12/07/2022 CODE-B

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 12 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Answers

1. (1) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (1) 161. (3)

2. (1) 42. (1) 82. (3) 122. (2) 162. (3)
3. (2) 43. (2) 83. (1) 123. (4) 163. (3)
4. (4) 44. (4) 84. (4) 124. (3) 164. (2)
5. (2) 45. (4) 85. (3) 125. (1) 165. (2)
6. (1) 46. (2) 86. (3) 126. (4) 166. (3)
7. (4) 47. (1) 87. (1) 127. (4) 167. (4)
8. (1) 48. (4) 88. (4) 128. (3) 168. (2)
9. (1) 49. (2) 89. (3) 129. (1) 169. (3)
10. (4) 50. (1) 90. (1) 130. (1) 170. (2)
11. (3) 51. (2) 91. (2) 131. (2) 171. (3)
12. (2) 52. (4) 92. (3) 132. (2) 172. (3)
13. (2) 53. (4) 93. (4) 133. (4) 173. (3)
14. (4) 54. (3) 94. (4) 134. (1) 174. (1)
15. (4) 55. (2) 95. (3) 135. (2) 175. (2)
16. (2) 56. (4) 96. (2) 136. (2) 176. (1)
17. (2) 57. (1) 97. (4) 137. (3) 177. (4)
18. (2) 58. (3) 98. (2) 138. (2) 178. (2)
19. (2) 59. (4) 99. (3) 139. (3) 179. (4)
20. (3) 60. (3) 100. (3) 140. (1) 180. (4)
21. (2) 61. (1) 101. (3) 141. (3) 181. (4)
22. (4) 62. (4) 102. (2) 142. (3) 182. (2)
23. (2) 63. (3) 103. (4) 143. (4) 183. (1)
24. (2) 64. (4) 104. (2) 144. (2) 184. (4)
25. (2) 65. (3) 105. (4) 145. (1) 185. (3)
26. (1) 66. (3) 106. (4) 146. (1) 186. (2)
27. (1) 67. (1) 107. (3) 147. (2) 187. (2)
28. (1) 68. (4) 108. (2) 148. (3) 188. (2)
29. (4) 69. (3) 109. (3) 149. (4) 189. (3)
30. (3) 70. (2) 110. (3) 150. (3) 190. (1)
31. (4) 71. (1) 111. (3) 151. (3) 191. (2)
32. (1) 72. (3) 112. (3) 152. (2) 192. (3)
33. (3) 73. (1) 113. (3) 153. (4) 193. (2)
34. (4) 74. (1) 114. (4) 154. (3) 194. (4)
35. (2) 75. (3) 115. (1) 155. (2) 195. (1)
36. (1) 76. (2) 116. (3) 156. (3) 196. (3)
37. (2) 77. (2) 117. (4) 157. (3) 197. (2)
38. (2) 78. (2) 118. (2) 158. (3) 198. (4)
39. (4) 79. (3) 119. (2) 159. (2) 199. (1)
40. (4) 80. (3) 120. (1) 160. (2) 200. (4)

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 12/07/2022 CODE-B

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 12 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION - A i.e. d = 2 | feff |

1. Answer (1)
Now,
1 –2 1 –2 1
= + = +
feff fl fm 10 
feff = –5 cm
d = 2 × 5 = 10 cm
Given i 22  5 = 20 5. Answer (2)
i2 = 2 A D 25
m= = =5
i1 fe 5
5 1
= =
i2 10 2 6. Answer (1)
i1 = 1A From doppler’s shift
 v rad
P4 = i12  4 = 12  4 = 4 J/s =
 c
Heat generated through 4  resistor is equal to When source moves away from observer, the
H=4×1=4J frequency measured will be smaller and
2. Answer (1) wavelength will be longer. This is called red shift.
In series resonance circuit, both L and C are 7. Answer (4)
present in the circuit. From voltage divider rule
At resonance VL and VC have 180° phase 4
difference and total source voltage appears VR =  12 = 5.33 V
2 4+5
across R.
3. Answer (2) Since Vz  VR  zener diode will remain off
2

