HAMRO READING HOME

BDS NMCLE MOCK EXAM ,2nd nov., 2019

1. Premaxilla is derived from

a) Maxillary protuberance b) Palatine bones
c) Frontonasal process d) Median process

2. Which of the following is a self correcting anomaly:

a) Ugly duckling stage b) Deep bite
c) Retrusion d) Protrusion

3. Leeway space is due to?

a) Space difference between deciduous canine and molar
and their succedaneous permanent teeth
b) Space difference between deciduous incisors and their
succedaneous permanent teeth
c) Difference between deciduous and permanent maxillary
canine
d) None

4. The normal interincisal distance is

a) 40 - 45 mm b) 30 - 35 mm
c) 20 - 30 mm d) 55 - 65 mm

5. An 11-year-old boy complains of spacing between maxillary incisors. The appropriate treatment is
with:
a) Hawley's appliance b) Fixed appliance
c) No treatment d) Oral screen

6. Maximum recommended dose of lignocaine with

epinephrine:
a) 5 mg/kg. body weight
b) 7 mg/kg. body weight
c) 10 mg/kg. body weight
d) 15 mg/kg. body weight

7. Bleeding joints is a characteristic feature of

a) Vit -C deficiency b) Heamophilia
c) Vit-K deficiency d) Thrombocytopenia

8. A 50-year-old obese man complains of several recent abscesses in the gingiva with loosening of teeth.
He also suffers from itching of skin and polyuria. The most probable etiology is:
 a) Scurvy b) Myxoedema
c) Diabetes mellitus d) Vitamin A deficiency
9. Which type of candidiasis is associated with leukoplakia
a) Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis
b) Acute atrophic candidiasis
c) Chronic atrophic candidiasis
d) Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis

10. A 60 year old male presents with a 2 day history of a severe left ear ache with a burning sensation in
the ear and loss of taste. There is left sided weakness of both upper and lower facial muscles. Facial
sensation is normal. A few vesicles are seen in the pharynx. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Bell's palsy b) Acoustic neuroma
c) Diphtheria d) Ramsay Hunt syndrome

11. Sulfur granules in pus are seen in

a) Candida albicans b) Actinomyces israelii
c) Nocarda braziliances d) Histoplasma capsulatum

12. Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis

a) Maxilla b) zygoma
c) palatine bone d) mandible

13. Commonest salivary gland tumour in children

a) Lymphoma b) Pleomorphic adenoma
c) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
14. Sjogren's syndrome includes all except:
a) Xerostomia b) Keratoconjunctivitis
c) Arthritis d) Lymphoma

15. Treatment for cementoma

a) No treatment b) Pulpectomy
c) Resection of jaw d) None of the above

16. Bence - Jones are laboratory finding of

a) Paget's disease b) Multiple myeloma
c) Malignant melanoma d) Fibrous dysplasia

17. Starry sky appearance is seen in

a) Pagets disease b) Cherubism
c) Garrey's osteomyelitis d) Burkitts lymphoma
18. Mulberry molars are characteristic features of:
a) Severe fluorosis.
b) Trauma at the time of birth
c) Congenital syphilis.
d) Due to chronic suppurative abscess in over lying gingival tissue.

19. Epstein pearls are:

a) Gingival cyst of newborn
b) Gingival cyst of adult
c) Enamel pearls d) Epithelial rests
20. Pierre Robin syndrome is associated with:
a) Micrognathia b) Cleft of the lip and plate
c) Tetrology of fallot d) Syndactally
21. Massive transfusion in previous healthy adult male can
cause harmorrhage due to:
a) Increased EPA b) Dilutional thrombocytopenia
c) Vit K deficiency d) Decreased fibrinogen

22. According to the "rule of nine" in burns, what is the

percentage of burns if both the upper limbs and lower
limbs are involved?
a) 24% b) 6%
c) 54% d) 72%

