READING COMPREHENSION

Unit 1- 5
UNIT 1:
Choose the item (A, B, C or D) that best completes the unfinished statement (or the best answers
Question
) about each passage.
John Fisher, a builder, and his wife Elizabeth wanted more living space, so they left their
small flat for an old 40-metre-high castle tower. They have spent five years turning it into a
beautiful home with six floors, winning three architectural prizes.
‘I love the space, and being private,' Elizabeth says. 'You feel separated from the world. If
I'm in the kitchen, which is 25 metres above the ground floor, and the doorbell rings, I don't
have to answer it because visitors can't see I'm in!'
'There are 142 steps to the top, so I go up and down five or six times a day, it's very good
exercise! But having to carry heavy things to the top is terrible, so I never buy two bags of
shopping from the supermarket at a time. Apart from that, it's a brilliant place to live.'
'When we first saw the place, I asked my father's advice about buying it, because we
couldn't decide. After paying for it, we were a bit worried because it looked awful. But we really
loved it, and knew how we wanted it to look.'
'Living here can be difficult - yesterday I climbed a four-metre ladder to clean the
windows. But when you stand on the roof you can see all the way out to sea on a clear day, and
that's a wonderful experience. I'm really glad we moved.'
1. What is the writer trying to do in the text?
A. Describe how to turn an old tower into a house.
B. Recommend a particular builder
C. Describe what it is like to live in a tower
D. Explain how to win prizes for building work
2. From this text, a reader can find out
A. Why visitors are not welcome at John and Elizabeth's house.
B. Why Elizabeth exercises every day.
C. Why Elizabeth asked her father to buy the tower.
D. Why John and Elizabeth left the flat.
3. Which of the following best describes Elizabeth's feelings about the tower?
A. She wanted it as soon as she saw it.
B. She likes most things about it.
C. She has been worried since they paid for it.
D. She finds it unsuitable to live in.
4. What problem does Elizabeth have with living in such a tall building?
A. Her visitors find it difficult to see if she is at home.
B. She feels separated from other people.
C. She cannot bring home lots of shopping at once.
D. It is impossible to clean any of the windows.
5. They were rather worried after paying for the castle because
A. they really couldn't afford it. B. it was about to collapse.
C. it looked terrible at first. D. they were unable to take care of such a large house.
READING
Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each .
During the teenage years, many young people can at times be difficult to talk to. They often seem
to dislike being ed. They may seem unwilling to talk about their work in school. This is a normal
development at this age, though it can be very hard for parents to understand. It is part of becoming
independent of teenagers trying to be adult while they are still growing up. Young people are usually
more willing to talk if they believe that are asked out of real interest and not because people are trying
to check up on them.
Parents should do their best to talk to their sons or daughters about school work and future plan
but should not push them to talk if they don’t want to. Parents should also watch for the danger signs:
some young people in trying to be adult may experiment with sex, drugs, alcohol or smoking. Parents
need to watch for any signs of unusual behaviour which may be connected with these and get help if
necessary.
1. This passage is taken from a…………
A. handbook for parents B. school timetable.
C. teenage magazine D. book for children
2. Why do adults sometimes find teenagers difficult to talk to?
A. because most teenagers are quiet.
B. because teenagers don’t want to talk to other people.
C. because teenagers think adults are not honest
D. because most teenagers hate adults.
3. When can you expect young people to be more talkative than usual?
A. when people talk to them because they are really interested and not just checking on them.
B. when adults give them a lot of money to spend.
C. when adults talk to them about something other than their work in school.
D. when adults talk to them about sex, alcohol and drugs.
4. Some teenagers experiment with drinking and smoking because
A. cigarettes and alcohol are available everywhere
B. cigarettes and alcohol are cheap
C. women like smoking and drinking them
D. they regard them as a mark of adulthood.
5. The word BEHAVIOUR in the passage most nearly means.
A. feeling B. manners C. activities D. reaction

READING
Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each .
Parents send their children to school to prepare for the time when they grow up. Children learn
their native language so that they will be able to communicate fluently with other people around them.
Moreover,they can preserve the valuable culture and literature of their country.They learn foreign
languages in order to benefit from other country’s heritage. The more foreign languages they learn, the
more benefits they get. Children also learn maths to calculate, geography to know about nature, and
history to know about human beings and historical events. Nearly everything they study at school has
some practical uses in their life.
1. How many school subjects are mentioned in the passage ?
A. five B. six C. seven D. four
2. According to the passage ,children learn history to know about......
A. the mankind B. events of the history.
C. people and historical events. D. practical uses of life
3. Why do children have to learn their native language ?
A. To learn foreign languages
B. To communicate fluently with other people around them.
C. To know about nature D. To benefit from foreign countries’ heritage
4. Most of the things children learn at school ......
 A. are useless B. have no uses
C. are not necessary D. have some practical uses.
5. Parents send their children to school to...
A. learn English B. make them grow up
C. prepare for their future D. play better

READING
The nuclear family, consisting of a mother, father, and their children, may be more an American
ideal than an American reality. Of course, the so-called traditional American family was always more
varied than we had been led to believe, reflecting the very different racial, ethnic, class, and religious
customs among different American groups.
The most recent government statistics reveal that only about one third of all current American
families fit the traditional mold and another third consists of married couples who either have no
children or have none still living at home.Of the final one third, about 20 percent of the total number of
American household are single people, usually women over sixty –five years of age. A small percentage,
about 3 percent of the total, consists of unmarried people who choose to live together; and the rest, about
7 percent are single, usually divorced parents, with at least one child. Today, these varied family types
are typical, and therefore, normal. Apparently, many Americans are achieving supportive relationships in
family forms other than the traditional one.
1. With what topic is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The traditional American family B. The nuclear family
C. The current American family D. The ideal family
2. The writer implies that __________
A. there have always been a wide variety of family arrangement in the United States
B. racial, ethnic, and religious have preserved the traditional family structure
C. the ideal American family is the best structure
D. fewer married couples are having children
3. The word “current” in line 7 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A.typical B. present C. perfect D. traditional
4. According to the passage, married couples whose children have grown or who have no children
represent __________.
A. 1/3 percent of households B. 20 percent of households
C. 7 percent of households D. 3 percent of households
5. Who gerneally constitutes a one- person household?
A. A single man in his twenties B. An elderly man
C. A single woman in her late sixties D. A divorced woman

READING
In the United States and Canada, it is very important to look a person directly in the eyes when
you are having a conversation with him or her. If you look down or to the side when the other person is
talking, that person will think that you are not interested in what he or she is saying. This, of course, is
not polite. If you look down or to the side when you are talking, you may appear to be hiding something;
that is, it might seem that you are not honest. However, people who are speaking will sometimes look
away for a few seconds when they are thinking or trying to find the right word. But they always turn
immediately back to look the listener directly in the eyes. These social “rules” are the same for two men,
two women, a man and a woman, or an adult and a child.
1. In the US and Canada, when you are having a conversation with someone, ________.
A. do not look directly in the eyes
B. it is impolite to look at the eyes of the speaker or hearer
C. you should look him or her directly in the eyes
D. look down or to the side
2. If you look down or to the side when the other person is talking, you ________.
A. will be thought to be not interested in the conversation
 B. are very interested in what is being said
C. are very polite
D. are the interesting person
3. If you look down or to the side when you are talking,________.
A. the Americans are interested in you
B. you are thought to be dishonest
C. you are very polite
D. you are interested in the conversation
4. The speaker will sometimes look away because ___________.
A. he or she wants to end the conversation
B. he or she thinks that the hearer is not honest
C. the hearer is interested in what is being said
D. because they are thinking or finding the right word
5. These social “rules” are ________.
A. for men only B. for women only
C. for children only D. the same for everybody

READING
If you invite an American friend to join you to have dinner in a restaurant, phone the rstaurant
first to find out if you need a reservation to avoid a long wait for a table. To make a reservation, just give
your name, the number of people in your group, and the time you plan to arrive. When you invite
someone to dinner, you should be prepared to pay the bill and reach for it when it arrives. However, if
your companion insists on paying his or her share, do not get into argument about it. Some people prefer
to pay their own way so that they do not feel indebted, and those feelings should be respected. In most
American restaurants, the waiter or waitress’s tip is not added to the bill. If the service was adequate, it
is customary to leave a tip equal to about 15% of the bill. In expensive restaurants, leave a bit more.
1. When you invite an American friend to have dinner in a restaurant ________.
A. a reservation is not necessary
B. you should make a reservation
C. there are always many tables available for you
D. you always have to wait for a long time
2. To make a reservation, you _________.
A. just give your name, the time you arrive and how many persons there are in your group
B. have to give your address, the time you arrive and how many persons there are in your group
C. just give your name, the time you arrive and your address
D. just give your name, the time you arrive and your telephone number
3. When you invite someone to dinner, you ________.
A. let hime to pay himself B. should prepare to pay the bill
C. give the bill to him D. share the bill with him
4. If your companion insists in paying his share, ________.
A. do not agree
B. it will be impolite
C. you should let him pay as he expects
D. you should get into argument with him
5. In most American restaurants, ________.
A. the tip is added to the bill
B. the tip is about 15% of the bill
C. you should not give the tip to waiters or waitresses
D. waiters and waitresses never get the tip

UNIT 3:
1. Choose the item (A, B, C or D) that best answers the about the passage:
 Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication.
Generally, this is expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is
a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for
letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to make use of this form of
expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque, and exact, and can be use
internationally; spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or
unintentionally. A wink can be away of flirting of indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies
nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille ( a system of raise dots read with the fingertips), signal
flags. Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct
people. While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also
express human thoughts and feelings.
1. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of communication.
B. Everyone uses only one form of communication.
C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.
D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the fastest.
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. There are many forms of communication in existence today.
B. Verbalization is the most common form of communication.
C. The deaf, and the mute use an oral form of communication.
D. Ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language.
3. Which form other than oral speech would be the most communication used among blind people?
A. picture signs
B. Braille
C. Body language
D. Signal flags
4. How many different form of communication are mentioned here?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
5. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally except for
_______.
A. Spelling
B. Ideas
C. Whole words
D. Expressions.

