AC knowledge 2

Chapter 14 QUESTIONS

1. In a high by-pass engine with a „pitot‟ intake, with the engine running and the brakes on, what will P1 be in
relation to P0?
a. Same
b. Greater
c. Less
d. 14.7psi

2. A pitot intake forms a ____________ duct______ the fan to ensure that the airflow ______to ________ and
achieves a ________
a. convergent before speeds up subsonic pressure rise
b. divergent after slows down subsonic pressure rise
c. divergent before speeds up sonic pressure drop
d. divergent before slows down subsonic pressure rise

3. What effect will severe icing in the intake have on a high by-pass engine?
a. The axial velocity of the air will increase with a reduction in the angle of attack of the airflow with the
compressor blades and a possible stall.
b. The axial velocity of the air will decrease with a reduction in the angle of attack of the airflow with the
compressor blades and a possible stall.
c. The axial velocity of the air will decrease with an increase in the angle that the resultant airflow forms with the
compressor blades chord line and a possible stall.
d. The axial velocity of the air will increase with an increase in the angle of attack of the airflow with the
compressor blades and a possible stall.

4. Which of the following would be classed as prudent when carrying out Engine Ground Runs?
a. Only carry out engine runs with a tail wind
b. Fit debris guards when running
c. Only do ground runs on Tarmac
d. Only do ground runs on concrete

5. With an „S‟ type intake, if the pilot selects max RPM while standing still, there is a strong possibility that:
a. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades, will become too small, which will cause
the engine to stall and surge.
b. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades, will become too small, which will cause
the engine to surge then stall.
c. The angle which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades will become too large, which will cause
the engine to stall and surge.
d. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the compressor blades, will become too large, which will cause
the engine to surge then stall.

6. What is the purpose of the supersonic diffuser in the variable throat intake?
a. Final reduction in velocity prior to compressor face.
b. Interim reduction in velocity to below Mach 1 prior to a further reduction in the subsondiffuser.
c. Interim reduction in velocity to below Mach .5 prior to a further reduction in the subsonic diffuser.
d. Increase in velocity prior to compressor face.
7. The purpose of an air inlet is to provide a relatively ________ supply of air to the ________the ________
compressor.
a. Turbulent free face low pressure
b. Turbulent face low pressure
c. Turbulent free rear low pressure
d. Turbulent free face high pressure

8. In a pitot intake the term „Ram Pressure Recovery‟ refers to the time when:
a. EPR has attained the take off setting.
b. The HP Compressor has reached its maximum.
c. The EPR has recovered to its optimum figure.
d. Intake pressure has been re-established to ambient pressure.

Chapter 15 QUESTIONS

9. The pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor is:

a. Equal to the number of compression stages.
b. The ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet pressure.
c. The ratio between exhaust inlet and exhaust outlet pressure.
d. Never greater than 5 to 1.

10. One stage of an axial flow compressor consists of:

a. One rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes.
b. One stator assembly and one row of guide vanes.
c. One rotor and one impeller assembly.
d. One impeller and one diffuser assembly.

11. The pressure rise across each stage of an axial flow compressor is:
a. Greater than that of a centrifugal compressor.
b. Between 3 and 5 to one.
c. Twice the inlet pressure.
d. Between 1.1 and 1.2 to one.

12. The ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor stage of an axial flow compressor are called:
a. The first stage stator blades.
b. The inlet guides vanes.
c. First stage diffuser blades.
d. Nozzle guide vanes.

13. As air passes through an axial flow compressor, a pressure rise takes place in:
a. The impeller and the diffuser.
b. The rotor blades only.
c. Both the rotor blades and the stator vanes.
d. The stator vanes only.
14. In the event of a surge occurring the correct action to be taken is:
a. To close the throttle quickly.
b. To close the throttle slowly.
c. To open the throttle fully.
d. To close the LP fuel valve.

15. Shrouding of stator blade tips is designed to:

a. Prevent tip turbulence.
b. Ensure adequate cooling.
c. Minimise vibration.
d. Prevent tip losses.

16. The attachment of blades to the compressor disc:

a. Allows slight movement to relieve stress concentration.
b. Is rigid.
c. Prevents them being contaminated by the atmosphere.
d. Allows slight movement because of the different expansion rates of the blades and the disc, which would
otherwise cause center line closure.

17. Compressor blades are designed to produce:

a. A given pressure and velocity rise.
b. A constant flow over the engine speed range.
c. A steady velocity with a pressure rise over the engine speed range.
d. Turbulent flow into the combustion chamber.

