Republic of the Philippines

PROFESSIONAL REGULATIONS COMMISSION

Manila

PROFESSIONAL TEACHERS – Elementary / Secondary

PROFESSIONAL TEACHERS LICENSURE EXAMINATION 11:00 a.m. – 02:00 pm

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PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. How does measurement differ from evaluation?

A. Measurement is assigning a numerical value to a given trait while evaluation
is giving meaning to the numerical value of the trait.
B. Measurement is the process of quantifying data while evaluation is the
process of organizing data.
C. Measurement is a pre-requisite of assessment while evaluation is the pre-
requisite of testing.
D. Measurement is gathering data while assessment is quantifying the data
gathered.

2. Miss del Sol rated her students in terms of appropriate and effective use of
some laboratory equipment and measurement tools and if they are able to follow
the specified procedures. What mode of assessment should Miss del Sol use?
A. Portfolio Assessment
B. Journal Assessment
C. Traditional Assessment
D. Performance-Based Assessment

3. Who among the teachers below performed a formative evaluation?

A. Ms. Olivares who asked questions when the discussion was going on to know
who among her students understood what she was trying to stress.
B. Mr. Borromeo who gave a short quiz after discussing thoroughly the lesson to
determine the outcome of instruction.
C. Ms. Berces who gave a ten-item test to find out the specific lessons which
the students failed to understand.
D. Mrs. Corpuz who administered a readiness test to the incoming grade one
pupils.

4. St. Andrews School gave a standardized achievement test instead of giving a

teacher-made test to the graduating elementary pupils. Which could have been the
reason why this was the kind of test given?
A. Standardized test has items of average level of difficulty while teacher-
made test has varying levels of difficulty.
B. Standardized test uses multiple-choice format while teacher-made test uses
the essay test format.
C. Standardized test is used for mastery while teacher-made test is used for
survey.
D. Standardized test is valid while teacher-made test is just reliable.

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5. Which test format is best to use if the purpose of the test is to relate
inventors and their inventions?
A. Short-Answer
B. True-False
C. Matching Type
D. Multiple Choice

6. In the parlance of index of test construction, what does TOS mean?

A. Table of Specifics
B. Terms of Specifications
C. Table of Scopes
D. Table of Specifications

7. Here is the item:

“From the data presented in the table, form generalizations that are supported by
the data.”

Under what type of question does this item fall?

A. Convergent B. Evaluative C. Application D. Divergent

8. The following are synonymous to performance objectives EXCEPT:

A. Learner’s objective
B. Instructional objective
C. Teacher’s objective
D. Behavioral objective

9. Which is (are) (a) norm-referenced statement?

A. Danny performed better in spelling than 60% of his classmates.
B. Danny was able to spell 90% of the words correctly.
C. Danny was able to spell 90% of the words correctly and spelled 35 words out
of 50 correctly.
D. Danny spelled 35 words out of 50 correctly.

10. Which guideline in test construction is NOT observed in this test item?
EDGAR ALLAN POE WROTE ________________________.
A. The length of the blank suggests the answer.
B. The central problem is not packed in the stem.
C. It is open to more than one correct answer.
D. The blank is at the end of the question.

11. Which does NOT belong to the group?

A. Completion
B. Matching
C. Multiple Choice
D. Alternate Response

12. A test is considered reliable if:

A. it is easy to score
B. it served the purpose for which it is constructed
C. it is consistent and stable
D. it is easy to administer

13. Which is claimed to be the overall advantage of criterion-referenced over

norm-referenced interpretation?
A. An individual’s score is compared with the set mastery level.
B. An individual’s score is compared with that of his peers.

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 C. An individual’s score is compared with the average scores.
D. An individual’s score does not need to be compared with any measure.

14. Teacher Liza does norm-referenced interpretation of scores. Which of the

following does she do?
A. She uses a specified content as its frame of reference.
B. She describes group of performance in relation to a level of master set.
C. She compares every individual student score with others’ scores.
D. She describes what should be their performance.

15. All examinees obtained scores below the mean. A graphic representation of the
score distribution will be ________________.
A. negatively skewed
B. perfect normal curve
C. leptokurtic
D. positively skewed

16. In a normal distribution curve, a T-score of 70 is

A. two SDs below the mean.
B. two SDs above the mean
C. one SD below the mean
D. one SD above the mean

17. Which type of test measures higher order thinking skills?

A. Enumeration
B. Matching
C. Completion
D. Analogy

19. The strongest disadvantage of the alternate-response type of test is

A. the demand for critical thinking
B. the absence of analysis
C. the encouragement of rote memory
D. the high possibility of guessing

20. A class is composed of academically poor students. The distribution will most
likely to be:
A. leptokurtic.
B. skewed to the right
C. skewed to the left
D. symmetrical

21. Of the following types of tests, which is the most subjective in scoring?
A. Enumeration
B. Matching Type
C. Essay
D. Multiple Choice

22. Tom’s raw score in the Filipino class is 23 which is equal to the 70th
percentile. What does this imply?
A. 70% of Tom’s classmates got a score lower than 23.
B. Tom’s score is higher than 23% of his classmates.
C. 70% of Tom’s classmates got a score above 23.
D. Tom’s score is higher than 23 of his classmates.