2. Read the following passage then answer the 1 – 5. After each there are four possible
answers marked A, B, C or D. Choose the correct answer by circling its corresponding letter A, B, C
or D.
Do you ever give excuses that are not really true? When and why? It seems that everybody tells
lies – well, not big lies, but what we call “white lies”. The only real are about when we lie and who we
tell lies to. A recent study found that in conversation people frequently stretch the truth. Here are some
ways they do it.
People often lie because they want to hide some thing from someone. For example, a son doesn’t
tell his parents that he is dating a girl because he doesn’t think they will like her. In stead, he says he is
going to out with the guys.
Sometimes people lie because they don’t want to do something. For example, someone invites
you to a party. You think it will be boring so you say that you are busy and can’t come.
Often we stretch the truth to make someone feel good. For example, your friend cooks dinner for
you, but it tastes terrible. Do you say so? No! You probably say “Hmm, this is delicious!”
 Other times we don’t want to tell someone bad news. For example, you have just ad bad day at
work, but you don’t want to talk about it. So, if someone asks about your day, you just say everything
was fine.
Telling “white lies” isn’t really bad. Most of the time people do it because they want to protect a
friendship.
1. Why do people often tell lies?
A. Because they like it.
B. Because they feel amused.
C. Because they don’t like the person who asks them about their stories.
D. Because they want to hide something.
2. Sometimes people lie by _____________
A. Giving false excuse
B. Telling stories
C. Saying something quite new
D. Making someone feel good.
3. A son doesn’t want to tell his parents that he is dating a girl because he ______ so he tells
lies.
A. is ashamed
B. is afraid that his parents don’t like her.
C. want to keep it secret
D. is very reserved.
4. Your friend cooks you a terrible dinner but you say you like it because ______.
A. You want him/her to cook for you more.
B. You like telling lies
C. You want to encourage him/her.
D. You want to protect your friendship.
5. Everyone sometimes tells lies because _______.
A. It is very good.
B. It isn’t really all bad.
C. It makes him/her fell happier.
D. It is a habit of human beings.
UNIT 2:
I. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the :
In the United States, it is important to be on time, or puntual, for an apointment, a class, a meeting,
ect. This may not be true in some other countries, however. An American professor discovered this
difference while teaching a class in a Brazilian university. The two-hour class was scheduled to begin at
10 a.m., and end at 12 a.m. On the first day, when the professor arrived on time, no one was in the
classroom. Many students came after 10 a.m. Several arrived after 10:30 a.m. Two students came after
11 a.m. Although all the students greeted the professor as they arrived, few apologized for their lateness.
Were these students being rude ? He decided to study the students’ behaviour. (…)
In an American university, students are expected to arrive at the apointed hour. In contrast, in Brazil,
neither the teacher nor the students always arrive at the apointed hour. Classes not only begin at the
schedudled time in the United States, but they also end at the schedudled time. In the Brazilian class,
only a few students left class at noon: many remained past 12:30 to discuss the class and ask more .
While arriving late may not be very important in Brazil, neither is staying late.
The explanation for these differences in complicated. People from Brazilian and North American
cultures have different feelings about lateness. In Brazil, the students believe that a person who usually
arrives late is probably more successful than a person who is always on time. In fact, Brazilians expect a
person with status or prestige to arrive late, while in the United States, lateness is usually considered to
be disrespectful and unacceptable. Consequently, if a Brazilian is late for an appointment with a North
American, the American may misinterpret the reason for the lateness and become angry.
 As a result of his study, the professor learned that the Brazilian students were not being disrespectful
to him. Instead, they were simply behaving the appropriate way for a Brazilian student in Brazil.
Eventually, the professor was able to adapt his own behaviour to feel comfortable in the new culture.
1. What is the main idea of this passage ?
A. It is important to be on time for class in the United States.
B. People learn the importance of time when they are children.
C. It is not important to be on time in Brazil.
D. The importance of being on time differs among different cultures.
2. What is “rude behaviour” ?
A. impolite behaviour
B. noisy behaviour
C. studious behaviour
D. respectful behaviour
3. Why did the professor study the Brazilian students’ behaviour ?
A. The students seemed very rude to him.
B. He wanted to understand why the students came late.
C. He wanted to make the students come to class on time.
D. None of the students apologized for their lateness.
4. In general, what did the Brazilian students think about people who are late ?
A. They are important people.
B. They are successful people.
C. They are disrespectful people.
D. They are rude people.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that ………………..
A. Most American students arrive after tha class has begun.
B. Most Brazilian students leave immediately when the class is finished.
C. For most Americans, being late is unacceptable.
D. Brazilian students often come late andleave early.

UNIT 2:
Read the passage and choose the best answers to the :
In the U.S, men and women choose their own spouses. They do this by dating. When they decide on
a spouse, they get engaged. They do not need their parents’ consent. The man usually gives the woman
an engagement ring. Before a weeding, the bride’s women friends and relatives usually have a party for
her. It is called a shoer. At the shower, everyone gives the bride a present for her future home. The
groom’s men friends also give him a party. It is called a bachelor party. The purpose of this party is to
give the groom one last good time as a single man.
Sometimes young people pay for their own weeding. This is especially true if they have been
working for a while. In other cases, the family of the bride pays for most of the weeding and reception
afterward.
1. In the U.S, men and women …………………….don’t have to pay attention to the law when they get
married.
A. must have their parents’ permission if they are supposed to get married.
B. must win their friends’ agreement if they are supposed to get married.
C. could have their own choice in the matter of marriage.
2. At the bachelor party, the groom ………………..
A. must prove to be good future husband.
B. must promise to behave properly at the weeding.
C. could have one good last time as a bachelor.
D. could have one last chance of freedom.
3. According to the passage, young people ………………………….
A. can ask for parental help to pay for the weeding.
B. can borrow from their friends to pay for the weeding.
 C. at times pay for the weeding.
D. completely rely on the families for their weeding.
4. The word “consent” most nearly means ……………..
A. Order B. request C. agreement D. remarks
5. The word “present” most nearly means ……………..
A. piece of furniture B. gifts
C. a piece of advice D. gift
Unit 4:
I. Read the passage and choose the best answer.
Increasing numbers of parents in the US are choosing to teach their kids at home. The US
Department of Education estimated that in 1999, around 850,000 children were being homeschooled.
Originally, homescholing was used for students who couldn’t attend school because of learning
difficulties. Today, however, more parents are taking on the responsibility of educating their children at
home due to dissatisfaction with the educational system relating to class size or problems inside the
classroom, for example violence.
Advocates of homeschooling believe that children learn better when they are in a secure, loving
environment. They can also pick and choose what and when to study, which enables them to learn at
their own pace. In contrast, critics of homeschooling say that children who are not in classroom miss out
on learning important social skills because they have little interaction with their peers. Moreover, they
have raised concerns about the ability of parents to teach their kids effectively because they are not
competent educators and have no teacher training.
Whatever the arguments for or against it, homeschooling in the USA is growing. There are now
websites, support groups that enable parents to learn more about educating children. Homeschooling
today is an accepted alternative to an educational system that some believe is failing.
1. What is the topic of the above selection?
A). Different ideas about homeschooling.
B). A new way to learn in the USA: Homeschooling.
C). The advantages of getting education at home.
D). Parents in the USA want to teach their children at home.
2. One of the reasons why parents don’t want to send children to school is that
A). there are too many pupils in a class.
B). children learn what they choose.
C). there is violence at home.
D). parents want to be good educators.
3. The underlined word peers in the passage means
A). members. B). classmates. C). groups D). partners
4. Parents can learn more to teach their children effectively from
A). the Department of Education. B). their social skills.
C). the present educational system. D). websites.
5. From the passage, we can come to understand that
A). homeschooling is only for troubled children.
B). few parents take their children out of class in the USA.
C). homeschooling is acceptable in the USA.
D). traditional education is the best in the USA.

II. Read the passage and choose the best answer.

At the beginning of nineteenth century, the American educational system was desperately in
need of reform. Private schools existed, but only for the very rich. There were very few public schools
because of the strong sentiment that children who would grow up to be laborers should not “waste” their
time on education but should instead prepare themselves for their life’s work. It was in the face of this
public sentiment that educational reformers set about their task. Horace Mann, probably the most
famous of the reformers, felt that there was no excuse in a republic for any citizen to be uneducated. As
superintendent of Education in the state of Massachusetts from 1837 to 1848, he initiated various
changed, which were soon matched in other school districts around the country. He extended the school
year from five to six months and improved the quality of teachers by instituting teacher education and
raising teacher salaries. Although these changes did not bring about a sudden improvement in the
educational system, they at least increased public awareness as to the need for a further strengthening of
the system.
1. The best title for the passage could be ………
A). A Flight for change
B). Nineteenth – the Century of Reform.
C). American Education in the Beginning of the 19th Century.
D). The Beginnings of Reform in American Education
2. The passage implied that to go to a private school, a student needed ………….
A). a strong educational background
B). good grades
C). a lot of money
D). a high level of intelligence
3. The word “desperately” in the passage mostly means ………
A). completely B). partly C). obviously D).
urgently
4. According to the passage, Horace Mann wanted a better educational system for Americans because
…………
A). people had nothing else to do except go to school
B). education at the time was so cheap
C). all citizens should be educated in a republic
D). Massachusetts residents needed something to do with their spare time
5. According to the passage, which sentence is NOT TRUE?
A). Horace Mann brought about changes in many schools in the United States.
B). Horace Mann began raising teacher’s salaries.
C). Horace Mann was a famous US educational reformer.
D). Horace Mann suggested schools prepare children for their life’s work.

B. Read the text carefully , then choose the correct answer( A,B,C or D)
Vietnam’s women gymnasts were jubilant on Friday afternoon after unexpectedly bringing home the god
medal in team competition.
“ We did really well” said a bubbling Tran Thi Phuong Th. She was competing in her first SEA Games.
She spoke at the door of the room she shares with teammates in the La Thanh Hotel, where she had just
had time to change clothes in preparation for the opening ceremonies. Behind her, three of her fellow
gymnasts were huddled around the telephone giggling.
Dao Thi L.,who had the fifth-best score in the floor exercise, was unavailable for comment, as she was
running down the hallway in a T-shirt and boxer shorts, shrieking.
Vietnam’s women narrowly edged out the silver medalists from Singapore. The total scores were
124,550 and 124,425, respectively. Thailand finished third with 123,850.
Malaysia’s three gymnasts had the highest individual scores. But because most other yeams fielded six
gymnasts each, the Malaysians earned fewer total points.
“ I was so happy”, glowed Phan Thi Ha Th., a tiny 13-year-old girl in starling green eyeshadow. “ And
surprised. I’ve never competed in a big tournament before.” Ha Th. Has been training since age six,
practising seven to eight per day. She hadn’t yet had time to speak with her parents, a nurse and a
meteorologist from her home town, but was sure they would be very proud.
1- How were the Vietnam’s women gymnasts after they won the gold medal in team competition?
A. They were very surprised
B. They didn’t believe they had won
C. They were delighted and showed a great happiness
D. They were so happy that they couldn’t say a word
2- How many times had Tran Thi Phuong Th. participated in SEA Games?
 A. Once B. Twice C. Three times D. Four time
3- Which women team won the silver medal?
A. Malaysia B. Thailand C. vietnam D. Singapore
4- Why did the Malaysians get fewer total points?
A. beccause other teams had six gymnasts each.
B. Because Malaysia’s three gymnasts had the highest individual scores.
C. Because Vietnam’s women narrowly edged out the silver medalists from Singapore.
D. Because Malaysia’s gymnasts had the lowest iindividual scores
5- How long has Ha th. been training?
A. Six years B. Seven years C. Eight years D. thirteen years
BRITISH POLITENESS

Do you, learners of English, ever wonder whether repeating and trying to remember various
everyday English expressions, such as ‘Excuse me, could you tell me where the nearest taxi rank is?’ has
any value other than in exams? Well, I must admit that such things didn’t cross my mind until last
February when I got a letter from the British Council, saying that I had won a language course in
England. The polite mentioned was the one I had to ask on arrival in Parkston, a picturesque part of
Poole with lots of semi-detached houses on either side of each street. What struck me most was the
kindness of an old lady, who happened to leave Safeway’s just after my getting off the coach. Not only
did she show me where to phone for a taxi, but she also gave me a hand with the luggage. I was really
surprised, too, when the taxi driver got out of the car and helped me put the bags into the boot. I
immediately thought of Polish taxi drivers who usually do not make the slightest effort to help you, apart
from pressing the right button and waiting for the boot to open.
In spite of all the stereotypes about reluctance towards foreigners, the English turn out to be an
extreme polite and open nation.

1. According to the passage, where does the author come from?

a. England b. Poland c. Parkston D. Poole
2. How did the old lady help the author?
a. Showed her where to phone for a taxi
b. Gave her a hand with the luggage
c. Put her luggage in the boot
d. Both A and B are correct
3. What does the author think of the English?
a. They are very polite and open
b. They are always reluctant towards foreigners
c. They are kind-hearted
d. They care a lot about others’ business
4. What did the author see when arriving in Parkston?
a. The picturesque part of Poole
b. The semi-detached houses
c. The British Council building
d. The coach
5. What is NOT true according to the passage?
a. The author won a language course in England
b. The author met a kind lady when she first arrived in Parkston
c. The author was surprised by the enthusiastic help of the British driver
d. The author thinks that everyday English expressions have no practical values

 Answer key:
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D
 Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of
communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in
every known culture. The main function of a signal is to impinge upon the environment in
such a way that it attracts attention, as for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit.
Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is very great. Less adaptable to the
codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or a
barber pole conveys meaning quickly and more difficult to describe than either signals or
signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some
cultures, applauding in a theatre provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval.
Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major
disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to
the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended
periods are based on speech. Radio, television and the telephone are only a few.

1. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
a. Signs, Signals, and Symbols b. Gestures
c. Communication d. Speech
2. What does the author say about speech?
a. That it is the only true form of communication.
b. That it is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
c. That it is necessary for communication to occur.
d. That it is the most advanced form of communication.
3. Applauding was cited as an example of …......
a. A sign b. a signal c. a symbol d. a gesture
4. Why were the telephone, radio, and TV invented?
a. Because people were unable to understand signs, symbols, and signals.
b. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.
c. Because people believed that signals and symbols were obsolete.
d. Because people wanted new forms of entertainment.
5. It may be concluded form this passage that …......
a. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication.
b. Symbols are very easy to define and interpret.
c. Only some cultures have signals and symbols.
d. Waving and handshaking are not related to culture.

