01/07/2016

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 14 Time : 3 Hrs.

[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
Topics Covered :
Physics : Alternating current, Electromagnetic waves,
Chemistry : Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Botany : Organisms and Populations
Zoology : Human Health & Disease: Pathogens, Parasites causing human diseases (Malaria, Filariasis,
Ascariasis. Typhoid, Pneumonia, Common Cold, Amoebiasis, Ring worm), Basic Concept of
Immunology, Vaccines.

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1. An electric motor operates on a 100 volt supply and

a current of 10 A. If the efficiency of the motor of V22
(1) V12  (2) V12  V22
25%, what is the resistance of the winding of the 2
motor?
(1) 2.5  (2) 5  V12  V22 V12  V22
(3) (4)
(3) 6  (4) 7.5  2 2

2. In an ideal transformer, the number of turns are given 4. In the given circuit find the impedence of the circuit.
as 150 and 200 in primary and secondary coil. Its
XC = 6 
load resistance is 10 . Current in primary and
secondary coil may be
(1) 250 A, 750 A
(2) 100 A, 400 A
XL = 3 
(3) 300 A, 400 A
(4) 400 A, 300 A
60 V
3. An alternating voltage is given by the equation
V = V 1 + V 2 cos (t). The effective value of (1) 2  (2) 4 
alternating voltage is
(3) 6  (4) 5 
(1)
Test-14 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
5. Current in the LCR circuit becomes maximum when 11. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of
(1) Frequency is greater than resonance frequency intensity I (W/m2) on a non-reflecting surface is

(2) Frequency is less than resonance frequency I 2I

(1) (2)
(3) Inductance becomes equal to capacitance C C
(4) Inductive reactance becomes equal to capacitive
I
reactance (3) IC (4)
C2
6. An a.c. source is rated at voltage V = 220 sin(200 t)
and impedence of 22 ohms. Find the time taken by 12. Average energy density of electro-magnetic wave is
the current to increase from zero to the r.m.s. value.
1 1
(1) 2.5 × 10–3 s (2) 5.0 × 10–3 s (1) 0 E 2 (2) 0 E02
2 2
(3) 2.0 × 10–3 s (4) 1.25 × 10–3 s
B2 B02
7. In LCR circuit are connected in series with an (3) 2 (4)
alternating voltage source of frequency f. The current 0 0

 13. Which of following rays do not travel with speed of

leads the voltage by . Find the value of C.
3 light?
1 1 (1) Cosmic rays (2)  - rays
(1) (2)
2 f [2fL  3R ] f [2fL  3R ] (3) X - rays (4) UV - rays
1 1 14. Energy flow per unit area of cross-section in unit
(3) (4) time in an electromagnetic field is given as
2f [2fL  3R ] ⎡ R ⎤
2f ⎢2f L 
⎣ 3 ⎥⎦   E
(1) E  B (2)
8. In the given circuit, if frequency of the power supply B
is equal to the resonant frequency of the circuit.
 
Which ammeter read zero ampere? E B  
(3)  (4) E  B
0

15. The impedance of the circuit shown in the figure is

E = E0 sin (t) C L
40 V 20 V

A3 A2 A1

2A
(1) A1 (2) A3
(3) A2 (4) Both A1 and A2 
9. In the electromagnetic wave the oscillating electric
and magnetic field vectors oriented as (1) 10 5 ohm (2) 30 ohm

(1) Mutually perpendicular and in same phase

(3) 60 ohm (4) 20 5 ohm
(2) Mutually perpendicular and in phase difference
of 90° 16. The average power dissipation in a pure capacitor in
AC circuit is
(3) In same direction but have a phase difference
of 90° 1
(1) Zero (2) CV2
(4) In same direction and in same phase 2
(3) CV2 (4) 2 CV2
10. The refractive index of a medium is [where symbols
have their usual meanings] 17. Current in a circuit is wattless if

 0 0  (1) Inductance in the circuit is zero

(1) (2)  0 0 (2) Resistance in the circuit is zero

(3) Current is alternating
  0 0
(3)  0 0 (4) (4) Capacitanace in the circuit is zero

(2)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-14 (Code A)
18. In an ideal transformer current in primary coil and
T T
voltage across primary coil have phase difference of (1) (2)
8 2
(1) Zero (2) 
T
  (3) (4) T
(3) (4) 4
2 4
26. For the given circuit, current through the inductor is
19. A series LCR circuit is connected to an alternating 0.9 ampere while the current through the capacitor
source of emf. The quality factor (Q) of circuit is is 0.6 ampere and current through the resistor is
[where  is resonance frequency] 0.4 ampere. The current through source of emf is

2 C
⎛ R ⎞ ⎛ L ⎞
(1) ⎜ ⎟ (2) ⎜ ⎟
⎝ L ⎠ ⎝ R ⎠
L
2
⎛ L ⎞ R
(3) ⎜ ⎟ (4) ⎛⎜ R ⎞⎟
⎝ R ⎠ ⎝ L ⎠
V = V0 sin(t)
20. In an LCR series circuit, the voltage across each of
(1) 0.9 A (2) 0.5 A
the components L,C and R is 100 V. The voltage
across combination of LC is (3) 0.3 A (4) 0.7 A

(1) Zero (2) 100 V 27. The alternating current through a circuit is given as
I = I0 sin (100 t ), the time interval in which current
(3) 200 V (4) 100 2 V changes from zero to rms value is
21. In LCR circuit capacitance is increased by 100%. (1) 1.5 ms
For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged the (2) 5 ms
inductance should be
(3) 2.5 ms
(1) Increased by 100% (2) Decreased by 50%
(4) 10 ms
(3) Increased by 50% (4) Remains same 28. If reading of the voltmeter V shown in figure at
22. The self inductance of a coil in series LCR circuit is resonance is 100 V, then quality factor of the circuit
10 H. To obtain the maximum power at 50 Hz, it is is
connected to a capacitor of capacitance
(1) 2 F (2) 4 F
V
(3) 2.7 F (4) 1 F
23. A circuit contains resistance R and a capacitor C in L C R
parallel. An alternating voltage V = V0 sint applied
across it. The currents in R and C respectively will
be 
(1) IR = I0sint ; IC = I0sint 25 V
(2) IR = I0cost ; IC = I0cost (1) Zero (2) 0.25