23. Tachycardia in a patient in shock is response to?

a. Hypotention
b. Vasoconstriction
c. Cns anoxia
d. Anxiety

24. Marjolin's ulcer is:

a) Squamous cell carcinoma from scar
b) Trophic ulcer
c) Tuberculous ulcer
d) Rodent ulcer
25. The ideal time of repair of cleft lip is:
a. At birth
b. Between 3-6 month of age
c. At 12-18 month of age
d. At 2-3 years of age

26. The cyst that moves by protruding the tongue is:

a) Thyroglossal cyst b) Median rhomboid cyst
c) Ranula d) Tracheal cyst
27. "Visor osteotomy is a":
a) an orthognathic surgical procedure
b) a cancer resection procedure
c) a fracture reduction and fixation procedure
d) a preposthetic procedure

28. Surgical recontouring of alveolar ridges is called as

a) Alveoloplasty b) Alveolectomy
c) Mucogingivectomy d) Fiberectomy

29. Which of the following is the most common site of MI

a. Inferior wall
b. Posterior wall
c. Anterolateral wall
d. Posterolateral wall

30. Following organ is least radiosensitive to the effects of exposure to radiation:

a. Testis
b. Bone marrow
c. Muscle
d. Intestine

31. Straw coloured fluid during aspiration of cyst is seen in:

a. Radicular cyst
b. Dentigerous cyst
c. Odontogenic keratocyst
d. Aneurysmal bone cyst

32. Masticator spaces are:

a. Canine and buccal space
b. Pharyngeal and retropharyngeal spaces
c. Submandibular and pharyngeal spaces
d. Pterygomandibular space and sub-massetric space
33. Bennett movement of mandible is related to:
a) Condylar rotation
b) Lateral bodily movement of mandible
c) Protrusive movement of mandible
d) Edge to edge occlusion

34. Dense cortical bone used for implant placement is found

in:
a) Anteiror mandible b) Posterior mandible
c) Anterior maxilla d) Posterior maxilla
35. Taurodontism is seen in
a) Klinefelter's syndrome b) Sturge weber syndrome
c) Down syndrome d) Turner syndrome

36. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by,

A. Bell’s palsy
B. Traumatic bone cyst
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region

37. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing bottle syndrome?
A. Maxillary molars
B. Maxillary and mandibular canines
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Maxillary incisors

38. When the enamel of the tooth is exposed to preparation containing high concentrations of fluoride; the major
reaction is:
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Calcium fluoride
C. Stannous fluoride
D. Fluoroapatite

39. A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two
days after the injury. Which of the following should be considered?
A. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2
B. Pulpotomy and formocresol
C. Direct pulp capping
D. Pulpectomy (RCT)

40. The most common cause of RCT “Root Canal Treatment” failure is:
A. The canal not filled completely (Short obturation)
B. Over filled canals
C. post obturation filling done with gic
D. canals not made straight line

41. The normal range of gingival depth “Epithelial attachment” in healthy mouth is:
A. 1-2 mm
B. 0-3 mm
C. 2-3 mm
D. 0-5 mm
42. The cavo-surface line angle for an amalgam restoration may be
A 90°
B 110°
C 45°
D 135°

43. root filling should reach

A to the radiographic apex
B 1 mm beyond the radiographic apex
C 1 mm short of the radiographic apex
D the dentino-cemental junction

44. A pulp polyp may arise in connection with

A chronic open pulpitis
B pulp necrosis
C acute pulpitis
D a chronic periapical lesion

45. Cementum
A is derived from the Sheath of Hertwig
B is acellular in the apical third of the tooth
C often overlaps the enamel
D does not contain collagen fibres

46. Gingival recession is

A common in young children
B always associated with gingival inflammation
C frequently caused by frenal pull
D more prevalent on buccal than palatal surfaces

47. A pocket depth of 5 mm means that

A the tooth has lost 5 mm of connective tissue attachment
B the tooth is likely to be mobile
C the probe passes 5 mm beyond the cementoenamel
junction
D the probe passes 5 mm beyond the gingival margin