18. A compressor blade will stall when:

a. The air axial velocity and rotational speed relationship is disturbed.
b. The mass air flow and speed relationship is constant.
c. The speed of the gas flow through the turbine falls below 0.4 Mach.
d. The compression ratio exceeds 10 to 1.

19. Cascade vanes are fitted in which part of the centrifugal compressor?
a. The air inlet
b. The outlet elbow
c. The impeller
d. The diffuser

20. The purpose of the diffuser vanes in a centrifugal compressor is to:

a. Increase the charge temperature.
b. Convert pressure energy into kinetic energy.
c. Increase the air velocity.
d. Convert kinetic energy into pressure energy.

21. The pressure rise across a centrifugal compressor:

a. Occurs in the impeller only.
b. Occurs in the diffuser only.
c. Is shared almost equally by the impeller and the diffuser.
d. Is always greater in the diffuser than in the impeller.
22. To gain a greater pressure ratio than 4:1:
a. Two centrifugal compressors can be placed in parallel.
b. The compressor diameter must be reduced.
c. The cascade vanes must be convergent.
d. Two centrifugal compressors can be placed in series with each other.

23. The purpose of cascade vanes is to:

a. Increase the velocity of the airflow prior to it entering the combustion chambers.
b. Turn the air smoothly through 90 degrees and complete diffusion.
c. Remove swirl from the airflow.
d. Swirl the air, ready for the next compression stage.

24. The type of compressor used to create radial airflow would be:
a. Positive displacement.
b. Axial.
c. Centrifugal.
d. Constant volume.

25. An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is that it is:

a. Dynamically balanced.
b. More robust and is easier to develop and manufacture.
c. Unaffected by turbulence.
d. Able to handle a larger mass of air than an axial flow compressor.

26. A compressor stall causes:

a. The vibration level to increase with a decrease in the turbine gas temperature.
b. An increase in the turbine gas temperature and the vibration level.
c. The rotation of the engine to stop suddenly.
d. The airflow through the engine to stop suddenly.

27. Air passing through a convergent duct experiences:

a. A decrease in temperature and pressure with an increase in velocity.
b. An increase in temperature and velocity with a decrease in pressure.
c. An increase in temperature and pressure with a velocity decrease.
d. Adiabatic expansion.

28. Fuel is regulated on rapid engine acceleration:

a. To prevent detonation in the combustion chambers.
b. Because the rapid response of the compressor might cause a flame out.
c. Because the cooling effect of too much fuel would cause a drop in pressure in the combustion chamber.
d. To prevent inducing a compressor stall and surge.

29. Compressor blades increase in size:

a. From the root to the tip to increase the temperature.
b. From the high pressure section of the compressor to the low-pressure section.
c. From the low-pressure section of the compressor to the high-pressure section to maintain a constant airflow
velocity.
d. From the tip to the root to decrease the temperature.
30. The occurrence of compressor stalls is limited by:
a. Bleed valves.
b. Nozzle guide vanes.
c. Swirl vanes.
d. Cascade vanes.

31. Bleed valves are automatically opened:

a. At maximum R.P.M. to prevent compressor stall.
b. At low R.P.M. to prevent the turbine stalling.
c. During engine acceleration to prevent turbine surge.
d. At low engine R.P.M to prevent the compressor stalling.

32. To prevent compressor stall at the rear of the compressor, bleed valves must be positioned:
a. At the rear stages of the compressor.
b. At the front stages of the compressor.
c. At the mid stages of the compressor.
d. At the intake of the engine.

33. One indication that a compressor bleed valve has stuck closed at low R.P.M. is:
a. Possible compressor stall.
b. An inability to achieve full power.
c. That bleed air is reduced.
d. That the engine will stop.

34. Within the compressor:

a. Bleed valves are set to open at high R.P.M.
b. Pressure decreases.
c. Temperature decreases.
d. Temperature increases.

35. Bleeding compressor air for anti-icing will cause:

a. An increase in T.G.T., a decrease in thrust and an increase in S.F.C.
b. A decrease in T.G.T., an increase in thrust and a decrease in S.F.C.
c. An increase in R.P.M. and fuel flow.
d. An increase in R.P.M. and a decrease in fuel flow.

36. Variable inlet guide vanes:

a. Deflect air past the compressor.
b. Prevent compressor stall.
c. Deflect air past the turbine.
d. Induce air into a centrifugal compressor.

