PRIMAL ACADEMY FOR SPORTS SCIENCE

ANSWER KEYS
PAPER 4
Question Assessment
QUESTION 1 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »
Question:
Julie has just completed an exercise confidence survey as part of her initial consultation. She
indicated that she has low confidence in her ability to stick with an exercise program after a long,
tiring day at work. Which of the following strategies would be the BEST option for enhancing
Julie’s adherence to her exercise program?
The Correct Answer is:
Suggest scheduling her workout sessions before work or during her lunch hour.
Why?
The requirements of Julie’s job are factors that most likely cannot be changed. Since Julie often
feels exhausted after work, the best option would be to have her complete her workouts earlier in
the day before the physical and mental feelings of tiredness set in.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 28–31

QUESTION 2 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
You notice a client's shoulders rising up toward his neck during each repetition as he performs the
seated row exercise. What is MOST likely causing this movement error?
The Correct Answer is:
Tight upper trapezius overpowering weakness in the middle and lower trapezius
Why?
This movement pattern occurs when there is a muscle imbalance due to the upper trapezius being
tight and the middle and lower trapezius being weak. The main action of the upper trapezius is
elevation of the scapulae. Therefore, the client’s tight upper trapezius is pulling his shoulders up
toward his ears with each repetition, and this movement is not being counteracted by the weak
middle and lower trapezius.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 144–145

QUESTION 3 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
What is the MOST appropriate method for correcting a client’s form during an exercise in which
the client demonstrates an undesirable forward-head posture?
Your Choice was:
Explaining that if she cannot position her head in the proper alignment you can give her a different
exercise
The Correct Answer is:
Putting your hand where the client’s head should be and instructing her to glide her head back to
touch your hand
Why?
One effective method for correcting a client’s exercise performance is to place your hand in the
desired position and ask the client to touch it. If the client has a forward-head posture, put your
hand where her head would be with good alignment and instruct her to glide her head back to
touch your hand. These techniques encourage the person to actively assume the correct position,
whereas pushing or pulling a client’s body into a desired position will usually produce a reflex
response in the opposite direction and may actually interfere with the ability to actively return to
the desired position.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 53–54 & 146

QUESTION 4 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Your new client, Sarah, is a strong believer in the practice of vitamin supplementation. After
reviewing her three-day food diary, which includes her supplement schedule, you determine that
Sarah is taking megadoses of vitamins B6, B12, and niacin. Which of the following statements
would be MOST appropriate for addressing Sarah regarding her supplementation practice?
The Correct Answer is:
―Your food diary revealed that you are taking an amount of vitamins that could potentially lead to
health problems. I encourage you to adopt the principles of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for
Americans and discuss your supplementation habits with your physician.‖
Why?
Because Sarah has strong beliefs about her vitamin supplement program, steps should be taken to
avoid upsetting her when providing information about vitamin supplementation. The personal
trainer should encourage Sarah to get her nutrients from foods and discuss her supplementation
plan in detail with her physician, since megadoses of any nutrient may lead to toxicity.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 162–163
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 14

QUESTION 5 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
The initial assessment with a new client reveals that her waist circumference is 35 inches and her
hip circumference is 34 inches. Which of the following statements about these measurements
is MOST accurate?
Your Choice was:
She has an average risk for developing obesity-related health problems.
The Correct Answer is:
She is at risk for health problems due to increased torso adiposity.
Why?
Upper-body or abdominal obesity is known to increase health risk. This client’s waist-to-hip ratio
(WHR) equates to 1.029 (35 inches divided by 34 inches), which places her in the category of ―at
risk‖ for health problems.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 188

QUESTION 6 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
During the initial interview, a new client claims, ―I want to lose 20 lb (9.1 kg) in the next two
months.‖ Which of the following responses would be MOST appropriate?
The Correct Answer is:
Acknowledge her enthusiasm and help her develop more realistic goals and a series of achievable
steps to work toward them.
Why?
Personal trainers should always structure appropriate exercise expectations at the beginning of the
client–trainer relationship. Unrealistic expectations lead to failure to reach goals. This is a common
theme with people who have a history of unsuccessful attempts at weight loss. By helping her
develop more realistic goals, the trainer will be helping her set a foundation for success. Then, by
using a series of achievable steps to work toward goals, the trainer can help her have a series of
successes that will facilitate adherence and eventually help her achieve her larger goals.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 48–51

QUESTION 7 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Adam is a healthy, 32-year-old male with no prior exercise experience. His leisure-time activities
consist of playing pool and going to see local bands perform. While he is not obese, he has put on
a considerable amount of weight and would like the assistance of a personal trainer to help him
reach his goal of losing 20 pounds.
Which of the following timeframes is MOST appropriate for Adam to safely achieve his weight-loss
goal?
Your Choice was:
8 to 16 weeks
The Correct Answer is:
3 to 5 months
Why?
According to most experts, a sensible diet-exercise approach to weight reduction tends to produce
a rate of weight loss of approximately 1 to 2 pounds per week. This equates to a 10- to 20-week
timeframe for Adam to safely achieve his weight loss goal, with 3 to 5 months being the only
answer that falls within this timeframe.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174

