OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.

com

OBSTETRICS

1. Branches of internal iliac artery include all (c) Cervical softening

of the following, EXCEPT : (d) On bimanual examination,
(a) Uterine Artery approxima-tion of fingers
(b) Middle rectal artery
(c) Obturator artery 7. The following remains unchanged in
(d) Inferior epigastric artery pregnancy :
(a) Factor II
2. Weight of normal placenta is : (b) Platelet count
(a) 250 gm (c) Factor XI
(b) 500 gm (d) Clotting time
(c) 100 gm
(d) 350 gm 8. All are true about hCG, EXCEPT :
(a) Has 2 subunits
3. The earliest USG sign of pregnancy is : (b) Secreted by synctiotrophoblast
(a) Free fluid in POD (c) Maximum levels in 3rd trimester
(b) Gestational sac. (d) Doubles every 2 days
(c) Yolk sac
(d) Fetal pole 9. Triple Marker test includes :
(a) hCG, AFP, and unconjugated estriol
4. Earliest diagnosis of pregnancy is by : (b) hCG, AFP, and unconjugated
(a) TVS estradiol
(b) UPT (c) hCG,PAPP-A, unconjugated estriol
(c) TAS (d) Inhibin A, hCG & PAPP-A
(d) Sr. Beta HCG 10. AFP is raised in all, EXCEPT :
(a) Polycystic kidney
5. Earliest diagnosis of live pregnancy is by : (b) Trisomies
(a) TVS (c) IUFD
(b) UPT (d) Esophageal atresia
(c) TAS
(d) Sr. Beta HCG 11. All are features of Down’s Syndrome on
USG , EXCEPT :
6. Osiander’s sign means : (a) Duodenal atresia
(a) Pulsations in lateral fornix (b) Sandle gap
(b) Bluish vaginal discoloration (c) Cystic hygroma

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
(d) Echogenic intra cardiac foci 14. The drop in FHR associated with placental
insufficiency is :
12. In which condition is this most likely to be (a) Early deceleration
seen ? (b) Late deceleration
(c) Variable deceleration
(d) Prolonged deceleration

15. Sinusoidal pattern on CTG is seen in all,

EXCEPT :
(a) Fetal anemia
(b) Severe fetal asphyxia
(c) -blockers
(d) Chorioamniotoitis

16. All are components of Manning’s Bio-

physical profile, EXCEPT :
(a) NST
(b) fetal movements
(c) Fetal Breathing movements
(d) Placental maturity

17. The main cause of maternal mortality in

the developing countries is :
(a) Unsafe abortions
(b) Hypertensive disorders
(a) Trisomy 16
(c) Hemorrhage
(b) Monosomy X
(d) Obstructed labor
(c) Trisomy 21
(d) All of the above
18. Cervical ripening is mainly due to action of
:
13. A 16 weeks pregnant lady with previous
(a) PGE2
history of Down’s syndrome should be
(b) PGF2
best evaluated by:
(c) PGI2
(a) CVS
(d) Methergin
(b) Triple marker test
(c) Amniocentesis
19. Methylergometrine is contra indicated in :
(d) Color Doppler
(a) Multiparty
(b) Bicornuate uterus
(c) PPH

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
(d) Eclampsia (d) 5

20. Which drugs does not affect the fetus? 25. Which of the following can be diagnosed
(a) Isotretinion in first trimester on USG ?
(b) MgSo4 (a) Anenecephaly
(c) Phenytoin (b) Dysplatic kidney
(d) Warfarin (c) Tetralogy of fallot
(d) All of the above
21. Ideal time to perform USG to measure
nuchal translucency is _____ weeks of 26. The most common fetal presentation in
gestation. platypelloid pelvis is :
(a) 8–10 (a) Face presentation
(b) 11–13 (b) Occipitoposterior position
(c) 14–16 (c) Brow presentation
(d) 18–20 (d) Vertex presentation

22. Embryo is called ―fetus‖ after how many 27. Management of second stage of normal
weeks post fertilization/conception? labour includes all, EXCEPT :
(a) 6 (a) Bladder catheterisation
(b) 8 (b) Cleaning of external genitalia
(c) 10 (c) Ritzen manoevre
(d) 12 (d) Brandt Andrews manoevre