Intensity of EM wave is given by I = 0 Erms

2
c And V0 = VR = 5.33 V
2

I = 8.85 × 10–12 × 4 × 104 × 3 × 108 8. Answer (1)

= 106.2 W/m2 hc
4. Answer (4) EP =

For image to be coincide with object, it should be
–13.6  13.6 
placed on centre of curvature of the effective EP = – – = 12.75 eV
mirror. 16  1 

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

12400 16. Answer (2)

= Å
12.75
 = 972.54 Å
9. Answer (1)
1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 decay/s
or 1 curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq
10. Answer (4) When velocity is perpendicular to initial velocity

vcos30° = ucos60°
A *
Z
X ⎯⎯ → ZA X
3 1
v = 40 
− 2 2
A
Z
X ⎯⎯⎯
→ A
Y
Z +1
40
 + v= m/ s
A
Z
X ⎯⎯⎯→ Z –1
A
Y 3
11. Answer (3) 17. Answer (2)
2K  ˆ Resultant force F = Kt2 – mg
Ecentre =
R
( )
–j k 2
a= t − g
12. Answer (2) m
It is equation of parabola
15 − 0.3 14.7
I= = 18. Answer (2)
(10 + 20) 30
Work done by resultant force = Change in
= 0.49 A kinetic energy
13. Answer (2) v =a x
 2  v2 = a2x
y = 10 sin  x  cos(100t )
 3  dv a2
2v = v
  = 3 cm and f = 50 Hz dt 2
Now separation between two adjacent antinodes v a2 t

is
 0 dv = 2 0 dt
2
a2
 3 v= t
 d= = cm 2
2 2
1
14. Answer (4) K = ma 4t 2
8
1 e 2 r Fr 3 M L T  L   0
−2 3
19. Answer (2)
= = = M L T 0 A 0 
0 hc E L  M L T 
 2 −2 
L2
K.E =
2l
15. Answer (4)
20. Answer (3)
U
% loss of energy =  100% V = f
U 21. Answer (2)

C1C2
(V − V2 )2
U 2(C1 + C2 ) 1
 100% =  100%
U 1 2
CV
2 1
28 2 Due to repulsion, radius increases
= V 22. Answer (4)
2  10  100%
1 Force on side PR = iBL cos30°
 2 V 2
2 3
= iBL
= 80% 2

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Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

23. Answer (2) 31. Answer (4)

1 1 1 v  r2
= RZ 2  2 − 2 
 2 3   1  r 
2

 = 
1 1 1 9 R
= RZ 2  2 − 2 
x 1 2  R = 3r
3
5 M R
= 
x 36 5 m r 
 = =
 3 27 32. Answer (1)
4
1.2 2
Actual efficiency 1 = =
5 4.2 7
 x=
27 T2 3
Theoretical efficiency 2 = 1 − =
24. Answer (2) T1 8
v1v 2 20  20 16
t= = =2 s Required ratio =
g 10 21
x = 40 × 2 = 80 m. 33. Answer (3)

25. Answer (2) 3RT

v rms =
M
(60 − 15 − 10 − 15)
a= = 4 m/s2 34. Answer (4)
2+3
I
60 – T – 15 = 3 × 4 m = = 5000
H
 T = 33 N
r = 1 + m
26. Answer (1)
= 5001
2g 2  10 35. Answer (2)
a= = = 6.6 m/s2
3 3 230 – (112 + 106) = 12 MeV
a 100
= = rad/s2
R 3 SECTION - B
27. Answer (1) 36. Answer (1)
Vx = 40 volt
Vy = 32 volt
 Vx – Vy = 8 volt
28. Answer (1)
M = L1L2 GM
VP1 = −
R 5
di (6  10−3 )(4)
EMF = M = = 12 volt GM
dt 2  10−3 VP2 = −
R 2
29. Answer (4)
1
Maximum tension in string T = m(g + a) −m[VP2 − VP1 ] = mv 2
2
= 1000 (9.8 + 2.76)
= 12.56 × 103 N (
= VP1 − VP2 ) 1
m = mv 2
2
T 12.56  103 2GM  2
B.S = = = 1.44  109 v=  1 − 
r 5 
A 2
R 2
D = 2r = 3.33 mm 37. Answer (2)
30. Answer (3) dV
Ex = − = −[6 − 8y 2 ] i
Cylinder is in unstable equilibrium when vertical dx