(3) IR = I0sint ; IC = I0cost (3) 1 (4) 4

(4) IR = I0cost ; IC = I0sint 29. Equation of alternating current is given by

24. The power factor of a practical choke coil is ⎛ ⎞

I  5 2 sin ⎜ 100t  ⎟ A. The time taken by current
⎝ 6⎠
(1) Zero (2) Nearly zero
to reach the root mean square value from t = 0 is
(3) Nearly one (4) Exactly one t1, then the minimum value of t1 is
25. In L-C circuit maximum charge on the capacitor is
1 1
Q0 and it is oscillating with a time period T. If at (1) s (2) s
t = 0 capacitor is fully charged, then the time t when 400 800
the energy is stored equally in electric and magnetic 1 1
field will be (3) s (4) s
1200 1600
(3)
Test-14 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
30. Current (i) in a circuit varies with time (t) as shown 36. Which of the following is not a Maxwell equation?

i   d   q
(1) ∫ E·dl   B
dt
(2) ∫ E·ds  in
0
i0
  d E  

t
(3) ∫ B·dl 
dt
(4) ∫ B·ds  0
T T
2 37. In a series LCR circuit, current leads voltage, then
The mean value of current for one complete cycle is 1 1
(1)   (2)  
3i0 2i0 LC LC
(1) (2)
4 
1
i0 (3)   (4)  = 0
(3) (4) Zero LC
2
31. Power factor of series LCR circuit at resonance is 38. Equation of alternating current is given by I = 10 sin
(1) 0 (2) 0.5 1
100 t. The time taken by current to reach
(3) 1 (4) 0.707 2
times the root mean square value (from t = 0) is
32. A step-up transformer of turns ratio 2 : 1 has 50 Hz
A.C. voltage applied to primary. The frequency of 1 1
(1) s (2) s
A.C. output voltage across secondary is 200 400
(1) Zero (2) 25 Hz 1 1
(3) s (4) s
(3) 50 Hz (4) 100 Hz 600 300
33. In a series LCR circuit, voltage applied is 39. Two circuit elements in series connection have
⎛ ⎞ current and total voltage i = 4cos(2000t) A and
V  3 sin ⎜ 314t  ⎟ V and current from the supply is V = 200sin(2000t + 37°) V respectively. The
⎝ 6⎠
elements will be
⎛ ⎞
I  2sin ⎜ 314t  ⎟ A. The wattless component of (1) R = 30 , XC = 40 
⎝ 3 ⎠
(2) R = 40 , XC = 30 
current in given voltage current supply is
(3) R = 30 , XL = 40 
1
(1) (4) R = 40 , XL = 30 
2A (2)
2
A
40. In the situation shown V1 = 100 V, V2 = 150 V,
1 and V3 = 150 V are the reading of ideal hot wire
(3) A (4) 2 A
2 voltmeters. When  is equal to the resonance
34. Which of the following pairs of electric and magnetic angular frequency of the circuit then applied voltage
field vector represent an electromagnetic wave is
travelling along negative z–axis? V1 V2 V3
 
(1) E  E 0 sin(t  kz )iˆ, B  B0 sin(t  kz ) ˆj
 
(2) E  E 0 sin(t  kz ) ˆj , B  B0 sin(t  kz )iˆ
 
(3) E  E 0 sin(t  kz )iˆ, B  B0 sin(t  kz) ˆj E = 0sint
  (1) 250 V (2) 100 V
(4) E  E 0 sin(t – kz ) ˆj , B  B0 sin(t – kz ) ˆj
(3) 350 V (4) 600 V
35. The amplitude of electric field at a distance r from a 41. An AC source rated 220 V supplies a current of
source of power P is (Source efficiency is 100%) 10 A in a circuit. Average power delivered by the
source
P P
(1) 2 (2) (1) May be greater than 2200 watt
3r c 0 4r 2 c 0
(2) May be 1100 watt
P P (3) May be less than 2200 watt
(3) 2 (4) 2
2r c 0 2r c 0 (4) Both (2) & (3) are correct
(4)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-14 (Code A)
42. The current I, potential difference VL across the 43. For a series LCR circuit, R = XL = 2XC. The phase
inductor and potential difference VC across the difference between voltage V and current i in the LCR
capacitor in circuit as shown in the figure are best circuit will be
represented in phasor diagram as
C 1 ⎛ 1 ⎞
(1) tan–1 (2) (2) tan ⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠
VL VC
(3) tan–1 (0) (4) tan–1 (1)
I
44. Average power delivered by the AC source of series
LCR circuit becomes maximum when (symbols have
usual meanings)
VC VL
1
(1) L = C (2) L 
C
I I
(1) (2) 2
⎛ 1 ⎞
(3) L  1  ⎜ ⎟ (4) L  C
VL VC ⎝ C ⎠
45. Real life LC oscillations
VL
VC (1) May be damped
(2) May be undamped
(3) (4) I
(3) Are always damped
VL I VC (4) Are always undamped

CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following reaction would not be 48. Consider the following reaction
feasible?
CH2 – C = CH 2 + HBr organic peroxide
ZnCl
(1) CH3 CH2  OH  HCl 

2
 CH3CH2 – Cl  H2O H

CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Br

(2) OH + PCl3 3 Cl + H3PO3

Red P
(3) CH 3 – CH – OH Br2
CH3 – CH – Br The reaction is an example of
CH3 CH3 (1) Nucleophilic addition

(4) CH3 – CH2 – OH + SOCl2  CH3 – CH2 –Cl + (2) Electrophilic addition
SO2 + HCl (3) Benzyne mechanism
(4) Free radical addition
CH2 – CH3
Br2 49. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished
47. X; Identify X.
h (major) by heating an alkyl chloride/bromide in the presence
of
CH2CH3 CH2 – CH3 (1) Hg2F2 (2) CoF2

(1) (2) (3) AgF (4) All of these

Br Br 50. Identify the compound which upon chlorination will
give four isomeric monochlorides
CH – CH3 CH2 – CH2 – Br (1) Hexane (2) 2-Methylpentane
(3) Br (4) (3) 3-Methylpentane (4) 2,3-dimethylbutane

(5)
Test-14 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
51. Which of the following will be most reactive towards 56. Identify the major product of the reaction
SN2 reaction? CH – CH3
conc. H2SO4
(1) CH3 – X (2) CH3 – CH2 – X ? (major).
OH 

