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153 BETQuestionPaper2009a

The document provides information about the Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET) for the DBT-JRF Award for the year 2009-2010. It includes details about the exam such as date (April 19, 2009), duration (10:00 am - 12:30 pm), total marks (300), and instructions for filling out the answer sheet. It also lists Section A and Section B of the exam questions.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
54 views20 pages

153 BETQuestionPaper2009a

The document provides information about the Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET) for the DBT-JRF Award for the year 2009-2010. It includes details about the exam such as date (April 19, 2009), duration (10:00 am - 12:30 pm), total marks (300), and instructions for filling out the answer sheet. It also lists Section A and Section B of the exam questions.

Uploaded by

ArshdeepKaur
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 20

Preparing for CSIR NET /

GATE / DBT Exam?

Need Help in Preparation?

Call Toll Free 1800-200-3757


or 080-32494384

BioTecNika
Bangalore | Noida | Pune | Online
www.biotecnika.org
Biotecnika Info Labs Pvt. Ltd

Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET)


for DBT-JRF Award (2009-10)
Government of India, Ministry of Science & Technology,
Department of Biotechnology, New Delhi
(Coordinated by University of Pune)

April 19, 2009 Total Marks – 300 Duration 10.00 a.m. - 12.30 p.m.

N.B. 1) All questions in Section A are compulsory.


2) Answer any 50 questions from Section B.
3) In case more than 50 are attempted, first 50 will be considered.
4) Each question carries 3 marks; for every wrong answer, one mark will be
deducted.
5) Write your seat no. strictly inside the space provided on the Answer sheet.
6) Answers marked inside the question paper will not be evaluated.
7) Please return the question paper along with the Answer sheet.

Instructions for filling the Answer sheet:


1) There is only one correct answer for each question and once a mark has been
made the same cannot be altered.
2) All entries in the circle must be made by BLACK ink Ball Point Pen only.
Do not try to alter the entry.
3) Oval should be darkened completely so that the numeral inside the oval is
not visible.
4) Do not make any stray marks for rough work on the sheet.
5) Do not use marker, white fluid or any other device to hide the shading already
done.
6) More than one entry of an answer will be considered wrong, and negative
marking will be done as above.
7) Mark your answer as shown in the example.

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Section A
1. Which of the following does not apply to triplex DNA? (D) AFLP
(A) It is triple stranded in nature
(B) It requires only Hoogstein hydrogen bonding 9. To know the structural similarity between two proteins,
(C) It requires Watson-Crick hydrogen bonding the server to use is
(D) It forms at neutral or acidic pH (A) PRODOM
(B) PROSITE
2. A C-terminal KDEL motif will most often ensure (C) TREMBLE
(A) the protein to be folded by hsc70 (D) DALI
(B) the protein to be degraded by the ubiquitin-
proteasome pathway 10. Which of the following is a molecular chaperone ?
(C) secretion of the protein (A) Dna G
(D) ER-retention of the protein (B) Dna A
(C) Lysozyme
3. 5-Methylcytosines are common sites for mutations (D) Dna K
because they
(A) are not recognized by the proofreading activity of 11. Activation of phospholipase C initiates a sequence of
DNA polymerase events including all of the following, except
(B) can mispair with adenine (A) release of inositol 4,5-biphosphate from a
(C) can deaminate to thymidine phospholipid
(D) prevent discrimination between the daughter and (B) increase in intracellular Ca2+ concentration
parental strand (C) release of diacylglycerol from phospholipid
(D) activation of protein kinase C
4. Nickel Nitriloacetic acid columns are used in
___________ chromatography 12. 5' RACE is often necessary to
(A) Ion exchange (A) delete sequences from 5' end of the DNA strand
(B) Affinity (B) label 5'end of DNA with a dye
(C) Size exclusion (C) clone 5' region of genes from mRNA
(D) Reverse phase (D) add sequences at 5' end to facilitate annealing of a
specific primer
5. The antibiotic that resembles the 3' end of the charged
tRNA molecule is 13. Activation of genes in euchromatic regions is an outcome
(A) Tetracycline of----------of histone N-terminal tails
(B) Puromycin (A) deacylation
(C) Kanamycin (B) methylation
(D) Steptomycin. (C) hyperacetylation
(D) phosphorylation
6. Mitochondria are involved in the following except
(A) ATP production 14. Integration of phage lambda genome into E. coli
(B) Glycosylation chromosome is by
(C) Fatty acid biosynthesis (A) COS sites
(D) TCA cycle (B) random integration by the function of e-14 element in
the chromosome
7. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that (C) site specific recombination
(A) fail to reproduce in artificial media (D) red gene mediated recombination
(B) have a rigid cell wall
(C) are resistant to penicillin 15. 3' Overhangs of 2-bp length are found in
(D) stain well with Gram’s stain (A) genome-length RNA of CaMV
(B) subgenomic RNAs of RNA viruses
8. The technique for identifying the nucleic acid sequences (C) Taq polymerase-amplified DNA fragments
bound by a DNA/RNA binding protein is (D) short RNA fragments involved in RNA silencing
(A) Finger printing
(B) Foot printing 16. Matrix Attachment Regions are involved in
(C) Array printing (A) specific attachment of pathogens to the cell surface