48. Chlorhexidine
A is anionic
B has a narrow spectrum of activity
C is normally used as a 0.02% concentration
D is normally used as a 0.2% concentration
 49. Giant cells are a characteristic feature of except
A Paget's disease of bone
B cherubism
C actinomycosis
D tuberculosis

50. A multilocular lesion having high invasive property:

a. Ameloblastoma
b. KCOT
c. Odontogenic myxoma
d. Dentigerous cyst

51. First priority in management of burn injury is

a) Exposure b) Fluid resuscitation
c) Circulation d) Airway control

52. When compared with the bisecting-angle technique, the advantages of the paralleling technique in
endodontic radiology include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Signifcant decrease in patient radiation
B. More accurate image of the tooth’s dimensions
C. Easier to reproduce radiographs at similar angles to assess healing afer treatment
D. Most accurate image of all dimensions of the tooth and its relationship to surrounding anatomic
Structures

53. A good preventive and treatment strategy for dental caries includes ____.
A. Limiting cariogenic substrate
B. Controlling cariogenic flora
C. Elevating host resistance
D. All of the above

54. An adult patient with a class II molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which
type of malocclusion?
A. Class II dental malocclusion
B. Class II skeletal malocclusion
C. Class I dental malocclusion
D. Class II skeletal malocclusion

55. When class III elastics are used, the maxillary first molars ____.
A. Move distally and intrude
B. Move mesially and extrude
C. Move mesially and intrude
D. Move only mesially; there is no movement in the vertical direction

56. When does an FDP that was cast in one piece need to be sectioned?
A. When a cantilever pontic is used
B. When the fit cannot be achieved or verifed with a one-piece cast
C. When single crowns are adjacent to the FDP
D. Always to achieve a good fit

57. Which of the following drugs used in the therapy for parkinsonism does not cross the blood-brain barrier?
A. Amantadine
B. Carbidopa
C. Levodopa
D. Selegiline

58. After an injection, which of the following drugs would be expected to have the longest duration of action
(Assume no vasoconstrictor was injected with the local anesthetic.)
A. Bupivacaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Mepivacaine
D. Prilocaine

59. The preparation of a tooth for a Zirconia crown can be the same as for ____.
A. Metal-ceramic crown
B. Full metal crown
C. All-ceramic crown
D. All of the above

60. A nasopalatine duct cyst is located between ____.

A. Two maxillary central incisors
B. Maxillary central and lateral incisors
C. Maxillary lateral and canine
D. Maxillary canine and frst premolar

61. Which of the following statements best describes pulpal A-delta fbers compared with C fbers?
A. Larger unmyelinated nerve fbers with slower conduction velocities
B. Larger myelinated nerve fbers with faster conduction velocities
C. Smaller myelinated nerve fbers with slower conduction velocities
D. Smaller unmyelinated nerve fbers with faster conduction velocities

62. How many blades does a fnishing bur have compared with a cutting bur?
A. Fewer blades
B. Same number of blades
C. More blades
D. Number of blades is unrelated to the bur type

63. A 25 year old male patient reports with a bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible & mild
paraesthesia of the IDN. OPG shows a multilocular radiolucency without root resorption.
What would be your choice of next investigation?
A. Excision biopsy
B. Aspiration cytology
C. CT scan
D. PET bone scan

64. Putting a force through which of the following points would cause pure translation of a tooth without
rotation, tipping, or torque?
A. Center of rotation
B. Center of resistance
C. Center of the bracket
D. Apex of the root

65. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting glucagon?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Acinar

66. What is the treatment of choice for an 8-year-old patient who has a 1-mm intrusion injury of tooth #8?
A. Extract the tooth
B. Perform pulpotomy immediately
C. Splint the tooth for 10 to 14 days immediately
D. Allow the tooth to reerupt

67. What constitutes the largest portion of gutta-percha obturation material?

A. Gutta-percha
B. Zinc oxide
C. Waxes and resins
D. Heavy metal salts

68. Features of focal sclerosing osteomyelitis ofen include:

A. A nonvital pulp test.
B. A history of recent restoration of the tooth in question.
C. A radiolucent lesion which, in time, becomes radiopaque.
D. None of the choices is true.