QUESTION 8 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Adam is a healthy, 32-year-old male with no prior exercise experience. His leisure-time activities
consist of playing pool and going to see local bands perform. While he is not obese, he has put on
a considerable amount of weight and would like the assistance of a personal trainer to help him
reach his goal of losing 20 pounds.
Which initial cardiorespiratory exercise program would be MOST appropriate for Adam?
The Correct Answer is:
Begin with continuous exercise as tolerated below the talk test threshold and work up to 30
continuous minutes performed 5 days per week
Why?
This response is correct because it allows for this currently sedentary client to begin exercising at
his current fitness level with a goal to work toward 30 continuous minutes. The exercise intensity
of ―below the talk test threshold‖ is also appropriate for this client, as he must develop initial
aerobic-base fitness before progressing to longer sessions or intervals.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 386 & 394
 QUESTION 9 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »
Question:
Adam is a healthy, 32-year-old male with no prior exercise experience. His leisure-time activities
consist of playing pool and going to see local bands perform. While he is not obese, he has put on
a considerable amount of weight and would like the assistance of a personal trainer to help him
reach his goal of losing 20 pounds. After an initial muscle-conditioning program that focused first
on stability and mobility, followed by movement training with 1–2 sets of 15 repetitions of light- to
moderate-intensity exercises for all major movements, Adam is ready to progress to a program
that will help him work toward his primary resistance-training goal of increasing muscle mass.
Which intensity range is MOST appropriate for causing muscular fatigue in an appropriate number
of repetitions to facilitate muscle hypertrophy?
Your Choice was:
60 to 70% 1 RM
The Correct Answer is:
70 to 80% 1 RM
Why?
This answer is correct because eight to 12 repetitions corresponds with 70 to 80% of maximum
resistance (1 RM) and is a sound training recommendation for safe and productive muscular
hypertrophy.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 333–341

QUESTION 10 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Adam is a healthy, 32-year-old male with no prior exercise experience. His leisure-time activities
consist of playing pool and going to see local bands perform. While he is not obese, he has put on
a considerable amount of weight and would like the assistance of a personal trainer to help him
reach his goal of losing 20 pounds. After several months of sticking to his exercise program, Adam
informs you that he is pleased with his progress and would like to enhance his rate of building
muscle mass by incorporating creatine supplementation into his current program.
Which of the following responses to Adam’s inquiry about creatine is the MOST appropriate?
The Correct Answer is:
―While some research shows that creatine may enhance muscular performance, it would be best
for you to discuss supplementation with your physician prior to taking it.‖
Why?
It is the position of ACE that it is outside the defined scope of practice of a fitness professional to
recommend, prescribe, or supply nutritional supplements to clients.
If a client wants to take supplements, a fitness professional should work in conjunction with a
qualified registered dietitian or medical doctor to provide safe and effective nutrition education and
recommendations. This response is the most appropriate because it encourages the client to
discuss supplementation with a medical professional prior to taking the substance.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 9 & Appendix C

QUESTION 11 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Larry is a client with whom you have been working for the past three months. During that time, he
has cancelled or failed to show up for approximately 20% of scheduled workout sessions with you.
Recently, Larry’s work commitments have increased and he informs you that he will not be
exercising until his work load decreases. In which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavioral
change would Larry currently be categorized?
The Correct Answer is:
Contemplation
Why?
Larry has relapsed to being physically inactive due to his work commitments, and has regressed to
this stage of change. Individuals in the contemplation stage weigh the costs and benefits of
lifestyle modification and are often ambivalent about changing. Individuals can remain in this
stage for months or years, alternating between approaching readiness to make an effort at change
and distancing themselves from it. Larry will have to decide to initiate a new exercise program
before he can move back to the preparation stage and eventually to the action and maintenance
stages.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 67-69

QUESTION 12 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Which of the following provides the BEST assessment of anaerobic capacity?
The Correct Answer is:
300-yard shuttle run
Why?
The 300-yard shuttle run is designed to assess anaerobic capacity, or the highest rate of
sustainable power over a predetermined distance. Assessments of anaerobic capacity should only
be performed with clients who have the prerequisite fitness and have performance-oriented goals
for power, speed, agility, and quickness.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 235–236

QUESTION 13 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
What is a diabetic client MOST likely to experience if he or she takes too much insulin prior to an
exercise session?
The Correct Answer is:
Hypoglycemia
Why?
Insulin causes glucose to move from the circulatory system into the working cells. Exercise has an
insulin-like effect, resulting in increased glucose uptake by the cells as well. Therefore, if a client
takes too much insulin prior to exercise, the client would have two factors (insulin and exercise)
that would be facilitating increased glucose uptake by the cells. This will cause a drop in blood
glucose, potentially leading to low blood glucose, or hypoglycemia.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 571–573

