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tubes in Activity 1.7 double of the amount collected in the

CHAPTER 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS other? Name this gas.
AND EQUATIONS Answer: Water contains two parts of hydrogen and one part
INTEXT / PAGE 6 oxygen. Therefore, during the electrolysis of water, the
amount of hydrogen gas collected in one of the test tubes is
1. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before it is double than that of the oxygen produced and collected in the
burnt in the air? other test tube.
Answer: Magnesium is a very reactive metal. When stored, it INTEXT / PAGE 13
reacts with oxygen to form a layer of magnesium oxide on its
surface. This layer of magnesium oxide is quite stable and 1. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change
prevents further reaction of magnesium with oxygen. The when an iron nail is dipped in it?
magnesium ribbon is cleaned by sandpaper for removing this
Answer: When an iron nail dipped in the copper sulphate
layer so that the underlying metal can be exposed to air.
solution than iron displaces copper from the copper sulphate
because iron is more reactive than copper. Therefore the
2. Write the balanced equation for the following chemical
colour of the copper sulphate solution changes.
reactions.
The reaction involved here is:
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
(ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate → Barium
sulphate + Aluminium chloride
2. Give an example of a double displacement reaction other
(iii) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
than the one given in Activity 1.10.

Answer: (i) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl (g) Answer: 2KBr (aq) + BaI2 (aq) → 2KI (aq) + BaBr2 (aq)
(ii) 3BaCl2 (s) + Al2(SO4)3 (s) → 3BaSO4 (s) + 2AlCl3 (s)
(iii) 2Na(s) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g) 3. Identify the substances that are oxidised and the
substances that are reduced in the following reactions.
3. Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols (i) 4Na (s) + O2 (g) → 2Na2O (s)
for the following reactions. (ii) CuO (s) + H2 (g) → Cu (s) + H2O (l)
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in
water react to give insoluble barium sulphate and the Answer: (i) Sodium (Na) is oxidised as it gains oxygen and
oxygen gets reduced.
solution of sodium chloride.
(ii) Copper oxide (CuO) is reduced to copper (Cu) while
(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with
hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium hydrogen (H2) gets oxidised to water (H2O).
chloride solution and water. EXERCISE

Answer: (i) BaCl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl (aq) 1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are
(ii) NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCL (aq) + H2O (l) incorrect?
2PbO (s) + C (s) → 2Pb (s) + CO2 (g)
INTEXT / PAGE 10 (a) Lead is getting reduced.
1. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for whitewashing. (b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula. (c) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ named in (i) (d) Lead oxide is getting reduced.
(i) (a) and (b)
above with water.
(ii) (a) and (c)
Answer: (i) The substance ‘X’ is calcium oxide. Its chemical (iii) (a), (b) and (c)
formula is CaO. (iv) all
(ii) Calcium oxide rchapeacts vigorously with water to form Answer: (i) (a) and (b)
calcium hydroxide (slaked lime).
CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq) 2. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe
Calcium Oxide (Quick Lime) + Water → Calcium Hydroxide (Slaked Lime)
The above reaction is an example of a
2. Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test
(a) combination reaction.
(b) double displacement reaction.

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(c) decomposition reaction. (c) Aluminium + Copper chloride → Aluminium chloride +

(d) displacement reaction. Copper
(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium
Answer: (d) displacement reaction.
sulphate + Potassium chloride

3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to

Answer: (a) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
iron filings? Tick the correct Answer: : .
(b) Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(c) 2Al + 3CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(d) BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
8. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following
and identify the type of reaction in each case.
Answer: (a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(a)Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) →
Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium bromide(s)
4. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should
(b) Zinc carbonate (s) → Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
chemical equations be balanced?
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) → Hydrogen chloride (g)
Answer: A reaction which has an equal number of atoms of (d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) → Magnesium
all the elements on both sides of the chemical equation is chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
called a balanced chemical equation. Chemical reaction
should be balanced to follow law of conservation of mass. Answer: (a) 2KBr (aq) + BaI2 (aq) → 2KI (aq) + BaBr2 (s):
Double displacement reaction
5. Translate the following statements into chemical (b) ZnCO3 (s) → ZnO (s) + CO2 (g): Decomposition reaction
equations and then balance them. (c) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl (g): Combina on reac on
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia. (d) Mg (s) + 2HCl (aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g) : Displacement
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and Reaction
sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give 9. What does one mean by exothermic and endothermic
aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate. reactions? Give examples.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium
hydroxide and hydrogen gas. Answer: Chemical reactions that release energy in the form
of heat, light, or sound are called exothermic reactions.
Answer: (a) 3H2 (g) + N2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) Example: C (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 + Heat Energy
(b) 2H2S (g) + 3O2 (g) → 2H2O (l) + 2SO2 (g) Reactions that absorb energy or require energy in order to
(c) 3BaCl2 (aq) + Al2(SO4)3 (aq) → 2AlCl3 (aq) + 3BaSO4 (s) proceed are called endothermic reactions.
(d) 2K (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H2 (g) Example: N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO + Heat Energy

6. Balance the following chemical equations. 10. Why is combustion reaction an oxidation reaction?
(i) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
(ii) NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O Answer: A combustion reaction is an oxidation reaction
(iii) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3 because combustion can only take place in the presence of
(iv) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + HCl Oxygen and any reaction that constitutes Oxygen is known as
an oxidation reaction.
Answer: (i) 2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O
(ii) 2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O 11. (i) What happens when copper is heated in air?
(iii) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3 (ii) What happens when the product obtained in the above
(iv) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl reaction is heated in hydrogen?

7. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following Answer: (i) When copper is heated in air, it combines with
reactions. oxygen to form copper oxide, a black oxide.
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO
(Copper) (Copper Oxide)
carbonate + Water
(ii) If hydrogen gas is passed over heated copper oxide, then
(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver

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the black copper oxide is reduced and copper metal is Decomposition Reaction:
obtained. CaCO3 (s) --(Heat)→ CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
CuO (s) + H2 (g) → Cu (s) + H2O (g) Combination Reaction:
CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)
12. An aluminium can was used to store ferrous sulphate
solution. It is observed that in lbw days holes appeared in 17. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions
the can. Explain the reason and write the chemical equation where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or
to support your answer. electricity.

Answer: CaCO3 (s) --(Heat)→ CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

Answer: Aluminium is more reactive than iron. Because of
2AgCl (s) --(Sunlight)→ 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g)
high reactivity aluminium displaced iron from its sulphate
2H20 (I) --(Electricity)→ 2H2 (g) + 02 (g)
solution and that's why holes appeared.
2FeSO4 + 2Al → Al2(SO4)3 + 3Fe .
18. What is the difference between displacement and
double displacement reactions? Write equations for these
13. A metal 'P' when exposed to moist air for longer period
reactions.
of time, loses its shiny brown surface and gains a green coat.
Why this happened? Identify the metal. Write the name and
Answer: In a displacement reaction, a more reactive element
chemical formula of this green coloured compound. List any
replaces a less reactive element from a compound.
two ways to prevent this process.
For Example: CuSo4 (aq) + Zn (s) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
In a double displacement reaction, two atoms or a group of
Answer: The metal has corroded because of being exposed to
atoms switch places to form new compounds.
moist air. The green compound so formed is basic copper
For Example: Na2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) → BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl
carbonate. The metal is copper. Two ways to prevent this
(aq)
process is painting, oiling.

19. In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver

14. Can oxidation or reduction take place alone? Why or
nitrate solution involved displacement by copper metal.
why not? What are such reactions called?
Write down the reaction involved.
Answer: When electrons are lost by one atom, they must be
Answer: 2AgNO3 (aq) + Cu (s) → Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)
gained by another element. Therefore oxidation and
Silver Nitrate + Copper → Copper Nitrate + Silver
reduction cannot occur alone. If one occurs, the other must
occur also. Reactions involving oxidation and reduction are
20. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain
called redox reactions.
by giving examples.
15. Why is respiration considered an exothermic reaction?
Answer: A reaction in which an insoluble solid (called
Explain.
precipitate) is formed is called a precipitation reaction. For
Example:
Answer: Respiration is considered an exothermic reaction
Na2CO3 (aq) + CaCl2 (aq) → CaCO3 (s) + 2NaCl (aq)
because energy is released in this process. During respiration,
Sodium Carbonate + Calcium Chloride → Calcium Carbonate +
glucose combines with oxygen present in our cells to form
Sodium Chloride
carbon dioxide and water along with energy.
In this reaction, calcium carbonate is obtained as a
C6H12O6 (aq) + 6O2 (g) → 6CO2 (g) + 6H2O (l) + Energy
precipitate. Hence, it is a precipitation reaction.
16. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of
combination reactions? Write equations for these reactions. 21. Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen
with two examples each.
Answer: Decomposition reactions are those in which a (a) Oxidation
compound breaks down to form two or more substances. (b) Reduction
These reactions require a source of energy to proceed. Thus,
they are the exact opposite of combination reactions in which Answer: Oxidation Reaction: It is a chemical reaction in which
two or more substances combine to give a new substance gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen takes place.
with the release of energy. For Example: (i) 2Mg (s) + O2 (g) --(Heat)→ 2MgO (s)

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Here, Magnesium is oxidized to become Magnesium Oxide. Answer: (c) They become rancid and their smell and taste
(ii) 2Cu (s) + Os (g) -(Heat)→ 2CuO (s) change.
Here, Copper is oxidized to become Copper Oxide.
2. The following reaction is an example of a:
Reduction Reaction: It is a chemical reaction in which loss of
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
oxygen or gain of hydrogen takes place.
(i) CuO + H2--(Heat)→ Cu + H2O Answer: (c) (i) and (iii)
Here, Copper Oxide is reduced to become Copper.
(ii) ZnO + C --(Heat)→ Zn + CO 3. The substances which get oxidized easily can be kept for
Here, Zinc Oxide is reduced to become Zinc. longer duration by:

Answer: (d) Adding nitrogen and keeping them in airtight

22. A shiny brown-coloured element ‘X’ on heating in the air
containers.
becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X’ and the
black coloured compound formed. 4. What happens when hydrogen gas ls passed over the
heated copper oxide (CuO)?
Answer: ‘X’ is copper (Cu) and the black-coloured compound
formed is copper oxide (CuO). The equation of the reaction Answer: (b) Black coating on the surface turns brown.
involved in heating copper is given below. 5. Which is the oxidizing agent in the following reaction?
2Cu +O2 --(Heat)→ 2CuO CuO(s) + H2(g) -+ Cu(s) + H2O(l)
(Shiny Brown in Colour) (Black in Colour)
Answer: {a) Cuo(s)
23. Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
*****
Answer: Iron articles are painted to prevent them from
rusting. After painting iron surface does not come in contact
with moisture and air which cause rusting.

24. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with
nitrogen. Why?

Answer: In the presence of oxygen in the air, fats present in

fatty food are oxidised to compounds and cause a bad smell.
That is why oil and fat containing food items are flushed with
nitrogen to cuts off the contact of food with oxygen and
protect the food from rancidity.

25. Explain the following terms with one example each.

(a) Corrosion
(b) Rancidity

Answer: (a) When a metal is attacked by substances around it

such as moisture, acids, etc., it is said to corrode and this
process is called corrosion.
(b) Rancidity is the complete or incomplete oxidation or
hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed to air, light, or
moisture or by bacterial action, resulting in unpleasant taste
and odour.

TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION

1. The changes which take place when fats and oils are
oxidized:

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Answer: When HCl or HNO3 are mixed with water then they
CHAPTER 2: ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS dissolve in water to form H+ or H3O+ ions which shows their
INTEXT / PAGE 18 acidic character.

1. You have been provided with three test tubes. One of For example:
+ -
them contains distilled water and the other two contain an HCl (aq) → H + Cl
+ +
acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are H + H2O → H3O
given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the
When alcohols and glucose are mixed with water then they
contents of each test tube?
do not dissolve to form ions. Hence they do not show acidic
Answer: If the colour of red litmus does not change then it is character.
acid. If the colour of red litmus changes to blue then it is base.
2. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct
If there is a slight change in the colour of red litmus (such as
electricity?
purple) then it is distilled water.
+ +
Answer: The presence of hydrogen (H ) or hydronium (H3O )
INTEXT / PAGE 22
ions in the aqueous solution of acid are responsible for
1. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass conducting electricity.
and copper vessels?
3. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry
Answer: Curd and other sour substances contain acids. litmus paper?
Therefore, when they are kept in brass and copper vessels,
Answer: Dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus
the metal reacts with the acid to liberate hydrogen gas and +
paper because it has no Hydrogen ions (H ) in it.
harmful products, thereby spoiling the food.
4. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the
2. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a
acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
metal? Illustrate with an example. How will you test for the
presence of this gas? Answer: Since the process of dissolving an acid in water is
exothermic, it is always recommended that acid should be
Answer: Hydrogen gas is usually liberated when an acid
added to water. If it is done the other way, then it is possible
reacts with metal.
that because of the large amount of heat generated, the
Take a few pieces of zinc granules and add 5 ml of dilute mixture splashes out and causes burns.
H2SO4. Shake it and pass the gas produced into a soap +
5. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O )
solution. The bubbles of the soap solution are formed. These
affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
soap bubbles contain hydrogen gas.
Answer: When an acid is diluted, the concentration of
H2SO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + H2 ↑
hydronium ions (H3O+) per unit volume decreases. This
We can test the evolved hydrogen gas by its burning with a meAnswer: that the strength of the acid decreases.
pop sound when a candle is brought near the soap bubbles. −
6. How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH ) affected
3. Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium
produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a hydroxide?
burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the
Answer: The concentration of hydroxide ions (OH−) would
reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium
increase when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium
chloride.
hydroxide.
Answer: CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl2 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
INTEXT / PAGE 29
Calcium Carbonate + Hydrochloric acid → Calcium Chloride + Carbon dioxide +
Water 1. You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6
and pH of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen
INTEXT / PAGE 26 ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is
basic?
1. Why do HCl, HNO3, etc., show acidic characters in
aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol Answer: A pH value of less than 7 indicates an acidic solution,
and glucose do not show acidic character? while greater than 7 indicates a basic solution. Therefore, the

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solution with pH = 6 is acidic and has more hydrogen ion 1. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
concentration than the solution of pH = 8 which is basic.
Answer: (d) 10
+
2. What effect does the concentration of H (aq) ions have
on the nature of the solution? 2. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that
turns lime-water milky. The solution contains
Answer: If the concentration of H+ (aq) ions is increased (>10-
7) then the solution become acidic and if the concentration of
Answer: (b) HCl
H+ (aq) ions is decreased (<10-7) then the solution become
basic in nature. 3. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely
+ neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20
3. Do basic solutions also have H (aq) ions? If yes, then why
mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl
are these basic?
solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise
Answer: Yes, basic solution also has H+ ions. However, their it will be
concentration is less as compared to the concentration of OH-
ions that makes the solution basic. Answer: (d) 16 mL

4. Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would 4. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for
treat the soil of his fields with quick lime (calcium oxide) or treating indigestion?
slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium
carbonate)? Answer: (c) Antacid

Answer: If the soil is acidic and improper for cultivation, then 5, Write word equations and then balanced equations for
to increase the basicity of soil, the farmer would treat the soil the reaction taking place when−
with quick lime or slaked lime or chalk.
Answer: (a) H2SO4 (aq) + Zn (s) → ZnSO4 (aq) + H2 (g)
INTEXT / PAGE 34 (b) 2HCl (aq) + Mg (s) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
(c) 3H2SO4 (aq) + 2Al (s) → Al2(SO4)3 (aq) + 3H2 (g)
1. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2? (d) 6HCl (aq) + 2Fe (s) → 2FeCl3 (aq) + 3H2 (g)
Answer: Bleaching Powder.
6. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain
2. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine hydrogen but are not categorized as acids. Describe an
yields bleaching powder? activity to prove it.

Answer: Calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH)2] Answer: Two nails are fitted on a cork and are kept it in a 100
3. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening mL beaker. The nails are then connected to the two terminals
hard water. of a 6-volt battery through a bulb and a switch. Some dilute
HCl is poured in the beaker and the current is switched on.
Answer: Washing soda (Na2CO3. 10H2O) The same experiment is then performed with a glucose
solution and an alcohol solution.
4. What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate
is heated? Give the equation of the reaction involved. Observations:
It will be observed that the bulb glows in the HCl solution and
Answer: When sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated then
does not glow in the glucose solution.
sodium carbonate and water is formed along with the
evolution of carbon dioxide gas. Result:
+ −
HCl dissociates into H and Cl ions. These ions conduct
5. Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster
electricity in the solution resulting in the glowing of the bulb.
of Paris and water.
On the other hand, the glucose solution does not dissociate
Answer: The Formula of plaster of Paris is CaSO4. ½H2O and into ions. Therefore, it does not conduct electricity.
when it is added in water then it makes gypsum.
Conclusion:
CaSO4. ½H2O + 3/2H2O → CaSO4.2H2O From this activity, it can be concluded that all acids contain
hydrogen but not all compounds containing hydrogen are
EXERCISE acids. That is why, though alcohols and glucose contain

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hydrogen, they are not categorised as acids. occurs in the presence of water only. It is the hydrogen ions
that are responsible for acidic behaviour.
7. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas
Chemical equation
rain water does? + −
HCl + H2O -----> H3O + Cl
Answer: Distilled water cannot conduct electricity because it Hydrogen ions cannot exist alone, but they exist after
does not contain ions while rain water conducts electricity as combining with water molecules. Thus Hydrogen ions must
it contains ions due presence of dissolved salts in it. +
always be shown as H (aq) or hydronium ion (H3O ).
+

H+ + H2O -----> H3O+

8. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of
water? 12. What are antacids? Explain their role in providing relief
from stomach ache.
Answer: Acids do not show acidic behaviour in the absence of
water because the dissociation of hydrogen ions from an acid Answer: An antacid is a substance which neutralizes stomach
occurs in the presence of water only. acid and is used to relieve heartburn, indigestion or an upset
stomach. Antacids are basic in nature.
9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal
indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9, respectively. Which Our stomach releases HCl which is highly acidic and has a very
solution is low pH. Sometimes, our stomach releases an excess of gastric
(a) neutral? juices due to indigestion or over-consumption. This results in
(b) strongly alkaline? acidity.
(c) strongly acidic?
Antacids are mostly hydroxides (Magnesium) or carbonates
(d) weakly acidic?
(Calcium). We know that when acids react with bases, they
(e) weakly alkaline?
neutralize each other’s effects. Hence when we take antacids,
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-ion
they neutralize the excess of stomach acid and thus provide
concentration.
relief from the pain/discomfort. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk
of magnesia), a mild base, is often used for this purpose.
Answer: (a) Neutral →Solu on D with pH 7
(b) Strongly alkaline →Solu on C with pH 11 13. The marble statues are often slowly corroded when kept
(c) Strongly acidic →Solu on B with pH 1 in open for a long time. Give a reason.
(d) Weakly acidic →Solu on A with pH 4
(e) Weakly alkaline →Solu on E with pH 9 Answer: Marble Statues are made up of Calcium Carbonate,
The pH can be arranged in the increasing order of the when they are kept in open environment they get acted upon
concentration of hydrogen ions as: 11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1. by the acidic compounds present in the air causing a reaction
between Calcium Carbonates and Acids which in turn causes
10. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test Corrosion.
tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube
A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube B. In 14. When soap is scrubbed on a stain of curry on a white
which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and cloth, why does it become reddish brown and turns yellow
why? again when it is washed with plenty of water?