69. In which of the following conditions is elective root canal therapy contraindicated?
A. AIDS
B. Recent MI
C. Leukemia
D. Radiotherapy

70. Which of the following is true for the fluoride in fluoridated water?
A. It is odorless
B. It is colorless
C. It is tasteless
D. All of the above

71. What is the recommended level of fluoride for community water fluoridation?
A. 1.2 to 2.2 ppm
B. 0.7 to 1.2 ppm
C. 0.2 to 2.2 ppm
D. 2 to 4 ppm

72. During preparation of implant osteotomy (“drilling” for an implant), the critical temperature that should not
be exceeded is _____ at an exposure time of 1 minute.
A. 37° C
B. 47° C
C. 57° C
D. 67° C

73. The minimal mesiodistal space required for the placement of two standard-diameter implants (4.0 mm
diameter) between teeth is _____ mm.
A. 4
B. 10
C. 14
D. 18

74. Which of the following is not the synonym for syncope

a. Benign faint
b. Adrenocortical insufficiency
c. Vasodepressor syncope
d. Vasovagal synchope

75. Normal level of cortisol secretion by adrenal cortices for normal adult is 20mg daily. This dose is equivalent
to.
a. 1mg dexamethasone
b. 0.75 mg dexamethasone
c. 0.5mg dexamethasone
d. 2 mg dexamethasone
76. Which of the following is used as vasodilator for treatment of MI
a. Lignocaine
b. Nitroglycerine
c. Epinehrine
d. Morphine

77. Compound odontoma shows on a radiograph as

a. Supernumerary teeth
b. Radiolucent and radiopaque areas
c. Masses of calcified areas
d. Distinguishable tooth like structures

78. Reactions to latex might include:

a. irritant contact dermatitis
b. allergic contact dermatitis
c. acute allergic reaction
d. all the above
 79. The patient’s decrease in taste sensitivity is often referred to as: y
A. Ageusia
B. Hypergeusia
C. Dysgeusia
D. Hypogeusia

80. Id, ego and superego we part of:

(a) Freud's psychoanalytical theory
(b) Erikson’s mode! of personality development
(c) Piaget's theory
(d) Skinner's theory

81. Development of tongue occurs during

A. 3rd week
B. 4th week
C. 2nd week
D. 5th week

82. Motor nerve supply to the muscles of the tongue

A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Facial nerve

83. Which permanent teeth are most susceptible to dental caries?

A Lower first molars
B Upper incisors
C Upper third molars
D Upper premolar

84. Congenitally missing teeth are the result of failure in which stage of development?
A. Initiation
B. Morphodifferentiation
C. Apposition
D. Calcifcation

85. How many cusp tips can be seen on a mandibular 1st molar when viewed directly from the buccal?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

86. A child presents to your office after a fall from a tree, during which his primary maxillary central
incisor was avulsed. The mother has brought the tooth in a cup of milk and says the fall occurred 2 hours ago. What
is the best treatment for this patient?
A. Replant the tooth, stabilize the tooth for 1 to 2 weeks at which time a pulpotomy should
be performed
B. Replant the tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and then perform a pulpectomy
C. Replant tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and begin apexification if pulp necrosis is evident
D. Take a radiograph, irrigate socket, do not replant tooth

87. What is the typical dose of nitroglycerin for a patient experiencing anginal discomfort?
A. 0.8 mg
B. 5.0 mg
C. 0.3 mg
D. 3.0 mg

88. As dental professionals, we are ethically bound to guarantee patients:

A. Nothing
B. The appropriate standard of care
C. Successful results
D. Professionalism

89. Which of the following is NOT a parafunctional movement?

A. Swallowing
B. Bruxism
C. Nail biting
D. Clenching

90. A 7¬year¬old patient has a 4¬mm maxillary midline diastema. Which of the following should be done?
A. Brackets should be placed to close it.
B. A radiograph should be taken to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth.
C. Nothing should be done. It will close on its own.
D. Nothing should be done. Treatment should be deferred until the rest of the permanent dentition
erupts.