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

dV 45. Answer (4)

Ey = − = −[ −16 xy − 8 + 6z] j
dy dx
v A = A = 3 + 2t
dV dt
Ez = − = −[6 y − 8z] k
dy dxB
vB = = 4t – 1
at origin E = − 6iˆ + 8 jˆ + 0kˆ dt
then vA = vB
3 + 2t = 4t – 1
N
| E |= 10 4 = 2t
C
t=2s
F = qE = 20 N 46. Answer (2)
38. Answer (2)
2uy
10 T =
i= =1A g
10
2u y
 P = i2R = 12 × 10 = 10 W 10 =
39. Answer (4) g
(x + 1)520 = (x)780 uy2
2
1  uy  1 2
520 H= =   g = ( 5 )  10
x= =2 2g 2  g  2
260
= 125 m
40. Answer (4)
47. Answer (1)
dQ = mcdt
dQ = 10 × 0.3t2 dt a=
( 5 – 3 – 2k ) g
10 (5 + 3 + 2)
Q = 3  t 2dt
0 1 × 10 = (2 – 2k)10
= 1000 cal then k = 0.5
41. Answer (3) 48. Answer (4)

mv 2
R T − mg cos 60 =
T = 2 l
g
v2 = 2gl (1 – cos60°)
42. Answer (1)
vf = 5 + (area under a - t) = –2.5 m/s v2 = gl
43. Answer (2) mg
5 kg block is slipping T = + mg
2
(F − F ) − 5g 
a= 1 2 = 3 m/s2 3
T = mg
5 2
 contact force = 10 + 3 × 2 = 16 N 49. Answer (2)
44. Answer (4)
v = gt
y = A + A ·B = A + A + B ( )
g
 100 =
v
 100 +
t
 100 (
= A+ A +B )
g v t
= 1+ B
g
 100 = 2 + 2 = 4% =1
g

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Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

50. Answer (1)  2k 

a = – x
Total energy of SHM is constant. At any instant  3m 
1 2 1 2 1 2k
E= kx + I  + mv 2  2 =
2 2 2 3m
1 2 3 2k
E= kx + mv 2 =
2 4 3m
dE 1 dx 3 dv  1 2  300 10
= k ·2x + m ·2v f = = =
dt 2 dt 4 dt 2 2 3  2 2
3 5
0 = kxv + mav f = Hz
2 

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 60. Answer (3)
51. Answer (2) For isoelectronic species, size increases with
decrease in atomic numbers.
61. Answer (1)
gives +ve Fehling’s test. 
LiNO3 ⎯⎯ → Li2O + NO2 + O2
52. Answer (4)
62. Answer (4)
In gaseous state, 3° amine is strongly basic.
Kolbe electrolysis used to prepare hydrocarbons
53. Answer (4)
only.
Gold is a negatively charged sol. So AlCl3 is most 63. Answer (3)
effective.
54. Answer (3)
Br attach to benzene ring will not participate in SN
reaction due to double bond character between C-
Br bond.
55. Answer (2)
Bakelite is a phenol formaldehyde resin.
56. Answer (4)
CO + N2 is producer gas.
57. Answer (1)
Calgon is chemically sodium 64. Answer (4)
hexametaphosphate. Aldehydes without -hydrogens undergo
58. Answer (3) cannizzaro reaction.
65. Answer (3)

(NH4 )2 SO4 ⎯⎯ → NH3 (g)  + H2SO4
66. Answer (3)
6NaOH + 3Cl2 → 5 NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O.
67. Answer (1)
In pyrosilicate two units share one oxygen atom.
2, 3-Dimethyl pent-2-ene. 68. Answer (4)
59. Answer (4) Contact process is used to manufacture H2SO4.
Fructose contains ketonic group while glucose 69. Answer (3)
contains aldehydic group. Three metamers are possible