CH3 CH3 CH3

(3) H3C – C – X (4) H3C – C – X (1) CH3 (2)
H CH3
52. Enantiomers are
(1) Superimposable mirror images (3) (4)
CH3
(2) Diastereomers
57. The mechanism followed by the preparation of ether
(3) Meso compounds by Williamson synthesis is
(4) Non-superimposable mirror images (1) SN1
53. Retention and inversion in the configuration of product (2) SN2
will take place in
(3) SN1 and SN2
(1) SN1 (2) SN2 (4) SNAr
(3) E2 (4) SNAr OH
O NaBH4, MeOH
dil. HNO3
X 58. X (major). Identify X.
(i) LiAIH4, (ii) H2O
54. Y
H2 OH
Z
Pt O2N NO2 OH
X, Y and Z are respectively NO2
(1) (2)
OH OH O NO2

(1) OH
, and OH

(3) (4)
O OH OH NO2 NO2
(2) , 59. Which of the following will have maximum pK a
and
value?
OH OH
OH OH OH
(1) (2)
(3) , and NO2
OH
O OH OH
NO2
(4) (3) (4)
, and
NO2
H2 O
55. The reagent which is the most suitable for the 60. H3C – CH = CH2   CH3
CH CH3
H
following conversion is
OH
? The nucleophile in the given electrophilic addition
(CH3)3C – CH = CH2 (CH3)3C – CH – CH3
reaction is
OH
(1) OH(–)
(1) (i) BH3/THF, (ii) H2O2,OH(–)
(2) H2O
(2) (i) Hg(OAc)2/H2O (ii) NaBH4/OH(–)
(3) H(+)
(3) H2O/H(+)
(4) H(–)
(4) (i) O3, (ii) Zn/H2O2
(6)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-14 (Code A)

OH H3C CH3
COOH
(CH3CO)2O
61. (+) CH3COOH + ‘Y’ Identify ‘Y’ 66. IUPAC name of the compound is
H
OC2H5
COOH HOOC O (1) 1,2-dimethyl-4-ethoxycyclohexane
OCCH3 (2) 1,1-dimethyl-4-ethoxycyclohexane
(1) (2) C – OCH3
O (3) 4,4-dimethyl-1-ethoxycyclohexane
(4) 1-ethoxy-3,4-dimethylcyclohexane
OH O OH 67. Arrange the following in the order of reactivity
towards SN2
(3) C – OCH3 (4) OC – CH3
I. CH3Br
O
II. CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3
62. What will be the major product of the dinitration of
Br
3-methylphenol?
III. CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3
OH
OH O2N I
NO2 NO2
(1) (2) CH3
CH3
CH3 NO2 IV. H3C – C – Br
CH3
OH OH
NO2 (1) I > II > III > V
(2) I > III > II > IV
(3) CH3 (4)
NO2 CH3 (3) IV > III > II > I
NO2 NO2
(4) IV > II > III > I
63. The number of monohydric phenols possible for the
molecular formula C8H10O is O +
HO
(1) 4 (2) 5 68. R – C – R’ + R’ Mg X 3 'Z' + Mg(OH)X . Z is

(3) 9 (4) 10 (1) 1°–Alcohol (2) 2°–Alcohol

G G
(3) 3°–Alcohol (4) Aldehyde
69. Which of the following would have maximum bond
H2SO4
64. (major) angle?
HNO3
O O
NO2  CH
(1) H 3C (2) H 3C  H
3
The group/atom ‘G’ can be
(1) –NO2 (2) –CF3 H

(3) O (4) All of these
O
(3) –OCH3 (4) – C – H
NH2
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3 NaNO2 + HCl Cu
NO2 70. 0°C
X. HCl
Y. The compound Y is
H2SO4
65. HNO3 +
NH2
NO2
(1) (2)
The reaction is an example of
Cl
(1) Electrophilic substitution
Cl
(2) Nucleophilic substitution Cl
(3) Free radical substitution
(3) (4)
(4) Addition followed by elimination
Cl
(7)
Test-14 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
71. Identify the Finkelstein reaction 77. Consider the following statements
Acetone
(1) R – Br + NaI 

 R – I + NaBr I. Haloarenes are more reactive than haloalkanes
towards SN-reactions.
O
CCl4
II. C2H5Cl is more reactive than C6H5 – CH2 – Cl
(2) R C O(–)Ag+ + Br2   R – Br + CO2 + AgBr towards SN-reaction.
(3) R – Br + AgF  R – F + AgBr
III. Solubility of haloalkanes in water is very low.
(4) H2C = CH – CH3 + Br2  CH2 = CH – CH2 – Br
h
Select the correct statement
72. Identify the compound having asymmetric carbon
(1) Only III (2) I & III
atom(s)
(3) II & III (4) I & II
CH3 CH3 CH3
Cl 78. In Reimer-Tiemann reaction the :CH2 group acts as
Cl
I. II. III. (1) Nucleophile (2) Base
(3) Electrophile (4) All of these
Cl
(1) I & II (2) II only 79. Which of the following alkyl halides can undergo
(3) I & III (4) I, II & III -elimination only by E1 path?
73. The attacking reagent to benzene ring in the reaction (1) H3C – CH – CH2 – Br
Anhyd.AlCl3
C6H6  Cl2  is CH3
(1) Cl(–) (2) Cl(+) CH3

(3) Cl (4) AlCl(4 ) (2) H3C – C – Br

CH3
CH3
HBr Alc. KOH (3) CH3 – CH2 – Br
74. A B

(4) (CH3)3C – CH2 – Br
The compound ‘B’ is
Cl2,h
A(major)
CH3
(1) (2) 80. 2, 3-Dimethylbutane
Br2,h
B(major)

CH3 CH2 Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’, if they are monohalo derivatives
(3) (4)
(1) H3C – CH – CH – CH2Cl and
75. Non superimposability of a compound on its mirror CH3 CH3
image is the necessary and sufficient condition for Br
optical activity. Which of the following compound will
H3C – C – CH – CH3
be optically active?
CH3 CH3
(1) Pentan-3-ol (2) Butan-2-ol
(3) Cyclohexanol (4) Chloroform Cl Br

76. Consider the following compounds (2) H3C – C – CH – CH3 and H3C – C – CH – CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
Cl Cl Cl
(3) H3C – CH – CH – CH2Cl and
I. H2C – CH2 II. H3C – C – Cl
CH3 CH3
H
H3C – CH – CH – CH2 – Br
Select the correct statements CH3 CH3
(1) I and II are isomers to each other Cl
(2) I and II are optically active (4) H3C – C – CH – CH3 and