Answer: The fizzing will occur strongly in test tube A, in which Answer: The stain of curry on a white cloth turns reddish
hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added. This is because HCl is a brown when soap is rubbed on it because curry contains
stronger acid than CH3COOH and therefore produces turmeric which is an indicator and soap is basic in nature. So,
hydrogen gas at a faster speed due to which fizzing occurs. soap is reacting on curry (turmeric) which turns reddish
brown in colour.
11. Acids do not show acidic behaviour in the absence of
water but do so in water. Justify this statement with the When the white cloth is washed in water then it turns yellow
help of a chemical equation. because water is neutral and the curry contains turmeric
which is an indicator. The water turns turmeric back to
Answer: Acids do not show acidic behaviour in the absence of yellow.
water because the dissociation of hydrogen ions from an acid

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15. (a) If we take hydrochloric acid and acetic acid of the (i) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
+
same concentration, which produces less H ion (ii) HNO3 + KOH → KNO3 + H2O
concentration? Out of two which one is a weak acid?
(b) If someone is suffering from acidity, which of the 20. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking
following would you suggest in order to cure it: vinegar, soda.
orange juice, baking soda solution?
Give reason for your answer. Answer: Two important uses of washing soda are:

It is used in glass, soap, and paper industries.

Answer: a. Acetic acid of the same concentration produces
It is used to remove permanent hardness of water.
less H+ion concentration. Acetic acid is a weak acid because
hydrochloric acid has more H+ion concentration comparing to Two important uses of baking soda are:
acetic acid and this makes hydrochloric a stronger acid.
It is used as baking powder. Baking powder is a mixture of
b. From the given options, we will choose Baking Soda as it is baking soda and a mild acid known as tartaric acid. When it is
basic salt. This basic salt will neutralize the effect of the heated or mixed in water, it releases CO2 that makes bread
acidity and heal the person. or cake fluffy.

It is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.

16. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will
change as it turns into curd? Explain your Answer: . TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION

Answer: The pH of milk is 6. As it changes to curd, the pH will 1. With the increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions,
reduce because curd is acidic in nature. The acids present in it the pH value will:
decrease the pH. Answer: (b) decrease

17. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to 2. The compound which is used in glass, soap and paper
fresh milk. industries is:
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to
Answer: (a) washing soda
slightly alkaline?
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd? 3. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of:

Answer: (d) weak acid and strong base

Answer: (a) The milkman shifts the pH of the fresh milk from
6 to slightly alkaline because in alkaline condition, milk does 4. A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to
not set as curd easily. settle. The clear supernatant solution turns the pH paper
yellowish-orange. Which of the following would change the
(b) Since this milk is slightly basic than usual milk, acids colour of this pH paper to greenish-blue?
produced to set the curd are neutralized by the base. Answer: (d) an antacid
Therefore, it takes a longer time for the curd to set.
5. The compound which is used for removing permanent
18. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof hardness of water is:
container. Explain why?
Answer: (d) Na2CO3.10H2O
Answer: The Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture- *****
proof container as it absorbs water from moisture and turn
into hard substance (Gypsum) as shown in following chemical
equation.

19. What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples.

Answer: A reaction in which an acid and base react with each

other to give a salt and water is termed as neutralization
reaction. For Example:

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CHAPTER 3: METALS AND ent reaction

NON-METALS C No No reaction No Displaceme

reaction reaction nt
INTEXT / Page 42
D No No reaction No No reaction
1. Give an example of a metal which reaction reaction
(i) is a liquid at room temperature.
(ii) can be easily cut with a knife.
(iii) is the best conductor of heat. Use the Table above to answer the following questions
(iv) is a poor conductor of heat. about metals A, B, C and D.

Answer: (i) Mercury (i) Which is the most reactive metal?

(ii) Sodium (ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of
(iii) Silver copper (II) sulphate?
(iv) Mercury and Lead (iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of
decreasing reactivity.
2.Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile.
Answer: (i) B is most reactive metal.
Answer: Malleable:Substances that can be beaten into thin (ii) B will displace copper from copper sulphate.
sheets are called malleable. For example, most of the metals (iii) Arrangement of metals in the order of decreasing
are malleable. reactivity B > A > C > D.
Ductile: Substances that can be drawn into thin wires are 4. Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is
called ductile. For example, most of the metals are ductile. added to a reactive metal? Write the chemical reaction
when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
INTEXT / PAGE 48

1. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil? Answer: Hydrogen gas is evolved when dilute hydrochloric
acid is added to a reactive metal.
Answer: Sodium is high reactive element. If it is kept in open When iron reacts with dilute H2SO4, iron (II) sulphate with the
it can explosively react with oxygen to catch fire. Hence to evolution of hydrogen gas is formed.
prevent accidental damage sodium is immersed in kerosene Fe (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + H2 (g)
oil.
5. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution
2. Write equations for the reactions of of iron (II) sulphate? Write the chemical reaction that takes
(i) iron with steam place.
(ii) calcium and potassium with water
Answer: When zinc is added to iron (II) sulphate then it will
Answer: (i) 3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (aq) + 4H2 (g) displace the iron from iron sulphate solution as shown in the
following chemical reaction.
(ii) Ca (s) + 2H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g) + Heat Zn (s) + FeSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Fe (s)
2K (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H2 (g) + Heat
INTEXT / PAGE 51
3. Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and 1. (i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen
added to the following solution one by one. The results and magnesium.
obtained have been tabulated as follows. (ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of
electrons.
Me Iron (II) Copper (II) Zinc Silver
(iii) What are the ions present in these compounds?
tal sulphate sulphate sulphate nitrate

A No Displacement Answer:
Reaction

B Displacem No

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Magnesium oxide - - -

Copper oxide - - -

Answer:

Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper

Zinc oxide No reaction Displacement No reaction

Magnesium No reaction No reaction No reaction

oxide

Copper Displacement Displacement No reaction

2. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points? oxide

Answer: Ionic compounds have strong electrostatic forces of

attraction between the ions. Therefore, it requires a lot of
2. Which metals do not corrode easily?
energy to overcome these forces. That is why ionic
compounds have high melting points. Answer: Metals which have low reactivity such as silver, gold
does not corrode easily.
INTEXT / PAGE 55

1. Define the following terms. 3. What are alloys?

(i) Mineral (ii) Ore (iii) Gangue
Answer: An alloy is the homogeneous mixture of two or more
metals or metals and non metals. For example brass is an
Answer: (i) Mineral: The naturally occurring compounds of
alloy of copper and zinc.
elements are known as Mineral.
(ii) Ore: Minerals from which metals can be extracted EXERCISE
profitably are known as ores.
(iii) Gangue: The impurities present in the ore such as sand, 1. Which of the following pairs will give displacement
rocks etc are non as gangue. reactions?
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal
2. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free (b) MgCl2solution and aluminium metal
state. (c) FeSO4solution and silver metal
(d) AgNO3solution and copper metal.
Answer: The metals at the bottom of the reactivity series are
mostly found in free state. For example: gold, silver, and Answer: d) AgNO3solution and copper metal.
platinum.
2. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing
3. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from an iron frying pan from rusting?
its oxide?
Answer: (c) Applying a coating of zinc
Answer: A metal can be extracted from its oxide by the
process of reduction. 3. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a
high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water.
INTEXT / Page 57 The element is likely to be
1. Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were Answer: (a) calcium
heated with the following metals.
4. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Answer: (c) zinc is more reactive than tin.
Zinc oxide - - -
5. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a

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switch.
(a) How could you use them to distinguish between samples
of metals and non-metals?
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing
between metals and non-metals.

Answer:: (a) With the hammer, we can beat the sample and if
it can be beaten into thin sheets (that is, it is malleable), then
it is a metal otherwise a non-metal.
metal. Similarly, we can use the
battery,
attery, bulb, wires, and a switch to set up a circuit with the
sample. If the sample conducts electricity, then it is a metal
otherwise a non-metal.

(b) The above tests are useful in distinguishing between

metals and non-metals
metals as these are based on the physical
p
properties. No chemical reactions are involved in these tests.

6. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of

amphoteric oxides.

Answer:: Those oxides that behave as both acidic and basic

oxides are called amphoteric oxides.
Examples: aluminiumum oxide (Al2O3), zinc oxide (ZnO)
a) What will be the action of gas on
(a)
7. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from (i) dry litmus paper?
(ii) moist litmus paper?
dilute acids, and two metals which will not.
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction
Answer:: Iron and aluminium will displace hydrogen from taking place.
dilute acids as they more reactive then hydrogen. Mercury
Answer:: (a) (i) There will be no action on dry litmus paper.
and copperer cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids as
(ii) The colour of litmus paper will turn
tur red because sulphur is
they are less reactive than hydrogen.
metal and the oxides of non
a non-metal non-metal are acidic in nature.
8. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you (b) S (s) + O2(g) → SO2 (g)
take as the anode, the cathode and the electrolyte?
10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
Answer:: In the electrolytic refining of a metal M:
Anode → Impure metal M Answer:: Two ways to prevent the rusting of iron are:
Cathode → Thin strip of pure metal M → Oiling, greasing, or painting
painting: By applying oil, grease, or
Electrolyte → Solu on of salt of the metal M paint, the surface becomes water proof and the moisture and
oxygen present in the air cannot come into direct contact
9. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. with iron. Hence, rusting is prevented.
He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube over it, → Galvanization:: An iron article is coated with a layer of zinc
as shown in figure below. hich prevents the iron to come in contact with
metal, which
oxygen and moisture. Hence, rusting is prevented.

11. What happens to potassium and sodium if they are kept

in open? Why they are immersed in kerosene?

Answer:: Different metals show different reactivities towards

tow
oxygen. Metals such as potassium and sodium react so
vigorously that they catch fire if kept in the open. Hence, to
protect them and to prevent accidental fires, they are kept

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immersed in kerosene oil. Metal Non-metal

12. (a) 'Sodium is a highly reactive metal and it cannot be Metals are electropositive. Non-metals are
obtained from its oxide by heating with electronegative.
carbon'. Give reason.
Oxides of metal are basic in Oxides of non-metals are
(b) How can sodium be obtained from sodium chloride ?
nature. acidic in nature.

Answer: (a) Metallic compounds like sodium cannot be Metals displace hydrogen They can't replace hydrogen
reduced by carbon or any other reducing agent due from dilute acids. from dilute acids.
to their high affinity with oxygen.

(b) Sodium is obtained from sodium chloride by electrolytic

16. Give reason:
reduction. Sodium chloride in molten
(a) Why do aluminum sheets not corrode easily ?
form is electrolysed. Sodium is deposited at cathode and
(b) Why is copper vessel covered with a green coating in
chlorine is liberated at anode.
rainy season?
+ -
At cathode : Na + e → Na
- - Answer: Aluminium when reacts with air forms aluminium
At anode : 2C → Cl2 + 2e
oxide which protects the underlying metal from further
oxidation . This is not porous and flaky like rust and it can acts
13. A metal 'E' is stored under kerosene oil. When small
like a film or protective cover which protects the metal. So
piece of it is left open in the air, it catches fire. When the
aluminium do not rusts.
product formed is dissolved in water it turns red litmus blue.
(i) Name the metal E.
Copper turns green due to formation of copper carbonate
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction when it is
which is formed by reaction of copper with carbonic acid and
exposed to air and when the product is dissolved in water.
air. Acid rain has carbonic acid, so it can easily turn copper
(iii) Explain the process by which the metal is obtained from
green
its molten chloride.
17. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals
Answer: (i) The metal is Sodium.
combine with oxygen?
(ii) Sodium is the most reactive and react with oxygen in the
air at room temperature to form the oxide.
Answer: When non-metals are combined with oxygen then
4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
neutral or acidic oxides are formed. Examples of acidic oxides
Reaction with water gives sodium hydroxide.
are NO2, SO2 and examples of neutral oxides are NO, CO etc.
Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH
(iii) The metal is obtained by electrolysis of molten metal
18. Give reasons
chloride (NaCl)
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
At cathode [(-) charged electrode] → Na is deposited.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
At Anode [(+) electrode] → Cl2 is liberated.
+ - (c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to
At cathode: Na + e → Na
- - make utensils for cooking.
At Anode: 2Cl → Cl2 + 2e
(d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into
oxides during the process of extraction.
14. Most metal oxides are insoluble in water but some of
these dissolve in water. What are these oxides and their
Answer: (a) Platinum, gold, and silver are used to make
solution in water called?
jewellery because they are very lustrous. Also, they are very
less reactive and do not corrode easily.
Answer: These oxides are called basic oxides and their
(b) Sodium, potassium, and lithium are very reactive metals
solutions in water are called alkalis.
and react very vigorously with air as well as water.Therefore,
they are kept immersed in kerosene oil in order to prevent
15. How metals can be differentiated from non-metals on
their contact with air and moisture.
the basis of any three chemical properties?
(c) Though aluminium is a highly reactive metal, it is resistant
Answer: to corrosion. This is because aluminium reacts with oxygen
present in air to form a thin layer of aluminium oxide. This

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oxide layer is very stable and prevents further reaction of

aluminium with oxygen. Also, it is light in weight and a good Answer: The solution he had used was Aqua regia. Aqua regia
conductor of heat. Hence, it is used to make cooking utensils. is Latin word which means ‘Royal Water’. It is the mixture of
(d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into concentrated Hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid
oxides during the process of extraction because metals can be in the ratio of 3:1. It is capable of dissolving metals like Gold
easily extracted from their oxides rather than from their and Platinum. Since the outer layer of the gold bangles is
carbonates and sulphides. dissolved in aqua regia so their weight was reduced
drastically.
19. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being
cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice. Explain why these 22. Give reasons why copper is used to make hot water
sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels. tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron).

Answer: Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in air to Answer: Copper does not react with cold water, hot water, or
form copper carbonate and as a result, copper vessel loses its steam. However, iron reacts with steam. If the hot water
shiny brown surface forming a green layer of copper tanks are made of steel (an alloy of iron), then iron would
carbonate. The citric acid present in the lemon or tamarind react vigorously with the steam formed from hot water.
neutralises the basis copper carbonate and dissolves the 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2O
layer. That is why, tarnished copper vessels are cleaned with
That is why copper is used to make hot water tanks, and not
lemon or tamarind juice to give the surface of the copper
steel.
vessel its characteristic lustre.
TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
20. Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the basis
of their chemical properties. 1. Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air.
This is due to the formation of:
Answer:
Answer: (c) Ag2s
Metal Non-metal
2. The metals which are mixed with iron to make stainless
Metals are electropositive. Non-metals are steel are:
electronegative. Answer: (b) nickel and chromium
Oxides of metal are basic in Oxides of non-metals are 3. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a
nature. acidic in nature. high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water.
The element is likely to be:
Metals displace hydrogen They can't replace hydrogen
from dilute acids. from dilute acids. Answer: (a) calcium
Metals form chlorides Non-metals form chlorides 4. An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is
which are electrovalent or which are covalent very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in air. It reacts
ionic compounds. compounds. vigorously with water. Identify the element from the
following:
They react with water to They do not react with water.
form oxides and Answer: (b) Na
hydroxides.
5. Bronze is an alloy of:

Answer: (a) Cu and Zn

21. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He
6. Galvanization is a method of protecting:
promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold
ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles Answer: (c) steel and iron from rusting
to him which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles
sparkled like new but their weight was reduced drastically. *****
The lady was upset but after a futile argument the man beat
a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find out the
nature of the solution he had used?

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of bonding with four other atoms.

CHAPTER 4: CARBON AND ITS
COMPOUNDS 3. What will be the formula and electron dot structure
stru of
cyclopentane?
INTEXT / PAGE 64
Answer:: The formula for cyclopentane is C5H10. Its electron
1. What would be the electron dot structure of carbon dot structure is given below.
dioxide which has the formula CO2?

Answer:

2. What would be the electron dot structure of a molecule

of sulphur which is made up of eight atoms of sulphur? (Hint 4. Draw the structures for the following compounds.
- the eight atoms of sulphur are joined together in the form (i) Ethanoic acid (ii) Bromopentane*
of a ring.) (iii) Butanone (iv) Hexanal
*Are structural isomers possible for bromopentane?
Answer:

Answer:
(i)

INTEXT / PAGE 71
(ii) There are many structural isomers possible for
1. How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane? bromopentane. Among them, the structures of three isomers
are given.
Answer: Three structural isomers are possible for pentane.

2. What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the

huge number of carbon compounds we see around us?

Answer: The two features of carbon that give rise to a large

number of compounds are as follows:
→ Catena on - It is the ability to form bonds with other
atoms of carbon.
→ Tetravalency - With the valency of four, carbon is capable 5. How would you name the following compounds?

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Answer: Oxidising agents are the substances that gain

electrons in redox reaction and whose oxidation number is
reduced.

INTEXT / PAGE 79

1. Would you be able to check if water is hard by using a

detergent?

ves lather with hard and soft water

Answer: Detergent gives
both, while a soap gives lather with soft water only. Thus, it is
Answer: (i) Bromoethane not possible to check if water is hard; by using a detergent.
(ii) Methanal (formaldehyde)
(iii) Hexyne 2. People use a variety of methods to wash clothes. Usually
after adding the soap, they 'beat'
'be the clothes on a stone, or
INTEXT / PAGE 74 beat it with a paddle, scrub with a brush or the mixture is
1. Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid an agitated in a washing machine. Why is agitation necessary
oxidation reaction? to get clean clothes?

Answer: CH3CH2OH + (Alkaline KMnO4) → CH3COOH Answer:: A soap molecule has two parts namely hydrophobic
Since, in this reaction one oxygen is added to ethanol, hence and hydrophilic. With the h help of these, it attaches to the
it is an oxidation reaction. grease or dirt particle and forms a cluster called micelle.
These micelles remain suspended as a colloid. To remove
2. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can these micelles, it is necessary to agitate clothes.
you tell why a mixture of ethyne and air is not used? EXERCISE

Answer: 2HC ≡ CH + 5O2 → 4CO2 + 2H2O + Heat 1. Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has
When ethyne is burnt in air, it gives a sooty flame. This is due
Answer: (b) 7 covalent bonds.
to incomplete combustion caused sed by limited supply of air.
However, if ethyne is burnt with oxygen, it gives a clean flame
carbon compound with the functional
2. Butanone is a four-carbon
with temperature 3000°C because of complete combustion.
group
This oxy-acetylene
acetylene flame is used for welding. It is not possible
to attain such a high temperature without mixing oxygen. Answer: (c) ketone.
This is the reason why a mixture of ethyne and air is not used.
3. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting
INTEXT/ PAGE 77
blackened on the outside, it means that
1. How would you distinguish experimentally between an
Answer: (b) the fuel is not burning completely.
comple
alcohol and a carboxylic acid?

4. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond

Answer:: We can distinguish between an alcohol and a
formation in CH3Cl.
carboxylic acid on the
e basis of their reaction with carbonates
and hydrogen carbonates. Acid reacts with carbonate and
Answer: The structure of CH3Cl is given below:
hydrogen carbonate to evolve CO2 gas that turns lime water
milky.

Carbon has four valence electrons. It shares 1 electron each

Alcohols, on the other hand, do not react with carbonates with 3 hydrogen atoms and 1 electron with chlorine. The
and hydrogen carbonates. bond between C and Cl atoms is covalent but due to higher
negativity of Cl, the C
value of electro-negativity C–Cl bond is polar in
2. What are oxidising agents? nature.

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room temperature so, it freezes during winter. Moreover,

5. Draw the electron dot structures for ethanoic acid has a smell like vinegar.
(i) ethanoic acid.
Ethanol does not react with metal carbonates while, ethanoic
(ii) H2S.
acid reacts with metal carbonates to form salt, water and
(iii) propanone.
carbon dioxide. For example, 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 →
(iv) F2.
2CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Answer: Ethanol does not react with NaOH while ethanoic acid reacts
with NaOH to form sodium ethanoate and water. For
i. ethanoic acid.
example, CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O

Ethanol is oxidized to give ethanoic acid in presence of

acidified KMnO4 while, no reaction takes place with ethanoic
acid in presence of acidified KMnO4.

8. Why does micelle formation take place when soap is

added to water? Will a micelle be formed in other solvents
such as ethanol also?