23. With reference to fetal heart rate, a non- 28. The disadvantage of active management
stress test is considered reactive when: of third stage of labour is :
(a) Two fetal heart rate accelerations are (a) Increased blood loss
noted in 20 minutes (b) Increased time interval
(b) One fetal heart rate acceleration is (c) Increased incidence of retained
noted in 20 minutes placenta
(c) Two fetal heart rate accelerations are (d) Regular prostaglandin usage
noted in 10 minutes
(d) Three fetal heart rate accelerations 29. Assisted breech delivery involves active
are noted in 30 minutes delivery of breech after :
(a) Delivery of hands
24. As per WHO, minimum number of ANC (b) Delivery of umbilicus
visits should be: (c) Delivery of neck
(a) 2 (d) Delivery of legs
(b) 3
(c) 4

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
30. All of the following are involved in 34. All of the following are outcomes of
complicated vaginal breech delivery, occipito posterior position, EXCEPT :
EXCEPT : (a) Deep transverse arrest
(a) Loveset manoevre (b) Occipito sacral arrest
(b) Pinard’s manoevre (c) Face to pubis delivery
(c) Prague method (d) None of the above
(d) Burns Marshall method
35. Treatment of cord prolapse is based on all
of the following factors, EXCEPT :
31. Identify this image : (a) Fetus is alive or dead
(b) Fetal maturity
(c) Etiology of cord prolapse
(d) Cervical dilatation

36. Shoulder dystocia is not treated with :

(a) Mac Robert’s manoevre
(b) Wood’s manoevre
(c) Zavanelli’s manoevre
(d) Elliot’s manoevre
(a) Mac Roberts maneuver
(b) Piper’s forceps 37. Postpartum haemorrhage is associated
(c) Wrigley’s forceps with all of the following, EXCEPT :
(d) Rubis maeuver (a) Abruption
(b) Multiple pregnancy
32. Conduplicato corpore is seen in : (c) HELLP syndrome
(a) Brow presentation (d) IUGR
(b) Face presentation
(c) Transverse lie
(d) Compound presentation 38. Postpartum haemorrhage is treated with
all of the following, EXCEPT :
33. 37 weeks primigravida in labor, with (a) Prostaglandins
uterine contractions. Pv= 3 cm dilated. (b) Intrauterine packing
Transverse lie, with IUFD. BEST plan of (c) B-Lynch sutures
action is (d) Internal iliac posterior division
(a) LSCS ligation
(b) Internal podalic version
(c) Evisceration 39. 29 years Radha is in labour since 12 hours
(d) Craniotomy, Decapitation & c/o frequent blood stained urine
passage. She is a c/o previous LSCS. O/E =

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
P-130b/m, BP-100/60, FHR absent, fresh (d) Caesarean section
bleeding PV. Diagnosis is:
(a) Abruptio placentae 45. A 28 year old, primigrarida with 34 weeks
(b) Placenta praevia of pregnancy suddenly complains of
(c) Rupture uterus headache and blurred vision& oliguria.
(d) Cord prolapse Her BP is 180/110 and urine albumin is +4
.The line of further management is :
40. Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant (a) Wait & watch
lady with previous LSCS is ____% : (b) LSCS
(a) 2.5-3 (c) Induction of labor
(b) 0.5-1 (d) Anticonvulsant + Antihypertensive
(c) 3.5-4.5 therapy
(d) 4-5 46. Following are known factors in the
etiology of preeclampsia, EXCEPT :
41. Trial of scar is not attempted in : (a) Thromboxane A2 decrease
(a) Previous 1 LSCS (b) Prostocyclin decrease
(b) CPD (c) Endothelial damage
(c) Polyhydramnios (d) Improper trophoblastic invasion
(d) IUGR
47. In the Pritchard’s regime the therapeutic
42. Pre-requisites of outlet forceps application level of serum MgSO4 to be achieved is :
includes all, EXCEPT : (a) 1 – 2 meq/L
(a) Membranes ruptured (b) 4 – 7 meq/L
(b) Uterine contractions (c) 12 – 15 meq/L
(c) Full cervical dilatation (d) 30 – 35 meq/L
(d) Station 0 to +1
48. A pregnant women developed obstetric
43. Vacuum application is contra indicated in Hepatosis, all of the following are
all of the following, EXCEPT : associated, EXCEPT :
(a) Face presentation (a) SGOT can be raised to 100 IU
(b) Preterm fetus (b) S. Bilirubin > 7 mg/dL
(c) IUFD (c) Meconium stained amniotic fluid
(d) Maternal heart disease (d) Intense pruritus