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

CH3 − O − CH2 − CH2 − CH3 , 80. Answer (3)

CH3 − O − CH − CH3 , 10
|  No. of moles = = 1/ 2
CH3 20
C2H5 − O − C2H5 NA
 No. of molecules =
70. Answer (2) 2
NA
At high pressure, PV = RT + Pb  No. of electrons = 10 
2
PV Pb
 = 1+ = 5 NA
RT RT
81. Answer (4)
Pb
Z=1+ For l = 2,
RT
71. Answer (1) Orbital angular momentum = l(l + 1)

3 3 = 2(2 + 1)
E= RT = PV
2 2
= 6
2E 2E
P= = [ V = 1 L] For l = 3,
3V 3
72. Answer (3) Orbital angular momentum = 3(3 + 1)
Osmosis takes place from B to A as the osmotic = 12
pressure of A is higher than B.
 Ratio = 6 : 12 = 1: 2
73. Answer (1)
82. Answer (3)
n-factor = 1
x 7x
74. Answer (1) Amount converted to product = x − =
8 8
Ratio of closed packed atoms to octahedral voids
is 1 : 1. 83. Answer (1)
75. Answer (3) Value of m = – l to + l
Since reference state of carbon is graphite 84. Answer (4)
therefore Hf of graphite is zero. PO H O+
CH3CONH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 5 → CH CN ⎯⎯⎯⎯
3
3 →
LiAlH
CH3 COOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯
4 → CH CH OH
3 2
76. Answer (2)
Heat liberated by the formation of 18 g H2O=36 kJ 85. Answer (3)
Intermediate is CCl2 in both the reactions.
36
Heat liberated by the formation of 1 g H2O = SECTION - B
18
86. Answer (3)
= 2 kJ.
77. Answer (2)
(2)2
As QC = = 1 as Qc > Kc
2 2 87. Answer (1)
So reactions will shift in the backward direction Pine oils, fatty acids and xanthates are used as
78. Answer (2) collectors in froth floatation.
88. Answer (4)
More negative EoSRP , more stronger is the
The order of oxidising power is based on the
reducing agent.
increasing stability of the lower species to which
79. Answer (3) they are reduced.
Due to very less probability of simultaneous 89. Answer (3)
collision of more than three reacting species at a
2.303 100
time, reaction with order greater than three are t99.9 = log ... (1)
rare. k 100 − 99.9

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Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022
–8 –2 2
2.303 100 10 = (S) (10 )
t99 = log ... (2)
k 100 − 99 S = 10–4 M
Using equations (1) & (2) 94. Answer (4)
t99.9 3  Un = 1, nil = 0 pent = 5.
=
t99 2  IUPAC name of element having Z = 105 is
90. Answer (1) Unnilpentium.
95. Answer (3)
Cysteine is Using Kohlrausch’s law
  
E (CH3COOH) = E (CH3COO)2Ca + E HCl –
91. Answer (2)

If S < 0 and H > 0 then G of the process will E CaCl2
be always positive at all temperature therefore
always be non spontaneous. =z+y–x
92. Answer (3) 96. Answer (2)
Maximum prescribed concentration of Fe in
Species Bond order Magnetic nature drinking water is 0.2 ppm
O2 2 Paramagnetic 97. Answer (4)
6Fe2+ + Cr2O72– + 14H+ → 6Fe3+ + 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
O2+ 2.5 Paramagnetic
 1 mol Cr2O72– can oxidise 6 mol Fe2+ ions
O2− 1.5 Paramagnetic
 2 mol Cr2O72– can oxidise 12 mol Fe2+ ions
98. Answer (2)
O22− 1 Diamagnetic

N2 3 Diamagnetic

N2− 2.5 Paramagnetic

C2 2 Diamagnetic

C2− 2.5 Paramagnetic

93. Answer (4)

99. Answer (3)
B(OH)2  B2+ + 2OH–
H2O has lone pairs therefore it is an electron rich
(i) – – 10–2 hydride.
(eq) – S 2S+10–2 100. Answer (3)
2+ – 2
Ksp = [B ] [OH ] B3N3H6 has structure similar of benzene therefore
=(S) (2S +10–2)2 [ 2S<<10–2  2S + 10–2  10–2] known as inorganic benzene.

