AC Knowledge 1 181questions +answers
AC Knowledge 1 181questions +answers
AC Knowledge 1 181questions +answers
Chapter 1
9. A torsion box:
a. Is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads.
b. Is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads.
c. Is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear.
d. Is a structure designed to reduce the weight.
Chapter 2 QUESTIONS
14. A force of 100N is applied to 2 separate jacks, the area of one is 0.02m2 and the other is 0.04m2:
a. The smaller jack will exert a pressure of 2,000 Pa and the larger 4,000 Pa.
b. The smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5,000 Pa and the larger 2,500 Pa.
c. Both jacks will move at the same speed.
d. Both have the same load.
15. The pressure gauge of an hydraulic system provides information regarding the pressure of:
a. The air in the accumulator.
b. The air and hydraulic fluid in the system.
c. The proportional pressure in the system.
d. The hydraulic fluid in the system.
16. A shuttle valve:
a. Is used to replace NRVs.
b. Allows two supply sources to operate one unit.
c. Allows one source to operate two units.
d. Acts as a non-return valve.
18. The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:
a. High operating fluid temperature.
b. System failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible corrosion.
c. A rise in the reservoir fill level.
d. Normal operation, it does not matter which fluid is used.
26. Hydraulic pressure of 3,000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02m2 and the same
pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m2:
a. Both have the same force.
b. Both jacks will move at the same speed.
c. The smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1,200N.
d. The smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N.
28. The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at the full
level. The system is then pressurized. Will the contents level:
a. Fall below the “full” mark.
b. Fall to a position marked „full accs charged‟.
c. Remain at the same level.
d. Rise above the “full” mark.
34. The specification of hydraulic fluids, mineral, vegetable or ester based is:
a. Always distinguishable by taste and smell.
b. Generally distinguishable by color.
c. Generally distinguishable by color only if they are from the same manufacturer.
d. Cannot be distinguished by color alone.
44. Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:
a. Exert the same force.
b. Will lift equal loads.
c. Will move at the same speed.
d. Exert different forces.
45. The seal materials used with hydraulic fluids to DEF/STAN 91-48 and SKYDROL 700 specification are
respectively:
a. Natural rubber and neoprene.
b. Neoprene and natural rubber.
c. Butyl and neoprene.
d. Neoprene and butyl.
Chapter 6 QUESTIONS
48. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:
a. Support the weight of the aircraft.
b. Limit the speed of compression of the strut.
c. Lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
d. Limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.
49. The nose wheel assembly must be centered before retraction because:
a. There is limited space in the nose wheel bay.
b. The aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight.
c. The tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight.
d. It will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off.
54. When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the gauge should be modified by:
a. 10psi.
b. 10%.
c. 4psi.
d. 4%.
55. The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:
a. The aircraft main hydraulic system.
b. The pilots brake pedals.
c. A self contained power pack.
d. The hydraulic reservoir.
56. The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may occur is:
a. Vp = 9 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in knots.
b. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in mph.
c. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in knots.
d. Vp = 34 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in mph.
57. An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:
a. 135 mph.
b. 135 knots.
c. 145 knots.
d. 145 mph.
62. A hydraulic gear extension/retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, uplocks and:
a. An anti-skid braking system.
b. Down locks.
c. Torque links.
d. A shock absorber.
63. At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph the antiskid braking system is:
a. Inoperative.
b. Operative.
c. Operative only on the nose wheel brakes.
d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes.
64. The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will have:
a. Fallen by 15% from their rated value.
b. Risen by 15% from their rated value.
c. Remained constant.
d. Risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value.
Chapter 9 QUESTIONS
66. The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:
a. To ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system.
b. To change the direction of the control cable.
c. To ensure smooth operation of the system.
d. To prevent the cable from slackening.
72. In a manual flying control system the control inputs to the primary control surfaces:
1. Are reversible.
2. Are irreversible.
3. Are instinctive for the movement required.
4. Are opposite for the movement required.
5. Are limited in range by flight deck obstructions.
a. 1 and 4 only.
b. 2 and 4 only.
c. 1 and 3 only.
d. 1, 3 and 5 only.
Chapter 11 QUESTIONS
74. Normal maximum negative differential pressure is:
a. When atmospheric pressure exceeds cabin pressure by the amount permitted by the system controls.
b. Where the cabin pressure falls below aircraft altitude pressure at which time the inward relief valve
opens.
c. When the cabin pressure exceeds the atmospheric pressure by 0.5 PSI.
d. The pressure at which the duct relief valve is set to operate.
76. A/C in level flight if cabin altitude increases does pressure diff:
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain the same.
d. Nil.
77. In level pressurized flight does the outflow valve:
a. Close.
b. Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open.
c. Open to increase air conditioning.
d. Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally almost closed.
78. The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. Is this more important:
a. In descent.
b. In climb.
c. In periods when the dehumidifier is in use.
d. In cruise.