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(B) formation of clathrin-coated vesicles (B) Production of IgG and IgM antibodies
(C) genomic compartmentalization creating chromatin (C) activation of helper T cells
domains favourable for transcription (D) modulation of the host cell receptors in response to
(D) transport of spliced mRNA from the nucleus to the the toxin
cytoplasm
24. The effects of endotoxin include each of the following
17. The biosafety problem due to spread of transgenes from except
transgenic plants to its wild relatives can be avoided by (A) Opsonization
(A) developing transgenic plants with herbicide (B) Fever
markers (C) Activation of the coagulation cascade
(B) Posi-Tech selection using non-antibiotic markers (D) Hypotension
like pmi
(C) developing transplastomic lines 25. Which of the following statements is true concerning
(D) elimination of markers using Cre/lox system Natural Killer (NK) cells?
(A) They belong to T-cell lineage
18. Full expression of the lac operon requires (B) They belong to B-cell lineage
(A) lactose and cAMP (C) They kill bacterially infected cells
(B) allolactose and cAMP (D) They display cytotoxic effect on tumor cells
(C) cAMP
(D) lactose 26. The E-value in a BLAST search measures
(A) the probability that the search result is non-random
19. An enzyme that induces double strand breaks in DNA (B) the significance of the search result
and rejoins them is called (C) the probability that the search result is obtained
(A) Restriction endonuclease randomly
(B) DNA gyrase (D) the reliability of the search
(C) DNA ligase
(D) DNA polymerase 27. During protein evolution the region of protein most
prone to mutation is
20. Which of the following best describes interferon’s (A) functional domain
suspected mode of action in producing resistance to (B) structurally conserved domain
viral infection? (C) connective loops
(A) It stimulates cell-mediated immunity (D) hydrophobic domain
(B) It stimulates humoral immunity
(C) Its direct antiviral action is related to the 28. Operon having positive and negative regulation by
suppression of messenger RNA formation single regulatory protein is
(D) Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that (A) lac operon
inhibits translation or transcription (B) trp operon
(C) ara operon
21. The most sensitive method of detecting infection by (D) his operon
cytomegalovirus (CMV) in the new born is
(A) isolation of the virus 29. Uvr ABC endonuclease is present in which repair
(B) identification of characteristic cells in gastric system ?
secretions (A) Mismatch repair
(C) detection of IgM antibody by immunofluorescence (B) Nucleotide excision repair
(D) direct detection of antigen by ELISA (C) Base excision repair
(D) SOS repair
22. In Staphylococci, antibiotic resistance genes can exist
either on plasmids or chromosomes. The genes are 30. The first commercially produced plant secondary
carried by metabolite using bioreactor technology is
(A) Prophage (A) shikonin
(B) Free DNA (B) colchicine
(C) Transposons (C) cercosporin
(D) Protein A (D) cytokinin

23. The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is 31. You can patent a product/process only if it is
(A) activation of macrophages secreting proteases (A) a major discovery reported in high impact journals

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(B) novel, non-obvious and usable (A) glycine


(C) new and extension of earlier principles (B) alanine
(D) new applications of a patented product (C) histidine
(D) purine
32. The hydrogen-bonding pattern in alpha helices is
(A) n to n+4 40. A peptide bond
(B) n to n+3 (A) has a partial double bond character
(C) n to n+5 (B) is stable in strong acids
(D) n-1 to n (C) occurs most commonly in cis configuration
(D) is cleaved by agents that denature proteins, such
33. Calf thymus terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase as organic solvents and high concentrations of
(A) adds nucleotide to the 3'OH terminus of a DNA urea.
molecule
(B) adds nucleotide to the 5' P terminus of a DNA 41. The complete denaturation of a protein leads to a loss of
molecule the following structure(s):
(C) removes nucleotide from the 3'OH terminus of a (A) primary
DNA molecule (B) primary and tertiary
(D) removes nucleotide from 5' P terminus of a DNA (C) primary and secondary
molecule (D) secondary and tertiary

34. The rate of renaturation of DNA is governed by the 42. HeLa cell line is derived from which type of carcinoma?
equation (A) lung
(A) dc/dt = -kC2 (B) colon
(B) dt/dc = -kC2 (C) cervical
(C) dt/dc = kC2 (D) brain
(D) dc/dt = 2kC
43. Vinblastine, a chemotherapeutic agent, inhibits
35. The enzyme of choice for converting DNA with 3'end (A) microtubule polymerization
overhang into a blunt ended one is (B) microtubule depolymerization
(A) Klenow fragment of DNA Polymerase I (C) spindle formation
(B) DNA Polymerase I holoenzyme (D) actin polarisation
(C) T4 DNA polymerase
(D) S1 nuclease 44. Turner’s syndrome is due to
(A) XXY
36. If you want literature information, which is the best (B) XXO
website to visit? (C) XO
(A) OMIM (D) XXX
(B) Entrez
(C) PubMed 45. Which one of the following is not an antigen presenting
(D) PROSITE cell?
(A) dendritic Cell
37. What would be the likely explanation for the existence (B) B Cell
of pseudogenes? (C) macrophage
(A) gene duplication (D) Natural Killer cell
(B) gene duplication and mutation events
(C) mutation events 46. Bird flu in last decade was caused by
(D) unequal crossing over (A) H5N1
(B) H3N2
38. The α-helical motifs of gene regulatory proteins (C) H1N1
generally bind to (D) H2N1
(A) major groove of A-DNA
(B) minor groove of B-DNA 47. Ultraviolet radiation causes DNA damage by formation
(C) major groove of B-DNA of
(D) sugar-phosphate backbone of A-DNA (A) cytidine dimer
(B) thymidine dimer
39. Which of the following ionizes at physiological pH? (C) adenine dimer

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(D) guanine dimer (A) Helicobacter sp.