Answer: Soap molecule has two ends. One end is hydrophilic

and another end is hydrophobic. When soap is dissolved in
water and clothes are put in the soapy solution, soap
molecules converge in a typical fashion to make a structure;
called micelle. The hydrophobic ends of different molecules
surround a particle of grease and make the micelle; which is a
spherical structure. In this, the hydrophilic end is outside the
sphere and hydrophobic end is towards the centre of the
sphere. This is why micelle formation takes place when soap
is added to water.
6. What is a homologous series? Explain with an example.
Since ethanol is not as polar as soap, micelles will not be
formed in other solvents such as ethanol.
Answer: A homologous series is a series of carbon
compounds that have different numbers of carbon atoms but
9. Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most
contain the same functional group.
applications?
For example, methane, ethane, propane, butane, etc. are all
part of the alkane homologous series. The general formula of Answer: Carbon and its compounds give large amount of heat
this series is CnH2n+2. on combustion due to high percentage of carbon and
hydrogen. Carbon compounds used as fuel have optimum
Methane CH4 ignition temperature with high calorific values and are easy to
Ethane CH3CH3 handle. Their combustion can e controlled. Therefore, carbon
Propane CH3CH2CH3 and its compounds are used as fuels.
Butane CH3CH2CH2CH3
It can be noticed that there is a difference of -CH2 unit 10. Explain the formation of scum when hard water is
between each successive compound. treated with soap.

7. How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be differentiated on Answer: Hard water often contains salts of calcium and
the basis of their physical and chemical properties? magnesium. Soap molecules react with the salts of calcium
and magnesium and form a precipitate. This precipitate
Answer: Ethanol and Ethanoic acid be differentiated on the begins floating as an off-white layer over water. This layer is
basis of their following properties: called scum. Soaps lose their cleansing property in hard water
because of formation of scum.
Ethanol is a liquid at room temperature with a pleasant smell.
Ethanoic acid has a melting point of 17°C. Since it is below the

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11. "Saturated hydrocarbons burn with a blue flame while

whi scuum which remains after washing in water.
unsaturated hydrocarbons burn with a sooty flame-.
flame Why?
Problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of
Answer:: Saturated hydrocarbons contain less carbon content, soaps are as follows:
so there is a complete combustion of these compounds and
a) Being non-biodegradable
biodegradable in nature, they get accumulated
hence, these compounds burn with a blue flame.
nment and cause soil and water pollution.
in the environment
In case of unsaturated hydrocarbons,
ons, due to their high carbon
b) Their entry into the food chain leads to bio-accumulation
bio in
content and low hydrogen content, there is incomplete
living beings and causes several health issues.
combustion. So, unsaturated hydrocarbons burn with a sooty
flame.
14. Give a name of the reaction which takes place between
ethanoic acid and ethanol in presence of co
concentrated
12. Why vegetable oils are considered healthy as compared
sulphuric acid. Write the chemical reaction and name of the
to vegetable ghee? How are vegetable oils converted
conve into
product obtained.
vegetable ghee? Name and define the process involved.

Answer: The reaction is called Esterification. The name of the

Answer: Vegetable oils contain unsaturated fatty acids while
product obtained from this is ester. Esters are sweet smelling
vegetable ghee contains saturated fatty acids which are said
substances used in making perfumes and aas flavouring
to be harmful for health.
agents. The chemical reaction is as follows:
Vegetable oils are converted into vegetable ghee by adding
hydrogen in the presence of catalysts palladium (Pd) or nickel
(Ni).

15. An organic compound A of molecular formula C2H4. on

reduction gives another compound B of molecular formula
C2H6. B on reaction with chlorine in the presence of sunlight
ormula C2H2Cl.
gives C of molecular formula

(a) Name the compounds A, B and C.

The process involved in this is addition reaction
(b) Write the chemical equation for the conversion of A to B
(hydrogenation). It is defined as the addition of hydrogen
and name the type of reaction.
atoms in carbon atoms of an organic compound.
Answer: (a) Compound A Ethene C2H4. Compound B Ethane
13. Both soap and detergent are some type of salts. What is C2H6. Compound C is monochloroethane C2H5Cl
the difference between them? Describe in brief the (b) The chemical equation for the conversion of A to B is
cleansing action of soap. Why do soaps not form lather in called addition or hydrogenation reaction and the equation is:
hard water? List two problems that arise due to the use of C2H4+H2-----(ni/pd)----->C2H6
detergents instead of soaps.
16. What change will you observe if you test soap with
Answer: Soap p molecules are sodium or potassium salts of litmus paper (red and blue)?
long-chain
chain carboxylic acids whereas detergent molecules are
ammonium or sulphonate salts of long-chainchain carboxylic acids. Answer: Since soap is basic in nature, it will turn red litmus
Cleansing action of soaps: The dirt present on clothes is blue. However, the colour of the blue litmus will remain blue.
organic in nature and is insolublele in water. Therefore, it
cannot be removed by only washing with water. When soap is 17. What is hydrogenation? What is its industrial
dissolved in water, its hydrophobic ends attach themselves to application?
the dirt and remove it from the cloth. Then, the molecules of
soap arrange themselves in micelle formation and a trap the Answer: When unsaturated hydrocarbons (double/triple
dirt at the centre of the cluster. These micelles remain bond) are reacted with hydrogen in presence
pres of a catalyst like
suspended in the water and, thus, the dust particles are easily nickel, the hydrogen gets added across the double/triple
rinsed away by water. Soaps do not form lather in hard water bond and converts the unsaturated hydrocarbon into a
because soap molecules react with calcium and magnesium saturated hydrocarbon. Such a reaction is called an addition
ions present
resent in hard water to form insoluble substance, called reaction or hydrogenation.

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Industrial application:

Hydrogenation is used in many industrial applications. For

example; in Petrochemical Industry, hydrogenation is used to
convert alkenes into alkanes (paraffins) and cycloalkanes.

It is also used to prepare vegetable ghee from vegetable oils.

18. Which of the following hydrocarbons undergo addition

reactions:
C2, H6, C3H8, C3H6, C2H2 and CH4.

Answer: Unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition

reactions. Being unsaturated hydrocarbons, C3H6 and C2H2
undergo addition reactions.

19. Give a test that can be used to differentiate chemically

between butter and cooking oil.

Answer: Butter is saturated compound and oil is unsaturated

compound. Therefore, when we add oil to a test tube
containing alkaline potassium permanganate solution, the
pink colour of the solution disappear. Colour of alkaline
potassium permanganate will not disappear in the test tube
containing butter.

20. Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps.

Answer: Most dirt is oily in nature and oil does not dissolve in
water. The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts
of long-chain carboxylic acids. The ionic-end of soap interacts TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
with water while the carbon chain interacts with oil. The soap
1. When ethanol reacts with sodium and forms two
molecules, thus form structures called micelles where one
products. These are:
end of the molecules is towards the oil droplet while the
ionic-end faces outside. This forms an emulsion in water. The Answer: (c) Sodium ethoxide and hydrogen
soap micelle thus helps in pulling out the dirt in water and we
can wash our clothes clean. 2. The class of organic compounds which gives effervescence
with NaHCO3 solution is:

Answer: (d) Carboxylic acids

3. What is the name of the given compound?

CH3- CH4-CHO

Answer: (a) Propanal

4. Alcohols may be represented by the general formula:

Answer: (b) CnH2n - OH

5. Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12. It has:

Answer: (c) 16 covalent bonds

*****

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2. Besides gallium, which other elements have since been

CHAPTER 5: PERIODIC discovered that were left by Mendeleev in his Periodic
CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS Table? (any two)

INTEXT / PAGE 85 Answer: Scandium and germanium

1: Did Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of 3. What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his
Newlands’ Octaves? Compare and find out. Periodic Table?

Answer: Yes, Dobereiner’s triads exist in the columns of Answer: Mendeleev’s periodic table was based on the
Newlands’ octaves. observation that the properties of elements are a periodic
function of their atomic masses. This means that if elements
The triad formed by the elements Li, Na, and K of are arranged in the increasing order of their atomic masses,
Dobereiner’s triads also occurred in the columns of then their properties get repeated after regular intervals.
Newlands’ octaves.
4. Why do you think the noble gases are placed in a separate
2. What were the limitations of Dobereiner’s classification? group?
Answer: One of the limitations of Dobereiner’s classification Answer: Noble gases are inert elements. Their properties are
was that not all known elements could not be classified into different from the all other elements.
groups of triads on the basis of their properties. For very low
mass or for very high mass elements, the Dobereiner’s triads Therefore, the noble gases are placed in a separate group.
are not applicable.
INTEXT / PAGE 94
3: What were the limitations of Newlands’ Law of Octaves?
1. How could the Modern Periodic Table remove various
Answer: Limitations of Newlands’ law of octaves were: anomalies of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table?

a) It was not applicable throughout the arrangements. It was Answer: Mendeleev was unable to give fixed position to
applicable up to calcium only. The properties of the elements hydrogen and isotopes in the periodic table.
listed after calcium showed no resemblance to the properties
In Mendeleev’s periodic table, the increasing manner of
of the elements above them.
atomic mass of the elements is not always regular from one
b) Those elements that were discovered after Newlands’ to its next. It was believed that a more fundamental property
octaves did not follow the law of octaves. than atomic mass could explain periodic properties in a better
manner.
c) The position of cobalt and nickel in the group of the
elements (F, Cl) of different properties could not be It was Henry Moseley who demonstrated that atomic number
explained. of an element could explain periodic properties in a better
way than atomic mass of an element and arranged the
d) Placing of iron far away from cobalt and nickel, which have elements in increasing order of their atomic numbers. Then it
similar properties as iron, could also not be explained. was found that the various anomalies of Mendeleev’s
periodic table were removed by the modern periodic table.
INTEXT / PAGE 89
2. Name two elements you would expect to show chemical
1. Use Mendeleev’s Periodic Table to predict the formulae
reactions similar to magnesium. What is the basis for your
for the oxides of the following elements:
choice?
K, C, Al, Si, Ba.
Answer: Calcium (Ca) and strontium (Sr) are expected to
Answer: K is in group 1. Therefore, the oxide will be K2O. show chemical reactions similar to magnesium (Mg). This is
because the number of valence electrons (2) is same in all
C is in group 4. Therefore, the oxide will be CO2. these three elements. And since chemical properties are due
Al is in group 3. Therefore, the oxide will be Al2O3. to valence electrons, they show same chemical reactions.

Si is in group 4. Therefore, the oxide will be SiO2. 3. Name

Ba is in group 2. Therefore, the oxide will be BaO. (a) Three elements that have a single electron in their
outermost shells.

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(b) Two elements that have two electrons in their outermost (d) The oxides become more acidic.
shells.
Answer: (c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(c) Three elements with filled outermost shells.
(On moving from left to right across the periods of the
Answer: (a) Lithium (Li), sodium (Na), and potassium (K) have periodic table, the non-metallic character increases. Hence,
a single electron in their outermost shells. the tendency to lose electrons decreases.)

(b)Magnesium (Mg) and calcium (Ca) have two electrons in 2. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which
their outermost shells. is a solid with a high melting point. X would most likely be in
the same group of the Periodic Table as (a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al
(c) Neon (Ne), argon (Ar), and xenon (Xe) have filled
(d) Si
outermost shells.
Answer: (a) X would most likely be in the same group of the
4. (a) Lithium, sodium, potassium are all metals that react
Periodic Table as magnesium (Mg).
with water to liberate hydrogen gas. Is there any similarity
in the atoms of these elements? 3: Which element has

(b)Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of (a) two shells, both of which are completely filled with
extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms electrons?
have in common?
(b) the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2?
Answer: (a) Yes. The atoms of all the three elements lithium,
(c) a total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence
sodium, and potassium have one electron in their outermost
shell?
shells.
(d) a total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence
(b)Both helium (He) and neon (Ne) have filled outermost
shell?
shells. Helium has a duplet in its K shell, while neon has an
octet in its L shell. (e) twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first
shell?

Answer: (a) Neon has two shells, both of which are

5. In the Modern Periodic Table, which are the metals
completely filled with electrons (2 electrons in K shell and 8
among the first ten elements?
electrons in L shell).
Answer: Among the first ten elements, lithium (Li) and
(b)Magnesium has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2.
beryllium (Be) are metals.
(c) Silicon has a total of three shells, with four electrons in its
6. By considering their position in the Periodic Table, which
valence shell (2 electrons in K shell, 8 electrons in L shell and
one of the following elements would you expect to have
4 electrons in M shell).
maximum metallic characteristic?
(d)Boron has a total of two shells, with three electrons in its
Ga, Ge, As, Se, Be
valence shell (2 electrons in K shell and 3 electrons in L shell).
Answer: Since ‘Be’ lies to the extreme left hand side of the
(e) Carbon has twice as many electrons in its second shell as
periodic table, Be is the most metallic among the given
in its first shell (2 electrons in K shell and 4 electrons in L
elements.
shell).
EXERCISES
4. (a) What property do all elements in the same column of
1. Which of the following statements is not a correct the Periodic Table as boron have in common?
statement about the trends when going from left to right
(b)What property do all elements in the same column of the
across the periods of periodic Table.
Periodic Table as fluorine have in common?
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
Answer: (a) All the elements in the same column as boron
(b) The number of valence electrons increases. have the same number of valence electrons (3). Hence, they
all have valency equal to 3.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.

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(b)All the elements in the same column as fluorine have the Element K L M
same number of valence electrons (7). Hence, they all have
valency equal to 1. Nitrogen 2 5

5. An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7. Phosphorus 2 8 5

(a)What is the atomic number of this element?

(b)To which of the following elements would it be Nitrogen is more electronegative than phosphorus. On
chemically similar? (Atomic numbers are given in moving down a group, the number of shell increases.
parentheses.) Therefore, the valence electrons move away from the nucleus
and the effective nuclear charge decreases. This causes the
N(7) F(9) P(15) Ar(18) decrease in the tendency to attract electron and hence
electronegativity decreases.
Answer: (a) The atomic number of this element is 17.
8. How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate
(b)It would be chemically similar to F (9) with configuration as
to its position in the Modern Periodic Table?
2, 7.
Answer: In the modern periodic table, atoms with similar
6. The position of three elements A, B and C in the Periodic
electronic configurations are placed in the same column. In a
Table are shown below −
group, the number of valence electrons remains the same.
Group 16 Group 17 Elements across a period show an increase in the number of
valence electrons.
- -
9. Explain why:
- A
(a) The elements of the same group have similar chemical
- - properties.
B C (b) The elements of the same period have different
properties.

Answer: a) Elements in the same group have similar

(a) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.
properties because they have the same number of valence
(b) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive than A. electrons in their outermost shell.

(c) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B? b) Elements in the same period have different properties
because the number of valence electrons in their outermost
(d) Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by shells differ.
element A?
10. The electronic configuration of an element 'X’ is 2, 8, 8,
Answer: (a) A is a non-metal. 2. To which period and group of the modern periodic Table
(b) C is less reactive than A, as reactivity decreases down the does 'X’ belong? State its valency. Justify your answer in
group in halogens. each case.

(c) C will be smaller in size than B as moving across a period, Answer: Electronic configuration of 'X' is 2, 8, 8, 2, so ‘X’
the nuclear charge increases and therefore, electrons come belongs to period 4 because it has 4 energy shells and it
closer to the nucleus. belongs to group 2.

(d) A will form an anion as it accepts an electron to complete It has 2 valence electrons. The valency of X is 2 because it can
its octet. acquire stable gas configuration by losing 2 electrons.

7. Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic 11. (a) State two main characteristics of elements on which
number 15) belong to group 15 of the Periodic Table. Write Modern Periodic Table is based.
the electronic configuration of these two elements. Which (b) No fixed position can be assigned to hydrogen in the
of these will be more electronegative? Why? periodic table. Why?
Answer:

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Answer: Two main characteristics of elements on which

into sub group ‘a’ and ‘b’ into sub groups.
Modern Periodic Table is based are atomic mass and chemical
properties.

No fixed position can be assigned to hydrogen in the periodic The noble gases were not The noble gases have been
table because hydrogen exhibits properties of an alkali as well known at the time of placed at the end of table in
as halogens. Mendeleev. the separate group (group 18).

12. The elements Be, Mg and Ca each having two electrons

in their outermost shells are in periods 2, 3 and 4 This problem has been rectified
There was no place for
respectively of the Modern Periodic Table. Now, answer the as slots are determined
isotopes.
following questions, giving Justification in each case: according to atomic number.

(I) Write the group to which these elements belong.

(II) Name the least reactive element.

TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
(III) Name the element having largest atomic radius.
1. In Mendeleev's Periodic Table, gaps were left for the
Answer: (i) Since they all have 2 valence electrons they elements to be discovered later. Which of the following
belong to group 2. elements found a place in the periodic table later?

(ii) Be is the least reactive element. Answer: Germanium

(iii) Among Be, Mg and Ca, the element Ca possess largest 2. The element with atomic number 14 is hard and forms
atomic size. acidic oxide with a covalent halide. To which of the
following categories does the element belong?
13. In the Modern Periodic Table, calcium (atomic number
20) is surrounded by elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, Answer: (b) Metalloid
21, and 38. Which of these have physical and chemical
properties resembling calcium? 3. Doberiener's system of classification into triad was not
found to be useful as he could identify only:
Answer: The element with atomic number 12 has same
chemical properties as that of calcium. This is because both of Answer: (b) Three triads
them have same number of valence electrons (2). 4. The atomic number of an element is a more fundamental
14. Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in property than its atomic mass was showed by:
Mendeleev's Periodic Table and the Modern Periodic Table. Answer: (a) Henry Moseley
Answer: Comparison of Mendeleev's periodic table and the
Modem periodic table:
*****
Mendeleev's periodic
Modem periodic table
table

Elements have been

Elements have been arranged
arranged in increasing
in increasing of atomic number
order of atomic mass

There are only 8 verticle There are 18 verticle columns

columns called groups. called groups.

Each groups is subdivided Each groups are not subdivided

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Answer:: Plants get each of the raw materials required for

CHAPTER 6: LIFE PROCESS photosynthesis through the following means:
IN-TEXT / PAGE 100
i. The raw material CO2 enters from the atmosphere through
1: Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen stomata.
requirements of multicellular organisms like humans? ii. Water is absorbed from the soil by the plant
plan roots.
iii. Sunlight, an important component to manufacture food, is
Answer: In multi-cellular organisms, all the cells may not be in absorbed by the chlorophyll and other green parts of the
direct contact with the surrounding environment. Thus, plants.
simple diffusion will not meet the requirements of all the
cells. 3: What is the role of the acid in our stomach?

2: What criteria do we use to decide whether something is Answer:: Roles of the acid (HCl) in our stomach are:
alive?
nt in the food.
i. Kills germs present
Answer:: Any visible movement such as walking, breathing, or ii. Makes the food acidic, so that pepsin can digest protein.
growing is generally used to decide whether something is
4: What is the function of digestive enzymes?
alive or not. However, a living organism can also have
movements, which are not visible to the naked eye. Answer:: Digestive enzymes such as amylase, lipase, pepsin,
Therefore, the presence of molecular movement inside the trypsin, etc. help in the breaking down of complex food
organisms used to decide
de whether something is alive or not. mple ones. These simple particles can be
particles into simple
easily absorbed by the blood and thus transported to all the
3: What are outside raw materials used for by an organism?
cells of the body.
Answer:: An organism uses outside raw materials mostly in
5: How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested
the form of food (Since life on earth depends on carbon
food?
based molecules, most of these food sources are
ar also carbon-
based) and oxygen. The raw materials required by an Answer:: The small intestine has millions of tiny finger-like
finger
organism can be quite varied depending on the complexity of projections called villi. These villi increase the surface area for
the organism and its environment. food absorption. Within these villi, many blood vessels are
present that absorb the digested food and carry it to the
4: What processes would you consider essential for
blood stream. From the blood stream, the absorbed food is
maintaining life?
delivered to each and every cell of the body.
Answer: Life processes such as nutrition, respiration,
TEXT / PAGE 110
IN-TEXT
transportation, excretion, etc. are essential for maintaining
life. 1: What advantage over an aquatic organism does a
terrestrial organism have with regard to obtaining oxygen
IN-TEXT / PAGE 106
for respiration?
1: What are the differences between autotrophic nutrition
Answer:: Since the amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low
and heterotrophic nutrition?
compared to the amount of oxygen in the air, the rate of
Answer: breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen
in terrestrial organisms. Therefore, unlike aquatic animals,
terrestrial animals do not have to show various adaptations
for better gaseous exchange.

hat are the different ways in which glucose is oxidised

2: What
to provide energy in various organisms?