(3) With strong base (NaNH2) both form same product CH3 CH3
H3C – CH – CH – CH2 – Br
(4) Both (1) & (3)
CH3 CH3
(8)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-14 (Code A)
81. Select the incorrect match Identify A and B
H3C CH3 OH
OC2H5 (1)
(1) CH2OH and CH

: 2-Ethoxy-1, 1-dimethylcyclo hexane OH

(2) CH2 – I and CH
(2) H3CO – CH2 – CH2 – OCH3: 1, 2-Dimethoxyethane
OH
OH (3) CH2OH and CH
I
(3) : Benzene-1, 2, 4-triol
(4) Reaction does not take place
OH
86. The alcohol which is more acidic than H2O is
OH
COOH (1) CH3OH (2) C2H5OH
(4) CH3

: 2-Hydroxycyclohexanecarboxylic acid (3) H3C – C – OH (4) All of these

ZnCl2
CH3
82. R – OH + HCl   R – Cl + H2O
87. Consider the following statements
In the above conversion, the catalyst ZnCl2 is not
required, if R – OH is I. m-Methoxyphenol is stronger acid than
p-methoxy phenol.
(1) CH3 – OH (2) CH3 – CH2 – OH
II. Mixture of conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 is
CH3 called Lucas reagent.
CH3
III. Ortho fluorophenol is more acidic than ortho
(3) H 3C CH (4) H3C C OH
chlorophenol.
OH CH3
Select the correct statement(s)
83. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Only III (2) II & III
OCH3
(3) I & II (4) I, II & III
(1) : Anisole 88. The compound which will give Reimer-Tiemann
reaction most easily is
CH3 OCH3 OH
OH
(2) : o-Cresol (1) (2)

OH CH3 NO2

(3) : p-Benzoquinone (3) (4)

OH 89. The ether which cannot be prepared by Williamson’s

OH synthesis is
OH (1) CH3 – CH2 – OCH3
(4) : Catechol
(2) O
84. C6H5OH + PCl5  A(major) + side products.
A can be O – CH3
(3)
(1) (C6H5)3P = O (2) (C6H5O)3P
(3) (C6H5O)3P = O (4) (C6H5)3P (4) C2H5 – O – CH2 – CH3

HI 90. Identify the group which is o, p-directing and

85. CH2 – O – CH (aqueous)
A + B. activating.
(1) – OCH3 (2) – Br
(3) – F (4) – CCl3

(9)
Test-14 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

BOTANY
91. Select correct labelling for given figure showing 96. Which one of the following diagrammatic
biome distribution w.r.t. annual temperature and representations of mammals is correct? [IL –
precipitation. Internal level and EL – External level]

A
IL IL
B (1) (2)

EL EL
C

D IL IL
(3) (4)

EL EL
(1) D – Desert
97. Match the column w.r.t. adaptation for temperature/
(2) C – Grassland H2O stress
(3) B – Temperate forest Column I Column II
(4) A – Coniferous forest
a. Kangaroo rat (i) Internal fat oxidation
92. Find out one w.r.t. levels of biological organisation
b. Opuntia (ii) Migrating temporarily to a
(1) Biome less stressful habitat
(2) Community c. Desert lizard (iii) Spines
(3) Species (iv) CAM pathway
(4) Population (1) a(i), b(iii, iv), c(ii)
93. Habitat of an organism includes (2) a(iii), b(ii, iv), c(i)
(1) Physico-chemical components
(3) a(i, ii), b(iii), c(iv)
(2) Biotic components
(4) a(i), b(ii, iv), c(iii)
(3) Biological components
98. The triangular shape of age pyramid represents
(4) More than one option is correct
(1) Degrowth of population
94. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. abiotic factor.
(2) Expanding population
(1) Temperature decreases progressively from poles
(3) Stable population
towards equator
(2) Less than 5 ppm of salinity in inland water (4) Declining population

(3) Light intensity and duration do not affect 99. Read the following statements:
reproduction activities (a) Under unlimited resource condition a population
(4) Sediment characteristics often determine the can show an exponential growth curve
type of benthic animals (b) Conformers can maintain internal homeostasis
95. Find the incorrect match only upto a limit of stressfull conditions

(1) Regulator – Aves (1) Only (b) is correct

(2) Conform – Majority of animals (2) Both (a) & (b) are incorrect

(3) Aestivation – Bears (3) Only (a) is correct

(4) Partial regulator – Few invertebrates (4) Both (a) & (b) are correct
(10)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-14 (Code A)
100. If in a pond 10 lotus plants were present last year 106. Type of interaction in which one of the species
and through reproduction 4 new plants are added remain unaffected is
and this time number of plants are 14 then calculate (1) Parasitism, Predation
the birth rate in this population.
(2) Commensalism, Mutualism
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2
(3) Amensalism, Commensalism
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.6
(4) Mutualism, Protocooperation
101. To overcome the altitude sickness which of the
following adaptations are showed by humans? 107. Gause’s principle is for
Nausea, Increasing RBC production, Increasing (1) Competition (2) Predation
breathing rate, Decreasing binding affinity of
(3) Parasitism (4) Mutualism
haemoglobin, heart palpitations
108. Which one of the following interactions between
(1) Two (2) Three species explain the conduit for energy transfer
(3) Four (4) Five across trophic levels?

102. In 1981, the r-value for human population in india (1) Mutualism
was (2) Competition
(1) 0.015 (2) 0.12 (3) Predation
(3) 0.205 (4) 0.0205 (4) Commensalism
103. Equation for Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is 109. Populations evolve to maximise their reproductive
fitness, also called Darwinism fitness. Choose
dN
(1)  (b  d)N correct option for this.
dt
(1) Breed once – Bamboo
dN ⎛K N⎞ (2) Breed many times – Salmon fish
(2)  rN ⎜ ⎟
dt ⎝ K ⎠
(3) Large progeny – Birds
dN ⎛K N⎞ (4) Small progeny – Oysters
(3)  rN ⎜ ⎟
dt ⎝ N ⎠ 110. Five closely related species of A living together
were able to avoid B and co-exist due to
dN ⎛ b  d ⎞ behavioural difference in their foraging activities.
(4) 
dt ⎜⎝ N ⎟⎠ (1) A – Barnacles, B – Competition
104. Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter (2) A – Warblers, B – Competition
ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. This is called (3) A – Flamingoes, B – Predation
(1) Bergman’s rule (4) A – Barnacles, B – Parasitism
(2) Rensch's rule 111. Read the following statements
(3) Jordan’s rule A. Tiger census in our national parks is often based
(4) Allen’s rule on pug marks and fecal pellets.

