WEEK 4 – Assignment

1. Illustrates flow behaviour of common fluids

The accepted transition Reynolds number for flow in a circular pipe is
Red,crit ≈ 2300. Consider a flow through a 5 cm diameter pipe. At what
velocities will the transition occur at 20°C for
i. Air with  = 1.2 kg/m3 and μ = 1.8 x 10-5 N.s/m2
ii. Water with  = 1000 kg/m3 and μ = 0.001 N.s/m2
iii. Glycerol with  = 1120 kg/m3 and μ = 1.42 N.s/m2
iv. Lubricating Oil with  = 850 kg/m3 and μ = 0.2 N.s/m2

a. i. 0.7 m/s, ii. 0.046 m/s, iii. 58 m/s, iv. 10.8 m/s
b. i. 0.7 m/s, ii. 10.8 m/s, iii. 58 m/s, iv. 0.046 m/s
c. i. 58 m/s, ii. 0.046 m/s, iii. 0.7 m/s, iv. 10.8 m/s
d. i. 0.7 m/s, ii. 0.046 m/s, iii. 10.8 m/s, iv. 58 m/s
SOLUTION – a

GIVEN
Different fluids flowing through a 5 cm diameter pipe.

FIND
The velocity for which laminar to turbulent transition occurs.

SOLUTION
For circular pipe flow, Reynolds number is defined on the diameter
scale.
ρUd
ℜd=
μ

The critical Reynolds number is usually taken as Red,crit ≈ 2300

The velocity for this transition is given by
ℜd , crit μ
U=
ρd

i. For air
 = 1.2 kg/m3 and μ = 1.8 x 10-5 N.s/m2
2300 ×1.8 ×10−5
U= =0.69 m/s
1.2 ×0.05

ii. For water

 = 1000 kg/m3 and μ = 0.001 N.s/m2
2300 × 0.001
U= =0.046 m/s
1000 ×0.05

iii. For glycerol

 = 1120 kg/m3 and μ = 1.42 N.s/m2
2300 ×1.42
U= =58.32 m/s
1120 × 0.05

iv. For lubricating oil

 = 850 kg/m3 and μ = 0.2 N.s/m2
2300 × 0.2
U= =10.8 m/s
850 × 0.05

DISCUSSION
For the air and water, the critical velocity is very low, so most
engineering flows are turbulent and not laminar. We might expect
laminar duct flows with more viscous fluids such as glycerol and
Lubricating oil.

2. Illustrates estimation of boundary layer thickness

A long thin flat plate is placed parallel to a 6 m/s stream of water (  =
1000 kg/m3 and μ = 0.001 N.s/m2). At what distance x from the leading
edge will the boundary layer thickness be 25 mm.

U = 6 m/s
δ = 25 mm BOUNDARY
LAYER

Use the following relations for boundary layer thickness, δ

δ 5.5
= , For laminar BL( ℜ x <105 )
x ℜx 0.5

δ 0.37
= 0.2 , For turbulent BL(ℜ x >10 5)
x ℜx

a. 1.0 m
b. 1.2 m
c. 1.7 m
d. 2.0 m
SOLUTION – c
GIVEN
Free stream velocity, U = 6m/s
Fluid is water with  = 1000 kg/m3 and μ = 0.001 N.s/m2
FIND
Distance x from the leading edge where δ = 25 mm.
SOLUTION
Since the distance x is unknown, we cannot find the Reynolds No and
determine whether boundary layer is laminar or turbulent.

Let us assume BL to be laminar

 δ 5.5 5.5
= 0.5 =
x ℜx ρUx 0.5

μ ( )
δ 2 ρU 0.0252 × 1000× 6
x= = =124 m
5.5 2 μ 5.52 × 0.001

Rechecking the Reynolds No

ρUx 1000 × 6× 124
ℜx = = =7.44 × 108
μ 0.001

So our assumption is wrong. ( ℜx >105 )

Let us repeat the calculation for turbulent BL

δ 0.37 0.37
= =
x ℜx 0.2 ρUx 0.2
( ) μ
0.2
δ ρU
0.37 ( μ )
0.8
x =

1.25 0.25 1.25 0.25

δ ρU 0.025 1000× 6
x=( ) ( ) =( ) ( 0.001 )
=1.7 m
0.37 μ 0.37

Rechecking the Reynolds No

ρUx 1000 × 6× 1.7
ℜx = = =10 ×10 8
μ 0.001

3. Illustrates high Reynolds number drag and a simple method to

measure drag coefficient
The smooth sphere shown in figure has weight W and hangs from a
hook by a rigid and weightless wire of length L. A wind of velocity V∞
blows over the sphere. Develop an expression relating the drag
coefficient CD of the sphere, the velocity V∞, and the angle θ. The air
density is ρ and the sphere diameter is D.

