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 Steps to PASS NASM:
1- BUY THE GUIDE, READ THE GUIDE, DON’T READ
THE TEXTBOOK. The guide will say READ THIS or
DON’T READ THIS… It’s only for those that have the
book AND want to read. We don’t suggest reading
ANY OF THE 7th EDITION.
2- READ THE BOOK (How to Become A Successful
Personal Trainer over 400+ 5-stars on Amazon)
3- USE THE MAP BELOW to pass in 7-days (included
with online subscription ONLY) Email
info@showupfitness.com to get upgraded for only
$25 for access to the MAP, Audio Book, & Quizzes
($200 value)

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 READ THIS BEFORE PROCEEDING:
Show Up Fitness is NOT affiliated with NASM. How to read the GUIDE…These are the terms to
know, tables to read, anatomy terms to memorize and what to skip. YOU DO NOT READ TO
READ THE TEXTBOOK. For the more neurotic students that feel they MUST read it (to each their
own), we will highlight some chapters that you can, BUT I for most of you, don’t.

THIS GUIDE IS PROPERTY OF SHOW UP FITNESS AND UNDER LEGAL RAMIFICATIONS WILL BE
SUBJECT TO FURTHER INVESTIGATION IF GIVEN OR SOLD TO ANOTHER PERSON(S) NOT
NAMED SHOW UP FITNESS.

The chapters to know VERY WELL are 7,11-13, 21. THAT’S it.

Email Chris@showupfitness.com for more information about our two-

month personal training internships in Los Angeles, San Diego, weekend
seminars or to join our online program to become a qualified SUF-CPT, I’d
love to help - IT’S TIME TO SHOW UP!

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My name is Chris Hitchko and I’ve taught over 1,000-personal trainers. I have my B.S. In
Kinesiology, C.S.C.S. I’m the owner of Show Up Fitness with gyms in Santa Monica, West
Hollywood, San Diego and 16+ years of experience. We developed Show Up Fitness Certification
(SUF-CPT) an online, on-demand and in person two-month personal training internship and as
Dr. Chad Waterbury said, SHOW UP FITNESS – WHERE GREAT TRAINERS ARE MADE! My goal is
to change the fitness industry and make it respectable. The average personal trainer who gets
hired at a corporate gym quits within the first 12-months. I want to change that. If you’re looking
for practical aspects of personal training, read my book:

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Instructor Meagan Harbison IG: Act7ve / YOUTUBE

Learn why 90% of certified personal trainers quit within a year of getting certified…
How to Become A Successful Personal Trainer.

The NASM CPT exam is proctored at a facility (see their website). You need to have your
CPR/AED completed. The exam is 120 questions and you’ll be given 120-minutes (2-hours).
The questions are all multiple choice.
According to NASM:
Domain 1: Basic and Applied Sciences and Nutritional Concepts 17%
Domain 2: Assessment 18%
Domain 3: Program Design 21%
Domain 4: Exercise Technique and Training Instruction 22%
Domain 5: Client Relations and Behavioral Coaching 12%

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 Domain 6: Professional Development and Responsibility 10%
In this document, I’ll highlight random questions in the text that you’ll be tested on, such as
page V (National Academy of Sports Medicine Code of Professional Conduct), Refer the client to
the appropriate medical practitioner when, at a minimum, the certified member: Becomes
aware of any change in the clients health status or medication.

VOCAB WORDS: KEY TERMS / Flashcards

TOP 10 VOCAB WORDS:
- Relative flexibility- the body’s tendency to take the path of least resistance.
- Autogenic inhibition - states that a prolonged golgi tendon stimulation inhibits
muscle spindles of the same muscle.
- Reciprocal inhibition - when an agonist receives a signal to contract an inhibitory
signal is sent to its antagonist muscle which lengthens.
- Synergistic dominance - when a synergist muscle takes over for an agonist muscle
that exhibits a decrease in neural drive.
- Precontemplation- not thinking about working out (Stage 1 of change).
- Gluconeogenesis - creation of new glucose via non carbohydrate substrates, such as
protein.
- Extrinsic motivation - reward/recognition (ex: winning 1st place in a race, cash prize,
trophy)
- Agonist – Prime move for a lift i.e. Military Press (deltoid; synergist triceps,
antagonist lats), Bench press (chest; synergist triceps, antagonist posterior deltoid),
Squats (quads knee / glutes hip; synergist hamstrings, antagonist psoas.
- Heart Anatomy – SA Node (pacemaker of the heart), pulmonary artery (CO2 AWAY
from the heart), Atriums (hold blood), 140/90 hypertension (systolic / diastolic) PHA
= Peripheral Heart Action: Squats to Push-Ups (upper – lower body exercise).
- OPT Model Acute Variables: Rest, Reps, Intensity, Tempo.
Davis Law- states that soft tissue molds along a line of stress.
Altered reciprocal inhibition - overactive agonist muscle decreases neural drive to a
functional antagonist muscle.
Sliding filament theory- muscle contraction involving actin & myosin sliding past one another
shortening muscle during concentric muscle action.
Intrinsic motivation - you feel a sense of satisfaction, belonging (ex: a grandma is happy
because she can play with her grandkids due to exercising regularly)
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All-or-nothing principle - motor units can’t vary amount of force they generate, they either
contract maximally or not at all.
Length-tension relationship - resting length if a muscle and the tension it can produce at this
length, AKA relationship between actin & myosin (myosin is the larger myofilament)
Principle of specificity-states that the body will adapt to specific demands that are placed on
it.
Neuromuscular specificity - refers to speed of contraction & exercise selection.
Mechanical specificity - refers to weight & movement placed on the body.
Type I vs Type II muscle fibers: Sprinter = 2 (fast twitch) marathon runner = 1 (slow twitch).
Type 1 = aerobic / fat utilization, Type 2 = carbs.
Bio Energetics: Phosphagen = high intense / explosive with long recovery (when creatine is
used) Glycolysis = middle (mod intensity) Oxidation = low intense / short rest period.
STATES OF CHANGE
Precontemplation- not thinking about working out
Contemplation- thinking about working out within 6months
Preparation- exercising but not regularly
Action- exercising regularly but not for 6+ months
Maintenance- exercising regularly for 6+ months
Termination- never going back, not giving into temptations/old habits
PLANES OF MOTION
Sagittal- divides body into left & right halves, actions: flexion & extension
Common exercises: squat, RDL, bicep curls, Tricep extensions, chinup
Frontal- divides body into anterior (front) & posterior (back) halves, actions: abduction &
adduction Common exercises: lat raises, jumping jacks, band walks
Transverse- divides body into superior(above) & inferior(below) halves, actions: rotation
Common exercises: chest flies, reverse flies, curtsy lunge, cable rotation

HEALTH
BMI (Body Mass Index = height/weight)
• Normal/healthy = 18.5-24.9
• Overweight = 25-29.9
• Obese = 30+
Blood pressure
• High blood pressure = Hypertension, 140/90
• Normal blood pressure = 120/80 or below

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• Systolic = top number
• Diastolic = bottom number
Heart
• Atria (atrium) = superior chambers of the heart, act as a reservoir
• Ventricles = inferior chambers of the heart
• Arteries = blood vessels that go away from the heart
• Veins = blood vessels that go toward the heart
• Sinoatrial node (SA node) = pacemaker of the heart
• Left ventricle = delivers oxygenated blood to the rest of the body
• Right atria = gathers deoxygenated blood from the body
• Capillaries = smallest blood vessels, site of exchange of elements between blood & tissue
• Stroke volume = amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction
Equations
• Lean body mass = scale weight - fat mass
• Tanaka = 208 - (.7 x age)
• HRR = (HR max - HRrest) x target intensity + HR rest
***Heart Rate Reserve ~ Karvonen method = target heart rate***
Performance Test
• Bench press = strength
• Push-up = endurance
• Shark skill = lower body agility (single leg hop back & forth into correct boxes)
• 40yd dash = max speed
• LEFT Test = agility (run, back pedal, shuffle, Carioca, sptint)
• Pro shuttle 5-10-5 = agility (run 5 yds, run 10yds back, run 5yds back)
Cardio Test
• YMCA = step onto 12” box for 1min aiming for 96steps for total of 3min
• Rockport “Talk Test” = walk mile as fast as you can
• 1.5Mile = run 1.5miles as fast as you can
Cardio Zones
• Zone 1 = poor, 65-75% HR
• Zone 2 = good/fair, 76-85% HR
• Zone 3 = very good, 86-95% HR
• Test HR after cardio testing to determine where your client lies
BALANCE EXERCISE
• Balance Stabilization - no movement in balancing leg (ex: SL balance to reach, SL balance)
• Balance Strength - full range of motion in balancing leg (ex: SL squat, SL RDL)

