Insights Prelims Geography MCQ

INSIGHTSIAS PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2019 – GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS
MISC ......................................................... 49
CLIMATE, VEGETATION AND SOIL ............... 52
Table of Contents
WORLD PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY ......................... 2 CLIMATE ................................................... 52
UNIVERSE AND THEORIES .............................. 2 MONSOON AND RAINFALL ...................... 55
SOLAR SYSTEM AND OTHER CELESTRIAL VEGETATION ............................................ 59

BODIES ........................................................... 2 SOILS ........................................................ 64
EARTH AND ITS PROPERTIES .......................... 5 MISC ......................................................... 69
THE ORIGIN OF EARTH AND EVOLUTION, NATURAL HAZARDS AND DIASASTER: CAUSES
theories ...................................................... 8 CONSEQUENCES AND MANAGEMENT ........ 70
INTERIOR OF THE EARTH.......................... 10 CYCLONE .................................................. 70
DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS AND EARTHQUAKE and TSUNAMI ................... 72
CONTNENTS ............................................. 10
VOLCANOES ............................................. 73
LANDFORMS................................................. 11
FLOODS .................................................... 73
GEOMORPHIC PROCESSES ....................... 11
OTHER ...................................................... 73
LANDFORMS AND THEIR EVOLUTION ...... 12
MEASURES ............................................... 75
MINERALS AND ROCKS............................. 15
HUMAN GEOGRAPHY ...................................... 76
CLIMATE ....................................................... 18
POPULATION ................................................ 76
COMPOSITION AND STRUCTURE OF
URBANIZATION ........................................ 76
ATMOSPHERE ........................................... 18
HUMAN SETTLEMENTS ................................ 77
SOLAR RADIATION, HEAT BALANCE AND
TEMPERATURE ......................................... 20 LAND RESOURCES AND AGRICULTURE ........ 77
ATMOSPHERIC CIRCULATION AND WATER RESOURCES ..................................... 87

WEATHER SYSTEMS.................................. 22 MINERAL AND ENERGY RESOURCES ............ 89
WATER IN THE ATMOSPHERE .................. 26 INDUSTRIES .................................................. 93
WORLD CLIMATE AND CLIMATE CHANGE26 Renewable Energy ....................................... 94
WATER(OCEANS) .......................................... 27 TRANSPORTATION AND COMMUNICATION 95
WATER , OCEAN AND ITS PROPERTIES . 27 MISC ................................................................. 96
MOVEMENT OF OCEAN WATER ............... 29 LOCATION BASED QUESTIONS (MAPPING) ... 101
MISC ................................................................. 35 INDIA BASED .......................................... 101
INDIAN PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY ........................ 35 WORLD BASED ....................................... 108
PHYSIOGRAPHY ............................................ 35
STRUCTURE AND PHYSIOGRAPHY ............ 35
DRAINAGE SYSTEM .................................. 39
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Q 3. Redshift from gravity means

WORLD PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY that
UNIVERSE AND THEORIES a) When light moves away from an object
Q 1. Globular clusters, recently in with gravity, it is stretched into longer
news, are densely packed collections wavelengths
of ancient stars. What are some of
the major features of such clusters? b) Gravitational waves interact with
selective parts of the light spectrum
1. The density of stars in a globular cluster is depending on the frequency of the light
much greater than the density of stars source
around the sun.
c) When light enters a gravity-vacuum, it
2. These clusters are made largely of gas, of disperses into its constituent colours
which helium is predominant.
d) When light moves away from an object
Which of the above is/are correct? with gravity, it is stretched into shorter
wavelengths
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 SOLAR SYSTEM AND OTHER CELESTRIAL
BODIES
d) None Q 4. Only one side of the moon is
visible to us on the earth mainly due
to
Q 2. Consider the following
a) Rotational velocity of the Moon
statements.
b) Geoid shape and axial tilt of the earth
1. The expansion created by the ‘Big Bang’
continues even to the present day. c) Atmospheric refraction
2. Soon after the Big Bang, the d) The other side of the Moon does not
Universe became highly opaque reflect any sunlight
and temperatures started rising till the
atmosphere was formed.
Which of the above is/are correct? Q 5. A comet tail becomes visible
when
a) 1 only
1. Illuminated by Sun
b) 2 only
2. Comet gas is condensed to ice debris at
c) Both 1 and 2 low temperatures
d) None Which of the above is/are correct?
2
a) 1 only the former. Which of the following

characteristics of terrestrial planets
b) 2 only enabled this loss of atmosphere?
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Their larger size as compared to
d) None most Jovian planets
2. Their nearness to Sun
Which of the above is/are correct?
Q 6. What do the rings around
a) 1 only
Jupiter, Saturn and Uranus largely
contain? b) 2 only
a) White dwarf flux c) Both 1 and 2
b) Icy dust, large rocks and moons of the d) None
planets
c) Comets and asteroids only
d) Satellites of these planets only
Q 9. Which of the following
contribute to the appearance of the
Q 7. Consider the following Blood Moon?
statements. 1. Relative positions of earth, sun
1. All planets between the Earth and and moon
the Sun in our solar system contain 2. Refraction of light travelling
volcanoes. through the Earth’s atmosphere
2. There is evidence for the existence of ice, Select the correct answer using the codes
as well as water, on the surface of planets below.
other than earth.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only
d) None of the above
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Q 10. Jupiter, Saturn and Uranus
have rings around them. These rings
Q 8. The Terrestrial and Jovian consist of
planets are largely differentiated on a) Satellites of these planets only
the basis of loss of atmosphere from
3
b) Icy dust, large rocks and moons of the Q 13. Cycle of ‘Solar spots’ can
planets significantly affect the climate on
earth by leading to a
c) Comets and asteroids only
1. Change in solar output
d) Magnetospheric flux of the planet
2. Reversal of earth’s magnetic field
Q 11. Nanoflares are related to
a) 1 only
a) Hazards of developments of
nanotechnology b) 2 only
b) Corona of the Sun c) Both 1 and 2
c) Nano coating used in Anti UV glasses d) None
d) Bouncing back of the Solar insolation
Q 14. For a planet, comet or

asteroid moving around the Sun in
an elliptical orbit, which is the point
Q 12. Consider the following at where it comes closest to the
statements. Sun?
1. Solar winds are a flow of ionized gases a) Epicentre
from the sun that streams past Earth at
speeds nearly close to that of light. b) Pericenter
2. Disturbances in the solar wind shake c) Incentre

Earth’s magnetic field and pump energy d) Orthocentre
into the radiation belts.
3. Space weather can change the orbits of
satellites and even shorten their lifetimes. Q 15. Consider the following about
the solar system.
Select the correct answer using the codes
below. 1. Mercury, Venus and Mars do not
have satellites of their own.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only 2. Venus can be seen in the sky only
during sunset.
c) 1 and 3 only
3. Density of planet Saturn is less
d) 2 only than that of water.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
4
b) 2 and 3 only d) A brown stellar remnant that orbits our

solar system
c) 3 only
d) 1 only
Q 19. The planet Neptune appears
blue in colour mainly due to its
a) Icy debris
Q 16. The Edgeworth–Kuiper belt
b) Gas bubbles of methane
1. Lies between Earth and Mars
c) Distance from the Sun
2. Is responsible for most of the solar
wind discharge received by the earth d) Rate of rotation on its own axis
a) 1 only EARTH AND ITS PROPERTIES
b) 2 only Q 20. Consider the following
statements.
c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Earth's magnetic field is attributed to
d) None a dynamo effect of circulating electric
current within earth.
2. Interaction of the terrestrial magnetic field
Q 17. Which of these planets takes with particles from the solar wind sets up the
the longest time to complete one spin conditions for the aurora phenomena near
or rotation on its own axis? the poles.
a) Jupiter Which of the above is/are correct?
b) Mercury
a) 1 only
c) Saturn
b) 2 only
d) Venus
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Q 18. The term ‘Exoplanet’ often
seen in news is used for
a) A planet that does not orbit the Sun and Q 21. Consider the following
instead orbits a different star statements.
b) A dwarf planet that is a part of our solar 1. Earth’s magnetic axis and
system rotational axis do not coincide.
c) A large asteroid that supports near life
conditions
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2. Direction of earth’s magnetic axis can be 2. Solstice is caused only due to

found by taking a tangent to any point on rotation of the earth, whereas equinox is
the inner Van Allen radiation belt. caused only due to revolution of the
earth.
3. Magnetic equator circles the earth as a
smooth line like the geographic equator, Which of the above is/are correct?
albeit on a different plane.
a) 1 only
4. Earth’s magnetic dipole passes through
b) 2 only
the Centre of the earth.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 only Q 24. If the earth starts rotating east
to west, which of the following shall
d) 2 and 3 None be correct?
1. Places West of Greenwich will be
behind the Greenwich Time.
Q 22. You will never see the mid-
day Sun exactly overhead on which 2. Places located on the same
of the following locations? longitude northwards will be ahead in time
than those located southwards.
1. Latitudes very close to South Pole
2. Any longitude touching North
Pole a) 1 only
Which of the above is/are correct? b) 2 only
a) 1 only c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only d) None
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None Q 25. If the earth starts rotating east
to west, which of the following shall
be correct?
Q 23. Which of the following 1. Places West of Greenwich will be
correctly differentiates the events of behind the Greenwich Time.
equinox with that of solstice?
2. Places located on the same
1. In a solstice only a particular tropic longitude northwards will be ahead in time
receives direct vertical rays of the than those located southwards.
Sun unlike in an equinox when the
equator receives direct vertical rays of Sun. Which of the above is/are correct?
6
a) 1 only Q 28. Which of these are of equal

lengths?
b) 2 only
a) All parallels of latitude
c) Both 1 and 2
b) All meridians
d) None
c) All isotherms drawn on earth
d) All isobars drawn on earth
Q 26. Earth’s magnetic field
protects us from
a) Erosion of the atmosphere and Ozone Q 29. Which of these water bodies
layer witnesses sun rise at the earliest (as
per GMT system)?
b) Paleomagnetism which leads to erratic
magnetic currents in earth a) North Sea
c) Both (a) and (b) b) Black Sea
d) None of (a) or (b) c) Caspian Sea
d) Arabian Sea

statements.
Assertion (A): There is a time difference of
nearly two hours between the easternmost Q 30. Consider the following
and the westernmost parts of our country. statements.
Reason (R): There is a longitudinal variation 1. The distance between two longitudes
of nearly 30 degrees, between the increases going towards the equator from the
easternmost and westernmost parts of the poles.
country.
2. The distance between two latitudes increases
In the context of the above, which of these is towards the poles going from the equator.
correct?
a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate
explanation of A. a) 1 only
b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate b) 2 only
explanation of A.
c) Both 1 and 2
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d) Both A and R are incorrect. d) None
7
Q 31. Which one of the following b) Sinking of iron to the centre of the earth
phenomena happens when the sun leading to an overall restructuring
shines vertically over the Tropic of
c) Erosion of minerals from earth’s crust
Capricorn in the southern
due to solar winds
hemisphere?
a) High pressure develops over North-
western India due to low temperatures.
b) Low pressure develops over North- Q 34. Consider the following
western India due to high temperatures. statements about Sea floor spreading.
c) No changes in temperature and pressure 1. It is caused by a sinking mantle.

occur in north-western India compared to
2. It is verified by the observation that ocean
when sun was vertically over the Tropic of
crust rocks are much younger than the
Cancer. continental rocks.
d) ‘Loo’ blows in the North-western India.
3. The sediments on the ocean floor get
unexpectedly very thick due to sea floor
spreading.
THE ORIGIN OF EARTH AND EVOLUTION,
theories
below.
Q 32. The Indian plate borders
a) 1 and 2 only
1. Somail Plate
b) 2 and 3 only
2. Arabian Plate
c) 1 and 3 only
3. Australian Plate
Which of the above is/are correct? d) 2 only
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only Q 35. Consider the following
statements.
c) 1 and 3 only
1. Mid-Atlantic ridge is an example
d) 2 only of convergent boundary.
2. A subduction zone cannot be
Q 33. The iron catastrophe, a formed between an Oceanic and a
postulated major event early in the continental plate.
history of Earth, refers to
3. Transform faults are the planes of
a) Concentration of iron deposits due to separation generally perpendicular to the
inter-glacial periods mid-oceanic ridges.
8
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
below. below.
a) 3 only a) 1 only
b) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 36. Consider the following Q 38. Which of the following is

statements. NOT considered to be a Major
tectonic plate?
1. Lithospheric plates carry both
continents and ocean floor. a) Pacific Plate
2. Lithospheric plates are prone to b) Eurasian Plate
movement because of movement of molten
magma inside the earth. c) Arabian Plate
d) Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic
plate
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q 39. Poles experience about six
d) None months day and six months night
due to which of the following?
1. Axial Tilt of earth

Q 37. What evidence is proposed in
support of the Continental Drift 2. Coriolis Force
Theory?
3. Revolution of Earth around the
1. Jigsaw fit of the coastlines on Sun
either side of the Southern Atlantic Ocean
2. Belt of ancient rocks of from below.
Brazil coast matches with those from
western Africa a) 1 and 2 only
3. Occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold b) 2 and 3 only
in the Ghana coast and the absence of any
such source rock there c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 only
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d) None
Q 40. Which of these continents

form a mirror image and zig saw
puzzle of each other? INTERIOR OF THE EARTH
a) South America and Africa Q 43. The thinnest of all layers on
earth is
b) Europe and Asia
a) Crust
c) Africa and Asia
b) Upper Mantle
d) North America and South America
c) Lower mantle
d) Core
Q 41. The iron catastrophe was a
postulated major event early in the
history of Earth. It refers to Q 44. About 98 per cent of the
a) Erosion of minerals from earth’s crust due total crust of the earth is composed
to solar winds of eight elements. These eight
elements most likely do NOT include
b) Sinking of iron to the centre of the earth
leading to an overall restructuring a) Oxygen
c) Large scale homogenization of b) Carbon

concentrated iron deposits due to repeated c) Silicon
ice ages
d) Iron
d) All of the above in chronological
sequence DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS AND CONTNENTS
statements.
Q 42. Wegener suggested that the Oceanic crust is
movement responsible for the
drifting of the continents was caused 1. Less dense than continental crust
by
2. Thinner than continental crust
1. Pole-fleeing force
3. A result of erupted mantle
2. Tidal force material
Which of the above is/are correct? 4. Poor in magnesium, but rich in

Silica and Aluminium
a) 1 only
b) 2 only below.
c) Both 1 and 2 a) 2 and 3 only
10
b) 1, 3 and 4 only a) 1 only

c) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 2 only
d) 1 and 4 only c) Both 1 and 2
LANDFORMS
statements about the different types
GEOMORPHIC PROCESSES
of weathering.
Q 46. Which of the following can
be classified as endogenic 1. Salts in pore spaces of rocks undergo
geomorphic processes? rapid and repeated hydration and help in
rock fracturing.
1. Weathering
2. Oxidation can cause rock breakdown due
2. Wind Erosion and deposition to the disturbance caused by addition of
3. Diastrophism oxygen.
4. Volcanism Select the correct answer using the codes

below.
below. a) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4 only d) None of the above
d) 1 and 4 only
Q 49. Weathering of rocks can be
caused by
statements. 1. Seepage of water
1. In the process of orogeny, the crust is 2. Thermal stresses

severely deformed into folds and thus it is 3. Plant root penetration in rocks
called as a mountain building process.
4. Frost action
2. Due to epeirogeny, there may be a simple
deformation in the crust and thus it is called Select the correct answer using the codes
as a continental building process. below.
Select the correct answer using the codes a) 2 and 3 only
below.
b) 1 and 4 only
11
c) 2, 3 and 4 only Q 52. Factors that help in the

evolution of landforms on earth
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 include
1. Movement of magma within the
earth
Q 50. Which of the following are the
salient features of fold Mountains? 2. Growth and decay of vegetation
1. They are least likely to have conical 3. Erosion and deposition

peaks.
4. Frost action and glacial movement
2. They are created when large areas Select the correct answer using the codes
are broken and displaced vertically. below.
3. They must be associated with a) 1 and 3 only
volcanism either from the mountain core or its
vicinity. b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
below. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 Q 53. Alluvial fans are formed

when
c) 2 only
1. Streams flowing from higher
d) None of the above levels break into foot slope plains of low
gradient
2. The river does not carry much
LANDFORMS AND THEIR EVOLUTION load or carries only fine sediments
Q 51. Crescent-shaped oxbow lakes
3. A river is nearing the sea
form in river valleys mainly as a
result of Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) Tectonic movements
a) 1 only
b) Glacial deposition
b) 1 and 2 only
c) Meandering and river deposition
c) 2 and 3 only
d) Volcanic activity
d) 3 only
Q 54. Lagoons can be formed in
12
1. High rocky coasts b) Mature stage

2. Low sedimentary coasts c) Old Stage
Which of the above is/are correct? d) They are equally likely to be formed in all
three stages.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q 57. A disturbance in which of
c) Both 1 and 2 these controlling factors can upset
d) None the systematic and sequential stages
in the development and evolution of
landforms?
Q 55. With reference to Loess, 1. Tectonic stability of landmasses

consider the following statements.
2. Stability of sea level
1. It can be created by wind as well
3. Climate
as movement by glaciers.
2. It mostly tends to accumulate at
below.
the edges of coasts.
3. It is devoid of mineral deposits. a) 1 only
4. It is the fastest eroding soil deposit b) 2 and 3 only

among all different types of soil. c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes d) 1, 2 and 3 only
below.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only Q 58. Consider the following about
Glaciers.
c) 2 and 3 only
1. Glacial retreat can result in the
d) 1, 2 and 3 only creation of a lake.
2. Materials deposited by a retreating
glacier results in glacial moraines.
a) 1 only
Q 56. Meanders are most likely to
be formed in which of the following b) 2 only
stages of the river?
c) Both 1 and 2
a) Youth stage
d) None
13

statements.
Q 59. Delta formation will be
greatly hindered if 1. At low river speeds, downward
cutting dominates bank cutting.
1. Bed and bank erosion is very low
in the upper reaches of the river. 2. At lowest reaches of the river, erosion
tendencies lead to formation of many
2. There are frequent tides on the distributaries.
coast.
3. The sea adjoining delta is shallow.
a) 1 only
below. b) 2 only
a) 1 and 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only d) None
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q 62. Consider the following about
the comparison between Gulf and
Strait.
Q 60. Consider the following 1. A gulf is a deep inlet of the sea,
features of a river course. surrounded by land, with a narrow mouth
whereas a strait is a narrow waterway that
1. Smaller tributaries flowing over connects tow large water bodies.
gentle gradients
2. Gulfs can sometimes be connected to the
2. Streams meander freely forming ocean by straits which are formed by
ox-bow lakes tectonic shifts or land that has been subsided
or been eroded.
3. Sharper turns are not found
frequently. Which of the above is/are correct?
The above refer to which stage of a river? a) 1 only
a) Youth stage b) 2 only
b) Old stage c) Both 1 and 2
c) Mature Stage d) None
d) Either Youth stage or Mature Stage

