.
6.3.1.15 Simulated Forced Landing

The engine failure will be simulated in accordance with the method recommended by the manufacturer.
Engine failure should be simulated from sufficient height to permit the applicant time to clearly
demonstrate his knowledge of procedures and skill. The practise should be given without advance
warning from the examiner, however, the examiner should ensure that some choice of landing area
exists within the field of vision of the applicant and within gliding range of the aircraft. Provided the aim
of the exercise is accomplished in an organised manner, the examiner should not be adversely
influenced if the procedure used varies slightly from the examiner‘s own procedure.
The examiner will take care of the engine during the descent so as to ensure safety in the go around.
The practice of leaving some power on and achieving a normal descent angle and airspeed by using
flap is acceptable. Examiners should determine the applicant‘s intention with regard to the procedure
to be used during this exercise during the pre-flight briefing.
6.3.2 Enroute Navigation
6.3.2.1 Pre-flight Planning Procedures

This section clarifies the description of what is expected of the applicant, and the Acceptable
Performance has been amended and itemised rather then just a short global statement of the criteria.

The applicant shall:
a. Select a safe and efficient route complying with air-regulation.

b. Obtain and interpret weather information
c. Determine the appropriate departure procedure
d. Obtain operational information re en-route and destination aerodromes
e. Determine the acceptability of the departure and destination runways under existing or
forecast conditions
When assigning the route, examiners should try to select a destination that will provide the applicant
with suitable terrain and sufficient en-route checkpoints.
The applicant‘s completed calculations should be verified for accuracy.
6.3.2.2 Departure Procedure

Applicants are not restricted to just one method of departure. They have the option of determining the
appropriate departure procedure to use for the given location.
The assessment should be based on ability to adapt to the new circumstances and the manner in
which departure procedure is altered.
6.3.2.3 Enroute Procedure

With respect to time, if no suitable checkpoints are available, extra time should be allowed to enable
the applicant to determine if a track error exists. Proper selection of the assigned route should prevent
this situation.
6.3.2.4 Diversion to an Alternate

When examiners choose to carry out the diversion after a series of other flight test manoeuvres, the
examiner must allow time, and if required, be of some assistance while the applicant arranges the
chart and determines their exact location. Following this procedure the examiner will request the
diversion.
It will not always be feasible to test the diversion at low level, but when examiners do the test in this
manner they must consider the following:
a. Regulations, built up areas, etc.

b. Safety considerations, suitability of the area, altitude, obstructions
c. Annoyance to people or livestock, and
d. Examiners shall not use this exercise to set the applicant up for a contravention of the
regulations.
When tested at low level (reasonable height) the selected destination should not require the applicant
to over-fly populated areas en-route. Remember this is not a test of pure navigational skills but is an
assessment of ability to proceed to an alternate using mental dead reckoning and natural geographic
features such as roads, railway tracks etc., if they are available. Rulers, protractors, and computers
shall not be used for this procedure.
With respect to the estimated time of arrival, and the actual time of arrival at the alternate, no hard
numbers have been established as a criterion. Examiners may accept an estimated time of arrival for
this exercise which is reasonable, and which would ensure that the diversion could be conducted as
planned.
6.3.2.5 Instrument Flying and Use of Radio Navigation Aids

The applicant will perform a basic instrument check (180 turn in simulated IMC)
6.3.3 Emergency Procedures

a. If the flight test aeroplane is one with which the examiner is not thoroughly familiar the Pilot
Operating Handbook should be studied before asking the applicant to demonstrate the
ability to deal with various simulated emergencies.

b. It is not intended that all possible emergency procedures be assessed with each and every
applicant. The examiners should request two emergency procedures in the testing of this
exercise, one while airborne and the other with the aeroplane on the ground. Examiners
should use a random sampling system, varying the emergency procedures requested to
prevent the examiners flight test from becoming known to the applicants, and to ensure all
systems and emergency procedures have been covered in training.
c. One method found very effective by many examiners, and one, which you may wish to use
when assessing the emergency on the ground, is to assess this exercise either prior to
engine start-up or upon returning to the apron, when the engine is shut down. With
controls in the normal shutdown position, the examiner places the throttle, mixture, related
switches, and the various ancillary controls etc., in the position they would normally be for
an engine running at cruise power. The examiner will then describe to the applicant an
emergency situation such as an engine fire. The examiner may then make an assessment
based on how the applicant actually positions the appropriate controls, switches or valves
associated with the drill rather than assessing only a verbal statement of how things should
be done. Utilising this method should preclude an applicant from receiving a favourable
assessment based on the ability to recite an emergency drill when they in fact have no
understanding or appreciation of the action the drill requires.
d. Examiners should not compound the requested emergencies, nor request so many that it
becomes an exercise in endurance until such time as the applicant gets a procedure
wrong.
6.3.4 Radio Communications