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23. Test norms are established in order to have a basis for:
A. establishing learning objectives
B. identifying pupil’s difficulties
C. planning effective instructional devices
D. comparing test scores

24. The score distribution follows a normal curve. What does this mean?
A. Most of the scores are on the -2SD
B. Most of the scores are on the +2SD
C. The scores coincide with the mean
D. Most of the scores pile up between -1SD and +1SD

25. In her conduct of item analysis, Teacher Cristy found out that a
significantly greater number from the upper group of the class got test item #5
correctly. This means that the test item:
A. has a negative discriminating power
B. is valid
C. is easy
D. has a positive discriminating power

26. Mr. Reyes tasked his students to play volleyball. What learning target is he
assessing?
A. Knowledge
B. Skill
C. Products
D. Reasoning

27. Martina obtained an NSAT percentile rank of 80. This indicates that
A. She surpassed in performance 80% of her fellow examinees
B. She got a score of 80
C. She surpassed in performance 20% of her fellow examinees
D. She answered 80 items correctly

28. Which term refers to the collection of student’s products and accomplishments
for a period for evaluation purposes?
A. Anecdotal Records
B. Portfolio
C. Observation Report
D. Diary

29. Which form of assessment is consistent with the saying “The proof of the
pudding is in the eating”?
A. Contrived B. Authentic C. Traditional D. Indirect

30. Which error do teachers commit when they tend to overrate the achievement of
students identified by aptitude tests as gifted because they expect achievement
and giftedness to go together?
A. Generosity error
B. Central Tendency Error
C. Severity Error
D. Logical Error

31. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?

A. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment.
B. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge.

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 C. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score.
D. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score.

32. Which is a valid assessment tool if I want to find out how well my students
can speak extemporaneously?
A. Writing speeches
B. Written quiz on how to deliver extemporaneous speech
C. Performance test in extemporaneous speaking
D. Display of speeches delivered

33. Teacher J discovered that her pupils are weak in comprehension. To further
determine which particular skill(s) her pupils are weak in, which test should
Teacher J give?
A. Standardized Test
B. Placement
C. Diagnostic
D. Aptitude Test

34. “Group the following items according to phylum” is a thought test item on
_______________.
A. inferring
B. classifying
C. generalizing
D. comparing

35. In a multiple choice test, keeping the options brief indicates________.

A. Inclusion in the item irrelevant clues such as the use in the correct answer
B. Non-inclusion of option that mean the same
C. Plausibility & attractiveness of the item
D. Inclusion in the item any word that must otherwise repeated in each response

36. Which will be the most authentic assessment tool for an instructional
objective on working with and relating to people?
A. Writing articles on working and relating to people
B. Organizing a community project
C. Home visitation
D. Conducting a mock election

37. While she is in the process of teaching, Teacher J finds out if her students
understand what she is teaching. What is Teacher J engaged in?
A. Criterion-referenced evaluation
B. Summative Evaluation
C. Formative Evaluation
D. Norm-referenced Evaluation

38. With types of test in mind, which does NOT belong to the group?
A. Restricted response essay
B. Completion
C. Multiple choice
D. Short Answer

39. Which tests determine whether the students accept responsibility for their
own behavior or pass on responsibility for their own behavior to other people?
A. Thematic tests
B. Sentence completion tests

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 C. Stylistic tests
D. Locus-of-control tests

40. When writing performance objectives, which word is NOT acceptable?

A. Manipulate
B. Delineate
C. Comprehend
D. Integrate

41. Here is a test item: _____________ is an example of a mammal.

What is defective with this test item?
A. It is very elementary.
B. The blank is at the beginning of the sentence.
C. It is a very short question.
D. It is an insignificant test item.

42. “By observing unity, coherence, emphasis and variety, write a short paragraph
on taking examinations.” This is an item that tests the students’ skill to
_________.
A. evaluate
B. comprehend
C. synthesize
D. recall

43. Teacher A constructed a matching type of test. In her columns of items are
combination of events, people, circumstances. Which of the following guidelines
in constructing matching type of test did he violate?
A. List options in an alphabetical order
B. Make list of items homogeneous
C. Make list of items heterogeneous
D. Provide three or more options

45. A number of test items in a test are said to be non-discriminating. What

conclusion/s can be drawn?
I. Teaching or learning was very good.
II. The item is so easy that anyone could get it right.
III. The item is so difficult that nobody could get it.