V∞

String
Tension

Drag

W
Free Body Diagram

2 Wtanθ
a. CD=
ρV 2∞ π D 2
8 Wtanθ
b. CD=
ρV 2∞ π D 2
2 ρWtanθ
c. CD=
ρV 2∞ π D 2
8 ρWtanθ
d. CD=
ρV 2∞ π D 2
SOLUTION – b

GIVEN
Sphere of weight W
Sphere diameter is D
Drag coefficient CD
Length of string L
Velocity of flow V∞
Air density ρ
Inclination angle of string θ

FIND
Expression for the drag coefficient CD

SOLUTION
Consider the free body diagram of sphere, we will have drag force
acting along the direction of flow (horizontal), weight in the direction of
gravity (vertically downward) and string tension along the string (upward
at an angle of θ with vertical).

Free Body Diagram

String
Tension, T θ

Drag, D

Weight, W

Since the sphere is static, all the forces must balance.

Balancing vertical forces gives
W = Tcosθ Or T = W/cosθ
Balancing horizontal forces gives
Drag = Tsinθ
Substituting for T will give , Drag = Wxsinθ/cosθ = W tanθ
Drag = ½ CD ρ V∞2S
where S is the frontal projected surface area, S = πD2/4
Drag = ½ CD ρ V∞2 (πD2/4) = ⅛ CD ρ V∞2πD2
⅛ CD ρ V∞2πD2 = W tanθ
8 Wtanθ
CD=
ρV 2∞ π D 2

DISCUSSION
The drag coefficient is not constant for an object, it depends on the flow
velocity and the behavior is not very predictable. So experiments are
conducted to determine CD of aerodynamic objects at various flow
velocities.

4. Illustrates road vehicle aerodynamics

A semitrailer with frontal area 6.2 m2, is fitted with an air deflector as
shown in figure and the drag coefficient is reduced from 0.96 to 0.76.
What is the percentage saving in power required to propel the vehicle
at 10 m/s? Take density of air as 1.2 kg/m3.

Air Deflector
 a. 5%
b. 16 %
c. 21 %
d. 35 %

SOLUTION – c
GIVEN
Semitrailer with frontal area, S = 6.2 m2
Vehicle velocity, V ∞ = 10 m/s

FIND
Power saved by streamlining the vehicle with an air deflector

SOLUTION
1 2
Drag D= 2 ρ C D V ∞ S

Power required to overcome drag, P=D V ∞

i. CD1 = 0.96
1 1
P1=D V ∞ = ρC D 1 V 3∞ S= × 1.2× 0.96 ×103 ×6.2=3571 W
2 2

ii. CD2 = 0.76

1 1
P2=D V ∞ = ρC D 2 V 3∞ S= × 1.2× 0.76 ×103 ×6.2=2827 W
2 2

P 1−P2 3571−2827
Percentage saving = P1
×100=
3571
× 100=20.8 %
DISCUSSION
Since road vehicles operate at high Reynolds number (a typical
passenger car traveling at 50 km/h has a Reynolds number of about
107, based on length) and are rather blunt bodies, most of the drag on
them is form drag. The primary method of reducing form drag is
streamlining and reduce frontal area. Olden automobiles had higher
profile (large frontal area) and boxy shapes that produced drag
coefficient of about 0.9 – 1.0. Modern automobiles have a much more
streamlined shape with low profile and have drag coefficient of about
0.45 – 0.65.

5. Illustrates developing flow

A wind tunnel has a 3.0 m diameter, a 4.0 m long test section, and a
flow rate of 300 m3/s, as shown in figure. Estimate the size (diameter)
of the inviscid core at the end of the test section.

δ BOUNDARY
LAYER

INVISCID
Q D d inviscid core
CORE

δ
4m
x

The entrance length or the development length, Le can be given by

Le
≈ 0.06 ℜD , For Laminar flow ( ℜD < 2300 )
D
Le 1 /6
≈ 4.4 ( ℜD ) , For Turbulent flow ( ℜD >2300 )
D
Use the correlations given below for the boundary layer formed over a
flat plate [external flow] for your calculations. For laminar boundary
layer take δl ~ x0.5, and for turbulent boundary layer take δt ~ x0.8. Where
δ is boundary layer thickness and x is axial distance from leading edge.
{ NOTE : Since the internal flow will have pressure gradient, strictly
speaking the above correlation is not applicable }.
Use kinematic viscosity of air, ν = 1.5x10-5 m2/s.
HINT : δ at Le is D/2.
a. d inviscid core = 2.74 m
b. d inviscid core = 2.78 m
c. d inviscid core = 2.86 m
d. d inviscid core = 2.94 m