a. The demonstration of correct radio procedures throughout the whole flight requires the
examiner to make the assessment of this exercise only when the flight has been
completed.
b. Assessment is to be based upon the applicant‘s ability to use proper radio procedures,
respond to and act upon ATC clearances and instructions and obtain weather information
and update other flight related data. Where necessary, this exercise can be simulated by
the examiner if the flight test is not conducted near an ATC facility. If required the
examiner can assess much of this exercise on the ground. The use of a practical scenario
is an excellent method to let the applicant make the decision as to which radio
communication services to employ.
6.4 Multi-Engine – Aeroplane (Reserved)
6.5 Helicopter
Quick reference:
PPL(H) SKILL TEST
Who can test: PPL (H) - FE (H)
Examiners shall not test applicants to whom they have given flight instruction
for that licence, (Progress and Safety Checks do not count as flight instruction).
When an attempt is taken as two flights both the en-route procedure and
General handling are to conducted by the same examiner
The same FE (H) may be used for any second attempt but the student can opt
for a change of FE (H). For further attempts the Authority shall be consulted
Test format: Skill Test as described in Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.135. The test may be
completed in two parts, however Section 1 shall be included on each flight and
the items of Section 5 may be tested on either flight.
Notes: Training
If the test is to be conducted on a Multi-Engine helicopter then applicants must
have 70 hrs PIC helicopters and have completed the JAR-FCL 2 specified type
rating requirements. The applicants must also have passed a written test set
by the TRTO and approved by the Authority, on the helicopter type (75% pass

mark).
Training Validity (JAR-FCL 2):

Skill test must be started within 6 months of completing flight instruction and
subsequent tests must be completed within 6 months of the first attempt.
Revalidation: Type rating valid for 1 year. Proficiency Check for revalidation may be
completed within 3 months of due date with validity from due date.

MODULE 7 – COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANE AND HELICOPTER) – CPL (A/H)
A guide for the examiner on the skill test for the CPL(A) and CPL(H)
All items of the skill test should be performed utilising the Flight Test Standards of Module 3/4 and
Tolerances of Module 5.
7.1 Aeroplane
Quick Reference:
JAR reference: Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.160 & 165.
Who can test: FE provided that they are individually authorised for this role
Examiners shall not test applicants to whom they have given flight instruction for
that licence, (Progress and Safety Checks do not count as flight instruction).
When an attempt is taken as two flights both parts are to be conducted by the
same examiner.
7.2 Expanded Guidance
Applicants will be assessed on all aspects of the aeroplane operation. Sound basic handling skills are
essential as well as airmanship, navigation, instrument flying, correct R/T phraseology, cockpit and
overall flight management. The Examiner may elect to evaluate certain aspects by oral questioning.
The CPL Skill Test is divided into six main sections.
Section 1 Pre-flight operations and departure

Section 2 General Airwork
Section 3 En-route procedures
Section 4 Approach and landing procedures
Section 5 Abnormal and emergency procedures
Section 6 Simulated asymmetric flight and relevant class/type items
All sections of the test are to be completed in the course of one flight. The sequence of sections may
vary depending on circumstances and the Examiner‘s briefing will include the expected profile.
Examiners are responsible for ensuring an efficient test but applicants must remain adaptable,
particularly if weather conditions, ATC 'slot' times etc., subsequently dictate a different scenario during
the flight.
Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.170 requires that the duration of the flight is to be at least 90 minutes.
Section 3 normally takes about 1 hour and 15 minutes, and Sections 2 and 4 combined about 1 hour.
Section 5 may be combined, at the discretion of the Examiner, with Sections 1 through 4,and Section
6, where applicable, may be combined with Section 1 through 5. The whole test could, therefore, take
up to 2 hours and 30 minutes.
The CPL Skill Test is very demanding. It is appreciated that even the most 'professional' or 'talented'
pilots can make mistakes. This does not necessarily mean that a failure should result.
The following notes reflect the style and sequence of the briefing that the applicant may expect to hear.
However, the examiner may make variations in the delivery of the briefing and may have to modify the
sequence in which items are briefed and flown.
From pre-flight to post-flight the applicant will be assessed on his general flight management and flying
skills.

7.3 Section 1
The applicant will be expected to carry out a safe and practical inspection of the aeroplane prior to
flight, and must be aware of the servicing operations that he is entitled to carry out on the aeroplane.
The applicant will be expected to proceed with the checks at a practical pace and with reference to the
checklist. Where visual checks are made these should be described to the Examiner only if requested.
Pre-flight checks of the radio and navigation equipment should include all the equipment which the
applicant proposes to use during the flight. The Examiner must be briefed, as a passenger, on the
position and method of the use of emergency exits, safety belts, safety harnesses, oxygen equipment,
life jackets, and all other devices intended for use by passengers in the case of emergency. The
applicant must instruct the Examiner on the actions he should take in the event of an emergency.
Passenger briefing cards are acceptable but the examiner may ask questions.
The applicant must be prepared to deal with actual or simulated Abnormal or Emergency Operations at
any stage. The Examiner may simulate, for example, an engine fire during start up.
The applicant is expected to take account of all factors that may affect a safe take-off and departure
The departure should comply with any instructions given by ATC.
7.4 Section 3
Section 3 is usually flown after Departure to ensure an efficient flow to the flight. During this section of
the flight the aeroplane is assumed to be on a passenger carrying operation under Visual Flight Rules.
When the aeroplane has achieved cruising altitude and is on heading for the turning point, the
applicant should confirm to the Examiner the heading, altitude, and ETA, thereafter advising any
changes, (for example, "2 minutes late at my halfway point - the revised ETA is now. . ." etc).
Corrections to heading or ETA shall be calculated rather than based on track crawling, impulse or
inspiration. The applicant is expected to navigate by visual positioning in a practical way, not to feature
crawl. Numerous heading or altitude changes that are the result of poor flying may constitute a fail in
this section. The applicant is expected to make changes to his heading and ETA in order to correct
deviations from his plan.
Radio navigation aids may not be used during one leg of the en-route section. In order to assess
applicants ability to navigate by visual reference;
At some stage the applicant will be instructed to carry out a diversion from his planned track to an
alternative location. This is not an emergency procedure. A prominent location will be pin-pointed on
the applicant‘s chart. The applicant may be asked to commence the diversion at or before a planned
turning point. The applicant should nominate his heading, altitude and ETA for the diversion.
At some stage the Examiner will simulate poor weather by simulating IMC. The applicant should take
appropriate action to establish safe flight.
During the time under simulated IMC the applicant should continue to navigate and establish the
aeroplane's geographical position by using radio navigation techniques. The information may only be
obtained by VDF, VOR, DME, or ADF, GPS should not be used as a primary navigation aid. When the
examiner decides to return to VMC the applicant will be expected to fix his position visually and
continue to navigate to the diversion point using visual and radio aids fixing as required. GPS (raw data
latitude and longitude only) and RNAV may be used as aids to visual navigation, but use of moving
map displays is not acceptable.
Demonstration of radio aid tracking will be required at some stage; the Examiner will decide when to
ask for this exercise to ensure efficient use of time and airspace this exercises may be combined with
another section. He will nominate the NDB or VOR to be used and the track to be intercepted.