 Answer key:
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A
READING 1- UNIT 4
The year at an American college is divided into two semesters or three quarters. A semester
includes 15 weeks ; a quarter includes 10 weeks. American college students usually go to school from
September to May. They can also study during the summer.
Students choose their classes a few weeks before the start of each term. Universities and
colleges offer a great many classes in the students’ main areas of study and in other areas as well.
Students must take both. These include science, math, computer, history and English. Other classes such
as dance, theater, or sports may be just for fun. Tests are usually given in the middle of the term and at
the end. The final exam is extremely important. In some classes, the professor ask the students to write a
research paper or complete a certain task instead of taking a test.
Classes at an American college are usually organized through lectures. For example, a student
may attend two or three lectures a week by one professor. There may be as many as several hundred
students at each lecture.
1. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The years at an American college usually starts in September.
 B. There are 15 weeks in each semester and 10 weeks in each quarter.
C. American college students never study during the summer.
D. The year at an American college is divided into two semesters or three quarters.
2. American college students choose their classes________________.
A. before the start of each term
B. at the end of each term
C. at any time during the term
D. in the first week of each term
3. Which of the following courses is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Science. B. Medicine. C. History. D. Dance.
4. Usually, an American college student takes_______ tests in a term.
A. four B. two C. five D. three
5. The final exam is________.
A. very important B. less important C. not important D. just for fun
READING 2-UNIT4
The Korean education system basically consists of primary schools, secondary schools, high
schools, and colleges or universities, with graduate coures leading to ph.D. degrees. Primary education
is compulsory for children aged six to seven. The basic pimary school curriculum is generally divided
into eight subjects: the Korean language, social studies, science, mathematics, ethics, physical education,
music and fine arts. Students in secondary schools are required to take a numbers of additional subjects,
such as Enghlish, and can take clectives, such as technical or vocational coures. Afterwards, students can
choose between general education and vocational high schools. In general, high school tends to be strict,
as college and university admission is very competitive.
1. It can be inferred that secondary school students________________
A. have to take technical and vocation courses
B. have to take at least nine subjects
C. can choose to take a technical course or not
D. don’t have to study the Korean language
2. Basically the Korean education education system is divided into_________
A. four levels
B. two levels
C. three levels
D. five levels
3. It can be inferred the text that_________
A.children from six to eleven have to attend primary school.
B. primary education is option for the children under eleven.
C.primary education is compulsory for children under six.
D.All the above
4. According to the passage_________
A. It’s quite difficult to enter a college or university.
B. most student go to vocation high schools after finishing secondary school
C. Korean high school tend to be quite easy
D. general education is easier than vocational high school
5. According to the passage, the basic primary school curriculum______________
A. consists of eight subjects
B. is the same as the secondary school curriculum
C. includes foreign languages
D. Both A and C
 UNIT 6- Unit 10

UNIT 6: FUTURE JOBS

* Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.

Preparation is a key to a successful interview. Does the idea of going to a job interview make you
feel a little nervous? Many people find that it is the hardest part of the employing process. But it is not
really true. The more you prepare and practice, the more comfortable you will feel. You should find out
as much as possible about the company before you go to the interview. Understand the products that
they produce and the services that they provide. It is also good to know who the customers are and who
the major competitors are. Practice makes perfect. It will also make you feel more confident and relaxed.
So, practice your answers to common . Make a list of to ask, too. Almost all interviewers will ask if you
have . This is a great opportunity for you to show your keenness, enthusiasm, and knowledge.
Make a great impression. The interview is your chance to show that you are the best person for the
job. Your application or resume has already exhibited that you are qualified. Now it is up to you to show
how your skills and experience match this position and this company. The employer will be looking and
listening to determine if you are a good fit. He/she will be looking for a number of different qualities, in
addition to the skills that you possess. To make the best impression, dress appropriately; express your
strengths; arrive early, by about 10-15 minutes; be enthusiastic; shake hands firmly; be an active listener;
sit up straight and maintain eye contact; and ask
After the interview, follow up with a thank-you note. This is a chance for you to restate your interest
and how you can benefit the company. Your best bet is to try to time it so that the note gets there before
the hiring: decision is made. You should also follow up with a phone call if you do not hear back from
the employer within the specified time.

1. The world “it” in the first paragraph, second sentence, refers to ________.
a. the job b. the interview c. the interviewer d. the preparation
2. What does the writer advise you to practice?
a. Asking and answering related to the job.
b. Making products that the company produces.
c. Providing services that the company serves.
d. Meeting some customers and competitors.
3. What should you show during your interview EXCEPT?
a. Punctuality b. A firm hand shaking
c. Being properly-dressed d. Weaknesses
4. Which is not included in the writer's advice?
a. You should not communicate with the interviewer after the interview.
b. You should make the best impression in the interview.
c. You should write a note to say thanks to the interviewer after the interview,
d. You should telephone the interviewer for any information after the interview.
5. The passage is about……………..
a. How to prepare for a job interview
b. How to make a great impression in a job interview
c. Many people who apply for jobs don’t like to be interviewed
d. Some experiences about job interview.

UNIT 7: ECONOMIC REFORMS

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.

Vietnam is a densely-populated, developing country that in the last 30 years has had to recover from
the ravages of war. Substantial progress was achieved from1986 to 1997 in moving forward from an
extremely low level of development and significantly reducing poverty.
 Since 2001, Vietnamese authorities have reaffirmed their commitment to economic liberalization
and international integration. They have moved to implement the structural reforms needed to modernize
the economy and to produce more competitive, export-driven industries. .
Vietnam's membership in the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) and entry into force of the US-
Vietnam Bilateral Trade Agreement in December 2001.have led to even more rapid changes in Vietnam's
trade and economic regime. Vietnam's exports to the US doubled in 2002 and again in 2003.
Vietnam joined the WTO (World Trade Organization) in January 2007, following over a decade
long negotiation process. This should provide ail important boost to the economy and should help to
ensure the continuation of liberalizing reforms.
Vietnam is working to create jobs to meet the challenge of a labor force that is growing by more
than one million people every year. Vietnamese authorities have tightened monetary and fiscal policies
to stem high inflation. Hanoi is targeting an economic growth rate of 7.5-8% during the next five years.

1. Vietnam's economy is _______.

a. decreasing b. facing crisis c. developing d. backward
2. According to the text, Vietnam _______.
a. used to be well-developed before 1986
b. Vietnam is still in extreme poverty
c. could recover from the consequences of the war soon
d. has been modernizing the economy
3. Vietnam _______.
a. does not export anything to the US
b. exported to the US in 2003 twice as much goods as in 2002
c. did not export goods to the US in 2002 d. did not export goods to the US in 2003
4. The word This in the fourth paragraph,second sentence, refers to _______.
a. Vietnam's joining the WTO b. the WTO
c. the negotiating process d. the Vietnamese economy
5. The word stem has a close meaning to _______.
a. succeed b. stop c. originate d. invrease

UNIT 8 : LIFE IN THE FUTURE

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.

In the future, genetic engineering will allow us to create the perfect human. It will be hard to get
used to. Parents will order a baby who 'will grow up to become his new job because he is not quite
prepared a genius or to have a Miss World appearance. Also, genetic engineering will allow us to mix
plants and animals.
As computers have advanced, they have helped us remember, calculate, organize, and clarify. So it
will become easier to deal with things, and much quicker. At a point in a future time, some may claim
that computers become about as smart as Newton or Einstein. More advanced computers will be able to
be creative, respond to feelings in a feeling way, develop intuition, recognize patterns, and suggest
innovative alternatives. There is a hope if we choose to take action. We can select Internet information
wisely, choose healthy computer games, limit our exposure to television commercials, and select
television programs carefully. People will be aware of the importance of keeping active, getting outside
to do more physical activities. We will also plan to make a major sacrifice the next time we buy a car,
take the bus. Everybody will be more concerned about making environmentally friendly choices, eating
healthy, and helping build a healthier society by shopping at better stores that sell better food.
Most people will be aware that a happy, loving family is a joy to be part of, and that it is a necessary
foundation for building a strong society. But it is extremely important for our future that we maintain a
healthy perspective. We need to value and appreciate the importance of what can be achieved by loving
and committed parents. People need a strong foundation, so it is vital for our society that we encourage
parents to work at creating love, joy, and happiness for their children in a .decent, stable, and productive
atmosphere.
1. How many aspects of life in the future are referred in the text?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
2. Which aspect is not referred in the text?
a. Education b. Genetic Engineering
c. Computers d. Family
3. The phrase to have a Miss World appearance means that _______.
a. to become a Miss World b. to enter a beauty contest
c. to be intelligent d. to be beautiful
4. According to the text, in the future, _______.
a. it will be difficult for us to select Internet information
b. people will prefer taking a bus to buying a car
c. food will not be sold at shops
d. TV viewers will not be able to escape from seeing a lot of advertising.
5. The last paragraph is about _______.
a. family and parents' responsibility in the future
b. children's education
c. children's health
d. how to build a strong society

UNIT 9: DESERTS
A/ Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.

A desert is a hostile, potentially deadly environment for unprepared humans. In hot deserts, high
temperatures cause rapid loss of water due to sweating, and the absence of water sources with which to
replenish it can result in dehydration and death within a few days. In addition, unprotected humans are
also at risk from heatstroke.
Humans may also have to adapt to sandstorms in some deserts, not just in their adverse effects on
respiratory systems and eyes, but also in their potentially harmful effects on equipment such as filters,
vehicles and communication equipment. Sandstorms can last for hours, sometimes even days.
Despite this, some cultures have made hot deserts 'their home for thousands of years, including the
Bedouin, Tuareg tribe, and Pueblo people. Modern technology, including advanced irrigation systems,
desalinization and air conditioning, has made deserts much more hospitable, In the United States and
Israel for example, desert farming has found extensive use.
In cold deserts, hypothermia and frostbite are the chief hazards, as well as dehydration in the
absence of a source of heat to melt ice for drinking. Falling through pack-ice or surface ice layers into
freezing water is a particular danger requiring emergency action to prevent rapid hypothermia.
Starvation is also a hazard; in low temperatures the body requires much more food energy to maintain
body heat and to move. As with hot deserts, some people such as the Inuit have adapted to the harsh
conditions of cold deserts.
1. The text is about ________.
a. troubles that human beings have to face in a desert
b. desert storms and desert inhabitants
c. hot deserts and cold deserts in the United States
d. desert hospitality and environment
2. Which is not a problem for an unprepared man in a hot desert?
a. sandstorm b. loss of water c. irrigation d. heatstroke
3. Sandstorms ________.
a. do no harm to machinery
b. have effects only on the eyes
c. never lasts more than one hour
d. have bad effects on both human beings and machinery
4. Which sentence is true?
a. No one can survive in both hot and cold deserts.
b. Modern technology makes deserts more hospitable.
c. In the United States, all deserts are quite uninhabited.
d. There are no deserts in Israel.
5. Which is not a problem in cold deserts?
a. Starvation b. Hypothermia c. Frostbite d. Body heat

UNIT 9: DESERTS
B/ Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.