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• Balance power - dynamic movement to controlled (multiplanar hop to stabilization,
multiplanar SL box hop up with stabilization)
CORE EXERCISE
• Core Stabilization - no spinal movement(ex: plank, floor bridges, floor prone cobra)
• Core Strength - little spinal movement (ex: reverse crunch, MB crunches)
• Core power - fast power (MB oblique throw, soccer throw, MB wood chop throw)
• Local muscles= stabilize spine, near vertebrae (multifidius, TVA, QL, pelvic floor muscle)
• Global muscles= superficial, move trunk, concentric force & eccentric deceleration
(Obliques,
Erector spinae, Lats, Psoas, Rectus Abdominis)
PLYOMETRIC EXERCISE
• Plyo Stabilization - little joint movement, 3-5sec holds on landing (ex: squat jump with
with stabilization, box jump up with stabilization)
• Plyo Strength - full range of motion, repetitive (ex: squat jump, tuck jump, butt kick)
• Plyo power - functional, fast/explosive (ex: ice skaters, SL power step up)
BALANCING PROGRESSIONS
• Proprioceptively challenging: floor -> balance beam -> half foam roller -> foam pad ->
balance disc -> wobble board -> bosu ball
• Body position: bilateral/stable -> unilateral/stable -> bilateral unstable-> unilateral unstable
FLEXIBILITY TRAINING
• Corrective (static stretching) - 1-3 sets, 30sec [phase 1]
• Active (active-isolated stretching) - 1-3sets, 1-2sec holds, 5-10reps [phase 2, 3, 4]
• Functional (dynamic stretching) - 1set, 10-15reps, 3-10exercises [phase 5] ex: prisoner
squat
• Self myofascial release (SMR) for every time you stretch
SAQ
• Speed = the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible (ex: 40yd dash)
• Agility = the ability to accelerate/decelerate as fast as possible (ex: LEFT drill, figure 8)
• Quickness = the ability to react in all 3 planes of motion (ex: ladders, side shuffle)
• Different population: Youth = red light green light Seniors = stand up to figure 8
• Beginners should wait 48-72hours before attempting SAQ drills again
• SAQ cues= knees straight ahead, neutral spine
Front side mechanics
• Triple flexion of lead leg, hip flexion, knee flexion, dorsiflexion
• Ex: During sprinter drills, what should the foot position be when it strikes the ground?
Answer: Dorsiflexed

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Backside mechanics
. Triple extension: hip extension, knee extension, plantarflexion
. Ex: What should the trailing leg look like during cable rotations? Answer: triple extension
HUMAN MOVEMENT SYSTEM
• Nervous system= provides a communication network within the body, stimulates human
movement through muscle contractions, provide sensory info to brain
• Neuron = basic unit of nervous system, comprised axon, cell body & dendrites
• Mechanoreceptors: sensitive to change in length of muscle & rate of change
muscle spindles (length/stretch) golgi tendon (tension)
• Skeletal system= provides framework of our body, supports & protects vital organs,
• Osteoporosis: reduced bone mineral density which increases risk of fracture
• Osteopenia: lower than normal bone mineral density, precursor to osteoporosis
• Muscular system= links nervous & skeletal system, generates forces that move human body
HUMAN MOVEMENT SCIENCE
• Open-chain exercises= distal extremities (hands/feet) move, ex: bench press, leg extensions
• Closed-chain exercises= distal extremities (hands/feet) fixated, ex: squat, chinup, push-up
• Agonist= main mover, Antagonist= opposite side of agonist (agonist= bicep antag= tricep)
• Synergist = assisting muscle, Stabilizer = stabilize (TVA, Rotator Cuff)
• Force-couple relationship= synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to
produce movement around a joint (ex: upper & lower traps, serratus anterior help move
scapulas upward).

Chapter 1 (1-2 total questions) Don’t read

Flashcard the following terms in the textbook. Focus on these terms and the quiz questions.
Once you’re getting 80% on the NASM portal tests, you’re ready to take the exam.
80% of adults do not meet the recommended activity guidelines.
BMI ranges:
18.5-24.9 = normal
25-29.9 overweight
30+ obese
Bad Blood Pressure: Hypertension = 140 / 90 (good = 120/80)
140 = systolic
90 = diastolic
LDL = Bad cholesterol
HDL = Good Cholesterol
Type I Diabetes = Childhood onset (less than 10% of diabetics)
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Type II diabetes = Insulin resistant
4/5 or 80% of people experience low back pain

Chapter 2 (1-2 total questions questions) Don’t read

SWOT Analysis (Strengths Weaknesses Opportunities Threats)
4P’s of marketing (Product, Place, Price, Promotion)
2.0 CEU’s is required to renewal NASM (.19 from CEU’s .1 CPR)

Chapter 3-4 (3-5 total questions) READ, NASM loves Motivational

Interviewing & BCT’s.
Amotivation (describes when someone is not motivated to engage)
Extrinsic motivation = reward / recognition
Intrinsic motivation = YOU feel a sense of satisfaction (they will when they feel competent or
a sense of belonging, or a sense of autonomy / control.)
BCT (Behavioral Change Techniques) =
Stages of Change: Pre = no plan to exercise, Contemplation = planning to in 6-months,
Preparation = Works out but not regularly, Action = Exercising regularly but not for 6-months,
Maintenance = 6+ months of exercise. Termination = never going back.
Specific Measurable Attainable Realistic Timely GOALS

I like to exercise because I enjoy taking care of my health and well-being is an example of?
a- Amotivation
b- Intrinsic Motivation
c- Extrinsic Motivation
d- Potent Motivation

Your client just started working out but hasn’t been doing it for 6-months, what stage if change
are they in?
a- Precontemplation
b- Contemplation
c- Preparation
d- Action

Your client wants to lose 10-lbs in 5-days, this isn’t a SMART goal due to…
a- Specific
b- Measurable

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c- Attainable
d- Timely

LISTEN TO THE PODCAST TO PASS NASM IN 7-DAYS & LEARN HOW TO PROGRAM, BUILD A
BOOK OF BUSINESS AND SELL AT 75%....

Chapter 5 (5 total questions) READ, but don’t get hung up on the details,
just what we’ve highlighted here…
Human Movement System:
Nervous system: Basic unit neuron (dendrite, axon, cell body)
CNS (brain & spinal column) PNS (everything coming out of spinal column &
mechanoreceptions…)
Mechanorecptors: Muscle Spindle (think stretch), Golgi Tendon Organ (think tension & foam
rolling), Joint Receptors.
Three stages of learning: Cognitive (learning), associative (beginning to understand),
Autonomous (learned skill, no thought)

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Skeletal System: 206 bones (axial 80, 126 in appendicular) basic unit: osteon (blasts BUILD up,
clasts CLAW down)
Longest bone in human body = femur, smallest = incus, malleus, stapes (inner ear)
Ligament = bone to bone (ACL)
Tendon = muscle to bone (Achilles)
Muscular System: Basic unit: Sarcomere, myofibrils (actin & myosin= larger of the two)
Glucose is stored in the muscle as glycogen.
Motor Unit = Single neuron cell and all the associated muscle fibers it innervates
Sliding Filament Theory = muscle contractions involving actin & myosin sliding past one
another shortening the muscle during a concentric muscle contraction.
Type I vs Type II muscle fibers
Capillaries = smallest blood vessels and the site of exchange of elements between the blood
and the tissues.

Your client just performed 1-set of 20-reps during the stabilization endurance phase on a
bosu ball. They looked down at the ground the entire time and had a fixed stare. What phase
of learning are they in?
A- Autonomic
B- Autonomous
C- Cognitive
D- Peripheral

Which connective tissue connects bone to bone?

a- Ligaments b- Fascia c- Tendons d- Myofibril

The Human Movement System (kinetic chain) consists of the

A) Muscular, respiratory, and digestive systems
B) Muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
C) Muscular, skeletal, and endocrine systems
D) Digestive, cardiac, and nervous systems

Neurons are comprised of which three parts?