105. Select the correct statement B. Size of population for any species is not a static
parameter.
dN C. Percent cover or biomass cannot be a
(1) Equation  rN describes geometric growth
dt meaningful measure to know population density.
resulting in sigmoid curve
D. Population density is necessarily measured in
(2) Introduction of Abingdon tortoise resulted in numbers.
exclusion of goats from Galapagos island
(1) All statements are correct
(3) Predators help to maintain species diversity in a
community (2) All statements are incorrect

(4) Crow lays eggs in the nest of cuckoo and let (3) Only one statement is correct
the cuckoo incubate them (4) Two statements are incorrect
(11)
Test-14 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

112. “Only one species benefits and the interaction is 119. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. predator.
detrimental to the other species” (1) Sparrow eating any seed is not a predator
How many of the given population interaction may (2) They keep prey population under control
explain this statement? (3) In nature they are ‘Prudent’

Mutualism, Commensalism, Predation, (4) Acting as ‘conduits’ for energy transfer across
trophic level
Parasitism, Ammensalism, Competition
120. Find correct statement w.r.t. competition.
(1) Six
(1) Flamingoes visiting South American lake and
(2) Four
resident fishes compete for space
(3) Three
(2) Best defined as a process in which the fitness
(4) Two of both species remains unchanged
113. Organism which can tolerate wide range in (3) Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became
temperature is extinct within a year after goats were introduced
on the island
(1) Eurythermal (2) Euryhaline
(4) In general, herbivores and plants appear to be
(3) Stenohaline (4) Stenothermal more adversely affected by competition than
carnivores
114. An individual differs from a population in
121. How many statements are correct for parasitism?
(1) Presence of natality
a. Parasitism has evolved in so many taxonomic
(2) Absence of sex ratio and birth rate groups from plants to higher vertebrates.
(3) Presence of vital index b. Parasites cannot evolve to be host specific.

(4) Absence of interactions with its biotic and abiotic c. Majority of the parasites do not harm the host.
environment d. Life cycles of endoparasites are more complex.
115. A species having a wide range of distribution has a (1) Two (2) Three
number of genetically adapted populations called
(3) Four (4) One
(1) Ecotypes (2) Ecocline
122. The close association of cattle egret and grazing
(3) Ecophenes (4) Ecads
cattle is an example of
116. Which of the given age pyramid reflects a stable
human population? (1) Amensalism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism
(1) (2)
(4) Predation
123. Select the one which is different from others while
showing mutualism?
(3) (4) (1) Lichen
(2) Mycorrhizae
117. “Convolvulus arvensis inhibits the growth of wheat.”
(3) Cyanobacteria in coralloid root
Interaction between these species is known as
(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism (4) Crocodile and plover
(3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism 124. Vertical distribution of different species occupying
118. Which of the following population interactions can be different levels is called
intraspecific? (1) Stratification
(1) Parasitism (2) Scarification
(2) Amensalism
(3) Succession
(3) Competition
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) Mutualism

(12)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-14 (Code A)
125. Mark the odd one w.r.t. characteristics which 131. A person is suffering with altitude sickness, his body
determine the percolation and water holding capacity compensates low oxygen availability by
of the soils.
(1) Internal oxidation of fat
(1) Soil composition (2) Bask in sun
(2) Grain size (3) Decreasing the binding affinity of haemoglobin
(3) Aggregation with oxygen
(4) Decreasing breathing rate
(4) Light intensity
132. Choose incorrect option for, tropical deciduous
126. If 10 individuals in a laboratory population of 100
forest of India
fruitflies died during a specified time interval, say a
week, then the death rate will be (1) Mean annual temperature in the range of
22 – 32ºC
(1) 1 individual per fruitfly per week
(2) Common plants found here are Pine, Cypress
(2) 9 individuals per fruitfly per week and Tendu
(3) 0.1 individual per fruitfly per week (3) Mean annual rainfall is 900 – 1600 mm
(4) 6 individuals per fruitfly per week (4) Sal, teak and khair constitute important flora
127. If a new habitat is just being colonised, then which 133. Salt concentration measured as salinity in parts per
of the following process contributes more thousand for sea water is
significantly to population growth than birth rates?
(1) >100
(1) Birth rate
(2) 5
(2) Immigration
(3) Death rate (3) 30 – 35

(4) Emigration (4) 3.5

128. Ecology is basically concerned with ________ levels 134. Choose correct option.
of biological organisation.
A : Productivity and distribution of plants is heavily
(1) Two (2) Four dependent on water.

(3) Six (4) Eight B : For aquatic organisms quantity of water is more
important than quality.
129. Next to A , B is the most important factor
C : Majority of organisms are euryhaline.
influencing the life of organisms.
A B C
(1) A – Temperature, B – Water
(1) F F T
(2) A – Light, B – Water
(2) T F T
(3) A – Temperature, B – Light
(4) A – Light, B – Soil (3) T F F

130. Plants have evolved various defenses to lessen the (4) F T F

impact of predation by herbivores. Choose the
135. Which of the following organisms enter stage of
correct option for the defense measures in the given
suspended development during unfavourable
below plants. Where M-Morphological, C - Chemical,
A - Anatomical, P - Physiological conditions?