37. Compressor blades are twisted from root to tip:

a. To decrease the pressure.
b. To maintain a correct angle of attack.
c. To reduce the relative airflow.
d. To give added rigidity to the blade structure.
38. A stall in a gas turbine engine is most likely to occur with:
Pressure Ratio Location in Compressor
a. High Front
b. High Back
c. Low Back
d. Low Front

39. Contamination of the compressor:

a. Is not likely to prove a problem if the aircraft is not flown at low level over the sea.
b. Will not decrease the performance of the engine if the fuel sulphur content does not exceed .001%.
c. Can seriously reduce the efficiency of the engine.
d. Can be reduced by periodically flying through thunderstorms.

40. The low pressure compressor of a high ratio by-pass engine:

a. Is driven by the high pressure turbine.
b. Rotates faster than the high-pressure compressor.
c. Is always a centrifugal compressor.
d. Is driven by the rearmost turbine.

Chapter 16
41. One advantage of an annular combustion chamber system is that:
a. The diameter of the engine is reduced.
b. There is unrestricted airflow at maximum r.p.m.
c. There are no flame propagation problems.
d. The air casing area is greater.

42. Of the total airflow entering the combustion chamber the percentage that is mixed with thand burnt is:
a. 10%
b. 40%
c. 20%
d. 60%

43. The combustion chamber drain valve is closed:

a. By combustion chamber gas pressure.
b. By a return spring.
c. By 12th stage compressor air pressure.
d. During a blow out cycle.

44. A cannular combustion system is:

a. A set of flame tubes, each of which is mounted in a separate air casing.
b. A set of flame tubes enclosed in a common air casing.
c. One common flame tube enclosed in a common air casing.
d. Superior to the annular system because it only requires one igniter.

45. It is necessary to have a combustion drain system:

a. To prevent pressure build up in the combustion chamber.
b. To allow moisture content in the fuel to drain away.
c. To allow any unburnt fuel to drain after shut down or a wet start.
d. To prevent the igniters becoming wetted by excess fuel.
46. The purpose of the tertiary airflow created in the combustion chamber is to:
a. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the flame tube.
b. Form a toroidal vortex, which anchors and stabilises the flame.
c. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the burner head.
d. Ensure complete combustion of the fuel.

47. A re-light envelope:

a. Shows the flame stability limits.
b. Shows airspeed and altitude limitations for an in-flight restart.
c. Shows fuel / air mixture limitations for an in-flight restart.
d. Contains the in flight re-start igniter plugs.

48. The air entering the combustion chamber is divided; a small percentage is used in combustion, the rest:
a. Is syphoned off for airframe anti-icing purposes.
b. Is used only for cooling the gases before they exit the combustion chamber.
c. Is used to reduce the oil temperature and cool the turbine blades.
d. Is used to cool both the gases exiting the chamber and the walls of the air casing.

Chapter 17 QUESTIONS
49. Nozzle guide vanes are fitted before the turbine:
a. To increase the velocity of the airflow.
b. To decrease the velocity of the gas flow therefore increasing its pressure.
c. To increase the velocity of the gas flow therefore reducing its pressure.
d. To increase the temperature of the gas flow.

50. One reason for shrouding turbine blades is:

a. To reduce “creep” which may occur in the blades.
b. To improve efficiency and reduce vibration.
c. To enable thinner blades to be used.
d. To minimize blade end erosion.

51. The blades are usually attached to the turbine disc by a “Fir Tree” root. A tight fit is ensured during operation:
a. By the action of centrifugal force.
b. By thermal expansion of the disc.
c. By blade compression loads and thermal expansion.
d. By torque loading and thermal expansion.

52. A free power turbine:

a. Has a clutch between the compressor and the power output shaft.
b. Has no mechanical connection with the other turbine or compressor shafts.
c. Has a direct drive with a free wheel unit.
d. Comes free with every 2,000 gallons of AVTUR.

53. The mixture of impulse and reaction blade shape in the average turbine blade is such that:
a. The inner half is impulse and the outer half is reaction.
b. The inner half is reaction and the outer half is impulse.
c. The leading edge is reaction and the trailing edge is impulse.
d. The trailing edge is reaction and the leading edge is impulse.
54. Blade creep is:
a. Movement of the turbine blades around the turbine disc.
b. Temporary expansion due to temperature change.
c. Temporary elongation due to centrifugal forces.
d. Permanent elongation due to heat and centrifugal force.

55. The net operating temperature of a gas turbine engine is limited by:
a. The materials from which the combustion chamber is constructed.
b. The amount of fuel which can be fed into the combustion chamber.
c. The ability of the compressor to pass sufficient air rearwards.
d. The materials from which the nozzle guide vanes and the turbine blades are constructed.