Answer:: Glucose is first broken down in the cell cytoplasm

into a three carbon molecule called pyruvate. Pyruvate is
further broken down in the following ways tot provide energy:

2: Where do plants get each of the raw materials required

for photosynthesis?

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iii. Blood vessels (arteries, veins, and capillaries) carry blood

either away from the heart to various organs or from various
organs back to the heart.

2: Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and

deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?

Answer: Warm-blooded animals such as birds and mammals

maintain a constant body temperature by cooling themselves
when they are in a hotter environment and by warming their
bodies when they are in a cooler environment. Hence, these
3: How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human
animals require more oxygen (O2) for more cellular
beings?
respiration so that they can produce more energy to maintain
Answer: Haemoglobin transports oxygen molecule to all the their body temperature.
body cells for cellular respiration. The haemoglobin pigment
Thus, it is necessary for them to separate oxygenated and de-
present in the blood gets attached to O2 molecules that are
oxygenated blood, so that their circulatory system is more
obtained from breathing. It thus forms oxyhaemoglobin and
efficient and can maintain their constant body temperature.
the blood becomes oxygenated. This oxygenated blood is
then distributed to all the body cells by the heart. After giving 3: What are the components of the transport system in
away O2 to the body cells, blood takes CO2 which is the end highly organised plants?
product of cellular respiration. Now the blood becomes de-
oxygenated. Answer: In highly organised plants, there are two different
types of conducting tissues −xylem and phloem. Xylem
Since haemoglobin pigment has less affinity for CO2, CO2 is conducts water and minerals obtained from the soil (via
mainly transported in the dissolved form. This de-oxygenated roots) to the rest of the plant. Phloem transports amino acids
blood gives CO2 to lung alveoli and takes O2 in return. and food materials from the leaves to different parts of the
plant body.
4: How are the lungs designed in human beings to maximise
the area for exchange of gases? 4: How are water and minerals transported in plants?
Answer: The exchange of gases takes place between the Answer: The components of xylem tissue (tracheids and
blood capillaries that surround the alveoli and the gases vessels) of roots, stems and leaves are interconnected to
present in the alveoli. Thus, alveoli are the site for exchange form a continuous system of water – conducting channels
of gases. The lungs get filled up with air during the process of that reach all parts of the plant. Transpiration creates a
inhalation as ribs are lifted up and diaphragm is flattened. suction pressure, as a result of which water is forced into the
The air that is rushed inside the lungs fills the numerous xylem cells of the roots. Then there is a steady movement of
alveoli present in the lungs. Each lung contains 300-350 water from the root xylem to all the plant parts through the
million alveoli. These numerous alveoli increase the surface interconnected water – conducting channels.
area for gaseous exchange making the process of respiration
more efficient. 5: How is food transported in plants?

IN-TEXT / PAGE 115 Answer: Phloem transports food materials from the leaves to
different parts of the plant body. The transportation of food
1: What are the components of the transport system in in phloem is achieved by utilizing energy from ATP. As a result
human beings? What are the functions of these of this, the osmotic pressure in the tissue increases causing
components? water to move into it. This pressure moves the material in the
phloem to the tissues which have less pressure. This is helpful
Answer: The main components of the transport system in
in moving materials according to the needs of the plant. For
human beings are the heart, blood, and blood vessels.
example, the food material, such as sucrose, is transported
i.Heart pumps oxygenated blood throughout the body. It into the phloem tissue using ATP energy.
receives deoxygenated blood from the various body parts and
IN-TEXT / PAGE 117
sends this impure blood to the lungs for oxygenation.
ii. Blood is a fluid connective tissue, it helps in the transport 1: Describe the structure and functioning of nephrons.
of oxygen, nutrients, CO2, and nitrogenous wastes.

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Answer: Nephrons are the basic filtering units of kidneys. that many of their tissues consist of dead cells, and that they
Each kidney possesses large number of nephrons, can even lose some parts such as leaves. Many plant waste
approximately 1-1.5 million. The main components of the products are stored in cellular vacuoles. Waste products may
nephron are glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, and a long renal be stored in leaves that fall off. Other waste products are
tubule. stored as resins and gums, especially in old xylem. Plants also
excrete some waste substances into the soil around them.

3: How is the amount of urine produced regulated?

Answer: The amount of urine produced depends on the

amount of excess water and dissolved wastes present in the
body. Some other factors such as habitat of an organism and
hormone such as Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also regulates
the amount of urine produced.

EXERCISE

1: The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for

Answer: (c) excretion.

2: The xylems in plants are responsible for

Answer: (a) transport of water.

3: The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires

Answer: (d) all of the above.

4: The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water

Functioning of a nephron: and energy takes place in
The blood enters the kidney through the renal artery, which Answer: (b) mitochondria.
branches into many capillaries associated with glomerulus.
5: How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this
The water and solute are transferred to the nephron at process take place?
Bowman’s capsule.
Answer: Fats are present in the form of large globules in the
In the proximal tubule, some substances such as amino acids, small intestine. The small intestine gets the secretions in the
glucose, and salts are selectively reabsorbed and unwanted form of bile juice and pancreatic juice respectively from the
molecules are added in the urine. liver and the pancreas. The bile salts (from the liver) break
down the large fat globules into smaller globules so that the
The filtrate then moves down into the loop of Henle, where
pancreatic enzymes can easily act on them. This is referred to
more water is absorbed.
as emulsification of fats. It takes place in the small intestine.
From here, the filtrate moves upwards into the distal tubule
6: What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food?
and finally to the collecting duct. Collecting duct collects urine
from many nephrons. Answer: Saliva is secreted by the salivary glands, located
under the tongue. It makes the food soft for easy swallowing.
The urine formed in each kidney enters a long tube called
It contains a digestive enzyme called salivary amylase, which
ureter. From ureter, it gets transported to the urinary bladder
breaks down starch into sugar.
and then into the urethra.
7: What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic
2: What are the methods used by plants to get rid of
nutrition and what are its by-products?
excretory products?
Answer: Autotrophic nutrition takes place through the
Answer: Plants use completely different strategies for
process of photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide, water, chlorophyll
excretion than those of animals. They can get rid of excess
pigment, and sunlight are the necessary conditions required
water by transpiration. For other wastes, plants use the fact

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for autotrophic nutrition. Carbohydrates (food) and O2 are 12: (a) Bile doesn't contain any digestive enzymes, yet it is
the by-products of photosynthesis. important for digestion of food. Why?

(b) Explain the role of bile Juice in digesting food.

Answer:: (a) Bile is a digestive juice secreted by the liver.

Although it does not contain any digestive enzymes, it plays
8: What are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic
an important role in the digestion of fats. Bile juice has bile
respiration? Name some organisms that use the anaerobic
pigments such as bilirubin and biliverdin. These break down
mode of respiration.
large fat globules into smaller globules so that the pancreatic
Answer:: Difference between Aerobic respiration and enzymes can easily act on them. This pr process is known as
Anaerobic respiration: emulsification of fats.

(b) Since bile increases the absorption of fats, it is an

important part of the absorption of the fat
fat-soluble
substances, such as the vitamins A, D, E, and K. Besides its
digestive function, bile serves also as the
th route of excretion
for bilirubin, a byproduct of red blood cells recycled by the
liver.

13: Explain the process by which the energy requirements of

9: How are the alveoli designed to maximise the exchange of the autotrophic organisms are fulfilled. In which form the
gases? unused carbohydrates get stored?

Answer: The alveoli are the small balloon-like

like structures ophic organisms fulfill their nutrition with the
Answer: Autotrophic
present in the lungs. The walls of the alveoli consist of help of photosynthesis. The unused extra carbohydrates are
extensive network of blood vessels. Each lung contains stored as starch in leaves of plants and used when needed.
−350 million alveoli, making it a total of approximately
300−350 approxi
14: Name any nitrogenous waste present in urine. What is
700 million in both the lungs. The alveolar surface when
the basic filtration unit of kidney
kid called? How is the amount
spread out covers about 80 m2 area. This large surface area
of urine produced be regulated?
makes the gaseous exchange more efficient.
Answer:: The one nitrogen waste present in urine is "Urea".
The basic filtration unit of kidney is called as nephron. The
amount of urine produced is regulated by urinary bladder.

15: (a) Why doess a piece of bread taste sweet when chewed
for sometime?

(b) Cellulose acts as roughage in man but serves as a source

of nutrient in cow. Justify the statement.

Answer:: (a) A piece of bread composes of starch molecules.

10: When a sportsman runs, he gets muscle cramps. Why?
After chewing bread for some time, the
t enzymes in our
Answer: When sportsman runs for some time they get mouth react with the starch and get converted into glucose. It
muscle cramps because of excessive production of lactic acid is the glucose which provides sweet taste.
in the muscles
16: What would be the consequences of a deficiency of
11: A doctor advised a patient to take less sugar in his diet. haemoglobin in our bodies?
Mention the possible disease the patient would be suffering
Answer:: Haemoglobin is the respiratory pigment that tha
from.
transports oxygen to the body cells for cellular respiration.
Answer: The possible disease the patient is suffering from is Therefore, deficiency of haemoglobin in blood can affect the
Diabetes. It is caused when the concentration of sugar in our oxygen supplying capacity of blood. This can lead to
blood reaches a permissible limit. It's an autoimmune disease deficiency of oxygen in the body cells. It can also lead to a
occurs when the body's system for fighting infection -- the disease called anaemia.
immune system -- turns against a part of thehe body.

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17: Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
necessary?
1. Lack of oxygen in muscles often leads to cramps among
Answer:: The heart receives deoxygenated blood from cricketers. This results due to:
different parts of the body, and it pumps this blood to the
lungs. The oxygenated blood from the lungs returns to the Answer: (d) conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
heart, which is pumped again into different parts of the body 2. During respiration, exchange of gases takes place in:
by the heart. Thus, the blood passes twice through the heart
making one complete round through the body. This is called Answer: (b) alveoli of lungs
double circulation.
3. When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing
The separation of oxygenated and de-oxygenated
oxygenated blood lime water, the lime water turned milky due to the presence
allows a more efficient supply of oxygen to the body cells. of:
This efficient system of oxygen supply is very useful in warm
warm-
Answer: (b) carbon dioxide
blooded animals such as human beings. As we know, warm- warm
blooded animals have to maintain a constant body low of blood inside the heart during
4. What prevents backflow
temperature by cooling themselves when n they are in a hotter contraction?
environment and by warming their bodies when they are in a
cooler environment. Hence, they require more O2 for more Answer:: (a) Valves inheart
respiration so that they can produce more energy to maintain *****
their body temperature.

Thus, the circulatory system of humans is more efficient

because of the double circulatory heart.

18: What are the differences between the transport of

materials in xylem and phloem?

Answer:: Difference between Xylem and Phloem:

19: Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and

nephrons in the kidneys with respect to their structure and
functioning.

Answer:

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Answer: Reflex actions are sudden responses, which do not

CHAPTER 7: CONTROL AND involve any thinking. For example, when we touch a hot
COORDINATION object, we withdraw our hand immediately without thinking
as thinking may take time which would be enough to get us
IN-TEXT / PAGE 125 burnt. The sensory nerves that detect the heat are connected
to the nerves that move the muscles of the hand. Such a
1: What is the difference between a reflex action and
connection of detecting the signal from the nerves (input)
walking?
and responding to it quickly (output) is called a reflex arc. The
Answer: A reflex action is a rapid, automatic response to a reflex arcs —connections present beween the input and
stimulus. It does not involve any thinking. For example, we output nerves — meet in a bundle in the spinal cord.
close our eyes immediately when the bright light is focused.
Reflex arcs are formed in the spinal cord and the information
Walking, on the other hand, is a voluntary action. It is under
(input) reaches the brain. The brain is only aware of the signal
our conscious control.
and the response that has taken place. However, the brain
2: What happens at the synapse between two neurons? has no role to play in the creation of the response.

Answer: A very small gap that occurs between the last

portion of axon of one neuron and the dendron of the other
neuron is known as a synapse. It acts as a one-way valve to
transmit impulses in one direction only. This uni-direction
transfer of impulses occurs as the chemicals are produced in
only one side of the neuron i.e., the axon's side. From axon,
the impulses travel across the synapse to the dendron of the
other neuron.

IN-TEXT / PAGE 128

1: What are plant hormones?

Answer: Plant hormones or phytohormones arenaturally-

occurring organic substances. These are synthesized in one
3: Which part of the brain maintains posture and part of the plant body (in minute quantities) and are
equilibrium of the body? translocated to other parts when required. The five major
types of phytohormones are auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins,
Answer: Cerebellum, a part of hindbrain is responsible for abscisic acid, and ethylene.
maintaining posture and equilibrium of the body.
2: How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant
4: How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti (incense different from the movement of a shoot towards light?
stick)?
Answer: The movement of leaves of the sensitive plant,
Answer: The thinking part of our brain is the forebrain. It has Mimosa pudica or 'touch me not", occurs in response to
separate areas that are specialized for hearing, smelling, touch or contact stimuli. This movement is independent of
sight, taste, touch, etc. The forebrain also has regions that growth. The movement of shoot towards light is known as
collect information or impulses from the various receptors. phototropism. This type of movement is directional and is
When the smell of an incense stick reaches us, our forebrain growth dependent.
detects it. Then, the forebrain interprets it by putting it
together with the information received from other receptors 3: Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes
and also with the information already stored in the brain. growth.

5: What is the role of the brain in reflex action? Answer: Auxin is an example of growth-promoting plant
hormone.

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4: How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a increases the blood pressure. All these responses enable the
support? body to deal with any stress or emergency.

Answer: Auxin is synthesized at the shoot tip. It helps the cell 4: Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving
grow longer. When a tendril comes in contact with a support, injections of insulin?
auxin stimulates faster growth of the cells on the opposite
Answer: Diabetes is a disease in which the level of sugar in
side, so that the tendril forms a coil around the support. This
the blood is too high. Insulin, a hormone secreted by the
makes the tendrils appear as a watch spring.
pancreas, helps in regulating the blood sugar levels. This is
5: Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism. the reason why diabetic patients are treated by giving
injections of insulin.
Answer: Take two small beakers and label them as A and B.
Fill beaker A with water. Now make a cylindrical-shaped roll EXERCISE
from a filter paper and keep it as a bridge between beaker A
1: Which of the following is a plant hormone?
and beaker B, as shown in the figure. Attach few germinating
seeds in the middle of the filter paper bridge. Now, cover the Answer: (d) Cytokinin is a plant hormone.
entire set-up with a transparent plastic container so that the
moisture is retained. 2: The gap between two neurons is called a

Observation: Answer: (b) The gap between two neurons is called a

The roots of the germinating seeds will grow towards beaker synapse.
A. This experiment demonstrates the phenomenon of
3: The brain is responsible for
hydrotropism.
Answer: (d) The brain is responsible for thinking, regulating
IN-TEXT / PAGE 131
the heart beat and balancing the body.
1: How does chemical coordination take place in animals?
4: What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of
Answer: Chemical coordination takes place in animals with situations where receptors do not work properly. What
the help of hormones.Hormone is the chemical messenger problems are likely to arise?
that regulates the physiological processes in living organisms.
Answer: Receptors are sensory structures (organs/tissues or
It is secreted by glands. The regulation of physiological
cells) present all over the body. The receptors are either
processes, and control and coordination by hormones comes
grouped in case of eye or ear, or scattered in case of skin.
under the endocrine system. The nervous system along with
the endocrine system in our body controls and coordinates Functions of receptors:
the physiological processes.
(i) They sense the external stimuli such as heat or pain.
2: Why is the use of iodised salt advisable? (ii) They also trigger an impulse in the sensory neuron which
sends message to the spinal cord. When the receptors are
Answer: Iodine stimulates the thyroid gland to produce
damaged, the external stimuli transferring signals to the brain
thyroxin hormone. It regulates carbohydrate, fat, and protein
are not felt. For example, in the case of damaged receptors, if
metabolism in our body. Deficiency of this hormone results in
we accidentally touch any hot object, then our hands might
the enlargement of the thyroid gland. This can lead to goitre,
get burnt as damaged receptors cannot perceive the external
a disease characterized by swollen neck. Therefore, iodised
stimuli of heat and pam.
salt is advised for normal functioning of the thyroid gland.
5: Draw the structure of a neuron and explain its function.
3: How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted
into the blood? Answer: Neurons are the functional units of the nervous
system. The three main parts of a neuron are axon, dendrite,
Answer: Adrenalin is a hormone secreted by the adrenal
and cell body.
glands in case of any danger or emergency or any kinds of
stress. It is secreted directly into the blood and is transported
to different parts of the body. When secreted in large
amounts, it speeds up the heartbeat and hence supplies more
oxygen to the muscles. The breathing rate also increases due
to contractions of diaphragm and rib muscles. It also

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These phytohormones are either growth promoters (such as

auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, and ethylene) or growth
inhibitors such as abscisic acid.

9: What is the need for a system of control and coordination

in an organism?

Answer: The maintenance of the body functions in response

to changes in the body by working together of various
integrated body systems is known as coordination. All the
movements that occur in response to stimuli are carefully
Functions of the three parts of a neuron: coordinated and controlled. In animals, the control and
coordination movements are provided by nervous and
Axon: It conducts messages away from the cell body. muscular systems. The nervous system sends messages to
Dendrite: It receives information from axon of another cell and away from the brain. The spinal cord plays an important
and conducts the messages towards the cell body. role in the relay of messages. In the absence of this system of
Cell body: It contains nucleus, mitochondria, and other control and coordination, our body will not be able to
organelles. It is mainly concerned with the maintenance and function properly. For example, when we accidentally touch a
growth. hot utensil, we immediately withdraw our hand. In the
6: How does phototropism occur in plants? absence of nerve transmission, we will not withdraw our
hand and may get burnt.
Answer: Secondary sexual characteristics in girls:
10: Tendrils encircle or coil around the object in contact with
• Increase in breast size and darkening of skin of the nipples it. Elaborate.
present at the tips of the breasts. Appearance of hair in the
genital area. Appearance of hair in other areas of skin like Answer: Auxin diffuses to the other part which is away from
underarms, face, hands, and legs. the support. Part of the tendril in contact from the support
• Increase in the size of uterus and ovary. does not grow rapidly. Part of the tendril away from the
• Beginning of menstrual cycle. support grow rapidly and cause the tendril to grow around a
• More secretion of oil from the skin, which results in the support.
appearance of pimples. 11: How does chemical coordination occur in plants? Explain
7: Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord with the help of three examples.
injury? Answer: Chemical coordination occurs in plants with the help
Answer: The reflex arc connections betWeen the input and of fluids secreted in plants known as phytohormones or plant
output nerves meet in a bundle in the spinal cord. In fact, hormones. These hormones regulate the growth of the
nerves from all over the body meet in a bundle in the spinal plants. For example auxin is responsible for the growth of the
cord on their way to the brain. In case of any injury to the plants and cytokinin helps in cell division in the fast growing
spinal cord, the signals coming from the nerves as well as the part of the plant such as plant hormones.
signals coming to the receptors will be disrupted. 12: 'Brain and spinal cord are two vital organs of our body.'
8: How does chemical coordination occur in plants? How is our body designed to protect them?