Acacia Cactus Calotropis (1) Bacteria and fungi

(1) P P M (2) Higher plants
(2) A M C
(3) Algae
(3) P C C
(4) M M C (4) Zooplanktons and insects

(13)
Test-14 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following option includes pair of disease 142. Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate
with causative agent belonging to same category? items (vector/pathogen/diagnostic test/treatment) in
(1) Typhoid and Tuberculosis Column II

(2) Ringworm and AIDS Column-I Column-II

a. Syphilis (i) Xenopsylla
(3) Common cold and Amoebiasis
b. Cholera (ii) Widal test
(4) Chikungunya and Enteric fever
137. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus c. Plague (iii) Oral rehydration therapy
and transmitted through a bite of infected mosquito? d. Typhoid (iv) Treponema pallidum
(1) Plague (2) Filariasis (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Dengue (4) Diphtheria (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
138. Suspension of attenuated pathogen that stimulates (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
antibody formation is (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), (d)(iv)
(1) Antitoxin (2) Vaccine
143. Where will you look for gametes of malarial parasite?
(3) Antibiotic (4) Serum
(1) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from
139. Which of the following options gives the correct malaria
match w.r.t. the disease, its causative organism and (2) Saliva of infected female mosquito
mode of infection?
(3) Salivary glands of freshly moulted infected female
Disease Causative Mode of infection
mosquito
Organism
(1) Pneumonia Haemophilus Vector borne (4) Gut of infected female mosquito that can act as
influenzae vector for malaria parasite
(2) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of female 144. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that
vivax Culex mosquito (1) The causative agent for common cold is bacteria
(3) Amoebiasis Entamoeba Faeco-oral route and while for pneumonia is virus
histolytica
(2) Common cold affects upper respiratory tract
(4) Ascariasis Filarial worm With infected while in pneumonia lower respiratory tract
food and water including lungs can be infected
140. Physiological barriers prevent microbial growth in our (3) A nutritional deficiency can lead to cold while
human body include all, except pneumonia is an infectious disease
(a) Tears (4) There is no vaccine available to prevent either of
(b) Skin the two diseases
(c) Interferons 145. Which of the following events are not associated with
the phase/cycle of malarial parasite in man?
(d) Saliva
(1) Entry of parasite into hepatocytes
(e) Acid in stomach
(2) Formation of motile zygote
(f) Epithelium of urinogenital tract
(3) Formation of gametocytes
(1) a, b & f (2) a, d & e
(4) Erythrocytic schizogony
(3) c, e & f (4) b, c & f
146. Compare the statements A and B
141. The pathogen Epidermophyton responsible for
ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same A. Houseflies act as mechanical carriers for
kingdom of organisms as that of Salmonella typhi and serve to transmit the
(1) Wuchereria, a roundworm parasite from faeces of infected person to food
and food products.
(2) Entamoeba, a protozoan
B. Patient infected with Salmonella typhi complains
(3) Mucor, a mould
of sustained high fever, muscular pain,
(4) Taenia, a tapeworm constipation and intestinal blockage.

(14)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-14 (Code A)
Select the correct description (1) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(1) Statement A is correct but B is wrong (2) Naturally acquired active immunity
(2) Statement A is wrong but B is correct (3) Artificially acquired active immunity
(3) Both statements A and B are wrong (4) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(4) Both statements A and B are correct 153. Mucus coating of the epithelium lining of the
respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts
147. A type of immune response in body is called as
helps in trapping microbes entering our body. This
humoral immune response because
coating belongs to which barrier of innate immunity?
(1) It is conferred by antibodies found in blood and
(1) Physical (2) Cytokine
body fluids
(3) Physiological (4) Cellular
(2) It provides strong immunity and a healthy person
is humourous 154. Which of the following acts as a filter of the blood
by trapping blood borne micro-organisms and also
(3) It is governed by five types of antibodies and has a large reservoir of erythrocytes?
cytotoxic cells
(1) Bone marrow (2) Thymus
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Spleen (4) Tonsils
148. The antibodies that can bind largest number of
155. The ‘good humor’ hypothesis of health was disproved
antigens is ________ while the antibody that is
by
smallest in size is ________.
(1) Hippocrates (2) William Harvey
Choose the option that correctly fills the blanks
(3) Louis Pasteur (4) Edward Jenner
(1) IgA, IgM
156. Characteristic of anamnestic response is
(2) IgM, IgA
(1) Highly intensified strong response therefore high
(3) IgG, IgD titre of antibodies
(4) IgM, IgG (2) IgM is dominant antibody
149. Haemozoin is a toxic substance released upon (3) Low intensity and takes longer time to establish
which of the following events? immunity
(1) Rupture of liver cells (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) Rupture of cells of gut epithelium 157. Allergic reaction of upper respiratory tract due to
(3) Rupture of RBCs pollen is
(4) Rupture of cells of salivary glands (1) Hay fever
150. Read the symptoms given below and identify the (2) Anaphylaxis
disease. (3) Eczema
“Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, stools with (4) Urticaria
excess mucous and blood clots”
158. Examples of diseases related to life style include all,
(1) Ascariasis except
(2) Amoebic dysentry (1) Liver cirrhosis in alcoholics
(3) Chikungunya (2) Emphysema in chronic smoker
(4) Filariasis (3) Obesity due to lack of exercise

151. Widespread infection of which disease can’t be (4) Pneumonia due to infected comb and clothes
controlled by use of larvivorous fish like Gambusia? 159. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
causative agent of malignant malaria?
(1) Malaria (2) Filarial worm
(1) Sexual phase of parasite occurs in female
(3) Ringworm (4) Dengue Anopheles
152. Edward Jenner infected James Phipps with pustules (2) This protozoan lacks locomotory organelles
of cowpox. After 2 months, he infected him with
(3) Parasite responsible is Plasmodium malariae
small pox but the boy did not suffer from the
disease. This can be explained by (4) Both (2) & (3) are incorrect
(15)
Test-14 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
160. Which of the following disease is completely 167. Symptoms of allergy can be readily reduced by the
eradicated by the use of vaccine and immunisation use of all, except
programmes? (1) Histamine (2) Cortisol
(1) Small pox (2) Polio (3) Adrenaline (4) Anti-histamine
(3) Dracunculosis (4) Plague 168. Which of the following cells is not a part of cellular
161. The name Mary Mallon is a classic case in medicine. barriers considered under inborn, non-specific
She was a cook associated with spreading a immunity?
bacterial disease. Presence of pathogen causing this (1) Plasma cell
disease is confirmed by
(2) Natural killer cell
(1) Gravidex test (2) Widal test (3) Kupffer cell
(3) Wasserman test (4) Mantoux test (4) Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes
162. Similarities between diseases such as malaria and 169. Select the odd one out w.r.t. prevention of microbial
filariasis include growth through physiological barriers
(1) Transmission by insect vectors (1) Mucus coating the respiratory passage
(2) Caused by protozoan parasites (2) Saliva in mouth
(3) Organs affected include blood vessels (3) Tears from eyes
(4) All of these (4) Acid in stomach
163. A patient is diagnosed with internal bleeding, 170. Which of the following is not a mediator of
muscular pain, fever, anemia, blockage of intestinal anaphylactic shock/not involved in hay fever?
passage. He is most likely suffering from (1) Mast cells (2) Basophils
(1) Filariasis (3) Interferons (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Amoebiasis 171. Cells that play a key role in graft rejection after
organ transplant are
(3) Ascariasis
(1) T cytotoxic cell
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) T cells with CD8 receptor
164. Which of the following set of diseases are spread by
bite of an arthropod only? (3) B cells
(1) Malaria and typhoid (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Amoebic dysentry and cholera 172. Which of the following antibody present in colostrum
and provide passive immunity to infant?
(3) Diphtheria and tetanus
(1) IgM + IgG (2) IgG, IgA
(4) Dengue and chikungunya
(3) IgA only (4) IgG only
165. An antibody molecule is represented as H2L2. This
implies that 173. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. interferons