56. The impulse-reaction blade is twisted along its length so that:

a. There is a greater angle at the base than at the tip.
b. The gas flow is accelerated through the turbine.
c. The gas does equal work along the whole of its length.
d. The gas flow is decelerated through the nozzle guide vanes.

Chapter 18 QUESTIONS
57. The exhaust cone:
a. Straightens the gas flow before it goes into the turbine assembly.
b. Prevents the hot gases flowing across the rear turbine face.
c. Increases the velocity of the gases.
d. Decreases the pressure of the gas.

58. The propelling nozzle is designed to:

a. Increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the gas stream.
b. Decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the gas stream.
c. To increase the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream.
d. To decrease the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream.

59. A nozzle is said to be “choked” when:

a. The gas flow through it is subsonic.
b. The gas flow through it reaches its sonic value.
c. The gas temperature rises.
d. The gas flow through it is supersonic.

60. The exhaust gasses pass to atmosphere via the propelling nozzle which:
a. Is a convergent duct, thus it increases the gas velocity.
b. Converts kinetic energy into pressure energy.
c. Is a divergent duct, thus it increases the gas velocity.
d. Is a divergent nozzle, thus it increases the gas pressure.

61. The jet pipe is insulated from the airframe by:

a. Heat insulation materials.
b. A cooling air jacket.
c. A combination of cooling air and insulating material.
d. Semi-conducting geodetic structures.
62. The noise from a high ratio by-pass engine:
a. Is created mainly in the exhaust section.
b. Is high in the exhaust section because of the high velocity gas flow.
c. Is predominantly from the fan and the turbine.
d. Is greater than that from a turbo-jet engine of comparable power output.

63. The shape of the volume within the jet pipe casing immediately to the rear of the turbine:
a. Is convergent to accelerate the gases towards the propelling nozzle.
b. Is divergent to accelerate the gases away from the turbine blades.
c. Is convergent to increase the pressure of the gases in the jet pipes.
d. Is divergent to reduce the velocity of the gases leaving the turbine.

64. The turbine rear support struts:

a. Add swirl to the gases before they travel down the jet pipe.
b. Prevent the hot gases flowing across the rear face of the rear turbine bearing.
c. Allow entry of the by-pass air into the exhaust system.
d. Straighten out any residual whirl in the gas stream.

Chapter 19 QUESTIONS

65. A centrifugal breather is used on a gas turbine engine:

a. To circulate the oil smoothly.
b. To minimize oil loss.
c. To emulsify the oil and air mixture for greater viscosity.
d. To allow oxidization of the oil.

66. A high oil temperature would indicate that:

a. The oil pressure was high.
b. The exhaust gas temperature (E.G.T.) was high.
c. The oil filter was blocked.
d. The air intake of the oil cooler was blocked.

67. Oil seals are pressurized:

a. To ensure oil is forced into the bearings.
b. To ensure minimum oil loss.
c. To ensure that the oil is prevented from leaving the bearing housing.
d. To minimize heat loss in the bearing housing.

68. In the event that damage occurs to the matrix of the fuel cooled oil cooler:
a. A pressure-maintaining valve ensures that the oil pressure is always higher than the fuel pressure.
b. The fuel pressure is always kept higher than the oil pressure to ensure that the fuel will leak into the oil system.
c. A differential pressure switch will illuminate a light in the cockpit.
d. The oil by-pass valve will prevent a complete loss of oil pressure.

69. The bearing chambers of a gas turbine engine are vented:

a. Via the auxiliary gear box drive.
b. Via the centrifugal breather.
c. Via the air seals, into the gas stream.
d. To prevent oil loss.
70. The main bearings in an axial flow gas turbine engine are normally pressurized by:
a. Compressor by-pass air.
b. Air at intake pressure.
c. Air from an intermediate stage of the compressor.
d. Gas from the second stage turbine section.

71. Magnetic Chip Detectors are fitted in the engine:

a. To facilitate early detection of cracks in the compressor blades.
b. To facilitate early warning of cracks in the turbine blades.
c. To provide a warning of impending failure in the engine bearings.
d. To prevent a buildup of starch in the scavenge oil filter.

72. An inter-stage air seal is used where:

a. Engine sections are operating at different pressures.
b. Engine sections are subjected to pressures of the same value.
c. It is more convenient.
d. It is difficult to obtain access during routine servicing.

73. An Internal Engine Overheat warning would necessitate:

a. The oil temperature to be closely monitored.
b. The EGT to be closely monitored.
c. The engine power to be reduced to idle.
d. The engine to be shut down.