A) Cell Body, Axon, Dendrites
B) Muscle spindle, Bones, Tissue
C) Lysosomes, Mitochondria, and Golgi complex
D) Axon, Mechanoreceptors, Dendrites

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Chapter 6 (3-5 total questions) Read once.
Heart anatomy: Upper chambers (atriums), lower chambers (ventricles)
SA Node = Pacemaker of the heart
3 types of muscle: Skeletal (650+ muscles), smooth (lining of arteries, veins & GI tract) and
Cardiac (heart)
Bradycardia = less than 60 BPM; Tachycardia greater than 100 BPM.
Average RHR = 70-80 (males 70, females 75)
Blood is comprised of 55% plasma, 45% red / white blood cells & platelets.
Adult heart holds between 4-6 L
Arteries go away from the heart
Veins go back to the heart.
Venules are small veins that drain from capillaries into larger veins.
Arterioles are small arteries that eventually divide into capillaries.
Valsalva maneuver = increase in intra-abdominal pressure / pregnant / High blood pressure
should breathe through the concentric & eccentric portions of the lift to avoid this.
Normal breathing rates = 12-16 breaths per minute.
Tachypnea = greater than 24 breaths per minute
Bradypnea = less than 8 breaths per minute
Dysfunctional breathing (slow breaths) are due to overactive sternocleidomastoid & scalenes
which can cause headaches, lightheaded and dizziness.
Catabolic hormones: cortisol (adrenal cortex / glands), glucagon (pancreas), and
Anabolic hormones: HGH (pituitary gland), testosterone (testes males via Leydig cells; adrenal
glands females), insulin (pancreas), IGF (liver)
Adrenal glands produce the catecholamines (adrenaline & norepinephrine)
Insulin vs glucagon (antagonistic of one another)
Thyroid hormones monitor BMR and the release of calcitonin
Gluconeogenesis is the creation of glucose via non-carbohydrate substrates such as protein:
gluco = glucose, neo = new, genesis = generation.
GI-tract anatomy & digestion (smooth muscle): Mastication, esophagus, stomach, small
intestine (duodenum, jejunum, Ileum), large intestine (ascending, transverse, descending.)

Vessels that transport blood away from the heart are known as
A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Venules
D) Atrium

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 What are smaller chambers located superiorly on either side of the heart that gather blood
returning to the heart much like a reservoir?
A) Atria
B) Ventricles
C) Atrioventricular node
D) Sinoatrial node

The amount of blood pumped out the heart with each contraction if referred to as
A) Heart rate
B) Cardiac output
C) Radial pulse
D) Stroke volume

Which blood vessels collect blood from capillaries and progressively merge with veins to
transport blood back to the heart?
A) Arterioles
B) Venules
C) Vena cava
D) Arteries

Resting oxygen consumption is approximately aka 1 MET?

A) 35 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (3.5 mL · kg−1 · min−1)
B) 35.0 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (3.5 mL · kg−1 · min−1)
C) 350 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (3.5 mL · kg−1 · min−1)
D) 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (3.5 mL · kg−1 · min−1)

Chapter 7 (5 total questions) READ

Sagittal: an imaginary line bisecting the body into right and left halves (flexion / extension)
Frontal: an imaginary line bisecting the body into anterior and posterior halves (abduction /
adduction)
Transverse: an imaginary line bisecting the body into superior and inferior halves (rotation)
Concentric: muscle action where muscle shortens, think acceleration.

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Eccentric: muscle action where muscles lengthen (stronger eccentrically), think negatives in
the gym.
Isometric: muscle action where the muscle stays the same length, think plank.
Isokinetic: speed of movement is fixed (high-end piece of equipment.)
Feed-forward activation: STABILZATION FACT, certain muscles automatically activate in
anticipation of a movement.
Open kinetic chain exercise: distal segment is moving i.e. leg curl / bench press / lat pull-down
Closed kinetic chain exercise: distal segment is fixed i.e. squats / pull-ups / lunges
Altered Reciprocal Inhibition: Agonist receives signal functional antagonist receives inhibitory
signal allowing it to lengthen.
Stretch Shortening Cycle: loading of a muscle eccentrically to prep for a rapid contraction
(jumping, NOT TINKERBELL JUMPS) the energy is stored in the series elastic component
(tendon) and the transition between the eccentric and concentric portion is rapid and termed
amortization.
Force velocity curve: As the velocity of a concentric action increases, its ability to produce force
DECREASES; during an eccentric action, as velocity increase, the ability to develop force also
INCREASES.
First Class Lever: Nodding the head
Second Class Lever: Plantarflexion / push-up.
Third Class Lever: Biceps Curl. Most limbs in the body are these (hamstring curl)
Agonist, synergist, stabilizer (always rotator cuff for upper, transverse abs for lower)

An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as

A) Distal
B) Superior
C) Inferior
D) Proximal

Which of the following is a third class lever?

A- Triceps Extension
B- Nodding the head
C- Hamstring Curl
D- Push-Up

During a bench press, which muscle(s) are the stabilizers?

A- Rotator Cuff
B- Triceps

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C- Biceps
D- Pectoralis Major

Which of the following is an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise?

A- Leg Curl
B- Leg Extension
C- Push-Up
D- Chest Fly

Chapter 8 (1-3 total questions) DON’T READ

Bio-energetics: ATP-PC (anaerobic metabolism) 0-30 seconds of work (power athletes,
sprinters, jumpers, Crossfitters, basketball, volleyball, body builders.)
Glycolytic – 30 sec – 3 min (middle distance 400m-800m)
Oxidative – 3-minutes (runners, cyclists, endurance athletes)
2-most important factors for bio-energetics: Duration & Intensity
Low intense = fat (triglycerides; after 75+ min protein is deaminated)
High Intense = carbs (glucose)
TDEE: Total Daily Energy Expenditure (RMR x AF + TEF + NEAT)

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Adenosine Triphosphate
ATP-PC System
Glycolysis
Oxidative System
Ketosis
First Law of Thermodynamics
Excess Post Oxygen Consumption
NEAT & TEF
Ventilatory Threshold 1 vs 2
Example Test Questions
What is the name of the storage form of glucose?
A- Glycogen B- Gluconeogenesis C- Triglyceride D- Macronutrient

The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids is called:
A) β-oxidation
B) Krebs cycle
C) Glycolysis
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 D) Gluconeogenesis

What is the proper order for oxidation of a free fatty acid?

E- Electron Transport Train, Krebs Cycle, Aerobic Glycolysis
F- Krebs Cycle, Glycolysis, Electron Transport Train
G- Electron Transport Train, Aerobic Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle
H- Aerobic Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, Electron Transport Train

As activity increases, the usage of carbohydrate as an energy source becomes 50% and 50% fat,
this metabolic marker is referred to as:
a. Ventilatory Threshold 1
b. Ventilatory Threshold 2
c. Ventilatory Threshold 3
d. Ventilatory Threshold 4

How many NON-ESSENTIAL Amino Acids are there?

a. 5
b. 9
c. 11
d. 20

A 100m sprinter primarily uses ________________ as her energy source?

a. ATP-PC
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidation
d. Deamination

SHOW UP FITNESS ADD VALUE

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Here’s an example of a MUCH easier method to program for a client who’s a female and wants
to lose fat, and grow a booty (SHOW UP FITNESS PROGRAM):
1- Core Pattern 1. Hip Thrust (hinge)
a. Core Pattern a. Push-Up (trainer help w/ a band)
b. Accessory b. Lateral Raises (trainer helps)
2- Core Pattern 2. Goblet Squat (Squat)
a. Core Pattern a. Chin-Ups Eccentric (trainer helps)
b. Accessory b. Bicycle Kicks (super slow 5x5)
3- Core Pattern 3. Step-Up (Unilateral)
a. Core Pattern a. Military Press
b. Game / Accessory b. RDLs into Planks / red light /
green
We will do 15-12-10 reps per circuit resting 1-min and always making sure the trainer:
- Says the clients name at least 3x per workout
- Gets involved (we don’t use bands for pull-ups or a machine, the trainer helps them)
- Teach them 1 new exercise (super slow bicycle kicks for a 5 con, 5 Ecc ratio is rare)
- Learn something new about your client by asking great questions

Chapter 9 & 10 (5 total questions) READ ONCE / SKIP 10. They won’t ask
you much on nutrition because they want you to get their cert.
Macro (protein / carbs / fats / technically alcohol due to 7cal / g) vs Micro nutrients (vitamins
& minerals)
Protein = 4cal per gram, 20-amino acids, complete protein (animal source) HCL breaks down
in the stomach, 1.2-1.4 g/kg for endurance athletes, 1.2-1.7g/kg for strength athletes, 1.4-
2.0g/kg for weightlifters (less than .8g/kg is too low for active folk.) 15-30% TEF, 10-35% AMDR
Carbs = 4cal per gram, monosaccharides (glucose, fructose, galactose), fiber 28g females, 30g+
males, broken down by the enzyme salivary amylase in the mouth, light activity 3-5g/kg of
body weight, mod/high intense 8-10g/kg, glucose is stored as glycogen in muscle and liver, 45-
65% AMDR
Fat = 9cal per gram, lingual lipase enzyme breaks down in the mouth, 20-35% AMDR, don’t
consume more than 10% saturated fat, western diet is 10:1 omega 6 to omega 3 (ideal would
be 4:1) LDL = bad fat (lousy), HDL = good fat (healthy), ADEK fat soluble vitamins
Water 60% human body, Figure 9-6 and intake concerns, during exercise 12-16oz every 10-
15min, replace fluid at 1.25x the amount of BW lost during an event
Banned Supps: DMAA, Ephedra, Testosterone (side effect of T = Gynecomastia)
Won’t be asked much on SUPPS because it’s beyond the scope of personal trainers.