(1) Each antibody has four antigen binding sites (1) Synthesized by uninfected host cells that are
susceptible to viral infection
(2) Each antibody molecule has four peptide chains,
two small called light chains and two longer (2) Glycoproteins that prevent further viral infection
called heavy chains (3) -interferons are secreted by virus infected cells
(3) There are 2 interchain disulphide bonds (4) They are categorised under cytokine barrier of
(4) There are 2 intrachain disulphide bonds innate immunity

166. Antibody molecule is Y shaped. The two tips of this 174. Antitoxin administered by Emil von Behring in a girl
Y shaped molecule bind to antigen through which dying of C. diphtheriae infection was derived from or
type of interaction/bond? consisted of

(1) Non-covalent interaction (1) Antibodies against diphtheria toxin

(2) Disulfide bonds (2) Corynebacterium

(3) Covalent interaction (3) Toxoid from bacteria

(4) More than one option is correct (4) All of these

(16)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-14 (Code A)
175. Select the disease which is not an auto-immune (1) MMR – Mumps and German measles
disorder.
(2) DPT – Whooping cough and tuberculosis
(1) Myasthenia gravis
(3) BCG – Koch’s disease
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) OPV – Salk’s vaccine against polio (an oral
(3) IDDM vaccine)
(4) Muscular dystrophy 179. Read the statements A & B given below
176. Reduction in size of which organ is seen with A : Common cold is characterised by nasal
ageing, thus leading to weakening of immune system congestion and discharge, sore throat, cough,
in old age? headache etc
(1) Peyer's patch
B : Antibacterial drugs help to overcome this
(2) Appendix disease within 2 days if combated in early stage.
(3) Tonsils Choose the correct option.
(4) Thymus (1) Statement A is incorrect while B is correct
177. Bronchoconstriction of smooth muscles is witnessed (2) Statement B is incorrect while A is correct
by asthma patients. It is triggered due to release of
___X and treated by Y _. (3) Statements B & A are incorrect

X Y (4) Statements B & A are correct

(1) Histamine Aldosterone 180. Which of the following is the site for fertilisation and
development of zygote of malarial parasite?
(2) Antihistamine Epinephrine
(3) Antihistamine Prednisolone (1) Human gut

(4) Histamine Adrenalin (2) Human hepatocytes

178. Which of the following vaccine is wrongly matched (3) Mosquito’s gut
w.r.t. disease? (4) Human erythrocytes

  

(17)
Test-14 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

01/07/2015
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 14 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (2) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (2)
2. (4) 38. (3) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (1)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (2) 111. (4) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (4) 148. (4)
5. (4) 41. (4) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (4) 42. (2) 78. (3) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (1) 151. (3)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (3)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (1) 117. (2) 153. (1)
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (1) 47. (3) 83. (3) 119. (1) 155. (2)
12. (2) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (1)
13. (1) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (1)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (1) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (1) 51. (1) 87. (3) 123. (4) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (1) 160. (1)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (2) 125. (4) 161. (2)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (1) 126. (3) 162. (1)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (2) 163. (3)
20. (1) 56. (2) 92. (3) 128. (2) 164. (4)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (2)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (4) 166. (1)
23. (3) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (1)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (1) 132. (2) 168. (1)
25. (1) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (3) 169. (1)
26. (2) 62. (2) 98. (2) 134. (3) 170. (3)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (3) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (3) 65. (1) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (1)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (2) 103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (4)
32. (3) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (1) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (4)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (4)
35. (3) 71. (1) 107. (1) 143. (4) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (2) 180. (3)

(18)
 01/07/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 14 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

[for NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS

1. Answer (4)

 200   t
E V 4
∵ i
R
1
t  .125  102
E V 100  25 8
R =
i 10
 1.25  10 3 s
75 7. Answer (1)
= = 7.5 
10
⎛⎞ X  XL
2. Answer (4) ∵ tan ⎜ ⎟  3  C
⎝3⎠ R
ip N2 200 4 8. Answer (2)
∵   
is N1 150 3
9. Answer (1)
3. Answer (1) 10. Answer (2)
4. Answer (3)
1
1 1 1
  C  0 0
∵ Z X L XC ∵  
v 1

1 1 1 1
  
Z 3 6 6
11. Answer (1)
Z = 6 ohm
I
5. Answer (4) ∵ P
C
6. Answer (4) 12. Answer (2)
V 13. Answer (1)
∵ i
Z 14. Answer (3)
irms  i  10 sin(200 t ) 15. Answer (1)

1 ∵ z  R 2  XC2
 sin(200t )
2
(1)
16. Answer (1) 1 ⎛ ⎞
 sin ⎜ 100t1  ⎟
No power dissipation in pure capacitor circuit. 2 ⎝ 6⎠
17. Answer (2) 1
t1  s
18. Answer (3) 1200
19. Answer (3) 30. Answer (1)
20. Answer (1) 1⎛ T⎞
T  ⎟ i0
21. Answer (2) 2 ⎜⎝ 2⎠
imean 
T
1
∵ 0  31. Answer (3)
LC
32. Answer (3)
22. Answer (4)
1 33. Answer (2)
For maximum power X L  XC ⇒ C  2
L 2  1
23. Answer (3) Wattless comp. = Irms sin  sin 
2 6 2
24. Answer (2)
34. Answer (2)
25. Answer (1)
35. Answer (3)
Q0 ⎛1 ⎞
∵ Energy is same if Q = P  ⎜ 0E02 ⎟ (4r 2 )C
2 ⎝2 ⎠
36. Answer (3)
Q0
  Q0 cos(t ) 37. Answer (2)
2
38. Answer (3)
T 39. Answer (1)
t
8 40. Answer (2)
26. Answer (2) 41. Answer (4)
42. Answer (2)
∵ i2 = (iL – iC)2 + iR2
43. Answer (2)
i = 0.5 amp.
xL  xC
tan  
27. Answer (3) R
28. Answer (4) 44. Answer (2)
29. Answer (3) 45. Answer (3)