74. If engine run down time is short, coupled with high oil consumption, the most probable cause is:
a. Compressor blade rub.
b. Incorrect relief valve setting.
c. Excessive sealing air pressure.
d. Bearing chamber labryinth seal rubbing.

75. Gas turbines use for lubrication:

a. Mineral oil with additives (compound).
b. Mineral oil straight.
c. Multi-grade 20/50.
d. Synthetic oil.

76. For a pressure relief lubricating system, select the correct statement:
a. The flow and pressure change with engine speed.
b. The pressure relief valve is fitted in series with the pump.
c. The pressure remains the same for all engine operating parameters.
d. The relief valve opens when pressure has reached the required pressure. Any excess flow is returned by a
dedicated line to the base of the engine for scavenging.

77. In a Gas Turbine engine oil temperature is measured:

a. As it leaves the fuel cooled oil cooler (FCOC).
b. Before entering the engine.
c. Immediately after leaving the engine.
d. In the engine.
78. If the engine oil pump ceases to function the engine:
a. Will continue to operate at a lower RPM because the engine will be able to suck the oil from the reservoir and be
sufficiently lubricated.
b. Should be shut down.
c. Will be unaffected because the scavenge pumps have a larger operating capacity than the pressure pumps and
will ensure the engine is lubricated sufficiently.
d. Should be monitored for a period of time to record oil temperature.

Chapter 20 QUESTIONS

79. EPR is a
a. Ratio between ambient pressure and exhaust pressure.
b. Ratio between ambient pressure and fan pressure.
c. Ratio between intake pressure and compressor delivery pressure.
d. Ratio between exhaust pressure and intake pressure.

80. In a high by pass engine whose fan max rpm is 20000rpm, when turning at 5000rpm will develop approx.
a. 25% take off thrust.
b. 50% take off thrust
c. 5% take off thrust
d. 15% take off thrust.

81. With an increase in altitude which of the following statements are correct for a jet aircraft with constant engine
speed for a fixed throttle setting?
1. Temperature and pressure reduce with a resulting drop in thrust.
2. Fuel consumption will increase.
3. Fuel consumption will decrease.
4. Specific fuel consumption will increase.
5. Specific fuel consumption will decrease.
6. Specific fuel consumption stays relatively the same
7. Temperature and pressure will reduce, resulting in an increase in thrust.
a. 1, 3, 6.
b. 2, 4, 1.
c. 7, 2, 4.
d. 1, 2, 5

82. As temperature ___________air density ____________ and the mass of air for given engine speed __________
therefore thrust ___________. To maintain the compressor speed however_______ fuel must be added or the
compressor will _________.
a. decreases decreases increases increases less slow down
b. increases decreases decreases increases more slow down
c. decreases increases increases increases more slow down
d. increases decreases increases decreases less speed up

83. From a standing start with an increase in forward speed jet thrust will:
a. Increase.
b. Stay the same.
c. Decrease.
d. Decrease then recover but will never achieve its initial setting.
84. On a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial flow compressor while climbing it will experience:
a. Increase shaft horse-power increase jet thrust increase fuel consumption
b. Decrease shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust decrease fuel consumption
c. Decrease shaft horse-power increase jet thrust decrease fuel consumption
d. Decrease shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust increase fuel consumption

85. On a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial flow compressor while increasing forward speed, it will experience:
a. Increase shaft horse-power increase jet thrust
b. Decrease shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust
c. Decrease shaft horse-power increase jet thrust
d. Increase shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust

86. In a gas turbine engine:

a. Ram pressure is maximum at the start of the take off run.
b. Ram pressure is unaffected by airspeed.
c. Thrust is unaffected by the aircraft‟s forward speed.
d. Thrust is maximum and ram pressure at minimum at the start of the take off run.

Chapter 21 QUESTIONS

87. When after burning the jet pipe will:

a. Close to allow for the decreased volume of gas
b. Open to allow for the increased volume of gas.
c. Remain the same
d. Remain the same until the temperature reaches 1700C then open.

88. When leaving the turbine the gas stream:

a. Increases velocity immediately to maximise thrust.
b. Is diffused to ensure the afterburning flame is stabilised.
c. Goes through a convergent duct to ensure the after-burning flame is stabilised.
d. Goes through a divergent duct to maximise thrust.

89. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to after-burning?
1. Fuel consumption increases
2. Fuel consumption decreases.
3. Pressure thrust decreases
4. Thrust increases.
5. Pressure thrust increases.
6. EGT increases
7. EGT decreases
8. Thrust decreases.
a. 1, 3, 4 and 6
b. 2, 4, 5 and 6
c. 8, 1, 5 and 7
d. 6, 5, 4 and 1
90. On a turbojet aircraft which of the following statements would be correct with the introduction of water into the
combustion chamber?
a. Power can be restored up to its flat rated 100% only, and is prevented from exceeding its limitations due to a
pressure sensor at the high pressure outlet.
b. Power can be restored up to its flat rated 100% only, due to a pressure sensor at the combustion chamber outlet.
c. Power can be restored up to its flat rated 100% only, due to a pressure sensor in the exhaust.
d. Power can be augmented above100% due to the denser mixture impinging on the turbine, which consequently
drives the compressor quicker.

91. Water Methanol is injected into an engine so that the combustion chamber inlet temperature is reduced and there
is:
a. A substantial power decrease.
b. A substantial power increase with no increase in fuel flow.
c. A substantial power increase which is due solely to the combustion of methanol.
d. An increase in power output solely due to the increased fuel flow, since methanol does not burn.

92. When methanol is added to a water injection system:

a. It is an important source of fuel.
b. It is an anti-freeze.
c. It is an important source of fuel and an anti-freeze.
d. The temperature of combustion remains the same.

93. Water injection is used for take-off:

a. To cool the combustion chambers.
b. To cool the turbine blades.
c. Only at high altitude airfields where the prevailing temperature is high.
d. At airfields with an ambient temperature above 30F.

chapter 22 QUESTIONS

94. Use of reverse thrust below the recommended speed may cause:
a. Over stressing of the gear oleos.
b. Ingestion of the exhaust gases and foreign objects.
c. More fuel to be provided to the burners.
d. The T.G.T. limit to be exceeded, in which case the reverse thrust lever will return to the forward thrust position.

95. A big fan engine gets reverse thrust by:

a. Reversing the direction of rotation of the compressor.
b. Deflecting the exhaust gases.
c. Blocking the by-pass air.
d. Reversing the hot stream gases.

96. Before reverse thrust can be selected, the forward thrust lever must be:
a. Pulled back to idle power.
b. Positioned to reverse minimum power.
c. Put back to the reverser deploy position.
d. Positioned to reverse maximum power.
97. An aircraft uses clamshell doors for thrust reversal to:
a. Direct the gas flow rearwards.
b. Block the flow of exhaust gas.
c. Absorb any change in thrust.
d. Change the direction of the exhaust gas.

98. Once the blocker doors are fully deployed, with an increase in RPM, which of the following statements would be
incorrect?
a. Forward thrust from the hot gases would increase.
b. Forward thrust from the hot gases would decrease.
c. Reverse thrust from the blocked air would increase.
d. TGT will increase.

Chapter 23 QUESTIONS
99. The effect of modifying a Gas Turbine engine to include one further hydraulic pump will result in:
a. Increase in specific fuel consumption.
b. Decrease in specific fuel consumption.
c. Decrease in RPM.
d. Increase in EGT.

100. The drive for fuel, oil and hydraulic pumps is normally taken from.
a. LP fan.
b. Intermediate compressor.
c. HP compressor.
d. HP turbine.

Chapter 24 QUESTIONS

101. The low energy ignition system would be used:

a. Only for starting the engine on the ground.
b. During take off from wet runways.
c. For re-light at high altitude.
d. During a blow out (motoring over) cycle.

102. A typical APU can provide:

a. Air for air conditioning on the ground.
b. Air for engine starting.
c. Electrical power for ground or in flight use.
d. All of the above.

103. The advantage of an air starter system is that:

a. It is safer in operation than other systems, and no fire risk.
b. It is light, simple and economical.
c. It provides a more rapid start.
d. It is totally self contained and needs no external source of power.
104. If a gas turbine engine fails to light up within the specified time:
a. It must be motored over with the H.P. fuel cock shut.
b. The fuel system must be drained.
c. No further attempt to start may be made until the fuel has evaporated.
d. It must be motored over with the H.P. fuel cock shut and no igniters selected.

105. A Re-light is:

a. The action of re-starting a flamed out engine, usually while airborne.
b. What occurs when the engine drain valve is stuck open.
c. The initiation of the after-burning system.
d. What must be prevented after a “wet start”.

106. Precautionary use of igniters may be necessary during:

a. Flight through heavy tropical rainstorm.
b. Ground running.
c. Flight through sandy conditions.
d. Flight through very dry air.

107. A “Hung Start” occurs when:

a. The engine accelerates but does not light up.
b. The engine stabilises above self sustaining speed.
c. The engine lights up but does not accelerate to self sustaining speed.
d. There is a double igniter failure.