Approximately one-third of the Earth's land surface is desert, arid land with meager rainfall that
supports only sparse vegetation and a limited population of people and animals. Deserts have been
portrayed as fascinating environments of adventure and exploration. These arid regions are called
deserts because they are dry. They may be hot. They may be cold. They may be regions of sand or vast
areas of rocks with occasional plants.
Deserts are natural laboratories in which to study the interactions of wind and sometimes water on
the arid surfaces of planets. They contain valuable mineral deposits that were formed in the arid
environment or that were exposed by erosion. Because deserts are dry, they are ideal places for human
artifacts and fossils to be preserved. Deserts are also fragile environments. The misuse of these lands is a
serious and growing problem in parts of our world.
There are many animals in the desert. Some are very large, like the kangaroo or the gazelle. Both
are big and have to travel long distances for water at a spring, or an oasis. Another fairly large animal is
the addax. The addax is a desert antelope. They live in the Sahara Desert. All addaxes are herbivores.
There are less than 200 of them left because of hunting and tourists. Some animals crawl along.
Examples of these are snakes and lizards. Snakes rarely drink water; they get their moisture from other
prey that they eat. So do others, like the kangaroo rat. Lizards are commonly found in the desert. They
stay out of the sun and move as little as possible. There are also other animals in the desert. The fennec
lives in northern Africa in the Sahara Desert. They are a relative of the fox. They eat mice, small birds,
lizards, and insects. When necessary, they will eat fruit. One more desert animal is the jerboa. The jerboa
is a small, long distance jumper that lives in the desert. They are free drinking animals and they eat
plants, seeds, and bugs.
1. Deserts ________.
a. are rare in the world b. are more arid more populous
c. are all hot all the time d. may be both hot and cold
2. The word They refers to ________.
a. deserts b. natural laboratories c. planets d. mineral deposits
3. Which is not true about deserts?
a. arid b. hot c. humid d. dry
4. According to the second paragraph, ________.
a. we should use desert land properly to avoid serious problems
b. we can exploit as much fossil as possible in deserts
c. there are no erosion in deserts
d. deserts are ideal places for growing land
5. The last paragraph expresses that ________.
a. none of animals can survive in deserts
b. hunting and tourists cause the decreasing of addaxes in the Sahara Desert.
c. snakes in deserts need more water than any other species
d. addaxes are the most populous species in deserts
 UNIT 10: ENDANGERED SPECIES

A/ Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.

Species that belong to an area are said to be native species. Typically, they have been part of a given
biological landscape for a long period, and they are well adapted to the local environment and to the
presence of other native species in the same general habitat. Exotic species are interlopers, foreign
elements introduced intentionally or accidentally into new settings through human activities. In one
context an introduced species may cause no obvious problems and may, over time, be regarded as being
just as "natural" as any native species in the same habitat. In another context, exotics may seriously
disrupt delicate ecological balances and create a cascade of unintended consequences. The worst of these
unintended consequences arise when introduced species put native species in destruction by preying on
them, altering their habitats, or out-competing them in the struggle for food resources. Although
biological introductions have affected environments the world over, the most destructive, effects have
occurred on islands, where introduced insects, cats, pigs, rats, mongooses, and other nonnative species
have caused the grave endangerment or outright extinction of literally hundreds of species during the
past 500 years.
One of other reason to cause species extinction is overexploitation. This word refers to the
utilization of a species at a rate that is likely to cause its extreme endangerment or outright extinction.
Among many examples of severe overexploitation, the case of the great whales stands out in special
relief. By the middle of the 20th century, unrestricted whaling had brought many species of whales to
incredibly low population sizes. In response to public pressure, in 1982 a number of nations, including
the USA, agreed to an international moratorium on whaling. As a direct result, some whale species
which are thought to have been on extinction's doorstep 25 years ago have made amazing comebacks,
such as grey whales in the western Pacific. Others remain at great risk. Many other species, however,
continue to suffer high rates of exploitation because of the trade in animal parts. Currently, the demand
for animal parts is centered in several parts of Asia where there. is a strong market for traditional
medicines made from items like tiger bone and rhino horn.
1. Native species _______.
a. are not used to the local environment
b. never get along well with other native species in the same environment
c. tend to do harm to exotic species
d. have been part of a given biological landscape for a long period
2. Exotic species _______.
a. do no harm to native species and the local environment
b. may kill native species for food
c. always share the environment peacefully with native species
d. help to make the local environment more ideal to survive
3. According to the first paragraph, _______.
a. non-native species have caused badly damage to native ones
b. introducing new exotic species to local environments is necessary
c. exotic species have never been introduced on islands
d. very few native species have been damaged by exotic species
4. According to the second paragraph, by the middle of the 20 century ___.
a. whale population was the most crowded in marine life
b. whale hunting was illegal
c. whale population increased dramatically
d. whaling was not restricted
5. Tiger bone and rhino horn _______.
a. are not popular in Asian markets
b. are never in the trade of animal parts
c. are used for making traditional medicines
d. cannot be found in Asian markets
B/ Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.

Plants and animals hold medicinal, agricultural, ecological value. Endangered species must be
protected and saved so that future generations can experience their presence and value.
Plants and animals are responsible for a variety of useful medications. In fact, about forty percent of
all prescriptions written today are composed from the natural compounds of different species. These
species not only save lives, but they contribute to a prospering pharmaceutical industry worth over $40
billion annually. Unfortunately, only 5% of known plant species have been screened for their medicinal
values, although we continue to lose up to 100 species daily. The Pacific yew, a slow-growing tree found
in the ancient forests of the Pacific Northwest, was historically considered a "trash" tree. However, a
substance in its bark was recently identified as one of the most promising treatments for ovarian and
breast cancer. Additionally, more than 3 million American heart disease sufferers would die within 72
hours of a heart attack without digitalis, a drug derived from the purple foxglove.
There are an estimated 80,000 edible plants in the world. Humans depend upon only 20 species of
these plants, such as wheat and corn, to provide 90% of the world's food. Wild relatives of these
common crops contain essential disease-resistant material. They also provide humans with the means to
develop new crops that can grow in inadequate lands such as in poor soils or drought-stricken areas to
help solve the world hunger problem. In the 1970s, genetic material from a wild corn species in Mexico
was used to stop a leaf fungus that had previously wiped out 15% of the U.S. corn crop.
Plant and animal species are the foundation of healthy ecosystems. Humans depend on ecosystems
such as coastal estuaries, prairie grasslands, and ancient forests to purify their air, clean their water, and
supply them with food. When species become endangered, it is an indicator that the health of these vital
ecosystems is beginning to unravel. The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service estimates that losing one plant
species can trigger the loss of up to 30 other insect, plant and higher animal species. The northern
spotted owl, listed as threatened in 1990, is an indicator of the declining health of the ancient forests of
the Pacific Northwest. These forests are the home to over 100 other old-growth dependent species,
which are at risk due to decades of unsustainable forest management practices. Pollution off the coast of
Florida is killing the coral reefs along the Florida Keys, which serve as habitat for hundreds of species of
fish. Commercial fish species have begun to decline, causing a threat to the multi-million dollar tourism
industry, which depends on the quality of the environment.
1. Plants and animals _______.
a. contain medicaments
b. will not exist until the future generations can experience their value
c. do some harm to medication
d. take no responsibility for medication
2. Plants and animals _______.
a. take up all recent prescriptions are
b. play no role in pharmaceutical industry
c. can be used to save lives
d. cause difficulty to pharmaceutical industry
3. According to the text, _______.
a. human beings do not like to use plants as medicine
b. human beings depend on plants for food and medicine
c. there is no disease-resistant material in edible plants
d. edible plants do not include wheat and corn
4. Which sentence is true?
a. Humans do not depend on ecosystem.
b. The loss of one species may lead to the 16ss of others.
c. Unsustainable forest management practices have no effects on species.
d. The coast of Florida does not suffer any pollution:
5. The word trigger has a close meaning to _______.
a. cause b. pollute c. contaminate d. decline
 READING COMPREHENSION
Units 11 – 16
Unit 11: BOOKS
1. Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today.
Thousands of these How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles that
begin with the words “How to”. One book may tell you how to earn money, another may tell you how to
save or spend it, and another may explain how to give your money away.
Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to
succeed in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book “How to Turn Failure into Success”. If you
would like to become very rich, you can buy the book “How to Make a Millionaire”. If you never make
any money at all, you may need a book called “How to Live on Nothing”.
One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want
to have a better love of life, you can read “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”. If you
are tired of books on happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step instructions on how to
redecorate or enlarge a house.
Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex. Today
people have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to books
help people deal with modern life.

1. From the first paragraph, we know How-to books are ___.

A. only about four thousand copies B. on money
C. very helpful in life D. needed a lot
2. The passage tells us that How-to books sell well on how ___.
A. to succeed in careers B. to solve personal problems
C. to deal with business D. to make money
3. If you often read How-to books, you ___.
A. will be sure to get something you need B. will not know how to help yourself in life
C. will become a man in life D. needn’t think any more in the world
4. How-to books appear only because ___.
A. people have more free time to spend than before
B. people meet more problems than their parents
C. people may have more choices from How-to books than any other books
D. modern life is more difficult to deal with
5. The word “step-by-step” would probably mean ___.
A. little by little B. gradually C. slower and slower D. A & B are correct

2. A good deal of fascinating research has been done about the reading patterns of young people, and
it is surprising to discover at what an early age children start expressing preferences for particular kinds
of books. A recent report which examined in detail the reading habits of primary-school children showed
that even seven-year-old boys and girls have clear views about what they want to read. Girls, in general,
read more, and far more girls than boys preferred reading stories. Boys were showing a taste for the
more instant appeal of picture stories, or else books about their hobbies.
These tastes continue unchanged until girls are teenagers. Apparently girls read more in general, but
more fiction in particular. You could say that there are more opportunities for girls to read fiction:
magazines encourage the fiction habits in girls in their early teens, and by their late teens they have
probably moved on to the adult women’s magazines. Teenage boys tend to buy magazines about their
hobbies: motorcycles, heavy transport and so on.
Adult reading tastes are also the subject of research. Again the number of women who read for
pleasure is considerably higher than the number of men. It seems that the majority of women still want
love stories. There has also been some analysis of what men actually read. Apparently only 38 percent of
men read anything, but 50 percent of what they read is fiction in the form of action-packed stories of
space or gunmen.
1. Recent research into children’s reading has showed that they ___.
 A. start to read at a very early age
B. have formed their reading tastes by the time they are seven
C. examine in detail what they read at school
D. can read clearly and distinctly in primary school
2. A close look at the reading habits of boys and girls shows that ___.
A. school gives more encouragement to girls than to boys
B. magazines appeal more to boys than to girls
C. picture stories appeal more to girls than to boys
D. girls are more interested in fictions than boys
3. Research into adult reading habits has showed that ___.
A. the majority of men read nothing at all B. women do not read about their hobbies
C. 38% of men have difficulty in reading D. men prefer to read about current affair
4. According to the passage, ___.
A. far more boys than girls are interested in love stories
B. there are more opportunities for girls to buy magazines than for men
C. children generally don’t care what they should read
D. teenage boys show a taste for magazines about their hobbies
5. The word “fascinating” means most nearly the same as ___.
A. having a lot of action B. having a lot of information
C. having great attraction D. having great pleasure

Unit 12: WATER SPORTS

3. Synchronized swimming is water sport in which contestants perform choreographed maneuvers set
to music. Synchronized swimming requires agility, grace, timing, musical interpretation, and overall
body strength.
Three competitive synchronized swimming events are recognized internationally: solo, duet, and
team (consisting of eight swimmers), although all three events are not always held at each competition.
In each event, synchronized swimmers compete in three categories: figures, technical routine, and free
routine. All three categories are also not always held at each competition.
In the figures competition, swimmers perform 4 of a possible 20 figures, or combinations of
movements. A panel of judges awards points from 0 to 10 based on the accuracy of the performance and
the timing, height, stability, and control of the figures. In the technical routine, the swimmers must
perform a set list of elements, or combinations of figures and swimming strokes, in a prescribed order. In
the free routine, swimmers can create their own choreography of figures and strokes. In the technical
and free routines, which can last from two to five minutes each, depending on whether they are solo,
duet, or team competition, a panel of judges awards points from 0 to 10 in the categories of technical
merit and artistic impression. Technical merit encompasses the execution, synchronization, and difficulty
of the elements. Artistic impression includes the choreography, musical interpretation, and manner of
presentation of the performance. Routines are enhanced by swimmers’ use of original and expressive
movements, patterns, and rhythms. The scores for the figures and the routines are weighed according to
a formula and combined for each competitor to determine the winner.