Q 63. Peninsula is
a) A land surrounded by water from all the
sides
14
b) A water body surrounded by land from Select the correct answer using the codes
three sides below.
c) A land surrounded by water from three a) 1, 2 and 3 only

sides
b) 2 and 4 only
d) A gulf connected to large water body
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
statements.
1. A lagoon is a body of water separated from MINERALS AND ROCKS

larger bodies of water by a natural barrier. Q 66. Consider the following
statements.
2. Coastal lagoons form along hilly coasts with
very short continental shelves. Assertion (A): By looking at sedimentary
rocks of different ages, scientists can figure
3. Atoll lagoons form when an island completely out how climate has changed through
subsides beneath the water, leaving a ring of Earth’s history.
coral that continues to grow upwards.
Reason (R): Sedimentary rocks
Select the correct answer using the codes contain fossils of organisms of previous
below. ages.
a) 1 and 2 only
In the context of the above, which of these is
correct?
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only explanation of A.
b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate
d) 1 only
explanation of A.
Q 65. Which of these are usual d) Both A and R are incorrect.
geographical features created by
Himalayan rivers?
1. V-Shaped valleys Q 67. In India, rocks of which of

the following regions was formed the
2. No gorges earliest?
3. Ox-bow lakes a) Indo-Gangetic plain
4. Braided channels b) Lower Shiwaliks

c) North-eastern Himalayas
15
d) Deccan Traps d) 2 and 3 only
Q 68. Which of the following is/are

example(s) of organically formed
sedimentary rocks? Q 70. Consider the following
statements.
1. Limestone
1. A mineral is a naturally occurring
2. Coal inorganic substance.
3. Basalt 2. Minerals cannot be formed from a single
element.
4. Shale
3. The basic source of all minerals is the hot
Select the correct answer using the codes magma in the interior of the earth.
below.
a) 1 and 2 only below.
b) 1, 2 and 4 only a) 1 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
statements.
Q 71. Which one of the following is
1. Basalt in an example of an
NOT a single element mineral?
intrusive igneous rock.
a) Gold
2. Igneous and sedimentary rocks can
change into metamorphic rocks under great b) Mica
heat and pressure, but metamorphic rocks
cannot change into either of them. c) Silver
3. Granite rocks were formed due to cooling d) Graphite

down of magma inside the earth.
Select the correct answer using the codes Q 72. Nearly half of the earth’s
below. crust is composed of
a) 1 only a) Feldspar
b) None of the above b) Mica
c) 3 only c) Quartz
16
d) Granite 4. Pyroxene, which forms nearly one tenth

of the earth’s crust, is commonly found in
meteorites.
Q 73. Which one of the following is Select the correct answer using the codes
a salient feature of metamorphic below.
rocks?
a) 1 and 3 only
a) Low melting point
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) Lustre
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) Crystalline
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) Foliation
Q 76. Weathering of rocks and

Q 74. The minerals that are found deposits helps in the
on earth only in meteorites include
1. Enrichment and concentrations of
1. Reidite ores
2. Kamacite 2. Formation of soil
3. Schreibersite Which of the above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes a) 1 only
below.
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 1 and 2 only
d) None
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q 77. Minerals on earth mainly
come from
Q 75. Consider the following a) Magma
statements.
b) Fossils
1. Mica is most commonly found in
sedimentary rocks. c) Meteoroids
2. Silicon and oxygen are common d) Both (a) and (b)

elements in all types of feldspar.
3. Quartz is an important component
of sand and granite. Q 78. Consider the following
statements.
17
1. The absolute age of igneous rocks can be c) Both 1 and 2

obtained from radiometric dating.
d) None
2. Metamorphism occurs when consolidated
rocks undergo recrystallisation within
original rocks due to heat and pressure.
Q 81. The oldest rock sample in the
3. Much of the Earth's continental world was found in
crust is composed of sedimentary rocks.
a) New Zealand
below. b) North America
a) 2 only c) Australia
b) 1 and 2 only d) Greenland
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Q 82. Consider the following about
the Dharwar System of rocks.
Q 79. The two main constituents of
granite are 1. It is the oldest rock system of
India.
a) Iron and nickel
2. It is contains metamorphic
b) Silica and aluminium sedimentary rocks.
c) Iron and silver 3. It hosts gold mines.
d) Iron Oxide and potassium Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
Q 80. Igneous rocks are also a) 1 and 2 only

geologically important because b) 2 only
1. Their minerals and global chemistry give c) 1 and 3 only
information about the composition of the
mantle d) 2 and 3 only
2. They do not host radioactive minerals

that often adversely affect radiometric
dating data from the rocks CLIMATE
COMPOSITION AND STRUCTURE OF
ATMOSPHERE
a) 1 only Q 83. Consider the following
statements about the outermost layer
b) 2 only of atmosphere, Exosphere.
18
1. In the exosphere, molecules and atoms of Q 86. Atmosphere is held around

atmospheric gases constantly collide with the earth due to
each other.
a) Earth’s magnetic core
2. International Space Station (ISS) orbits
within the exosphere or below it. b) Corona discharge from the Sun
3. This region displays a faint glow of c) Gravitational pull of the earth

ultraviolet radiation scattered by hydrogen
d) Presence of clouds in the troposphere and
atoms.
other layers above it
below.
a) 1 and 2 only Q 87. Which of the following
statements about the Troposphere
b) 2 and 3 only is/are NOT correct?
c) 1 only a) Almost all the weather phenomena like

rainfall and hailstorm occur in this layer.
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) It is the most ideal atmospheric layer for
flying aeroplanes.
Q 84. Meteorites burn up in this c) It helps in radio transmission as radio
layer on entering from the space: waves transmitted from the earth are
reflected back to the earth by this layer.
a) Troposphere
d) Both (b) and (c)
b) Ionosphere
c) Stratosphere
d) Mesosphere statements about the outermost layer
of atmosphere, Exosphere.
Q 85. The layer of atmosphere that 1. In the exosphere, molecules and atoms of
is almost free from clouds and atmospheric gases constantly collide with
associated weather phenomenon, each other.
making conditions most ideal for 2. International Space Station (ISS) orbits
flying aeroplanes is within the exosphere or below it.
a) Lower troposphere 3. This region displays a faint glow of
b) Upper Troposphere ultraviolet radiation scattered by hydrogen
atoms.
c) Ionosphere
d) Stratosphere below.
a) 1 and 2 only
19
b) 2 and 3 only 1. No gas particles are to be found in

exosphere.
c) 1 only
2. Venus has an atmosphere with a
d) 1, 2 and 3 near complete absence of carbon dioxide.
3. Auroras occur in the
thermosphere.
statements about Aerogels. Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
1. They are some of the densest and
lightest aerosols. a) 3 only
2. It is often called blue smoke owing to its b) 1 and 2 only
translucent nature and the way light
scatters in the material. c) 2 and 3 only
3. Carbon nanotubes and Metals can d) 1, 2 and 3

be used in the manufacturing of aerogels.
below. Q 92. Which of the following is the
coldest part of the atmosphere?
a) 1 only
a) Tropopause
b) 1 and 2 only
b) Stratosphere
c) 2 and 3 only c) Mesopause
d) 3 only d) Thermosphere
Q 90. The correct order of abundance SOLAR RADIATION, HEAT BALANCE AND
of these gases in the atmosphere is
TEMPERATURE
a) Nitrogen> Oxygen> Argon> Carbon Dioxide> Q 93. The temperature of earth
Methane> Hydrogen material usually tends to increase as
b) Nitrogen> Oxygen> Hydrogen > Carbon we go inwards. The retained heat on
Dioxide> Methane> Argon earth can be attributed to which of
the following phenomena?
c) Nitrogen> Hydrogen > Oxygen > Carbon
Dioxide> Methane> Argon 1. Frictional heating of earth’s
material facilitated by gravitation
d) Nitrogen> Methane> Hydrogen > Argon>
Oxygen > Carbon Dioxide 2. Heat from the decay of radioactive
elements
statements. a) 1 only
20
b) 2 only In the context of the above, which of these is

correct?
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None explanation of A.
explanation of A.
Q 94. Even when Earth gets nearest
to the Sun at perihelion, the effects c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
of this increased solar insolation are
not felt on a large scale on earth. d) Both A and R are incorrect.
This can be due to
a) Increase in cloudiness in major
continental regions Q 97. Consider the following
statements.
b) Reduction in solar discharge
1. Most of the solar insolation (energy) is
c) Blowing of sea and land breezes reflected directly back into space by the
earth through the atmosphere, clouds, and
d) Adiabetic wind flow patterns surface of the Earth.
2. The solar energy reflected back by the
earth in the form of infrared radiation has a
Q 95. Please estimate the ‘Standard shorter wavelength than the incoming solar
Temperature at around 10 Km above energy.
the sea level, if the same at sea level
is 15.2 °C. Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 8.7 °C a) 1 only
b) 0 °C b) 2 only
c) –17. 3 °C c) Both 1 and 2
d) – 49.7 °C d) None
Q 96. Consider the following Q 98. Consider the following

statements. statements.
Assertion (A): The earth as a whole 1. The region north of Tropic of Cancer in
does not accumulate or loose heat. India does not experience vertical sun rays
at any point of time in the year.
Reason (R): The amount of heat received in
the form of Insolation equals the amount lost 2. The solar insolation received in regions of
by the earth through terrestrial radiation. India south of the Tropic of Cancer is more
than the Northern regions.
21
Which of the above is/are correct? 3. Changes in atmospheric pressure are

responsible for the maintenance of a
a) 1 only constant temperature around the globe.
b) 2 only Which of the above is/are correct?
d) None b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q 99. The temperature of a terrestrial d) 1, 2 and 3
region can be moderated by
1. Ocean currents due to land-sea

breeze Q 101. The easterlies from either
side of the equator converge in the
2. Trade winds due to exchange of air
a) Sub-tropical latitudes
masses
b) Inter-tropical convergence Zone (ITCZ)
d) Horse latitudes
a) 1 only
d) Headley cell
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q 102. Katabatic and Anabatic winds
d) None are generated by
a) Contact and movement of air parcels
close to a sloped terrain
ATMOSPHERIC CIRCULATION AND WEATHER
b) Movement of anti-cyclonic fronts in large
SYSTEMS
open spaces
Q 100. With reference to changes in
atmospheric pressure, consider the d) Excess and deficit of moisture in air
following statements. parcels as a result of seasonal change
1. The weight of a column of air contained d) Orographic rainfall near coastal regions
in a unit area from the mean sea level to the
top of the atmosphere is called the
atmospheric pressure. Q 103. Which of these is/are
2. Its cause can be explained by expansion characteristic feature of Chinook
of air when it is heated, and its compression winds?
when it is cold. 1. They are highly moist and dense winds
experienced on windward side of mountains.
22
2. They can cause significant temperature c) Both 1 and 2

spikes in the area they flow through.
d) None
a) 1 only
Q 106. Which of the following are
b) 2 only Permanent winds on the planet
earth?
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None a) Easterlies and Westerlies
b) Monsoon winds
Q 104. The pattern of planetary c) Continental winds

winds largely depends on d) Orographic winds
1. The distribution of continents and oceans
2. Rotation of earth
3. Movement of currents in the ocean statements about air fronts.
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. If a warm air mass moves towards the
below. cold air mass, the contact zone turns into a
cold front.
a) 1 only
2. Occluded front is formed by air mass
b) 2 and 3 only sinking to the land surface.
c) 1, 2 and 3 3. The air fronts bring abrupt changes in
d) 1 and 3 only temperature and cause the air to rise to form
clouds and cause precipitation.
Q 105. Consider the following with below.
reference to trends of atmospheric
pressure. a) 1 and 2 only
1. Atmospheric pressure over oceans is b) 1 and 3 only

always higher than that over continents.
c) 2 only
2. Atmospheric pressure over equatorial
d) 3 only
regions is always higher than that over
poles.
Which of the above is/are correct? Q 108. Geotrophic winds are
a) 1 only generated when these two forces
are balanced with each other:
b) 2 only
23
a) Frictional force and pressure gradient 3. Sirocco : Appalachian mountains

force
Select the correct matches using the codes
b) Horizontal shear force and pressure below.
gradient force
a) 1 and 3 only
c) Pressure gradient force and coriolis force
b) 1 and 2 only
d) Coriolis force and horizontal shear force
c) 2 only
Q 109. The direction of wind around
a low pressure in northern
hemisphere is Q 112. Which of these is/are
a) Clockwise characteristic feature of Chinook
winds?
b) Perpendicular to isobars
1. They are highly moist and dense winds
c) Anti-clock wise
experienced on windward side of
d) Parallel to isobars mountains.
2. They can cause significant temperature

Q 110. The Roaring Forties are spikes in the area they flow through.
a) Strong westerly winds found in the Which of the above is/are correct?
Southern Hemisphere a) 1 only
b) Feeble easterly winds found in the
b) 2 only
Northern Hemisphere
c) Both 1 and 2
c) Thunderstorms often found near the
equator d) None
d) Equatorial counter-currents that move
near the eastern coastal shores in lower
latitudes Q 113. Consider the following
statements.
1. In Ferrel cells in the tropical latitudes the
Q 111. Chinook is an important local circulation is that of sinking cold air that
wind prevalent in the rocky comes from the poles and the rising warm
mountain slopes of USA. Similarly, air that blows from the subtropical high.
match the following local winds with
the area of their prevalence. 2. In Polar cells the cold dense air subsides
near the poles and blows towards middle
1. Mistral : North African desert latitudes as the polar easterlies.
2. Foehn : Southern slopes of Alps Which of the above is/are correct?
24
a) 1 only d) Gulf Stream

b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q 116. Consider the following
statements.
d) None
1. In middle latitudes, most of diurnal
variation in daily weather is caused by
advection.
statements. 2. In tropical regions, local winds result out
of the advection process.
Assertion (A): The trade winds change their
direction in different seasons. Which of the above is/are correct?
Reason (R): Wind experiences coriolis force a) 1 only
due to the rotation of the earth.
b) 2 only
correct? c) Both 1 and 2
a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate d) None
explanation of A.
explanation of A. Q 117. Polar vortex includes a
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect. a) Low pressure region over the poles
d) A is incorrect, but R is correct. b) High pressure region over the poles

c) Low pressure over the temperate regions
d) Negligible temperature contrast between
the polar regions and the mid-latitudes
statements.
1. These are known as anti-trade winds. statements.
2. They blow in temperate regions. 1. On a sunny afternoon, wind usually blows
from the land to the sea.
3. They are experienced as warm winds.
2. On a cold night, wind usually blows from the
The above refer to? sea to the land.
a) Westerlies Which of the above is/are correct?
b) Furious Eighties a) 1 only
c) Easterlies b) 2 only
25
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the above is/are correct?

d) None a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q 119. ‘Polar jet streams’ are c) Both 1 and 2
strongest in
d) None
a) Tropopause
b) Stratopause
WORLD CLIMATE AND CLIMATE CHANGE
c) Mesopause
Q 122. Throughout the Phanerozoic
d) Stratosphere history of the Earth, the planet's
climate has been fluctuating between
two dominant climate states which
are
statements. a) The greenhouse Earth and the icehouse
Earth
1. Jet Streams are faster in winter when the
temperature differences between tropical, b) Glacial and non-glacial periods
temperate, and polar air currents are greater. c) High carbon and low-carbon periods
2. Jet streams travel in the tropopause which is d) Australopithecine and non-
the boundary between the turbulent Australopithecine periods
troposphere and the calm, cold stratosphere.

Q 123. You are most likely to find local
a) 1 only storms such as typhoon and hurricane
in which of these climatic zones?
b) 2 only
a) Warm Temperate Eastern Margin Climate
c) Both 1 and 2
b) Humid Tropical Climate at equator
d) None
c) Subarctic climate zone
d) It is equally probable in all the above climatic

WATER IN THE ATMOSPHERE zones.
Q 121. The capacity of air to hold
water vapour increases as
1. Air gets warmer Q 124. With reference to India,
2. Air expands in volume for the
same weight
26
1. Methane was the largest contributor to a) 1 only

greenhouse gas emissions by volume in
India. b) 2 only
2. Energy sector contributes the most to c) Both 1 and 2

greenhouse gas emissions in India.
d) None
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 sources of freshwater on earth is the
most abundant, among the
d) None
following?
a) Groundwater
WATER(OCEANS) b) Atmosphere
WATER , OCEAN AND ITS PROPERTIES
c) Ice caps
Q 125. Oceans distant from deserts
or with limited accessibility to dust- d) Fresh water lakes
carrying winds from deserts often
have limited primary productivity.
This is due to
Q 128. Consider the distribution of
a) Lack of iron nutrient supplies water on earth.
b) Presence of kelp forests (macroalgae) in 1. Ice caps hold more water than salt
such areas lakes and atmosphere combined.
c) Absence of a Photic Zone
2. Groundwater is a richer source of
d) Warm water temperature water than both fresh water lakes and
inland seas.
3. Rivers hold more water than lakes.

Q 126. Which of the reason(s) can be
responsible for the formation of fogs Select the correct answer using the codes
over oceans? below.
1. Tropical winds passing over a) 1 and 2 only

cooler waters results in fog
b) 2 and 3 only
2. Abundance of salt in air over the
ocean c) 1 only
Which of the above is/are correct? d) 1 and 3 only
27
Q 129. You will NOT find this salt or a) 1 and 2 only

element dissolved in Ocean water.
b) 2 only
1. Strontium
c) 1 and 3 only
2. Borate
d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Vanadium

Q 132. Which of these processes
below.
provides salts to the oceans?
a) 1 only 1. Evaporation
b) 2 and 3 only 2. Submarine Volcanism
c) 3 only 3. River inflow
d) All of them can be found in Ocean water. 4. Seepage of ocean water to and fro
hydrothermal vents
Q 130. The continental shelf is the below.
extended margin of each continent
occupied by relatively shallow seas a) 1 and 3 only
and gulfs. You are most likely to
encounter a long shelve in which of b) 2, 3 and 4 only
the following regions?
c) 1 and 4 only
a) Siberian Shelf in Arctic Ocean
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) Coasts of Chile
c) Gulf of Kutch
Q 133. Massive sedimentary
d) West Coast of Sumatra deposits received over a long time
by this region of the Ocean later
becoming the source of fossil fuels.
Q 131. Factors affecting ocean a) Guyot
salinity include
b) Continental Slope
1. Freezing and thawing of ice in
Polar Regions c) Continental Shelf
2. Wind flow over the ocean d) Oceanic Trench
3. Areal extent of the Ocean
Select the correct answer using the codes Q 134. The term "Arctic Shelf" is
below.
often used to refer to
28
a) Oil and gas deposits the richest fishery in the world

owing to the
b) Major fishing zones
1. Extremely high-nutrient content
c) Large ice-free docking areas of the warm water
d) Continental shelves 2. Very high tides in some areas
which enhances the availability of nutrients
Q 135. Salinity near the surface in
the Arabian Sea is much higher than a) 1 only
in the Bay of Bengal because b) 2 only
a) Evaporation over the Arabian Sea is much c) Both 1 and 2
greater.
d) None
b) Arabian Sea receives relatively less river
runoff than Bay of Bengal.
c) Both (a) and (b) Q 138. Boundary currents are ocean
currents with dynamics determined
d) None of the above by the presence of a coastline. Which
of the following distinguish western
boundary currents and eastern
boundary currents?
Q 136. Why scientists today place
high priority on Cryosphere Studies 1. Eastern boundary currents are relatively
on earth? deeper, narrower and faster-flowing than
western boundary currents.
1. It stores most of world’s
freshwater. 2. Eastern boundary currents transport
organisms long distances rapidly, unlike
2. It plays a significant role in the Western boundary currents that are slow and
global climate. relatively still.
Which of the above is/are correct? Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) None d) None
MOVEMENT OF OCEAN WATER Q 139. Tidal force experienced by