Throughout this section the applicant will be expected to demonstrate a satisfactory standard of flight
7.5 Section 2
Throughout this section the Examiner will be responsible for navigation and ATC liaison, but the
applicant will be responsible for look out and collision avoidance (except when IMC is simulated). The
following items will be assessed in the visual and instrument sub-sections of Section 2.
7.5.1 Visual Airwork
Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference including:

a. Straight and level flight at various airspeeds and configurations. Climbing and descending at
various speeds and rates which may include best angle (Vx) and best rate (Vy).
b. Flight at critically low airspeeds and slow flight manoeuvres.
c. Turns, including turns in landing configuration; level steep turns at not less than 45
steep turns in a gliding configuration.
d. Flight at critically high airspeeds (approaching VNE) and recognition of, and recovery from,
spiral dives. These manoeuvres are often combined; the Examiner may put the aeroplane into
a steep dive or a spiral dive with speed increasing rapidly and hand control to the applicant to
initiate appropriate recovery action either to straight and level flight or into a climb.
e. Recognition and recovery from stalls:
Normally the first stall will be a clean, fully developed stall entering from straight and level flight,
with the throttle(s) closed.
The second stall will be from an approach configuration, (flap setting and gear) and
appropriate power. The stall should be initiated from a turn (level or descending with about 20
AOB) and the applicant should recover at the first symptom of the approaching stall.
The third stall will be in a landing configuration and appropriate set power. The stall should be
initiated from straight flight as if established on final approach to land (i.e. not climbing); the
applicant must recover at the first symptom of the approaching stall.
All recoveries shall be made with the minimum loss of height and returning to a clean climb,
wings level.
7.5.2 Instrument Airwork
Control of the aeroplane by sole reference to instruments including:
7.5.3 Full Panel:
Level flight in the cruise configuration. Level turns at rate one or bank angles up to 30 . Climbing and
descending turns at given rates and speeds.
7.5.4 Limited Panel:
Flight reference by turn and slip/turn coordinator indicator, standby compass and performance
instruments only
Straight and level flight at given speeds.
Level turns onto given headings at rate one using timed or compass turns.
Climb and Descend at cruise speed in straight flight.
Recovery from unusual attitudes. (Recovery should be made to trimmed straight and level
flight with minimum loss of height).
7.6 Section 4
This section may be flown at the base aerodrome or at an alternate aerodrome nominated by the
examiner before flight. Applicants will be expected to carry out a safe and expeditious join to the circuit.

This involves entry to the most convenient point in the circuit with the aeroplane in the appropriate
configuration and at the correct speed. Applicants will be expected to carry out a number of
approaches and landings (usually ‗touch and go‘ landings) involving the following:
a. Normal landing.
b. Cross wind landing (when practical).
c. Go around from a low height/altitude.
d. Short field or Performance landing. This may be combined with a simulated bad visibility/low
level circuit. In order to assess this exercise the Examiner may limit the amount of runway
available.
e. Approach and landing without the use of power (glide approach). The examiner may limit the
amount of runway available.
f. Approach and landing without the use of flaps (flapless).
g. Post flight action. The applicant will be responsible for taxying and parking, after landing and
shut down checks, and the completion of aeroplane documentation.
Throughout this section the applicant is also responsible for ATC liaison, altimetry and lookout
7.7 Section 5
The items of this section may be combined with Sections 1 through 4. The Examiner will simulate an
abnormal or emergency situation; the applicant is expected to carry out the appropriate emergency
actions. If drills involve the operation of fuel cocks, fuel shut off valves, mixture controls and any critical
engine control, operations should be simulated by "touch actions" only. Emergency radio calls should
be made aloud but not transmitted. Applicants should not assume that any simulated emergency is
complete until told by the Examiner.
7.8 Section 6
Applicants attempting the Skill Test in a multi engine aeroplane (not centre-line thrust) will be expected
to fly the exercises in Section 6. At a safe height after take-off the Examiner will simulate an engine
failure by closing one of the throttles. The applicant will be expected to retain control of the aeroplane,
identify the ‗failed‘ engine and carry out the appropriate engine shut down and propeller feathering
procedures; using touch drills. On completion of these drills, because the applicants actions would
have resulted in the engine security and propeller pitch being set as required, the Examiner or the
safety pilot will be responsible for setting zero thrust and the management of the (simulated) failed
engine.
The applicant will be expected to carry out a circuit to go-around under asymmetric power and an
asymmetric approach to land. This section may, at the discretion of the Examiner, be combined with
Sections 4 and 5 of the flight.
Applicants who are required to fly Section 6 will not be expected to fly the steep gliding turns in Section
2, the glide approach in Section 4 or the practice forced landing and engine failure at section 5.
7.8.1 Flight Simulator or Flight & Navigation Procedure Trainer
The following items may be performed in an (FNPT II):