(B) Pseudomonas sp.
48. Autoreactive cells are present in our immune system due (C) Trichoderma sp.
to (D) Staphylococcus sp.
(A) increased tolerance
(B) defective thymic selection 50. Apart from gas transport Hemoglobin plays an
(C) peripheral deletion important role in
(D) breakdown of host immunity (A) red cell morphology
(B) blood buffering
49. Which one of the following microbes removes oil spills (C) globin synthesis
by digesting hydrocarbons? (D) bone marrow regeneration

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Section B
51. The smallest genome among the plants listed below is 57. The gene which is suppressed by another nonallelic
that of gene through interaction is known as
(A) Gossypium sp (A) Epistatic
(B) Oryza sativa (B) Incomplete
(C) Arabidopsis thaliana (C) Hypostatic
(D) Arachis hypogaea (D) Homologs

52. Porins 58. Cleistogamy occurs in


(A) are cytoskeletal proteins (A) Rice
(B) form channels which allow passage of (B) Barley
hydrophilic molecules (C) Maize
(C) are fatty acids (D) Pearl millet
(D) are pores in the stem of a plant
59. Doubled haploid lines can be generated by
53. nif genes which encode the nitrogenase complex and (A) Protoplast fusion
other enzymes involve (B) Transformation
(A) ammonification (C) Anther culture
(B) nitrogen fixation (D) RNAi technology
(C) nitrification
(D) denitrificatrion 60. A mapping method for identifying markers linked to a
trait of interest in a natural population is called
54. ABA is a (A) Linkage mapping
(A) growth promoter (B) Association mapping
(B) stress hormone (C) Transcriptome mapping
(C) protein (D) Chromosome walking
(D) polyamine
61. Break down of Gibberellic acid is mediated by
55. EMS is a mutagen capable of causing (A) GA 20 Oxidase
(A) large deletions (B) GA 2 Oxidase
(B) single base substitutions (C) GA 3 Oxidase
(C) translocations (D) Kaurene Oxidase
(D) chromosomal rearrangements
62. SSR markers are
56. Enucleated protoplast is called (A) Dominant
(A) cybrid (B) Co-dominant
(B) tonoplast (C) Epistatic
(C) cytoplast (D) Recessive
(D) duplast

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63. Isopentenyl transferase is an enzyme involved in (B) post transcriptional RNA degradation
(A) cytokinin synthesis (C) degradation of proteins
(B) auxin synthesis (D) heterochromatinization of DNA through
(C) proline synthesis methylation at cytosine residues
(D) purine synthesis
71. The first product of photosynthesis in C3 plants is
64. Luciferase gene (luc) is isolated from (A) glycerate 3 phosphate
(A) E. coli (B) malate
(B) Aequorea victoria (C) glycerate 1,3 bisphosphate
(C) Photinus pyralis (D) phosphoenol pyruvate
(D) Bacillus sp.
72. Which of the following reactor systems is generally
65. Slender (slr) mutant in rice is due to mutation in used to generate microbial mutants?
(A) GA signalling (A) CSTR system
(B) ABA signalling
(B) BSTR system
(C) Auxin signalling
(D) Cytokinin signaling (C) PBR system
(D) FBR system
66. Biological nitrogen fixation occurs when atmospheric
nitrogen is converted into 73. In microbial fermentation, generally inhibitors
(A) ammonia (A) are consumed by the microbes
(B) nitrate (B) are incorporated in the synthesized molecule
(C) nitrite
(C) help in combating contamination
(D) nitrogen dioxide
(D) help in the production of desired products
67. It was possible to engineer genes of interest between
right and left border of T-DNA of Agrobacterium for 74. Product yield coefficient is defined as
plant transformation because (A) Cell mass formed: substrate utilized
(A) T-DNA is nontoxic (B) Substrate utilized: cell mass formed
(B) T-DNA is not required by Agrobacterium (C) Product formed: substrate utilized
(C) The agrobacterial genes essential for
(D) Substrate utilized : product formed
mobilization of the T-DNA lie outside the T-
DNA
(D) T-DNA cannot function in plants 75. Which of the following reactors would have mixing
profiles that are closest to plug flow?
68. Integration of more than one copy of transgene is not (A) A continuous air lift bioreactor
desirable because (B) A continuous fluidized bed bioreactor
(A) It can make more transcript than needed
(C) A continuous packed bed reactor
(B) It can cause toxicity
(C) It can cause mutation in the gene of interest (D) Continuous stirred tank reactors with biomass
(D) It can induce gene silencing recycle

69. Systemic acquired resistance 76. Which of the following antibiotics/toxicants acts by
(A) is an enhanced resistance exhibited by uninfected interfering with the phosphodiester bond formation?
plant tissue through a memory of previous (A) Rifamycin
infection
(B) Actinomycin
(B) is an resistance exhibited by plants towards any
pathogen (C) α – amanitin
(C) is a resistance acquired by a sensitive plant (D) Penicillin
through breeding
(D) is a resistance exhibited by bacterial pathogens 77. Diphtheria toxin blocks protein synthesis by
towards a large number of antibiotics (A) ADP ribosylation of EF-2
(B) Phosphorylating EF-1
70. rasiRNAs are involved in
(C) Inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity
(A) heterochromatinization of DNA through histone
tail modification (D) ADP ribosylation of EF-G

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78. By a single experiment how would you know that the (C) Gustavsson’s anomaly
stationary phase in a batch culture is due to substrate (D) Smith’s anomaly
depletion or toxin accumulation?
85. An example of a motile microorganism is
(A) By adding highly concentrated substrate in the
(A) Brucella
stationary phase
(B) Lactobacillus
(B) By adding more substrate in the stationary phase
(C) Shigella
(C) By diluting the broth by sterilized water in the
(D) Pseudomonas
stationary phase
(D) By extracting toxin from the broth in the
86. Which one of the following is an unprotected
stationary phase
fermentation?
(A) Ethanol production
79. The average value of dissolved oxygen concentration
(B) Citric acid production
in water is
(C) Antibiotic production
(A) 10 mg/l
(D) Enzyme production
(B) 100 mg/l
(C) 160 mg/l
87. A method commonly used to determine the level of
(D) 1 mg/l
damage of animal cells in a culture medium is to
monitor
80. Seitz filter is made of
(A) the concentration of lactate in the medium
(A) Diatomaceous earth
(B) the level of lactate oxidase activity in the
(B) Porcelain
medium
(C) Asbestos pad
(C) the level of lactate dehydrogenase activity
(D) Sintered glass disks
(D) the level of laccase activity in the medium
81. A fungal disease Moniliasis is caused by
88. Vortexing in stirred tank reactor can be reduced by
(A) Filobasidiella neoformans
using
(B) Candida albicans
(A) An axial flow impeller
(C) Blastomyces dermatitidis
(B) A turbine impeller
(D) Histoplasma capsulatum
(C) Baffles in the reactor
(D) Multiple impellers
82. Which of the following tests is done for the diagnosis
of scarlet fever?
89. In which type of chromatography are ion-pairing
(A) Frei test
agents used for elution?
(B) Tuberculin test
(A) Hydrophobic Interaction Chromatography
(C) Ducrey test
(B) Reverse Phase Chromatography
(D) Schultz-Charlton test
(C) Ion Exchange Chromatography
(D) Immobilized Metal Anion Chromatography
83. In a plant scale reactor temperature is controlled by
passing cold water
90. Blocking of ‘A’ site on the ribosome and thereby
(A) through jacket only
inhibiting protein synthesis is the mechanism of
(B) through internal coil only
action of
(C) through both jacket and internal coil
(A) Streptomycin
(D) by sprinkling cold water on the wall of the
(B) Tetracycline
reactor
(C) Chloramphenicol
84. The Robertsonian translocation that is most widely
distributed in cattle populations worldwide is referred (D) Erythromycin
to as
(A) Roberson’s anomaly 91. Clostridium tetanomorphum is known to produce
(B) Anderson’s anomaly (A) Vitamin A