QUESTION 14 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
When performing initial cardiorespiratory fitness assessments with a client who is taking a beta
blocker, which of the following medication-related effects SHOULD be expected?
Your Choice was:
Decreased exercise heart rate and increased resting heart rate
The Correct Answer is:
Decreased exercise heart rate and decreased resting heart rate
Why?
Generally, beta-adrenergic blocking agents, or beta blockers, cause a decreased exercise heart
rate and a decreased resting heart rate.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 119

QUESTION 15 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Postural screening performed with a new client reveals that he has a posterior pelvic tilt and a
decreased anterior curvature of the lower back. Based on this information, which muscles should
be of PRIMARY focus in this client’s flexibility program?
Your Choice was:
Rectus abdominis, internal obliques, and pectorals
The Correct Answer is:
Rectus abdominis and hamstrings
Why?
These two muscle groups work together to create a force couple to tilt the pelvis posteriorly. When
they are tight, or shortened in length, the rectus abdominis will pull up on the front of the pelvis,
while the hamstrings will pull down on the back of the pelvis. This would keep the pelvis in a
position of posterior tilt during standing posture. Therefore, this answer is correct.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 142

QUESTION 16 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Cindy’s first attempt at the incline bench press exercise appears shaky and uncoordinated. After
the set, Cindy comments that she had a hard time feeling her chest muscles working and that it
was challenging to move her arms in a controlled manner. Which stage of learning BEST correlates
with Cindy’s performance?
The Correct Answer is:
Cognitive
Why?
Within the cognitive stage of learning, clients make many errors and have highly variable
performances. They know they are doing something wrong, but they do not know how to improve
their performance. At this stage, clients seem terribly uncoordinated and consistently perform
exercises incorrectly.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 58

QUESTION 17 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Which of the following actions is within a personal trainer’s scope of practice?
The Correct Answer is:
Reviewing a client’s food journal to identify high-fat choices and providing education about lower-
fat options
Why?
Personal trainers are qualified to design, implement, and progress exercise programs for
apparently healthy clientele, as well as clientele who have special needs with a physician’s referral
and recommendations for exercise. This includes helping clients develop more healthful behaviors
that will facilitate exercise program effectiveness. This can include helping clients gain a better
understanding of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans, so they can make better dietary
choices. Personal trainers cannot prescribe diets, tell clients what to eat, what to purchase, or how
to cook their foods. However, the USDA Dietary Guidelines provide a wealth of public information
that is often misunderstood. By helping clients gain a better understanding of this information,
personal trainers can help clients understand where they are making higher-fat choices and feel
empowered to make better choices when purchasing and preparing foods.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 9 & 15

QUESTION 18 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
What is the PRIMARY goal of a resistance-training program consisting of three sets of 12 to 16
repetitions for all major muscle groups?
The Correct Answer is:
Muscular endurance
Why?
Typically, resistance-training programs consisting of one to three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions are
implemented to promote muscular endurance.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 321–323

QUESTION 19 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
You have just completed McGill’s torso muscular endurance test battery with a client. Which of the
following results from this battery of assessments should be of PRIMARY focus when designing
this client’s exercise program, as it is indicative of a muscle imbalance that can lead to back pain?
The Correct Answer is:
Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio = 1.09 (85 seconds:78 seconds)
Why?
This response is correct. The Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio should be no greater
than + 0.05 from a balanced score of 1.0. This puts acceptable values between 0.95 and 1.05 for
this ratio. The client described in this example has a Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio of
1.09, which is outside the acceptable range and indicates a right:left muscle imbalance that could
lead to back pain.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 217–220

QUESTION 20 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
As you are assessing a new client’s static posture from the posterior view, you observe that the
medial borders and inferior angle of his scapulae protrude away from the posterior surface of his
back. This postural deviation is commonly referred to as ―scapular winging.‖ Which of the following
muscles should be of PRIMARY focus in his resistance-training program, as it is most likely weak
and contributing to this postural deviation?
The Correct Answer is:
Serratus anterior
Why?
Weakness in the serratus anterior can result in an inability of these scapular muscles to hold the
medial border of the scapula in place against the ribs. This is known as scapular ―winging‖ and
results in instability in the scapulothoracic joint that can lead to instability and injury in the
shoulder girdle and/or shoulder joint. Personal trainers who see scapular winging should help the
clients strengthen the serratus anterior, as well as the rhomboids, which are also often weak with
scapular winging. In addition, trainers should help clients learn how to ―pack‖ their scapulae by
retracting and depressing the scapulae.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 143–145

QUESTION 21 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
On her health screening form, Carrie indicates that she has been diagnosed with ―tennis elbow.‖
Which of the following anatomical structures is MOST affected by this condition?
The Correct Answer is:
The lateral epicondyle of the humerus
Why?
―Tennis elbow‖ is a common name for lateral epicondylitis, or inflammation of the wrist extensor
tendons at their origin on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 540–541

QUESTION 22 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
A small-group training participant who enjoys the camaraderie of the small-group environment
finds herself feeling as though she cannot keep up with the conditioning level of the other
participants. What is the BEST recommendation for the trainer to make for this client?
The Correct Answer is:
Offer her the opportunity to switch to another small-group training class that is a better match for
her level of conditioning
Why?
This is the BEST recommendation to make so that she can continue to participate in small-group
training, which she enjoys, but at a more reasonable level of conditioning.

Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual, page 640

QUESTION 23 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
At your request, a client visits his physician regarding recurrent leg pain. The physician diagnoses
him with sciatica and instructs him to complete physical therapy for his problem. Which muscle can
be involved with sciatica due to its location relative to the sciatic nerve?
The Correct Answer is:
Piriformis
Why?
Tightness or spasm in the deep lateral rotators of the hip, particularly the piriformis, can lead to
hip and leg pain, since the sciatic nerve often passes through or just inferior to the piriformis and
can become irritated by a spasm in the piriformis.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 45

QUESTION 24 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
The ―talk test‖ would be LEAST appropriate for which of the following clients?
The Correct Answer is:
An elite marathon runner
Why?
An elite marathon runner would require a more intense exercise test to identify both the first and
second ventilator thresholds, which are important for training purposes; therefore, the ―talk test‖
would not be an acceptable exercise test to administer for this individual.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 382 and 394

QUESTION 25 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
A new member of your health club has been cleared by her physician to begin an exercise program
after recently celebrating her 65th birthday. Which of the following exercise parameters
is MOST appropriate for her initial program?
Your Choice was:
Strength training with free weights to maximize neurological adaptations
The Correct Answer is:
Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions
Why?
This response is an appropriate program design and initial intensity level for a new client and it
addresses the loss of muscle mass and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and
increases in bone density, a program with more resistance and fewer repetitions is required.
However, because this individual is more than 50 years old, the ACSM recommends he begin his
program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the recommendation for older individuals
due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend to rise. Low resistance and
high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive clients as well.
After several months of training, a more intense program may be appropriate.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 355–356

QUESTION 26 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
During a bend and lift screen (anterior view), you notice a client’s knees moving inward. Based on
this assessment, which muscles are MOST likely weak?
The Correct Answer is:
Gluteus medius and maximus
Why?

This answer is correct. The gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are
primary abductors of the hip. As such, they can prevent hip adduction.
When the knees move inward during the bend and lift screen, it is
generally because the hips are adducting, which moves the distal ends of
the femur (knees) inward. Strengthening the hip abductors (gluteus
medius and maximus) would make them better prepared to resist hip
adduction during squatting motions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 152
 QUESTION 27 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »
Question:
Which of the following stages of the client–trainer relationship involves the building of mutual trust
and emotional affinity that begins at the initial meeting?
The Correct Answer is:
Rapport
Why?
The rapport stage is the foundation for the entire relationship between the personal trainer and
client. Rapport means a relationship of mutual trust, harmony, or emotional affinity. Establishing it
entails building a certain level of comfort or shared understanding into a relationship. The rapport
stage begins with the first client–trainer interactions.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 40

QUESTION 28 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve
in his thoracic spine and protracted shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward.
What are this client’s postural deviations?

QUESTION 29 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve
in his thoracic spine and forward, rounded shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward.
Which of the following sets of muscles and muscle groups should be the PRIMARY focus of a
flexibility program designed to address this client's postural deviations?
Your Choice was:
Trapezius and rhomboids
The Correct Answer is:
Shoulder adductors and serratus anterior
Why?
This answer is correct, as kyphosis posture is associated with tight shoulder adductors (pectoralis
major) and tight scapular abductors (serratus anterior) which pull the scapular into protraction.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 145

QUESTION 30 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
After working with a local celebrity for nine months, he expresses to you how pleased he is with
the results of his exercise program and the weight he has lost. Because of his celebrity status in
your community, you would like to use his testimonial in your advertising. Prior to using his
testimonial, what should you do first?
 QUESTION 31 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »
Question:
A new client tells you that he has been jogging 3–4 days per week for the past six weeks following
a program from a popular health magazine. He has worked his way up to jogging 30 continuous
minutes at an intensity of 70% of his predicted maximal HR, which he calculated by subtracting his
age from 220. As you design a new program for him, what method for monitoring
cardiorespiratory exercise intensity should be used to provide the MOST individualized training
program?

QUESTION 32 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
You are working with a client who tells you that she has her greatest success with commitments
when there is a reward for her to earn upon program completion. As such, you work together to
create a behavioral contract with built-in rewards to enhance her program adherence. Which of the
following sentences represents the MOST effective goal statement for the client’s contract?
Your Choice was:
―I will eat less fat to create a negative caloric balance so I can lose weight and feel better.‖
The Correct Answer is:

―I will lose 1 to 2 pounds per week for the next two months so I can buy a
new outfit.‖
Why?
Behavioral contracting systematically arranges rewards for completing certain tasks so that the
probability of the desired response is increased. The two primary parts of a behavioral contract
involve specifying the behavior to be achieved and stating specific reinforcements that will reward
the desired behavior. The terms should be explicitly stated so that the expectations are clearly
understood. This response is the best option for the goal statement of a behavioral contract
because it is specific, realistic, and defines a reward.

ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 55–56

QUESTION 33 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
A new client wants to lose weight and body fat, and agrees to have his body composition assessed
during the initial session. He currently weighs 220 lb (100 kg) with 25% body fat (BF%). He wants
to decrease his body-fat level to 15%. If he maintains his current lean body weight (LBW), what
will his new weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat?
The Correct Answer is:
194 lb
Why?
This response is correct. To calculate goal weight for this client, perform the following calculations:
DBW = LBW ÷ (1 – DBF%)
Step 1: 100% – Fat % = Lean body %
100% - 25% = 75%
Step 2: Body weight x Lean body % = LBW
220 lb x 0.75 = 165 lb
Step 3: 100% – Desired fat % = Desired lean %
100% - 15% = 85%
Step 4: LBW ÷ Desired lean % = DBW
165 lb ÷ 0.85 = 194 lb
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 184

QUESTION 34 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
A client you are working with weighs 200 lb (91 kg) and has a primary focus on increasing
muscular strength and hypertrophy through resistance training 5–6 days per week. He is unsure of
how much protein he should be consuming to maximize results and asks you for help. According to
the protein guidelines for strength-trained athletes from the American Dietetic Association,
Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine, what range for daily protein intake
would be MOST appropriate for this client?
Your Choice was:
73 to 91 grams
The Correct Answer is:
146 to 155 grams
Why?
A daily intake of 146 to 155 grams equates to 1.6 to 1.7 grams per kilogram of body weight (91
kg x 1.6 g/kg = 145.6 g; 91 kg x 1.7 g/kg = 154.7 g). This meets the American Dietetic
Association, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine protein guidelines of up
to 1.2 to 1.7 g/kg body weight for strength-and endurance trained athletes.
Essentials of Exercise Science page 178

QUESTION 35 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
What type of contraction is performed by the latissimus dorsi during the downward (lowering)
phase of the pull-up exercise?
The Correct Answer is:

Eccentric
Why?
This response is correct as the latissimus dorsi contract eccentrically to control the body as it is
lowered during the downward phase of a pull-up. This eccentric contraction controls the rate of
motion, slowing the downward movement against the pull of gravity.

ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 109 & 113–114

QUESTION 36 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Which of the following flexibility assessment results would indicate TIGHTNESS in the
infraspinatus and teres minor?
Your Choice was:
Limited ROM in external shoulder rotation
The Correct Answer is:

Limited ROM in internal shoulder rotation

Why?
Limitations in internal shoulder rotation are generally due to tightness in the external rotators,
which must lengthen to allow movement in the opposite direction. The infraspinatus and teres
minor are primary external shoulder rotators; if they are tight, they will limit internal shoulder
rotation.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 165

QUESTION 37 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
A new client expresses her concerns about the fitness testing that is advertised in the personal-
training brochure from the facility where you train. She claims that the thought of being weighed
and having her body composition assessed makes her uncomfortable. Which of the following
statements is the BEST course of action at this time?
Your Choice was:
Help her understand that data from body-composition and other fitness assessments provide the
foundation for exercise programming and are the basis for quantifying progress toward goals.
The Correct Answer is:
Explain that these assessments are only options, and are not required. Then have her complete a
health-history form and only conduct assessments that facilitate program design, such as posture
and basic movement.
Why?
Some clients may be very uncomfortable with the testing and evaluation process, and in these
cases, it can be counterproductive to the success of an exercise program. Fitness professionals
should always require the assessment of health-risk factors. In addition, most programs can
benefit from some basic assessments of static posture and movement, such as those utilized in the
stability-mobility and movement phases of the ACE IFTTM Model.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 110–114

QUESTION 38 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Ryan is a busy, young executive who works 60 hours per week. He has hired you to develop a
realistic exercise program that will fit his hectic schedule and to help him adopt sensible eating
habits to help facilitate weight loss. He has recorded a three-day food record at your request and
the most notable trend is his choice of lunch entree. Ryan eats lunch at a local pizzeria at least
four days per week and always orders the same thing—a mini pizza topped with several types of
meat and vegetables, and a large iced tea. After an Internet search, you discover the following
nutrition information about Ryan’s favorite mini pizza:

Calories: 940
Calories from fat: 378
Total fat: 42 g
Saturated fat: 18 g
Trans fat: 2 g
Cholesterol: 175 mg
Sodium: 2,145 mg
Carbohydrate: 108 g
Fiber: 8 g
Sugars: 17 g
Protein: 33 g
Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding the saturated and trans fat content
of this pizza?
Your Choice was:
It is high in trans fat, but saturated fat content is in line with the daily recommended percentages.
The Correct Answer is:

It has a high content of both saturated fat and trans fat.