44. Management of obstructed labour 49. 25 years old with MS is in labor, all of the
includes all, EXCEPT : following are indicated, EXCEPT :
(a) IV fluids (a) Proped up position
(b) Oxytocin use (b) Prophylactic forceps
(c) Antibiotics

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
(c) i.m. methergin after placental was terminated by emergency LSCS for
delivery fetal distress. The best plan of action is :
rd
(d) IV frusemide after 3 stage of labor (a) Induce at 38 weeks
(b) Elective LSCS at 36 weeks
50. Which heart disease has the worst (c) Elective LSCS at 38 weeks
prognosis in pregnancy ? (d) Elective LSCS at 40 weeks
(a) MS
(b) AS 55. The congenital anomaly specifically
(c) PDA associated with uncontrolled DM in 1st
(d) Eisenmenger’s syndrome trimester is :
(a) VSD
51. Maximum risk of heart disease patient (b) NTD
having congestive cardiac failure : (c) Sacral agenesis
(a) 24 weeks (d) Conradi syndrome
(b) 32 weeks
(c) Intrapartum 56. The characteristic cardiac anomaly in baby
(d) Immediate postpartum of Diabetic mother :
(a) ASD (b) TOF
52. According to WHO, anemia in pregnancy (c) TGV (d) PDA
is diagnosed when Hb is less than :
(a) 10 gm% 57. Trial of scar is contraindicated in all
(b) 11 gm% EXCEPT:
(c) 7 gm% (a) History of previous classical CS
(d) 9 gm% (b) History of previous CS due to
contracted pelvis
53. The ideal time to perform the O’Sullivans (c) Previous 3 LSCS
Blood sugar screening test in the ante (d) History of previous LSCS due to
natal period : malpresentation
(a) 8 – 10 weeks
(b) 16-20 weeks 58. All are true about Thyroid Storm in
(c) 24 – 28 weeks pregnancy, EXCEPT :
(d) 32 – 36 weeks (a) Carbimazole is the drug of choice
(b) Is precipitated by LSCS
(c) -Blockers provide symptomatic
reliefs
54. G2P1L1, Diabetic pregnant lady with 32 (d) Commonest cause is Grave’s disease
weeks pregnancy,blood sugars are well
controlled and the on USG the fetal
weight is 3.11 kg. The previous pregnancy

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
59. G6P5L5, all home deliveries, is 8 weeks there are no complications, the pregnancy
pregnant and has procedentia, treatment should be best terminated by induction at:
is : (a) 40 completed weeks
(a) AP prepare (b) 37 completed weeks
(b) Pessary (c) 36 completed weeks
(c) Cerclage (d) Await spontaneous onset of labor
(d) Bed rest
64. A 25-year-old female presents with history
60. G2P1 with 11 weeks pregnancy on USG of recurrent abortions. The most relevant
shows a right sided ovarian cyst test for identifying the cause is:
measuring 12 cm  10 cm. Best (a) Prothrombin time
management is : (b) Bleeding time
(a) Immediate cystectomy (c) Dilute Russell’s viper venom time
nd
(b) Cystectomy in 2 trimester (d) Clot retraction time
(c) Cystectomy after delivery
(d) MTP 65. 32 years old patient with 36weeks
pregnancy comes to OPD as profuse
61. Lady with MS + MR with full term painless PV bleeding since 1 hour. O/E
gestation, obstetrician planning to patient is pale & BP-110/70mmHg. P/A
conduct normal delivery, what would be uterus relaxed. All of the following can be
analgesia of choice? done to diagnose the condition, EXCEPT :
(a) Analgesia contraindicated (a) USG
(b) Spinal anesthesia (b) MRI
(c) Inhalational analgesia (c) Internal examinations in OT
(d) Neuraxial analgesia (d) None of the above
62. In pregnancy, maximum risk of hepatic
encephalopathy is with which hepatitis? 66. 35 weeks pregnant lady is admitted I/V/O
(a) A first episode of painless bout of bleeding
(b) B yesterday. O/E=Hb10gm%, BP-
(c) C 120/70mmHg, uterus relaxed, cephalic
(d) E floating. FHS regular. Next line of
management is :
63. A 27-year primigravida presents with (a) Caesarean section
pregnancy-induced hypertension with (b) Induction of labour
blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg at 32 (c) Wait and watch
weeks of gestation with no other (d) Blood transfusion
complications. Subsequently, her blood
pressure is controlled on treatment. If 67. Regimen used for expectant management
of placenta previa is:

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
(a) McAfee and Johnson regimen (c) Concealed abruptio placentae
(b) Brandt-Andrews method (d) Revealed abruptio placentae
(c) Crede’s method
(d) Liley’s method 71. Simi with 34 weeks pregnancy is in labour
with 3cm dilatation & minimal uterine
68. 37 weeks pregnant lady is admitted with contraction. On ARM, fresh bleeding
pain in abdomen since 2 hours. O/E : Hb= noted with late fetal decceleration upto 50
11gm%, BP-150/90mmHg, urine albumin b/m. The patient was taken for CS but
+. P/A – 36 weeks, fetal heart rate normal fetus could not be saved. NO abruptio or
with minimal contraction of uterus. P/V- placenta praevia seen. The likely diagnosis
7cm dilated. ARM reveals blood is :
stained liquor. Next line of management is (a) Placenta praevia
: (b) Revealed abruptio
(a) Caesarean section (c) Circumvallate placenta
(b) Wait and watch (d) Vasa previa
(c) Oxytocin augmentation
(d) Blood transfusion 72. 24 years Mala C/O 4 & half weeks
amenorrhoea & PV spotting 15 days back.
69. 36 weeks pregnant lady C/O bleeding PV O/E=P-96b/m, BP-120/80, beta HCG is
since 4 hours. O/E=Hb 6gm%, BP-90/60, positive but transabdominal sonography
P/A-uterus tonically contracted, FHR reveals empty uterine cavity. Likely
absent. BT=7min & CT= 14min. The likely diagnosis could be :
diagnosis as per Page’s classification is : (a) Ectopic pregnancy
(a) Grade I Abruptio (b) Abortion
(b) Grade II Abruptio (c) Early intrauterine pregnancy
(c) Grade III Abruptio (d) All of the above
(d) Grade IV Abruptio
73. 19 years old Neeta presents to emergency
70. A 28-year-old primigravida was diagnosed ward as 2 months amenorrhoea with pain
as a case of gestational hypertension at 28 in abdomen & shock. BP – 90/60mm Hg &
weeks of gestation. She presents, at 32 Hb 6gm%. Urine pregnancy test is found
weeks with pain in abdomen. On positive. Next immediate line of treatment
examination: P = 98/m, BP = 100/60 is :
mmHg, and Hb 6 g%. P/A—uterus is 32– (a) Laparotomy
34 weeks tonically contracted with fetal (b) IV fluids & cross match
heart absent. P/V—no bleeding seen. The (c) Medical management
diagnosis is: (d) Laparoscopy
(a) Concealed placenta previa 74. All of the following are risk factors for
(b) Revealed placenta previa ectopic pregnancy, EXCEPT :

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
(a) PID (d) Cervical incompetence
(b) LNG-20 IUCD
(c) Tubal surgery 79. 30 years Radha is 14 weeks pregnant. She
(d) IVF had 2 painless deliveries at 16 weeks
earlier. Next line of management is :
75. A hemodynamically stable nulliparous (a) Cervical encirclage
patient with ectopic pregnancy has (b) Progesterone supplementation
adnexal mass of 2.5 × 3 cm and β-hCG (c) Cervical length assessment
titer of 1500 mIU/mL. What modality of (d) Tocolytics
treatment is suitable for her?
(a) Conservative management 80. The shape of cervix (on USG) which
(b) Medical management indicates a competent os is:
(c) Laparoscopic surgery (a) T-shaped (b) Y-shaped
(d) Laparotomy (c) V-shaped (d) U-shaped

76. Neelu with 3 months amenorrhoea c/o 81. All of the following are legal grounds for
hyperemesis and vaginal bleeding since Medical Termination of pregnancy,
one month. O/E=uterus 16 weeks with EXCEPT :
absent fetal heart sound. USG shows (a) Rape
snowstorm appearance The diagnosis is : (b) Failure of contraception
(a) Vesicular mole (c) Eugenic causes
(b) Ectopic pregnancy (d) None of the above
(c) IUFD 82. Malti with 32 weeks pregnancy C/O
(d) Abruptio placentae leaking since pervaginum 1hour.
O/E=uterus relaxed with regular FHS. All
77. Patient with 24 weeks size uterus and of the following can be done to establish
vesicular mole. Treatment is: PROM, EXCEPT :
(a) Induction of labor (a) Nitrazine paper test
(b) MTP not allowed as it is 24 weeks (b) Fetal Fibronectin levels
(c) Hysterotomy (c) AFP
(d) Suction evacuation (d) Sugar levels