a. Airwork (Section 2) - items c and e (iv)
b. Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (Section 5) - all items
c. Simulated Asymmetric Flying (Section 6) - all items
The simulator or FNPT II must be approved for the purpose and of the same aeroplane type/class as
used for the remainder of the skill test.
7.9 General Note
In situations when the Examiner does not occupy a pilot seat he is responsible for briefing the safety
pilot (Pilot in Command) on his duties throughout the test

7.10 Helicopter
Quick reference:
CPL(H) SKILL TEST

JAR reference: JAR-FCL 2 - Subpart D and Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.170
Who can test: CPL(H) - AE(H)
Test format: Skill Test as shown in Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.170. The test may be
completed in two parts, however Section 1 shall be included on each flight and
items from Section 5 may be completed in either flight. Section 4 should
normally be completed with Section 3 following the diversion.
Form guidance: Failure of a second attempt requires the Form to be sent to the Authority who
may prescribe mandatory training. Following failure of a second attempt the
Authority may nominate another examiner for subsequent attempts.
Countersign applicant‘s logbook if requested.
Notes: The Skill Test will add the helicopter Type to the licence when issued.
Validity: Valid for 6 months. Applicants must complete all other requirements for licence
issue.
After licence issue type rating validity period is as for PPL(H)


MODULE 8 - INSTRUMENT RATING - IR (AEROPLANE AND HELICOPTER)
A guide to the structure of the IR skill test for the IRE and proficiency checks for the IRE and CRE
8.1 Aeroplane
Quick Reference:
Table 4 A IR SKILL TEST

JAR reference: JAR-FCL 1.210
Who can test: IRE (an IRE or suitably authorised CRE may conduct the IR revalidation or
renewal proficiency check)
Test format:
8.2 General
The skill test and proficiency check will be performed according JAR-FCL 1.210 and Appendix 1 to
1.210.
The skill test form is divided into six sections:
Section 1 Pre flight operations and departure

Section 2 General handling
Section 3 En-route procedures
Section 4 Precision approach procedures
Section 5 Non- precision approach procedures
Section 6 Simulated asymmetric flight (if applicable)
8.3 Test Conduct

The duration of the flight shall be at least one hour
The duration of the total test/check might be at least 2 hours. All sections of the test/check are to be
completed in the course of the flight. The sequence of the sections may vary, depending of the
circumstances and the briefing of the examiner.
8.4 Weather Minima
The weather minima for conducting the practical flight test/check for an IR(A) will be determined by the
NAA.
8.5 The Aeroplane
The aeroplane for the IR –Skill tests/Proficiency checks shall be suitably equipped to simulate
instrument meteorological conditions and suitably equipped for instrument flight training. ( JAR-FCL
Appendix 1a of 1.055).
8.6 The composition of the flight crew and role of the examiner/safety pilot

An applicant shall fly the aeroplane/helicopter from a position where the pilot-in-command functions
can be performed and to carry out the test as if there is no other crew member. The FE shall take no
part in the operation of the aeroplane/helicopter, except when intervention is necessary in the interests

of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic. Whenever the examiner or another pilot
functions as a co-pilot during the test, the privileges of the instrument rating will be restricted to multi-
pilot operations. This restriction may be removed by the applicant carrying out another initial instrument
rating skill test acting as if there was no other crew member on a single-pilot aeroplane/helicopter.
Responsibility for the flight shall be allocated in accordance with national regulations.
The minimum flight crew necessary for the conduct of skill tests conducted as single pilot operations
must comprise of the applicant, the examiner and, if applicable, a Safety Pilot. The applicant shall fly
the aeroplane and will be acting as the Pilot in Command. If a safety pilot is required he/she will be an
instructor who is qualified to act as Pilot in Command on the aeroplane type or class being used for the
test and will be responsible as the Pilot in Command for the safety and general operation of the
aeroplane.
8.7 The Briefings
The Pre flight briefing should be according to Module 2 of this FEM.