WORDS TO FLASHCARD

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 Macronutrients
Micronutrients
Complete protein
High Biological Value Proteins (HBV)
Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)
Aerobic vs Anaerobic
Monosaccharides
Hypertonic vs Hypotonic drinks
Ghrelin
Creatine (.03g / kg : or 5g for saturation)
Osteoporosis
Anorexia
Amenorrheic
BCAA’s

Example Test Questions

Which of the following vitamins require fat to transport throughout the body?
A- Biotin B- Calcium C- Vitamin A D- Phosphorus

How many Liters of water are suggested for male clients?

A- 1.7 B- 2.7 C-3.7 D-4.7

What percentage of falls into the proper range for protein consumption?
A- 30% B-40% C-50% D-60%

How many calories are yield from 1g of fat?

A- 4 B- 7 C- 9 D- 13

How many grams of protein should an endurance athlete consume?

a. .8g/kg
b. 1.2g/kg
c. 1.7g/kg
d. 2.0g/kg

Optimal caffeine dosing is _________ mg/kg BW provided about 1-hour to exercise?

a. 0-2
b. 3-6
c. 6-9
d. 10+

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Chapter 11, 12, (20+ total questions) READ 2+ BIG CHAPTERS
When to stop an HRA Fig. 11-3
Men typically have 5-10 BPM less than females
NASM recommends trainers to test RHR at the radial pulse vs carotid
Healthy body fat for men 10-20%, 20-30% for women
Android obesity is worse due to the visceral fat (gynoid = more subcutaneous)
Men with a waist girth greater than 100 cm OR 40in at risk
Women with a waist girth greater than 88cm OR 35in at risk
Skinfold testing sites for Jackson Pollock
Difference between 3-site JP = chest / abs / thigh = men / women = Triceps, suprailiac thigh
Durnin-Womersley = biceps, triceps, subscapularis, suprailiac
3-4 site = less invasive, or can use BIA = Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis Body Fat Test by
sending weak currents through muscle (muscle is 70% water)
Gold Standard is Hydrostatic via Archimedes principle = fat is buoyant, muscle is dense.
Cardio testing: Most valid = VO2 max
Ratings of Perceived Exertion (RPE) NASM suggests 1-10
YMCA 3-Min test: 96 steps per minute for 3-minutes (use 11-13 Ratings)
Rockport Walk test : walk 1-mile as fast as possible
1.5 Mile run test = estimation of VO2max score. Like Rockport, but a run.
Ventilatory Threshold test 1 & 2:
1: aerobic test (can speak aka Talk Test)
2= anaerobic test cannot talk via Talk Test. Maintain highest sustainable pace for 20-minutes,
record HR over last 5-minutes.
POSTURE: 5-check-points – feet, knees, LPHC, Shoulders, Head
3-distortion Patterns: Pes Planus Distortion, Lower Cross, Upper Cross (pg. 386)
USE the following chart for Overactive aka short and Underactive aka lengthen muscles: Write
them all out and put OVERACTIVE / SHORT on one side and then the muscle on the other i.e.
Soleus (calf)
Top Overactive / shortened Muscles to memorize: Gastrocnemius, adductors, Psoas Major,
Latissimus Dorsi & Upper Traps.
Top Underactive / Lengthened muscles: VMO, Anterior Tibialis, Gluteus Max & med, Mid /
Lower traps, TVA (abdominals)
These muscles do not line up as agonist / antagonist. We review them in the NASM calls if you
want to learn how to pronounce and where they are, otherwise just memorize as over / short
vs under / lengthened.

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 Overactive / SHORT Underactive / Lengthened

Performance Tests:
Push-up (endurance), Bench (upper body strength), Squat (lower body strength)
Vertical Jump (lower body vertical power, ), Broad Jump (lower body horizontal power), LEFT
test (lower body lateral speed & agility), 40-yard dash (speed), Pro Shuttle 5-10-5 test
(acceleration & deceleration.)
Rest 2-minutes between all trials.
LEFT: 10-yards apart Sprint, backpedal, side shuffle x 2, carioca x 2, sprint
Pro Shuttle 5-10-5: 10 yards apart. Stand in ready position by middle cone: 1 – 2, 2 -3, 3-1 and
ends when client passes middle cone.
Considerations for special populations: Overweight (no single leg squat & modify OHS)
Young: endurance > strength, keep it fun!
Older: Skip single leg, modify OHS, keep standing (don’t go on the ground)
Prenatal: Modify OHS, Skip single leg, Standing only

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 WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Contraindication
Health Risk Assessment (HRA)
Android vs Gynoid obesity
Pes Planus (feet collapse, valgus/ adduction, internally rotated)
Lordosis vs kyphosis
Anterior vs Posterior
Valgus vs Varus

Example Test Questions

During the Overhead Squat Assessment, you notice that your clients knees buckle inward
(knee valgus), which of the following muscles needs to be strengthened?
A- Gluteus medius B- Adductor Complex C- Soleus D- Hip Flexors

2) What muscle(s) are MOST likely tight if a client demonstrates an arching low back during
the overhead squat assessment?
a) Hip Flexors c) Gluteus maximus
b) Transverse abdominus d) Multifidus

3) What muscles are most likely overactive and should be stretched when an athlete exhibits
an excessive forward lean?
a) Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex
b) Anterior Tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae
c) Hip Flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi, thoracolumbar fascia
d) Transverse abdominus, multifidus, internal oblique, diaphragm.

4) If a client demonstrates knees that cave in during the overhead squat assessment what
muscle(s) are MOST likely overactive?
A) Gluteus maximus c) Vastus medialis oblique
B) Gluteus medius d) Adductor complex

5) If a client has Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome, which of the following should be foam rolled?
A) Gluteus Maximus B) Gluteus Medius
C) Hip Flexors D) Anterior Tibialis

6) Which of the following assessments should be avoided for a pregnant client?

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A) Overhead Squat B) Single Leg Squat C) Pushing test D) Back Squat

7) Which of the following arteries is the most common for personal trainers to use?
A) Radial B) Brachial C) Carotid D) Femoral

8) Which of the following is considered systolic hypertension?

A) 110 B) 120 C) 130 D) 140

9) Which of the following is an undesirable body fat percentage for males?

A) 18% B) 19% C) 20% D) 21%

10) Which of the following would be a contraindication discovered during a health risk
assessment?
A) Client smokes a pack of cigarettes a day
B) Clients Mother passed away from a heart attack at age 50
C) Client has experienced angina within the past 3-days
D) Client has leg pain due to recent increase in soccer play

Chapter 13 ( 3-5 total questions) Read 1x

Optimal Performance Training Model: Three Levels & 5-phases:
1- Stabilization aka Unstable – 4-2-1-1 (eccentric) – Isometric – Concentric – Isometric,
0-90 seconds rest, 50-70%.
2- Super Sets = Stable into unstable: i.e. bench press into push up, pull-up TRX row,
squat into a step up
3- Muscular Development – 6-12 reps hypertrophy, 2-0-2-0, 0-60 seconds rest, 75-85%
4- Maximal strength – 1-5 reps, 85-100%, x-x-x-x, 2-5 minutes rest
5 SUPER Sets = Heavy into explosive = POWER: Bench Press into Plyo push-up, Jumps
into squats, Ball slams into heavy rows. 1-5 reps HEAVY / Light power = 30-45% of 1rm or
10% BW

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Superset (same muscle back to back in a set)
Movement Patterns