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(B) Vitamin B 99. For which of the following, the units of rate constant
(C) Vitamin C and rate of reaction are same?
(D) Vitamin K (A) 1st order reaction
(B) 2nd order reaction
92. Multiple antigen peptides(MAPs) are peptide vaccines (C) 3rd order reaction
which are chemically ‘stitched’ together usually onto (D) Zero order reaction
a
(A) Poly-lysine backbone
100. High density yeast culture represents
(B) Poly-arginine backbone
(C) Poly-methionine backbone (A) Pseudoplastic rheology
(D) Poly-histidine backbone (B) Dilatant rheology
(C) Bingham rheology
93. Which of the following antibiotics is produced by (D) Casson body rheology
chemical synthesis ?
(A) Penicillin 101. In order to permeabilize yeast cell, it is best to treat
(B) Streptomycin with
(C) Tetracycline (A) EDTA and Lysozyme
(D) Chloramphenicol (B) ß-(1, 3) glucanase and protease
(C) ß-(1, 6) glucanase
94. Which of the following obtains energy from the (D) Alkaline hydroxylase
oxidation of inorganic or organic chemicals?
(A) Chemotroph 102. In Aqueous two phase extraction, proteins are
(B) Lithotroph highly influenced by _________ polymer phase
(C) Autotroph (A) Low molecular weight
(D) Heterotroph (B) High molecular weight
(C) Similar molecular weight
95. A common clinical pathological finding during a viral (D) Medium molecular weight
infection is
(A) Neutrophilia 103. In order to fractionate particles based on size which
(B) Eosinophilia
of the following is most suitable?
(C) Leukopenia
(D) Basophilia (A) Tubular centrifuge
(B) Multichamber centrifuge
96. Regimes of the world with an unusually large (C) Disk stack centrifuge
concentration of various species are called (D) Decanter centrifuge
(A) Natural preserves
(B) Cloud forests 104. Which among the following purification steps
(C) Landscape initially requires high ionic strength in the sample ?
(D) Biodiversity hotspots (A) Ion exchange chromatography
(B) Hydrophobic interaction chromatography
97. Deficiency of lipase enzyme can cause (C) Chromatofocusing
(A) Muscle cramps (D) Preparative chromatography
(B) Joint inflammation
(C) Hepatotoxicity 105.Dynamic kinetic resolution of chiral molecules yields
(D) Coma and death a maximum of
(A) 50% conversion
98. Which of the following can be grown anaerobically? (B) 100% conversion
(A) E. coli (C) 75% conversion
(B) S. aureus (D) 25% conversion
(C) Pseudomonas
(D) Clostridia

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106. Unit of nth order rate constant is Assuming no inhibitor is present, Vmax is practically
(A) (mol L-1)1-n sec-1 equal to
(B) (mol L-1)n-1 sec-1 (A) 40 µmol/l-min
(C) (mol-1 L)1-n sec-1 (B) 80 µmol/l-min
(D) (mol L-1)n-1 sec (C) 120 µmol/l-min
(D) 4.8 × 102 µmol/l-min
107. The half life of the 1st order reaction is independent
of 114. The rate of reaction increases by increase in
(A) Square of final substrate temperature because
(B) Initial substrate concentration (A) Collision frequency increases
(C) Final substrate concentration (B) Energy of products decreases
(D) Cube root of final substrate concentration (C) Fraction of molecules possessing energy ≥ ET
(Threshold energy) increases
108. In a first order reaction A→B. The plot ______is a (D) Mechanism of reaction is changed
straight line
(A) [A] versus time (t) 115. If the concentration of the reactants is increased by
(B) 1/ [A] versus time (t) “X”, then the rate constant K becomes
(C) ln [A] versus time (t) (A) eK/X
(D) 1/ ln [A] versus time (t) (B) K
(C) K/X
109. Bang’s disease is caused by (D) D X/K
(A) Corynebacterium pyogeneus
(B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Brucella abortus 116. Plug flow of both gas phase and liquid phase is a
(D) Salmonella dublin characteristic of
(A) STR
110. Catalytic efficiency allows a comparison of different (B) Air-Lift reactor
enzymes. It is the ratio of (C) Bubble column reactor
(A) Kcat/Km (D) Fluidized bed reactor
(B) Km/Kcat
(C) Vmax/Kcat 117. The unit of volumetric oxygen transfer coefficient
(D) Kcat/Vmax (KLa) is
(A) m2h-1
111. Gas gangrene is caused by the bacteria of the genus (B) m3h-1
(A) Staphylococcus (C) h-1
(B) Streptococcus (D) mh-1
(C) Clostridium
(D) Corynebacterium
118. Which of the following statements is not true in case
112. Random single displacement enzyme reactions of Chemostat?
resemble (A) An increase in flow rate leads to decrease in
(A) Competitive inhibition dissolved oxygen tension
(B) Uncompetitive inhibition (B) Cell recycle leads to increased productivity
(C) Irreversible inhibition (C) If operated with fixed flow rate, steady state is
(D) Noncompetitive inhibition achieved by metabolic control
(D) Maximum cell mass yield is obtained when
113. In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, Km = 4×10-5 operating at dilution rate greater than maximum
µmol/l, and the rate of reaction (V) at substrate specific growth rate
concentration [S] = 1.2×10-2 M is 80 µmol/l-min. 119. Bacteria utilize glucose preferentially over other
sugars through a mechanism called
(A) Operon repression