Why?
The 2010 USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans state that total fat intake should range between
20 and 35% of daily calories, with most fats coming from polyunsaturated and monounsaturated
sources. In addition, no more than 10% of calories should come from saturated fats, and products
containing trans fatty acids should be limited or avoided altogether. This food item contains 40%
of its total calories from fat (378 kcal from fat / 940 total cal = 0.402 x 100% = 40.2%), with
17% of those calories coming from saturated fat (18 g saturated fat x 9 cal/g = 162 cal from
saturated fat / 940 total cal = 0.172 x 100% = 17.2%). While this client could eat healthfully
enough the rest of the day to keep his total saturated fat intake to 10% of total caloric intake or
below, this pizza is high in saturated fat and contains a substantial amount of total calories, setting
him up for a diet that will most likely be high in saturated fat intake. This pizza also contains 2
gram of trans fat, which should be limited, or preferably, avoided altogether. Therefore, this pizza
has a high content of both saturated fat and trans fat.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 168 and page 184

QUESTION 39 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Ryan is a busy, young executive who works 60 hours per week. He has hired you to develop a
realistic exercise program that will fit his hectic schedule and to help him adopt sensible eating
habits to help facilitate weight loss. He has recorded a three-day food record at your request and
the most notable trend is his choice of lunch entree. Ryan eats lunch at a local pizzeria at least
four days per week and always orders the same thing—a mini pizza topped with several types of
meat and vegetables, and a large iced tea. After an Internet search, you discover the following
nutrition information about Ryan’s favorite mini pizza:

Calories: 940
Calories from fat: 378
Total fat: 42 g
Saturated fat: 18 g
Trans fat: 2 g
Cholesterol: 175 mg
Sodium: 2,145 mg
Carbohydrate: 108 g
Fiber: 8 g
Sugars: 17 g
Protein: 33 g

Which of the following nutrients contributes the GREATEST amount of calories to the total calories
found in this food item?
The Correct Answer is:

Carbohydrates
Why?
To solve this problem, you must know the caloric values for 1 gram of each type of nutrient: 1 g
protein = 4 kcal; 1 g carbohydrate = 4 kcal; 1 g fat = 9 kcal. Next, determine the number of
calories each nutrient contributes to the total caloric content of the food by multiplying the number
of grams of each nutrient by its associated caloric value:
Fat: 42 g x 9 kcal/g = 378 kcal
Protein: 33 g x 4 kcal/g = 132 kcal
Carbohydrates: 108 g x 4 kcal/g = 432 kcal
These calculations show that carbohydrates contribute the most calories of all the nutrients in this
food item.
Essentials of Exercise Science page 172-173

QUESTION 40 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
A new client requests to train only at local beaches, parks, and trails. What is
the FIRST precaution to take when training clients outdoors in public places?
Your Choice was:
The trainer should first survey each outdoor area prior to training sessions with the client to plan
the workout and ensure safety.

The Correct Answer is:

The trainer should check with the city or property manager to make sure that the areas of interest
for training have been identified as ―legal.‖
Why?
It is the responsibility of the fitness professional to be familiar with local laws, as in some
jurisdictions it is illegal to train clients on public beaches, parks, and/or trails.

Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual, page 611

QUESTION 41 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Randy is a client you have been working with for several months. During that time, he has reached
a level of conditioning that allows him to perform 40 continuous minutes of cardiorespiratory
exercise at an intensity of 75% MHR. During his annual check-up earlier this week, Randy’s
physician prescribed beta-blocker medication to help control mild hypertension, and gave him a
written release to continue exercise as tolerated. Based on this information, how should Randy
monitor his exercise intensity now that he is taking this new medication?
The Correct Answer is:

Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)

Why?
This is the recommended method for monitoring exercise intensity in individuals taking beta
blockers. Because RPE is based on perceived exertion, it is not negatively impacted by medications
such as beta blockers. RPE has been validated against a variety of physiological intensity
measures, including heart rate, % VO2R, and metabolic markers, and has been found to be a valid
tool for monitoring intensity.

Personal Trainer Manual 4th Edition page 119

 QUESTION 42 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »
Question:
Which of the following is OUTSIDE the scope of practice of an ACE-certified Personal Trainer?
Your Choice was:
Adjusting the exercise program to improve motivation and adherence
The Correct Answer is:

Recommending an alternative therapy in place of a conventional therapy

Why?
It is outside the scope of practice of a personal trainer to diagnose a medical condition or
recommend a method of treatment to a client. If a personal trainer identifies conditions that
warrant medical evaluation and potential treatment, the personal trainer should explain what he or
she has found and recommend that the client seek evaluation from an appropriate allied
healthcare professional.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 8–9

QUESTION 43 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
You are checking equipment in preparation for your next client to arrive for her training session
and notice that an exercise bike is not functioning properly and may pose a danger to your client
and other gym members. What is theBEST plan of action to take concerning this piece of
equipment?
The Correct Answer is:
Remove the exercise bike from the gym floor
Why?
This is the BEST plan of action because it eliminates any possible dangers.
Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual, page 612

QUESTION 44 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Which of the following documents may be presented in a lawsuit to release a fitness professional
from liability related to a client’s injury?
Your Choice was:
Health-risk appraisal
The Correct Answer is:

Waiver
Why?
A voluntary abandonment of the right to file suit, a waiver is used to release the personal trainer
from liability for injuries resulting from an exercise program. While this is the correct response, it
is important for personal trainers to understand that waivers can be overruled in a court of law.
The best method for avoiding a lawsuit is to always act in a professional, safe, and effective
manner within the scope of practice.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 110
 QUESTION 45 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »
Question:
Preston, a weightlifter and a regular member at your fitness center, exhibits a posture in which his
shoulders are rounded forward and the backs of his hands face forward when he is standing in a
relaxed manner. What is theMOST likely cause of this postural deviation?
Your Choice was:
An over-reliance on exercises performed for the posterior trunk muscles combined with neglecting
stretches for the anterior trunk muscles
The Correct Answer is:

An exercise program that focuses mainly on building the pectorals and

latissimus dorsi without proper stretching of those muscles
Why?
A standing posture evidenced by shoulders that are rounded forward and hands that face
backward instead of toward each other is indicative of shortened pectorals and latissimus dorsi, as
well as overstretched scapular retractors and shoulder external rotators that passively allow the
shoulders to fall forward into internal rotation.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 145

QUESTION 46 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
After three months of training, your client has achieved rapid weight loss, is now borderline
underweight, and appears increasingly concerned with her body weight and appearance. Which of
the following disorders is MOSTlikely to be associated with this type of behavior?
Your Choice was:
Bulimia nervosa
The Correct Answer is:

Anorexia nervosa
Why?
Anorexia nervosa is associated with excessive concern with weight and appearance and overly
rapid or severe weight loss.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 190

QUESTION 47 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Six months have passed since you started training Claire. She has consistently attended all her
scheduled workout sessions and shown significant improvement in cardiorespiratory fitness,
muscular strength and endurance, and flexibility. However, her body composition remains similar
to her initial assessment values. Upon questioning Claire about her nutrition habits, she responds,
―I have been trying to use the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans you gave me, but I find
myself binging on my favorite snacks every night. If you could just write out a diet telling me
exactly what to eat and when, I know I could stick to it.‖ Which of the following would be
the MOST appropriate response to address Claire’s nutritional concerns?
The Correct Answer is:

Refer Claire to a registered dietitian.

Why?
If you are not a registered dietitian or healthcare professional, you should avoid making specific
diet recommendations and refer clients to a registered dietitian or physician when they require or
desire specific meal planning.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174

QUESTION 48 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
When teaching a client a new exercise, you should first describe the correct technique, then
demonstrate the proper movement, and, lastly, allow the client to perform the exercise. What type
of teaching approach is this?
The Correct Answer is:

Tell-show-do method
Why?
An effective systematic method of teaching a skill is by explanation, demonstration, and execution,
also known as ―tell–show–do.‖ By utilizing this teaching method, the instructor provides auditory,
visual, and kinesthetic learning experiences, which combine to stimulate all learning pathways.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 53–54

QUESTION 49 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Your client with type 2 diabetes just received a six-month progress report from his physician.
According to his physician, he has experienced many positive health changes due to his exercise
program and diet modifications. Which of the following is the MOST likely positive adaptation due
to his lifestyle changes?
The Correct Answer is:

Decreased insulin resistance

Why?
By losing weight through diet and exercise, individuals with type 2 diabetes may be able to
decrease their cellular resistance to insulin, thereby potentially reducing the amount of oral insulin
medication needed.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 491–492

QUESTION 50 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Which of the following recommendations for fluid intake is CORRECT for a client who primarily
exercises outside during hot weather?
The Correct Answer is:

7–10 fluid ounces of water every 10–20 minutes

Why?
This response is correct. The guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot
environment is to drink at least 7–10 ounces every 10–20 minutes during exercise. Additionally,
clients working in hot environments should drink 17–20 ounces of water during the two hours prior
to exercise and 16–24 ounces for every pound lost during exercise.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 226
 QUESTION 51 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »
Question:
Your client has lost 10 pounds of body fat in 60 days. What was the daily average caloric deficit
required for this client to lose weight at this rate?
The Correct Answer is:

583 kcal per day

Why?
One pound of body fat holds 3,500 kcal of energy. Therefore, it takes a caloric deficit of 3,500 kcal
to lose 1 pound. To lose 10 pounds, an individual must create a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal.
This total caloric deficit can then be divided by the number of days during which the weight was
lost to determine the average daily caloric deficit as follows:
10 lb x 3,500 kcal per lb = a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal
35,000 kcal / 60 days = a daily caloric deficit of 583 kcal
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174

QUESTION 52 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Your client has consistently performed 10 to 20 exercises per session, two to three times per week
for six months. He is ready to be challenged with a more advanced resistance-training program.
You decide to introduce a program wherein he performs 10 repetitions to muscular fatigue and
then immediately performs several more repetitions of the same exercise at a slighter lighter
weight to complete the set. What is this advanced training technique called?
Your Choice was:
Periodization training
The Correct Answer is:

Breakdown training
Why?
Breakdown training is one method for recruiting additional muscle fibers during an exercise set.
For example, consider a client who experiences momentary muscle failure after 10 leg extensions
with 75 pounds. By immediately reducing the weight load to 65 pounds, the client can complete
two or three more post-fatigue repetitions. Breakdown training enables the client to reach two
levels of momentary muscle failure, thereby fatiguing more muscle fibers in an extended exercise
set.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 340