Example Test Questions

1. What is the most common plane of motion that people tend to train in?
a. Sagittal b) Frontal c) Transverse d) Coronal

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 2. Which of the following is the main purpose of phase 1 stabilization?
a. Hypertrophy c. Improve imbalances & techniques
b. increase prime mover strength d. Improve rate of force production

3. What is an example of a superset in phase 2 of the OPT-model?

a. Bench Press into a Chin-up
b. Bench Press into a Chest Fly
c. Bench Press into a Med Ball Throw
d. Bench Press into a Push-up

4. What is an example of a superset in phase 5 of the OPT-model?

a. Bench Press into a Chin-up
b. Bench Press into a Chest Fly
c. Bench Press into a Med Ball Throw
d. Bench Press into a Push-up

5. Which phase of the OPT model is common for Strongman competitions and football
linemen?
a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

Chapter 14 ( 3 total questions) Read 1x

Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness is the discomfort 1-3 days prior to working out, NOT LACTIC ACID.
Self-Myofascial Release (SMR) compresses myofascial (mechanical) OR stimulates the
mechanoreceptors / nociceptors (neurophysiological) which we hold for 30-seconds and will
relax a muscle due to autogenic inhibition.
Don’t foam roll anyone who has hypertension, cancer, osteoporosis, open wounds, or conditions
Static Stretching – reciprocal inhibition 1-3 sets for 30-seconds
Active Isolate Stretching -1-2 second holds via Reciprocal Inhibition
Dynamic Stretching Reciprocal Inhibition via Reciprocal Inhibition & sport specific exercises
(know prisoner squats, multiplanar lunges / rotations.)

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Relative Flexibility
Gastrocnemius ROM
Biceps Femoris ROM
Latissimus Dorsi ROM

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 Altered Reciprocal Inhibition
Synergistic Dominance
Davis Law
Example Test Questions
1. What is an example of a superset in phase 5 of the OPT-model?
a. Bench Press into a Chin-up
b. Bench Press into a Chest Fly
c. Bench Press into a Med Ball Throw
d. Bench Press into a Push-up

2. Which of the following states that prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the
muscle spindle of the same muscle?
A) Autogenic inhibition
B) Reciprocal inhibition
C) Excitation inhibition
D) Facilitation inhibition

3. The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement
patterns is called:
A) Muscle imbalance
B) Postural distortion patterns
C) Altered reciprocal inhibition
D) Relative flexibility

4. A tight psoas decreasing neural drive of the gluteus maximus is an example of what?
A) Synergistic dominance
B) Autogenic inhibition
C) Altered reciprocal inhibition
D) Arthokinetic dysfunction

5.How many repetitions are performed during an active stretch?

A) 1-3
B) 3-5
C) 5-10
D) 10+

Chapter 15 ( 3-5 total questions) Read 1x

Low intense 150-minutes / high intense 75-min
FITTE-VP = Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment, Volume & Progression
Tanaka Formula 208 – (.7 x age) = HR max equation to find the Target Heart rate
Fartlek training is speed play. Run a 100m on a track and then walk 100m, run 100m then walk
100m repeat x 12-rounds
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 Warm-Up for 5-10 minutes

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Know the 5-componets of health: Flexibility, body comp, muscular endurance &
strength & cardiorespiratory health.
HIIT vs SS (aerobic exercise)

1. The Tanaka Formula is a mathematical formula used to estimate an individual maximal heart
rate using which of the following formulas:
a) 208 – (.7xage)
b) 208 – (.65xage)
c) 220-age x .65
d) 220-age x.7

2. All of the following are benefits of a cool-down EXCEPT:

a) Encourages venous pooling of blood in the lower extremities
b) Gradually cool body temperature
c) Reduce heart and breathing rates
d) Restore physiological systems close to baseline

3.The Physical Activity Guidelines recommends adults should accumulate 150 minutes of
moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or
A) 30 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.
B) 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.
C) 95 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.
D) 60 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.

4. What does the P stand for within FITTE-VP

a) Periodization
b) Programming
c) Progression
d) Perturbation

5.Which stage of NASM’s cardiorespiratory training program consists of sport specific training
for most athletes?
a) Stage 2
b) Stage 3
c) Stage 4
d) Stage 5

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 Chapter 16 (1-2 total questions) Don’t read
Type I muscle fibers are aerobic, smaller and endurance. More stabilizers, deep and proximal
(rotator cuff, biceps, calves, neck muscles)
Drawing in technique can be seen during the exercise Marching.
Bracing is the co-contraction of the core.
Stabilization exercise (no spinal movement) = Prone Iso-Ab (plank) or Marching (bridge position
lifting legs up and down.)
Strength exercise (slight spinal movement) = Reverse crunch
Power Exercise (spinal movement) = Med Ball Throws
During Cable Rotations (strength exercise), the final leg position is called TRIPLE EXTENSION = hip
extension, knee extension, and ankle extension (plantarflexion.)

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Type 1 muscle fibers
Local vs Global muscles
Scoliosis

1. During the floor bridge, clients need to be cautious of:

a. Going too fast
b. Going too slow
c. Hyperextending the low back
d. Placing the toes in the air

2. The core stabilizers are made up of primarily what type of muscle fiber?
a. Type I
b. Type IIA
c. Type IIX
d. Type IIAB

3. Which of the following is an example of a local muscle?

a. Quadratus Lumborum
b. Rectus Abdominals
c. Latissimus Dorsi
d. Erector Spinae

Chapter 17 ( 3 total questions) Read 1x

The sensorimotor function is a combination of visual, somatosensory & vestibular which
comprises balance.
Anytime you see the words proprioceptive enriched environment, ALWAYS choose Stabilization
Endurance / phase 1 as the answer.
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Regressions and progressions on page 555.
Stabilization Balance exercise (no spinal movement) = Balance reach
Strength exercise (slight spinal movement) = Single leg squat
Power Exercise (spinal movement) = Side Jumps
Bosu Ball is the most advanced balance progression.

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Vestibular System
Single Leg Scaption (Shoulder exercise)

Example Test Questions

Balance is an example of _______________ and ______________.
A- Dynamic & neuromuscular efficiency B- Static & Dynamic C- Neuromuscular and poor
D - Dynamic and Proprioceptive

The proper progression from an Airex pad is to __________________

A- Half Foam Roll B- Balance Beam C- Single Leg D- BOSU Ball

Which one of the following is the key senses for balance?

A- Vestibular B- Digestive C- Cardiorespiratory D- Reactive

How we program at Show Up Fitness

Here’s an example of a MUCH easier method to program for a client who’s a male and wants
to gain some size (SHOW UP FITNESS PROGRAM):
4- Core Pattern 1. Bench Pres (Horizontal push)
a. Core Pattern a. Chin-Ups (trainer help w/ a band)
b. Accessory b. Biceps Curls (28’s) *new exercise
5- Core Pattern 2. Landmine press (Press)
a. Core Pattern a. Face Pulls Horizontal pull)
b. Accessory b. Bicycle Kicks (super slow 5x5)
6- Core Pattern 3. Goblet Squats (squat pattern)
a. Core Pattern a. Farmers Walks
b. Game / Accessory b. Push-ups into basketball shots
We will do 12-10-10 reps per circuit resting 1-min and always making sure the trainer:
- Says the clients name at least 3x per workout
- Gets involved (we don’t use bands for pull-ups or a machine, the trainer helps them)

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Chapter 18-19 (1-3 total questions) Don’t read
Reactive training is used interchangeable with plyometric.
Stabilization Plyo exercise = Squat Jumps with Stabilization (hold 3-5 seconds)
Strength Plyo exercise = Squat Jumps
Power Plyo Exercise = Ice Skaters (lateral jumps)
3 phases of the plyometric aka Reactive Training)
o 1= eccentric 2= amortization (extremely short) 3= concentric (explosive)
Quickness is the ability to react in all three planes of motion (sagittal, frontal, transverse.)
Agility is the ability to accelerate and deaccelerate as fast as possible.
Backside mechanics = triple extension.
Frontside mechanics = triple flexion. (always remaining a neutral neck and pelvis.)
Deadlift into a press and calf raise = Strength exercise
Power Clean / Clean & Press = Power Exercise
Youth populations should play red light green light
Elderly populations should do stand up to figure 8
Stabilization workout: Stability ball squat curl press, Stability ball chest press, Stability ball
row, single leg scaption, leg press. Then rest 0-90 seconds and repeat for 1-3 sets.