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(B) Enzyme repression (B) cholinergic neurons in the brain stem


(C) Catabolite repression (C) noradrenergic neurons in the locus coeruleus
(D) Catabolite induction (D) GABA-ergic neurons in the cortex

128. In Dengue fever the blood cell count that tends to


120. Syntrophism is a type of decrease to a dangerous level is of
(A) Commensalism (A) basophil
(B) Mutualism (B) eosinophil
(C) Parasitism (C) platelet
(D) Synergism (D) monocyte

121. When organisms make toxic substances more toxic, 129. The co-receptor responsible for the entry of HIV into
the process is called the host cell is
(A) Bioremediation (A) CCR1
(B) Biomagnification (B) CCR5
(C) CXCR3
(C) Biotoxification
(D) CXCR7
(D) Bioamplification
130. Calcium present in which of the following spaces
122. Non-superimposable mirror images having similar take part in the release of neurotransmitter?
molecular formula are called (A) Vesicles at the presynaptic terminal
(A) Cis-trans isomers (B) Extracellular space
(B) Geometric isomers (C) Intracellular space
(D) Presynaptic terminal in free form
(C) Anomers
(D) Enantiomers 131. Maximum concentration of dopaminergic neurons is
present in
123. One of the following is not a zoonotic disease (A) locus coeruleus
(A) Rabies (B) red nucleus
(B) Anthrax (C) substantia Nigra
(C) Brucellosis (D) mammillary body
(D) Canine distemper
132. In Alzheimer’s disease there is predominant loss of
124. A protein antigen requires to be processed in order to which type of neurons?
make it (A) Cholinergic
(A) induce tolerance (B) Cholinoceptive
(B) facilitatory for clearance by spleen (C) Noradrenergic
(C) to produce strong NK cell response (D) Noradrenoceptive
(D) to form peptide-MHC complex
133. Under stress condition which of the following pairs
125. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to insufficient level of organs plays as haemopoetic organ other than bone
of marrow?
(A) insulin (A) Both liver and lymph node
(B) ADH (B) Both spleen and liver
(C) thyroxine (C) Both lymphnode and thymus
(D) TSH (D) Both spleen and thymus

126. Which of the following leukocytes is present in 134. Gene therapy through stem cells may be done using
highest number in the human blood? (A) lentiviral vector
(A) neutrophil (B) plasmid vector
(B) eosinophil (C) episomal vector
(C) basophil (D) baculovirus vector
(D) macrophage
135. Defect in the SCID mice may be cured by inserting
127. In Parkinson’s disease there is a predominant loss of (A) ADA gene
(A) dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra (B) SCID gene

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(C) SCDA gene 144. Antiviral cellular immunity is predominantly


(D) DAA gene mediated by
(A) CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes
136. Insufficiency of the adrenal cortex causes which of (B) Natural Killer cells
the following diseases?
(C) CD4+ T lymphocytes
(A) Cancer
(D) Dendritic cells
(B) Gout
(C) Addison’s disease
145. Type 2 diabetes is due to
(D) Psoriasis
(A) lack of utilization of insulin
(B) lack of insulin production
137. Primary colours of vision are
(C) lack of glucose synthesis
(A) red, black and yellow
(D) high intake of glucose
(B) black, white and green
(C) orange, yellow and blue
146.Which of the following is the best way to detoxify the
(D) red, blue and green
methanol toxicity if a person drinks methanol?
(A) Make the patient drink glucose water
138. Thermoregulatory centre is located in the
(B) Intravenous injection with steroid
(A) cerebellum
(C) Make the patient drink ethanol
(B) cerebral cortex
(D) Make the patient drink lemon juice
(C) preoptic area
(D) mammillary body
147.Which of the following protozoan parasites replicates
inside the lysosomes?
139. Which category of hypersensitivity best describes
(A) Toxoplasma
hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh
(B) Leishmania
incompatibility?
(C) Trypanosoma
(A) atopic or anaphylactic
(D) Plasmodium
(B) cytotoxic
(C) immune complex
(D) delayed type 148. Which of the following hormones initiates biological
actions by crossing the plasma membrane and then
140. FMD virus belongs to the family binding to a receptor?
(A) Parvoviridae (A) Insulin
(B) Adenoviridae (B) Glucagon
(C) Flaviviridae (C) Estradiol
(D) Picornaviridae (D) Norepinephrine

141. Myasthenic syndromes are caused due to impairment 149. Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
of which of the following receptor types? (A) Paramyxovirus
(A) Acetylcholinergic (B) HIV
(B) Dopaminergic (C) HPV
(C) GABA-ergic (D) Picornavirus
(D) Histaminergic
150. During vigorous exercise lactic acid gets
142. DNA vaccination induces accumulated in skeletal muscle due to
(A) Cytotoxic T-cell response (A) lack of NADH
(B) NK-cell response (B) lack of NAD+
(C) Antibody response (C) excess supply of CO2
(D) Immediate hypersensitivity response (D) excess supply of O2

143. Graft rejection is induced by 151. Structure of amyloid fibril is


(A) Antibody response (A) random coil
(B) T-helper cell response (B) ß-sheet
(C) NK-T cell response (C) α-helix
(D) Cytotoxic T-cell response (D) ß-barrel