A. I only B. I and III C. II only D. II and III

46. Measuring the work done by a gravitational force is a learning task. At what
level of cognition is it?
A. Comprehension
B. Application
C. Evaluation
D. Analysis

47. Which improvement/s should be done in this completion test item:

An example of a mammal is ________.
A. The blank should be longer to accommodate all possible answers.
B. The blank should be at the beginning of the sentence.
C. The question should have only one acceptable answer.
D. The item should give more clues.

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48. Here is Teacher D’s lesson objective: “To trace the causes of Alzheimer’s
disease.” Which is a valid test for this particular objective?
A. Can an Alzheimer’s disease be traced to old age? Explain.
B. To what factors can Alzheimer’s disease be traced? Explain.
C. What is an Alzheimer’s disease?
D. Do young people also get attacked by Alzheimer’s disease? Support your
answer?
49. What characteristic of a good test will pupils be assured of when a teacher
constructs a table of specifications for test construction purposes?
A. Reliability
B. Content Validity
C. Construct Validity
D. Scorability

50. Study this test item.

A test is valid when _____________________.
A. it measures what is purports to measure
B. covers a broad scope of subject matter
C. reliability of scores
D. easy to administer

How can you improve this test item?

A. Make the length of the options uniform.
B. Pack the question in the stem.
C. Make the options parallel.
D. Construct the options in such a way that the grammar of the sentence remains
correct.

51. In taking a test, one examinee approached the proctor for clarification on
what to do. This implies a problem on which characteristic of a good test?
A. Objectivity
B. Administrability
C. Scorability
D. Economy

52. Teacher Jane wants to determine if her students’ scores in the second grading
is reliable. However, she has only one set of test and her students are already
on their semestral break. What test of reliability can she use?
A. Test-retest
B. Split-half
C. Equivalent Forms
D. Test-retest with equivalent forms

53. Mrs. Cruz has only one form of test and she administered her test only once.
What test of reliability can she do?
A. Test of stability
B. Test of equivalence
C. Test of correlation
D. Test of internal consistency

Use the following table to answer items 54 – 55.

Class Limits Frequency
50 – 54 9
45 – 49 12
40 – 44 16
35 – 39 8
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 30 - 34 5

54. What is the lower limit of the class with the highest frequency?
A. 39.5 B. 40 C. 44 D. 44.5

55. What is the crude mode?

A. 40 B. 42 C. 42.5 D. 44

56. About what percent of the cases falls between +1 and -1 SD in a normal curve?
A. 43.1% B. 95.4% C. 99.8% D. 68.3%

57. Study this group of test which was administered to a class to whom Peter
belongs, then answer the question:
SUBJECT MEAN SD PETER’S SCORE
Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109

In which subject(s) did Peter perform most poorly in relation to the group’s mean
performance?
A. English
B. Physics
C. English and Physics
D. Math

58. Based on the data given in #57, in which subject(s) were the scores most
widespread?
A. Math
B. Physics
C. Cannot be determined
D. English

59. A mathematics test was given to all Grade V pupils to determine the
contestants for the Math Quiz Bee. Which statistical measure should be used to
identify the top 15?
A. Mean Percentage Score
B. Quartile Deviation
C. Percentile Rank
D. Percentage Score

60. A test item has a difficulty index of .89 and a discrimination index of -.44.
What should the teacher do?
A. Make it a bonus item.
B. Reject the item.
C. Retain the item.
D. Make it a bonus and reject it.

61. What is/are important to state when explaining percentile-ranked tests to

parents?
I. What group took the test
II. That the scores show how students performed in relation to other students.
III. That the scores show how students performed in relation to an absolute
measure.

A. II only B. I & III C. I & II D. III only

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62. Which of the following reasons for measuring student achievement is NOT
valid?
A. To prepare feedback on the effectiveness of the learning process
B. To certify the students have attained a level of competence in a subject
area
C. To discourage students from cheating during test and getting high scores
D. To motivate students to learn and master the materials they think will be
covered by the achievement test.

63. The computed r for English and Math score is -.75. What does this mean?
A. The higher the scores in English, the higher the scores in Math.
B. The scores in Math and English do not have any relationship.
C. The higher the scores in Math, the lower the scores in English.
D. The lower the scores in English, the lower the scores in Math.

64. Which statement holds TRUE to grades? Grades are _________________.

A. exact measurements of intelligence and achievement
B. necessarily a measure of student’s intelligence
C. intrinsic motivators for learning
D. are a measure of achievement

65. What is the advantage of using computers in processing test results?

A. Test results can easily be assessed.
B. Its statistical computation is accurate
C. Its processing takes a shorter period of time
D. All of the above

*** END ***

SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR WATCHERS.
BRINGING THE TEST QUESTION SET OUT OF THE ROOM WILL BE A GROUND FOR DISCIPLINARY
ACTION.

FAILURE TO SUBMIT YOUR TEST QUESTIONS (COMPLETE SET) WILL CAUSE CANCELLATION OF
YOUR TEST – RESULTS FOR THE SUBJECT.

VRTC – Test Bank TQDS Ver 2.1.9 9