Answer: In animals, control and coordination occur with the Answer: Brain and spinal cord are the parts of central
help of nervous system. However, plants do not have a nervous system. Brain is located inside a bony box, named as
nervous system. Plants respond to stimuli by showing cranium and a fluid is present in this balloon, known as
movements. The growth, development, and responses to the cerebrospinal fluid which is a shock absorber. Spinal cord is
environment in plants is controlled and coordinated by a placed in a vertebral column and back bone protects it.
special class of chemical substances known as hormones. 13: State how concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to
These hormones are produced in one part of the plant body grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from
and are translocated to other needy parts. For example, a light?
hormone produced in roots is translocated to other parts
when required. The five major types of phytohormone are Answer: When growing plants detect light, a hormone called
auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid, and ethylene. auxin, synthesised at the shoot tip, helps the cells to grow

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longer. When light is coming from one direction of the plant, Answer:
auxin diffuses towards the shady side. This concentration of
auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the
shoot which is away from light. Thus, the plant appears to
bend towards light.

14: Which is the main thinking part of the brain? State how
it functions.

Answer: The main thinking part of the brain is the Forebrain

or the Cerebrum. Its functions are:

i. Specialised for hearing, sight and smell.

ii. Controls feeling of thirst, hunger and many other voluntary
actions.
iii. Helps in relating the information. TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
15: How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different 1. The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to:
from each other?
Answer: (d) Rapid Cell Divisions in Tendrills cells in contact
Answer: Involuntary actions cannot be consciously with the Support.
controlled. For example, we cannot consciously control the
movement of food in the alimentary canal. These actions are 2. The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules is due to:
however directly under the control of the brain. On the other
Answer: (c) geotropism
hand, the reflex actions such as closing of eyes immediately
when bright light is focused show sudden response and do 3. Posture and balance of the body is controlled by:
not involve any thinking. This means that unlike involuntary
actions, the reflex actions are not under the control of brain. Answer: (a) Cerebrum

16: Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal

hormona 4. Choose the incorrect statement about insulin:
mechanisms for control and coordination in animals. Answer: (b) It regulates growth and development of the body
Answer: 5. In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from:

Answer: (d) axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of

another neuron

*****

17: What is the difference between the manner in which

movement takes place in a sensitive plant and the
movement in our legs?

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Answer: Vegetative propagation is practiced for growing

CHAPTER 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS some types of plants because of following advantages:
REPRODUCE? i. It is used to grow a plant in which viable seeds are not
IN-TEXT / PAGE 135 formed or very few seeds are produced such as Orange,
Banana, Pineapple.
1. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction? ii. It helps to introduce plants in new areas where the seed
germination fails to produce mature plant due to change in
Answer: DNA is the genetic material present in the cells of all
environmental factors and the soil.
organisms. The genetic information from generation to
iii. It is more rapid, easier and cheaper method.
generation is carried by DNA. It is therefore possible for the
iv. By this method a good quality of a race or variety can be
organism to produce organism of its own type due to DNA
preserved.
copying only.
5. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of
2. Why is variation beneficial to the species but not
reproduction?
necessarily for the individual?
Answer: DNA copying is an essential part of reproduction as it
Answer: Variations are beneficial to the species than
passes genetic information from parents to offspring. It
individual because sometimes for a species, the
determines the body design of an individual. The reproducing
environmental conditions change so drastically that their
cells produce a copy of their DNA through some chemical
survival becomes difficult.
reactions and result in two copies of DNA.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 140
IN-TEXT / PAGE 147
1. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
1. How is the process of pollination different from
Answer: In binary fission a single cell divides into two equal fertilization?
halves. Amoeba and Bacteria divide by binary fission.
Answer: Pollination is the process of transfer of pollens from
In multiple fission, a single cell divides into many daughter anther to stigma. It occurs with the help of certain pollinators
cells simultaneously. Plasmodium divide by multiple fission. such as air, water, birds, or some insects.

2. How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces Fertilization, is the fusion of the male and female gametes. It
through spores? occurs inside the ovule and leads to the formation of zygote.

Answer: Advantages of spore formation: 2. What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate
gland?
i. Large numbers of spores are produced in one sporangium.
ii. Spores are distributed easily by air to far-off places to avoid Answer: The secretions from seminal vesicles and prostate
competition at one place. glands lubricate the sperms and provide a fluid medium for
iii. Spores are covered by thick walls to prevent dehydration easy transport of sperms. Their secretion also provides
under unfavourable conditions. nutrient in the form of fructose, calcium, and some enzymes.

3. Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms 3. What are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty?
cannot give rise to new individuals through regeneration?
Answer: The changes seen in girls at the time of puberty are:
Answer: Higher complex organisms cannot give rise to new
i. Increase in breast size and darkening of skin of the nipples
individuals through regeneration because:
present at the tips of the breasts.
i. Higher organisms have very complex body designs i.e. they ii. Appearance of hair in the genital area.
show the following hierarchy of organization cell-tissue- iii. Appearance of hair in other areas of skin like underarms,
organ-organ system. face, hands, and legs.
ii. Higher organisms do not have special calls which help in iv. Increase in the size of uterus and ovary.
regeneration of lost part. v. Beginning of menstrual cycle.
vi. More secretion of oil from the skin, which results in the
4. Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing appearance of pimples.
some types of plants?

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4. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the supplied with blood to nourish the embryo. If the egg does
mother's body? not get fertilised, then the lining of the uterus breaks down
slowly and gets released in the form of blood and mucous
Answer:: After fertilization the lining of uterus thickens and is
from the vagina.
richly supplied with blood to nourish the growing
gro embryo.
The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the 7. Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a
help of a special tissue called placenta. flower.

5. If a woman is using a copper-T,

T, will it help in protecting Answer:
her from sexually transmitted diseases?

Answer: No, because copper-T will not prevent the contact of

body fluids. Thus it will not protect her from sexually
transmitted diseases.

EXERCISE

1. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in

Answer: (b) yeast.

2. Which of the following is not a part of the female

reproductive system in human beings? 8. What are the different methods of contraception?

Answer: (c) Vas deferens Answer:: The contraceptive methods can be broadly divided
into the following types:
3. The anther contains
Natural method: It involves avoiding the chances of meeting
Answer: (d) pollen grains.
of sperms and ovum. In this method, the sexual act is avoided
4. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over from day 10th to 17th of the menstrual cycle because during
asexual reproduction? this period, ovulation is expected and therefore, the chances
of fertilization are very high
high.
Answer:: Advantages of sexual reproduction:
Barrier method:: In this method, the fertilization of ovum and
i. In sexual reproduction, more variations are produced. Thus, sperm is prevented with the help of barriers. Barriers are
it ensures survival of species in a population. available for both males and females. Condoms are barriers
ii. The new formed individual has characteristics of both the made of thin rubber that are used to cover penis in males and
parents. vagina in females.
iii. Variations are more viable in sexual mode than in asexual
one. This is because in asexual reproduction, DNA has to Oral contraceptives:: In this method, tablets or drugs are taken
function inside the inherited cellular apparatus. orally. These contain small doses of hormones that prevent
the release of eggs and thus fertilization cannot occur.
5. What are the functions performed by the testis in human
beings? Implants and surgical methods:
methods Contraceptive devices such as
the loop or Copper-TT are placed in uterus to prevent
Answer: Functions of testes are: pregnancy. Some surgical methods can also be used to block
the gamete transfer. It includes the blocking of vas deferens
i. Produce sperms, which contain haploid set of chromosomes
to prevent the transfer of sperms known as vasectomy.
of father.
ii. Produce a hormone called testosterone,
stosterone, which brings 9. How are the modes for reproduction
reproducti different in
about secondary sexual characters in boys. unicellular and multicellular organisms?
6. Why does menstruation occur? Answer:: In unicellular organisms, reproduction occurs by the
division of the entire cell. The modes of reproduction in
Answer:: This process occurs every month because one egg is
unicellular organisms can be fission, budding, etc. whereas in
released from the ovary every month and at the same time,
multicellular organisms, specialised reproductive organs are
the uterus (womb) prepares itself to receive
ceive the fertilized
egg. Thus, the inner lining of the uterus gets thickened and is present. Therefore, they can reproduce by complex

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reproductive methods such as vegetative propagation, spore portions of leaves which then develops into a new plant.
formation, etc. In more complex multicellular organisms such iii. Begonia also reproduces by this method.
as human beings and plants, the mode of reproduction is iv. In onion, a swollen part called bulb is present which
sexual reproduction. develops into a new individual plant.

10. Leaves of Bryophyllum fallen on the ground produce 14. Can we find variations in an asexually reproducing
new plants. Why? organism like bacteria? Write yes or no and give a reason in
support of your answer.
Answer: In the Bryophyllum the leaves have leaf buds that
develop adventitious roots. When these leaves fall on ground Answer: No, we cannot find variations in asexually
and come in contact with soil then plant grow from the leaf reproducing organisms like bacteria. It is because there is the
buds. Rose leaves don’t have leaf buds as they can grow by involvement of only a single parent and there is no formation
the method called grafting. That’s why their leaves do not of gametes and its fusion (syngamy). That is the reason why
gave rise to produce new plants. the progeny of a bacterial cell are the exact copies of their
parent and are identical to each other (clones).
11. Why are the testes located outside the abdominal
cavity? Mention the endocrine and exocrine function of 15. How does reproduction help in providing stability to
testes. populations of species?

Answer: Since sperm production need slightly less Answer: Reproduction is the process of producing new
temperature than the normal body temperature so they are individuals of the same species by existing organisms of a
located outside the body. species, so, it helps in providing stability to population of
species by giving birth to new individuals as the rate of birth
i. Its endocrine function is to secrete testosterone which
must be at par with the rate of death to provide stability to
triggers the secondary characters in males
population of a species.
ii. Its exocrine function is to produce sperms.
16. What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive
12. (a) What are sexually transmitted diseases? Name any
methods?
one which is caused by bacteria and one caused by viral
infection. Answer: Contraceptive methods are mainly adopted because
of the following reasons:
(b) Mention any two methods to avoid such diseases.
i. To prevent unwanted pregnancies.
Answer: (a)Sexually transmitted diseases, commonly called
ii. To control population rise or birth rate.
STDs, are diseases that are spread by having sex with
iii. To prevent the transfer of sexually transmitted diseases.
someone who has an STD. One sexually transmitted disease
caused by bacteria is gonorrhoea and one caused by virus is TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
warts.
1. Reproduction is essential for living organisms in order to:
(b) Two methods to avoid such diseases are:
i. Using a covering, called a condom. Answer: (d) continue the species generation after generation
ii. Avoiding sexual relationship with people with STD. 2. During adolescence, several changes occur in the human
13. How does vegetative propagation occur in nature? body. Mark one change associated with sexual maturation
Explain with four different examples. in boys:

Answer: Vegetative reproduction is a kind of asexual Answer: a) c) cracking of voice

reproduction in plants through which new plants are aroused 3. In Rhizopus, tubular thread- like structures bearing
from old parts of plants without involvement of any sporangia at their tips are called:
reproductive organ. Here, in this process, only one parent
body is involved. Answer: (c) rhizoids

Examples - 4. The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during

reproduction in Plasmodium is called:
i. Tubers are present in potatoes. This contains eyes or nods
through which new plant arises. Answer: (d) multiple fission
ii. In Bryophyllum, many buds comes out from the side

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5. Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are

present in:

Answer: (d) genes

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information enough to tell you which of the traits - blood

CHAPTER 9: HEREDITY AND group A or O - is dominant? Why or why not?
EVOLUTION Answer: No. This information is not sufficient to determine
IN-TEXT / PAGE 151 which of the traits - blood group A or O - is dominant. This is
because we do not know about the blood group of all the
1. If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually progeny.
reproducing species and a trait B exists in 60% of the same
population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier? Blood group A can be genotypically AA or AO. Hence, the
information is incomplete to draw any such conclusion.
Answer: Trait B because in asexual reproduction traits which
are present in the previous generation are carried over to 4. How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?
next generation with minimal variations. Trait B has higher
Answer: In human beings, the females have two X
percentage so it is likely to have arisen earlier.
chromosomes and the males have one X and one Y
2. How does the creation of variations in a species promote chromosome. Therefore, the females are XX and the males
survival? are XY.

Answer: Variations occur due to sexual reproduction and also The gametes, as we know, receive half of the chromosomes.
due to inaccurate copying of DNA. Depending on the nature The male gametes have 22 autosomes and either X or Y sex
of variations, different individuals would have different kinds chromosome.
of advantages. For example, bacteria variants which can
Type of male gametes: 22+X OR 22+ Y.
withstand heat have better chances to survive in a heat wave
non-variant bacteria having no capacity to tolerate heat However, since the females have XX sex chromosomes, their
wave. Thus, variations in a population of a species help in gametes can only have X sex chromosome.
survival of a species.
Type of female gamete: 22+X
IN-TEXT / PAGE 155
Sex Detrmination in human beings
1. How do Mendel's experiments show that traits may be
Thus, the mother provides only X chromosomes. The sex of
dominant or recessive?
the baby is determined by the type of male gamete (X or Y)
Answer: The trait which appears in all the members of F1 that fuses with the X chromosome of the female.
generation and also in 75% numbers of F2 generation
IN-TEXT / PAGE 158
obtained by self fertilization of F1 generation is dominant
character. 1. What are the different ways in which individuals with a
particular trait may increase in a population?
The trait which does not appear in F generation but after self-
fertilization of F1 generation, reappears in 25% of F2 Answer: Individuals with a particular trait may increase in a
generation is known as recessive. population as a result of the following:
2. How do Mendel's experiments show that traits are Natural selection: When that trait offers some survival
inherited independently? advantage.
Answer: Mendel crossed pure breeding tall plants having Genetic drift: When some genes governing that trait become
round seeds with pure breeding short plants having wrinkled common in a population.
seeds. The plants of F1 generation were all tall with round
seeds indicating that the traits of tallness and round seeds When that trait gets acquired during the individual's lifetime.
were dominant. Self breeding of F1 yielded plants with
2. Why are traits acquired during the life-time of an
characters of 9 tall round seeded, 3 tall wrinkled seeded, 3
individual not inherited?
short round seeded and one short wrinkled seeded. Tall
wrinkled seeded and short round seeded plants are new Answer: This happens because an acquired trait involves
combinations which can develop only when the traits are change in non-reproductive tissues which cannot be passed
inherited independently. on to germ cells or the progeny. Therefore, these traits
cannot be inherited.
3. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood
group O and their daughter has blood group O. Is this

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3. Why are the small numbers of surviving tigers a cause of Answer: The wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat are
worry from the point of view of genetics? similar in function. They help the butterfly and the bat in
flying. Since they perform similar function, they are analogous
Answer: The small number of members in a population of
organs and not homologous.
tigers does not allow large number of variation to occur
which are essential to survival of the species. A deadly 3. What are fossils? What do they tell us about the process
disease or calamity may cause death of all the tigers. The of evolution?
small number of tiger also indicates that existing tiger
Answer: Fossils are the remains of organisms that once
variants are not well adapted to the existing environment and
existed on earth.
may extinct soon.
They tell us about the development of the structures from
IN-TEXT / PAGE 159
simple structured to complex structured organisms.They tell
1. What factors could lead to the rise of a new species? us about the phases of evolutions through which they must
have undergone in order to sustain themselves in the
Answer: Natural selection, genetic drift and acquisition of
competetive environment.
traits during the life time of an individual can give rise to new
species. IN-TEXT / PAGE 166

2. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the 1. Why are human beings who look so different from each
speciation of a self-pollinating plant species? Why or why other in terms of size, colour and looks said to belong to the
not? same species?

Answer: Geographical isolation can prevent the transfer of Answer: A species is a group of organisms that are capable of
pollens among different plants. However, since the plants are interbreeding to produce a fertile offspring. Skin colour,
self-pollinating, which means that the pollens are transferred looks, and size are all variety of features present in human
from the anther of one flower to the stigma of the same beings. These features are genetic but also environmentally
flower or of another flower of the same plant, geographical controlled. Various human races are formed based on these
isolation cannot prevent speciation in this case. features. All human races have more than enough similarities
to be classified as same species. Therefore, all human beings
3. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the
are a single species as humans of different colour, size, and
speciation of an organism that reproduces asexually? Why
looks are capable of reproduction and can produce a fertile
or why not?
offspring.
Answer: No, because geographical isolation does not affect
2. In evolutionary terms, can we say which among bacteria,
much in asexually reproducing organisms. Asexually
spiders, fish and chimpanzees have a 'better' body design?
reproducing organisms pass on the parent DNA to offsprings
Why or why not?
that leaves no chance of speciation. However, geographical
isolation works as a major factor in cross pollinated species as Answer: Evolution cannot always be equated with progress or
it would result in pollinated species and accumulation of better body designs. Evolution simply creates more complex
variation in the two geographically separated population. body designs. However, this does not mean that the simple
body designs are inefficient. In fact, bacteria having a simple
IN-TEXT / PAGE 164
body design are still the most cosmopolitan organisms found
1. Give an example of characteristics being used to on earth. They can survive hot springs, deep sea, and even
determine how close two species are in evolutionary terms. freezing environment.

Answer: Feathers in some ancient reptiles like dinosaurs, as Therefore, bacteria, spiders, fish, and chimpanzees are all
fossils indicate, evolved to provide insulation in cold weather. different branches of evolution.
However, they cannot fly with these feathers later on birds
EXERCISE
adapted the feathers to flight. This means that birds are very
closely related to reptiles, since dinosaurs were reptile. 1. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea
plants bearing violet flowers with short pea plants bearing
2. Can the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat be
white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but
considered homologous organs? Why or why not?
almost half of them were short. This suggests that the
genetic make-up of the tall parent can be depicted as

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Answer: (c) TtWW A dog inherits one gene from each of its parents. The
dominant gene gets expressed in the phenotype. For
2. An example of homologous organs is
example, in the B series, a dog can be genetically black or
Answer: (b) our teeth and an elephant's tusks. brown.