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152. In meiosis 160. Locus coeruleus in the brain possesses maximum


(A) Chromosomes separate in meiosis I and concentration of
chromatids separate in meiosis II (A) cholinergic neurons
(B) Chromosomes separate in meiosis II and (B) noradrenergic neurons
chromatids separate in meiosis I (C) astrocytes
(C) Chromosomes separate in both meiosis I and II (D) microglia
(D) Chromatids separate in both meiosis I and II
161. A tissue slice (non-dividing cells) was exposed for
153. Which one of the following viruses has been prolonged time to a chemical. The response of the
extensively used as expression vector for a number of slice to such chemical gradually reduced. However, if
foreign genes? washed and left for sometime, the tissue started
(A) Vaccinia virus responding to the same chemical at the same
(B) Rotavirus concentration. The reduced response was likely to be
(C) Rabies virus due to
(D) Papilloma virus (A) increased apoptosis of the cells
(B) the cells were necrosed
154. Bovine group A rotavirus contains (C) the pH of the medium was changed
(A) ss RNA (D) the receptors were desensitized/down-regulated
(B) ds RNA
(C) ss DNA 162. In albino Wistar rats the red colour of the blood is
(D) ds DNA due to
(A) lack of pigmentation
155. Somatic mutation of immunoglobulin gene accounts (B) absence of porphyrin ring in the heme of
for haemoglobin
(A) allelic exclusion (C) oxidized state of the iron in the heme
(B) class switching from IgM to IgG (D) reduced state of the iron in the heme
(C) affinity maturation
(D) V(D)J recombination 163. Large calf syndrome primarily occurs in
(A) Naturally born calves
156. The earliest thymocytes are (B) Transgenic calves
(A) CD4-CD8- (C) Calves produced by IVF
(B) CD4+CD8+ (D) Calves produced by Artificial insemination
(C) CD4+CD8-
(D) CD4-CD8+ 164. Patients suffering from tetanus are given antiserum
for therapy. This process of immunization is defined
157. Which one of the following is an enveloped virus? as
(A) Adenovirus (A) active immunization
(B) SV40 (B) prophylaxis
(C) Parvovirus (C) booster immunization
(D) Influenza virus (D) passive immunization

158. Which one of the following mouse immunoglobulins 165. Which of the following is not a site in humans where
has three domains in the constant region of the invading microorganisms are filtered from body
heavy chain? fluids passing through the site?
(A) IgG2b (A) Liver
(B) IgG2a (B) Heart
(C) IgE (C) Lung
(D) IgA (D) Spleen

159. Metabolic engineering of E.coli as a commercial 166. Which of the following serologic tests involves
source of the fuel ethanol involves alteration of its competing antigen-antibody reactions?
(A) Carbohydrate catabolic pathways (A) Complement fixation
(B) ELISA
(B) Fermentative pathways
(C) Agglutination
(C) TCA cycle (D) Fluorescent-tagged immunoglobulins
(D) Ability to grow autotrophically

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167. Respiratory Quotient is given by (A) acetylcholine


(A) moles of CO2 produced / moles of O2 consumed (B) adrenaline
(B) moles of O2 consumed / moles of CO2 produced (C) cold saline
(C) moles of biomass produced / moles of O2 (D) cold glucose solution
consumed
(D) moles of biomass produced/ moles of CO2 176. Posture maintenance is mainly controlled by the
produced (A) cerebrum
(B) cerebellum
168. By using reference sequencing developed through (C) hypothalamus
human genome project, individual differences can (D) mammilary bodies
now be analysed by using
(A) SSLPs 177. Galactosemia is a recessive human disease that is
(B) SNPs treatable by restricting lactose and glucose in the diet.
(C) SNRPs A couple is heterozugous for the galactosemia gene.
(D) AFLPs If the couple has 4 children, what is the probability
that none of the four will have galactosemia?
169. A person suffering from a killer disease SCID may (A) 1/16
be cured by inserting (B) 9/16
(A) ADA gene (C) 1/256
(B) SCID gene (D) 81/256
(C) SCDA gene
(D) DAA gene 178. The genetic event that causes transition from
membrane-bound to secretory form of IgM is
170. Vitamin E is (A) Somatic Hypermutation
(A) menaquinone (B) V-D-J Recombination
(B) α– tocopherol (C) Alternative Splicing
(C) Phylloquinone (D) Gene Jumping
(D) Retinol
179. If the association constant for the binding of a given
171. A channel forming protein produced by cytotoxic T- hapten to an antibody is 109 M-1 and second order
cells is rate constant for its binding is 108M-1 what would be
(A) Streptolysis the rate constant for the dissociation of the hapten
(B) Channelin from the antibody?
(C) Porin (A) 10-1 s-1
(D) Perforin (B) 10 s-1
(C) 10 17 s-1
172. Cervical cancer is caused by (D) 10 -17 s-1
(A) Papilloma virus
(B) Herpes simplex virus 180. Idiotypic determinants of a given immunoglobin
(C) Hepatitis B virus molecule are located within
(D) Vesicular stomatitis virus (A) hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains
(B) constant regions of light chains
173. The rate of impulse conduction in a nerve depends (C) constant regions of heavy chains
on (D) the hinge region
(A) axon diameter and axon length
(B) axon length and number of dendrites 181. The best method to demonstrate IgG on the
(C) axon diameter and thickness of myelination glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue
(D) myelination and nuclear size section is
(A) precipitin test
174. Melatonin is secreted in the (B) complement fixation test
(A) day time before noon (C) agglutination test
(B) day time after noon period (D) indirect fluorescent-antibody test
(C) just before sun set
(D) dark period 182. Which one of the following substances is not
released by activated helper T-cells?
175. Heart rate would increase by the application of (A) interleukin-1

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(B) gamma interferon (C) self antigen