91. Craniofacial dissociation is seen in

a. Lefort I fracture
b. Lefort II fracture
c. Lefort III fracture
d. All of the above

92. Haemorrhage secondary to Heparin administration is best corrected by administration of:

a. Vitamin K
b. Whole Blood
c. Protamine
d. Ascorbic acid

93. Immediate Side Shift influence:

A. Inclination of grooves of posterior teeth
B. Inclination of cusps of posterior teeth
C. Both 'A' and 'B'
D. Width of the central groove of the posterior teeth

94. Benign tumors that are likely to resorb the roots do not include:
A. Ameloblastoma
C. Ossifing fibroma
B. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Central giant cell tumor

95. A 6-year-old child presents with a Class I fracture to a tooth with an immature apex. What is the
treatment of choice for this patient?
A. Restore tooth
B. Place calcium hydroxide to exposed dentin, restore tooth
C. Perform pulpotomy, then temporarily restore
D. Perform pulpectomy, place stainless steel crown
E. Extract tooth, place space maintainer

10 year old boy with height 5.2 ft, 110 lbs weight complains of pain in front teeth. He had history of scarlet
fever at age of 7 year. On examination , it is found that due to sports trauma, there is anterior teeth mobility
in bucco lingual direction. OPG revealed, congetitally missing mandibular second premolars.

96. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a radiolucency between the roots of teeth #8 and #9.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. Mesiodens
B. Peg lateral incisor
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Incisive foramen

97. A panoramic radiograph of the patient reveals each of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Permanent maxillary central incisors with complete root formation
B. Permanent mandibular central incisors with complete root formation
C. Partially erupted permanent mandibular canines with incomplete root
formation
D. Partially erupted mandibular frst premolars with complete root formation

98. The patient’s mother is concerned about the “bumps on the front teeth.” These round extensions of enamel
are called:
A. Lobes
B. Mamelons
C. A cingulum
D. Tubercles

99. . Streptococci are classifed by lysis of erythrocytes when plated on blood agar. This process is called:
A. Cytolysis
B. Plasmolysis
C. Hemolysis
D. Enterolysis

100. Heredity is most frequently responsible for congenitally missing teeth. In this case, you would want to retain
the primary second molar for as long as possible
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The frst statement is true, the second is false
D. The frst statement is false, the second is true

A 25 year old male patient reports with a bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible & mild
paresthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multi locular radiolucency without root resorption.

101. What would be your choice of next investigation

a) Excision biopsy b) Aspiration Cytology
c) CT Scan d) PET Bone scan

102. A dirty white aspirate with a protein estimation of <4gm% is suggestive of

a) Ossifying fibroma b) Dentigerous cyst
 c) Muco-epidermoid carcinoma
d) Odontogenic Keratocyst

103. Odontogenic Keratocyst is noted for its

a) Malignant transformation
b) Daughter cysts and high rate of recurrence
c) Impacted teeth d) Nodal metastasis
104. Management of odontogenic keratocyst involves
a) Marsupialization b) Enucleation
c) Enucleation with peripheral ostectomy
d) Resection and Radiation

A 40 yr Female, 195 lbs, 5’7’ height patient came with chief complain of dry mouth and loss of taste. She also
complains of dry eyes. Her Family history shows her mother has diabetes. She is waitress by occupation. Hee
blood pressure is 150/90 mm of Hg.

105. While reviewing the medical history, you learn that the patient recently began expressing the following
symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and blurred vision. This is MOST likely the result of:
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Diabetes mellitus (type I)
C. Diabetes mellitus (type II)
D. Gestational diabetes

106. Blood insulin is absent in type I diabetes mellitus. Blood insulin levels may be normal or decreased in type
II diabetes mellitus
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The frst statement is true, the second is false
D. The frst statement is false, the second is true

107. Which of the following organic compounds is a blood ketone?

A. Alpha-hydroxybutyric acid
B. Acetoacetic acid
C. Glucagon
D. Delta-hydroxybutyric acid

108. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting glucagon?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Acinar

109. The patient’s chief complaint is MOST likely due to which of the following pathologies?
A. Scleroderma
B. Reiter’s syndrome
C. Bechet’s syndrome
D. Sjogren’s syndrome

A 28 year male 280 lbs, 6.2 ft complains with clicking noise during closing mouth. Medical history
shows hyperytension and under medication with lipril 5 mg. On examination, patient has bilateral
pain in TMJ upon closing. Tooth number 30 is endodontically treated and has fractured distilingual
cusp and remnants of occlusal amalgam restoration.