3. In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with Let us assume that one parent is homozygous black (BB),
while the other parent is homozygous brown (bb)
Answer: (a) a Chinese school-boy.
BB
4. A study found that children with light-coloured eyes are
likely to have parents with light-coloured eyes. On this basis, bb B B
can we say anything about whether the light eye colour trait
is dominant or recessive? Why or why not? b Bb Bb

Answer: This information is not sufficient. For considering a b Bb Bb

trait as dominant or recessive, we need data of at least three
generations. This data is about only two generations.
In this case, all the offspring will be heterozygous (Bb).
5. How are the areas of study - evolution and classification -
Since black (B) is dominant, all the offspring will be black.
interlinked?
However, they will have both B and b alleles.
Answer: Classification involves grouping of organism into a
B b
formal system based on similarities in internal and external
structure or evolutionary history. B BB Bb
Two species are more closely related if they have more b Bb Bb
characteristics in common. And if two species are more
closely related, then it means they have a more recent If such heterozygous pups are crossed, they will produce 25%
ancestor. homozygous black (BB), 50% heterozygous black (Bb), and
25% homozygous brown (bb) offspring.
With subsequent generations, the variations make organisms
more different than their ancestors. 8. Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary
relationships.
This discussion clearly proves that we classify organisms
according to their resemblance which is similar to creating an Answer: Fossil provide us evidence about
evolutionary tree.
The organisms that lived long ago such as the time period
6. Explain the terms analogous and homologous organs with during which they lived, their structure etc.
examples.
Evolutionary development of species i.e., line of their
Answer: Homologus organs are those organs which have the development.
same basic structural design and origin but have different
Connecting links between two groups. For example, feathers
functions.
present in some dinosaurs means that birds are very closely
For Example: The forelimbs of humans and the wings of birds related to reptiles.
look different externally but their skeletal structure is similar.
Which organisms evolved earlier and which later.
Analogus organs are those organs which have the different
Development of complex body designs from the simple body
basic structural design and origin but have similar functions.
designs.
For example: The wings of birds and insects.
9. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from
7. Outline a project which aims to find the dominant coat inanimate matter?
colour in dogs.
Answer: The evidence for the origin of life from inanimate
Answer: Dogs have a variety of genes that govern coat colour. matter was provided through an experiment, conducted in
There are at least eleven identified gene series (A, B, C, D, E, 1953, by Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey. In experiment,
F, G, M, P, S, T) that influence coat colour in dog. they assembled an atmosphere containing molecules like

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ammonia, methane and hydrogen sulphide, but no oxygen, (i) The two basic characteristics that decide about analogy
over water. This was similar to atmosphere that thought to and homology are origin, structures and function.
exist on early earth. This was maintained at a temperature
(ii) In prokaryotic organism, no true nucleus is found.
just below 100°C and sparks were passed through the mixture
Therefore, nucleus is absent. In eukaryotic organisms, true
of gases to simulate lightning. At the end of a week, 15% of
nucleus is found.
the carbon from methane had been converted to simple
compounds of carbon including amino acids which make up 13. Variation is useful for the survival of species over long
protein molecules and support the life in basic form. Thus, time. But the variants have unequal chances of survival.
amply suggesting that life arose afresh on earth. Explain this statement.
10. A pea plant with blue colour flower denoted by BB is Answer: Variations happen due to inaccuracies in DNA
cross-bred with a pea plant with white flower denoted by copying. Thus new organisms with variations may have
ww: survival advantages and can adapt to the environment as new
generations come there is more accumulation of variations
(a) What is the expected colour of the flowers in their F1
which help in survival of such species. Such species have
progeny?
better chances of survival. For example, in a bacteria
(b) What will be the percentage of plants bearing white population, new variants are formed. if the temperature of
flower in F2 generation, when the flowers of F1 plants were water in which they live is increased, the bacteria tolerant to
selfed? heat that is the variants will survive while the normal bacteria
dies.
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bw in
the F2 progeny. 14. If a population of red beetles, living on green bushes is
being eaten by crows. During sexual reproduction a green
Answer: (a) Blue
beetle is found in progeny:
(b) 25%
(a) What is the future of new trait?
(c) BB:Bw = 1 : 2
(b) Will it survive in the new habitat?
11. List three main factors responsible for the speciation and
Answer: a) Green coloured beetles will be common in future.
briefly describe each one of them.
b) It'll survive because they won't be visible for the crows if
Answer: Three main factors responsible for the speciation
they are on the green bushes.
are:
15. Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more
Natural Selection - This is a phenomenon by which organisms
viable variations than asexual reproduction. How does this
better adapted to the environment tend to survive and
affect the evolution of those organisms that reproduce
reproduce more.
sexually?
Geographical barriers - This is a phenomenon by which
Answer: Sexual reproduction causes more viable variations
geographical barriers like distance, mountains, rivers etc.
due to the following reasons:
separate the populations of a species. Due to this, the
populations adapt differently to their environment, i. Error in copying of DNA, which are not highly significant.
accumulate different variations and get reproctively isolated ii. Random segregation of paternal and maternal
which ultimately results in the formation of a new species. chromosome at the time of gamete formation.
iii. Exchange of genetic material between homologous
Genetic Drift - Random changes in the frequency of alleles in
chromosomes during formation of gametes.
a gene pool, usually in small populations, irrespective of it
iv. Accumulation of variations occurred due to sexual
being beneficial or harmful.
reproduction over generation after generation and selection
12. Homologous organs are different from analogous by nature created wide diversity.
organs. Mention the two basic characteristics that decide
In case of asexual reproduction, only the very small changes
about analogy and homology between the two organs.
due to inaccuracies in DNA copying pass on the progeny.
Answer: The two basic characteristics that decide about Thus, offspring of asexual reproduction are more or less
analogy and homology between the two organs are: genetically similar to their parents. So, it can be concluded

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that evolution in sexually reproducing organisms proceed at a 3. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the
faster pace than in asexually reproducing organisms. father will develop into a:

16. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and Answer: (b) girl
female parents ensured in the progeny?
4. In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant
Answer: In human beings, equal genetic contribution of male (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to short plants in F2 is:
and female parents is ensured in the progeny through
Answer: (c) 1:1
inheritance of equal number of chromosomes from both
parents. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes All human *****
chromosomes are not paired. Out of these 23 pairs, the first
22 pairs are known as autosomes and the remaining one pair
is known as sex chromosomes represented as X and Y.
Females have a perfect pair of two X sex chromosomes and
males have a mismatched pair of one X and one Y sex
chromosome.

During the course of reproduction, as fertilization process

takes place, the male gamete (haploid) fuses with the female
gamete (haploid) resulting in formation of the diploid zygote.
The zygote in the progeny receives an equal contribution of
genetic material from the parents. Out of 23 pairs of
chromosomes in progeny, male parent contributes 22
autosomes and one X or Y chromosome and female parent
contributes 22 autosomes and one X chromosome.

17. Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual

organism will survive in a population. Do you agree with this
statement? Why or why not?

Answer: We agree with the statement that only variations

that confer an advantage to an individual organism will
survive in a population. All the variations do not have an
equal chance of surviving in the environment in which they
find themselves. The chances of surviving depend on the
nature of variations. Different individual would have different
kind of advantages. Bacteria that can withstand heat will
survive better in a heat wave. Selection of variants by
environmental factors forms the basis for revolutionary
process.

TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION

1. According to the evolutionary theory, formation of a new

species is generally due to:

Answer: (b) accumulations of variations over several

generations.

2. Select the correct statement:

Answer: (d) Wings of birds and wings of bat are homologous.

Since they have same basic design however their origin is
different.

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= -3
CHAPTER 10: LIGHT – REFLECTION
AND REFRACTION Or, v = 3u

But, u = -10 cm
IN-TEXT / PAGE 177
Therefore, m = -v/u
1. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.
=>-3 = -v/-10
Answer: The principal focus of a concave mirror is a point on
its principal axis to which all the light rays which are parallel => v = -30 cm
and close to the axis, converge after reflection from the
concave mirror. IN-TEXT / PAGE 185

1. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water.

2. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What
Does the light ray bend towards the normal or away from
is its focal length?
the normal? Why?
Answer: Focal length = 2 x Radius of curvature
Answer: The light-ray bends towards the normal because the
= 2 x 20 cm ray of light goes from a rarer medium to a denser medium.

= 10 cm 2. Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50.

What is the speed of light in the glass? The speed of light in
3. Name a mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image
vacuum is 3 × 108 m s–1.
of an object.
Answer: Refractive index of glass, n8 = 1.50
Answer: Concave mirror.
8 -1
Speed of light in vacuum, c = 3 x 10 ms
4 Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in
vehicles? Speed of light in glass = c/n9
8 -1
Answer: We prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in = 3 x 10 ms /1.5
vehicles because of two reasons. 8 -1
= 2 x 10 ms
i. A convex mirror always produces an erect image of the
objects. 3. Find out, from Table 10.3, the medium having highest
ii. The image formed in a convex mirror is highly diminished optical density. Also, find the medium with lowest optical
density.
or much smaller than the object, due to which a convex
mirror gives a wide field of view of the traffic behind. A
convex mirror enables the driver to view such larger area of
the traffic behind him.

IN-TEXT / PAGE 180

1. Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of

curvature is 32 cm.

Answer: R = +32cm and f = R/2

= +32/2

= +16 cm

2. A concave mirror produces three times magnified

(enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of
it. Where is the image located? Answer: From table 10.3, diamond has highest refractive
Answer: m = h’/h index (-2.42), so it has highest optical density. Air has lowest
refractive index (1.0003), so it has lowest optical density.
= -v/u

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4. You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of

these does the light travel fastest? Use the information
given in Table 10.3.

Answer: For kerosene, n = 144, for turpentine, n 1.47, for

water, n - 1.33 Because water has the lowest refractive index,
therefore light travels fastest in this optically rarer medium
than kerosene and turpentine oil.

5. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the

meaning of this statement?

Answer: By saying that the refractive index of diamond is

2.42, we mean that the speed of light in diamond is lower by
a factor of 2.42 relative to that in vacuum.

IN-TEXT / PAGE 193

1. Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.

Answer: One dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal

length is 1 meter.

2. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle

at a distance of 50 cm from it. Where is the needle placed in
front of the convex lens if the image is equal to the size of
the object? Also, find the power of the lens.

Answer:

3. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2 m.

Answer:

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EXERCISE

1 Which one of the following materials cannot be used to

make a lens?

Answer: (d) Clay

2. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be

virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where should be
the position of the object?

Answer: (d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal
focus. 8. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.
3. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex (a) Headlights of a car
lens to get a real image of the size of the object? (b) Side/rear view mirror of a vehicle
(c) Solar furnace
Answer: (b) At twice the focal length Support your answer with reason.
4. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a Answer: (a) Headlights of a car: Concave mirror is used.
focal length of –15 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely to
be Explanation: When object is placed at principal focus of a
concave mirror, rays coming from object direct parallel to the
Answer: (a) Both concave principal axis and a highly enlarged, real and inverted image is
formed at infinity.
5. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image
appears erect. The mirror is likely to be Thus, in headlights of a car, by placing bulb (source of light) at
principal focus of a concave mirror, a parallel beam of light is
Answer: (d) either plane or convex
obtained which goes up to infinity. This facilitates better
6. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use vision upto a long distance to the driver.
while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(b) Side/rear view mirror of a vehicle: A convex mirror is used.
Answer: (c) A convex lens of focal length 5cm
Explanation: A concave mirror is used as side/rear view
7. We wish to obtain an erect image of an object, using a mirror of a vehicle because:
concave mirror of focal length 15cm. What should be the - A convex mirror gives an erect and smaller image.
range of distance of the object from the mirror? What is the - A convex mirror has wider field of view as it is curved
nature of the image? Is the image larger or smaller than the outwards which enable a driver to view much larger area
object? Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in than would be possible with a plane mirror.
this case. - A convex mirror enables the driver to see traffic behind him
because of features given above and facilitate safe driving.
Answer: A concave mirror forms a virtual, enlarged and erect
image only when object is placed between its principal focus (c) Solar furnace: A concave mirror is used having large
and pole. aperture.

Thus, in given situation of a concave lens having focal length Explanation: A concave mirror converges light rays coming
equal to 15cm, the object must be placed less than 15cm parallel to its principal axis from infinity at its principal focus.
from pole of the mirror to get an erect image. By converging rays of light at a point, all heat of light get
focused at one point and produce enormous heat. Thus, in a
Thus, range of distance of the object from the mirror = less solar furnace, a concave mirror having large size of aperture
than 15cm is used.
Nature of image: Virtual and erect 9. One half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper.
Size of image: Larger than the object Will this lens produce a complete image of the object?
Verify your answer experimentally. Explain your
observations.

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Answer: Yes, if one half of a convex lens is covered with a Now,

black paper, it produces a complete image of the object.
Putting u = –12 cm and f = +15cm,
Experiment: One-half of a convex lens covered with black
We get,
paper is taken. An object is placed infront of it, say beyond
2F1 It produces a diminished, real and inverted image 1/v = 1/15 - 1/-12 = 4+5/60 = 9/60
between F2 and 2F2. Experiment is repeated by placing v = 60/9 = 6.7 cm
object at different positions. In all cases image is formed.
Image is formed 6.7 CM behind the convex mirror. It must be
virtual and erect.

If h2 is size of image, then m = h2/h1 = -v/u

or, m = h2/h1 = –(6.7)/–12 = 0.558
h2 = 0.558
h1 = 0.558 x 4.5
= 2.5 cm

As the needle is moved further from the mirror, image moves

away from the mirror till it is at focus F of the mirror the size
of the image goes on decreasing.

13. Which lens can be used as a magnifying glass? For which

10. Explain why we see the sign AMBULANCE written position of object does a convex lens form:
inverted in front of the some vehicles.
(a) a virtual and erect image?
Answer: The word AMBULANCE is written inverted because if (b) a real and inverted image of same size as that of object?
it is seen through a mirror in the vehicles ahead the drivers
Draw a labeled ray diagrams to show the formation of the
see it as AMBULANCE without inversion and hence give way
required image in each of the above two cases.
ambulance without any delay.
Answer: Convex lens can be used as magnifying glass.
11. What is meant by power of a lens? Give its SI unit. When
two or more lenses are placed in contact, what will be their (a) When object is between optical centre O and focus F1
combined power?

Answer: he reciprocal of the focal length of a lens is termed

as the power of the lens. It is expressed in meters. SI unit is
dioptre. The combined power will be equal to the algebraic
the sum of their individual powers.

12. A 4.5 cm needle is placed 12 cm away from a convex

mirror of focal length 15 cm. Give the location of image and
magnification. Describe what happens to the image as the
needle is moved farther from the mirror.
(b) When object is at 2F1
Answer: Here,

Object size, h1 = 4.5 cm

Object distance, u = –12 cm
Focal length, f = + 15 cm
Image distance, v = ?
Magnification, m = ?

As,

1/u + 1/v = 1/f

1/v = 1/f – 1/u

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14. For driving a car what type of mirror would you prefer to
see the traffic at your back and why?

Answer: A convex mirror is used to seeee the traffic at the back.

It is because a convex mirrorr always forms an erect though
diminished image of the object. It has a wider field of view.
So, we will be able to much larger at the
he back than a plane
mirror while driving the car.

15. What happens to the image formed by a convex lens if

its part is blackened?

Answer: Every part of a lens forms a complete image. If the

lower part of the lens is blackened
ned the complete image will be
formed but its intensity will decrease.

16. An object 5cm in length is held 25cm away from a

converging lens of focal length 10cm. Draw the ray diagram Position of image: Between F2 and 2F2, i.e. at the other side
and find the position, size and the nature of the image of lens.
formed. Size of image: – 3.3 cm, i.e. smaller than object.
Nature of image: Inverted and real
Answer: Here given,
17. A concave lens of focal length 15cm forms an image
Size of object: 5cm
10cm from the lens. How far is the object placed from lens?
Distance of object (u)= –25cm
Draw a ray diagram.
Focal length (f) = 10cm
Distance of image (v) =? Answer: Given,
We know, th of concave lens (f) = – 15cm
Focal length
Distance of image (v) = – 10cm
Distance of object (u) = ?

We know that in the case of a converging lens

We know that, magnification

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Thus, object is place at distance of 30cm from the lens i.e. at Explanation: A plane mirror always form image of same size
2F1 of the concave lens. as of the size of object. And a plane mirror always forms a
virtual and erected image.
18. An object is placed at a distance of 10cm from a convex
mirror of focal length 15cm. Find the
he position and nature of 20.. An object 5.0 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20cm
the image. in front
ont of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30cm. Find
the position of the image, its nature and size.
Answer: Given,
Answer: Given
Distance of object (u) = – 10cm
Focal length = 15cm Size of objet = 5.0 cm
Distance of image (v) =? Distance of object = – 20cm
Radius of curvature (R) = 30cm
We know that for a spherical mirror
Thus, focal length = R/2 = 30cm/2 = 15cm

Distance of image (v) = ?

And magnification (m) = ?

We know that,

Now, magnification

Since distance of image is positive, this shows that image is

formed at the other side of the
he mirror. And magnification is
also positive this shows that image is erect.

Thus, Position of image = 6cm (behind the mirror, because

distance of image is positive)

Nature of image = Virtual and erect (Because magnification is

positive
sitive and image is formed behind the mirror)

19.. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1.

What does it mean?

Answer:: Magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1 Thus,

means, age = 8.57 cm behind the mirror.
Position of image
(a) Size of image is equal to the size of object Size of image = 2.15 cm which is smaller than the object
object.
(b) Positive sign in the magnification shows that image is Nature of image = virtual and erect (Because distance of
erect. image and magnification both aare positive).

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21. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27cm in front of a We know that, P = 1/f
concave mirror of focal length 18cm. At what distance from Or, – 2.0 D = 1/f
the mirror should a screen be placed, so that a sharp Or, f = 1/– 2.0 D
focused image can be obtained? Find the size and the nature Or, Focal length (f) = – 0.5 m
of the image.
Since, power of length is in minus, thus it is a concave lens.
Answer: Size of object (h) = 7.0 cm
23. A doctor has prescribed the corrective lens of power +
Distance of object (u) = – 27cm
1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the prescribed lens
Focal length (f) = – 18cm
diverging or converging?
Distance of image (v) =?
Height of image (h') =? Answer: Given,
We know that Power of lens (P) = + 1.5 D
Thus, focal length (f) =?
We know that, P = 1/f
∴ + 1.5 D = 1/f

Or, f = 1/1.5D

=0.66 m

Thus, focal length of the lens is equal to 0.66 m. And lens is

converging because power given has positive sign.

TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION

1. A plain mirror produces a magnification of:

of

Answer: (b) +1

rmed by a convex spherical mirror is:

2. Image formed

Answer: (a) virtual

3. A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real

image on reflection. The incident beam is:
is

Answer: (b) convergent

4. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a

concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image produced
is:
Thus, Answer: (d) real, inverted and of the same size as that of the
object.
To obtain a sharp and focused image, screen will be placed at
a distance of 54cm in front of mirror. 5. A dice is placed with one of it
its edges parallel to the
Position of image = 54 cm in front of mirror. principal axis between the principal focus and the centre of
Size of image = 14 cm, i.e. double size of object, i.e. enlarged. curvature of a concave mirror. Then the final image has the
Nature of image = Inverted and real (Because magnification shape of:
and distance of image are in negative).
Answer: (b) rectangular
22. Find the focal length of a lens of power – 2.0 D. What
type of lens is this? *****

Answer: Given,

Power of lens (P) = – 2.0 D

Thus, focal length (f) =?

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2. The human eye forms the image of an object at its

CHAPTER 11: HUMAN EYE AND THE
COLOURFUL WORLD Answer: (d) retina

3. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with

IN-TEXT / PAGE 200
normal vision is about
1. What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye?
Answer: (c) 25 cm
Answer: When the ciliary muscles are relaxed, the eye lens
4. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the
becomes thin, the focal length increases, and the distant
action of the
objects are clearly visible to the eyes. To see the nearby
objects clearly, the ciliary muscles contract making the eye Answer: (c) ciliary muscles
lens thicker. Thus, the focal length of the eye lens decreases
5. A person needs a lens of power –5.5 dioptres for
and the nearby objects become visible to the eyes. Hence,
correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near vision he
the human eye lens is able to adjust its focal length to view
both distant and nearby objects on the retina. This ability is needs a lens of power +1.5 dioptre. What is the focal length
called the power of accommodation of the eyes. of the lens required for correcting (i) distant vision, and (ii)
near vision?
2. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond
1.2 m distinctly. What should be the type of the corrective Answer:
lens used to restore proper vision?

Answer: The person is able to see nearby objects clearly, but

he is unable to see objects beyond 1.2 m. This happens
because the image of an object beyond 1.2 m is formed in
front of the retina and not at the retina, as shown in the given
gure.

To correct this defect of vision, he must use a concave lens.

The concave lens will bring the image back to the retina as
shown in the given gure.

3. What is the far point and near point of the human eye
with normal vision?

Answer: The near point of the eye is the minimum distance of

the object from the eye, which can be seen distinctly without
strain. For a normal human eye, this distance is 25 cm. The far
point of the eye is the maximum distance to which the eye
can see the objects clearly. The far point of the normal
human eye is in infinity.
6. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the
4. A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while
eye. What is the nature and power of the lens required to
sitting in the last row. What could be the defect the child is
correct the problem?
suffering from? How can it be corrected?
Answer: The person is suffering from myopia and hence need
Answer: A student has difficulty in reading the blackboard
a concave lens to correct the defect. The lens should be such
while sitting in the last row. It shows that he is unable to see
that an object at infinity must form its image at the far point.
distant objects clearly. He is suffering from myopia. This
defect can be corrected by using a concave lens. Hence, f=−80 cm=−0.8 m
EXERCISE P = 1/f
=1/(−0.8)
1. The human eye can focus on objects at different distances
=−1.25 D
by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens. This is due to

Answer: (b) accommodation

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A concave lens of power —1.25 D is required by the person to 10. Mention the factor on which scattering of light depends.
correct his defect. Why does the sky appear dark in space?

7. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. Answer: Scattering of light depends upon the wavelength of
The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 m. What is the light. Lesser wavelength lights scatter more and more
power of the lens required to correct this defect? Assume wavelengths lights scatter less. In space there is no
that the near point of the normal eye is 25 cm. atmosphere so there is no refraction in space so it is dark.
Due to absence of scattering of light in space, the sky appear
Answer: u = -25 cm
dark in space
v = -1 m = -100 cm
11. (a) State two main causes of a person developing near
Putting these values in the lens formula,
sightedness. How can this defect be corrected?
1/v - 1/u = 1/f (b) What is astigmatism and how is this vision defect
⇒ 1/f = 1/-100 - 1/-25 corrected?
⇒ 1/f = -1/100 + 1/25 = 3/100
Answer: (a) This defect is due to either.
⇒ f = 100/3 cm
(i) cornea having excessive curvature.
We know, power of lens can be calculated as, P = 1/f (in (ii) elongation of the eyeball. As a result the maximum focal
meters) or P = 100/f (in centimeters) length of eye lens becomes less than the distance from the
lens to the retina.
⇒ P = 100/(100/3)
=3D It can be corrected by using a concave lens.

A convex lens of power + 3.0D is required to correct the (b) When a person is unable to see equally in all directions,
defect. then the defect is called astigmatism. The eye lens develops
different curvatures along different planes. This vision is
corrected by using cylindrical lens.

12. An older person is unable to see clearly nearby objects

as well as distant objects.
(i) What defect of vision is he suffering from?
(ii) What kind of lens will be required to see clearly the
nearby as well as distant objects? Give reasons.

Answer: (i) The old man is suffering from a optical disease

which is also known as the "presbyopia."
(ii) He has to use bifocal lenses or eyeglasses in order to
8. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects clearly see the objects in both nearby and distance.
placed closer than 25 cm?
13. Why does it take some time to see the objects in a dim
Answer: Because the focal length of Normal eye is 25cm. room when we enter the room from bright sunlight outside?
When any object placed closer than 25 cm then the image is
FORMED behind the retina. Then object seem blurred. Answer: In bright light the size of the pupil is small to control
the amount of light entering the eye. When we enter a dim
9. What happens to the image distance in the eye when we room, it takes sometime so that the pupil expands and allows
increase the distance of an object from the eye? more light to enter and helps us to see things clearly.

Answer: Since the size of eyes cannot increase or decrease, 14. Explain the following terms connected with the eye:
the image distance remains constant. When we increase the (i) Ciliary muscles
distance of an object from the eye, the image distance in the (ii) Accommodation
eye does not change. The increase in the object distance is (iii) Blind spot
compensated by the change in the focal length of the eye
lens. The focal length of the eyes changes in such a way that Answer: (i) Ciliary muscles: These are the muscles which hold
the image is always formed at the retina of the eye. the eye lens.
(ii) Accommodation: The ability of the eye lens to changes its
focal length is called accommodation.

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(iii) Blind pot: The point at which the optic nerve leaves the wavelengths of lights are scattered out and only longer
eye. An image formed at this point is not sent to the brain. wavelengths are able to reach our eyes. Since blue colour has
a shorter wavelength and red colour has a longer wavelength,
15. What are hypermetropia and myopia? What are their
the red colour is able to reach our eyes after the atmospheric
causes? How are they rectified?
scattering of light. Therefore, the Sun appears reddish early in
Answer: Myopia is also known as near sightedness in which a the morning.
person is able to see the nearby objects but has difficulty in
19. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an
seeing far objects.
astronaut?
The causes of myopia are:
Answer: The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut
(i) Elongation of the eye ball. because there is no atmosphere in the outer space that can
(ii) Focal length has become small due to increase in scatter the sunlight. As the sunlight is not scattered, no
curvature of eye lens. scattered light reach the eyes of the astronauts and the sky
appears black to them.
It can be corrected by using a concave lens.
TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
Hypermetropia is also known as far sightedness. It is when a
person is able to see far objects clearly but has difficulty in 1. A human eye can focus objects at different distances by
seeing near objects. adjusting the focal length of the eye lens. This is due to:

The causes of hypermetropia are: Answer: (b) accommodation

(i) Eyeball has become too short. 2. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m.
(ii) Focal length has become longer than 25 cm. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power.

It can be corrected by using convex lens. Answer: (b) -0.5 D

16. Why do stars twinkle? 3. Reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset is
significantly due to:
Answer: Stars emit their own light and they twinkle due to
the atmospheric refraction of light. Stars are very far away Answer: (b) scattering of light
from the earth. Hence, they are considered as point sources
4. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye
of light. When the light coming from stars enters the earth's
muscles:
atmosphere, it gets refracted at different levels because of
the variation in the air density at different levels of the Answer: (d) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
atmosphere. When the star light refracted by the atmosphere
comes more towards us, it appears brighter than when it *****
comes less towards us. Therefore, it appears as if the stars
are twinkling at night.

17. Explain why the planets do not twinkle?

Answer: Planets do not twinkle because they appear larger in

size than the stars as they are relatively closer to earth.
Planets can be considered as a collection of a large number of
point- size sources of light. The different parts of these
planets produce either brighter or dimmer effect in such a
way that the average of brighter and dimmer effect is zero.
Hence, the twinkling effects of the planets are nullied and
they do not twinkle.

18. Why does the Sun appear reddish early in the morning?

Answer: During sunrise, the light rays coming from the Sun
have to travel a greater distance in the earth's atmosphere
before reaching our eyes. In this journey, the shorter

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= 6 Joules
CHAPTER 12: ELECTRICITY
IN-TEXT / PAGE 220
IN-TEXT / PAGE 211
1: On what factors does the resistance of a conductor
1: What does an electric circuit mean?
depend?
Answer: An electric circuit is the pathway in which current
Answer: The resistance of a conductor depends upon the
can flow. It consists of electric devices, switching devices,
following factors:
source of electricity, etc. that are connected by conducting
wires.  Length of the conductor
 Cross-sectional area of the conductor
2: Define the unit of current.
 Material of the conductor
Answer: The unit of electric current is ampere (A). When 1 C  Temperature of the conductor
of charge flows through a conductor in 1 s, it called 1 ampere
2: Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a
(A) current.
thin wire of the same material, when connected to the same
I =Q/t source? Why?

3: Calculate the number of electrons constituting one Answer: Resistance (R) is inversely proportional to the area of
coulomb of charge. cross-section (A) of the wire. So, thicker the wire, lower is the
resistance of the wire and vice-versa.
Answer: We know that one electron possesses a charge of
1.6 × 10−19 C. Therefore, current can flow more easily through a thick wire
than a thin wire.

So, the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of

18
charge is 6 × 10
3: Let the resistance of an electrical component remains
IN-TEXT / PAGE 213 constant while the potential difference across the two ends
of the component decreases to half of its former value.
1: Name a device that helps to maintain a potential What change will occur in the current through it?
difference across a conductor.
Answer: According to the Ohm’s law V = IR
Answer: A cell, battery, power supply, etc. helps to maintain
a potential difference acrossa conductor. If the resistance remains constant, V is directly proportional
to I.
2: What is meant by saying that the potential difference
between two points is 1 V? V∝I

Answer: When 1 J of work is required to move a charge of 1 C Now, if potential difference is reduced to half of its value, the
from one point to another, then it is said that the potential current also become half of its original value.
difference between the two points is 1 V.
4: Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made
V = W/Q of an alloy rather than a pure metal?

Or, 1 V = 1 J/1C Answer: The resistivity of an alloy is higher than the pure
metal and it does not corrode easily. Moreover, even at high
3: How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge temperatures, the alloys do not melt readily. Hence, the coils
passing through a 6 V battery? of heating appliances such as electric toasters and electric
Answer: Potential Difference =Work done/Charge irons are made of an alloy rather than a pure metal.

Or, Work done (or Energy) = Potential Difference × Charge 5: Use the data in Table 12.2 to answer the following –

= 6 Volt × 1 Coulomb

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(a) Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor?

(b) Which material is the best conductor?

Net potential = 6 V

Using Ohm’s law V = IR, we have,

6 = I × 25
⟹ I =6/25
= 0.24 Ampere

Now for the 12 Ω resistor, current = 0.24 A

So, using Ohm’s law V = 0.24 × 12 V

= 2.88 V
–8
Answer: (a) Resistivity of iron (10.0 × 10 Ω m) is lesser than
–8
that of the mercury (94.0× 10 Ω m). So, iron is good Hence, the reading in the ammeter is 0.24 and voltmeter is
conductor as compared to mercury. 2.88.

(b) Silver has lowest resistivity, so it is the best conductor. IN-TEXT / Page 227

IN-TEXT / Page 224 1: Judge the equivalent resistance when the following are
connected in parallel –
1: Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a 6 3 6
battery of three cells of 2V each, a 5 Ω resistor, an 8 Ω (a) 1 Ω and 10 Ω, (b) 1 Ω and 10 Ω, and 10 Ω.
resistor, and a 12 Ω resistor, and a plug key, all connected in Answer: (a) The net resistance in parallel is given by
series.

Answer: The required schematic diagram is given below:

2: Redraw the circuit of 1, putting in an ammeter to measure

the current through the resistors and a voltmeter to (b) The net resistance in parallel is given by
measure the potential difference across the 12 Ω resistor.
What would be the readings in the ammeter and the
voltmeter?

Answer: Resisters are connected in series.

So, the net resistance in the circuit = 5 Ω + 8 Ω + 12 Ω

= 25 Ω

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2: An electric lamp of 100 Ω, a toaster of resistance 50 Ω,

and a water filter of resistance 500 Ω are connected in
parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an
electric iron connected to the same source
ource that takes as
much current as all three appliances, and what is the current
through it?

Answer: Given that the electric lamp of 100 Ω, a toaster of

resistance 50 Ω and water filter of resistance 500 Ω are Since, 3 Ω and 6 Ω resistors in parallel, so the net resistance
connected in parallel. The net resistance in parallel is given by

Now, the resultant R12 and 2 Ω resistors are in series. So the

net resistance

R = R12 + 2 Ω = 2 + 2 = 4 Ω

(b) To get total resistance 1 Ω, connect 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω

resistors in parallel.

esistance in parallel is given by

The net resistance

Hence, the resistance of electric iron is 31.25 Ω and current

through it is 7.04 A.

3: What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices

in parallel with the battery instead of connecting them in
series?

Answer: In parallel there is no division of voltage among the

appliances. The potential difference across each appliance is
equal to the supplied voltage and the total effective 5: What is (a) the highest, (b) the lowest total resistance
resistance of the circuit can be reduced by connecting that can be secured by combinations of four coils of
electrical appliances in parallel. resistance 4 Ω, 8 Ω, 12 Ω, 24 Ω?
4: How can three resistors of resistances 2 Ω, 3 Ω, and 6 Ω Answer:: Connecting resistors in series always gives maximum
be connected to give a total resistance of (a) 4 Ω, (b) 1 Ω? resistance and parallel gives minimum resistance.
Answer:: (a) To get total resistance 4 Ω, connect 3 Ω and 6 Ω (a) The highest total resistance is given by
resistors in parallel and 2 Ω resistance in series with the
resultant. R = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4
= 4 Ω + 8 Ω + 12 Ω + 24 Ω
= 48 Ω

(b) The lowest total resistance is given by

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Where,

V = IR
= 5A × 20 Ω
= 100 V

I = 5 A and t = 30 seconds

So,

H = 100 × 5 × 30 J
4
= 15000 J = 1.5 × 10 J
IN-TEXT / PAGE 229
IN-TEXT / PAGE 231
1: Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while
1: What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by
the heating element does?
a current?
Answer: The heating element of an electric heater is a
Answer: The rate of consumption of electric energy in an
resistor. According to Joule’s lawof heating, the amount of
electric appliance is called electric power. Hence, the rate at
heat produced by it is proportional to its resistance.
which energy is delivered by a current is the power of the
2
H = I Rt appliance.

The resistance of the element of an electric heater is very 2: An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine
high. As current flows through the heating element, it the power of the motor and the energy consumed in 2 h.
becomes too hot and glows red. On the other hand, the
Answer: Power of the electric motor is given by
resistance of the cord is low. It does not become red when
current flows through it. P = VI

2: Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 Where, V = 220 V and I = 5 A
coulombs of charge in onehour through a potential
difference of 50 V. So, Power P = 220 × 5
= 1100 W
Answer: According to Joule’s law of heating, the amount of
Now, the energy consumed = Power × time
heat produced is given by
Where, P = 1100 W
H = VIt t = 2 hours
= 2 × 60 × 60 seconds
= 7200 seconds

Therefore, E (energy consumed) = 1100 × 7200 J = 7920000 J

EXERCISES

1: A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts.

These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent
resistance of this combination is R′, then the ratio R/R′ is –

Answer: (d) 25

2: Which of the following terms does not represent

3: An electric iron of resistance 20 Ω takes a current of 5 A. electrical power in a circuit?
Calculate the heat developed in 30s.
2
Answer: (b) IR
Answer: According to Joule’s law of heating, the amount of
heat produced is given by 3: An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is
operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be –
H = VIt
Answer: (d) 25 W

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4: Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of
lengths and equal diameters are first connected in series that resistor.
and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential
Answer: The plot between voltage and current is called VI
difference. The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel
characteristic. The voltage isplotted on x-axis and current is
combinations would be –
plotted on y-axis.
Answer: (c) 1:4

5: How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure

the potential difference between two points?

Answer: To measure the potential difference, a voltmeter

should be connected in parallel.

6: A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6

–8
× 10 Ω m. What will be the length of this wire to make its
resistance 10 Ω? How much does the resistance change if
the diameter is doubled?

Answer: Resistance (R) of a copper wire of length l and cross-

section A is given by the expression,

The slope of the line gives the value of resistance (R)

8: When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown

resistor, there is a current of 2.5 mA in the circuit. Find the
value of the resistance of the resistor.

Answer: According to Ohm’s law, V = IR

⟹ R =V/I

Here, V = 12 V and I = 2.5 mA = 0.0025 A

Therefore,

R =12/0.0025
= 4800 Ω
= 4.8 k Ω

9: A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2

Ω, 0.3 Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω and 12 Ω, respectively. How much
current would flow through the 12 Ω resistor?

Answer: Total resistance of resistors when connected in

Hence, the new resistance will become 1⁄4 mes the original
series is given by
resistance.
R = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 + R5
7: The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the
corresponding values of potential difference V across the ⟹ R = 0.2 Ω + 0.3 Ω + 0.4 Ω + 0.5 Ω + 12 Ω
resistor are given below – = 13.4 Ω
I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 According to Ohm’s law, V = IR
V (volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2

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⟹ I = V/R 13. Explain how do we classify materials as conductors and

= 9/13.4 insulators on the basis of their resistance.
= 0.67 A
Answer: Conductor: Substances that can conduct electricity
There is no current division occurring in a series circuit. So, easily and offer very low resistance (opposition) to the flow of
the current through the 12 Ω resistor will be same as 0.67 A. current is called good conductors. Example: Copper, Iron,
Gold, Silver etc.
10. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a
conductor in the shape of a wire depends. Insulator: Substances that offers very high resistance
(b) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating (opposition) to the flow of current and hardly allows any
devices? current to flow through them are called good insulator.
(c) What material is used in making the filament of an Example: oil, air, Bakelite etc.
electric bulb?
14. State the factors on which the heat produced in a
Answer: (a) The resistance of a conductor in the shape of the current carrying conductor depends. Give one practical
wire depends on the following four factors: application of this effect.

I. Length of the conductor Answer: The factors are length, thickness and nature of
II. Area of cross section of the conductor material.
III. Material of the conductor and
I. With increase in length of conductor, increases the amount
IV. Temperature of the conductor.
of heat produced.
The above factors can also be expressed in the formula as
II. With increase in thickness, less amount of heat is
R ∝ l, R ∝ l/A, R =ρ l /A produced.

(b) Alloys are used in electrical heating devices because the III. Good conductors produce less amount of heat while bad
resistivity of an alloy is more than the resistivity of a pure conductors produce more heat.
metal. Moreover alloy does not burn (or oxidize) easily even
When a current pass through a wire, the wire gets heated.
at higher temperature.
This is called heating effect of current.
(c) Tungsten is used to make filament of bulbs.
Glowing of light bulb is an example.
11. Why are copper or aluminum wires generally used for
15. Why is very less heat generated in long electric cables
electrical transmission and distribution purposes?
than in filaments of electric bulbs?
Answer: Copper and aluminum wires are generally used for
Answer: As the Long cable wires have more cross sectional
electricity transmission as they have low resistivity. Low
area, the resistance produced is little as compared to a
resistivity decreases the resistance and hence increases the
filament wire. The long cables are made up of a good
amount of current in the circuit. Therefore, they are good
conductor of electricity and hence the resistance is also little
conductors of electricity.
as compared to a filament.
12. Name and state the law that gives the relationship
16. How many 176 Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to
between the current through a conductor and the potential
carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
difference across its two terminals. Also, express this Law
mathematically. Answer: Let the total number of resistors be x.
Answer: Ohm's Law. Given that:
Current I = 5 A
It states that the current flowing through a conductor is
Potential Difference V = 220 V
directly proportional to the potential difference applied
across its ends, keeping the temperature and other physical According to Ohm’s law, V = IR
condition unchanged.
⟹ R =V/I
Mathematically, it can be stated as =220/5
= 44 Ω
⇒V∝I
Or, V = IR, where R is constant known as resistance

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Now for x number of resistors of resistance 176 Ω, the R12 = R1 + R2 = 6 Ω + 6 Ω = 12 Ω

equivalent resistance of the resistors connected in parallel is
Now R12 and 6 Ω are connected in parallel, so the net
44 Ω.
resistance is given by
1/44 =1/176 +1/176 +1/176 +1/176 +. .to x times

⟹1/44 = x/176

⟹ x = 176/44
=4

Therefore, 4 resistors of 176 Ω are required to draw the given

amount of current. 18. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V
electric supply line, are rated 10 W. How many lamps can be
17. Show how you would connect
onnect three resistors, each of connected in parallel with each other across the two wires
resistance 6 Ω, so that the combination has a resistance of of 220 V line if the maximum allowable current is 5 A?
(i) 9 Ω, (ii) 4 Ω.
Answer: For one bulb:
Answer:: (i). To get total 9 Ω resistance from three 6 Ω Power P = 10 W
resistors, we should connect tworesistors in parallel and the Potential difference V = 220 V
third resistor in series with
th the resultant. Thecombination is
given as follows: Using the relation for R, we have
2
R =V /P
2
= (220) /10
= 4840 Ω

Let the total number of bulbs be x.

Given that:
Total resistance in parallel is given by Current I = 5 A
Potential Difference V = 220 V

According to Ohm’s law, V = IR

⟹ R =V/I
= 220/5
= 44 Ω

Now, for x number of bulbs of resistance 176 Ω, the

Now R12 and 6 Ω are connected in series, so the net equivalent resistance of the resistors connected in parallel is
resistance is given by 44 Ω.

R = R12 + 6 Ω
=3Ω+6Ω
=9Ω

(ii) To get total 4 Ω resistance from three 6 Ω resistors, we

should connect two resistors in series and the third resistor in
parallel with the resultant. The combination is given as
follows:
Therefore, 110 bulbs of 4840 Ω are required to draw the
given amount of current.