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Stretch Shortening Cycle (amortization)
Osteopenia
Sarcopenia
Ground Reaction Force

Example Test Questions

If your client were to perform 5 sets of 3 jumps what is the total volume for the exercise?
a- 10 b- 15 c-20 d- 8

During phase 1 of the OPT model, which of the following training systems is most
appropriate?
A- Vertical Loading B- Super Sets C- Drop Sets D- Horizontal
Loading

Which of the following is an example of a super set in phase II of the OPT model?
A- Bench Press into a Chest Fly B- Squats into a Jump C- Chest Fly into a Push-Up
D-Bench Press into a Push-Up

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 According to NASM, if a NEW client performs plyometrics on Monday, how long should
they wait?
a- 12-24 hours b- 24-36 hours c- 36-48 hours d- 48-72 hours
Which of the following is an example of a super set in phase V of the OPT model?
A- Bench Press into a Ball Slam B- Squat into a Jump C- Ball Squat Curl
Press into a press D- Plyo Push-Up into a Pull-Up

Chapter 20 (5-8 total questions) Read 1x

General Adaptation Syndrome = Dr. Hans Selye discovered how an organism (specifically rats)
adapt to a stressor.
4-2-1-1 tempo = 4= eccentric, 2- isometric, 1- concentric, 1- isometric (helpful pointer on 620)

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Said principle
Power
Post Activation Potentiation
Vertical Loading

Example Test Questions

What is the definition of power?
a- Work / speed b- Work x time c- Force x Velocity d- Force / Velocity

Your client has High Blood Pressure, which of the following training systems would be most
appropriate? A- Drop Sets B- 1RM Bench Press C- Super Sets D-Peripheral
Heart Action (PHA)

How to spot a military press?

a) Wrists b) Elbow c) Wrists and elbow d) none of these

Chapter 21 (10+ total questions) Read 1x & know OPT model better than
you do with you EX!!!
After the 5-10 min warm-up, activation techniques are used for the kinetic chain (core and
balance)
Plyos and SAQ (speed, agility and quickness would go next)
Resistance training exercise / patterns
Clients choice to make it FUN
Cool-down 5-10 minutes (Just so you know, this style of programming is absolutely terrible and
would absolutely not retain your clients. Just know this for the exam and then never use it.)
Muscles engaged during a squat pattern: Knee = quads, hips = glutes

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Muscles engaged during a hinge pattern: hip = glutes and hamstrings
Muscles engaged during a pulling pattern: lats, biceps, traps; actions = extension, retraction
Muscles engaged during a pushing pattern: Chest, triceps; actions = flexion, protraction
Muscles engaged during a pressing overhead pattern: Deltoids & triceps
Know the following variables:
Three Blocks of the OPT model: Stabilization, Strength & Power. The three blocks are broken
down into 5 phases. Phase 1 = Stabilization, Phases 2-4 = Strength, Phase 5 = Power:

Phase 1 OPT model Stabilization Endurance

Acute Variables are:
• 4-2-1-1 tempo
• 0-90 second rest period
• Vertical Loading
• 1-3 sets
• 50-70% intensity
• 4-6 weeks in duration (as with all phases)
• Important for correcting muscular imbalances, strengthening ligaments and tendons, and
anything associated with proprioception & neuromuscular efficiency.
Phase 2 OPT model Strength Endurance
pg. 705 Acute Variables are:
• Super Sets: Two exercises performed back to back without any rest:
• Bench Press into a Push-up; Squats into a step-up; Pull-Up into a single arm cable row;
Military Press into Scaption (NASM term for shoulder stabilization exercise.)
Phase 3 OPT model Muscular
Development pg. 706 Acute
Variables are:
• 2-0-2-0 tempo
• 0-60 second rest period
• Horizontal Loading
• 3-6 sets
• 75-85% intensity
• Important for adding size (hypertrophy is the opposite of atrophy, it means to grow the size
of muscle fibers.)
Phase 4 OPT model Maximal Strength pg.
708 Acute Variables are:
• X-X-X-X tempo
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• 3-5-minute rest period
• Horizontal Loading
• 3-5 sets
• 85-100% intensity
• Important for optimizing rate of force.
Phase 5 OPT model Power pg
711 called PAP
Acute Variables are:
• X-X-X-X tempo
• Super Sets (like Phase 2), BUT it’s strength (1-5 reps Heavy) followed by power (1-10 reps
explosive):
• Bench Press into Plyometric Push-up; Pull-Up into Ball Slams; Squats into Jumps.
• 3-5 minute rest period
• Horizontal Loading
• 3-6 sets
• 85-100% intensity for exercise 1, followed by 30-45% or 10% of body weight for exercise 2.
• Important for optimizing rate of force and explosiveness.

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Said Principle
Micro vs Meso vs Macro Cycle – Periodization
Linear vs Undulating Periodization

Which phase of the OPT model uses a Super Set combination such as a Squat (rest 1-minute)
into an Ice Skater?
A- Stabilization B- Hypertrophy C- Strength D- Power

Which phase of the OPT model uses an X-X-X-X tempo?

A- Stabilization B- Maximal Strength C-Hypertrophy D- Maximal Power

Which phase of the OPT model uses a 0-60 second rest period?
A- Stabilization B- Hypertrophy C- Maximal Strength D- Power

Which phase of the OPT model uses a 2-0-2-0 tempo?

A- Stabilization B- Hypertophy C- Power D-Non-of the above

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 Which phase of the OPT model uses a super set combo such as a Bench press into a Push-
Up? A- Stabilization B- Strength Endurance C- Hypertrophy D- Maximal Strength

Which phase of the OPT model is a hybrid form of training that promotes increased
stabilization endurance, hypertrophy, and strength by using superset techniques in which a
more-stable exercise is immediately followed with a stabilization exercise with similar
biomechanical motions.
A- Phase 1. Stabilization Endurance Training
B- Phase 2. Strength Endurance Training
C- Phase 3. Hypertrophy Training
D - Phase 4. Maximal Strength Training

Chapter 22-23 (1-2 total questions) Don’t Read

The Pallof exercise is an anti-rotational exercise
The TRX Rip Trainer is an asymmetrical resistance exercise

WORDS TO FLASHCARD
Anti-rotational Exercise

Example Test Questions

During phase 1 of the OPT model, which of the following training systems is most
appropriate?
B- Vertical Loading B- Super Sets C- Drop Sets D- Horizontal
Loading
Which of the following is an example of a super set in phase II of the OPT model?
B- Bench Press into a Chest Fly B- Squats into a Jump C- Chest Fly into a Push-Up
D-Bench Press into a Push-Up

Which of the following is an example of a super set in phase 5 of the OPT model?
B- Bench Press into a Ball Slam B- Squat into a Jump C- Ball Squat Curl
Press into a press D- Plyo Push-Up into a Pull-Up

When performing a biceps curl (concentric), the cable should be positioned to offer
resistance in a vertical motion against elbow _______________________, pulling the elbow
into _____________?
A- Flexion / Extension B- Extension / Extension C- Flexion / Flexion D-
Extension/Flexion

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 TEST QUESTIONS
1) According to research, endurance is best achieved by performing what number of repetitions at 50-70% of the
1RM
a) 1-5 c) 6-12
b) 12-20 d) 1-10

2) What muscle(s) are MOST likely tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates an arching low back during the
overhead squat assessment?
a) Hip Flexors c) Gluteus maximus
b) Transverse abdominus d) Multifidus

3) The Four P’s of Marketing include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Price c) Product
b) Plan d) Place

4) A proprioceptively enriched environment challenges an individual's____

a) Internal balance and stabilization c) Maximum cardiac output
b) Maximum strength capabilities d) Hypertrophy gains

5) What are smaller chambers located superiorly on either side of the heart that gather blood returning to the
heart much like a reservoir?
a) Atria c) Ventricles
b) Atrioventricular node d) Sinoatrial node

6) Which of the following is not a testing site for body fat according to the durnin womersley test?
a) Bicep c) Thigh
b) Tricep d) Suprailliac

7) What muscles are most likely overactive and should be stretched when an athlete exhibits an excessive forward
lean?
a) Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex
b) Anterior Tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae
c) Hip Flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi, thoracolumbar fascia
d) Transverse abdominus, multifidus, internal oblique, diaphragm.

8) What are the three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome?

A) Increased endurance, increased strength, increased power
B) Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion
C) Delayed-onset muscle soreness, increased motor unit recruitment, joint pain and muscle strains
D) Mechanical specificity, neuromuscular specificity, metabolic specificity

9) When the nervous system properly recruits the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and
dynamically stabilize the body’s structures in all three planes of motion, this is an example of:
a) serial distortion patterns.
b) structural efficiency.
c) neuromuscular efficiency.
d) equilibrium patterns.