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2) 52. Answer (4)
Carbon-oxygen bond in phenol has a partial double
bond character and is difficult to break being stronger 53. Answer (1)
than a single bond. 54. Answer (3)
47. Answer (3)
55. Answer (2)
48. Answer (4)
In the presence of organic peroxide, HBr add to 56. Answer (2)
olefinic bond free radically.
57. Answer (2)
49. Answer (4)
Ethers are synthesised by williamson's synthesis
This is done in the presence of metallic fluorides
known as swarts reaction. and it follows SN2 path.
50. Answer (3) 58. Answer (2)
51. Answer (1)
O-nitrophenol is major, due to intramolecular
Lesser the steric hindrance more will be reactivity
towards SN2. H-bonding.
(2)
59. Answer (1) NH2 N2+Cl– Cl

Phenols pKa NaNO2 + HCl Cu

Phenols 10.0 O°C Hcl

m-nitrophenol 8.35 71. Answer (1)

o-nitrophenol 7.2 72. Answer (2)
p-nitrophenol 7.1
73. Answer (2)
60. Answer (2) 74. Answer (2)
In the electrophilic addition of H2O in acidic medium 75. Answer (2)
lp e(–). of H 2O attacks at the positively charged
76. Answer (4)
carbon.
77. Answer (1)
61. Answer (1)
78. Answer (3)
62. Answer (2)
79. Answer (4)
63. Answer (3)
(CH3)3C – CH2Br has no -H atom, so it cannot
C2H5 C2H5 C2H5 CH3 undergo E 2 , it will show E 1 via formation of
OH CH3 carbocation and its rearrangement.
; ; ; ; 80. Answer (1)
OH OH
OH 81. Answer (1)
CH3 CH3 CH3 82. Answer (4)
CH3 OH 3° R – OH is most reactive due to stable
; ; ; carbocation formation.
CH3 CH3
83. Answer (3)
OH OH
CH3 CH3 HO OH is hydroquinone while
OH
; p-benzoquinone is O O
OH CH3
CH3 84. Answer (3)
64. Answer (3) In phenol C – O bond has double bond character.
65. Answer (1) 85. Answer (3)
66. Answer (2) 86. Answer (1)
67. Answer (2) 87. Answer (3)

68. Answer (3) 88. Answer (2)

89. Answer (2)
69. Answer (1)
90. Answer (1)
70. Answer (3)

BOTANY
91. Answer (3) 99. Answer (3)
92. Answer (3) Regulator can maintain homeostatis always.
93. Answer (4) 100. Answer (1)
94. Answer (4) 4
Birth rate  100  0.4
Salinity inland water 5 ppt (Parts per thousand) 10
95. Answer (3) 101. Answer (2)

96. Answer (1) 102. Answer (4)

97. Answer (1) 103. Answer (2)

98. Answer (2) 104. Answer (4)

(3)
105. Answer (3) 120. Answer (4)
106. Answer (3) 121. Answer (1)
Commensalism +, 0 122. Answer (2)
Ammensalism –, 0 123. Answer (4)
107. Answer (1) 124. Answer (1)
108. Answer (3) 125. Answer (4)
109. Answer (1) 126. Answer (3)
110. Answer (2) 127. Answer (2)
111. Answer (4) 128. Answer (2)
112. Answer (4) 129. Answer (1)
Parasitism, Predation 130. Answer (4)
113. Answer (1) 131. Answer (3)
114. Answer (2) 132. Answer (2)
115. Answer (1) Pine, cypress in temperate forests.
116. Answer (3) 133. Answer (3)
117. Answer (2)
134. Answer (3)
118. Answer (3)
135. Answer (4)
119. Answer (1)

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (1) 147. Answer (1)
Bacterial disease (Typhoid and Tuberculosis) 148. Answer (4)
137. Answer (3) IgM – Pentameric form
Caused by Dengue virus; spread by Culex (Female) IgG – Smallest and most abundant
138. Answer (2) 149. Answer (3)
Antitoxin and serum contain antibodies The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a
139. Answer (3) toxic substance haemozoin.
Ascariasis – Ascaris 150. Answer (2)
Malaria transmitted by the bite of infected – Female Patient suffering from amoebiasis.
Anopheles 151. Answer (3)
140. Answer (4) Fungal infection acquired from soil, towels of infected
141. Answer (3) person.
Mucor and Epidermophyton are fungi 152. Answer (3)
142. Answer (1) Principle of active vaccination
143. Answer (4) 153. Answer (1)
Sporozoites are present in salivary glands of infected Skin and mucus form first line of defense
female mosquito. 154. Answer (3)
144. Answer (2) Spleen is also called as graveyard of dead
Short term vaccine available for pneumonia erythrocytes.
(Hib vaccine) and bacterial infections can cause 155. Answer (2)
pneumonia.
156. Answer (1)
145. Answer (2)
157. Answer (1)
Zygote develops in gut of mosquito.
Urticaria and eczema are skin allergies.
146. Answer (1)
158. Answer (4)
Muscular pain and intestinal blockage seen in
Droplet infection spreads pneumonia.
Ascariasis.
(4)
159. Answer (3) 170. Answer (3)
P. falciparum, cause malignant malaria. Interferons : antiviral response.
160. Answer (1) 171. Answer (4)
161. Answer (2) 172. Answer (3)
162. Answer (1)
Colostrum has IgA.
163. Answer (3)
173. Answer (1)
Ascariasis is common round worm infection.
174. Answer (1)
164. Answer (4)
Passive immunity, therefore preformed antibodies
Aedes mosquito. given.
165. Answer (2) 175. Answer (4)
2 light and 2 heavy chains. 176. Answer (4)
166. Answer (1) 177. Answer (4)

167. Answer (1) 178. Answer (4)

168. Answer (1) Sabin's vaccine is oral polio vaccine.

179. Answer (2)
B cells are the parts of humoral immunity.
169. Answer (1) Common cold is a viral disease.

Mucus : Physical barrier. 180. Answer (3)

  

(5)