108. After engine start, the engine igniters are normally deactivated by:
a. An electric interlock system.
b. A speed switch.
c. The time switch.
d. Centrifugal force.

109. Failure of the engine to light up is shown by:

a. The failure of the engine to turn and no T.G.T.
b. Low R.P.M. fuel flow indication, and no T.G.T.
c. T.G.T. increasing but no R.P.M.
d. No R.P.M. and no T.G.T.

110. The term “Self Sustaining Speed” means that:

a. The aircraft can roll forward with no further opening of the throttles.
b. The speed from which the engine can accelerate to full power within 5 seconds.
c. The engine will run independently of external help.
d. The speed from which the engine can accelerate to idle without the help of the starter motor.

111. A high energy ignition system works on the principle of:

a. Obtaining power from a step up transformer from the aircraft‟s A.C. power system.
b. Magneto static induction.
c. Fleming‟s Right Hand Rule.
d. Obtaining energy from the discharge of a capacitor.
112. Before opening the high-pressure fuel shut off valve during the engine start:
a. The compressor must be turning at the correct RPM in the right direction.
b. The Low-Pressure compressor must be stationary.
c. The Low Pressure fuel cock must be shut.
d. The Low Pressure compressor must be rotating faster than the High-Pressure compressor.

113. The air supply to operate an air starter usually comes from:
a. An external installation.
b. Storage bottles carried in the aircraft.
c. The auxiliary power unit.
d. A cross bleed start.

114. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the discharge resistors:

a. Allow sufficient energy to be stored in the capacitor to provide re-light facilities up to 55 000 ft.
b. Protects the unit from excessive voltages.
c. Allow the capacitor to discharge when the unit is switched off.
d. Prolong the discharge.

115. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the choke:

a. Protects the unit from excessive voltages.
b. Prolongs the discharge to the plug.
c. Prolongs the life of the igniter
d. Protects the unit from excessive current.

116. The rate of discharge of a High Energy Ignition Unit is:

a. 60 - 100 times per minute.
b. 4 discharges per revolution.
c. 60 - 100 per second.
d. Governed by the resistance of the igniter plug.

117. The air supply for an air start system is:

a. At a relatively low pressure, but high volume.
b. Filtered to prevent damage to the starter motor.
c. Preheated to avoid icing in the starter nozzle guide vanes.
d. At a high pressure but low volume.

118. The starter motor is disengaged from the engine start system:
a. As soon as the engine lights up.
b. Just above self-sustaining speed.
c. At 26% H.P. R.P.M.
d. Just below self-sustaining speed.

119. The power supply for the spark in the combustion chamber is:
a. Low volts high current
b. Low volts low current
c. High volts low current
d. High volts high current
120. In a twin spool engine self sustaining speed is normally reached at:
a. 60% N2
b. 60% N1
c. 30% N2
d. 30% N1

chapter 25 QUESTIONS
121. Which of the following statements would be more correct with regard to an APU?
a. APU‟s provide emergency hydraulics power for the brakes only.
b. APU‟s provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for ground use only.
c. APU‟s provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for air use only and can provide an amount of thrust.
d. APU‟s provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for ground and air use and can provide an amount of
thrust.

122. In the event of a fire in an APU:

a. Will need to be shut down immediately.
b. Will shut down immediately.
c. Will shut down immediately and if the fire persists the fire bottles will automatically be fired.
d. Will need to be shut down immediately and the fire bottles will be required to be fired immediately.

123. Which of the following would result in an automatic shut down of an APU?
1. overspeed of compressor
2. over-temp of lubrication system
3. turbine over-temp
4. combustion chamber over-temp
5. Compressor outlet pressure exceeded
6. low pressure of lubrication system
a. 1, 2, 3 and 6
b. 1, 2, 4 and 6
c. 2, 3, 5 and 6
d. 2, 3, 4 and 6

124. A Ram Air Turbine is used to provide:

a. Emergency hydraulic power for the flaps and slats only.
b. Emergency hydraulic power for the undercarriage.
c. Emergency hydraulic power for the elevator, rudder and ailerons along with possible emergency electrical
power.
d. Emergency hydraulic power for the brakes along with possible emergency electrical power.

Chapter 26 QUESTIONS

125. Water in the fuel tanks is:

a. Added with FS11 when refueling.
b. Is a consequence of atmospheric air entering the tanks through the engine.
c. Is a consequence of atmospheric air entering the tanks through the vent system.
d. Is a consequence of atmospheric air entering the tanks through the feeder box.
126. Water in the fuel tank is removed:
a. Via a drain valve at the lowest point in the tank.
b. Via a drain tank at the base of the engine.
c. Via a scoop at the top of the tank.
d. Every major servicing only.