BOTANY
SECTION - A 103. Answer (4)
101. Answer (3) • In telophase, nuclear envelope develops
Pili in bacteria is usually involved in partial transfer around the chromatin clusters at each pole
of DNA from one cell to another cell. forming two daughter nuclei.
102. Answer (2) • Chromosomes appear like a ball of wool in
• Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound prophase.
organelles. 104. Answer (2)
• Ribosomes are non-membrane bound
Museum is a place used for storing, preservation
organelles found in both eukaryotic as well as
prokaryotic cells and exhibition of both plants and animals.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

105. Answer (4) 116. Answer (3)

Consciousness is a defining property of all living Lac y gene in Lac operon codes for permease that
organisms. increases permeability of cell to -galactosides.
106. Answer (4) 117. Answer (4)
Glycolysis is also called EMP pathway. Saccharum barberi had low sugar content.
The pacemaker enzyme (PFK) in glycolysis Saccharum officinarum was originally grown in
catalyses the conversion of Fructose-6-phosphate south India.
to Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate, that is a rate 118. Answer (2)
limiting step of glycolysis. Pusa Sawani is resistant to shoot and fruit borer.
107. Answer (3) 119. Answer (2)
One molecule of GTP is formed during conversion Mortality is the number of deaths in the population
of succinyl CoA to succinic acid in Krebs’ cycle. during a given period.
108. Answer (2) 120. Answer (1)
Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in 12 years. Logistic growth describes a situation when
109. Answer (3) resources present in the environment are limiting.
Isogametes are produced in some algae and 121. Answer (1)
fungi. In competition and amensalism, none of the
110. Answer (3) interacting species are benefitted.
Pollen grains are surrounded by mucilaginous 122. Answer (2)
covering in flowers that are pollinated by water. Sequence of various stages in xerarch succession
is as:
111. Answer (3)
Genotype of plants which are homozygous for
both the traits in F2 generation w.r.t Mendelian
dihybrid cross:
1RRYY, 1rryy, 1RRyy, 1rrYY 123. Answer (4)
Therefore, among 16 individuals: 4 are Reservoir pool is earth’s crust or lithosphere for
homozygous for both the traits in F2 generation. phosphorous.
124. Answer (3)
4
= 100 25% Pyramid of energy is always upright.
16
125. Answer (1)
112. Answer (3)
Dobson unit (DU) measures thickness of ozone in
Parents with genotype IA IB and i i cannot produce a column from ground to top of atmosphere.
progeny with blood group ‘O’.
126. Answer (4)
DDT is found to be in highest concentration at top
consumer level or highest trophic level.
127. Answer (4)
If the pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
is applied to pure water or a solution, its water
113. Answer (3) potential increases.
Round seed and inflated pod are dominant traits. 128. Answer (3)
Therefore, they express in both homozygous as
well as heterozygous condition. Facilitated transport requires special membrane
proteins. It is ATP independent.
114. Answer (4)
129. Answer (1)
DNA ligase is employed during replication on
Mg2+ is an activator for both RuBisCO and
template with polarity 5→3 where discontinuous
PEPCase, both of which are critical enzymes
replication occurs.
involved in carbon fixation during photosynthesis.
115. Answer (1) 130. Answer (1)
During Griffith’s experiment:
• When S-strain injected into mice, mice died
• When S-strain (heat-killed) + R strain (live)
injected into mice, mice died.
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Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