10) Which of the following is not a key predictor of exercise participation and adherence?
a) Popularity of chain c) Supportive environment
b) Cost of membership d) Convenient location

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11) The principle of ______________________ indicates that a synergist muscle will substitute for a prime mover
exhibiting decreased neural drive.
a) Autogenic Inhibition c) Synergist Dominance
b) Reciprocal Inhibition d) Sarcopenia

12) Which stage of change has zero temptation to engage in the old behavior and exhibit 100% self-efficacy in all
previously tempting situations
a) Contemplation c) Maintenance
b) Preparation d) Termination

13) What muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive) if a client demonstrates knees move inward during the
overhead squat assessment?
A) Gluteus medius c) Psoas
B) Latissimus dorsi d) Soleus

14) People in this stage of the Stages of Change Model do not exercise but are thinking about becoming more
active in the next 6 months.
a) Precontemplation c) Contemplation
b) Preparation d) Action

15) If a client demonstrates knees that cave in during the overhead squat assessment what muscle(s) are MOST
likely tight (overactive)?
A) Gluteus maximus c) Vastus medialis oblique
B) Gluteus medius d) Adductor complex

16) Connective tissue, such as tendons and ligaments, do not repair easily because?
a) They’re too vascular c) They’re avascular
b) They’re sarcoplasmic d) Avascular Necrosis

17) The concept of ________states that prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindles of
the same muscle.
a) reciprocal inhibition c) excitation inhibition
b) facilitation inhibition d) autogenic inhibition

18) What form of flexibility applies gentle force to an adhesion “knot,” altering the elastic muscle fibers from a
bundled position into straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle or fascia?
A) Active-isolated stretching c) Static stretching
B) Self-myofascial release d) Functional flexibility

19) Obesity is a condition of being considerably overweight and refers to a person with a body mass index (BMI) of
a) Less than 18.5 c) Between 18.5-24.9
b) Between 25 to 29.9 d) Greater than 30

20) The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is called:
A) Muscle imbalance c) Postural distortion patterns
B) Altered reciprocal inhibition d) Relative flexibility

21) If a client demonstrates their heals coming off the ground during the overhead squat, which muscle(s) are
MOST likely tight (overactive)?
A) Teres major c) Latissimus dorsi
B) Soleus d) Anterior Tibialis

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22) Which of the following is a process created to produce internalized experiences to support or enhance exercise
participation?
a) Positive Self-Talk c) Exercise Imagery
b) SMART Goals d) Verbal Communication

23) According to NASM, which of the following is a performance test?

A) LEFT Test
B) Long Jump
C) YMCA Step Test
D) Body Fat Calipers
E) Answers A & B

24) Which of the following is a beneficial adaptation to cardiorespiratory exercise?

a) Decreases resting heart rate c) Decreases stroke volume
b) Increases arterial blood pressure d) Increases heart rate at any given level of work

25) What percentage of the US population is estimated not to engage in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical
activity?
a) 25% c) 35 %
b) 65 % d) 75 %

26) Type 2 diabetes is associated with obesity, particularly abdominal obesity, and accounts for _____ __ _____% of
all diabetes.
a) 5 to 10% c) 40 to 45%
b) 50 to 55% d) 90 to 95%

27) What muscles are possibly tight (shortened) if a client’s feet turn out during the Overhead Squat Assessment?
a) Anterior tibialis c) Posterior tibialis
b) Lateral gastrocnemius d) Gluteus medius

28) A tight psoas decreasing neural drive of the gluteus maximus is an example of what?
a) Synergistic dominance c) Autogenic inhibition
b) Altered reciprocal inhibition d) Arthokinetic dysfunction

29) Approximately how many amino acids does the body use?
a) 8 c) 10
b) 20 d) 30

30) The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids is called:
a) β-oxidation (beta) c) Krebs cycle
b) Glycolysis d) Gluconeogenesis

31) According to research, hypertrophy is achieved by training with what percentage of 1RM
a) 50-70% c) 75-85%
b) 85-100% d) 30-45%

32) The ----------- is the primary pace maker of the heart

a) Sinoatrial node c) Atrioventricular node
b) Atriums d) Ventricles

33) The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and
from all body positions, during functional activities is known as
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 a) Quickness c) Power
b) Speed d) Agility

34) Which of the following is an example of a “total body power” exercise?

a) Barbell Clean c) Single-leg Squat Touchdown
b) Bench Press d) Ball Dumbbell Cobra

35) What muscles are possibly weak (lengthened) if a client’s feet flatten during the Overhead Squat Assessment?
a) Bicep femoris c) Latissimus dorsi
b) Soleus d) Anterior tibialis

36) When performing the Overhead Squat Assessment, how many repetitions should the client complete?
a) 2 c) 3
b) 5 d) 7

37) Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than:

a) 120/80 c) 110/75
b) 130/85 d) 140/90

38) Which of the following assessments BEST measures cardiovascular efficiency?

a) LEFT Test c) Bioelectrical Impedance
b) 1.5 Mile Run d) Davies Test

39) Which of the following best describes a length-tension relationship?

a) The length at which a muscle is under tension
b) The greater the length of a muscle, the greater the tension, therefore allowing the most force to be
generated
c) The shorter the length of a muscle, the less the tension, therefore allowing the most force to be generated
d) The length at which a muscle can produce the greatest force

40) Muscle spindles are sensitive to:

a) A change in tension and the rate at which tension changes
b) A change in muscle length and the rate at which length changes
c) Changes in articular tension
d) A change in joint pressure

41) When performing the single-leg squat, what check point should be observed?
a) Ankles c) Knees
b) Hip d) Lower back

42) Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training model supersets a “barbell bench press” with a “medicine
ball chest pass”?
a) Power Training c) Strength Endurance Training
b) Hypertrophy d) Maximal Strength Training

43) Which of the following is an example of a “back strength” exercise?

a) Single-leg Cable Row c) Single-arm cable row
b) Soccer Throw d) Pull-up

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44) Which of the following is the proper intensity for a client in phase 5 of the OPT model?
a) 10-30% of 1rm b) 30-45% of 1rm
b) 75-85% of 1rm d) 50-70% of 1rm

45) The core is defined as which of the following?

a) Levator-pelvic-hip complex c) Lumbo-pubic-hip complex
b) Levator-pubic-head complex d) Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

46) When using medicine balls for their explosive power capabilities, high-velocity movements will require
a) A lighter ball, generally less than 10% an individual’s body weight
b) A smaller ball, generally less than 10 inches in diameter
c) A larger ball, generally 20 inches in diameter
d) A heavier ball, generally greater than 10% an individual’s body weight

47) The core stabilizers are made up of primarily what type of muscle fiber?
a) Type I c) Type II A
b) Type II X d) None of the above

48) The storage form of carbohydrates is called:

A) Amino acids c) Glycogen
B) Triglycerides d) ATPase

49) Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?

a) Squats c) Lat Pull down Machine
b) Machine Leg Extension d) Bench press

50) Which energy system creates ATP from a phosphocreatine molecule?

A) ATP-PC c) Aerobic glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle d) Oxidation

51) The reverse crunch is considered what type of core exercise?

a) Core-stabilization c) Core-strength
b) Core-power d) All of the above

52) A floor prone cobra is considered what type of exercise?

a) Core-strength c) Core-power
b) Core-stabilization d) All of the above

53) Which of the following is NOT true regarding reactive training?

a) Increases resting heart rate c) Increases firing frequency (rate coding)
b) Increases rate of force production d) Increases motor unit recruitment

54) A rotation chest pass is considered what type of exercise?

a) Core-strength c) Core-stabilization
b) Core-power d) All of the above\

55) All of the following are true regarding reactive training, EXCEPT:
a) it increases motor unit recruitment. c) it increases maximal strength
b) it increases firing frequency (rate coding) d) it increases rate of force production

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56) Which plane of motion bisects the body into upper and lower halves, allowing for rotational movement?
a) Sagittal c) Frontal
b) Transverse d) Coronal

57) The three phases of plyometric training, in order, are:

a) eccentric, amortization, and concentric.
b) eccentric, concentric, and amortization.
c) concentric, eccentric, and amortization.
d) concentric, amortization, and eccentric.