127. The flash point of Avtur is:

a. -38.7°C
b. 38.7°C
c. -40°C
d. -20°C

chapter 27 QUESTIONS

128. With an increase in altitude the boiling point of fuel will:

a. Stay the same.
b. Increase
c. Decrease.
d. Increase up to FL80 then remain the same.

129. Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are pressurised:

a. By air from the engine compressor to prevent cavitation.
b. By air from the air conditioning system to prevent cavitation.
c. By ram air to prevent cavitation.
d. By ram air to stabilise the boiling point.

130. Fuel is heated from which of the following?

a. Air conditioning air.
b. Air from the compressor.
c. Air from the Bootstrap.

131. Fuel booster pumps are situated in:

a. The fuel tanks.
b. In the line between the main fuel tanks and the engine.
c. Low pressure side of the engine.
d. High-pressure side of the engine.

132. In a high by pass engine fuel pumps are driven by:

a. High pressure turbine.
b. High pressure compressor.
c. Low pressure compressor.
d. Intermediate compressor.

133. The effect of the high pressure compressor outlet pressure exceeding its maximum value would be:
a. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU) FCU reduce fuel, reduce RPM.
b. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU) FCU increase fuel, increase RPM.
c. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU). Bleed valve open, bleed off excess volume of air.
d. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU). Bleed valve open, bleed off excess pressure.
134. Which of the following is a normal stopping device for a gas turbine?
a. LP shut off valve close.
b. Fuel tank booster pumps select off.
c. HP shut off valve close.
d. Isolate electrics from engine.

135. The fuel flow-meter is situated:

a. Between LP pump and the FCOC.
b. Between LP pump and HP pump.
c. Just after FCU.
d. Between HP shut off valve and fuel nozzles.

136. An overheat in the turbine will result in:

a. An electrical signal from the thermocouple sent directly to the FCU and fuel being reduced.
b. An electrical signal from the thermocouple amplified then sent directly to the FCU and fuel being reduced.
c. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently throttling back the engine, therefore reducing
fuel.
d. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently increasing RPM to increase airflow, to
increase cooling air, to decrease turbine temperature.

137. Aircraft flying at FL 420. If the booster pumps feeding the engine cease to work:
a. The engine would close down immediately.
b. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation due to the low pressure
and low boiling point of the fuel.
c. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation due to the low pressure
and higher boiling point of the fuel.
d. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation due to the higher
pressure and higher boiling point of the fuel.

138. The fuel cooled oil cooler:

a. Heats the oil and cools the fuel.
b. Heats the fuel only.
c. Cools the oil only.
d. Heats the fuel and cools the oil.

Chapter 28 QUESTIONS

139. An inter-stage air seal is used where:

a. Engine sections are operating at different pressures.
b. Engine sections are subjected to pressures of the same value.
c. It is more convenient.
d. It is difficult to obtain access during routine servicing.

140. An Internal Engine Overheat warning would necessitate:

a. The oil temperature to be closely monitored.
b. The EGT to be closely monitored.
c. The engine power to be reduced to idle.
d. The engine to be shut down.
141. Turbine blades are cooled by:
a. H.P. compressor air internally ducted through the blades.
b. H.P. air tapped from the combustion chambers.
c. Air ducted from just before the intake guide vanes.
d. Intermediate pressure air taken from the bleed valves.

142. The efficiency of a bearing chamber oil seal depends on its mechanical design and:
a. The fuel pressure.
b. Compressor bleed air pressure.
c. The engine compression ratio.
d. The engine oil pressure.

143. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect of selecting „on‟ while maintaining thrust will:
a. Decrease fuel consumption.
b. Decrease specific fuel consumption.
c. Increase specific fuel consumption.
d. Specific fuel consumption will remain the same.

144. Which of the following ice removal methods does a modern jet aircraft normally utilize?
a. Hot air.
b. Rubber boots.
c. Electrical thermal blankets.
d. FPD freezing point depressant fluid.

145. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect of selecting „on‟ will have what effect?
a. EGT will decrease.
b. EGT will increase.
c. EGT will remain the same.
d. The ratio between exhaust pressure and intake pressure will increase.

146. The air obtained from the engine for air conditioning is essentially:
a. High pressure low volume
b. High pressure high volume
c. Low pressure low volume
d. Low pressure high volume