Q 137. The waters of the Oyashio Oceans would, theoretically, change
Current, near Japan, form probably if
29
1. If a new celestial body, comparable to the b) 2 only

size of earth, is to be introduced between
c) 1 and 3 only
the earth, moon and the sun
2. If the Earth, moon and Sun change their d) 1, 2 and 3
alignments with respect to each other
Q 142. The Agulhas current acts as
a) 1 only an oceanic convergence zone. This
zone has higher primary productivity
b) 2 only than surrounding waters. This is
c) Both 1 and 2 because
d) None 1. The zone is a meeting point of all

major ocean currents of the Indian Ocean.
2. There is upwelling of cold ocean
Q 140. Which of the following is water from the lower layers of the ocean.
NOT an Indian Ocean current?
a) Agulhas
a) 1 only
b) Leeuwin
b) 2 only
c) Equatorial counter-current c) Both 1 and 2
d) East Australian current d) None
Q 141. Consider the following Q 143. Ocean waves do NOT

statements. transfer X from one place to another.
1. Warm ocean currents generally originate 1. Wave energy
near sub-tropical regions and move towards
equator. 2. Phytoplankton floating on Ocean
water
2. The cold currents carry water from
polar or higher latitudes to lower latitudes. Which of the above is/are correct?
3. The areas where the warm and a) 1 only
cold currents meet are devoid of
nutrient cycling and thus generally b) 2 only
poor in fisheries.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
30
Q 144. Equatorial counter-currents b) 2 only

are unique because
c) Both 1 and 2
a) They flow in a direction opposite to that
d) None
of the surface winds
b) They circulate from equator the poles

uninterrupted. Q 147. Consider the following
statements.
c) Their travel speed is not affected by the
ocean depth. Assertion (A): Steep waves in oceans
originate from faraway places,
d) They are the only current to be possibly from another hemisphere,
sandwiched between two eastward-flowing and travel long distances in the
ocean currents. ocean.
Reason (R): The maximum wave
height is determined by the strength of the
Q 145. The speed of tsunami waves wind.
depends on
1. Ocean depth correct?
2. Distance from the source of the wave a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate
explanation of A.
a) 1 only
explanation of A.
b) 2 only
c) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Both A and R are incorrect.
d) None
Q 148. The currents that mainly flow

Q 146. Consider the following in the Northern Hemisphere are
statements.
1. West Wind drift
1. The shape of bays and estuaries along a
coastline can also magnify the intensity of 2. Gulf Stream
tides.
3. Canaries current
2. When tide is channelled between islands
or into bays and estuaries it becomes tidal
current. below.
Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
31
c) 1 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 only
Q 149. Consider the following Q 151. Changes in which of the

statements. following wave parameters may lead
to change in the Wave period?
1. Generally, the warm ocean currents
originate near the equator and move towards 1. Wave frequency
the poles.
2. Wavelength
2. The Labrador Ocean current is cold
current while the Gulf Stream is a warm 3. Wave height
current.
4. Wave speed
3. Warm currents bring about warm
temperature over land surface. Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
4. The areas where the warm and cold
currents meet provide some of the best a) 1, 2 and 3 only
fishing grounds of the world.
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
below. c) 1 and 4 only
a) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 2 only Q 152. The flow of Ocean currents
will be significantly affected if
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The shape of earth changes
leading to changes in gravitational forces
Q 150. High tides can be helpful in 2. Earth starts rotating at a different
1. Sea navigation velocity on its axis
2. Fishing Which of the above is/are correct?
3. Energy generation a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the codes b) 2 only

below. c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 only d) None
b) 2 and 3 only
32
c) 1 and 2 only
Q 153. Consider the following d) 1, 2 and 3

statements.
1. The North Equatorial Current is separated

from the equatorial circulation by the
statements.
Equatorial Countercurrent.
1. The oceanic circulation pattern is opposite
2. In the Indian Ocean, the westward- of the earth’s atmospheric circulation pattern
flowing South Equatorial Current is well- and does not usually correspond to it.
developed only slightly north of the
equator. 2. The oceanic circulation transports heat
from one latitude belt to another in a manner
Which of the above is/are correct? similar to the heat transported by the general
circulation of the atmosphere.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only
d) None
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Q 154. Many of areas with “high
ranges of tides” are located in the
areas of Alaska, Canada, and
northern Europe. Which of the Q 156. Surges in Oceans can be
following can be peculiar reason(s) attributed to
for the same?
1. Attraction of the sun and the
1. They are all located at higher moon on the water body
latitudes.
2. Strong wind or cyclonic action on
2. The “constriction” of the oceans ocean’s surface
due to landmass distribution in the
Northern hemisphere causes high Which of the above is/are correct?
tides.
a) 1 only
3. Heavy storm waters coincide with
b) 2 only
major tidal events.
Select the correct answer using the codes c) Both 1 and 2
below. d) None
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
33
Q 157. The West Wind Drift is the Q 160. Consider the following
most important current in the statements.
Southern Ocean, and the only
current that flows completely 1. A gyre is a large system of rotating ocean
around the globe. However, its currents that are larger and more permanent
circulation is circumpolar in nature than ordinary currents.
due to
2. North Pacific and South Atlantic Oceans do
a) Lack of any landmass connecting with not witness any gyres.
Antarctica
b) Influence of the Equatorial counter-
currents a) 1 only
c) Guyers formed near the current b) 2 only
d) Thermohaline pattern on shorelines
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Q 158. Turbidity currents in Oceans
can be caused by
1. Earthquakes Q 161. Every place on earth would get
2. Strong coastline action of waves two equal high and low tides every day
if
1. Seafloor was even with a same static
a) 1 only
Mean Sea Level for all the locations to begin
b) 2 only with.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. Tides were caused only due to

d) None attraction between the Sun and the earth.
Q 159. The strong gravitational pull a) 1 only

exerted by the sun and the moon on
the earth’s surface causes the tides. b) 2 only
Tides will be highest when the sun,
moon and earth are c) Both 1 and 2
a) In the same line d) None

b) In a right triangular relationship
c) In an obtuse triangular relationship
d) In a circle with earth as the Centre
34
MISC
Q 162. Consider the following Q 164. Consider the following
statements. statements about the importance of
arctic and sub-arctic regions.
1. Mid-Oceanic ridges are likely to be found
in the approximate gravitational centre of 1. Majority of world’s wetlands are
continental or oceanic plates. located in the Arctic and sub-Arctic.
2. The mid-ocean ridges of the world are 2. Majority of world’s global marine
connected and form the Ocean Ridge, a fisheries catch by weight comes from
single global mid-oceanic ridge system that Arctic and surrounding seas.
is part of every ocean.
a) 1 only
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
d) None
Q 163. There is a marked contrast INDIAN PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

between winters on the North-eastern PHYSIOGRAPHY
coasts of Japan facing the Sea of
Japan, and the eastern coasts. This is STRUCTURE AND PHYSIOGRAPHY
mainly because Q 165. Which one of the following is
the type of plate boundary of the
1. Cold winds from the northern Asian Indian plate along the Himalayan
continent blow east over the Sea of Japan, Mountains?
dumping deep heavy snow on the north-
western coasts. a) Ocean-continent convergence
2. The warm western Boundary currents are b) Divergent boundary

not as active on the Sea of Japan as on the
c) Transform boundary
eastern coast of Japan.
d) Continent-continent convergence
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q 166. Which of these are NOT Fold
Mountains?
c) Both 1 and 2
1. Aravali Mountains
d) None
2. Himalayas
35
3. Satpura Range a) 1 only

4. Vindhyan Mountains b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes c) Both 1 and 2
below.
d) None
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 2 only
Q 169. The correct order of these
c) 1 and 3 only Himalayan ranges from North to
South is?
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Pir Panjal
2. Zaskar
Q 167. The Siwalik Series of rocks in
India 3. Karakoram
1. Contain fine brown clays 4. Shiwalik

2. Belongs to the Cenzoic era and
below.
thus considered to be bereft of fossil
remains a) 3214
Which of the above is/are correct? b) 2314
a) 1 only c) 2143
b) 2 only d) 1234
c) Both 1 and 2
Q 170. What is often referred to as
d) None
the ‘Third Pole’?
a) The Hindu Kush-Himalayan region
Q 168. With reference to “Great b) Polynesia
Himalayas” (northernmost
Himalayas), consider the following c) Alps mountain ranges
statements.
d) Southern hill ranges, India
1. Great Himalayas range includes
Pakistan, China, India, Nepal, and Tibet.
2. World's highest peak, Mount Q 171. Western Himalayan
Everest is a part of the Greater Himalayas ecoregion is drier and the forest is
range. more fragmented than its Eastern
Himalayan broadleaf forests
Which of the above is/are correct? counterpart because
36
1. Eastern Himalayas receives more 1. The Vindhyas are an unbroken continuous

moisture from the Bay of Bengal monsoon. chain of mountain anticlinal ridges.
2. Eastern Himalayas is at a higher 2. The Aravalli range are the oldest fold
average elevation than Western Himalayas. mountains in India rising upwards at a faster
than Himalayas due to tectonic instability.
a) 1 only
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
d) None

statements about the physiography of Q 174. Consider the following
India. statements about mountain ranges of
India.
1. The core of the Great Himalayan is made
up of limestone rocks. 1. The Vindhyas are an unbroken continuous
chain of mountain anticlinal ridges.
2. The trough of the Narmada river is
interposed between the Vindhyan and the 2. The Aravalli range are the oldest fold
Satpura ranges. mountains in India rising upwards at a faster
than Himalayas due to tectonic instability.
3. The Deccan Plateau receives heavy
rainfall throughout the year as it falls on the Which of the above is/are correct?
windward side of major hills of Central and
Southern India. a) 1 only

below.
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 3 only
d) None
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
Q 175. The core of the Great
d) 1, 2 and 3 only Himalayas is made up of
a) Limestone
Q 173. Consider the following b) Basalt rock

statements about mountain ranges of
c) Granite rock
India.
d) Sandstone
37
Q 178. The Bay of Bengal branch

strikes the coast of Myanmar and part
Q 176. Consider the following of southeast Bangladesh, but the ‘X’
matches of Himalayan ranges and
Hills along the coast of Myanmar
their peaks/ranges:
deflect a big portion of this branch
1. Himadri: A. Dhaulagiri towards the Indian subcontinent. X is
2. Himachal: B. a) Mahendragiri Hills

Mahabharat Lekh
b) Gilbert Hill
3. Shiwalik: C. Dhang
range c) Arakan Hills
Select the correct answer using the codes d) Anantgiri Hills
below.
a) 1C, 2A, 3B
Q 179. The Western Coasts of India
b) 1A, 2B, 3C
predominantly show which of these
c) 1B, 2A, 3C features?
d) 1B, 2C, 3A 1. Highly indented
2. Formation of wave-cut platforms in

front of the sea cliff
Q 177. With reference to Delhi Ridge,
consider the following statements. Which of the above is/are correct?
1. It is a northern extension of the a) 1 only
ancient Aravalli Range.
b) 2 only
2. It protects Delhi from the hot winds
of the deserts of Rajasthan to the west. c) Both 1 and 2
3. It hosts significant bird bio-diversity. d) None

below.
Q 180. The Kashmir Himalayas are also
a) 1 only famous for Karewa formations, which
are useful for the cultivation of
b) 2 and 3 only
a) Zafran, a local variety of saffron
c) 2 only
b) Broccoli and Leek which augment farmer’s
d) 1, 2 and 3 income
38
c) Cherry tomato and Parsley on the lower 2. The Narmada Valley enters the Narmada
reaches Valley between the Vindhya and Satpura
ranges, and pursues a direct westerly
d) Rosemary and Thyme used for ornamental course to the Gulf of Cambay.
purposes
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q 181. Meghalaya plateau has a c) Both 1 and 2
highly eroded surface and some
places are devoid of vegetation. d) None
Which of these can be a probable
reason?
DRAINAGE SYSTEM
a) It receives maximum rainfall from the
Monsoon. Q 184. The major tributaries of
Mahanadi are
b) It is a major volcanic zone.
1. Gandak
c) It is disturbed by frequent plate
movements. 2. Son
d) It is a region containing radioactive 3. Seonath

minerals.
4. Ong
Q 182. On the north, north-west and below.
north-eastern sides, India is largely
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
bounded by
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
a) Block mountains
c) 3 and 4 only
b) Fold mountains
d) 1 and 2 only
c) Volcanic mountains
d) Plateau Dome Mountains
Q 185. With reference to river,
which of the following will most
likely not exist if coriolis force were
Q 183. Consider the following to be absent?
statements.
a) Tributaries
1. The Western Ghats or Sahyadri range
starts south of the Tapti River near the b) Distributaries
border of Gujarat and Maharashtra. c) Meanders
39
d) Delta In the context of the above, which of these is

correct?
Q 186. Meander in rivers is caused explanation of A.
due to which of the following
factors? b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate
explanation of A.
1. Propensity of water flowing over
very gentle gradients to work on the c) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
river bed rather than laterally on the d) Both A and R are incorrect.
banks
2. Coriolis force acting on the fluid
water deflecting it like it deflects the wind Q 189. The river Brahmaputra
Which of the above is/are correct? receives a number of tributaries at its
north and south banks, in the
a) 1 only catchment area in India. Which of
these are its North Bank tributaries?
b) 2 only
a) Jiadhal, Pranahita, Noa Dehing and
c) Both 1 and 2 Subansiri
d) None
b) Manas, Krishnai, Manjira and Digaru
c) Champamati, Dhansiri and Siang
Q 187. Which of these is the
d) Musi, Koyna and Tungabhadra
southernmost tributary of the Indus
river meeting it in Pakistan?
a) Ravi Q 190. Most of the rivers of the
b) Beas Indo-Gangetic Plains are of
c) Chenab a) Radial drainage pattern
d) Satluj b) Trellis drainage pattern

c) Superimposed drainage pattern
Q 188. Consider the following d) Dendritic drainage pattern

statements.
Assertion (A): The Rivers that
originate in Western Ghats flow only Q 191. Consider the following
eastwards. statements.
1. Gangotri glacier, the primary source
Reason (R): The Indian Peninsula slopes
of the Ganges, is situated in Garhwal Himalayas.
downward to the eastern side from the
Western Ghats.
40
2. Gangotri Glacier lies between 25° N Select the correct answer using the codes
to 26° N latitudes. below.
Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only
b) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
d) None
Q 194. World’s largest riverine island is

Q 192. Which of the following rivers formed by which of the following
originate in India? rivers?
1. Parvati a) Godavari
2. Sutlej b) Ganges
3. Beas c) Brahmaputra
4. Chenab d) Cauvery

below.
a) 1, 3 and 4 only Q 195. The main water divide in
Peninsular India is formed by the
b) 2 and 3 only
a) Eastern Ghats
c) 3 and 4 only
b) Brahmagiri
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) Western Ghats
d) Shevroy Hills
statements.
1. Godavari river rises from the slopes of Q 196. Consider the following
Western Ghats. statements.
2. The drainage basin of Mahanadi is shared 1. The Sabarmati, Mahi and Luni rivers of
by Maharashtra, Telangana, Odisha and Peninsular India flow westwards.
Madhya Pradesh.
2. Narmada and Tapi flow westwards in rift
3. Tungabhadra, Koyana and Musi are the valleys and the faults in these valleys run
tributaries of Krishna river. roughly parallel to the Vindhyas and the
Satpuras.
41
b) 2 only d) None
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
statements.
Q 197. With reference to important 1. Sabarmati River, originates from one of the
Drainage Patterns, consider the western slopes of Aravalli range amd end into
following statements. the Gulf of Cambay of Arabian Sea.
1. Trellis pattern emerges when the primary 2. Chambal River is a southern-side tributary of
tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other Yamuna river.
and secondary tributaries join them at right
3. Luni River originates in the Pushkar valley
angles.
near Ajmer and ends in the marshy lands of
2. Dendritic pattern emerges when the rivers Rann of Kutch.
originate from a hill and flow in all directions.
Which of the above is/are correct? below.
a) 1 only a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 only
d) None d) 1 only
Q 198. The Arabian Sea drainage and Q 200. Which of the following is the
the Bay of Bengal drainage are western most and the longest tributary
separated from each other through the of the Ganga?
1. Aravalis ranges a) Yamuna
2. Sahyadri ranges b) Alaknanda
Select the correct answer using the codes c) Gandaki

below.
d) Mandakini
a) 1 only
42
Q 201. The Indus receives a number of Q 203. The rivers originating from the
Himalayan tributaries such as the Amarkantak range present a good
example of which of these drainage
1. Shyok patterns?
2. Gilgit a) Trellis
3. Zaskar b) Radial
4. Hunza c) Centripetal
Select the correct answer using the codes d) Dendritic
below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
statements.
c) 1 and 3 only
1. Over seventy per cent of the drainage area in
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 India is oriented towards Bay of Bengal.
2. No South Indian river discharges into Arabian

Sea.
Q 202. The tributaries of Dakshin
Ganga (so called) run through which of Which of the above is/are correct?
the following states? a) 1 only
1. Maharashtra b) 2 only
2. Madhya Pradesh c) Both 1 and 2
3. Chhattisgarh d) None
4. Orissa

Q 205. With reference to Indus river,
below.
a) 1 and 3 only
1. It is the westernmost of the
b) 2, 3 and 4 only Himalayan rivers in India.
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. It enters into Pakistan near Chillar in

the Dardistan region.
d) 1 and 4 only
3. The Indus flows in India only through
the Leh district in Jammu and Kashmir.
43
4. It passes through Ladakh and 2. Absence of meanders

Baltistan.
3. Non-perennial flow of water
below.
below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 206. The catchment area of Kaveri

River is spread the least in which of the Q 209. Which of these rivers have less
than 20,000 sq. km of catchment area,
following states?
and thus categorized as medium or
a) Tamil Nadu minor river basins?
b) Kerala 1. Mahi
c) Karnataka 2. Pennar
d) It falls nearly equally in all the three states. 3. Periyar
4. Meghna
Q 207. Among the following West Select the correct answer using the codes
Flowing small rivers, which has the below.
largest catchment area?
a) 1 and 2 only
a) Kalinadi
b) 3 and 4 only
b) Mahi
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) Dhandhar
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) Sabarmati
Q 210. The Brahmaputra, one of the

Q 208. Peninsular rivers are usually largest rivers of the world, has its origin
characterised by in which of the following glaciers of the
Kailash range?
1. Fixed course
a) Baltoro Glacier
44
b) Drang Drung Glacier d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) Zemu Glacier Q 213. This river rises in the Nepal

Himalayas between the Dhaulagiri and
d) Chemayungdung Glacier
Mount Everest and drains the central
part of Nepal. It enters the Ganga plain
in Champaran district of Bihar. The river
Q 211. Consider the following is
statements.
a) Gomati
1. The Jhelum, an important tributary of the
Indus, rises from a spring at the foot of the b) Gandak
Zaskar range of Himalayas. c) Ramganga
2. The Chenab is the shortest tributary of the d) Son
Indus and it flows through Himachal Pradesh.