1. What are the synchronized swimming events recognized internationally?

A. figures, technical routine, and free routine B. solo, duet, and team
C. a set list of elements D. All are correct.
2. What categories do synchronized swimmers compete in each event?
A. grace, timing, musical interpretation B. choreography of figures and strokes
C. figures, technical routine, and free routine D. movements, patterns, and rhythms
3. How do judges award points to the performance in the figures competition?
A. based on height, stability
B. based on the accuracy of the performance and the timing
C. based on control of the figures
 D. All are correct.
4. How long do the technical and free routines last?
A. They last two minutes each.
B. They last five minutes each.
C. They last four minutes.
D. It depends on whether they are in solo, duet, or team competition.
5. What does the manner of presentation of the performance belong to?
A. the accuracy of the performance B. technical merit
C. choreography of figures and strokes D. artistic impression

4. There is very little documentation about the origins of water polo. It is known, however, that the
sport originated in the rivers and lakes of mid-19th century England as an aquatic version of rugby.
Early games used an inflated rubber ball that came from India known as a "pulu" (the single Indian word
for all "balls"). Pronounced "polo" by the English, both the game and the ball became known as "water
polo." To attract more spectators to swimming exhibitions, the London Swimming Association designed
a set of water polo rules for indoor swimming pools in 1870. At first, players scored by planting the ball
on the end of the pool with both hands. A favorite trick of the players was to place the five-to-nine inch
rubber ball inside their swimming suit and dive under the murky water, and they would then appear
again as close to the goal as possible. The introduction of the rules by Scottish players changed the
nature of water polo. It became a game that emphasized swimming, speed and passing. Scottish rules
moved from a rugby variant to a soccer style of play. Goals became a cage of 10x 3 feet and a goal could
be scored by being thrown. Players could only be tackled when they "held" the ball and the ball could no
longer be taken under water. The small rubber ball was replaced by a leather soccer ball. If the player
came up too near the goal, he was promptly jumped on by the goalie, who was permitted to stand on the
pool deck. Games were often nothing more than gang fights in the water as players ignored the ball,
preferring underwater wrestling matches that usually ended with one man floating to the surface
unconscious. Water polo was first played in the USA in 1888. The game featured the old rugby style of
play which resembled American football in the water. "American style" water polo became very popular
and by the late 1890's was played in such venues as Madison Square Garden and Boston's Mechanics
Hall, attracting 14,000 spectators to national championship games.

1. According to the text, _______.

A. the origins of water polo are written thoroughly in a lot of documents
B. water polo is an aquatic version of rugby
C. water polo first appeared somewhere outside England
D. people have played water polo since the early 19th century.
2. The present rules of water polo were invented _______.
A. by Scottish players B. by Indian players
C. the London Swimming Association D. in 1870
3. In water polo, the players score a goal by _______.
A. swimming B. passing C. catching D. throwing
4. The present water polo ball is made of _______.
A. rubber B. leather C. bone D. wood
5. Water polo became popular in America in _______.
A. the middle of the 19th century B. in 1870
C. in 1888 D. by the late 1890's

Unit 13: THE 22nd SEA GAMES

5. The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Hanoi, Vietnam from 5 December to 13 December,
2003. The Games were opened by Vietnamese Prime Minister Phan Van Khai in the newly constructed
My Dinh National Stadium in Hanoi. The Games torch was lit by Nguyen Thuy Hien of Wushu. It was
the first time in the SEA Games history that the Games venues were assigned into two cities namely
Hanoi and Ho Chi Minh City.
The 22nd SEA Games logo designed by painter Nguyen Chi Long is based on a legendary bird
named “Chim Lac”. The bird decorated the Ngoc Lu bronze drum, a typical antiquity of the ancient
Dong Son Vietnamese culture. The Emblem is composed of harmonious and vigorous curves, creating a
feeling of movement and strength which conforms to the Olympic Spirit: “Faster, Higher and Stronger”.
The colorful whirls represent the tough competitiveness in sports
The Games’ hymn was “For the World of Tomorrow”, composed by Nguyen Quang VInh. Painter
Nguyen Thai Hung chose “Trau Vang”, the golden water buffalo as the mascot for the 22nd SEA Games.
With a gentle and harmonious nature, the clever Buffalo has become synonymous with the water and
rice civilization that is so important in Vietnam as well as in other Southeast Asian countries. To
Vietnamese people, the Golden Buffalo symbolizes a golden harvest, prosperity, happiness, power and
the Vietnamese martial spirit.

1. In which cities in Vietnam were the 22nd SEA Games held?

A. in Hanoi B. in Ho Chi Minh City
C. in Hanoi and HCM City D. in Hue
2. What is the 22nd SEA Games logo based on?
A. the Ngoc Lu bronze drum
B. the ancient Dong Son Vietnamese culture
C. a legendary bird named “Chim Lac”
D. the Olympic Spirit
3. What is the effect of harmonious and vigorous curves of the emblem?
A. to create a feeling of self-confidence
B. to encourage the spirit of fair play
C. to create a feeling of movement and strength
D. All are correct.
4. What has the mascot for the 22nd SEA Games been associated with?
A. the prosperity B. the water and rice civilization
C. Vietnamese agriculture D. Vietnamese farmers
5. To Vietnamese people, what does the Golden Buffalo symbolize?
A. a golden harvest B. prosperity, happiness, and power
C. the Vietnamese martial spirit D. All are correct.

6. The 22nd SEA Games were launched by an impressive opening ceremony at Hanoi’s My Dinh
National Stadium on December 5th 2003, in front of over 40,000 awed spectators. On behalf of the host
country, Prime Minister Phan Van Khai declared the 22nd SEA Games open.
Deputy Prime Minister Pham Gia Khiem, Chairman of the National Steering Board for the 22 nd
SEA Games, Minister-Chairman Nguyen Danh Thai, and Hanoi Mayor Hoang Van Nghien presented
flowers and banners to the 11 participating sports delegations.
On behalf of the referees and athletes, referee Hoang Quoc Vinh and shooter Nguyen Manh Tuong
swore to an oath of “Solidarity, Honesty and Fair Play”.
After the “ritual” part of the ceremony, a laser light show kicked off the “festival” segment. More
than one thousand artists, dressed in green and sea blue representing the forest and the sea, then
presented the first chapter of the performance, named “The Land of the Dragon and Fairy”.
The scene depicted the legend of Vietnam’s origins, featuring the father–Dragon and mother-Fairy,
and ended with young men and women lining up in an S-shaped pattern, a symbol of Vietnam as a
country.
The second part of the program, named “Cooperation for Peace” featured children holding five
pointed-stars and entering from the stadium’s four gates, representing Hanoi, the capital city with one
thousand years of history. Dancing men and women in traditional costumes of ASEAN members and
East Timor concluded the third segment, named “United ASEAN Looks To The Future”, which
comprised four performances: “Lands by the Pacific Ocean”, “Essential Convergence”, “New Tune”,
and “ASEAN Towards The Future”.
The Games mascot, the Golden Buffalo, and 22 singers (standing for the 22 nd Games) then took
center stage, singing the Games official song “For a World of Tomorrow”. The whole show ended as
thousands of flying balls were released and fireworks were fired from places in Hanoi.
1. How many nations took part in the 22nd SEA Games in Vietnam?
A. ten nations B. eleven nations C. twelve nations D. twenty nations
2. The athletes participated in the 22nd SEA Games in the spirit of ___.
A. “Solidarity, Honesty and Cooperation” B. “Development, Honesty and Fair Play”
C. “Solidarity, Honesty and Fair Play” D. “Solidarity, Cooperation and Fair Play”
3. The festival performances of the opening ceremony included ___.
A. “The Land of the Dragon and Fairy”, “Cooperation for Peace”, and “ASEAN Towards The
Future”
B. “The Land of the Dragon and Fairy”, “Cooperation for Peace”, and “Lands by the Pacific
Ocean”
C. “Lands by the Pacific Ocean”, “Essential Convergence”, and “ASEAN Towards The Future”
D. “The Land of the Dragon and Fairy”, “Cooperation for Peace”, and “United ASEAN
Looks To The Future”
4. The festival performances of the opening ceremony represented ___.
A. the cultural diversity of the ASEAN countries
B. the long history of Vietnamese culture
C. the cooperation among the ASEAN members and their future development
D. All are correct.
5. The Games official song was ___.
A. “For a World of Tomorrow” B. “The Golden Buffalo”
C. “Vietnam – Our Fatherland” D. “The Land of the Dragon and Fairy”

Unit 14: INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS

7. The United Nations (UN), international organization of countries created to promote world peace
and cooperation. The UN was founded after World War II ended in 1945. Its mission is to maintain
world peace, develop good relations between countries, promote cooperation in solving the world’s
problems, and encourage respect for human rights.
The UN is an organization of countries that agree to cooperate with one another. It brings together
countries that are rich and poor, large and small, and have different social and political systems. Member
nations pledge to settle their disputes peacefully, to refrain from using force or the threat of force against
other countries, and to refuse help to any country that opposes UN actions.
UN membership is open to any country willing to further the UN mission and abide by its rules.
Each country, no matter how large or small, has an equal voice and vote. Each country is also expected
to pay dues to support the UN. As of 2004 the UN had 191 members, including nearly every country in
the world.
The UN’s influence in world affairs has fluctuated over the years, but the organization gained new
prominence beginning in the 1990s. It was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2001. Still, the UN faces
constant challenges. It must continually secure the cooperation of its member nations because the
organization has little independent power or authority. But getting that support is not always easy. Many
nations are reluctant to defer their own authority and follow the dictates of the UN.

1. What are the missions of the United Nations?

A. to promote cooperation in solving the world’s problems
B. to encourage respect for human rights
C. to maintain world peace, and develop good relations between countries
D. All are correct.
2. According to the United Nations’ Charter, ___.
 A. each country, no matter how large or small, has an equal voice and vote
B. member nations pledge to settle their disputes peacefully
C. member nations pledge to refrain from using force or the threat of force against other countries,
and to refuse help to any country that opposes UN actions
D. All are correct.
3. The United Nations has ___.
A. power over all country members B. no power at all
C. little independent power D. much power over developing countries
4. Why does the UN face constant challenges?
A. Some countries refuse to pay dues to support the UN.
B. There is not much cooperation among its member nations.
C. Some countries do not follow the dictates of the UN.
D. B & C
5. The word “pledge” would probably be best replaced by ___.
A. claim B. promise C. keep D. require

8. The United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) encourages and coordinates sound
environmental practices throughout the world. It grapples with ways to approach environmental
problems on an international level, provides expertise to member countries, monitors environmental
conditions worldwide, develops environmental standards, and recommends alternative energy sources.
UNEP’s work is guided by principles adopted at the 1992 UN Conference on Environment and
Development, also known as the Earth Summit. The summit, which took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil,
was the largest such conference ever held, attracting with more than 100 national leaders.
The major theme of the 1992 Earth Summit was sustainable economic development, meaning
development that does not use up or destroy so many of the world’s natural resources that it cannot be
sustained over time. The meeting produced an overall plan, called Agenda 21, in which large developing
countries promised to develop their industries with an eye to protecting the environment. Industrialized
countries pledged to help them do that. The Earth Summit also produced major treaties on biodiversity
and global warming, although the latter treaty lacked enforcement provisions.
In 2002, UNEP sponsored the World Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg, South
Africa. This conference sought to help developing countries undergo industrialization without harming
the environment. But progress on environmental issues is slow because proposed solutions continue to
pit the interests of poorer developing countries against those of richer industrialized nations. Most
developing countries cannot afford to build an environmentally sound industrial base, while
industrialized countries are unwilling to absorb the entire cost of environmental reform.