(C) interleukin-2 (D) antiidotypic antibody
(D) interleukin-4
191. phi, psi angles of a peptide segment adopting alpha
183. Which of the following produce(s) analgesia and helical conformation would be around
autonomic inhibition? (A) –78, +59
(A) Glycine (B) +49,+26
(B) Glutamate (C) –57,-78
(C) Acetylcholine (D) –60,-40
(D) Opiates
192. Structurally independent unit of protein structure is a
184. Which of the following blood cell count decreases (A) fold
rapidly in dengue ? (B) domain
(A) Basophil (C) motif
(B) Eosinophil (D) super-fold
(C) Platelet
(D) Monocytes 193. The allowed region in the Ramachandran Plot for
three residues (alanine, glycine and proline)
185. Anti-malarial function of quinine is mediated by decreases in the order:
(A) blocking the formation of hemoglobin in the host (A) Pro > Gly > Ala
(B) blocking the formation of hemozoin in the (B) Gly > Ala > Pro
parasite (C) Ala > Pro > Gly
(C) triggering synthesis of hemoglobin in the host (D) Gly > Pro = Ala
(D) triggering synthesis of hemozoin in the parasite
194. Which residue, among alanine, arginine, proline and
186. SARS is caused by which of the following viruses? methionine has the lowest propensity to occur in an
(A) double stranded RNA alpha-helix?
(B) positive sense RNA (A) alanine
(C) negative sense RNA (B) arginine
(D) double stranded DNA (C) proline
(D) methionine
187. An inhibitor of sodium dependent glucose transport
across the plasma membrane is 195. Which of the following databases is derived from
(A) ouabain mRNA information?
(B) sodium azide (A) dbEST
(C) dicumarol (B) PDB
(D) phlorhizin (C) OMIM
(D) HTGS
188. Tyrosine hydroxylase immunopositive neurons are
(A) only noradrenergic 196. Which of the following amino acids is least mutable
(B) only dopaminergic according to PAM scoring matrix?
(C) either dopaminergic or noradrenergic (A) Alanine
(D) only serotonergic (B) Glutamine
(C) Methionine
189. In adult neurogenesis, which of the brain areas has (D) Cysteine
been suggested to play a role in periodic clearance
of outdated hippocampal memory traces? 197. You have two distantly related proteins. Which of
(A) cortex the following sets is the best for comparing them?
(B) brainstem (A) BLOSUM45 or PAM250
(C) dentate gyrus (B) BLOSUM45 or PAM1
(D) hypothalamus (C) BLOSUM80 or PAM250
(D) BLOSUM80 or PAM1
190. Antibody to a hapten could be raised without hapten-
carrier conjugate by injecting
(A) antiallotypic antibody
(B) antiisotypic antibody

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198. In a sequence database of a given size, which of the 205. Which of the following is a retrieval system?
following expressions is likely to retrieve more (A) Entrez
matches (X means any amino acid; any of the (B) Bioedit
residues in square brackets can occupy that position)? (C) Vecscreen
(A) D-A-V-I-D (D) Rasmol
(B) [DE]-A-V-I-[DE]
(C) [DE]-[AVILM]-X-E 206. The Smith-Waterman algorithm was developed for
(D) D-A-V-E (A) Local pairwise sequence alignment
(B) Global pairwise sequence alignment
199. Which alignment is used to predict whether two (C) Multiple sequence alignment
sequences are homologous or not? (D) Structural alignment
(A) Local
(B) Global 207. In Molecular Dynamics simulation the dependence is
(C) Pair-wise on
(D) Multiple (A) position only
(B) momentum only
200. In sequence analysis, Twilight zone refers to (C) both position and momentum
(A) a zone of domain in a protein sequence (D) either position or momentum
(B) a zone of sequence similarity (0-20% identity)
but statistically not significant 208. Homology modeling involves
(C) substitutions in sequence (A) alignment of the target sequence to the sequence
(D) a zone of sequence similarity that is statistically of a template structure
significant (B) alignment of the target sequence with multiple
sequences with no structural information
201. BLOCKS refers to (C) ab initio structure prediction
(A) gapped, aligned motif in a multiple sequence (D) no input of sequence information
alignment
(B) ungapped, aligned motif in a multiple sequence 209. Which of the following cases are commonly used in
alignment sequence alignment?
(C) coding sequences (A) gap opening penalty = -2, gap extension penalty
(D) non-coding sequences = -0.5
(B) gap opening penalty = -0.5, gap extension
202. CpG islands and codon bias are tools used in penalty = -2
eukaryotic genomics to (C) gap opening penalty = -100, gap extension
(A) identify open reading frames penalty = 0
(B) differentiate between eukaryotic and prokaryotic (D) gap opening penalty = -100, gap extension
DNA sequences penalty = -100
(C) Look for DNA-binding domains
(D) determine STS 210. CATH database classifies protein domains. CATH
stands for
203. The type of algorithm that GENSCAN tool employs (A) Calssified, Advanced, Technology and
is Homology
(A) Neural network (B) Automatic Classification of Turns and Helices
(B) Rule-based system (C) Class, Architecture, Topology and Homologous
(C) Hidden Markovs model superfamily
(D) Statistics based (D) Classification of Alpha Trans-membrane Helices

204. BLASTx is used to 211. Ab initio approaches for prediction of protein


(A) search a nucleotide database using a nucleotide structure utilize
query (A) sequence similarity
(B) search protein database using a protein query (B) structural similarity
(C) search protein database using a translated (C) both sequence and structural similarity
nucleotide query (D) basic physicochemical principles
(D) search translated nucleotide database using a
protein query