Q 214. As compared to the Himalayan
a) 1 only
rivers, the Peninsular rivers carry very
b) 2 only little silt. Why is this the case?
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Peninsular rivers flow at a much slower rate

than the Himalayan rivers.
d) None
2. The Peninsular block is characterized by hard
rocky terrain.
Q 212. The tributaries of Cauvery River Which of the above is/are correct?
is/are
a) 1 only
1. Kapila
b) 2 only
2. Lokapavani
c) Both 1 and 2
3. Antahvasini
d) None
4. Kabini

below. Q 215. The Brahmaputra receives
numerous tributaries in its 750 km long
a) 1, 2 and 4 only journey through the Assam valley.
Consider the following about it.
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
45
1. The Brahmaputra enters into Bangladesh River Shyok, R. Gilgit, R. Zaskar

near Dhubri and flows southward. and R.Kabul.
4. Chenab is an important
2. In Bangladesh, the Tista joins it on its right tributary which rises from a
bank from where the river is known as the spring at Verinag.
Yamuna.
Which among above statements are
3. It merges with the river Gandaki before
correct?
falling in the Bay of Bengal.
A. Only 1, 2 and 3
B. Only 2 and 4
below.
C. Only 3 and 4
a) 1 and 2 only D. All of the above
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only Q 218. Which of the following rivers

passes through the most number of
d) 1, 2 and 3
states in India?
a) Brahmaputra
Q 216. Which of the following rivers is
b) Ganges
most likely to make an estuary?
c) Mahanadi
a) Tapi
d) Cauvery
b) Mahanadi
c) Krishna
d) Brahmaputra statements.
1. Bhagirathi and Alakhnanda originate in

Garhwal Himalayas and join at Devprayag to
Q 217. Consider the following form Ganga.
statements about River Indus,
2. The combined Ganga-Brahmaputra River
1. It is an antecedent river meets Meghna in Bangladesh and they
system. collectively flows into the Bay of Bengal.
2. It originates from glacier Which of the above is/are correct?
near Bokhar chu in Tibet where it
is known as Singi Khamban. a) 1 only
3. Indus River receives
b) 2 only
Himalayan tributaries such as
c) Both 1 and 2
46
d) None Manas and major right bank tributaries are

R. BurhiDihang, R. Dhansari.
2. Right bank tributaries of River Yamuna
Q 220. The Narmada River flows to are R.Chambal, R.Sind, R.Betwa and R,Ken.
the west, while most other large
Which of the above statement is/are
peninsular rivers flow to the
correct?
east. Why?
a) Only 1
1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
b) Only 2
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the
Satpuras. c) Both
3. The land slopes to the west from Central d) None

India.
Q 223. Which among the following
Select the correct answer using the codes statement is/are correct about
given below. Himalayan Drainage system?
a) 1 only
1. Features of deep gorges, V-shaped
b) 1 and 3 valleys, waterfalls are prevalent in their
mountain course.
c) 2 and 3
2. In plain, rivers show strong meandering
d) None tendency along with rapids.
below:
Q 221. Which of these rivers is
notorious for frequent shifting of a) Only 1
channels?
b) Only 2
a) Tapti c) Both
b) Brahmaputra d) None
c) Narmada
d) Yamuna
statements.
Q 222. Consider the following Assertion (A): River Kalinadi is an east-

statements, flowing river in the southern part of India.
1. Major left bank tributaries of River Reason (R): The Deccan plateau is higher
Brahmaputra are R. Subansiri, R. Kameng, R. along its western edge and gently slopes
towards the Bay of Bengal in the east.
47
In the context of the above, which of these

is correct?
Q 227. Consider the following pairs:
A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate
explanation of A.
Rivers Glacier
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate source
explanation of A.
1. Alaknanda Satopanth
C. A is incorrect, but R is correct. Glacier
D. Both A and R are incorrect 2. Sarda/ Sarayu Milan Glacier

3. Ghaghara Zemu Glacier
Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly
Q 225. Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini,
matched?
Lokapavani and Bhavani are
tributaries of a) 1 and 2
b) Only 1
a) Tapi
c) Only 2 and 3
b) Narmada
d) None
c) Mahanadi
d) Kaveri
statements.
Q 226. Arrange the rivers from
North-South order as you would 1. The traditional source of Krishna river is a
identify them in a map. spout from the mouth of a statue of a cow
in the ancient temple of Mahadev in the
1. Penganga state of Maharashtra.
2. Krishna 2. The source of the Cauvery river is in
Talakaveri, a pilgrimage site, located in the
3. Tungabhadra
Western Ghats.
4. Betwa
a) 1 only
below.
b) 2 only
a) 4321
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 4123
d) None
c) 3421
d) 3412
48
Q 229. Consider the following Which of the above flows / flow through
statements. Arunachal Pradesh?
a) 1 and 3 only
Assertion (A): Peninsular Rivers are usually
b) 2 and 3 only
ephemeral in nature.
c) 1, 2 and 3
Reason(R): Source of water for the d) 1 only
peninsular rivers is mainly Monsoon rainfall.
is correct? Q 232. What is the correct sequence
of the rivers- Godavari, Mahanadi,
A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate Narmada and Tapi in the descending
explanation of A. order of their lengths?
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate
explanation of A. A. Godavari- Mahanadi - Narmada-Tapi
C. A is incorrect, but R is correct. B. Godavari- Narmada- Mahanadi- Tapi
D. Both A and R are incorrect C. Narmada- Godavari- Tapi- Mahanadi

D. Narmada- Tapi- Godavari- Mahanadi
Q 230. This river originates from the

Rakas Lake, which is connected to Q 233. Consider the following pairs:
the Manasarovar lake by a stream,
in Tibet. Its flows in a north-westerly Rivers origin places
direction and enters Himachal
Pradesh at the Shipki Pass, where it 1. Mahanadi Raipur
is joined by the Spiti river. It is? 2. Krishna Mahabaleshwar
a) Jhelum 3. Kaveri Brahmagiri hills, Kogadu
b) Beas 4. Godavari Aurangabad
c) Sutlej Which of the above is/ are correctly
matched?
d) Chenab
a) Only 2 and 3
b) Only 1, 2 and 4
Q 231. Consider the following rivers:
c) Only 2 and 4
1. Barak d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Lohit MISC
3. Subansiri Q 234. Consider the following
statements.
49
1. Most of the South Asian region is resting 2. Bhagirathi river is fed by meltwaters from
on the Indian Plate, the northerly portion of under the snout of the Gangotri glacier.
the Indo-Australian Plate, separated from
3. Rivers Alkananda and Bhagirathi
the rest of the Eurasian Plate.
join to make river Ganga near Deoprayag.
2. South Asia experiences a wide variety of
climates ranging from subtropical
below.
continental climate to Alpine climate.
a) 1 and 2 only
below. b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only c) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only d) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Q 237. With reference to Gulf of
Mannar, consider the following
statements.
statements about the geography of 1. It is a large shallow bay in the
India. Indian ocean.
1. India is situated between 10° N 2. Ramsethu or Adam's Bridge

and 35° N latitudes. separates the Gulf of Mannar from Palk Bay.
2. East-West extent of India is 3. The dugong (sea cow) can be

greater than its North-South Extent. found here.
Which of the above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 only
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
b) 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 236. With reference to Glaciers in

India, consider the following Q 238. The Indian islands of the
statements. Arabian Sea are
1. Among the Northern states of 1. Spread from near equator two

India, Uttarakhand does not host a glacier. degree latitude to fifteen degree latitude
north
50
2. Largely made of coral deposits b) Sambhar Lake

Which of the above is/are correct? c) Kanwar Lake
a) 1 only d) Chandubi Lake
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q 241. The largest fresh water lake
in India was formed as a result of
d) None
a) Glacial activity
b) Tectonic activity
Q 239. Which of these is/are correct
differentiation(s) between Western c) Meandering of rivers – Ox bow lake
Ghats and Eastern Ghats?
d) Damming of local rivers
1. Western Ghats are at a lower average
elevation than Eastern Ghats.
2. While Western Ghats host mainly evergreen Q 242. Which one of the following
vegetation, deciduous vegetation is lakes is a salt water lake?
predominant in the Eastern Ghats.
a) Sambhar
3. Western Ghats is a source of many rivers,
whereas no river rises from Eastern Ghats. b) Dal
4. Western Ghats are continuous whereas
c) Wular
Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and broken at
several places. d) Gobind Sagar
below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only Q 243. The Kashmir Himalayas are
also famous for Karewa formations,
b) 2 and 4 only which are useful for the cultivation
c) 2, 3 and 4 only of
d) 1, 3 and 4 only a) Zafran, a local variety of saffron

b) Broccoli and Leek which augment
farmer’s income
Q 240. It is India's largest inland salt
lake and source of most of c) Cherry tomato and Parsley on the lower
Rajasthan’s salt production. It is a reaches
key wintering area for thousands of
d) Rosemary and Thyme used for
flamingos and other birds that
ornamental purposes
migrate from northern Asia. It is?
a) Chilka Lake
51
Q 244. Consider the following about Q 246. Annual range of temperature

the phenomenon of Upwelling in the is very low and annual rainfall is
Indian Ocean. high in which of these climate zones
as classified by Koeppen?
1. During the northeast monsoon, strong
upwelling occurs along the western coast of a) Mid-latitude climate zones
India.
b) Tropical Humid Climate
2. It brings nutrient-rich water to the surface
and enhances the biological productivity of c) Warm temperate Climate
the region.
d) Humid continental climate
below.
a) 1 only Q 247. Consider the following
statements.
b) 2 only
1. The ITCZ propagates poleward more
c) Both 1 and 2 prominently over land than over water, and
over the Northern Hemisphere than over the
d) None of the above Southern Hemisphere.
2. Aircraft flying through an active ITCZ
will encounter hazards such as air
CLIMATE, VEGETATION AND SOIL turbulence, lightning and wind shear with
CLIMATE the least likelihood among all zones on
Q 245. The wet season is shorter and earth.
the dry season is longer with the Which of the above is/are correct?
drought being more severe.
Temperature is high throughout the a) 1 only
year and diurnal ranges of
temperature are the greatest in the b) 2 only
dry season. Deciduous forest and
c) Both 1 and 2
tree-shredded grasslands occur in
this climate. This type of climate can d) None
be most likely found in
a) Mediterranean regions
b) North and south of Amazon forests in statements.
Brazil
1. In Humid Sub-tropical climate zone, the
c) South-western Australia air masses are generally unstable and cause
d) West Coastal South America rainfall throughout the year.
2. Marine west coast climate is located
poleward from the Mediterranean climate on
the west coast of the continents
52

below.
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 only
d) None
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None statements.
Assertion (A): During the month of July, the
whole equator belt experiences the lowest
Q 249. Western coasts in tropical pressure on earth and during the month of
regions receive lesser rainfall in the January highest on earth.
eastern coasts of continents. Which
of these can possibly explain the Reason (R): Inter-tropical convergence zone
phenomenon? (ITCZ) moves with apparent movement of
Sun with respect to the earth.
1. Western coasts are typically associated
with Mountains that block flow of moisture In the context of the above, which of these is
laden winds. correct?
2. Western coasts have year round lower a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate
temperature than eastern coasts at the same explanation of A.
latitude.
Which of the above is/are correct? explanation of A.
a) 1 only c) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
b) 2 only d) Both A and R are incorrect.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None Q 252. The important factors behind
seasonal change on earth are
1. Changing positions of the earth
Q 250. Consider the following about with respect to the Sun in its orbit
Savanna type climate.
2. Axial tilt of earth due to which different
1. It is confined between the tropic hemispheres receive different amount of
lines and temperate regions. solar insolation
2. It is characterized by year round Which of the above is/are correct?
rainfall and high rainfall.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
53
d) None
Q 256. The frequency of the tropical

depressions originating from the Bay
Q 253. Which of the following is of Bengal varies from year to year.
correct about Oceanic Nino Index Consider the following about it.
(ONI)?
1. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
a) It measures the productivity drop in (ITCZ) is a belt of low pressure which
oceans due to El-Nino events. circles the Earth generally near the equator
b) It shows the frequency of occurrence of where the trade winds of the Northern and
Southern Oscilllations (SOs) in the Indian Southern Hemispheres come together.
Ocean. 2. The paths of the tropical depressions
c) It compares east-central Pacific Ocean originating from the Bay of Bengal over
surface temperatures to their long-term India are mainly determined by the position
average. of the ITCZ.
d) None of the above Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q 254. Which of these happen in the
event of appearance of a La Nina? c) Both 1 and 2
a) Warmer-than-usual sea surface d) None
temperature and winds across the central and
eastern tropical Pacific Ocean
b) Reduced convection and cloudiness over Q 257. Which of the following states of
tropical Australia and Indonesia India would come under the Koeppen
Classification of “Cold Humid winters
c) A decrease in strength of the trade winds with short summers”?
across the tropical Pacific Ocean
a) Jammu & Kashmir
b) Uttarakhand
c) Arunachal Pradesh
Q 255. Which of these regions of India d) Tripura
would be classified as “Bwhw – Semi-
arid steppe climate” under Koeppen
Classification system?
a) West coast of India - south of Goa
Q 258. With reference to climatic
b) North-western Gujarat
distribution in India, consider the
c) Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu following statements.
d) Arunachal Pradesh
54
1. Most parts of India get rainfall during June- d) None

September, but on the coastal areas of Tamil
Nadu, it rains in the beginning of the winter
season. Q 260. The most constant jet streams
2. The Himalayas protect us from the chilly in the atmosphere have been identified
winds originating near the Arctic circle which to be
blow across central and eastern Asia. 1. Equatorial jet stream
3. The windward sides of Western Ghats and 2. Sub-tropical jet stream
Assam receive high rainfall during June-
September whereas the southern plateau Which of the above is/are correct?
remains dry due to its leeward situation along
the Western Ghats. a) 1 only

a) 1 only d) None
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
MONSOON AND RAINFALL

Q 259. To understand the variation in Q 261. Consider the following
statements about the combined
local climates of India, we need to take
phenomenon of southern oscillation -
into account which of the following
ENSO.
factors?
1. The appearance of warm water off the
1. Upper air circulation and the inflow coast of Peru is closely associated with the
of different air masses and jet streams pressure changes in the Central Pacific and
Australia during Southern Oscillation.
2. Inflow of tropical depressions during
the south-west monsoon period 2. When the ENSO is strong, Australia and
India receive heavy rainfall and China
Which of the above is/are correct? experiences drought.
a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the codes

below.
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only
55
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1, 2 and 3

d) None of the above d) 1 and 2 only
Q 262. Identify the INCORRECT Q 264. The Tamil Nadu coast

statement. remains dry during the Monsoon
season mainly because of
a) The rainfall over India is in part
orographic, associated with tropical 1. The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel
depressions originating in the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest
and the Bay of Bengal. monsoon.
b) On an average, the summer monsoon 2. It lies in the rainshadow area of

accounts for more than 85 per cent of the the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west
precipitation in India. monsoon.
c) Brahmaputra and Ganga particularly their Which of the above is/are correct?
northern tributaries, Mahanadi, Godavari
a) 1 only
and West Flowing Rivers originating from
the Western Ghats are found to be surplus b) 2 only
in water resources.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) 85 percentage of drought prone area in
India falls in the States of Rajasthan, d) None
Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Haryana and
Maharashtra.
Q 265. Based on the normal onset of
monsoon, which of these cities would
Q 263. Most parts of India do not get monsoon hit the latest?
rainfall in the Winter season, with a) Mumbai
some of the exceptions of
b) Jaipur
1. Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
c) Bhubneshwar
2. Tamil Nadu Coast and South-east d) Patna
Kerala
3. Western Uttar Pradesh and
Haryana Q 266. If you and your other three
friends are staying for a work
Select the correct answer using the codes assignment in each of the following
below. regions, between June-August, and
a) 3 only use a rain gauge to measure the
amount of rainfall, the one recording
b) 2 and 3 only the highest amount of rainfall would
be in
56
a) NCT Delhi 1. The temperature at tropics becomes

higher than that of regions near equator.
b) Northern Ganges plains
2. Brings Western Disturbances to India
c) Deccan Plateau
d) Hills of Meghalaya
a) 1 only
Q 267. The Arakan Hills deflect a big b) 2 only

portion of the Bay of Bengal branch of
Monsoon towards the Indian c) Both 1 and 2
subcontinent. These hills lie
d) None
a) On the borders of Meghalaya and Bangladesh
b) At the Assam-Bangladesh border
c) On Tripura-Mizoram borders
d) Along the coast of Myanmar Q 270. With regards to Nor Westers or
Kal Baisakhi, consider the following
statements.
Q 268. The breaks in Monsoon
1. It originates over Bihar and Jharkhand area,
rainfall are attributed to
moves eastwards and strikes West Bengal and
1. The cyclonic depressions mainly Odisha.
formed at the head of the Bay of Bengal
2. It is destructive for the pre-Kharif crops like
2. The anti-cyclonic disturbances originating jute and paddy.
in Mediterranean Sea reaching Northern
India in these months Which of the above is/are correct?
Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only

a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
d) None
Q 271. South-West Monsoon pattern

Q 269. Arrival of southwest monsoons in India is affected by which of the
after Summer Solstice leads to which of following?
the following phenomenon in India?
1. Warm ocean currents over the
Indian Ocean
57
2. Movement of Inter-tropical c) Both 1 and 2

Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
d) None
a) 1 only
Q 274. Western coasts in tropical
b) 2 only regions receive lesser rainfall in the
eastern coasts of continents. Which of
c) Both 1 and 2
these can possibly explain the
d) None phenomenon?
1. Western coasts are typically associated with

Mountains that block flow of moisture laden
Q 272. In Northern India in Punjab and winds.
Haryana, Winter rainfall occurs mainly
due to 2. Western coasts have year round lower
temperature than eastern coasts at the same
a) Arrival of weak temperate cyclones from the latitude.
Mediterranean Sea
b) Northeast monsoon crossing over the Bay of
Bengal a) 1 only
c) Anti cyclonic circulation patterns in Northern b) 2 only

India in winter
c) Both 1 and 2
d) All of the above d) None
Q 273. In the context of Indian climate,

Q 275. Mango showers in Kerala and
Mahawat is Karnataka are usually
1. Small amount of winter rainfall due to a) Pre-Monsoon showers
western and north western cyclonic
disturbances b) Post-Monsoon showers
2. Important for the growth of ‘rabi’ crops in c) Winter showers

Northern India
d) Sporadic and non-seasonal showers
a) 1 only
Q 276. Which of the following factors
b) 2 only affect Indian monsoon?
58
1. The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Which of the above is/are correct?
Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the
a) 1 only
Ganga plain
b) 2 only
2. The presence of the high-pressure area, east
of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over the c) Both 1 and 2
Indian Ocean d) None
3. High pressure over the plateau at about 9 km
above sea level
Select the correct answer using the codes statements.
below.
1. Western disturbance is a non-monsoonal
a) 1, 2 and 3
precipitation pattern driven by the
b) 2 and 3 only westerlies.
2. Western disturbances are usually
c) 1 and 3 only
associated with cloudy sky, higher night
d) 1 only temperatures and unusual rain.
a) 1 only
Q 277. The Indian Ocean Dipole
(IOD) refers to b) 2 only
a) A swing in the sea surface temperatures in c) Both 1 and 2

the western and eastern Indian oceans
d) None
b) Fluctuation of jet streams across the
Mediterranean and Indian regions
VEGETATION
c) Movement of monsoon winds to and fro
Tibetan plateau Q 280. “Westerlies come all the year
round. There is a tendency towards
d) Rapid upwelling of deep and shallow an autumn or winter maximum of
ocean currents near the eastern coast rainfall and light snow falls in
winter. Ports are never frozen but
frosts do occur on cold nights. The
seasons are remarkably distinct.”
Q 278. The state of Tamil Nadu This defines which of these climatic
receives rainfall through types?
1. Tropical cyclones emerging from a) North-West European Maritime Climate

the Bay of Bengal b) Mediterranean climate
2. Retreating North-East monsoon
c) Moist Mid-latitude Climates
59
d) Tropical Wet Climate Q 284. On the south-western coasts

of India, you are most likely to come
across which of these forests?
Q 281. The zone that experiences a) Tropical deciduous forests
the maximum precipitation and the
highest temperature among the b) Mangrove forests
following is
c) Tropical rainforests
a) Taiga
d) Montane forests
b) Savannah
c) Steppe
d) Semi arid deserts
statements.
Q 282. Which of the following forest
1. Mediterranean trees have adapted
types covers the largest area in
themselves to dry summers primarily by
India? shedding their leaves in the dry season.
a) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest 2. Temperate Deciduous Forests especially
those found in west coast of Europe display
b) Tropical Evergreen Forests
thick barks and wax coated leaves as an
c) Littoral and Swamp Forest adaptation for dry summers.
d) Sub-Tropical Broad Leaved Hill Forest Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
Q 283. Which of the following forest b) 2 only

types is common to Andaman and c) Both 1 and 2
Nicobar Islands, parts of North-
Eastern states and a narrow strip of d) None
the Western slope of the Western
Ghats?
a) Mangrove forests Q 286. Consider the following
statements.
b) Temperate forests
1. In Temperate grasslands, grass is very
c) Tropical moist forests short, soft, juicy and nutritive as compared
d) Coral forests to the long, coarse and spiky grass found in
Tropical grasslands.
2. Tropical grasslands have treeless plains
due to lesser rainfall and more temperature
60
as compared to temperate grasslands that a) 1 only

have a scattered tree population.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 only
d) None
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None Q 289. Plants found in deserts,
rather than in typical forests, are
likely to have deeper roots in order
Q 287. With reference to temperate to
evergreen forests, consider the 1. Perform transpiration via roots to escape
following statements. surface evaporation
1. These forests are usually found on the 2. Access greater moisture from deep layers
western marginal of continents in the mid- of soil near water table
latitudinal coastal region.
2. Both hard and soft wood trees are
found in these forests. a) 1 only
b) 2 only d) None
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None Q 290. The largest continuous

mangrove forest in the World is
found in
Q 288. With reference to Tropical a) Eastern coast of USA
Deciduous Forests, consider the
following statements. b) Western Coast of Africa
1. Tropical deciduous forests are the c) Eastern coast of India

monsoon forests found in the large part of d) Argentinian coast
India.
2. Some of the hardwood trees found in

these forests are sal, teak, neem and Q 291. Match the following trees to
shisham. the type of climate they are found in.
61
1. Deodar: A. 2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Himalayan moist
3. Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserve
2. Sandalwood:
B. Tropical Deciduous 4. Lakshadweep
3. Rosewood: Select the correct answer using the codes