1. What are the aims of the United Nations Environment Program?

A. to encourage developing countries to build an environmentally sound industrial base
B. to encourage and coordinate sound environmental practices throughout the world
C. to encourage developed countries to cut wastes
D. to help developing countries undergo industrialization without harming the environment
2. In the Earth Summit in 1992, what was passed?
A. the aims of UNEP B. the action plans of UNEP
C. the principles of UNEP D. the charters of UNEP
3. What are the major themes of the Earth Summit?
A. Development does not use up or destroy so many of the world’s natural resources that it cannot
be sustained over time.
B. Large developing countries promise to develop their industries with an eye toward protecting the
environment.
C. It produced major treaties on biodiversity and global warming.
D. All are correct.
4. Why is progress on environmental issues slow?
A. Industrialized countries are willing to absorb the entire cost of environmental reform.
 B. Most developing countries cannot afford to build an environmentally sound industrial base.
C. Proposed solutions continue to pit the interests of poorer developing countries against those of
richer industrialized nations.
D. All are correct.
5. What may the phrase “with an eye to” be probably mean?
A. having good eyesight B. having the eye contact
C. with the intention of D. examining something carefully

Unit 15: WOMEN IN SOCIETY

9. Until the 19th century, the denial of equal rights to women met with only occasional protest and
drew little attention from most people. Because most women lacked the educational and economic
resources that would enable them to challenge the prevailing social order, women generally accepted
their inferior status as their only option. At this time, women shared these disadvantages with the
majority of working class men, as many social, economic, and political rights were restricted to the
wealthy elite. In the 19th century, as governments in Europe and North America began to draft new laws
guaranteeing equality among men, significant numbers of women – and some men – began to demand
that women be accorded equal rights as well.
At the same time, the Industrial Revolution in Europe and North America further divided the roles
of men and women. Before the Industrial Revolution most people worked in farming or crafts-making,
both of which took place in or near the home. Men and women usually divided the numerous tasks
among themselves and their children. Industrialization led male workers to seek employment outside of
the home in factories and other large-scale enterprises. The growing split between home and work
reinforced the idea that women’s “rightful place” was in the home, while men belonged in the public
world of employment and politics.
Organized efforts by women to achieve greater rights occurred in two major waves. The first wave
began around the mid-19th century, when women in the United States and elsewhere campaigned to gain
suffrage – that is, the right to vote. This wave lasted until the 1920s, when several countries granted
women suffrage.

1. Why did the denial of equal rights to women draw little attention from the society until the 19 th
century?
A. They could not challenge the prevailing social order.
B. They did not have any other option.
C. Most women lacked the educational and economic resources.
D. All are correct.
2. Until the 19th century, what was the status of the working class men in the society?
A. They had the same rights as women.
B. They had no right at all.
C. They did not have much power compared to the wealthy people.
D. They had much power in the society.
3. When did the women’s movement start in Western countries?
A. in the 18th century B. in the late 18th century
th
C. in the 19 century D. in the early 20th century
4. What did the effect of the Industrial Revolution in Europe and North America bring about?
A. Male workers tried to seek employment outside of the home.
B. It did not bring the equality to women.
C. Well-educated, upper-class men controlled most positions of employment and power in society.

D. All are correct.

5. What was the aim of the women’s movement in the United States in the 1920s?
A. to gain the right to have much power in the society
B. to gain the right to vote
 C. to gain the right to go to work in the factory
D. to have the complete equality to men

10. Since the 1940s, most international women’s rights efforts have been organized by the Commission
on the Status of Women (CSW), an office established in 1947 by the United Nations (UN). The
Commission is the only existing intergovernmental body that issues reports on and recommendations for
the promotion of women’s political, social, economic, and cultural rights. The CSW also acts as an
advocate for women’s rights and can urge immediate international action in cases of severe violations of
women’s rights.
The UN encouraged equality in the workplace for men and women when it sponsored the
Convention Concerning Equal Remuneration for Men and Women Workers for Work of Equal Value in
1953 and the Convention Concerning Discrimination in Respect of Employment and Occupation in
1960. Over 100 countries ratified these measures. In 1975 the UN launched the Decade for Women, a
ten-year effort to focus on women’s issues. From 1975 to 1985 international groups formed a series of
conferences organized around the themes of equality, development and peace. The conferences took
place throughout the world and drew leaders and delegates from developing and industrialized nations
alike. The Decade for Women culminated in the 1985 UN Nairobi Conference, held in Nairobi, Kenya,
which was attended by 375 delegations of women from nations around the world.
The United Nations’ Fourth World Conference on Women was held in Beijing, China, in 1995.
Over 17,000 people registered for the event, including delegates from nearly 200 countries. The
Platform for Action that emerged from the conference focused on the removal of obstacles to women’s
equal participation in society. The most controversial sections of the platform concerned reproductive
rights, particularly the right to have an abortion. The final document declared that “the ability of women
to control their own fertility forms, an important basis for the enjoyment of other rights”, and asserted
the right of women and men to have access to all legal methods of fertility regulation.

1. What are the functions of the Commission on the Status of Women (CSW)?
A. to urge immediate international action in cases of severe violations of women’s rights
B. to issue reports on and recommendations for the promotion of women’s political, social,
economic, and cultural rights
C. to act as an advocate for women’s rights
D. All are correct.
2. When was the first convention on women’s equality held?
A. in 1940 B. in 1947 C. in 1953 D. in 1975
3. What was the main goal of the Decade for Women?
A. to encourage equality in the workplace for men and women
B. to encourage equality, development, and peace for men and women
C. to remove obstacles to women’s equal participation in society
D. All are correct.
4. What did the Platform for Action in the World Conference on Women held in Beijing, China, in
1995 focus on?
A. to encourage equality in the workplace for men and women
B. to remove obstacles to women’s equal participation in society
C. to allow women to control their own fertility forms
D. to solve the most controversial sections of the platform concerned reproductive rights
5. What was the conclusion of the Platform for Action on women’s reproductive rights?
A. to assert the right of women and men to have access to all legal methods of fertility regulation
B. to allow women to have the ability to control their own fertility forms, an important basis for the
enjoyment of other rights
C. to adopt the right of women to have an abortion
D. All are correct.
Unit 16: THE ASSOCIATION OF SOUTHEAST ASIAN NATIONS

11. The seven-nation Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) met September 2, 1996, in
Singapore, to discuss how to police the Internet. Although the group agreed on the need to control the
explosion of information available on the Internet, it was unable to reach a common policy for
regulating access to the global computer network.
At the end of the three-day meeting, ASEAN government officials and industry experts issued a
statement emphasizing the need to block access to Web sites that run “counter to our cherished values,
traditions and culture”. ASEAN comprises Brunei, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore,
Thailand, and Vietnam.
The meeting was the first time the Southeast Asian countries had tried to formulate a common
approach to the Internet. Many of the ASEAN-member countries were concerned about the
dissemination of pornography and antigovernment views over the Internet, the influence and perceived
bias of the Western media, and the erosion of Asian values.
The forum, which followed a meeting of ASEAN information ministers earlier in the year,
concluded that each country should develop its own regulatory approach to cyberspace. The ASEAN
delegates agreed to share information and their experiences with national regulations and “cyberlaws”.
The forum was unable to agree on a regulatory framework for the region because of differing
political views regarding censorship. Singapore, which has an estimated 150,000 Web users, is the first
ASEAN country to impose regulations on access to the Internet. The city-state requires Internet
providers to block access to pornographic sites and regulate political and religious discussion. On the
other hand, the Philippines and Thailand support more liberal policies, calling for self-regulation by
Internet access providers and minimal government intervention.
1. The meeting of the seven-nation Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) in September,
1996, in Singapore issued the statement ___.
A. controlling the explosion of information available on the Internet
B. reaching common policy for regulating access to the global computer network
C. emphasizing the need to block access to Web sites that run “counter to our cherished
values, traditions and culture”
D. All are correct.
2. The greatest concern of many ASEAN-member countries was ___.
A. the explosion of information available on the Internet
B. the way to police all Western Web sites
C. the dissemination of pornography and antigovernment views over the Internet
D. the shortage of human resources for computing
3. At the end of the forum, the ASEAN delegates came to the conclusion that ___.
A. each country should develop its own regulatory approach to cyberspace
B. each country should share information and their experiences with national regulations and
“cyberlaws”
C. all delegates agreed on a regulatory framework for the region
D. All are correct.
4. The forum was unable to agree on a regulatory framework for the region because ___.
A. each country had different political views on censorship
B. Singapore requires Internet providers to block access to pornographic Web sites
C. The Philippines and Thailand support more liberal policies
D. All are correct.
5. The word “police” may probable mean ___.
A. to go around an area B. to monitor C. to cancel D. to censor
12. Thailand, officially the Kingdom of Thailand (or “Land of the Free”), is a country in Southeast
Asia. The country was an absolute monarchy from 1782 until 1932, when rebels seized power in a coup
and established a constitutional monarchy. Since then, Thailand has come under the rule of many
governments, both civil and military. The country was known as Siam until 1939 (when it was renamed
Thailand), and again for a few years in the late 1940s. in 1949 the name Thailand was adopted a second
time.
Central Thailand is dominated by a large fertile plain, formed by the country’s chief river, the Chao
Phraya, and its tributaries. Much of the country’s rice and other crops are grown in this region. Bangkok,
located on the Chao Phraya near the Gulf of Thailand, is Thailand’s capital and largest city.
Thai people form the large majority of Thailand’s population, and most of them practice Theravada
Buddhism. Other ethnic groups within the population include Chinese, Malays, and indigenous hill
peoples, such as the Hmong and Karen. Thailand is known for its highly refined classical music and
dance and for a wide range of folk arts. Traditionally based on agriculture, Thailand’s economy began
developing rapidly in the 1980s.
The Thai have always been an agricultural people of the lowland valleys and intermountain basins,
where they cultivated wet rice with the use of water buffalo and harvested a wide range of fish and
shellfish from the rivers and the sea. These occupations were often supplemented, especially in the north
and northeast, by the collection of forest products, ranging from timber, such as teak and bamboo, to
foods stored for consumption during the dry season. In the northern mountain valleys, Tai-speaking
peoples developed an intricate system of small-scale irrigation, called muang fai. The eventual move to
the great central plain necessitated the development of canals for transportation and, from the late 19 th
century onwards, of much larger irrigation and flood-control systems. Small nuclear families occupied
villages, comprising a wat and wooden houses on stilts. The pattern of life was governed above all by
the seasonal rhythm of the monsoons and by a series of important religious festivals. Many of these
festivals were closely associated with fertility and the arrival and ending of the rains.
1. The name of this country in 1948 was ___.
A. Thailand B. Siam
C. the Kingdom of Thailand D. “Land of the Free”
2. Thailand has followed the constitutional monarchy since ___.
A. 1782 B. 1932 C. 1949 D. 1980
3. Thai people are famous for ___.
A. folk dance B. highly refined classical music
C. a wide range of folk arts D. All are correct.
4. People in Thailand develop various kinds of irrigation such as ___.
A. an intricate system of small-scale irrigation, called muang fai, by Tai-speaking peoples
B. the development of canals for transportation in the great central plain
C. large irrigation and flood-control system
D. All are correct.
5. The pattern of life in the country was governed by ___.
A. the cultivation of wet rice
B. the seasonal rhythm of the monsoons and by a series of important religious festivals
C. the harvest of a wide range of fish and shellfish from the rivers and the sea
D. the arrival and ending of the rains
 Cloze reading
U 1-Unit 8
Units : 1,2

Task 1:
Read the following passage and choose the best given answer A, B, C, or D to fill in each gap:

I have to get up every day at about seven because work really (1)…………..about an hour before
surgery when the phone calls start (2)……………….in. My wife helps me with that because she usually
answers the phone and that (3)……………me time to have breakfast and read newspaper.
We open waiting – room about 8.30 and there (4)…………..a dozen people there when I start
surgery at nine.
I usually try (5) ………..back home for lunch by 1.30. On a good day, I have a couple (6)
…………. hours before surgery begins again at four.
Evening surgery usually (7) ………..till about eight, but often goes on much longer. I belong to a
group of five doctors in the area who (8)…………….night duty between us. That means we are on call
once a week between. As a result, my wife and I normally have dinner about nine and at that time we
have opportunities (9)……….. with our two small children. We sometimes read short stories (10) ……
our children or watch TV with them but rarely.
1. A. begin B. begins C. beginning D. began
2. A. to come B. come C. comes D. came
3. A. to give B. give C. gives D. giving
4. A. is B. are C. was D. were
5. A. to get B. get C. getting D. got
6. A. on B. in C. of D. with
7. A. goes B. lasts C. keeps D. holds
8. A. share B. shares C. sharing D. shared
9. A. to talk B. talk C. talking D. talked
10. A. to B. of C. on D. for