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212. To know the structural similarity between two (A) arrangement of one protein chain in a protein
proteins, the server to use is with a single subunit
(A) PRODOM (B) arrangement of separate protein chains in a
(B) PROSITE protein molecule with more than one subunit
(C) TREMBLE (C) arrangement of only parallel and antiparallel β-
(D) DALI sheets in a protein chain
(D) occurrence of an alpha-helix bundle in a protein
213. Quantitative Structure Activity Relationship (QSAR) chain
is used for
(A) Drug design 220. Among the following, which one is another anti-
(B) Protein modeling angiogenic factor than Squalamine extracted from
(C) Aligning two sequences Shark?
(D) Molecular Dynamics simulation (A) Neovastat
(B) Chlorampenciol
214. In protein modeling, molecular mechanics force field (C) Streptomycin
is used, because (D) Histamine
(A) it takes less time as compared to others
(B) it is more accurate 221. Which of the following marine sources acts as a Na+
(C) it guarantees global minimum channel blocker?
(D) it explicitly represents the electrons in a (A) Tetradotoxin
calculation (B) Conotoxin
(C) Carageneen
215. The potential energy for the interaction of two atoms (D) Acetyl choline
is given by U = A/r12 – B/r6. The bottom of the
potential well corresponds to 222. Which of the following proteins was used to create
(A) the sum of van der Waals radii of the atoms the first transgenic fish?
(B) the existence of the maximum electrostatic (A) Green Fluorescent protein
interaction (B) Anti freezing protein
(C) the situation when the first term vanishes (C) Horseshoe peroxidase
(D) the situation when the atoms get bonded (D) Myosin protein
covalently
223. Which of the following provides the best source of
216. A protein with mostly hydrophobic residues in the prostaglandins?
surface is likely to be a (A) Ctenophores
(A) fibrous protein (B) Echinoderms
(B) globular protein (C) Coral reefs
(C) membrane protein (D) Molluscs
(D) glycosylated protein
224. The DNA replication inhibitor yielded by sponge is
217. The overall cost of production of recombinant DNA (A) Clathesine
products for human use, in general increases due to (B) Spongosides
complications in (C) Spongin
(A) Upstream processing (D) Scleorin
(B) Fermentation process
(C) Downstream processing 225. Calyculins are natural products originally isolated
(D) Formulation process from the marine
(A) Mollusk
218. Which of the following does not represent a valid (B) Sea weeds
amino acid sequence? (C) Sponges
(A) EINSTEIN (D) Mangrove
(B) CRICK
(C) FARADAY 226. Curacin A is a potent anti-tumor agent obtained
(D) WATSON from a marine
(A) Actinomyces
219. Quaternary structure of a protein consists of (B) Cyanobacterium
(C) Aspergillus

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(D) Coral reef 235. Which of the following is not an epibiont?


(A) Barnacles
227. In sea urchins ______ nerve fibers are involved in (B) Bryozoans
spawning. (C) Sea anemone
(A) Cholinergic (D) Mussels
(B) Peptidergic
(C) Dopaminergic 236. Which of the following peptides showing anti-tumor
(D) Serotoninergic activity is isolated from marine organism?
(A) Saxitoxin
228. Which of the following is a pollution tolerant (B) Tetradotoxin
species? (C) Ecteinascidin
(A) Shrimp (D) Dolostatin
(B) Cuttle fish
(C) Isopods 237. The clown fish shows mutualism with
(D) Polychaetes (A) Sea urchin
(B) Sea cucumber
229. Sponge cells are capable of constitutively expressing (C) Sea anemone
------------ and thus resemble tumor cells (D) Hermit crab
(A) DNAse
(B) Polymerase 238. Which of the following cell cycle regulatory
(C) Helicase proteins was first identified in marine invertebrates?
(D) Telomerase (A) p53
(B) Cyclins
230. Which of the following trend is not the treatment (C) P27
used for the induction of triploidy in gastropods ? (D) Cyclin dependent kinase
(A) Pressure shock
(B) Thermal shock 239. Gene coding for luminescence in marine luminescent
(C) 6-dimethylamino purine bacteria is
(D) Osmotic shock (A) luxR
(B) toxR
231. UV-A absorbing compound present in marine (C) recA
cyanobacteria is (D) Luciferase
(A) α-glucoside
(B) α-galactoside 240. Red fluorescent protein used in the development of
(C) Biopterin glucoside transgenic ornamental fish was isolated from
(D) Biopterin galactoside (A) Star fish
(B) Sponges
232. Members of luminous Vibrio sp. communicate with (C) Red algae
each other by (D) Corals
(A) Conjugation
(B) Recombination 241. Leydig’s organ in cartilaginous fishes is for
(C) Quorum sensing (A) Sensation
(D) Secreting Pheromones (B) Respiration
(C) Immunity
233. The only naturally transformable marine (D) Reproduction
cyanobacteria is
(A) Agmenellum sp.
242. Melanosis in shrimps occurs due to the activity of
(B) Spirulina sp.
(C) Oscillatoria sp. (A) Phenol oxidase
(D) Nostoc sp. (B) alpha-glucosidase
(C) Prophenol oxidase
234. Most of the cyanobacterial plasmids are (D) All the above
(A) Relaxed
(B) R plasmids 243. The best source for salt tolerant gene is
(C) Stringent (A) Fishes
(D) Cryptic (B) Mangroves

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(C) Seaweeds
(D) Bacteria

244. Water resistant bioadhesives are produced by


(A) Seaweeds
(B) Mangroves
(C) Mussels
(D) Sea anemones

245. What kind of proteins are synthesized in marine


algae in response to metal stress?
(A) Metalloprotease
(B) Phytochelatins
(C) Metallothioneins
(D) Phycobilins

246. The commercially available marine-derived


anticancer drug is
(A) Vincristine
(B) Carboplastin
(C) Vinblastin
(D) Ara C

247. Which of the following is a marine pollution


monitoring programme?
(A) Bird watch programme
(B) Mussel watch programme
(C) Fish watch programme
(D) Bay of Bengal programme

248. The viral infection in shrimp is caused by


(A) HSV
(B) WSSV
(C) HIV
(D) HPV

249. Alginate is obtained from


(A) Brown algae
(B) Green algae
(C) Red algae
(D) Blue green algae

250. General Economic Zone distance is


(A) 500 nautical miles
(B) 200 nautical miles
(C) 300 nautical miles
(D) 100 nautical miles

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