C. Tropical Evergreen below.
4. Oak: a) 1, 2 and 3 only

D. Temperate Evergreen
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
below.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) 1C, 2A, 3D, 4B
b) 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
c) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C Q 294. As per the Forest Survey of
India, Open Forests are defined as
d) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C a) Degraded forest lands with canopy density
less than 10%.
b) All lands with tree canopy density of 40% and
Q 292. Consider the following more but less than 70%.
statements.
c) All lands with tree canopy density of 10% and
1. Total area under coral reefs is more but less than 40%.
lesser than the total area under forests on
land. d) All lands with tree canopy density of 70% and
above.
2. Coral reefs are not found beyond
the temperate regions.
Which of the above is/are correct? Q 295. Consider the following
statements.
a) 1 only 1. Among all the Indian coastal states and union
b) 2 only territories, the largest Mangrove cover is in
Gujarat.
c) Both 1 and 2
2. The mangroves cover along the East coast of
d) None India is substantially more than that of the West
coast due to the low lying sedimentary
structure of the east coast as against the high
rocky structure of West Coast.
Q 293. You are likely to find coral
reef formations here: Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
1. Marine National Park, Gulf of
Kutch b) 2 only
62
c) Both 1 and 2 Q 298. In India, Tropical and

subtropical moist broadleaf forests
d) None
can be found in
a) Andaman Islands
Q 296. How do plants in desert adapt
b) Brahmaputra Valley
to conditions of low moisture?
c) Lower Gangetic Plains
1. In some plants even the stem contains
chlorophyll for photosynthesis. d) All of the above
2. Some plants germinate and reproduce only

during the rainy season.
Q 299. Which of the following forest
Select the correct answer using the codes types is common to Andaman and
below. Nicobar Islands, parts of North-Eastern
states and a narrow strip of the
a) 1 only Western slope of the Western Ghats?
b) 2 only a) Mangrove forests
c) Both 1 and 2 b) Temperate forests
d) None c) Tropical moist forests
d) Coral forests
Q 297. Consider the following about Q 300. Which of the following forest
Savanna type climate. types covers the largest area in India?
1. It is confined between the tropic a) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
lines and temperate regions.
b) Tropical Evergreen Forests
2. It is characterized by year round
rainfall and high rainfall. c) Littoral and Swamp Forest
d) Sub-Tropical Broad Leaved Hill Forest
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q 301. In India, Tropical and
c) Both 1 and 2 subtropical moist broadleaf forests can
be found in
d) None
a) Andaman Islands
63
b) Brahmaputra Valley 1. Soils will usually develop to be thin on

steep slopes and thick over flat upland areas.
c) Lower Gangetic Plains
2. Soils over flat areas may develop a
d) All of the above thicker layer of clay with good accumulation
of organic matter giving the soil dark colour,
as compared to in hilly areas.
Q 302. Inter-tidal zones support large Which of the above is/are correct?
mangrove population because
a) 1 only
a) It is abundant in nutrients.
b) 2 only
b) It is a fresh water zone
c) Both 1 and 2
c) It is not touched by either high or low tides. d) None
d) It is a sediment free zone.

statements.
SOILS
Q 303. Mulching is a popular 1. Ants and rodents help in soil
method of soil conservation. This formation as they rework the soil up and
practice helps in down.
1. Retaining soil moisture 2. Earthworms feed on soil and the soil that
comes out of their body has a changed
2. Improving the organic matter of texture and chemistry.
the soil
3. Cutting step-wise flats on hilly below.
farms improving water retention
a) 1 only
below. b) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q 306. Consider the following
statements about the agricultural
properties of limestone dominated
soil.
statements about soil structure. 1. Limestone neutralizes the natural
acidity of the soil.
64
2. Solubility of limestone in water makes it a a) 1 and 2 only

poor choice to grow water-intensive crops.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
a) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q 309. In India, Alluvial Soils can be
d) None found in
1. Eastern Coastal Plains
Q 307. Soil tillage is done in order to 2. Western India
1. Reduce the population of 3. Southern India

microorganisms present in the soil
2. Improve soil infiltration and soil below.
aeration to promote plant growth
a) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only c) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None Q 310. One of the most important

tasks in agriculture is to turn the soil
and loosen it. It allows
Q 308. Excessive use of Chemical 1. Growth of earthworms and
fertilizers on crop fields may result microbes present in the soil
in
2. Plant roots to breathe comfortably
1. Soil degradation in the long run even when they are deep into the soil
2. Pollution of local water bodies Which of the above is/are correct?
and groundwater
a) 1 only
3. Reduction in native
microorganism population of the farm in the b) 2 only
long run
c) Both 1 and 2
below. d) None
65
Q 311. The laterite soil type is used d) Desert Soil

for growing cashew nuts, tea and
coffee in some of the Southern states
of India. The soil is ideal for such
cultivation because
factors of soil formation and their
1. It is a richer host of effect on the soil.
microorganism biodiversity as compared to
most other soil types like Alluvial 1. Parent Rock: A.
Soil. Rate of weathering of humus
2. Climate: B.
2. It has high humus content since it
develops in regions of high temperature Determines accumulation of soil
where microbial activity is high. 3. Relief: C. Affects
chemical properties and permeability
Select the most appropriate matches using
a) 1 only
the codes below.
b) 2 only
a) 1C, 2B, 3A
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 1C, 2A, 3B
d) None
c) 1A, 2B, 3C
d) 1A, 2C, 3B
techniques for soil conservation is
NOT well suited for soil Q 315. In India, Alluvial Soils can be
conservation in hilly areas? largely found in
a) Sheltered belts
1. Eastern Coastal Plains
b) Terrace farming
2. Western India
c) Countour barriers
3. Southern India
d) Countour ploughing
below.
Q 313. If you want to grow a crop a) 2 and 3 only
that requires moisture to be well
retained in soil, you would select b) 1 only
a) Alluvial Soil c) 1 and 3 only
b) Loamy Soil d) 1, 2 and 3
c) Black Soil
66
Q 316. Which of the following 3. Weathered rocks

statements regarding laterite soils of
Which of the following are a part of soil
India are correct?
composition?
1. They are generally red in colour. a) 1 and 2 only.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and b) 1, 2 and 3
potash.
c) 2 and 3
3. They are a well-developed in
Rajasthan and UP. d) 1 and 3
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow

well on these soils.
Q 319. Select the correct statement
Select the correct answer using the codes with reference to Soil conservation :
given below: a. Lands with a slope gradient of 15-
a) 1, 2 and 3 25% are well suited for cultivation
b. Finger gullies can be eliminated by
b) 2, 3 and 4 terracing
c. Shelter belts are not suitable for arid
c) 1 and 4 only
regions
d) 2 and 3 only d. Grazing and shifting cultivation help
in soil conservation
Q 317. Mulching as a soil

conservation measure involves : Q 320. Match the following
a) Piling up of rocks to slowdown flow of Type of

water along the slope. Soil Characteristics
b) Reducing surface run-0ff on steep slopes 1. Black soils i. Rich in Iron
by making flat steps oxide and Aluminum compounds
c) Using organic matter like straw to 2. Laterite soils ii. Rich in
conserve soil moisture organic matter and humus.
d) Protecting soil from wind erosion 3. Red and Yellow soils iii.
through belt of trees Develop from igneous rocks
4. Peaty soils iv. Clayey, deep
and impermeable
Q 318. Consider the following:
1. Organic matter below:
2. Minerals a) iv, b- ii, c-iii , d- i
67
b) iv, b- i, c- iii, d- ii
c) iii, b- i, c- iv, d- ii Q 323. Consider the following
d) iii, b- ii, c- iv, d- i statements with regards to Alluvial
soils :
1. They are rich in potash, but poor

Q 321. Which among the following in phosphorus
is not a characteristic of Saline soils?
2. They vary in nature from sandy
a) Saline soils contain large proportion of loam to clay
sodium, potassium and magnesium. 3. Their colour varies from light grey
b) Saline soils are not found in waterlogged to ash grey
and swampy areas. 4. They are not found in peninsular
c) These soils do not support vegetative region of India
growth. Which of the above statements are correct?
d) Excessive irrigation in dry climatic a) 1, 2 and 3
conditions promotes salinity.
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All are correct
statements with reference to Sheet
and Gully erosions:
1. Sheet erosion takes place mostly Q 324. Consider the following

on steep slopes factors with regards to Soil
formation :
2. Soil removal is not easily
noticeable in sheet erosion 1. Parent rock
3. Badland topography is a result of 2. Climate
gully erosion
3. Relief
4. Chambal basin is affected by gully
erosion Which of these factors affect soil
formation?
Select the correct statements:
a) 1, 2 and 3
a) All are correct
b) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only
68
MISC c) Thin air at Ladakh

d) High albedo of ice as compared to regions
Q 325. You will observe that rainfall down the hill
generally shows a reducing pattern
when moving from equator to the
poles. This is due to Q 328. Consider the following
a) Change in solar insolation statements.
b) Greater cloudiness at the sub-tropics than Transhumance

at the equator
1. is an ancient practice of moving domestic
c) Formation of wavy isotherms at equator animals from one grazing ground to another
d) Movement of Jet streams along the way 2. has been largely restricted to the Asian
and African continent due to frequent
seasonal changes that are not so
pronounced in continents such as Europe
statements. Which of the above is/are correct?
Assertion (A): Surface inversions are a) 1 only
stronger and more common during the
winter months, compared to summer. b) 2 only
Reason (R): Nights in the wintertime are c) Both 1 and 2
much longer than nights during the
summertime. d) None

correct?
a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate statements.
explanation of A.
1. Ladakh is enclosed by Karakoram Range
b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate in the north and the Zanskar Mountains in
explanation of A. the south.
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect. 2. Indus River flows through Ladakh and
d) Both A and R are incorrect. Gangri glacier can be found in Ladakh.
Q 327. Direct Heat of the Sun can be a) 1 only

felt immensely at Ladakh because of
b) 2 only
a) High water vapour saturation in air
c) Both 1 and 2
b) Day temperatures are very high in Ladakh
69
d) None Assertion (A): Tropical cyclones are

not formed at the equator.
Reason (R): Wind blows
Q 330. What is the ecological and perpendicular to the isobars at the equator.
economic importance of estuaries?
1. They provide ideal conditions for Ports correct?
due to their connection with open sea.
2. They filter out sediments and pollutants explanation of A.
from rivers and streams before they flow
into the oceans. explanation of A.
Which of the above is/are correct? c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
a) 1 only d) Both A and R are incorrect.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q 333. Consider the following

statements.
d) None
1. A tropical cyclone is a rapidly rotating
storm system characterized by a low-
Q 331. The delta region of the Indus is pressure centre and a closed low-level
largely a wasteland because atmospheric circulation.
a) It experiences year round wind erosion due 2. Tropical cyclones typically form over
to Mediterranean anti-cyclones. large bodies of relatively warm water and
derive their energy through the evaporation
b) It does not receive any precipitation over the of water from the ocean surface.
year.
c) Large amount of freshwater is diverted
towards the delta denuding the region of its top a) 1 only
soil.
b) 2 only
d) It is usually flooded with brackish water.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
NATURAL HAZARDS AND DIASASTER:
CAUSES CONSEQUENCES AND
MANAGEMENT Q 334. Why tropical cyclones are not
CYCLONE strongly formed at equator or regions
Q 332. Consider the following nearby?
statements. 1. Absence of strong Coriolis force
70
2. Lack of regions where warm and 1. The passage of extra tropical cyclone
cold fronts meet related fronts causes abrupt changes in the
weather conditions over the area in the
3. Flow of counter-currents disrupts middle and high latitudes.
cyclone patterns
2. Extra tropical cyclones do not form along
Select the correct answer using the codes the polar front due to the stable and low
below. temperature.
a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only
c) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
c) Both 1 and 2
statements.
1. Extra tropical cyclones form along the Q 337. Consider the naming of
polar front and can only originate over the tropical cyclones in various parts of
land. the world.
2. Tropical cyclones originate only over the 1. Willy-willies: Western Australia
seas and on reaching the land they dissipate.
2. Typhoons: South China Sea
3. Tropical cyclones cover a much larger
area than extra-tropical cyclones and are 3. Hurricanes: Atlantic Ocean
much more destructive.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
below.
a) 1 only
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only
Q 338. Match the following list of

cyclones that have occurred in the
past with their region of impact.
statements. 1. Phallin: Kerala
2. Hudhud: Mumbai
71
3. Vardah: Chennai a) Breakaway typhoons over the Northwest

Pacific move across the South China Sea into
4. Laila: Andhra Pradesh
the Bay of Bengal intensifying the cyclones.
Select the correct matches using the codes
b) Arabian Sea is colder than the Bay of Bengal
below.
a) 1 and 2 only c) Both (a) and (b)
b) 3 and 4 only d) None of the above
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only EARTHQUAKE and TSUNAMI
statements.
Q 339. Why is the eastern coast and
Assertion (A): The structure of earth
Bay of Bengal more prone to tropical
can be understood by observing the
cyclones than the Western Coast and
Arabian Sea? passage of earthquake waves
through different layers of earth.
1. Breakaway typhoons over the Northwest
Pacific move across the South China Sea Reason (R): Some type of earthquake
into the Bay of Bengal intensifying the waves do not travel through liquid material
cyclones. in earth’s layers.
2. Arabian Sea is colder than the Bay In the context of the above, which of these
of Bengal is correct?
Which of the above is/are correct? a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate

explanation of A.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only explanation of A.
c) Both 1 and 2 c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
d) None d) Both A and R are incorrect.
Q 340. Of the cyclones hitting the

Q 342. Which of these is/are
earthquake prone zones?
coastal regions of the country, on
average four out of five hit the eastern 1. The Alpine-Himalayan belt
shores of peninsular India. Why is the
eastern coast and Bay of Bengal more
2. Rim of Pacific Ocean
prone to tropical cyclones than the Which of the above is/are correct?
Western Coast and Arabian Sea?
a) 1 only
72
b) 2 only b) Sundarbans
c) Both 1 and 2 c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
d) None d) Gulf of Kutch
FLOODS
VOLCANOES
Q 343. The Ring of Fire does NOT
touch which of these countries? Q 346. Why floods are a frequent
a) Peru occurrence in Brahmaputra river basin?
b) Australia 1. The tributaries of Brahmaputra are large and

bring large water and sediment volume.
c) United States of America
d) Indonesia 2. The Brahmaputra often witnesses
heavy rainfall in its catchment area.

statements. a) 1 only
Assertion (A): Volcanism can induce b) 2 only

long-term climate change.
c) Both 1 and 2
Reason (R): Volcanic eruption injects
considerable amount of ash in the d) None
atmosphere.
correct? OTHER
Q 347. Why are avalanches more
common in the Northern Himalayas
explanation of A.
than in the Nilgiris?
1. Due to difference in rock
explanation of A.
structure and tectonic stability
2. Due to higher rainfall and a higher
d) Both A and R are incorrect. temperature gradient experienced in the
Himalayan region
Q 345. India’s only live volcano can be
found in a) 1 only
a) Lakshadweep b) 2 only
73

d) None b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Q 348. Temperature in cities is much d) 1, 2 and 3

higher than that of villages due to
1. Lower forest coverage in cities as
compared to villages Q 350. The conditions will be
favourable for the formation and
2. Concrete and asphalt structure in intensification of tropical storms if
cities capture and release heat
1. A pre-existing strong high-pressure area
3. Vehicular emissions in cities or corresponding wind circulation exists
release Greenhouse gases that trap heat around the area of formation of cyclone
4. Cities are more densely populated 2. The earth does not rotate around its own
as compared to villages axis hindering the generation of coriolis
force
below. Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 3 and 4 only a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) 2 and 4 only c) Both 1 and 2
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) None
Q 349. Consider the following about Q 351. A report titled “Strengthening