131. Answer (2) Bolting in rosette plants is stimulated by

Dikaryophase is found in basidiomycetes and gibberellins
ascomycetes. 141. Answer (3)
132. Answer (2) In a typical angiospermic plant,
Keel is characteristic feature of Fabaceae family. Integument – diploid (2n)
133. Answer (4) Antipodal cell – haploid (n)
Thermoacidophiles are chemoautotrophic and 142. Answer (3)
facultative anaerobes.
Pyrenoids store protein and starch.
134. Answer (1)
143. Answer (4)
Deuteromycetes are imperfect fungi. Fruiting
bodies is absent in their life cycle. Equisetum is a pteridophyte. All of the given
features are seen in Equisetum.
135. Answer (2)
144. Answer (2)
Cells in elongation region are responsible for
growth of root in length. Amides are formed by addition of another amino
group to amino acids
SECTION - B
145. Answer (1)
136. Answer (2)
NAA is synthetic auxin, 2,4-D is a weedicide.
Teak shows inflorescence of Cymose type. It has
flowers borne in basipetal succession. 146. Answer (1)
137. Answer (3) Flocs are masses of aerobic bacteria associated
Pericycle is parenchymatous in dicot root. with fungal filaments.
138. Answer (2) 147. Answer (2)
Strobilus is found in – Equisetum, Selaginella and Rice crop fields are man made ecosystem.
Gymnosperms (Pinus). 148. Answer (3)
139. Answer (3) Guanine is a purine
Rice is C3 plant. It has RuBisCO as primary CO2 149. Answer (4)
acceptor
Anabaena is used as biofertilizer
140. Answer (1)
150. Answer (3)
Triple response is shown by Ethylene
Maximum biodiversity is contributed by
Cell division is stimulated by plants cytokinin
angiosperms w.r.t plant global biodiversity.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 155. Answer (2)
151. Answer (3) Myxine (Hag fish) is a hermaphrodite and
exclusively marine.
Role of O2 in the regulation of respiratory rhythm
Petromyzon is anadromous and development is
is quite insignificant.
indirect through ammocoete larva.
152. Answer (2) 156. Answer (3)
Earthworm is an annelid with closed circulatory Desired gene replicates alongwith cloning vector
system. inside the host cells.
153. Answer (4) 157. Answer (3)
All changes that occur are due to activation of fight The C peptide is not present in mature insulin and
and flight response due to sympathetic stimulation. is removed during maturation into insulin.
Micturition is inhibited in sympathetic stimulation. 158. Answer (3)
154. Answer (3) Brain stem = mid brain + pons + medulla
Patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the body 159. Answer (2)
formed by ossification within the quadriceps Dorsal hollow nerve cord differentiates into brain
tendon. and spinal cord. It is present above the notochord.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

160. Answer (2) 171. Answer (3)

Vinblastin is an alkaloid obtained from a plant Africa is called as ‘Cradle of Life’ as the primitive
called Catharanthus roseus. It is an important drug bipedal ancestors of man arose in this continent.
used as a chemotherapeutic agent for treating
172. Answer (3)
leukaemia.
Protonephridia are primarily concerned with ionic
161. Answer (3)
and fluid volume regulation i.e. osmoregulation. It
Fishes and amphibians are anamniotes. Reptiles, developed as a defence mechanism which copes
birds and mammals are amniotes. with a hypotonic environment by removing excess
162. Answer (3) water from an organism.
Dolly was the first mammal to be successfully 173. Answer (3)
cloned but there was no genetic modification
The muscle bundles are bounded together by a
carried out on adult donor nucleus. Therefore, it is
common collagenous sheath of connective tissue
not a transgenic animal. Polly and Molly were
called fascia.
clones and transgenic animals.
163. Answer (3) 174. Answer (1)
Parotid glands are absent in frogs (e.g. Rana), Platyhelminthes are triploblastic acoelomates
whereas present in toads (e.g., Bufo). whereas Aschelminthes are triploblastic
164. Answer (2) pseudocoelomates.

Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose 175. Answer (2)

It is a non-reducing sugar because both, aldehyde Hemozoin is formed within RBCs and is
group of glucose and ketone group of fructose responsible for paroxysm of malaria.
participate in the formation of glycosidic bond 176. Answer (1)
between the two.
Nereis belongs to phylum Annelida. Chaetopleura
165. Answer (2) and Octopus belong to Mollusca and Limulus is an
High level of progesterone helps to maintain arthropod.
endometrium and prevents menstrual bleeding.
177. Answer (4)
Pitocin is synthetic oxytocin given to induce labor.
Pneumatic bones of birds provide buoyancy.
166. Answer (3)
178. Answer (2)
Downstream processing is the name given to the
stages after fermentation when the desired Intervertebral disc is formed by fibrous cartilage.
product is recovered and purified. 179. Answer (4)
167. Answer (4) Thrombin is responsible for transformation of
Widal test – Typhoid fibrinogen into fibrin clot.
Schick test – Diphtheria 180. Answer (4)
Gravidex test – Pregnancy Skeletal muscle fibres show structural syncytium.
Mantoux test – Tuberculosis Functional syncytium is shown by cardiac muscle
168. Answer (2) fibres. In a meromyosin, head and short arm
70% of CO2 is carried as bicarbonate together constitutes cross-arm.
7% of CO2 is carried in dissolved state. 181. Answer (4)
169. Answer (3) The exaggerated response of the immune system
The elevated calcium ions concentration causes to antigens is called allergy.
exocytosis of synaptic vesicles. 182. Answer (2)
170. Answer (2) Bilirubin is a bile pigment present in bile juice.
Plasmodium reproduces asexually in RBCs of Chylomicrons are absorbed and transported
man. Sexual cycle occurs in Anopheles mosquito through lacteals. Salivary glands are situated
but gametocytes are formed within RBCs. outside the buccal cavity.

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Test-12 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022

183. Answer (1) 191. Answer (2)

Angina is acute chest pain due to reduced blood Chromosome number in meiocytes of rat and cat
circulation to cardiac muscles. Persons with AB are 42 and 38 respectively.
blood group are universal recipients. 192. Answer (3)
184. Answer (4) The mitotic division starts as the zygote moves
Both proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and distal through the isthmus of oviduct towards uterus.
convoluted tubule (DCT) are present in renal 193. Answer (2)
cortex, outside the medullary pyramids.
Zona pellucida is synthesized by secondary
185. Answer (3) oocyte. The cyclic events starting from one
TV = 500 mL, residual volume = 1200 mL menstruation to the next is called menstrual cycle.
Expiratory reserve volume = 1100 mL Secretion of estrogen starts within growing follicle.

Vital capacity = 4600 mL 194. Answer (4)

So, a < c < b < d GIFT involves in vivo fertilization.

SECTION - B 195. Answer (1)

186. Answer (2) Dengue and chikungunya are viral diseases

transmitted by female Culex mosquito. Filariasis is
Ball and socket joint – Between humerus and
caused by an aschelminth and malaria is a
glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle
disease caused by a protozoan. Small pox is a
Hinge joint – Between humerus and radius, ulna viral disease transmitted through droplets.
Saddle joint – Between carpal and metacarpal of 196. Answer (3)
thumb
Darwin’s finches were small and black coloured
187. Answer (2) birds and evolved from seed eating finches.
Depolarisation occurs due to opening of voltage 197. Answer (2)
gated Na+ channels, whereas repolarisation
Gene flow includes immigration and emigration
occurs due to opening of voltage gated K+
which leads to change in allele frequencies.
channels and closure of voltage gated Na+
Mutation is source of new allele. Natural selection
channels.
depends upon differential reproduction among
188. Answer (2) various individuals.
Vestibular apparatus consists of semi-circular 198. Answer (4)
canals, utricle and saccule. Otolith organ consists
In MOET, 8-32 cells stages of embryo are
of only utricle and saccule.
recovered non-surgically and transferred to
189. Answer (3) surrogate mothers.
Tetany is caused due to hyposecretion of 199. Answer (1)
parathormone; Diabetes mellitus is caused due to
Bioreactors are used for large scale production
deficiency of insulin; Dwarfism is caused due to
and provide optimum conditions for multiplication
deficiency of somatotropin (GH); and cretinism is
of microorganisms.
caused due to deficiency of thyroxine.
200. Answer (4)
190. Answer (1)
Bt toxin gene has been expressed in plants in
Thyroxine increases BMR of the body and has
order to provide resistance against lepidopterans,
calorigenic effect (It increases body temperature).
dipterans and coleopterans.

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