58) What is defined as the science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the
human body and the effects produced by these forces?
a) Biochemistry c) Biomechanics
b) Functional Anatomy d) Exercise Physiology

59) A Single-leg Squat Touchdown is what type of exercise?

a) Balance-stabilization c) Balance-Strength
b) Balance-corrective d) Balance-power

60) Which of the following is an accurate description of front-side mechanics?

a) Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee
extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis
b) alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee extension, hip
flexion, and neutral pelvis
c) Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee
extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis
d) Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion,
hip flexion, and neutral pelvis

61) An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as

A) Lateral c) Superior
B) Distal d) Proximal

62) Core-stabilization exercises should adhere to which of the following tempos?

a) 4/1/2/1 c) 2/2/2/2
b) 4/2/1/1 d) 1/0/1/1

63) All of the following are benefits of a cool-down EXCEPT:

A) Restore physiological systems close to baseline
B) Encourages venous pooling of blood in the lower extremities
C) Gradually cool body temperature
D) Reduce heart and breathing rates

64) Physical Activity Guidelines recommends adults should accumulate 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic
activity every week or
A) 30 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.
B) 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.
C) 95 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.
D) 60 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.

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65) Which of the following compounds are considered the CHIEF source of energy for all bodily functions and
muscular exertion?
a) Proteins c) Fats
b) Water d) Carbohydrates

66) Consumption of which of the following are associated with lower incidence of heart disease, lower incidence of
cancer, maintaining good intestinal motility, and helps regulate the body’s absorption of glucose?
a) Fiber c) Water
b) Protein d) Lipids

67) When performing the Squat Jump with Stabilization exercise, how long should a client hold the landing
position?
a) 1-2 seconds c) 3-5 seconds
b) 5-7 seconds d) 8-10 seconds

68) _____ simply means creating a purposeful system or plan to achieve a specific goal.
a) Program design c) Goniometric assessment
b) Reactive training d) Exercise imagery

69) Which of the following is an example of a peripheral heart action set?

a) Bench Press into a Push-Up c) Push-Up into a Squat
b) Squat into a Jump d) Jump Squat into a Power Clean

70) _____ are the most fundamental components of designing a training program that determine the amount of
stress placed on the body and what adaptations the body will incur.
a) Power adaptations c) Acute variables
b) Motor units d) Formed elements

71) A rest interval of 20-30 seconds replenishes what percentage of ATP/CP stores?
a) 10 c) 30
b) 50 d) 90

72) The _____ states that the body will particularly adapt to the demands placed on it.
a) principle of overload c) principle of specificity
b) principle of individualism d) principle of progression

73) Actin (thin) and myosin (thick) are the primary components of myofilaments that make which of the following?
a) Endomysium c) Sarcomere
b) Fascicle d) Myofibril

74) Mabel is 75 years old. She exhibits upper cross syndrome and her arms fall forward during the overhead squat.
What muscle is likely overactive?
a) Gastrocnemius c) Mid/Lower traps
b) Pectorals d) Adductor

75) What is the purpose of phase 1 of the OPT model?

a) Increase total body strength c) Improve muscle imbalances

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 b) Increase lactate threshold d) Increase rate of force production

76) What is an example of a “total body” exercise most appropriate for the starting phase of the OPT model?
a) Step-up to balance, curl, press c) Barbell clean
b) Squat, shrug, calf raise d) Squat, curl, press

77) Which of the following is a strategy within a fitness professionals’ scope of practice that focuses on the ability to
recognize and regulate one’s behavior?
a) Intervention c) Disassociation
b) Self-Monitoring d) Cognitive Restructuring

78) Which of the following is a collaborative person-centered form of guiding to elicit and strengthen motivation for
change?
a) Disassociation c) Outcome Goal
b) Motivational Interviewing d) Objective Goal

79) Which of the following muscles work as a force couple to upwardly rotate the scapulae during a military press?
a) Latissimus Dorsi, Bicep Brachii & Levator Scapulae
b) Upper Trap, Serratus Anterior, Lower Trap
c) Upper Trap, Middle Trap, Lower Trap
d) Pectoralis Major, Latissimus Dorsi, Tricep Brachii

80) resistance training workout that involves performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to
the next exercise or body part is known as_____
a) Superset c) Vertical Loading
b) Circuit Set d) Horizontal Loading

81) In the context of muscle actions, raising a dumbbell up against the direction of resistance is a(n)
a) Concentric Action c) Isometric Action
b) Eccentric Action d) OPT Action

82) According to Tanaka, HR max equation to find the Target Heart rate is __
a) 200 c) 208
b) 220 d) 230

83) While observing a pulling assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's shoulders elevating. Which of the
following exercises is appropriate to strengthen the client's underactive muscles?
a) Standing shoulder shrug c) Seated shoulder press
b) Ball Cobra d) Ball Bridge

84) Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?
a) Lower crossed syndrome c) Upper crossed syndrome
b) Pes Planus Distortion d) Lower extremity movement syndrome

85) A turn-key product is one that ________

a) Requires keys to open c) Ready for immediate use
b) Needs work to open d) Requires extensive training

86) What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
a) Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press c) Barbell bench press
b) Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench d) Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

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87) Which of the following is a kinetic chain checkpoint?
a) Neck c) Waist
b) Wrist d) Knee

88) Which of the following indicates goal commitment?

a) A client visits a licensed psychologist to deal with her affective influences.
b) A client shares his goals with and reports his progress to others.
c) A client accepts feedback from her friends and family about her progress.
d) A client refrains from setting a fixed timeframe to achieve his goals.

89) Which of the following is a progression of the multiplanar jump with stabilization in the frontal plane?
a) A transverse plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing
b) A sagittal plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing
c) A frontal plane jump with 180 degrees rotation before landing
d) A coronal plane jump with 180 degrees rotation before landing

90) Which of the following is considered objective information?

a) Body composition testing c) Asking client if they wear shoe’s with elevated heels
b) Inquiring about client’s current injuries d) Asking client about past surgeries

91) Ancillary revenue can be gained through ___

a) Personal training services c) Membership sales
b) Nutritional services d) Merchandise sales

92) Individuals who have shown a certain level of interest in personal training services are ________.
a) Targets c) Acquisitions
b) Leads d) Clients

93) Which of the following is a common mistake made while performing prisoner squats?
a) Keeping the neck in neutral alignment c) Keeping the knees in line with the feet
b) Allowing the feet to turn out d) Allowing the knees to point outward

94) A client complains of pain in his shoulders while performing the triceps dips exercise. Which of the following
should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
a) Perform the exercise without a bench c) Perform the exercise with legs elevated.
b) Decrease the range of motion d) Elevate the shoulders up to the ears and push the body down

95) In the context of behavior modification approaches, which of the following is a written statement that outlines
the responsibilities of participants, their expected behaviors, and contingencies for changes in their behaviors?
a) A contract c) A prompt
b) A record d) A journal

96) The drawing-in maneuver is a maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the _____ in
toward the spine.
a) Shoulder c) chest
b) navel d) pelvis

97) Which of the following is an effect of an ankle sprain?

a. A decrease in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
b. A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella
c. Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core of the ankle Incorrect
d. Decreased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles

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98) Which of the following is a difference between problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping?
a) Unlike emotion-focused coping, problem-focused coping is used when the problem is responsive to
change.
b) Unlike problem-focused coping, emotion-focused coping aims at reducing the cause of the stress.
c) Unlike problem-focused coping, emotion-focused coping deals with the relationship between the body and
the mind.
d) Unlike emotion-focused coping, problem-focused coping diverts from negative feelings associated with
stress

99) Which of the following glands is called the "master” gland of the endocrine system because it controls the
functions of the other endocrine glands?
a) Hypothalamus c) Adrenal glands
b) Thyroid glands d) Pituitary gland

100) Facilities that are high-end and focus on a niche market segment are ________ facilities.
a) Large facility c) Boutique
b) Medium sized d) Small Group

101) In which of the following situations should a certified personal trainer refer a client to a medical
professional?
a) When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed osteoporosis
b) When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension
c) When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy
d) When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension

102) (BLANK)_______trait does not change over time.

a) Physical c) Dynamic
b) Emotional d) Stable

103) When a client performs the Shark Skill performance test for lower body agility, which of the following
would result in a penalization of .1 seconds?
a) Hands falling off the waist c) Hands falling off the head
b) Returning to the center square d) Hoping to the desired square

104) The total amount of work performed within a specific period of time is known as:
a) Training intensity c) Training duration
b) Training volume d) Repetition tempo

105) During phase 3 of the OPT model, a client is suggested to perform horizontal loading with
_______________ rest periods?
a) 1-3 minutes c) 3-5 minutes
b) 0-60 seconds d) 2-4 minutes

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