Heat Waves. Forest Fire Management in India”,
jointly prepared by the MoEFCC and
1. Climate change is leading to increased the World Bank, has been released.
frequency and intensity of heat waves.
1. Central India has the largest area
2. In India, it is most commonly experienced affected by fire.
in North-Western regions.
2. Forest fires occur in over two-
3. As per NDMA guidelines, when local thirds of the country’s 647 districts every
temperature is constantly above forty year.
degrees Celsius, heat waves must be
declared by local authorities. 3. India aims to increase its forest cover by
50 million hectares, as part of India’s
Select the correct answer using the codes National Action Plan on Climate Change.
below.
74
Select the correct answer using the codes c) Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Uttar
below. Pradesh
a) 1 only d) Gujarat and Rajasthan
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only Q 354. More than fifty per cent land
area of India is prone to drought in
d) 1 and 2 only varying degrees. Consider the
following with reference to drought
management.
1. Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
Heat Waves.
is the designated agency for providing
1. Climate change is leading to increased drought early warning and forecasting.
frequency and intensity of heat waves.
2. Ministry of Agriculture is the nodal
2. In India, it is commonly experienced in Ministry in respect of monitoring and
North-Western regions. managing drought conditions.
3. As per NDMA guidelines, when local Select the correct answer using the codes
temperature is constantly above forty below.
degrees Celsius, local authorities must
a) 1 only
declare heat waves.
b) 2 only
a) 1 and 2 only d) None of the above
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only MEASURES
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q 355. The “Sendai Framework for
Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030”
was adopted during the Third UN
World Conference on Disaster Risk
Q 353. According to a report Reduction held in Sendai, Japan in
submitted by Parliamentary Standing 2015. Consider the following about
Committee on Science and it.
Technology sometime back, which
of these states contribute the most to 1. It is a voluntary and non-binding
forest fires? agreement.
a) Maharashtra, Kerala and Tamilnadu 2. It is a successor instrument to the
Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) 2005-
b) Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and 2015.
Odisha
75
Which of the above is/are correct? following can be said with certainty
about Nation “A”?
a) 1 only
1. Sex-ratio is adverse in the adult
b) 2 only age group.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. The nation must be reaping the
d) None benefits of Demographic Dividend as a
vast majority of population is adult.
3. Both Birth rate and death rates are
Q 356. Global Information and Early high.
Warning System (GIEWS) is 4. Population is geographically
released by an agency of the United
concentrated.
Nations as a marker of
a) Epidemics
below.
b) Food price alerts a) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) Natural Hazards b) 1 and 3 only
d) Wars and genocide c) 2 and 4 only
d) 3 only
Q 357. Which among the following

is not a mitigation mechanism for
Landslides? Q 359. If men and women have
equal population for all major age
a) Hazard mapping groups in a country, the population
b) Construction of retention wall pyramid will tend to show
c) Decrease in the vegetation cover a) Vertical symmetry
d) The surface drainage control works b) Skewed base with narrow top
c) Horizontal symmetry
d) Narrow base with thick top
HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
POPULATION
Q 358. The population Pyramid of URBANIZATION
Nation “A” is broader at base and Q 360. During the period 2001-
rapidally narrows at the top. The 2011, which of the following Indian
pyramid is also symmetrical about cities added the most to its
the vertical axis. Which of the population?
76
a) Delhi LAND RESOURCES AND AGRICULTURE

b) Mumbai Q 363. Consider the following major
agricultural revolutions in India and
c) Chennai the associated major personalities.
d) Bengaluru 1. Green Revolution: M. S.
Swaminathan
2. Blue Revolution: Norman Borlaug
HUMAN SETTLEMENTS
Q 361. The categorization of Indian 3. White Revolution: Verghese
cities in different tiers (I, II, III) is Kurien
done on the basis of 4. Golden Revolution: Hiralal
a) Size of manufacturing sector Chaudhary
b) Standard of living Select the correct answer using the codes

below.
c) Population size
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) Distance from capital cities
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 4 only
Q 362. The Census of India
differentiates between urban and d) 1 and 3 only
rural areas on which of the following
criteria?
Q 364. “Bewar” is a term used for
1. Occupational structure
a) Water channel in uneven fields
2. Literacy rates
b) Tribal Hagiography
3. Resource base
c) Shifting cultivation
4. Population size
d) Traders and travellers
below.
a) 1 and 4 only Q 365. A sizeable portion of the

undivided country’s highly irrigated
b) 2 and 3 only and fertile land went to Pakistan; this
had an adverse impact upon India’s
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
output from the agriculture sector.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 One of most adversely affected
crops/sectors was
a) Sugar
77
b) Rice Which of the above is/are correct?

c) Millets a) 1 only
d) Jute b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q 366. Which of these is/are the d) None

advantages of the Zero-tillage
system?
1. No nitrogen needs to be applied to Q 368. In the practice of Organic
the soil. Farming
2. Mineralization of the soil 1. No genetic modification is done to

increases significantly improving soil increase the yield of the crop.
productivity. 2. No manures are used to modify
3. Surface runoff is reduced due to the natural properties of the soil.
presence of mulch.
3. No pesticides or weedicides are used
Select the correct answer using the codes allowing the food chain to work naturally at
below. the farm level.
a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes

below.
b) 2 only
a) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 367. Despite India being the
largest producer of Pulses in the
World, India imports Pulses to meet
Q 369. A recent NITI Aayog report
domestic demand. Why India can’t
has recommended that the Ministry
produce enough to meet domestic
of Agriculture should take up a
demand? “mission on jhum cultivation” to
1. Pulses are one-season crop and thus can ensure inter-ministerial convergence.
be grown only in Rabi season which In the context of the report, consider
severely reduces availability in other the following statements.
seasons.
Assertion (A): The report notes that between
2. Pulses require intensive irrigation 2000 and 2010, the land under shifting
facilities and heavy rainfall, which are not cultivation considerably increased.
fulfilled due to shortage of Monsoon rainfall
and irrigation bottlenecks.
78
Reason (R): The report observes that 1. The equatorial environment is suited to
damage caused by commercial farming and plantation agriculture due to the presence
conferring of forest land through Forest of humid climate and warm temperature,
Rights Act (FRA) has led people to return not found in Europe.
less often to fallow lands and invest more in
forest lands. 2. Colonies provided cheap labour and
access to good markets in Europe and North
In the context of the above, which of these is America where demand for such products
correct?
was on rise.
explanation of A.
b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate a) 1 only
explanation of A. b) 2 only
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect. c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Q 370. Which of the following crops

Q 372. If you want to increase the
can be grown in the Ganga- cultivation of Coffee, you would
Brahmaputra basin? recommend cropping coffee plants in
1. Maize which of these conditions?
a) Warm, wet climate and well-drained
2. Sorghum
loamy soil
3. Millets
b) Dry climate with a soil that holds water
4. Gram well
Select the correct answer using the codes c) A hot region with heavy rainfall and
alluvial soil
below.
d) Any region where sunshine and water are
a) 1 and 2 only
abundantly available
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3 only
Q 373. Which of these is/are the
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 advantages of the Zero-tillage
system?
1. No nitrogen needs to be applied
Q 371. Why the colonial rulers to the soil.
encouraged plantation agriculture in
their colonies, especially in tropics?
79
2. Mineralization of the soil b) 2 only

increases significantly improving soil
productivity. c) Both 1 and 2
3. Surface runoff is reduced due to d) None

presence of mulch.
below. Q 376. High value horticulture such
as grape cultivation is quite
a) 1 and 2 only advantageous in the Mediterranean
region because
b) 2 only
1. Fruits and vegetables are grown in
c) 3 only
winters when there is great demand in
d) 1, 2 and 3 only European and North American markets.
2. The rainfall is high enough in these

regions so that crops are grown without the
Q 374. Consider the following about requirement of irrigation.
Maize crop production in India.
1. Maize is cultivated throughout the year in
all states of the country. a) 1 only
2. It is the only crop for which no “cross b) 2 only
hybrids” have been introduced for field
trials or commercial production. c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above is/are correct? d) None
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q 377. Agricultural lands are
c) Both 1 and 2 generally left as fallow lands. This is
done because
d) None
a) Soil gets time to recoup its natural
fertility.
Q 375. Millets can be grown in b) Organic matter in soil exceeds the
1. Less fertile and sandy soils desired levels.
2. Semi-arid regions with low c) Fallow lands are converted to wastelands

rainfall to construct embankments.
Which of the above is/are correct? d) These lands are left to be used for social
forestry.
a) 1 only
80
Q 378. Consider the following about a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate

podu cultivation system. explanation of A.
1. Kondha and Kutia tribes practice this b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate
system of shifting cultivation. explanation of A.
2. The system is extensively c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

practiced in the Eastern plains of India.
a) 1 only
Q 381. This state is the largest
b) 2 only provider of coconut, natural rubber
and black pepper to Indian markets.
c) Both 1 and 2 It is largely an agrarian economy.
The state is?
d) None
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Kerala
Q 379. The climatic or soil condition
beneficial to the growth of both Rice c) Maharashtra
and Wheat is?
d) Odisha
a) High rainfall and a soil that can retain
water
b) Moderate temperatures and a soil that is Q 382. Which of the following crops
well-drained is/are a kharif crop in North India and
rabi crop in South India?
c) Low rainfall and a sandy loam soil
1. Groundnut
d) None of the above 2. Sesamum
3. Mustard
Q 380. Consider the following Select the correct answer using the codes
statements. below.
Assertion (A): In some parts of Southern a) 1 and 2 only

India, Kharif crops can be grown during any b) 2 only
period in the year.
c) 1 and 3 only
Reason (R): Southern India receives
d) 3 only
continuous but light rainfall throughout the
year.

is correct?
81
Q 383. Consider the following about 1. Millet production is not

Agrinnovate India Limited (AgIn). necessarily dependent on the use of
chemical fertilizers.
1. It is a “not for profit” company owned by
Department of Agricultural Research & 2. Majority of the millet crops do not
Education (DARE). attract pests and are also not affected
by storage pests.
2. It aims to promote Research and
Development (R&D) outcomes in 3. Millets are rich in phytochemicals
agriculture through IPR protection in India such as polyphenols and antioxidants.
and abroad.
4. Due to a Low Glycaemic Index
Which of the above is/are correct? (GI) of millets, they result in a
slower release of glucose over a
a) 1 only longer time and thus their habitual
intake reduces the risk of diabetes
b) 2 only
mellitus.
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None below.
a) 1, 2 and 3
Q 384. Consider the following b) 2 and 4 only

statements. c) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Pulses are rich in bioactive compounds d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
such as anti-oxidants.
2. Pulse production contributes to higher
green house gas emissions than animal Q 386. The main season for
protein production, per unit of production. Sugarcane growth in South India is
most likely to be
a) May-June
a) 1 only
b) August-September
b) 2 only
c) October-December
c) Both 1 and 2
d) December-May
d) None
Q 385. Which of the following is/are Q 387. With reference to the

some of the advantages of growing “natural control of pests and
Millets? diseases” on a farm, consider the
following statements.
82
1. The aim of such natural control is to Q 389. Which of the following

eradicate the pests altogether because they varieties of pulses are grown in
have no role to play in the ecosystem. India?
2. A wide variety or "genetic diversity" 1. Cowpea

between the plants within a single crop is
2. Horsegram
important for effective natural control of
pests and diseases in a farm. 3. Blackgram
3. A healthy plant grown with soil managed 4. Sword Bean
using organic methods will give plants a
balanced food supply and help them Select the correct answer using the codes
become naturally more resistant to pest below.
and disease.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
below.
a) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 only Q 390. With reference to B.
thuringiensis, commonly known as
‘Bt’, consider the following
Q 388. Which of the following is/are statements.
nitrogen deficiency symptoms in rice 1. It is a spore forming gram positive
plants? bacterium.
1. Leaves are narrow, short, erect 2. It is commercially produced worldwide
and lemon-yellowish green. using fermentation technology.
2. Deficiency symptoms first appear at the Which of the above is/are correct?
tip and progress along the midrib an till the
entire leaf is dead. a) 1 only
b) 2 only d) None
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None Q 391. Which of the following crops
is NOT classified as Millets in India?
a) Ragi
83
b) Maize 1. Chickpea
c) Sorghum 2. Finger Millet
d) Castor 3. Sorghum
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
Maize crop production in India.
b) 2 only
1. Maize is grown in India in both kharif and
rabi seasons. c) 1 only
2. It is the only crop for which no cross d) 1 and 3 only
hybrids have been introduced for field trials
or commercial production.
Which of the above is/are correct? Q 395. Rice, Maize, Ragi, Jowar and
Groundnut are grown in both Kharif
a) 1 only and Rabi season in which part of
b) 2 only India?
c) Both 1 and 2 a) Western India
d) None b) North-eastern India

c) Northern India
d) Southern India
Q 393. Agricultural lands are
generally left as fallow lands. This is
done because
Q 396. Agricultural lands are
a) Soil gets time to recoup its natural generally left as fallow lands. This is
fertility. done because
b) Organic matter in soil exceeds the desired a) Soil gets time to recoup its natural
levels. fertility.
c) Fallow lands are converted to wastelands b) Organic matter in soil exceeds the desired
to construct embankments. levels.
d) These lands are left to be used for social c) Fallow lands are converted to wastelands
forestry. to construct embankments.
d) These lands are left to be used for social
forestry.
Q 394. Which of these are legumes
and are known for their ability to
survive in harsh conditions?
84
Q 397. India is the world's largest

producer of
1. Milk statements.
2. Pulses Assertion (A): India grows only short staple
(Indian) cotton, whereas long staple
3. Rice (American) cotton is grown in Pakistan and
Afghanistan.
4. Jute
Reason (R): India lost a large proportion of
5. Cotton
cotton growing area to Pakistan during
Select the correct answer using the codes partition.
below.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only correct?
b) 3, 4 and 5 only a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate

explanation of A.
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 explanation of A.
Q 398. Maize is grown all over the d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

country except the regions of
a) Eastern and north-eastern states
Q 401. Leading producers of bajra
b) Western India are the states of
c) Northern India a) Maharashtra, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh,
d) South-western India Rajasthan and Haryana
b) Bihar, Odisha, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya
Pradesh and Rajasthan
Q 399. Cropping intensity is the ratio
of c) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya
Pradesh and Rajasthan
a) Net Sown area and total geographical area
of the country d) Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh,
Tamil Nadu and Kerala
b) Gross cropped area and total geographical
area of the country
c) Gross Cropped area and Net Sown area Q 402. Plants require several macro-
nutrients. One of them is involved in
d) Net Sown area and Total reported forest processes which ensure carbon
area assimilation and the transportation of
products of photosynthesis. Its
85
presence in sufficient amounts also Q 404. Which of the following

ensures resistance to frost, drought conditions facilitate the growth of Jute?
and certain diseases. The vital
nutrient is? a) Well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains
and high Temperature at the time of growth
a) Nitrogen
b) Water retaining soils in hilly areas where
b) Potassium
mean annual temperature is generally lower
c) Calcium than plains
d) Phosphorous c) Sandy soils in arid and semi-arid regions
d) Laterite soils in Western Coastal regions of

India within moderate temperature zones
Q 403. Consider the following map
showing the distribution of a
particular crop in India.
Q 405. In which of the following states
of India, the Net Sown Area as a
percentage of total area is highest?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Mizoram
c) Punjab
d) Manipur
Q 406. The right conditions for growing

Cotton are
a) High temperature, light rainfall, frost-free

days and bright sunshine
The above most likely refers to the area b) Freezing temperature, heavy rainfall, frost-
under. free days and bright sunshine
a) Rice c) Moderate temperature, heavy rainfall and

cloudy weather
b) Wheat
c) Pulses d) Low temperature, low rainfall and cloudy
weather
d) Sorghum
86
Q 407. What do you understand by the cultivation and its production in India.
term ‘Social Forestry’? This can be attributed to
1. Reducing the pressure on the traditional 1. Fluctuation in average rainfall during

forest area by encouraging plantations on the sowing season
community land
2. Average price of Jute and competing
2. Promoting commercial harvesting of timber crops realized in last season
and non-timber products from traditional
forests by community to meet local demands
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only
d) None
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
WATER RESOURCES
Q 410. With reference to the
Q 408. Which of these crops are regulation and development of
generally grown together in Mixed groundwater in India, consider the
Cropping? following statements.
1. Sorghum, Bajra and cowpea in rainfed 1. Atal Bhujal Yojana is a Centrally

conditions to reduce crop failures Sponsored Scheme (CSS) focussing
exclusively on hard rock aquifers.
2. Wheat and Mustard for better utilization of
2. Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA)
soil nutrients
is regulating ground water development in
Which of the above is/are correct? all the States and UTs of India.
3. CGWA was constituted under the Water
a) 1 only
(Protection) Act, 1986.
b) 2 only 4. Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) is a
c) Both 1 and 2
subordinate office of the Ministry of Water
Resources, Government of India.
d) None
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
Q 409. There is always significant
fluctuation in the area under jute b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
87
c) 2, 3 and 4 only a) Unconsolidated Formations

d) 4 only b) Semi-Consolidated Formations
c) Fissured Formations
Q 411. The Namami Gange Scheme d) Consolidated Formations

builds over the older Ganga Action
Plan. The stated objective(s) of the
Ganga Action Plan was to
a) Restore the river water quality to the Q 414. The largest consumer of
'Bathing Class' standard ground water in India is
b) Restoring the river water quality to the a) Irrigation sector
'Drinking Class' standard
b) Textiles sector
c) Bring the major distributaries to
‘Industrial Class’ Standard c) Household sector
d) Bring the major tributaries to ‘Near d) Commercial Reverse Osmosis (RO)
Source’ standard plants
Q 412. The Union Cabinet chaired Q 415. In India, which of these

approved providing Central geological formations hosts the
Assistance for implementation of most significant ground water
relining of Sirhind Feeder Canal over reservoirs for large scale and
five years (2018-19 to 2022-23). extensive development?
This relining would address the
problem of water-logging in which a) Unconsolidated Formations
of these regions?
b) Semi-Consolidated Formations
a) South-West Punjab
c) Fissured Formations
b) Northern Uttar Pradesh
d) Consolidated Formations
c) Southern Uttarakhand
d) NCT Delhi
Q 416. The largest consumer of
ground water in India is
Q 413. In India, which of these a) Irrigation sector

geological formations hosts the b) Textiles sector
most significant ground water
reservoirs for large scale and c) Household sector
extensive development?
d) Commercial Reverse Osmosis (RO)
plants
88
Q 419. The most promising

Geothermal energy site in India has
MINERAL AND ENERGY RESOURCES been identified in Puga valley of
Q 417. Consider the following Ladakh. There are seven other
matches of minerals with their geothermal provinces in India which
deposits in India. include
1. Mica: Jharkhand 1. Godavari basin
2. Copper: Andhra Pradesh 2. Malabar Coast
3. Gold: Karnataka 3. Cambay
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. Son-Narmada-Tapi basin

below.
a) 1 and 2 only below.
b) 3 only a) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4 only
Q 418. In India, Uranium reserves

can be found in which of the Q 420. Valuable minerals in India
following belts? are more likely to be associated with
1. Orewadi Basin of Madhya Pradesh a) Blue quartz phenocrysts
2. Singhbhum Thrust Belt b) Metamorphic rocks
3. Cuddapah basin of Andhra c) Basaltic rocks of andesite and rhyolite

Pradesh type
4. Mahadek basin of Meghalaya d) Sedimentary and Haedan age rocks

below.
Q 421. Which of these minerals can
a) 2 and 3 only be found in Southern India?
b) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. Copper
c) 1 and 4 only 2. Iron
d) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. Mica

4. Bauxite
89
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
below. below.
a) 1 and 4 only a) 1 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) 3 only
Q 422. Why the extraction of Q 424. The continent that has large
mineral from Manganese Nodules iron ore deposits and produces
from Indian Ocean is of crucial nearly half of the Tin production of
importance to India? the World is
1. India is heavily dependent on imports to a) Asia

meet its requirements of cobalt and nickel b) Europe
both of which are strategic minerals in
nature. c) Australia
2. These metals are fast depleting from the d) South America
face of the earth which increases the
importance of ocean resources.
Q 425. Natural gas reserves in India
can be found in
a) 1 only
1. Gulf of Khambhat
b) 2 only
2. Andaman and Nicobar
c) Both 1 and 2
3. Krishna-Godavari basin
d) None
4. Back Bay
5. Ambracian Gulf
statements. Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
1. When India attained Independence in
1947, it was self sufficient in salt production a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
and needs.
b) 2 and 5 only
2. Lake brine is not used as a salt source in
India. c) 3 and 4 only
3. Rock Salt Deposits in India can be found d) 1, 2 and 3 only

at Mandi in the State of Himachal Pradesh.
90
Q 426. Aravallis in Rajasthan and Select the correct answer using the codes
Srisailam forests in Andhra Pradesh below.
are known for hosting
a) 3 and 4 only
a) Uranium mines
b) 1 and 2 only
b) Gold mines
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) Diamond mines
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) Platinum mines
Q 427. Consider the following about Q 429. Major Mineral oil reserves
Manganese Nodules found in the are found in which of the following?
Ocean. 1. Venezuela
1. They are generally found within shells 2. Nigeria
floating at the sea surface along with
phytoplankton. 3. Russia
2. They mainly contain manganese, 4. Libya

cobalt, nickel and copper.
3. Crude oil is extracted from these below.
nodules in the Indian Ocean.
a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes b) 3 and 4 only
below.
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
a) 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q 430. The South-Western Plateau
Region is known for the deposits of
which of the following minerals?
Q 428. The South-Western Plateau
Region is known for the deposits of 1. Ferrous metals
which of the following minerals?
2. Bauxite
1. Ferrous metals
3. Coal
2. Bauxite 4. Kyanite
3. Coal Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
4. Kyanite
91
a) 3 and 4 only 2. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt
b) 1 and 2 only 3. Bellary-Chitradurga-Chikmaglur-