Task 2:
On the evening of February 3rd people in Japanese families (1)………….one dried bean for each year of
their age and throw beans on the floor, shouting “good luck in! Evil spirits out!” This is (2)……………
as “Setsubun”, a time to celebrate the end of winter and the beginning of spring.
Before the Chinese New Year, many Chinese families burn the picture (3)…………..their kitchen god,
Tsao Chen, to bring good luck. When New Year’s Day (4)……………., they put a new picture of Tsao
Chen on the wall.
When American women get (5)…………….., they sometimes follow an old custom in choosing what
(6)………………on their wedding day. The custom says the bride must wear “something old, something
new, something borrowed, and something blue.” This is to bring good luck.
Before Lent ( a time on the Christian calendar), the people of Ponti Italy, eat an omelet (7)……………
with 1000 eggs. People cannot eat meat or dairy products during Lent, so they try (8)………..these
things before Lent begins.
When winter (9)……….in Czechoslovakia, children make a straw man called “Smrt”, which is a figure
of death. Then they burn it or throw it in the river. After they destroy it, they carry flowers home (10)
………………the arrival of spring.
1. A. takes B. took C. take D. taking
2. A. know B. knows C. knowing D. known
3. A. of B. in C. on D. at
4. A. come B. comes C. came D. coming
5. A. marry B. marries C. married D. marrying
6. A. to wear B. wear C. wears D. wearing
7. A. make B. making C. to make D. made
 8. A. use up B. to use up C. using up D. used up
9. A. end B. will end C. ends D. ending
10. A. show B. showing C. showed D. to show

Task 3 :
Most of us are interested (1)………….. one kind of sport or another, even if we don’t go in for it (2)
……………. Lots of people take up a particular sport at an early age, for example tennis, skiing, or (3)
……………………. If they get up to a suitably high standard, they may go in for local competitions or
even championships. But special training (4)…………….hard work and most young people don’t keep
it up. Many of them opt out when they come up against tough competition.
(5)……………. a professional in any sport, you have to go through with a strict training schedule. And
it’s not easy! It means doing without some of life’s (6)…………….. pleasures, too. For example, to
build up your physical (7)………… you may have to stick (8)………….. a special diet and give up
some of your favourite foods. Smoking and alcohol are out, and to (10)………….. fit you have to work
out regularly every day.
Sometimes it all pays off, but the road to success is long and there are no guarantees. No wonder that
countless young talents decide to settle for a regular job instead, and, as far as (10)…………… sport is
concerned, prefer to look on as spectators.
1. A. at B. in C. on D. of
2. A. active B. activeness C. actively D. activity
3. A. ice-skater B. ice-skates C. ice-skated D. ice-skating
4. A. is B. are C. was D. were
5. A. Become B. Becomes C. To become D. Became
6. A. less B. the least C. least D. little
7. A. strength B. stronger C. strong D. strongly
8. A. at B. on C. to D. of
9. A. have B. make C. do C. keep
10 A. profession B. professional C. professionally D. None is correct

Cloze text of Unit 3, 4, 5:

Exercise 1: Read the following passage and choose the best given answer A, B, C or D to fill in each
gap.
There are (51) ______ of ways that help parents teach music to their children. When the child
return home (52) ________ hospital, parents should let her/ him (53) _______ to music. Clapping hands,
bouncing knees and dancing to music when the child is in the parents’ lap will develop in the child a
sense (54) _______ rhythm. When bed time (55) _________, parents should choose gentle music (56)
________ for the child. However, when the child plays around, parents should (57) ________ him / her
to choose music that is suitable with the going-on activities. When the child tries (58) _________,
parents can make up their own words to the song played. Above all, parents should help the child (59)
________ with music. Music is (60) _________ wonderful opportunity to celebrate our unique cultures.
51. A. number B. a number C. lot D. much
52. A. at B. to C. from D. in
53. A. listen B. to listen C. listening D. listened
54. A. with B. to C. on D. of
55. A. come B. comes C. coming D. came
56. A. to play B. play C. playing D. played
57. A. to encourage B. have encourage C. encouraged D. encourage
58. A. sings B. sang C. to sing D. sing
59. A. celebrates B. celebrated C. celebrating D. celebrate
60. A. a B. the C. an D. x
Exercise 2. Read the following passage and choose the best given answer A, B, C and D to fill in each
gap.
Do you find the American education system to be confusing and different (51) ________ the education
system in your own country? Do you want (52) _________ a school or a university in the USA? The
American education system offers international students the most diverse set of education option in the
world. In fact, an international student (53) ________ elects to take advantage of the American
education system can pursue anything from nuclear science to film and dance. American education
possibilities are almost endless.
The American education system requires that students complete 12 year of primary and secondary
education prior to attending university or college. This may be (54) _________ either at public (or
government-operated) school, or at private schools. These 12 years of schooling may also be completed
outside the USA, thus giving foreign students the opportunity (55) ____________ the benefits of the
American education system and obtain a quality American education. Perhaps one of the most (56)
_____________ facts is that the large number of presidents, prime ministers and leaders from other
countries have experienced the American education system and graduated from a university or school in
the USA. In (57) _____________ fields and industries, the American education system offers the most
cutting-edge, sought-after programs at the world’s best schools. That is why (58) _____________from
an accredited American school and being exposed to the rigours of the American education system is an
in investment in your future.
Whether you want to study at a top USA university, a top USA college, or at a vocational or high school,
a thorough understanding of how the American education system works is essential. Without a clear
grasp of the American education system, an international student will find it difficult (59) _______ the
right choices. It is no surprise that the American education system and the American school system hosts
(60) __________ international students than any other country in the world.

51. A. to B. with C. from D. in

52. A. to attend B. attend C. attending D. attended
53. A. whom B. whose C. who D. which
54. A. accomplished B. accomplish C. accomplishing D. to accomplish
55. A. pursue B. to pursue C. pursuing D. pursued
56. A. impressive B. impressment C. impressively D. impressiveness
57. A. lot B. many C. a lot D. much
58. A. graduating B. graduate C. graduated D. graduates
59. A. made B. making C. make D. to make
60. A. many B. more C. much D. better

Exercise 3 Read the following passage and choose the best given answer A, B, C, or D to fill each
gap.
The world’s oldest university, Al-Azhar, is in Cairo, Egypt. It (51) ____________ fist built as a mosque
in A.D. 972. A few years later, learners and teachers began (52)____________ in the mosque in
“tutoring circles”. They read and talked about the subject of law. Around 988, leaders in the city of Cairo
decided (53)____________ a school for higher learning and the University of Al-Azhar was
(54)____________.
At Al-Azhar, there (55)____________ many university “firsts”. Courses were creates. The earliest ones
taught were in law and religion. In a course, students (56)____________ and studied with the teachers,
but there were also free discussions. Often, student and teachers (57)____________ about a topic, and
there was no “right” answer. Finally, scholar from around the world (58) _______________ to Al-Azhar
to teach and do research. (59) ____________ the university, people studies the past, but it was also a
place for sharing new ideas.
Over a thousand. years later, A1—Azhar is still an important university in the world. Its library contains
(60) ____________ than 250,000 of the world’s oldest and most valuable books. Today, many of the
world’s most important universities such as Oxford and Harvard still follow the traditions started at Al-
Azhar.
51. A. is B. was C. will be D. has been
52. A. to be met B. meet C. meeting D. met
53. A. to create B. create C. creating D. created
54. A. to found B. founding C. found D. founded
55. A. was B. were C. is D. are
56. A. to read B. reads C. read D. are reading
57. A. talk B. talked C. talking D. have talked
58. A. came B. come C. coming D. have come
59. A. On B. In C. Of D. At
60. A. less B. much C. many D. more

UNITS : 6 , 7, 8
TASK 1 :
A JOB WITH CHILDREN

When I finished school in Germany last year I did not know (1) …………….to do next. I wanted to
travel , but for that you need money . That means having a job , and (2)……………a university degree it
is difficult to get a good one of those . My parents agreed I could put off (3)……………a decision about
a university course for a year . Then a family in London invited me to live with them , help look (4)
…………… the children and do a little housework in return for some pocket money . I (5)……….. with
this family for five months now . My main job is to meet the three children from school , give them their
supper and help them with their homework (6)………… their parents come home at about six .
Sometimes I must stay in with the children in the evening . I go to English classes three times a week ,
and at weekends I (7)………… different parts of Britain . Although my parents are happy that I am
studying a foreign language (8) …………..I enjoy this chance to see more of the world , they keep (9)
………… me what I want to study at university . I still cannot make up my (10) ……………. !
1. A. how B. what C. when D. that
2. A. having no B. having not C. without D. not have
3. A. doing B. making C. creating D. getting
4. A. for B. at C. of D. after
5. A. lived B. was living C. have lived D. had lived
6. A. until B. to when C. whenever D. when
7. A. am visiting B. visit C. visited D. have visited
8. A. when B. during C. while D. whereas
9. A. asking B. to ask C. ask D. to asking
10.A. decision B. head C. thought D. mind

TASK 2 :

BECOMING A NURSE : THE INTERVIEW

The reality of an interview is never as bad as your fears . For some reason people imagine the
interviewer is going to jump on every tiny mistake they (1) ………….. . In truth , the interviewer is as
keen for the meeting to go well as you are . It is what (2) …………..his or her job enjoyable .
The secret of a good interview is preparing for it . what you wear is always important as it creates the
first impression . So (3)…………. neatly , but comfortably . Make sure that you can deal with anything
you are (4) …………. Prepared for that are certain to come up , for example : Why do you want to
become a nurse ? What is the most important (5) …………….. a good nurse should have ? . Apart from
nursing , what other careers have you (6) ………….? . What are your interests and hobbies ? .
Answer the fully and precisely . For example , if one of your interests is reading , be prepared to (7)
…………….. about the sort of books you like . (8) ………………., do not learn all your answers off by
heart . The interviewer wants to meet a human (9) ………………….., not a robot . Remember , the
interviewer is genuinely interested in you , so the more you relax and are yourself , the more (10)
………………….. you are to succeed .
1. A. do B. perform C. make D. have
2. A. cause B. does C. happens D. makes
3. A. dress B. wear C. put on D. have on
4. A. to ask B. asking C. ask D. asked
5. A. character B. quality C. nature D. point
6. A. thought B. regarded C. considered D. wondered
7. A. say B. talk C. discuss D. chat
8. A. However B. Although C. Despite D. Therefore
9. A. be B. being C. to be D. been
10.A. less B. most C. more D. least

TASK 3 :
STARTING A BUSINESS

Nearly 450,000 businesses are started in Britain every year . One third (1)…………… these stops
trading during the first three years . Starting a business is never easy (2)…………. so many things are
outside your control . If you are thinking about working for yourself , you (3) ……………..start by
thinking about the qualities you need to (4)…………….a business . Be hard with yourself . If you have
a weakness , it is better to find out now (5)…………...than later when your business could be in danger .
Ask yourself (6)……………you are a good organiser . Is your health (7)…………..? Are you good (8)
…………… making decisions ? Do you have any practical experience of the business you want to
start ? Are you prepared to work long hours for very (9)……………money ? If you can’t (10)
……………..yes to most of these , perhaps you should think again about starting up in business on your
own .
1. A. from B. of C. among D. in
2. A. however B. but C. because D. although
3. A. have B. ought C. need D. must
4. A. run B. make C. do D. set
5. A. more B. rather C. earlier D. quicker
6. A. which B. how C. whether D. that
7. A. fine B. firm C. well D. good
8. A. at B. for C. in D. with
9. A. short B. little C. low D. few
10.A. give B. report C. answer D. put

TASK 4 :
TOMORROW’S TOYS

In the future , toys will give us excitement , entertainment and wonderful learning opportunities .
What (1) ……………of toys can we expect to see ?
The Navigator Game will (2) ……………..to a child’s bicycle . It will use technology to link children
(3) …………… and allow them to (4)………………simple games , such as hide and seek . The radio
signal will also (5)……………children of the danger of nearby cars .
Emotional Communicators will allow us to communicate love to family (6)…………….friends . It
may be done in many (7)………………..: sounds, pictures, smells, colour or by touch . We will receive
these “messages” on a necklace .
The Interactive Globe will show us (8)…………….of information such as different time zones or
examples of the world’s languages . When not in (9)……………..the Globe could be used as a nightlight
.
 Ludic Robots are small , electronic friends which respond to instructions . They can also be taught
to do simple tasks , so children may become very (10)………………of them .
1. A. kind B. kinds C. much D. times
2. A. introduce B. connect C. make D. lead
3. A. gather B. nearly C. together D. gathering
4. A. make B. do C. take D. play
5. A. warn B. advise C. notice D. allow
6. A. and B. but C. so D. however
7. A. times B. roles C. ways D. things
8. A. too B. many C. lot D. lots
9. A. using B. used C. use D. to use
10.A. interested B. excited C. fond D.