QUESTION 53 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
When designing an INITIAL exercise program for a client who has postural instability and hip
mobility issues, which exercise should be included because it improves core stability and hip
mobility and stability?
The Correct Answer is:

Glute bridge
Why?
This response is correct. The glute bridge is a supine exercise that begins with the hips and knees
bent and feet flat on the floor. The individual performing the exercise engages his or her core to
stabilize the lumbar spine and then activates the glutes to extend the hips and lift the torso in line
with the thighs, creating a ―bridge‖ from the knees down to the shoulders (which are in contact
with the floor or mat). This position is held for several seconds before returning to the starting
position prior to initiating another repetition.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 266

QUESTION 54 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Which of the following statements represents the MOST effective feedback for helping a client
correctly complete his first set of the bench press exercise using a barbell?
The Correct Answer is:

―Great job of keeping your posture, now try widening your hand position
slightly and you’ll have better control of the bar.‖
Why?
Research indicates that corrective feedback should do three things:
- provide reinforcement for what was done well
- correct errors
- motivate clients to continue practicing and improving
This answer is correct because it has these aspects.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 54

QUESTION 55 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
You are working with a new client who has been diagnosed as having borderline hypertension and
has a physician’s release for exercise. In addition to designing an appropriate exercise program for
her, you ask her to complete a three-day food record. Which of the following journal entries would
be MOST important to address given her borderline hypertension?
Your Choice was:
Breakfast: oatmeal, ½ grapefruit, banana, and 1 cup coffee (12 oz)
The Correct Answer is:

Lunch: roast beef and cheddar cheese sandwich, chips, and 12 oz regular
soda
Why?
The DASH eating plan was developed to help people with hypertension reduce their blood
pressure. It is based on a diet that is low in fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, red meat, sodium, and
sweets. This meal has a sandwich that has red meat and is high in fat, chips that are most likely
high in fat and sodium, and a regular soda that would be high in sugar. This is the food journal
entry that would be most important to address given this client’s diagnosis of borderline
hypertension. It would also be the journal entry to address with most clients looking to lose weight
and improve health.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 186–187

QUESTION 56 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
According to research conducted with elite endurance athletes, what percentage of training time
should individuals training for peak performance in endurance events spend in zone 1 (HR < VT1),
zone 2 (HR > VT1 to HR < VT2), and zone 3 (HR > VT2)?
The Correct Answer is:

Zone 1 = 70–80%, zone 2 = less than 10%, zone 3 = 10–20%

Why?
This response has the correct percentage of time in each training zone based on research that has
looked at training load distribution among elite, Olympic, and world champion athletes in a variety
of endurance sports.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), pages 385 & 398–403

QUESTION 57 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Once a client is proficient at performing jumps in place and single linear jumps, which of the
following plyometric drills would provide the MOST appropriate intensity progression?
The Correct Answer is:
Multiple linear jumps
Why?
This response is correct, as intensity of plyometric drills increases according to the following
progression: jumping in place — single linear jumps — multiple linear jumps — multidirectional
jumps — hops and bounds —depth jumps.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 346

QUESTION 58 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
A regular client says that he feels ―good‖ and is ―ready to exercise‖ during the warm-up of a
training session that will specifically focus on upper-body strength training. Then, while performing
a dumbbell shoulder press exercise with the same weight that he used while performing 10
repetitions three days prior, he groans in pain and drops the dumbbell on his thigh. You ask him
what is wrong, and he responds by saying, ―I hurt my shoulder yesterday and I have been in pain
ever since.‖ This scenario is BEST defined as what type of negligence?
Your Choice was:
Gross negligence

The Correct Answer is:

Contributory negligence
Why?
This answer is correct, because the client knew of his injury from the previous day, yet chose to
withhold this information from the personal trainer, resulting in him causing pain in his shoulder
and dropping the dumbbell. At the start of the session, the client should have alerted the trainer
about his injured shoulder so that the trainer could adapt the training session for the day.
Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual, page 605

QUESTION 59 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
You are trying to implement forward lunges into a client’s program, but he is having difficulty
performing the exercise correctly. Which exercise would be MOST appropriate to include in his
exercise program to help him eventually progress to a forward lunge?
The Correct Answer is:
Half-kneeling lunge rise
Why?
This response is correct, as the objective of a half-kneeling lunge rise is to teach the mechanics of
the rising portion of a lunge exercise.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual (4th ed.), page 295

QUESTION 60 VIEW ANSWER & DETAILS »

Question:
Which of the following movements would increase the challenge during a balance exercise?
Your Choice was:
Moving from a standing position with the feet together to a staggered stance
The Correct Answer is:

Bringing the feet together from a standing position with the feet at shoulder
width
Why?
This response is correct. Moving the feet from shoulder width to a feet-together position would
decrease the base of support. When the base of support is decreased, stability is decreased and
there is an increased balance challenge.
ACE’s Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 115–116