81. If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, will air be:
a. Contaminated.
b. Unaffected.
c. „b‟ is only correct if synthetic oil is used.
d. „a‟ will be correct only if the aircraft is inverted.
96. In the cruise at 30,000 ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4,000 ft to 6,000 ft:
a. Cabin differential will increase.
b. Cabin differential will not be affected.
c. Cabin differential will decrease.
d. Nil.
97. An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16,000 ft at 1,000 ft per min, the cabin pressurization is set to climb at
500 ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000 ft. The time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000 ft is:
a. The same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
b. Half the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
c. Twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
d. Three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000 ft.
98. The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:
a. Allows the aircraft to be pressurized on the ground.
b. Stops pressurizing on the ground and ensures that there is no pressure differential.
c. Ensures that the discharge valve is closed.
d. Cancels out the safety valve on the ground.
100. To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin pressure:
a. A duct relief valve is fitted.
b. A venturi device is fitted.
c. A mass flow controller is fitted.
d. A thermostatic relief valve is fitted.
101. The term “pressurization cycle” means:
a. Air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only.
b. Air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is released.
c. Air discharged from the fuselage, above 15 psi.
d. The frequency in Hz the pressure cycles from the roots blowers enter the fuselage.
108. If the pressurization air is passed over the cold air unit compressor does it:
a. Increase the charge air temperature.
b. Decrease the charge air temperature.
c. Decrease the charge air pressure.
d. Make no change to the charge air condition.
109. If the cabin pressure increases in level flight does the cabin VSI show:
a. Rate of climb.
b. No change unless the aircraft climbs.
c. Rate of descent.
d. Nil.
118. With a gas turbine engine, should engine anti-icing be selected “ON”:
a. Whenever the igniters are on.
b. Whenever the IOAT is +10 C or below and the air contains visible moisture.
c. Whenever the TOAT is +10 C or below and it is raining.
d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on.
QUESTIONS - PAPER 2
119. In a pneumatic de-icing system:
a. The boots remain inflated while the system operates.
b. The boots are inflated and deflated repeatedly.
c. Vacuum inflates the boots and pressure deflates them repeatedly.
d. When the boots are fully inflated the pressure is released and they collapse due to their elasticity.
123. For maximum strength against impact damage pilots windows are:
a. Normally kept to a minimum size.
b. Specially treated during construction.
c. Heated internally to increase their elasticity.
d. Only heated when the IOAT falls below 0 C in precipitation.
124. Pilots cockpit windows are:
a. Only heated by air from the de-misting fan.
b. Constructed by heat treating the outer surface to reduce glare.
c. Made of sandwich construction with an electrical conductive coating.
d. Made of polarized glass.
125. If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure:
a. THE aircraft can be de-iced with engines running.
b. The aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running.
c. The aircraft can be de-iced with APU running and bleed air selected off.
d. Neither APU nor engines can be running.
127. Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 40,000 ft is approximately:
a. Twenty seconds.
b. Three minutes.
c. Eighty seconds.
d. Six minutes.
138. In an emergency chemically produced oxygen is supplied for a given period by:
a. Sodium chlorate, iron power, an electrical firing system and a filter.
b. Potassium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing system and a filter.
c. Sodium chlorate, iron powder which is chemically activated by air and then filtered.
d. Sodium chlorate and an electrical firing system.
140. With the control knob set to high, a 120 litre portable bottle will provide oxygen for a period of:
a. 60 mins.
b. 30 mins.
c. 12 mins.
d. 3 mins.
141. If the pressurization system fails and the cabin starts to climb, then at 14,000 ft oxygen will be available
to the passengers by:
a. The stewardess who will hand out masks.
b. The passengers grabbing a mask from the overhead lockers.
c. Portable oxygen bottles located in the seat backs.
d. masks automatically ejected to a ½ hung position.
142. At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator provide 100% pure oxygen:
a. 10,000 ft.
b. 14,000 ft.
c. 24,000 ft.
d. 34,000 ft.
143. what is the approximate time of useful conciousness when hypoxia develops at the specified altitudes.
18,000 ft 30,000 ft
a. 2-3 min 10-15 sec
b. 10 min 2 min
c. 30 min 90-45 secs
d. 40 min 5 min
144. What is the effect on cabin temperature of a rapid de-compression at 30,000 ft:
a. Sudden and extreme drop.
b. Insignificant change over the first 2 minutes.
c. A gradual decrease to ambient over a period of about 10 minutes if the cabin heating ceases.
d. A gradual decrease to ambient temperature over a period of about 30 minutes if cabin heating
continues.
146. What is the approximate cabin altitude above which you must breath 100% oxygen if you are to
maintain an alveolar partial pressure equal to that at sea level:
a. 26,000 ft.
b. 30,000 ft.
c. 34,000 ft.
d. 38,000 ft.
149. An engine fire extinguisher has discharged due to an over temperature condition occurring in its
vicinity. This will be indicated by:
a. A bursting disc in the discharge nozzle.
b. An externally mounted warning lamp.
c. An externally mounted discharge indicator showing red.
d. An audible warning.