CLOZE TESTS ( from unit 9 to unit 16 )

UNIT 9 (Cloze test 1 ) DESERTS

Desert biomes are the (1) _____ of all the biomes. In fact, the most important characteristic of a desert is
that it receives very little (2) _____. Most deserts receive less than 300 mm a year compared (3) __
rainforests, which receive over 2,000 mm. That means that the desert only gets 10 percent of the rain
that a rainforest gets! The temperature in the desert can (4) _____ drastically from day to night because
the air is. (5) _____ dry that heat escapes rapidly at night. The daytime temperature averages 38°C (6)
_____ in some deserts it can get down to -4°C at night. The temperature also varies greatly depending
on the (7) _____ of the desert.
Since desert conditions are so severe, the plants that live there need to have (8) _____ to compensate for
the lack of water. Some plants, such as cacti, (9) _____ water in their stems and use it very slowly, while
others like bushes conserve water by growing few leaves or by having large root systems to gather water
or few leaves. Some desert plant species have a short life cycle of a few weeks that (10) _____ only
during periods of rain.
6. a. coldest b. hottest c. driest d. wettest
7. a. rain b. rainfall c. raindrop d. raincoat
8. a. with b. for c. about d. in
9. a. change b. exchange c. transform d. transfer
10. a. such as b. such c. so much d. so
11. a. when b. while c. as d. because
12. a. part b. region c. area d. location
13. a. adaptations b. agreements c. accepts d. achievements
14. a. place b. put c. store d. hold
10. a. spend b. take c. last d. experience

UNIT 10 (Cloze test 2 ) ENDANGERED SPECIES

The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) is an international (1) _____- governmental organization for
the (2) _____, research, and restoration of the environment. The organization was (3) _____ as a
charitable trust on September 11, 1961, in Morges, Switzerland, under the name World Wildlife Fund. It
was an initiative of Julian Huxley and Max Nicholson.
It is the world's largest independent conservation organization with over 5 million (4) _____ worldwide,
working in more (5) _____ 90 countries, supporting 100 conservation and environmental projects
around the world. It is a charity, with (6) ____ 9% of its funding coming from voluntary. (7) ___ by
private individuals and businesses.
The group says its mission is "to halt and reverse the (8) _____ of our environment". Currently, much of
its work focuses on the conservation of three biomes that contain most of the world's biodiversity:
forests, freshwater ecosystems, and oceans and coasts. Among other issues, it is also concerned (9)
_____ endangered species, pollution, and climate change. The organization (10) ____ more than 20 field
projects worldwide. In the last few years, the organization set up offices and operations around the
world.
6. a. non b. not c. no d. nor
7. a. challenge b. keeping c. conservation d. awareness
8. a. produced b. discovered c. used d. formed
9. a. supporters b. residents c. inhabitants d. citizens
10. a. as b. than c. to d. as to
11. a. generally b. individually c. commercially d. approximately
12. a. deposits b. donations c. refunds d. loans
13. a. destroy b. destructive c. destruction d. destroyed
14. a. on b. by c. with d. upon
10. a. goes b. walks c. reaches d. runs

Cloze test 4
SAVING OUR ANIMALS
From a very early age Cathy had been passionate (1)…………… animals . She used to socialize with
people who (2)…………… the same way as she did . These people were not at all uninteresting or
indeed
Supercilious and their main interest in life was to (3)…………….. that all animals were well treated .
She soon got to know one of the local big wigs (important people ) in a local organization (4)
…………….
at stopping cruelty to animals . He had been in his hey day (his most successful time ) , an important
(5)………… in a government department in agriculture . In fact because he had refused to kow tow to
(accept without ) some of the official regulations , he had been forced to take (6)………….
retirement .
But as far (7)…………. Cathy was concerned , he was the bee’s knees (some one to admire ) and when
she left school , she went to work as his assistant in the Society for the Protection of Animals .Her
parents however were not all pleased (8)…………… where she had decided to work . They lived in a
very attractive house and her father , John Fortune , who was really a very wealthy business man,
thought that all animals (9) …………….. was a lot of nonsense . Cathy and her father had several
conversations about her decision but it usually (10 ) ………… up with a lot of arguments .
1. A. of B to C. about D through
2. A considered B. held C. approved D. thought
3. A. ensure B. assure C. convince D. convict
4. A. shot B. aimed C. hit D. struck
5. A. character B. puppet C. personage D. figure
6.A. busy B. easy C. early D. quick
7. A. so B more C. than D. as
8. A about B. for C. concerning D. around
9. A. matter B. business C. concerns D. topic
10. A. concluded B. terminated C. ended D. lasted

UNIT 11 : BOOKS (Cloze test 4 )

Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each blank.
Our family has got many books. All the …(1)……… of our family buy books and read them. My
mother says that books help us in self-education. In ancient times books ……(2)…… written by hand. It
was difficult to write a book …(3)……… a pen. Then printing came into our life. Printing played an
important ……(4)…. in the development of literature and culture. Now there are a lot of books in the
shops, there are many books in our flats. But it is difficult to buy all books …(5)……… we want to
read. That’s why we get books in public libraries. There are some problems in our life and sometimes it
is difficult to ……(6)… them. I think that books can help us. Last year I read a very interesting book “
An American Tragedy” by Theodore Dreiser.
This novel was …(7)…… at the beginning of the 20 th century. The novel ……(8)……. The
tragic fate of a boy and a girl, Clyde and Roberta ……(9)…… name. It is a sad story. This novel was
written many years ago, but it is …(10)……… nowadays. Books must be our friends during our life.
1. A. members B. partners C. groups D. relates
2. A. are B. were C. have D. had
3. A. in B. by C. with D. at
4. A. step B. stage C. chain D. role
5. A. who B. which C. when D. where
6. A. deal B. imagine C. create D. solve
7. A. published B. presented C. opened D. constructed
8. A. writes B. prescribes C. describes D. mentions
9. A. on B. by C. of D. with
10. A. amazing B. favorite C. popular D. worth

Cloze test 5

Today we think of books (1)_____ a volume of many sheets of paper (2)______ texts, illustrations,
photographs , ect.… (3)_______ their durability and portability , the main uses of books are to preserve,
and (4)_______ information. In ancients times, people wrote on clay tablets, wood or bamboo tablets
tied with cord , or book rolls to store information . Later , with the (5)______ of paper , the Chinese had
the first books (6)______ Jingangjing ( theDiamond Sutra ) printed in AD 868 . In the 20th century,
(7)_______ the challenge from other media such as radio or television and computer, books continued to
be a primary (8)_____ for dissemination of knowledge for instruction and pleasure in skills and arts and
for the storage of human’s experience.
1) A) as B) as if C) alike D) with
2) A) contains B) contained C) containing D) which containing
3) A) Because B) Because of C) Despite D) Although
4) A) distribute B) supply C) send D) store
5) A) invention B) discovery C) appearance D) formation
6) A) calling B) called C) which called D) were called
7) A) despite B) though C) because of D) with
8) A) sources B) means C) ways D) mean

1.A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B

UNIT 12 : WATER SPORTS ( Cloze test 6 )

Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each blank.
Water polo is a team water sport requiring an ……(1)…... to swim. Field players must swim end
to end of a 30-meter pool non-stop many times during a game without touching the ……(2)…. or
bottom of the pool. The front crawl stroke used in water polo differs from the usual swimming ……(3)
…… in which water polo players swim with the head …(4)……… water at all times to observe the
field. The arm stroke used is also …(5)……… shorter and quicker and is used to protect the ball at all
times. Backstroke is used by ……(6)……. field players to track advancing attackers and by the …(7)
…….. to track the ball after passing. Water polo backstroke differs from swimming backstroke; the
players sits almost upright in the water, ……(8)…… eggbeater leg motions with short arm strokes to the
side …(9)……… of long straight arm strokes. This allows the player to see the play and quickly switch
positions. It also allows the player to quickly …(10)……… an on-coming pass with a free hand.
1. A. emotion B. ability C. impossibility D. encouragement
 2.A. sides B. borders C. edges D. rims
3. A. sport B. game C. play D. style
4. A. among B. between C. out of D. beneath
5. A. many B. lots of C. more D. a lot
6. A. defending B. invading C. fighting D. attacking
7. A. striker B. goalie C. guard D. defender
8. A. bearing B. taking C. using D. handling
9. A. despite B. because C. instead D. owing
10. A. catch B. carry C. throw D. touch
UNIT 13 (Cloze test 7 )
Read the passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
It was a well-organized 24th SEA Games by the King and the Kingdom of Thailand. It was a
spectacular (1) to the 24th SEA Games earlier in the closing ceremony, and then the flag is
passed on to Laos, the host country of the next SEA Games in 2009.
It will be Laos’ first time to host the SEA Games. As they (2) the infrastructure and time
span to build the necessary facilities, Laos (3) that only 25 sports will be contested in the
upcoming Games. But if Laos (4) to meet the qualifications to hold the (5) in
time, the games would be moved to Singapore.
Câu 1 A. ending B. achievement C. final D. stop
Câu 2 A. insufficient B. miss C. lack D. lose
Câu 3 A. have told B. have announced C. have required D. have demanded
Câu 4 A. missed B. lacked C. refused D. failed
Câu 5 A. event B. anniversary C. meeting D. sports

UNIT 14 (Cloze test 8)

Read the passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
In 1945, leaders from 51 countries met in San Francisco, California, and organized The United
Nations. World War II had just (1) . Millions of people had died, and there was destruction
everywhere. People hoped they could (2) a future of world peace through this new
organization.
The main United Nations Organization is in New York City, but the United Nations has a “family”
of its (3) organizations all over the world. These organizations try to provide a better life
for everyone. One example is UNICEF, an organization which provides food, (4) care and
many other services to poor children (5) they live. Another example is the World Health
Organization, which provides medical programs all over the world.
Câu 1 A. finished B. ended C. terminated D. stopped
Câu 2 A. produce B. construct C. design D. build
Câu 3 A. united B. connected C. related D. attached
Câu 4 A. medical B. medicinal C. healthy D. hygiene
Câu 5 A. any place B. anywhere C. wherever D. everywhere

UNIT 15 (Cloze test 9)

Years ago, in their private family role, women quite often dominate the male members of the
household. Women were quite (41) _____ to their families. However, the public role of women has
changed (42) _____ since the beginning of World War II.
During the war, men were away from home to the battle. As a (43) ____, women were in complete
control of the home. They found themselves doing double and sometimes triple (44) _____. They began
to take over the work of their absent husbands and to work outside. They accounted for 73% of the
industrial labor force. Women were forced by economic realities to work in the factories. The women
who worked there were (45) _____ low wages, lived in crowded and small dormitories. (46) _____, they
found themselves a place as active members of society. Women, although they were ruthlessly exploited,
became the key to the country's success.
1. a. fascinated b. worried c. dedicated d. interested
2. a. unfortunately b. approximately c. nearly d. dramatically
3. a. change b. result c. success d. opportunity
4. a. duty b. job c. requirement d. career
5. a. made b. paid c. created d. delivered

UNIT 16 ( Cloze test 10 )

Singapore was one of the five original member countries that (1) _____ ASEAN in 1967. (2) _________
its independence in 1965 , Singapore has become one of the world’s most prosperous countries .
Singapore is highly ranked for its economic competitiveness ,and it was the world’s most (3) ________
country from 1997 to 1999 as (4) _______ by the World (5)____
Forum.
Singapore has (6)______ an impressive recovery after the Asian financial crisis of 1997-1998 . The
government is currently restructuring the economy by promoting higher-value-added activities in line
with a” knowledge-based” economy, and by opening up protected sectors such as financial services to
(7) _____ overall efficiency . Various bilateral free-trade agreements are also being negotiated to
improve market access and (8) _______ foreign investment inflows
1) A) founded B) set for C) establishes D) held
2) A) with B) for C) since D) because of
3) A) competitiveness B) competitor C) competing D) competitive
4) A) ranked B)said C) decided D) founded
5) A) Financial B) Economic C) Economical D) trade
6) A) done B) made C) had D) improved
7) A) go off B) decrease C) increase D) form
8) A) lead B) dispose C) encourage D) call

1.A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. C

THE END