110. If the patient delays treatment of tooth #30, which of the following is the most likely
consequence?
A. Supraeruption of tooth #3
B. Loss of canine protected occlusion
C. Loss of vertical dimension
D. Mesial drift of tooth #31

111. The temporomandibular joint can be classifed as:

A. Synarthrosis
B. Amphiarthrosis
C. Fibrous
D. Synovial

112. The clicking noise the patient experiences is due to the condyle moving anteriorly past the disc.
This noise can also be heard with lateral excursion to the contralateral side
A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The frst statement is true, the second is false
D. The frst statement is false, the second is true

113. During your examination, you notice a vertical root fracture on #30. It is determined
nonrestorable, and is extracted. Which of the following root morphologies would you expect to
see?
A. The roots are narrowly separated
B. The distal root is broadest bucco-lingually
C. Only the mesial root exhibits a concavity
D. The root trunk is shorter than the mandibular second molar

114. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior teeth is toward the:
A. Mesial
B. Distal
C. Facial
D. Lingual

A bus travelling from dhangadi to Kathmandu met accident at malekhu at around 11pm. The reason for accident is
due to sleeping of bus driver.

115. Reason of sleep

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Decreased blood supply to brain
c. Alcohol intake
d. Driver intentionally slept
Ans b
116. Out of 40 passengers, 12 met injury over face. Which patient is given priority to shift to the hospital?
a. Severe haemorrage with leg fracture
 b. Head injury
c. Avulsed teeth
d. Airway obstruction
Ans d
117. Two of the patient have severe head injury, with diagnosed epidural haematoma. The cause of it is
a. Middle meningeal artery
b. Vertebral artery
c. Anterior cerebral artery
d. Subclavian artery

118. Glass gow coma scale does not include

a. Eye opening
b. Verbal response
c. Motor response
d. Blood pressure
1 C. 41 A 81 . b 121 161
2 a. 42 A 82 B. 122 162
3 a. 43 D 83 b. 123 163
4 A. 44 A 84 . a 124 164
5 c. 45 C 85 . d 125 165
6 b. 46 D 86 . d 126 166
7 b. 47 D 87 . c 127 167
8 c. 48 d. 88 . b 128 168
9 d. 49 C. 89 A 129 169
10 d. 50 c. 90 D 130 170
11 B. 51 D 91 C 131 171
12 d. 52 A 92 C 132 172
13 D. 53 A 93 D 133 173
14 d. 54 A 94 B 134 174
15 d. 55 B 95 A 135 175
16 b. 56 B 96 D 136 176
17 d. 57 B 97 D 137 177
18 c. 58 A 98 B 138 178
19 A 59 C 99 C 139 179
20 A 60 A 100 A 140 180
21 B 61 A 101 B 141
22 c. 62 C 102 D 142
23 c. 63 b. 103 B 143
24 a. 64 B 104 C 144
25 b. 65 A 105 C 145
26 A 66 D 106 C 146
27 A 67 B 107 B 147
28 A 68 A 108 A 148
29 C 69 D 109 D 149
30 c. 70 D 110 a 150
31 b. 71 B 111 D 151
32 D 72 b 112 D 152
33 b. 73 c 113 d 153
34 a. 74 b 114 b 154
35 c 75 b 115 B. 155
36 D 76 B. 116 d. 156
37 c. 77 . d 117 a. 157
38 d 78 . d 118 d. 158
39 B 79 d. 119
40 a 80 . a 120