If the examiner will not occupy a pilot seat during the test/check he must ensure that the Safety Pilot is
briefed on the required methods of:
a. simulation of instrument conditions

b. simulation of an engine failure
c. removal of radio aid information when required
d. actions to take in case of an actual emergency
e. use of the radio if required to perform the test
f. any other item to be determined by the examiner
The de-briefing and the assessment of the test will be according to Module 2 of this FEM.
8.8 The Skill test
The flight test items of the Skill Test/Proficiency check has to be performed according to the Flight Test
Standards in Module 3.
8.9 Test Tolerances
The Test Tolerances of Module 5 are used throughout the whole flight test. However, as the
circumstances of each test/check conducted by an examiner may vary, it is also important that an
examiner‘s test/check assessment takes into account any adverse condition(s) encountered during the
test/check.
8.10 Helicopter
Quick reference:
IR(H) SKILL TEST

JAR reference: JAR-FCL 2 Subpart E - Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.210
Who can test: IRE(H)
Test format: As shown in Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.210
Notes: Where RNAV is available this may be used as briefed by the IRE(H).
IR(H) REVALIDATION
JAR reference: JAR-FCL 2 Subpart F - Appendix 3 to JAR-FCL 2.240
Revalidation: 12 months validity
The revalidation may be flown within 3 months of the due date, the new validity
being 12 months from that due date.
Who can test: TRE(H) with IR(H) privileges
Test format: As shown in Appendix 3 to JAR-FCL 2.240

JAR-FCL 2 recommends that the IR(H) be flown as an integral part of the pilot‘s
annual SPH Type rating revalidation.
The examiner may repeat items in flight. If the final result is a failure the failed
item or items are, following any recommended mandatory retraining, to be
rechecked on a subsequent flight. However, the examiner may fail the whole of
the IR(H) revalidation if he considers it unacceptable, in which case the whole
of the IR(H) section is to be repeated, again after mandatory retraining is
completed

MODULE 9 – TYPE AND CLASS RATINGS (AEROPLANE AND HELICOPTER)
A guide to the structure of the skill test for rating issue and the revalidation proficiency check for the
TRE and CRE
All items of the proficiency check test should be performed utilising the Flight Test Standards of Module
3/4 and Tolerances of Module 5.
9.1 Aeroplane
Quick Reference:
JAR reference: SPA: Appendix 3 to JAR-FCL 1.240

MPA: Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 1.240 & 1.295
Who can test: SPA: CRE, FE(PPL), FE(CPL), FIE
MPA: TRE
9.2 SPA
Appendix 3 to JAR–FCL 1.240

Contents of the class/type rating/training/skill test and proficiency check on single -engine and
multi-engine single- pilot aeroplanes
(See JAR–FCL 1.240 through 1.262 and 1.295)
6 When a proficiency check on a single-pilot aeroplane is performed in a multi-pilot operation

in accordance with JAR-OPS, the type/class rating will be restricted to multi-pilot.
7 A flight simulator or FNPT II shall be used for practical training for type or multi -engine class
ratings if the simulator or FNPT II forms part of an approved type or class rating course. The
following considerations will apply to the approval of the course:
(a) the qualification of the flight simulator or FNPT II as set out in JAR–STD;
(b) the qualifications of the instructors and examiner;
(c) the amount of flight simulator or FNPT II training provided on the course; and
(d) the qualifications and previous experience of the pilot under training.
9.3 Expanded guidance
Profiles are to be planned to make efficient use of time and airspace. The test and check profiles are
not dissimilar to those used for initial skill tests (PPL, CPL and IR). However, the examiner should
avoid wasting flight time beyond that required for the applicant to display the required skills and should
generally expect to be able to apply a practical approach to the test. The requirement of skills tests is
for the applicant to demonstrate his knowledge and handling of procedures in a new environment.
Proficiency checks should display the practical experience of the applicant with his performance of the
required items assessed against safe standards of aeroplane handling and flight management.
Test standards for each item of test/check are shown at Module 3. The accuracy tolerances are
shown at Module 5.
AMC FCL 1.425 paragraph 8

An examiner should plan a test/check flight so that the flight time in an aeroplane or ground time in an
approved STD is not less than 60 minutes.

For SPA, the single route sector in 1.245(b)(2), if applicable, shall be completed as part of the
proficiency check, in accordance to Appendix 3 to 1.240, item 4. For SE SPA, at least section 3A or
3B in the skill test/proficiency check shall always be completed.
For MPA, the single route sector may be included in the proficiency check, or completed separately
prior to the proficiency check within the validity period.
9.4 Synthetic Training Devices (STDs)

Items which may be trained and tested in an STD are identified in JAR-FCL requirements.
STDs used are to have been approved for the purpose by the Authority. The device can be identified
by the examiner through its certificate, a unique authorisation number and validity.
9.5 MPA
MPA skill test and proficiency check the profiles may be conducted using the guidance in Module 10
9.6 Helicopters
Quick Reference:
MPH.IR(H) – Initial issue skill test conducted on MP(H)

JAR reference: JAR-FCL 2 Subpart F Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 2.240 & 2.295
Who can test: TRE(H).
Test format: The test is conducted in a similar manner to the IR(H) skill test conducted as
SPH. The following considerations are required (also see under Notes);
 The pre –flight briefing is to be attended by all flight crew members
 Briefing must specify that the Safety Pilot will not exercise judgement
decisions or pre-empt P1 requirements. The P1 is to call for all checks
and equipment set-up.
The following items are to be decided pre-flight:
 The method for simulating engine failure.
 The method of screening and limited panel practice.
 Items which for safety reasons cannot be conducted in flight which may
be
 checked by the examiner by oral questioning
 Any minima that the P1 is subject to by the aeroplane operator.
Notes: Unless the Examiner is rated on the type he shall not take the co-pilot seat
unless specifically authorised by the Authority. The Safety Pilot is to be
qualified as a TRI(H) or equivalent and is to act as both lookout and safety pilot.
Revalidation: IR(H) is valid only for helicopter type on which the skill test is completed.
MPH type rating and MPH IR(H) is not valid for SPH role on type and vice-
versa.
If the rating lapses by more than 5 years it shall be renewed by MPH IR(H)
renewal by an examiner of the authority and by skill test
If the rating lapses by more than 7 years the entire IR(H) Skill Test and the IR
Theoretical Knowledge exams shall be completed again.
SPH TYPE RATING LICENCE SKILL TEST