78. 34 years old Lalti with H/O previous two 83. Sandhya with 33 weeks pregnancy was
first trimester abortions comes for admitted in preterm labour. O/E=Minimal
evalution. All of the following are uterine contraction felt & fetal heart
implicated in cause, EXCEPT : regular. P/V-1cm dilated with poor
(a) DM effacement. No leaking of liquor seen.
(b) Chromosomal abnormality Management includes all, EXCEPT :
(c) Thyroid disorder (a) Tocolytics

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
(b) Steroid therapy 88. Embryo reduction of multiple pregnancy is
(c) Immediate delivery done at:
(d) Bedrest (a) 8–10 weeks
(b) 11–13 weeks
84. 29 years old Neeta comes to the OPD with (c) 13–15 weeks
c/o postdatism by 4 days. All of the (d) 16–18 weeks
following are advocated in the
management, EXCEPT : 89. All of the following predispose to
(a) Confirm postdatism polyhydramnios, EXCEPT :
(b) Modified BPP (a) Chorangioma of placenta
(c) PV examination (b) Anencephaly
(d) Fetal lung maturity (c) Occult spina bifida
(d) Alpha thalassemia
85. G2P1L1 comes to OPD as a case of twin
pregnancy. All of the following details 90. A case of 34-week pregnancy with
elicited in her history can be etiological hydramnios and marked respiratory
factors for her twin pregnancy, EXCEPT : distress is best treated by:
(a) She is 37 years old (a) Intravenous furosemide
(b) Her mother had twin pregnancy (b) Saline infusion
(c) She is a Mongol by race (c) Amniocentesis
(d) She was treated for infertility (d) Artificial rupture of membranes

86. The following sign on USG indicate 91. Shilu with 18 weeks of pregnancy
monozygotic twin pregnancy : is diagnosed as severe oligohydramnios.
(a) 2 separate placenta The most likely fetal consequence
(b) Twin peak sign expected is :
(c) Siamese twins (a) Cord compression
(d) Different fetal sex (b) PPROM
(c) Fetal limb deformities
87. The placenta of twins can be: (d) Fetal cardiac anomalies
(a) Dichorionic and monoamnionic in
dizygotic (DZ) twins 92. 33 weeks pregnant Rhima is diagnosed as
(b) Dichorionic and monoamnionic in mild IUGR on USG. All of the following can
monozygotic (MZ) twins be done in treatment of IUGR ,EXCEPT :
(c) Monochorionic and monoamnionic (a) Bed rest
in DZ twins (b) BPP
(d) Dichorionic and diamniotic in MZ (c) Colour Doppler
twins (d) Delivery immediately

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
93. In asymmetric IUGR, color doppler shows (a) Prague’s maneuver
the following findings, EXCEPT : (b) Burns marshall maneuver
(a) S/D Ratio increase in umbilical artery (c) Maurice Smelie Veit
(b) MCA flow decrease (d) Kristellar
(c) Notching of uterine artery
(d) Reversed flow in Ductus Venosus 97. IDENTIFY

94. A G3P2L2 Rh-negative woman at 28

weeks of gestation presents with Rh titers
above the critical levels. Amniocentesis
reveals an OD 450 nm of 0.20, which is in
third zone of the Liley’s chart. Appropriate
management of such a case is:
(a) Immediate delivery (a) Normal placenta
(b) Intra-uterine transfusion (b) Twin placenta
(c) Repeat amniocentesis after 1 week (c) Battledore placenta
(d) Exchange transfusion (d) Placenta previa

95. Malti with 36 weeks pregnancy is 98. IDENTIFY

diagnosed with IUFD on USG. She is
bleeding PV since 2 hours. O/E -
Hb 7gm%, BT = 9min, CT = 16min,
platelets = 40,000/cu.mm. All of
the following are treatment, EXCEPT :
(a) Blood transfusion
(b) Induction of labour
(c) FFP transfusion (a) Ectopic pregnancy
(d) Immediate Caesarean section (b) Ring of fire
(c) Ring of high resistance
96. IDENTIFY (d) Snow storm appearance

99. Oxygenated blood reaches the fetal heart

in utero via:
(a) Umblical arteries
(b) Umblical vein
(c) Ductus venosus
(d) Ductus arteriosus

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 OBGY MCQs by Dr. Punit Bhojani Drmentors.com
100. The distance between alert line & action
line on WHO partogram is :
(a) 2 hours
(b) 4 hours
(c) 3 hours
(d) 1 hour

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