SOLUTION – c
GIVEN
Wind tunnel having 3 m diameter, and 4 m length test section and
300 m3/s flow rate.
FIND
Size of the inviscid core at the end of test section.
SOLUTION
The diameter dIC of the inviscid core is related to the wind tunnel
diameter by, dIC = D - 2 δ, where δ is the boundary layer thickness.
The boundary layer thickness increases along the direction of flow,
so the inviscid core diameter decreases along the direction of flow.
The limit of this process is reached when the boundary layer fills
the entire wind tunnel, that is, when the flow becomes fully
developed.
Q 300
V= = =42.4 m/s
Average velocity, A π
×3 2
4
 VD 42.4 ×3
Reynolds number, ℜD = ν = −5
=8.5 ×10 6
1.5× 10
Le 1 /6
Since ReD > 2300, we use ≈ 4.4 ( ℜD )
D
1 /6
Le =4.4 ( ℜ D )1/ 6 × D=4.4 ( 8.5 ×106 ) ×3=188.5 m≈ 190 m

The flow would require a length of 190 m to become fully

developed. Boundary layer increases as δt ~ x0.8 from a value of δ =
0 at x = 0 to a value of δ = D/2 at x = 190 m.
The thickness at 4 m can be estimated as
0.8
3 4
δ= ()( )
2
×
190
=0.068 m

The inviscid core diameter dIC = D - 2 δ = 3 – 2x 0.068 = 2.86 m.

DISCUSSION
Wind tunnel test sections are kept short so that a large region of
uniform flow (inviscid core) is available to simulate “free stream”
conditions in the atmosphere.
6. Illustrates calculation of viscous losses and the difference between
pressure loss and pressure drop
Find the pressure loss (pLOSS) and pressure difference (p1 – p2)
between inlet and outlet for the conical expansion shown in figure.
Water flows at 2 m3/s, Dinlet = 1 m, Doutlet = 2 m, L = 2.75 m and θ = 30°.
Head loss due to skin friction is 0.3 m.

2 m3/s L

2
a. pLOSS = 5 kPa , p1 – p2= -31 kPa
b. pLOSS = 3 kPa , p1 – p2= -20 kPa
c. pLOSS = 1 kPa , p1 – p2= -16 kPa
d. pLOSS = 3 kPa , p1 – p2= -27 kPa

SOLUTION – d
GIVEN
Flow rate, Q = 2 m3/s
Inlet diameter, D1 = 1 m
Outlet diameter D2 = 2 m
Length of pipe, L = 2.75 m and θ = 30°
Head loss due to skin friction, hL = 0.3 m.

FIND
i. The pressure loss (pLOSS) and
ii. pressure difference ( p1 – p2)
between inlet and outlet.
SOLUTION
i. The pressure loss (pLOSS) is the pressure energy dissipated to
overcome wall friction. This depends on viscosity of fluid alone for
laminar flow and both viscosity and wall roughness for turbulent
flow. This value is given as 0.3 m.
The pressure loss, pLOSS = hL ρ g = 0.3 x 1000 x 9.81 = 2.943 kPa
ii. To find the pressure difference (p1 – p2) we can use modified
Bernoulli’s equation taking into consideration head loss due to
friction.
p 1 V 12 p2 V 2 2
+ + g z1 = + + g z 2 + ghL
ρ 2 ρ 2
 Q Q 2
V 1= = = =2.5 m/s
A1 π 2 π 2
D 1
4 1 4
Q Q 2
V 2= = = =0.64 m/ s
A2 π 2 π 2
D 2
4 2 4
1 2 2
Then pressure drop, p1− p2= 2 ρ ( V 2−V 1 ) + ρg ( z 2−z 1 ) + ρg hL

1
p1− p2= x 1000 x ( 0.64 2−2.52 ) +1000 x 9.81 x (−2.75 )+2943
2
p1− p2=−26.9 kPa

DISCUSSION
The pressure drop reflects the difference in the average static pressure
as would be measured by two gauges at section 1 and 2. It comprise of
the energy dissipated as friction and energy converted to other forms
like pressure to kinetic energy.
The pressure loss is always positive for a real fluid flowing through a
fitting, valve, or pipe. This is true regardless of the orientation of the
system.
7. Illustrates energy and pressure lose problem for turbulent flow
A horizontal pipe has an inside diameter of 1.0 m. Water at 20°C ( =
1000 kg/m3 and  = 8  10-4 Ns/m2) flows through the pipe at the rate
of 1.0 m3/s. Find the energy loss (Eloss) and the pressure drop (p1 – p2)
in a 75 m length of the pipe. Assume fully developed flow.
Following correlations can be used for finding Darcy’s friction factor,
64
f = ℜ , For Laminar BL ( ℜ D <2300 )
D

f =0.182 ( ℜ D )−0.2 , For Turbulent BL ( ℜ D >2300 )