JAR reference: JAR-FCL 2 Subpart F Appendix 3 to JAR-FCL 2.240
Who can test: AE(H) - SEH/MEH, FE(H) - PPL SEH, TRE(H) - SEH/MEH
Notes: Training
If the test is to be conducted on a Multi-Engine helicopter then applicants must

have 70 hrs PIC helicopters and have completed the JAR-FCL 2 specified type
rating requirements. The applicants must also have passed a written test set
by the TRTO and approved by the Authority, on the helicopter type (75% pass
mark).
Testing
Applicants not wishing to revalidate an IR(H) shall omit this Section.
SPH TYPE RATING PROFICIENCY CHECK

Period: 12 months for all types (as defined in JAR-FCL 2.220)
Proficiency Checks can be flown up to 3 months before the expiry date with no
loss to the original expiry date provided at least 2 flight hours have been
completed on the type in the 12 month preceding expiry.
If the expiry date is passed by less than 5 years the applicant may Renew the
rating as above.
If the expiry date has exceeded 5 years the National Authority may direct
refresher training prior to a Renewal test flight
Who can test: AE(H) - SEH/MEH, FE(H) - PPL SEH, TRE(H) - SEH/MEH
Test format: To revalidate by experience for SEH Piston group as shown in Appendix 1 to
JAR-FCL 2.245(b)(3):
SEH Piston types as listed in Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 2.245(b)(3) may be

revalidated by experience of 2 hours on each type in the 12 months preceding
expiry provided a proficiency check is completed with an Examiner on one of
the SEH Piston types on the list. The licence entry for the type ratings
revalidated by experience shall show the same validity expiry date as that on
which the proficiency check was completed.
Notes: Applicants with a valid IR(H) on the type shall revalidate their IR(H) as part of
the check. However if the IR(H) has to be assessed separately due to weather
it may be flown on a separate flight within the revalidation/renewal period and
both flights should be signed off at the same time.


MODULE 10 – AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE (AEROPLANE) – ATPL (A)
A guide to the structure of the ATPL skill test for the TRE.
10.1 Aeroplane
Quick Reference:

Who can test: TRE
Test Format : See below
10.2 Expanded guidance
Appendix 1 to JAR–FCL 1.240 & 1.295

Skill test and proficiency check for aeroplane type/class ratings and ATPL
Test Format
1 The applicant shall have completed the required instruction in accordance with the syllabus. The
administrative arrangements for confirming the applicant's suitability to take the test, including
disclosure of the applicant's training record to the examiner, shall be determined by the Authority.
2 Items to be covered in skill tests are given in the applicable appendix 2 and 3 to JAR-FCL 1.240.
With the approval of the Authority, several different skill test scenarios may be developed
simulated line operations. The examiner will select one of these scenarios. Flight simulators, if
available and other training devices as approved shall be used.
3 (a) For SPA: (Not included in this Module of the FEM)
(b) For MPA: The applicant shall pass all sections of the skill test/proficiency check.
Failure of more than five items will require the applicant to take the entire test/check again. Any
applicant failing 5 or less items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any item on the re-
test/check including those items that have been passed at a previous attempt will require the applicant
to take the entire check/test again.
(c) In case the applicant fails only or does not take Section 6, the type rating will be
issued without Cat II or III privileges.
(d) Section 6 is not part of the ATPL skill test.
4 Further training may be required after a failed test. Failure to achieve a valid pass in all items in
two attempts shall require further training as determined by the examiner. There is no limit to
the number of skill tests that may be attempted.
Conduct of the test/check - General

5 The Authority will provide the examiner with safety criteria to be observed in the conduct of the
test.
6 Should an applicant choose not to continue with a test for reasons considered inadequate by
the examiner, the applicant will be regarded as having failed those items not attempted. If the
test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only those items not
completed shall be tested in a further flight.
7 At the discretion of the examiner any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated
once by the applicant. The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the
applicant's competency requires a complete re-test.
8 Checks and procedures shall be carried out/completed in accordance with the authorised
checklist for the aeroplane used in the test and, if applicable, with the MCC concept.
Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculated by the applicant in
compliance with the operations manual, or flight manual, for the aeroplane used. Decision
heights/altitude, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed approach point shall be
determined by the applicant for the ATPL(A).
9 The test for a multi-pilot aeroplane shall be performed in a multi-crew environment. Another
applicant, or another pilot, may function as second pilot. If an aeroplane, rather than a
simulator, is used for the test/check, the second pilot shall be a TRI.
10 An applicant for the initial issue of an ATPL(A) shall be required to operate as 'pilot flying' (PF)
during all sections of the test ( in accordance with Appendix 2 to 1.240 & 1.295 ). The applicant
shall also demonstrate the ability to act as 'pilot not flying' (PNF). The applicant may choose
either the left hand or the right hand seat for the test.
11 The following matters shall be specifically checked when testing applicants for the ATPL(A)
extending to the duties of a pilot-in-command, irrespective of whether the applicant acts as PF
or PNF:
(a) management of crew co-operation;