Tumkur belt
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
Q 431. Aravallis in Rajasthan and
Srisailam forests in Andhra Pradesh b) 1 only
are known for hosting
c) 2 and 3 only
a) Uranium mines
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Gold mines
c) Diamond mines
d) Platinum mines
statements.
1. Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh

Q 432. Gujarat state has the longest are known for copper production.
and widest continental shelf among
all states in India. This has which of 2. Khetri mines in Rajasthan are famous
the following implications? as a major aluminium producer.
1. No potential fisheries zone is Which of the above is/are correct?

found in Gujarat coasts.
a) 1 only
2. The shelf provides a rich ground
for hydrocarbon extraction. b) 2 only
Which of the above is/are correct? c) Both 1 and 2

a) 1 only d) None
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q 435. Which of the following minerals
d) None has the highest concentration in
seawater and can be commercially
extracted from it?
Q 433. The major iron ore belts in India
a) Calcium
are
b) Potassium
1. Orissa-Jharkhand belt
c) Chloride
92
d) Sodium b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q 436. About 95% of India's mica is d) None

distributed in just three states of India
which include
a) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
b) Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand and

Maharashtra
INDUSTRIES
c) Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan Q 439. Foot loose industries are
those which can be located in a wide
d) Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and variety of places because of
Chattisgarh
1. Non dependence on any raw
material because they merely
outsource the work of other
Q 437. Wind power potential at 100 industries
metre Average Ground Level will be the
highest in which of these parts of India? 2. Heavy dependence on component
parts which can be obtained nearly
a) Western India anywhere
b) Central India 3. The use of weight losing raw

materials
c) Eastern coasts
4. Their exclusive dependence on
d) Northern India unskilled labour which can be obtained
anywhere

Q 438. Consider the following below.
statements.
a) 1 and 2 only
1. Geographical distribution of Crude oil
indicates that the maximum reserves are in b) 2 and 3 only
Assam followed by the Western Offshore of
c) 1 and 3 only
India.
d) 2 and 4 only
2. Coal deposits are mainly confined to
eastern and south central parts of the country.
Which of the above is/are correct? Q 440. The states that do NOT have
any operating Nuclear reactors are
a) 1 only
93
1. Kerala 1. CNG is less likely to ignite on hot

surfaces, since it has a high auto-
2. Gujarat ignition temperature.
3. Odisha 2. CNG contains toxic lead.
4. Maharashtra
3. While CNG is a cleaner fuel, it
Select the correct answer using the codes has a lower calorific value than diesel and
below. petrol.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes

below.
b) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only
c) 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Renewable Energy
Q 441. Cabinet had approved a
policy framework for development
of Underground Coal Gasification Q 443. Methanol is a promising fuel
(UCG), some time ago, in coal and as it is clean, cheaper than fossil
lignite bearing areas in the country. fuels and a good substitute for heavy
What is/are the benefits of UCG? fuels. Consider the following about
it.
1. It significantly reduces the use of
groundwater in coal related operations. 1. Methanol can be produced from
renewable sources such as biomass and
2. It reduces generation of harmful air recycled carbon dioxide.
pollutants associated with coal mining.
2. India is able to meet its methanol
Which of the above is/are correct? requirements domestically and exports it to
Gulf and Central Asian nations.
a) 1 only
3. Methanol burning does not cause sulphur
b) 2 only oxides (SOx) emissions.
c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
d) None
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
Q 442. Compressed Natural Gas
(CNG) is being promoted in place of c) 3 only
Diesel and Petrol as a cleaner vehicle
fuel in India. Which of the following d) 1 only
is/are the properties of CNG?
94
d) China and Russia
Q 444. Energy is harnessed from

Tides using
Q 447. The coastline of Atlantic
a) Temperature difference between high Ocean provides an ideal location for
and low tides natural harbours and ports because
b) The potential energy of high tides a) Deltas are a frequent occurrence near
c) Flow of Ocean currents during low tides the Atlantic Ocean.
d) All of the above b) It has an irregular and indented coastline.
c) Tidal phenomenon is scarcely observed in

the Ocean.
TRANSPORTATION AND
COMMUNICATION d) Waves and currents hold the least
Q 445. Consider the following potency in the Ocean compared to the rest
statements. of the water bodies around.
1. Out of all the existing and proposed

National Waterways, the majority are in the
North-eastern states.
statements about vehicle number
2. No National waterway in the NE states plates in India.
has been planned on the Brahmaputra owing 1. Vehicles belonging to foreign
to the rapid flow, turns and bends of the consulates have white lettering on a light blue
river. background.
Which of the above is/are correct? 2. The President of India and state governors
travel in official cars with black number license
a) 1 only plates.
b) 2 only 3. Military vehicles have a unique numbering
system where the year number in which the
c) Both 1 and 2 vehicle was procured is also displayed on the
plate.
d) None
below.
Q 446. Asian Highway – 1 (AH-1) a) 1 only
starts and ends in which of the
following countries? b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
a) Japan and Turkey
d) 1 and 3 only
b) Russia and Pakistan
c) Indonesia and Iran
95
MISC b) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate

explanation of A.
Q 449. South Asia covers roughly
what percentage of the total land area c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
and population of Asia?
a) One-sixth and one-third respectively
b) One-fifteenth and one-half respectively
Q 452. The modern convention for
c) One-ninth and one-fourth respectively the land boundary between Asia and
d) One-fifth and one-third respectively Africa runs along the
a) Isthmus of Suez and the Suez Canal in
Egypt
Q 450. Polavaram Project is a multi- b) Persian Gulf
purpose irrigation project which has
been accorded national project status c) The narrow strait that joins Caspian and
by the central government. It is being Black Sea
built across which of the following
rivers? d) Saudi Peninsula
a) Krishna
b) Godavari Q 453. Consider the following
statements.
c) Cauvery
1. Global Atmosphere Watch of the UN-
d) Mahanadi SPIDER studies the variability and trends in
atmospheric composition and assesses the
consequences thereof.
2. The Integrated Drought Management
statements.
Programme (IDMP) of the World
Assertion (A): An observer standing Meteorological Organization (WMO)
at sea level on either pole is closer to supports stakeholders at all levels by
Earth's central point than if standing providing policy and management guidance
at sea level on the Equator. for Integrated Drought Management.
Reason (R): A rotating body tends to Which of the above is/are correct?
form an oblate spheroid rather than a sphere.
a) 1 only
correct? b) 2 only
a) A is correct, and R is an appropriate c) Both 1 and 2
explanation of A.
d) None
96
1. Various rare earth elements could

be found in the Indian Ocean.
statements. 2. It provides important sea lines of
communication between East and West
1. International Commission on Stratigraphy Asia.
is responsible for standardising the geologic
time scale. 3. Nearly 40% of the world’s offshore oil
production takes place in the Indian Ocean
2. The Meghalayan Age began with a mega basin.
global drought that devastated present day
ancient agricultural civilisations from Egypt below.
to China.
a) 2 only
3. The Holoscene age has been dated to
nearly 250,000 years ago. b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes c) 1, 2 and 3

below.
d) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
Q 457. Which of the following are
c) 1 only related to Millankovitch oscillations
of earth?
d) 2 and 3 only
1. Shape of the Earth's orbit around
the Sun
Q 455. Jet planes flying in the sky 2. Glaciation cycles on earth

leave a white trail for the same
reason that
a) 1 only
a) The eye of Cyclones remain quiet
b) 2 only
b) Automobiles exhaust polluted particles
c) Both 1 and 2
c) You can see your breath
d) None
d) Air pressure reduces in the hilly areas
with increasing altitude
Q 458. Catalonia, was recently in
news due to which of the following
Q 456. The Indian Ocean is reasons?
important for which of the following
reasons? a) Intended separation from Spain
97
b) Recording the highest GDP growth 2. The paraboloid shape of most igloos
among all major cities of the World causes less stress on the snow as it ages
making the structure less prone to buckling
c) Running completely on Solar power
d) Declared a tax haven
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q 459. A group of experts,
constituted by NITI Aayog, has c) Both 1 and 2
urged the government to set up a
dedicated mission to salvage and d) None
revive spring water systems in the
country’s Himalayan States based on
the report “Inventory and Revival of
Springs in the Himalayas for Water Q 461. Consider the following
Security, 2018”. Consider the statements.
following with reference to it.
1. A maloca is an ancestral long
1. Almost half of the perennial springs in the house used by the natives of the Amazon.
region have already dried up or have
become seasonal. 2. Maloca is dedicated exclusively to
hearth rituals for appeasing the forest deity.
2. Majority of the cultivable area in the
Himalayas is fed by natural springs. Which of the above is/are correct?
3. Sikkim has the greatest density of a) 1 only

natural springs in Eastern Himalayas.
b) 2 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 d) None
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only Q 462. What are Polar mesospheric
clouds (PMCs)?
d) 1 and 3 only
1. They form right above the poles,
1-2 miles, during extreme winters.
Q 460. Igloos make good shelters in 2. They are mostly made up of ice
cold climates because crystals and appear like faint lines in the
1. The air trapped in snow makes it sky.
a good insulator keeping the igloo warm 3. These clouds are affected by atmospheric
gravity waves which are caused by the
convecting and uplifting of air masses.
98
Select the correct answer using the codes d) 220 + 12 nautical miles
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only statements.
c) 2 and 3 only 1. The Kimberley Process Certification

Scheme (KPCS) outlines the rules that
d) 1 and 3 only govern the trade in rough diamonds.
2. “Conflict Diamonds” means rough
diamonds used by rebel movements or their
Q 463. In geography, the antipode allies to finance conflict aimed at
of any spot on Earth is the point that undermining legitimate governments.
a) Lies on a similar latitude but on an 3. Conflict Diamonds find mention in the
exactly opposite longitude United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
resolutions.
b) Experiences the same coriolis force in the
other hemisphere of earth Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
c) If a straight line connects two antipodes,
it would pass through Earth's centre a) 1 and 2 only
d) Experiences a magnetic field same in b) 1 and 3 only
magnitude, but opposite in direction
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 464. The country that has the
most number of time zones is
a) Russia
b) China Q 467. Anaerobic respiration is a
critical component of which of these
c) France
elemental cycles on earth?
d) USA
1. Nitrogen cycle
2. Carbon cycle
Q 465. India’s territorial limit Select the correct answer using the codes
extends into the sea from its below.
coastline upto
a) 1 only
a) 12 nautical miles
b) 2 only
b) 220 nautical miles c) Both 1 and 2
c) 12 + 12 nautical miles d) None of the above
99
Q 470. A nautical mile is based on the

circumference of the earth, and is equal
to
Q 468. The Antarctic has also been a) one minute of latitude
called as the “Pole of Ignorance”
because b) one second of latitude
1. It was difficult to survey Antarctica with c) one minute of longitude at equator
the help of artificial space satellites.
d) one second of longitude at equator
2. The pole was uninhabited.
3. Many regions beneath the thick ice cover
of Antarctica were unknown to scientists for
Q 471. Who is the statutory authority
long.
in charge of the waterways in India?
below. a) Central Water Commission
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) National Waterways Development Project
b) 2 and 3 only c) Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)
c) 1 only d) None of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
Q 472. Evidence derived from several

“Interglacial periods” is used to predict
which of the following?
Q 469. Jatropha curcas can be used
in which of the following ways? 1. Climate change on earth
1. Oilseed for bio-diesel production 2. Initial loss of atmosphere from earth
2. Fish or animal feed, if detoxified Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 only
a) 1 only
b) 2 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) None d) None
100
Q 473. Gujarat state has the longest c) Srinagar

and widest continental shelf among all
d) Kathgodam
states in India. This has which of the
following implications?
1. Gujarat coasts, near the shelf, do not

host any potential fisheries zone. Q 476. If we did NOT use an Indian
Standard Time, the actual time
2. The shelf provides a rich ground for difference between which of the
hydrocarbon extraction. following places would be more than
1 hour?
a) Ranchi and Kolkata
a) 1 only
b) Agra and Kanpur
b) 2 only
c) Patiala and Chandigarh
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Dwarka and Dibrugarh
d) None

LOCATION BASED QUESTIONS statements about the geography of
India.
(MAPPING)
INDIA BASED 1. North-south extent of India from
Kashmir to Kanyakumari is close to 4,000
Q 474. A triangle formed by
km.
Udaipur, Kolkata and Cochin would
encompass 2. East-west extent of India from
Arunachal Pradesh to Kuchchh is nearly
a) Jaipur
2,000 km.
b) Hyderabad
3. From south to north, India extends
c) Mumbai nearly 30 degrees in latitude.
d) Lucknow 4. From West to east, India extends

nearly 20 degrees in latitude.
Q 475. The Karakoram pass, a below.
mountain pass between India and
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
China, is closest to
b) 3 only
a) Tawang
b) Kargil c) 2 and 4 only
101
d) 1, 3 and 4 only a) Demchok

b) Itanagar
Q 478. These places are on the river c) Darjeeling

course of Ganga. Which of these has
d) Dehradun
the northernmost latitude?
a) Kanpur
b) Allahabad capitals of North-eastern states of
c) Varansi India.
d) Murshidabad 1. Aizwal
2. Imphal
Q 479. The place that lies closest to 3. Kohima

the straight line joining Lhasa (Tibet)
4. Itanagar
and Thimpu (Bhutan) is
What is the correct order of these capitals
a) Cochin
from south to North?
b) Vishakhapatnam
a) 1234
c) Hyderabad
b) 2314
d) Chennai
c) 3214
d) 1342
Q 480. India’s only live volcano can

be found in Q 483. The tributaries of rivers
Ganga and Brahmaputra together
a) Lakshadweep form the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin
in the Indian subcontinent. The
b) Sundarbans basin lies in between
c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
a) 10°N to 30°N latitudes
d) Gulf of Kutch
b) 20°N to 32°N latitudes
c) 10°N to 15°N latitudes

Q 481. Which of these regions lies
d) 20°N to 35°N latitudes
closest to the Indo-China
international border?
102
Q 484. Arrange the following from 1. Dehra Gompas

East to West.
2. Siachen Glacier
1. Mahadeo Hills
3. Rohtang pass
2. Rajmahal Hills
4. Zoji la pass
3. Aravalli range
The correct order of these regions from
Select the correct answer using the codes North to South is?
below.
a) 2143
a) 213
b) 2314
b) 312
c) 1342
c) 123
d) 3241
d) 231
Q 487. Katchatheevu Island is

frequently seen in news with
reference to
Q 485. The State of Madhya Pradesh
lying in Central India shares land 1. Establishment of a secessionist Tamil
boundary with which of the government on the island
following states?
2. Disputes relating to Foraying of Indian
1. Bihar fisherman
2. Jharkhand
3. Uttar Pradesh
a) 1 only
4. Telangana
b) 2 only
5. Odisha
c) Both 1 and 2
below. d) None
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 3 only Q 488. These places are on the river
c) 3, 4 and 5 only course of Ganga. Which of these has
the northernmost latitude?
d) 2 and 4 only
a) Kanpur
b) Allahabad
locations in Northern India. c) Varansi
103
d) Murshidabad Q 491. The fluvial riverine island is

formed by the Brahmaputra river
system and is the nerve centre of
Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture. It
has been recently declared as a
Q 489. Travelling from Manali,
district of India some time ago. The
Rohtang pass is a popular tourist island is?
destination. Rohtang pass connects
the a) Narcondam Island
a) Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti b) River Island of Majuli
Valleys
c) Mattoa Islands
b) Changla Pass with Kullu valley
d) Forest Islands of Thembang
c) Diphu Pass with Karakoram pass
d) Anantnag Valley to Parampeta valley
Q 492. Coco Islands form the
maritime borders of India with
which of these countries?
Q 490. Arrange these cities of India a) Bangladesh
in increasing order of latitude from
b) Sri Lanka
equator.
c) Myanmar
1. Ahmadabad
d) Indonesia
2. Nagpur
3. Indore
4. Surat Q 493. Sun rises the earliest in
which of these states/UTs/regions of
5. Mumbai India?
Select the correct answer using the codes a) Dong, Arunachal Pradesh
below.
b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
a) 13245
c) Kavaratti Islands
b) 13425
d) Tawang region
c) 52431
d) 54231
Q 494. Hills stations such as
Dalhousie, Manali, Shimla, Nanital,
Musoorie, Darjeeling, etc. are
located in which of the following
ranges of Himalayas?
104
a) Greater Himalayas c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) Middle Himalayas d) 3 and 4 only
c) Shiwalik or Lower Himalayas
d) Himadri or Bahirgiri Q 497. India shares its land
boundary with how many sovereign
countries?
islands are to be found on the a) Six
Eastern side of India? b) Seven
1. Baratang Island c) Eight
2. Hope Island d) Nine
3. Rutland Archipelago
4. Keibul Lamjao Island Q 498. Arrange these North-eastern
Select the correct answer using the codes capital cities from north to south:
below. 1. Aizwal
a) 1 and 2 only 2. Kohima
b) 2 and 4 only 3. Imphal
c) 1 and 3 only 4. Shillong
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
Q 496. Which of the following a) 2134

passes could be used to travel across
b) 2431
Himalayas to enter India?
c) 4213
1. Khyber
d) 3124
2. Bolan
3. Shipkila
Q 499. This island in the Bay of
4. Bomdila Bengal was claimed by both India
Select the correct answer using the codes and Bangladesh and was found to be
below. submerged later due to climate
change induced global warming. It is
a) 1 and 2 only
a) New Moore
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) Yanam
105
c) Mahe Q 503. The Indian states with the

longest and shortest international
d) Long island borders are
a) Assam and Manipur
Q 500. Which of these regions, if b) Rajasthan and Sikkim

you connect them with line c) J&K and Nagaland
segments in a map, would tend
towards creating an equilateral d) West Bengal and Punjab
triangle?
a) Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Chennai Q 504. River Cauvery forms three
b) Bhopal, Bhubneshwar and Ranchi big islands, on her journey from
Talacauvery to join the Bay of
c) Gandhinagar, Mumbai and Hyderabad Bengal Sea, which are major
pilgrimage centres. These islands are
d) Jaipur, Bhopal and Lucknow
a) Baratang, Elephanta and Mausuni
Q 501. Sundarbans delta is formed b) Shriharikota, Anjediva, Betdwarka

by which of the following rivers?
c) Agatti, Keeling and Majuli
a) Ganges and Yamuna
d) Srirangapatna, Shivanasamudra and
b) Yamuna and Brahmaputra Srirangam
c) Brahmaputra and Meghna

d) Ganges and Brahmaputra Q 505. Which of these North Indian
states shares boundaries with the
maximum number of Indian States?
Q 502. Which of these regions of a) Himachal Pradesh