Properties of water are : ρ = 1000 kg/m3

μ = 8 x 10-4 Ns/m2
 a. Eloss = 0.35 m2/s2, p1 – p2 = 350 Pa
b. Eloss = 0.42 m2/s2, p1 – p2 = 420 Pa
c. Eloss = 0.55 m2/s2, p1 – p2 = 550 Pa
d. Eloss = 0.63 m2/s2, p1 – p2 = 630 Pa

SOLUTION – d
GIVEN
Flow through a horizontal pipe of diameter, d = 1.0 m
Water flow rate, Q = 1.0 m3/s
Length of pipe, L = 75 m
Properties of water are : ρ = 1000 kg/m3
μ = 8 x 10-4 Ns/m2
FIND
i. Energy loss = g hL
ii. Pressure drop, (p1 – p2) = ρ g hL + ρ g (z2 – z1) + 0.5 ρ (V22 – V12)

SOLUTION
Flow velocity, V1 = V2 = Q/A = 4Q/πd2 = 4x1/πx12 = 1.27 m/s
ρVD 1000 × 1.27× 1
Reynolds number, ℜD = μ = −4
=1.6 ×106
8 ×10

Since the flow is turbulent,

−0.2
f =0.182 ( ℜ D )−0.2=0.182× ( 1.6 ×106 ) =0.0104

fL V 2 0.01×75 × 1.272
Head loss due to friction, h L = = =0.06 4 m
2 gd 2 ×9.81 ×1

i. Energy loss = g hL = 9.81x0.064 = 0.63 m2/s2

ii. Pressure drop, (p1 – p2) = ρ g hL + ρ g (z2 – z1) + 0.5 ρ (V22 – V12)
p1 – p2 = 1000x9.81x0.63 + 0 + 0 = 630 Pa
8. Illustrates velocity/flow rate problem for turbulent flow
Water flows steadily down the inclined, ¾ inch diameter pipe shown in
figure. Two pressure gauges 3 m apart indicates identical pressures.
Find the volume flow rate. Assume flow is fully developed. Take
Darcy’s friction factor, f = 0.02.

30°

a. 0.45 l/s
b. 0.26 l/s
c. 0.69 l/s
d. 0.82 l/s

SOLUTION – d

GIVEN
Water flow in an inclined pipe of diameter, d = ¾ inch
p1 – p 2 = 0

FIND
Volume flow rate, Q
SOLUTION
p1 – p2 = ρ g hL + ρ g (z2 – z1) + 0.5 ρ (V22 – V12)
Since diameter of pipe is constant, V1 = V2
fL V 2
and head loss due to friction, h L =
2 gd

fL V 2
Then we obtain, =g ( z 1−z 2 )=g L× sinθ
2d
g L× sinθ ×2 d g L× sinθ ×2 d
V 2=
fL
or V=
√ fL

9.81 ×3 ×sin ⁡(30)× 2× 0.75× 0.0254

V=
√ 0.02 ×3
=3 m/ s

π π
Q= d 2 ×V = (0.75 ×0.0254)2 ×3=0.0 008 2m 3 /s
4 4

DISCUSSION
Note that there is no net pressure drop in the direction of flow. This can
be explained from either energy considerations or force considerations.
In terms of energy, the work required to overcome the mechanical
energy loss is provided by the decrease in potential energy. In terms of
forces, the gravitational forces exactly balances the resisting force due
to shear stress at the pipe walls.
In this example the static pressure at planes 1 and 2 are equal. It is
possible that the pressure could either increase or decrease from plane
1 to plane 2. If the pressure increases, the resisting force at the walls is
less than the gravitational force. If the pressure decreases, then both
static pressure drop and the gravitational force are needed to overcome
the wall resistance.

9. Illustrates pipe sizing for turbulent flow

 Find the minimum acceptable pipe size to permit the flow of 10 litre/s of
water at 50°C ( = 1000 kg/m3) with maximum pressure drop of 500 Pa
per metre of pipe. Assume the pipe is horizontal. Take friction factor, f
= 0.02.

a. 45 mm
b. 65 mm
c. 80 mm
d. 110 mm
SOLUTION – c
GIVEN
flow rate, Q = 10 litre/s
p1 – p2 = 500 Pa/m
FIND
Pipe diameter, d
SOLUTION
Since diameter of pipe is constant, V1 = V2
Then p1 – p2 = ρ g hL + ρ g (z2 – z1) + 0.5 ρ (V22 – V12)
gives
2
 Q 
fL  
  d 
2
p1  p2 fLV 2
 4  8 fLQ 2
hL     2 5
g 2 gd 2 gd  gd
1 1
 8 fLQ 2  5
 8  1000  0.02 1 0.01 
2 5
d  2     0.08m
   p1  p 
2    2  500 