(b) maintaining a general survey of the aeroplane operation by appropriate supervision; and,
(c) setting priorities and making decisions in accordance with safety aspects and relevant rules and
regulations appropriate to the operational situation, including emergencies.
12 The test should be accomplished under IFR and as far as possible in a simulated commercial
air transport environment. An essential element is the ability to plan and conduct the flight from
routine briefing material.
Flight Test Tolerances
1 The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;
(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship ;
(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a
procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;
f) understand and apply crew co-ordination and incapacitation procedures, if applicable; and,
(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members, if applicable.
10.3 Test Tolerances : refer to Module 5

.
Content of the skill test
The skill test contents and sections are set out in Appendix 2 to JAR-FCL 1.240 & 1.295.

The format and application form to the skill test may be determined by the National Authority, see IEM
FCL 1.240 (b)(1).

MODULE 11 – EXAMINATION OF INSTRUCTORS (AEROPLANE AND HELICOPTER)
A guide to the structure of flight instructor initial skill tests and revalidation proficiency checks for the
FIE
11.1 General
The skill test and proficiency check are to be performed according to JAR-FCL 1.345/2.345 and
1.355/2.355(a) (3) set out in the Appendices 1 and 2 to JAR FCL 1.330/2.330 and 1.345/2.345. The
test comprises oral theoretical examinations on the ground, pre-flight and post flight briefings and in-
flight FI(A) demonstrations.
The skill test form is divided into 7 sections:
Section 1 Theoretical knowledge oral

Section 2 Pre-flight briefing
Section 3 Flight
Section 4 Other exercises
Section 5 Multi-engine exercises
Section 6 Instrument exercises
Section 7 Postflight de-briefing
Note that:
• Section 1 is subdivided into two parts:

a. A short lecture < 45 minutes, the subject selected from items 1-8 of Section 1, the
applicant being advised of the subject the previous day.
b. An oral exam for knowledge of items 1-9 of Section 1 and the ‗teaching and
learning‘ content given in the FI(A) courses.
• Section 4 is intentionally left blank on forms and is used for additional flight instructor
demonstrations, as decided by the examiner and acknowledged by the applicant before the skill
test.
• Section 5 will be used for a FI(A) rating for ME(SPA) or CRI (ME) (A).
• Section 6 will be used for a FI(A) for instrument rating or IRI(A).
All sections should be completed within a period of 6 months, however, if possible the test/check
should be completed in 1 day.
Failure in any exercise within Sections 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 requires a re-test covering all exercises.
Section 1, if failed, may be retaken separately.
The weather minima for the FI/CRI/IRI skill test and proficiency check will be determined by the NAA.
The aeroplane shall be suitably equipped to perform all the exercises and manoeuvres required in the
test/check.
The examiner shall normally be the pilot-in-command, except in circumstances agreed by the
examiner.
The accommodation for the theoretical part of the test shall be a suitable location for giving a test
lecture to students.
The following books and documents should be available for the briefings and the flight:
• AIP
• AIC‘s
• JAR-FCL 1 or 2 as applicable
• Navigation material, charts, computer

• Flight manuals
• Instructor guides
• PPL training syllabus
• Pilot licences
Appropriate literature/training aids representative of the test aeroplane should be used for the lecture
and briefings.
11.2 Theoretical Knowledge
The aim of the oral examination is to determine the applicant‘s knowledge of the following subjects:
a. Air Law
b. Aeroplane/helicopter General Knowledge
c. Flight Performance and Planning
d. Human Performance and Limitations
e. Meteorology
f. Navigation
g. Operational Procedures
h. Principles of Flight
i. Administration
The oral examination will normally take 1 hour but is dependant on the both the type of test and the
applicant‘s performance.
• Questions should be of a practical nature related to the subjects.

• Questions may be answered using whatever training aids or equipment is available.
• Questions may be answered by referring to the books, documents and diagrams.
If the test is used for the issue or revalidation of an IRI, the questions should also focus on instrument
flying techniques, IR regulations and procedures.
If the test is used for the issue or revalidation of a FI(ME) or CRI(ME) specific questions relating to
asymmetric flight are to be asked.
11.3 The Lecture
The applicant is required to give a lecture under test conditions to his student ‗audience‘, one of whom
will be the examiner.
• The subject of the lecture will be determined by the examiner and preferably chosen from the
exercises from AMC- FCL 1.340/2.340 for FI, AMC-FCL 1.380/2.380 for CRI and AMC-FCL
1.395/2.395 for IRI or the training syllabus for PPL.
• The applicant will be given at least 24 hours notice of the lecture topic and time to prepare himself
for its delivery on the day.
• The lecture should not exceed 45 minutes.
• The examiner, acting as a student, should clearly explain which level he must be considered as a
student.
• Applicants must expect to use whatever training aids and equipment are available.
• An aeroplane/helicopter model, representing the test aeroplane/helicopter, is essential.
The four basic components of the lecture will be:

1. The Aim
2. Principles of Flight (briefest reference only)
3. The Air Exercises (what and how and by whom)
4. Airmanship (weather, flight safety etc.)
The lecture should contain:

• a good time frame
• a structural ―build up‖

• no untrue statements
• a theoretical explanation of the practical lesson
• explanation of airmanship
• mention of common failures of students during exercises
• explanation of the corrections on the failures
• all practical flight details
• check questions for the audience
• time for the audience to ask questions
During the lecture the applicant will be assessed by the examiner on the following items:
• Visual presentation
• Technical accuracy
• Clarity of explanation
• Clarity of speech
• Instructional techniques
• Use of models and aids
• Student participation
11.4 The Preflight Briefing
An exercise will be chosen by the examiner from the flight syllabus of the FI training course (see AMC-
FCL 1.340/2.340, 1.380/2.380 and 1.395/2.395)
The four basic components of the exercise briefing will be:
e. The Aim
f. Principles of Flight (briefest reference only)
g. The Air Exercises (what and how and by whom)
h. Airmanship (weather, flight safety etc)
The pre flight briefing should be a short practical briefing of about 15 to 20 minutes.
The examiner should explain that throughout the flight he, or another FI, will act as the student. The
level of experience of this student are to be clearly identified.
The assessment of the pre flight briefing will be in accordance with the assessment items of paragraph
11.3, above.
11.5 The Flight
The flight test following the pre flight briefing should last at least 60 minutes.
The chosen exercise briefed during the pre flight briefing should be the main exercise of the flight.
Before the flight the examiner should clearly identify:
• which exercises the applicant is to fly without instructional ‗patter‘,

• which exercises are to be taught to the student, and
• which exercises may be demonstrated to the student but with accompanying ‗patter‘.
During the skill test the applicant shall occupy the seat normally occupied by the FI. The examiner,
acting as a student, must act according to the instructions given by the applicant. The examiner should
not deliberately set traps, but act as a normal student and introduce common student errors for the
applicant to identify and correct. It is also important that the examiner is consistent in his response, so
that mistakes mastered by the applicant, no longer occur.
The applicant should:

• exhibit instructional knowledge of common errors of students in performing exercise.
• demonstrate and simultaneously explain the flight exercises.
• analyse and correct simulated common errors.

The applicant will be expected to demonstrate personal standards of flying ability and airmanship to the
level of a professional pilot.
Assessment of the flight will contain:

• Arrangement of Demo
• Synchronisation of Speech with Demo
• Correction of Faults
• Aeroplane Handling
• Instructional Technique
• General Airmanship / Safety
• Positioning, use of Airspace
11.6 Post Flight Briefing
Assessment of the post flight briefing will be according the items of paragraph 11.3, above.
11.7 Flight Test Standards
The applicant‘s knowledge of check items flown during the flight test are to be assessed against the
relevant Flight Test Standards in Module 3 of this FEM
11.8 Test Tolerances
The Test Tolerances for CPL, shown at Module 5 of this FEM, are to be used for assessment of the FI
applicant. However, as the circumstances of each test/check may vary, it is also important that the
examiner‘s assessment takes into account any adverse conditions encountered during the flight.

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oint Aviation Authorities

AEROPLANE AND HELICOPTER

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18)

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18)

Chapter 11 Standardisation of Examiners

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 1 01.10.05

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 2 01.10.05

Module 1 – General Requirements Pg 07

Module 2 – Examiner Training – Pg 17

Module 3 – Test Standards Aeroplane Pg 33

Module 4 – Test Standards Helicopter Pg 83

Module 5 – Test Tolerances (Aeroplane and Helicopter)

Module 6 – PPL Skill Test (Aeroplane and Helicopter) Pg 86

Module 7 – CPL Skill Test (Aeroplane and Helicopter) Pg 92

Module 8- Instrument Rating - IR (Aeroplane and Helicopter) Pg 99

Module 10 – ATPL Skill Test Pg 102

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 3 01.10.05

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 4 01.10.05

1.1 Standardisation arrangements for examiners

1.1 Standardisation arrangements for examiners

Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 4

Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 3

(a) a flight inspector from an Authority; or

AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 2

AMC FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 3

1.1.1 Authorisation as Senior Examiner

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 5 01.10.05

Pre course self-study

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 6 01.10.05

1.3 Initial Selection and Knowledge Tests

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 7 01.10.05

Applicant: Pilot requiring a Rating etc

Candidate: Pilot requiring Initial Examiners Authorisation

Dummy: Pilot acting as an Applicant

Duties of Crew During Acceptance Tests

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 8 01.10.05

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 9 01.10.05

a. Flight Examiner (FE) (A) and (H).

JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425 (a)

Be qualified to act as pilot-in-command of each aeroplane/helicopter for which they are

Hold the relevant flight instructor rating, unless specified otherwise.

AEROPLANES AND HELICOPTER

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 10 01.10.05

CRE AUTHORISATION (not applicable to helicopter)

1.5 Examiner training

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 11 01.10.05

Examiner Training content is explained at Module 2.

aeroplane/helicopter on which they may test/check

any restrictions to the authorisation any further privileges to the authorisation

1.7 Addition of privileges

1.8 Multiple roles

1.9 Period of validity of an Authorisation

1.10 Examiner Reauthorisation

Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.425/2.425 paragraph 5

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 12 01.10.05

compliance with the required administration

Combination of Examiner Re-authorisations

Section 5, Part 2 (FEM V.18) 11 - 13 01.10.05

1.11 Authority to sign documentation after the Skill test/Proficiency check