India is popular for its pashmina b) Uttar Pradesh
shawls and tourism due to being
called as little Tibet? c) Punjab
a) Apatani Valley d) Uttarakhand
b) Ladakh
Q 506. Which of these North Indian
c) Mizo Valley states shares boundaries with the
d) Mustang maximum number of Indian States?
a) Himachal Pradesh
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Punjab
106
d) Uttarakhand Q 510. Which of these places will be

below or South of the latitude line
passing through Port Blair?
Q 507. Tropic of Cancer is closest to
which of the following cities in 1. Chennai
India?
2. Bengaluru
a) Mussoorie
3. Thiruvananthapuram
b) Bhopal
c) Gwalior below.
d) Dehradun a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
Q 508. The aerial distance between c) 3 only
Delhi, the capital of India, and the
capital of country Z is the greatest d) None of the above
among the following given options: Z is?
a) Maldives
b) Sri Lanka Q 511. The Sadhu bet island faces
which of the following dams?
c) Myanmar
d) Indonesia a) Narmada dam
b) Dharoi Dam
Q 509. During the reorganization of c) Kamleshwar Dam

Indian states, it was separated from
Madras and organized into a separate d) Dantiwada Dam
union territory for administrative
purposes. It is also known as the
coral group of islands of India:
Q 512. The capital of this Indian state
a) Minicoy lies very close to its boundaries rather
than being at or around the centre
b) Lakshadweep
1. Uttarakhand
c) Andaman
d) Nicobar 2. Manipur
3. Karnataka
4. Jharkhand
5. Kerala
107
Select the correct answer using the codes b) Vietnam

below.
c) Cambodia
a) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) Thailand
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2 and 5 only
Q 516. Ukraine, Georgia, Romania
d) 2, 3 and 4 only and Turkey enclose which of the
following seas?
Q 513. The Belum Caves is the largest
a) Caspian Sea
and longest cave system open to the
public on the Indian subcontinent, b) Black Sea
known for its speleothems, such as c) Red Sea
stalactite and stalagmite formations. It
is found in the state of d) Mediterranean Sea
Q 517. What is the importance of
a) Meghalaya
the Xinjiang region that is frequently
b) Andhra Pradesh in news?
c) Mizoram 1. Aksai Chin, a disputed territory

between India and China, falls in this region.
d) Karnataka
2. It is China’s largest natural gas-
producing regions.
3. It borders some the countries of
Q 514. Major pilgrimage sites like Central Asia along with Russia, Afghanistan
Nasik, Triyambak and Bhadrachalam and
are located at the banks of which Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (PoK).
river?
4. It borders the Tibet Autonomous Region
a) Chambal where several movements are active
against the Chinese occupation.
b) Krishna
c) Cauvery below.
d) Godavari a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
WORLD BASED c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 515. In South-East Asia, which
d) 2 and 3 only
among the following countries is
land locked?
a) Laos
108
Q 518. If a triangle is made with the 4. Mediterranean Sea

capital of the nations of Belgium,
Hungary and Madrid, which of these
below.
nations will fall completely inside
the triangle? a) 1 and 2
a) Italy b) 1 and 3
b) Switzerland c) 2 and 4
c) France d) 3 and 4
d) Macedonia
Q 519. These cities span two Q 522. Which of the following

continents, and one of them was physical features of Europe lie in
established during the building of the between or surrounded by the
Suez Canal: Northern Plains, Ural Mountains and
a) Amman and Jeddah Carpathians?
b) Aleppo and Isfahan a) Alps

b) East European Plain
c) Alexandria and Khobar
c) Iberian Peninsula
d) Port Said and Istanbul
d) Adriatic Sea
Q 520. The country with the longest

coastline, among the following, is
Q 523. The South China Sea disputes
a) Spain involve both island and maritime
b) France claims among several sovereign
states/regions. Other than China,
c) Norway they include
d) Italy 1. Indonesia
2. Taiwan
Q 521. Berring strait connects which 3. Philippines
of the following oceans/seas?
4. Cambodia
1. Arctic Ocean
2. Atlantic Ocean below.
3. Pacific Ocean
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
109
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only
statements.
Q 524. Asia is separated from
Europe by the 1. It separates southern England
from northern France.
a) Arctic Circle
2. It links the southern part of the
b) Ural Mountains North Sea to the Atlantic Ocean.
c) Siberian plains 3. It is considered to be the busiest
d) Volga River shipping area in the world.
The above refers to which of the following
water bodies?
Q 525. The country that shares its
international borders with the a) Bay of Biscay
largest number of neighbours in the b) San Marine Waterway
world is
c) English Channel
a) Brazil
d) North Circle
b) China
c) Switzerland
Q 528. Which of these seas is NOT
d) India
included in the China Seas?
a) The Yellow Sea
Q 526. Countries that lie west to a b) The East China Sea
straight-line joining Warsaw and
Athens are c) The South China Sea
1. Austria d) The Cametos Sea
2. Belarus
3. Italy Q 529. Mediterranean Sea touches
which of the following European
4. Belgium countries?
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. Estonia
below.
2. Greece
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. Spain
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
110
4. Ukraine 2. Turkey
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. Iran
below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only below.
b) 3 and 4 only a) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4 only c) 2 and 3 only
Q 530. Western Asia is located d) 1 and 2 only
directly south of Eastern Europe.
The region is surrounded by seven
major seas which include? Q 532. What is the present status of
1. Black Sea Golan Heights, which is sometimes
seen in news?
2. Red Sea
a) Internationally recognized as Syrian
3. Aegean Sea territory occupied by Israel
4. Caspian Sea b) Internationally recognized as Israeli
Select the correct answer using the codes territory occupied by Egypt
below. c) Internationally recognized as Egyptian
a) 1 and 2 only territory occupied by Israel
b) 1, 2 and 4 only d) Internationally recognized as Israeli

territory occupied by Syria
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 533. Which of these East Asian
Countries has a larger latitudinal
spread than India?
Q 531. Consider a triangle that is
formed from the following 1. Japan
1. Southernmost point of 2. North and South Korea combined

Mediterranean Sea 3. Mongolia
2. Northernmost point of Black Sea Select the correct answer using the codes
3. Southernmost point of Caspian Sea below.
Which of these nations would such a a) 1 only

triangle partially or fully encompass? b) 1 and 3 only
1. Syria c) 2 and 3 only
111
d) None of the above d) Zagros mountains
Q 537. The term "Arctic Shelf" is

often used to refer to
Q 534. Arrange these major East
Asian cities from North to South a) Oil and gas deposits
1. Beijing b) Major fishing zones
2. Tokyo c) Large ice-free docking areas
3. Seoul d) Continental shelves
4. Shanghai
Q 538. Which of these forms a land
below.
bridge between Asia and Africa?
a) 1324
a) Persian strait
b) 2143
b) Ismailia Peninsula
c) 2134
c) Sinai Peninsula
d) 1243
d) Somalian strait
Q 535. A line joining Addis Ababa

with Mecca will cross which of these Q 539. Arabian Sea borders which of
seas these nations
a) Red Sea 1. Yemen
b) Caspian Sea 2. Oman
c) Persian Gulf 3. UAE
d) Mediterranean Sea 4. Kuwait
below.
geographical features separate West a) 1 and 2 only
Asia (in Eastern Iran) from rest of b) 1 and 3 only
the Asia?
c) 3 and 4 only
a) Anatolian plateau
d) 2 and 4 only
b) Taurus mountains
c) Lut desert
112
Q 540. Joining which of these 2. Irawaddy

regions of West Asia would more or
3. Yellow river
less yield a straight line?
a) Ankara, Baghdad and Ashgabat
below.
b) Amman, Damascus and Aleppo
a) 1 only
c) Tel-Aviv, Mosul and Tehran b) 1 and 3 only
d) Baku, Baghdad and Jerusalem c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 541. The Mekong is a trans-
boundary river in Southeast Asia
spanning about 6 countries. Which Q 544. Which of these nations lie
of these countries lie almost entirely between Tropic of Capricorn and
within the lower Mekong basin? Equator?
a) Vietnam 1. Israel
b) Thailand 2. Venezuela
3. Thailand
c) Cambodia
4. Oman
d) Laos
below.
a) 2 and 3 only
Q 542. Which of these European b) 1 and 4 only
capital cities lies northernmost on a
global map? c) 2 only
a) Oslo d) None of the above
b) Copenhagen
c) Brussels Q 545. Strait of Malacca is a

waterway
d) Prague
1. Connecting the Andaman Sea in
the Indian Ocean and the South China Sea
Q 543. Which of the following rivers 2. Running between the Malay
flow in South-east or East Asia? Peninsula and Sumatran Island in Indonesia
1. Salween Which of the above is/are correct?
113
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q 548. South Korea lies between
d) None a) Yellow Sea and Sea of Japan
b) Sea of Japan and Pacific Ocean
Q 546. If you draw a line between c) Korean Strait and Bungo channel
Vladivostok and Macau on a map, d) South China Sea and Pacific Ocean
which of these will lie on the right-
hand side (east) of the line?
1. Spartly Islands Q 549. Consider the following.
2. Paracel Islands Communities seen in

news Belong to
3. Phillipines Sea
1.
Select the correct answer using the codes Tuaregs A.
below. Sahara Desert
a) 1 only 2.
b) 1 and 2 only Sinhalas B
. Bhutan
c) 2 and 3 only
3.
d) 1, 2 and 3 Rakhine C.
Sri Lanka
Which of these is/are correctly matched?
Q 547. Arrange these physical
features of Asia from North to a) 2 and 3
South.
b) 1 only
1. Kunlun Shan Mountains
c) 1 and 3 only
2. Gobi Desert
d) 1 and 2 only
3. Arakan mountains
below. Q 550. Arrange the following Gulfs
a) 231 of South Asia from North to South.
b) 132 1. Gulf of Martaban
c) 123 2. Gulf of Khambat

d) 213
114
3. Gulf of Mannar 2. The Arctic Circle passes through

Europe.
4. Gulf of Kutch
3. North America is linked to South
Select the correct answer using the codes America by a narrow strait of land.
below.
a) 1243 below.
b) 4213 a) 1 and 2 only
c) 2143 b) 2 and 3 only
d) 1324 c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 551. Istanbul is located at the
junction of
Q 554. Sinai Peninsula lies between
a) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
a) Gulf of Suez and Gulf of Aqaba
b) Red Sea and Caspian Sea
b) Gulf of Aden and Gulf of Aqaba
c) Caspian Sea and Black Sea
c) Gulf of Suez and Gulf of Aden
d) Mediterranean Sea and Caspian Sea
d) Gulf of Masirah and Gulf of Aqaba
Q 552. The shoreline of this Sea is

the lowest dry land on Earth Q 555. On a World Map, a straight
line joining New Delhi to Tashkent
a) Red Sea
will NOT pass through which of
b) Dead Sea these countries?
c) Caspian Sea a) Pakistan
d) North Sea b) China
c) Afghanistan
Q 553. Consider the following d) Uzbekistan

statements about the Geography of
continents.
1. Asia is separated from Europe by

the Alps Mountains on the west. Q 556. The International Date Line
(IDL) is an imaginary line of
longitude on the Earth’s surface
115
located at about 180 degrees east 1. Kurdistan: Afghanistan

(or west) of the Greenwich
2. Houthi movement: Yemen
Meridian. It passes through
1. Australia 3. Hezbollah: Kuwait
2. New Zealand Select the correct answer using the codes

below.
3. Japan
a) 1 and 2 only
4. Mongolia
b) 2 only
below. c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only d) 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2 only Q 559. Summer Island, Maldives
d) None of the above was recently in news due to which of
these reasons?
a) It became the first major South Asian
Island to be completely submerged due to
sea level rise
Q 557. The Sahara desert touches
eleven countries. These are b) World’s largest 3-D printed reef has been
submerged at this island
1. Algeria
c) For hosting the highest density of tourist
2. Ethiopia
population per square unit area ever for an
3. Libya island
4. Egypt d) The Government of India is acquiring the

island to build a resupply base for the Indian
Select the correct answer using the codes Air force
below.
a) 3 only
Q 560. Arrange these places in East
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Asia from North to South.
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Pyongyang
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. Seoul
3. Tokyo
Q 558. Consider the following Select the correct answer using the codes
matches about the following in news
below.
recently.
116
a) 123 2. The Kaladan project connects Sittwe Port

in Myanmar to the India-Myanmar border.
b) 231
c) 132
a) 1 only
d) 213
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
locations is nearest to the Equator? d) None
a) Male
b) Jakarta Q 564. Which of these countries lie
c) Bandung entirely in the Southern Hemisphere?
d) Yogyakarta 1. Brazil
2. Ecuador
Q 562. Which of these African 3. Indonesia

nations is/are landlocked?
4. Fiji
1. Nigeria
5. Zimbabwe
2. Burkina Faso
3. Kenya below.
4. Congo a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Select the correct answer using the codes b) 1, 2 and 5 only
below.
c) 4 and 5 only
a) 1 and 2 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only Q 565. The nation with the largest
sea border (total coastline length) is
a) Canada
Q 563. Sittwe port has been in news
for quite some time for b) USA
1. Sittwe is the capital of Rakhine State c) Russia

which has been in the news for the plight of
Rohingya Muslims. d) Australia
117

below.
statements. a) 2 and 4 only
1. A line segment joining Saudi Arabia b) 1, 2 and 4 only
and Egypt will cut Persian Gulf.
c) 1 and 3 only
2. Gulf of Oman is an extension of Red
Sea near Iran. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) 1 only Q 569. North Sea forms the coastline
b) 2 only of which of these nations/regions?
c) Both 1 and 2 a) Netherlands, Germany and Ireland
d) None b) Norway, UK and Denmark

c) Sweden, Luxemborg and Ireland
d) Czech Republic, Finland and Denmark
statements.
Q 570. Which of the following nations
1. Sea of Azov lies in Eastern Europe. touch Caspian Sea?
2. Kerch Strait is the only connection a) Turkmenistan, Russia and Kazakhstan
between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov.
b) Romania, Russia and Turkey
c) Ukraine, Armenia and Georgia
a) 1 only
d) Turkey, Syria and Iraq
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q 571. If you are playing from Persian
d) None Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, you will be
closest to the coast of which of these
countries?
a) Sudan
Q 568. Which of the following b) Syria
nations have ports in the Arctic Sea?
c) United Arab Emirates
1. United States
d) Jordan
2. Russia
3. Canada
Q 572. Strait of Malacca is a waterway
4. Norway
118
1. Connecting the Andaman Sea in the 1. Pyongyang

Indian Ocean and the South China Sea
2. Seoul
2. Running between the Malay
Peninsula and Sumatran Island in Indonesia 3. Tokyo
Which of the above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes
below.
a) 1 only
a) 123
b) 2 only
b) 231
c) Both 1 and 2
c) 132
d) None
d) 213
Q 573. The Great Barrier Reef is the

largest living thing on Earth and even Q 576. Sakhalin-I, sometimes seen in
visible from outer space. It is located news, is a major shelf development
project being implemented under a
a) At Soloman Islands production sharing agreement (PSA)
with ONGC (India) Videsh in which of
b) Off the coast of Queensland in Northeastern these countries?
Australia
a) Canada
c) Near Timor Sea in Southern Australia
b) Kazakhstan
d) South of Kimberley Plateau
c) Russia
d) Iran
locations is nearest to the Equator?
a) Male Q 577. Arrange these physical features

of Asia from North to South.
b) Jakarta
1. Kunlun Shan Mountains
c) Bandung
2. Gobi Desert
d) Yogyakarta
3. Arakan mountains

Q 575. Arrange these places in East below.
Asia from North to South.
a) 231
119
b) 132 a) Pakistan
c) 123 b) Iran
d) 213 c) Afghanistan
d) Bangladesh

countries are larger in total area than
India? Q 581. Which of these continents has
the highest average elevation of all the
1. France continents?
2. Brazil a) North America
3. Egypt b) Europe
4. New Zealand c) Asia
Select the correct answer using the codes d) Antarctica

below.
a) 2 and 4 only
Q 582. The Zaranj-Delaram road
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. Was constructed by China in
c) 2 only Afghanistan
d) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Provides land-locked Afghanistan an

alternative way to access the Arabian Sea and
the Persian Gulf
Q 579. South Korea lies between Which of the above is/are correct?
a) Yellow Sea and Sea of Japan a) 1 only
b) Sea of Japan and Pacific Ocean b) 2 only
c) Korean Strait and Bungo channel c) Both 1 and 2
d) South China Sea and Pacific Ocean d) None
Q 580. Salma Dam and Shahtoot Dam, Q 583. In South-East Asia, which
that are often recalled in Indian among the following countries is land
diplomatic circles, are located in locked?
120
a) Laos
b) Vietnam
c) Cambodia
d) Thailand
Q 584. The Suez Canal provides a

direct trade route for ships operating
between
1. European ports to South Asian ports
2. American ports to West African ports
3. Chinese ports to South Asian ports

below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 585. Mount Soputan volcano,

which is one of the most active
volcanoes of the world, is situated in
which of the following countries
A. USA
B. Japan
C. Indonesia
D. Solomon islands
121

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INSIGHTSIAS PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2019 – GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS

UNIVERSE AND THEORIES .............................. 2 MONSOON AND RAINFALL ...................... 55

SOLAR SYSTEM AND OTHER CELESTRIAL VEGETATION ............................................ 59

ATMOSPHERIC CIRCULATION AND WATER RESOURCES ..................................... 87

Q 3. Redshift from gravity means

a) 1 only the former. Which of the following

b) Corona of the Sun c) Both 1 and 2

c) Nano coating used in Anti UV glasses d) None

d) Bouncing back of the Solar insolation

Q 14. For a planet, comet or

2. Disturbances in the solar wind shake c) Incentre

b) 2 and 3 only d) A brown stellar remnant that orbits our

2. Direction of earth’s magnetic axis can be 2. Solstice is caused only due to

a) 1 only Q 28. Which of these are of equal

Q 27. Consider the following

c) No changes in temperature and pressure 1. It is caused by a sinking mantle.

Q 36. Consider the following Q 38. Which of the following is

1. Axial Tilt of earth

Q 40. Which of these continents

c) Large scale homogenization of b) Carbon

Which of the above is/are correct? 4. Poor in magnesium, but rich in

b) 1, 3 and 4 only a) 1 only

4. Volcanism Select the correct answer using the codes

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) Both 1 and 2

c) 3 and 4 only d) None of the above

1. In the process of orogeny, the crust is 2. Thermal stresses

c) 2, 3 and 4 only Q 52. Factors that help in the

1. They are least likely to have conical 3. Erosion and deposition

b) 1, 2 and 3 Q 53. Alluvial fans are formed

Q 54. Lagoons can be formed in

1. High rocky coasts b) Mature stage

Q 55. With reference to Loess, 1. Tectonic stability of landmasses

4. It is the fastest eroding soil deposit b) 2 and 3 only

Q 61. Consider the following

a) 1 and 2 only c) Both 1 and 2

The above refer to which stage of a river? a) 1 only

a) Youth stage b) 2 only

b) Old stage c) Both 1 and 2

c) Mature Stage d) None

d) Either Youth stage or Mature Stage

c) A land surrounded by water from three a) 1, 2 and 3 only

1. A lagoon is a body of water separated from MINERALS AND ROCKS

1. V-Shaped valleys Q 67. In India, rocks of which of

3. Ox-bow lakes a) Indo-Gangetic plain

4. Braided channels b) Lower Shiwaliks

d) Deccan Traps d) 2 and 3 only

Q 68. Which of the following is/are

3. Granite rocks were formed due to cooling d) Graphite

d) Granite 4. Pyroxene, which forms nearly one tenth

Q 76. Weathering of rocks and

2. Silicon and oxygen are common d) Both (a) and (b)

1. The absolute age of igneous rocks can be c) Both 1 and 2

b) 1 and 2 only d) Greenland

Q 80. Igneous rocks are also a) 1 and 2 only

2. They do not host radioactive minerals

1. In the exosphere, molecules and atoms of Q 86. Atmosphere is held around

3. This region displays a faint glow of c) Gravitational pull of the earth