150. On a multi engine aircraft, an engine fire warning system consists of:
a. Flashing red lights for each engine and a warning horn.
b. Steady red light for each engine and a common warning bell.
c. Flashing red light for each engine and a common warning bell.
d. Steady red light and bell for each engine.
152. On receipt of an engine fire warning on the flight deck the correct procedure should be:
a. Fight the fire with the flight deck BCF fire extinguisher.
b. Pull the fire handle, fire the fire extinguisher, shut down the engine.
c. Shut down the affected engine, pull the fire handle, fire the first extinguisher.
d. Fire the first extinguisher, pull the fire handle, shut down the engine.
155. Regulations governing the fitting, marking and use of safety equipment is contained in:
a. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements.
b. Navigation Regulations.
c. Joint Airworthiness Requirements.
d. Operations Manual.
156. An automatic escape slide:
a. Can be armed from the inside of the aircraft only.
b. Can only be activated from the flight deck.
c. Automatically inflates when the crash switches are activated.
d. Inflates when the recovery team open the door from the outside of the aircraft.
15. The LED indicator light on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 second intervals. This indicates:
a. The battery is charging.
b. The torch is serviceable.
c. The battery needs replacing.
d. The filament is broken.
158. If the emergency lighting system is powered from the aircraft electrical system, it takes is power supply
from:
a. AC essential bus-bar.
b. DC essential bus-bar.
c. Vital DC bus-bar.
d. The inverter.
161. A power failure to a capacitive fuel contents system would cause the gauge to:
a. Show full scale deflection high.
b. Fluctuate between high and low readings.
c. Remain fixed on the last contents noted before failure.
d. Show full scale deflection low.
162. A fuel booster pump, besides pumping fuel to the engine, can also be utilised to:
a. Jettison and transfer fuel.
b. Jettison and heat the fuel.
c. Transfer and heat the fuel.
d. Transfer and recycle the fuel.
163. During fuel jettison, the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:
a. High level float switches.
b. Preset jettison quantity switches.
c. The crew remaining alert.
d. Low level float switches.
165. Adjustments may have to made to an aircraft‟s engine fuel system if it has been refueled with JET B
instead of its normal JET A1 fuel, these adjustments are to cater for:
a. The change in the specific gravity of the fuel.
b. The change in the calorific value of the fuel.
c. The change in the viscosity of the fuel.
d. The lack of HITEC lubricant in the fuel.
166. The disadvantage of refueling the aircraft to “tanks full” the night before a departure in the heat of the
day is that:
a. The change in the specific gravity may cause the aircraft to be overweight.
b. The change in the volume of the fuel may cause it to spill through the vent system.
c. The change in calorific value may reduce engine power to below sufficient.
d. The R.P.M. governor will be rendered inoperative.
QUESTION PAPER 2
167. If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:
a. Water contamination.
b. Anti-microbiological additives.
c. Mixing different fuel grades.
d. Oil in the fuel.
168. On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel quantity indication system graduated
to read in kg, the temperature increases just after the tanks are half filled with fuel. If the fuel expands by
10%, the gauges will show:
a. An increase of 10%.
b. A decrease of 10% of the volume factored by the new specific gravity.
c. A decrease.
d. The same amount.
169. The exhaust gases from the A.P.U. go into the refueling zone. The A.P.U:
a. Must be switched OFF throughout the refueling operation.
b. Can be started while refueling is carried out.
c. Must be started before fuelling is carried out, and can be run throughout the refueling operation.
d. Can be started only after the refueling operation has been terminated.
171. AVGAS:
a. Is colored red for identification purposes.
b. Is colored green if it is a leaded fuel and blue if it is a low lead fuel.
c. Has no artificial coloring and appears either clear or a straw yellow color.
d. Can only be used in piston engines if oil is added to improve its anti-knock properties.
172. The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:
a. The use of fuel from any tank to any engine.
b. Refueling when only one bowser is in use.
c. Isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire.
d. Transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks.
QUESTION PAPER 3
173. The purpose of fitting baffles in fuel tanks is to:
a. Prevent longitudinal movement of the fuel during acceleration.
b. Allow the booster pump to remain covered by fuel irrespective of the aircraft attitude.
c. Dampen lateral movement of the fuel in the wing tanks during a sideslip.
d. Maintain a pre-determined quantity of fuel in the outboard section of the wing tanks
178. The advantage of a capacitor type fuel contents gauging system is that the circuit:
a. Responds to changes in specific gravity.
b. Compensates for high altitude flight.
c. Responds automatically to extremely low temperatures.
d. Compensates for aircraft attitude changes.
181. If a fuel tank with a capacitive quantity system was filled with water instead of fuel, the gauge would
indicate:
a. Full scale low (zero).
b. It would indicate the same as if it were filled with fuel c. Full scale high (max).
c. It would freeze at the last known indication.