19: A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a 220 V line

has two resistance coils A and B, each of 24 Ω resistance,
which may be used separately, in series, or in parallel. What
Total resistance in series is given by are the currents in the three cases?

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Answer: Given that: In series combination, the current in the circuit remains
Potential difference V = 220 V constant. Therefore, power is given by
Resistance of each coil R = 24 Ω 2
P=I R
2
When the coil is used separately, the current in the coil is = (2) × 2
given by =8W

I = V/R (ii) 1 Ω and 2 Ω resistors are connected in parallel.

= 220/24
⟹ I =V/R
=55/6
= 6/3
= 9.16 A
=2A
When the two coils are connected in series, the net
In parallel combination, the voltage in the circuit remains
resistance is given by
constant. Therefore power is given by
R = R1 + R2 = 24 Ω + 24 Ω = 48 Ω
P = V2/R
Now, the current in the coil is given by = 42/2
=8W
I = V/R
= 220/48 Hence, in both the cases power remains same as 8W.
= 55/12
21: Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the other 60
= 4.58 A
W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric mains
When the two coils are connected in parallel, the net supply. What current is drawn from the line if the supply
resistance is given by voltage is 220 V?

1/R = 1/24 +1/24 Answer: For the lamp one:

= 2/24
Power P1 = 100 W and Potential difference V = 220 V
= 1/12
Therefore,
R = 12 Ω
I1 = P1/V
Now, the current in the coil is given by = 100/220
= 0.455 A
I = V/R
= 220/12 For the lamp two:
= 55/3
Power P2 = 60 W and Potential difference V = 220 V
= 18.33 A
Therefore,
20: Compare the power used in the 2 Ω resistor in each of
I2 = P2/V
the following circuits: (i) a 6 V battery in series with 1 Ω and
= 60/220
2 Ω resistors, and (ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 Ω and
= 0.273 A
2 Ω resistors.
So, the net current drawn from the supply is given by
Answer: Given that:
Potential difference, V = 6V I = I1 + I2
= 0.455 + 0.273
(i) 1 Ω and 2 Ω resistors are connected in series. Therefore,
= 0.728 A
equivalent resistance of the circuit, R = 1 + 2 = 3 Ω
22: Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr, or a
According to Ohm’s law,
1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
V = IR
⟹ I = V/R Answer: Energy consumed by an electrical appliance is given
= 6/3 by H = Pt
=2A
For the TV set:

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Power W = 250 W and time t = 1 hour = 3600 seconds d) Resistance (R) of a wire is inversely proportional to its area
of cross-section (A): R ∝1/A
So, energy consumed H = 250 × 3600 = 900000 J
e) Copper and aluminium wires have low resistivity. They are
For the toaster:
good conductors of electricity. Hence, they are usually
Power W = 1200 W and time t = 10 minutes = 600 seconds employed for electricity transmission.

So, energy consumed H = 1200 × 600 = 720000 J TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION

Hence, TV set uses more energy than toaster. 1. The potential difference across a conductor is doubled,
the rate of generation of heat will:
23: An electric heater of resistance 8 Ω draws 15 A from the
service mains 2 hours. Calculate the rate at which heat is Answer: (d) becomes four times
developed in the heater.
2. You are given three equal resistors. The number of
Answer: Heat developed in the heater is given by H = I Rt
2 resistances which can be obtained by joining them in series
and in parallel grouping is:
Where, I = 15 A
R=8Ω Answer: (c) four
t = 2 hours
3. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recast to half of its
The rate at which heat is developed is given by length, then new resistance of the wire will be:
2
H = I Rt/t Answer: (a) R/4
2
=I R
2 4. You are given three bulbs of 25 W, 40 W and 60 W
= (15) × 8
marked at 220 V. Which one of them has lowest resistance?
= 1800 J/s
Answer: (a) 60 W bulb
24: Explain the following.
*****
a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament
of electric lamps?
b) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such
as bread-toasters and electric irons, made of an alloy rather
than a pure metal?
c) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic
circuits?
d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of
cross-section?
e) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually employed
for electricity transmission?

Answer: a) The melting point and resistivity of tungsten are

very high. It does not burn readily at a high temperature. The
electric lamps glow at very high temperatures. Hence,
tungsten is mainly used as heating element of electric bulbs.

b) The conductors of electric heating devices such as bread

toasters and electric irons are made of alloy because
resistivity of an alloy is more than that of metals. It produces
large amount of heat and do not burn easily.

c) There is voltage division in series circuits. Each component

of a series circuit receives a small voltage for a large supply
voltage. As a result, the amount of current decreases and the
device becomes hot. Hence, series arrangement is not used in
domestic circuits.

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the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic

CHAPTER 13: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF field inside and outside the loop.
ELECTRICAL CURRENT Answer: The magnetic field lines have been shown in Figure
IN-TEXT / PAGE 235 given below. As per right-hand rule, we find that inside the
loop, the magnetic field lines are directed perpendicular to
1. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought the plane of paper in the inward direction. Outside the loop
near a bar magnet? magnetic field lines are directed out of the plane of paper.
Answer: Magnetic compass needle and bar magnet both 2. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a
have magnetic field. When they brought near to each other, diagram to represent it.
these magnetic fields interact each other giving deflection in
needle. Answer: The uniform magnetic field is represented by
parallel, equidistant lines of equal length as shown in Figure.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 239

1. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.

Answer:

3. Choose the correct option. The magnetic field inside a

long straight solenoid-carrying current (a) is zero. (b)
decreases as we move towards its end. (c) increases as we
move towards its end. (d) is the same at all points.

Answer: (d) is the same at all points.

2. List the properties of magnetic lines of force.

Answer: Properties of magnetic lines of force (also known as

magnetic field lines) are listed below:  Outside the magnet,
the magnetic field lines are directed from N-pole of magnet
towards S-pole. However, inside a magnet the field lines are
directed from S-pole to N-pole. Thus magnetic field lines form
a close loop.  The magnetic field line at any point points in
the direction of magnetic field at that point.  The relative
strength of magnetic fields is given by degree of closeness of
the field lines. The magnetic field is strong in the region
where the field lines are crowded.  No two magnetic field
IN-TEXT / PAGE 242-243
lines can ever intersect with each other.

3. Why don’t two magnetic lines of force intersect each 1. Which of the following property of a proton can change
while it moves freely in a magnetic field? (There may be
other?
more than one correct)
Answer: No two field-lines are found to cross each other. If
Answer: (c) Velocity and (d) Momentum
they did, it would mean that at the point of intersection, the
compass needle would point towards two directions, which is 2. In Activity 13.7, how do we think the displacement of rod
not possible. AB will be affected if
(i) current in rod AB is increased;
IN-TEXT / PAGE 240-241
(ii) a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used; and
1. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the (iii) length of the rod AB is increased?
table. Let the current pass through the loop clockwise. Apply

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Answer: (i) If current in rod AB is increased, the displacement Answer: Different ways to induce current in a coil are as
will also increase. given below:
(ii) If we use a stronger horse-shoe magnet then the - If a magnetic field is changed around a coil then an induced
displacement of rod AB will increase. current is set up in the coil. It can be done by taking a bar
(iii) lf length of the rod is increased, force acting on it will magnet and bringing it closer to the coil or taking it away
increase and, hence, displacement of the rod increases. from the coil.
- If a coil is moved in a magnetic field, then again an induced
3. A positively-charged particle (alpha-particle) projected
current is set up in the coil.
towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field.
- If a coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field, it may also
The direction of magnetic field is
produce an induced current in the coil.
Answer: (d) upward In accordance with Fleming's left-hand
IN-TEXT / PAGE 248
rule, the direction of magnetic field is vertically upward.
1. State the principle of an electric generator.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 244
Answer: An electric generator is based on the principle of
1. State Fleming’s left-hand rule.
electromagnetic induction. When a rectangular coil is rotated
Answer: According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, stretch the in a uniform magnetic field, an induced voltage is generated
thumb, forefinger and middle finger of your left hand such between the ends of the coil.
that they are mutually perpendicular. If the first finger points
2. Name some sources of direct current.
in the direction of magnetic field and the second finger in the
direction of current, then the thumb will point in the Answer: Some sources of direct current are a cell, a battery
direction of motion or the force acting on the conductor. and a D.C. generator.

3. Which sources produce alternating current?

Answer: A.C. generator and invertors (used in house for

emergency power supply) produces alternating current.

4. Choose the correct option.

A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic
field. The direction of the induced current changes once in
each

Answer: (c) half revolution

IN-TEXT / PAGE 249

2. What is the principle of an electric motor? 1. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric
Answer: The working principle of an electric motor is based circuits and appliances.
on the magnetic effect of current. A current-carrying loop Answer: Two safety measures are:
experiences a force and rotates when placed in a magnetic - Use of earth wire and proper earthing.
field. The direction of rotation of the loop is given by the - Use of fuse.
Fleming’s left-hand rule.
2. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a
3. What is the role of the split ring in an electric motor? domestic electric circuit (220 V) that has a current rating of 5
Answer: The split ring in the electric motor acts as a A. What result do you expect? Explain.
commutator. The commutator reverses the direction of Answer: Given,
current flowing through the coil after each half rotation of P = 2 kW = 2000 W
the coil. Due to this reversal of the current, the coil continues V = 220 V
to rotate in the same direction.
𝐼 (current drawn) = 𝑃 / 𝑉
IN-TEXT / PAGE 247 = 2000 𝑊 / 220 𝑉
1. Explain different ways to induce current in a coil. = 9.09 𝐴

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As the current rating of domestic electric circuit is only 5 A - Magnetic field can be produced by placing a permanent bar
and the oven draws a current 9 A, which is more than the magnet or a horse-shoe magnet at the place, where magnetic
current rating, hence the circuit will be damaged due to field is required.
overheating/overloading. - Magnetic field is produced around a current-carrying
straight conductor or a current carrying circular coil.
3. What precaution should be taken to avoid the
- A very good method to produce magnetic field is due to flow
overloading of domestic electric circuits?
of current in a solenoid.
Answer: The precautions that should be taken to avoid the
8. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you
overloading of domestic circuits are as follows:
determine the north and south poles of a current–carrying
- Too many appliances should not be connected to a single
solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain
socket.
- Too many appliances should not be used at the same time. Answer: When current is passed through a solenoid coil,
- Faulty appliances should not be connected in the circuit. magnetic field produced due to each turn of solenoid coil is in
- Fuse should be connected in the circuit. the same direction. As a resu1t, the resultant magnetic field
become very strong and uniform. The field lines inside the
EXERCISES
solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines along the
1. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic axis of solenoid. Thus, the solenoid behaves like a bar
field near a long straight wire? magnet. One end of solenoid behaves as a magnetic North
pole while the other end behaves as the South Pole.
Answer: (d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on
the wire. We can determine the magnetic poles formed in a solenoid.
The end of the current-carrying solenoid, which attracts
2. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is (a) the North Pole but repels South Pole of a bar magnet, is behaving
process of charging a body. as south magnetic pole. The other end, which attracts South
Pole of a bar magnet but repels the North Pole, is behaving as
Answer: (c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative
north magnetic pole. It is because like poles repel but unlike
motion between a magnet and the coil.
poles attract each other.
3. The device used for producing electric current is called a
9. When is the force experienced by a current–carrying
Answer: (a) generator conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?

4. The essential difference between an AC generator and a Answer: The force experienced by a current-carrying
DC generator is conductor placed in a magnetic field is largest when the
current-carrying conductor is placed in a direction
Answer: (d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC perpendicular to that of magnetic field.
generator has a commutator
10. Give the factors on which, magnetic field produced by a
5. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit current carrying solenoid depends.
Answer: (c) increases heavily Answer: Factors on which the strength of a magnetic field
6. State whether the following statements are true or false. produced by a current carrying solenoid depends:

Answer: (a) An electric motor converts mechanical energy I. Number of turns in the solenoid: The larger number of turns
into electrical energy. (False) in the solenoid, stronger is the magnetic field produced.
(b) An electric generator works on the principle of II. Strength of current: The larger the current passed through
electromagnetic induction. (True) the solenoid, stronger is the magnetic field produced.
(c) The field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying III. Nature of the core material : By winding the coil over a
current will be parallel straight lines. (True) soft iron cylinder, called core, the magnetic field can be
(d) A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an increased several thousand times.
electric supply. (False) 11. (a) A compass needle gets deflected when brought near
7. List three sources of magnetic fields. a current carrying conductor. Why?
(b) What happens to the deflection of needle when current
Answer: Three methods of producing magnetic field are as in the conductor is increased?
follows:

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Answer: (a) When a magnetic needle is brought closer to a back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a strong
current carrying conductor then the magnetic needle it gets magnetic field to your right side. What is the direction of
deflected because the magnetic field of the current carrying magnetic field?
conductor exerts a force on the magnetic needle, making it
Answer: Here the electron beam is moving from our back
move from one direction to the other.
wall to the front wall, so the direction of current will be in the
(b) When current will be increased in the wire then the opposite direction, from front wall towards back wall or
needle of the compass will deflect more as compared to towards us. The direction of deflection (or force) is towards
earlier deflection. our right side.

12. Explain why a fuse should be joined with the live wire We now know two things:
and not with the neutral wire to a domestic circuit. i. Direction of current is from front towards us, and
ii. Direction of force is towards our right side.
Answer: The domestic circuit is constructed such that the
power comes from the supplier to the home via live wire and Let us now hold the forefinger, middle finger and thumb of
it returns back via the neutral wire. So, the fuse has to be our left hand at right angles to one another. We now adjust
connected with the live wire as any overloading will not reach the hand in such a way that our centre finger points towards
the appliance and prevent it from getting damaged. us (in the direction of current) and thumb points towards
right side (in the direction of force). Now, if we look at our
13. Name and state the rule to determine the direction of a
forefinger, it will be pointing vertically downwards. Since the
force experienced by a current carrying straight conductor
direction of forefinger gives the direction of magnetic field,
placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it. Name
therefore, the magnetic field is in the vertically downward
a device that uses current carrying conductor and magnetic
direction.
field.
17. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its
Answer: It is called Fleming’s left-hand rule.
principle and working. What is the function of a split ring in
It states that if we stretch out our forefinger, middle finger an electric motor?
and thumb such that they are mutually perpendicular to each
Answer: Electric Motor: The device used to convert electrical
other, then the thumb will represent the direction of force,
energy to mechanical energy is called Electric Motor. It is
forefinger will represent the direction of magnetic field and
used in fans, machines, etc.
the middle finger will be the direction of current applied.
Principle: Electric motor works on the principle of force
A device that uses current carrying conductor and magnetic
experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic
field is an electric motor.
field. The two forces in the opposite sides are equal and
14. Can a freely suspended current carrying solenoid stay in opposite. Since they act in different lines they bring rotational
any direction? Justify your Answer: What will happen when motion.
the direction of current in the solenoid is reversed?
Working of an electric motor:
Answer: No, current carrying solenoid fall freely stay in North
When current starts to flow, the coil ABCD is in horizontal
- South direction because it behaves as a bar magnet. When
position. The direction of current through armature coil has
current flow through a solenoid is reversed the it direction is
the direction from A to B in the arm AB and from C to D in the
also reversed.
arm CD. The direction of force exerted on the coil can be
15. What does the direction of thumb indicate in the right found through Fleming’s left hand law.
hand thumb rule? In what way this rule is different from
According to this law, it is found that the force exerted on the
Fleming's left hand rule?
part AB, pushes the coil downwards. While the force exerted
Answer: The thumb in right hand rule indicates the direction on the part CD pushes it upwards. In this way, these two
of current in the straight conductor held by curled fingers, forces being equal and opposite form a couple that rotates
whereas the thumb in Fleming's left-hand rule gives the the coil in anticlockwise direction.
direction of force experienced by current carrying conductor
placed in an external magnetic field.

16. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back
to one wall. An electron beam, moving horizontally from

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field lines linked with coil A and with coil B get changed. This
sets up induced current in coil B.

21. State the rule to determine the direction of a

(i) magnetic field produced around a straight conductor-
carrying current
(ii) force experienced by a current-carrying straight
conductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular
to it, and
(iii) current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic
field.

Answer: (i) Right hand thumb rule : If the current carrying

conductor is held in the right hand such that the thumb
points in the direction of the current, then the direction of
When the coil is in vertical position, the brushes X and Y the curl of the fingers will give the direction of the magnetic
would touch the centre of the commutator and the current in field.
the coil is stopped. Though current is stopped but the coil
comes back in horizontal state due to momentum. (ii) Fleming’s left hand rule : NCERT Solutions for Class 10
Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
After half rotation, the polarity of the commutator also Stretch the forefinger, the central finger and the thumb of
changes, because now Q makes contact with brush X and P the left hand mutually perpendicular to each other. If the
with brush Y. Therefore, now the force exerts downwards on forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field, the
the arm AB and upwards on the arm CD and thus again a middle finger in the direction of current, then the thumb
couple of forces is formed that rotates the coil in clockwise points in the direction of force in the conductor.
direction. This process is repeated again and again and the
coil rotates till the current flows across it. (iii) Fleming’s right hand rule : Stretch the thumb, forefinger
and the central finger of the right hand mutually
18. Name some devices in which electric motors are used. perpendicular to each other. If the forefinger points in the
Answer: Electric motor is used in the appliances like electric direction of magnetic field, thumb in the direction of motion
fans, washing machine, mixers, grinders, blenders, of the conductor, then the middle finger points in the
computers, MP3 players, etc. direction of current induced in the conductor.

19. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a 22. Explain the underlying principle and working of an
galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is (t) electric generator by drawing a labelled diagram. What is
pushed into the coil (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil (iii) the function of brushes?
held stationary inside the coil? Answer: Principle: The electric generator is based on the
Answer: (i) As a bar magnet is pushed into the coil, a principle of electromagnetic induction. When a coil is rotated
momentary deflection is observed in the galvanometer with respect to a magnetic field, the number of magnetic field
indicating the production of a momentary current in the coil. lines through the coil changes. Due to this a current is
(ii) When the bar magnet is withdrawn from the coil, the induced in the coil whose direction can be found by Fleming’s
deflection of galvanometer is in opposite direction showing right hand rule.
the production of an opposite current.
(iii) When the bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil,
there is no deflection in galvanometer indicating that no
current is produced in the coil.

20. Two circular coils A and B are placed closed to each

other. If the current in the coil A is changed, will some
current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.

Answer: Yes, some current will be induced in the coil B. When

the current in coil A is changed, some current is induced in
the coil B. Due to change in current in coil A, the magnetic

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Working: When the armature coil ABCD rotates in a magnetic TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
field produced by the permanent magnets, it cuts through the
magnetic lines of force. 1. The strength of the magnetic field of a solenoid does not
depend upon:
Due to the rotation of armature coil, the associated magnetic
field changes and an induced electromagnetic force is Answer: (c) core of the coil
produced in it. The direction of this induced electromotive 2. The magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is:
force or current can be determined by using Fleming’s right
hand rule. Answer: (b) Inversely proportional to r

In first half cycle the current flows in one direction by brush 3. Inside a current carrying solenoid the magnetic lines of
B1 and in second it flows in opposite direction by brush B2. force are:
This process continues. So the current produced is alternating
Answer: (b) along the axis of the solenoid and parallel to each
in nature.
other
23. When does an electric short circuit occur?
4. A current carrying wire produces:
Answer: In a domestic circuit, short-circuit occurs when live
Answer: (b) a magnetic field
and neutral wire come in direct contact with each other
without any resistance. The resistance of the circuit becomes 5. The direction of induced potential difference is given by:
zero and excessive current starts to flow through it.
Answer: (d) Fleming’s right hand rule
24. What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it
necessary to earth metallic appliances? *****

Answer: Earth wire is a safety measure that provides a low

resistance conducting path to the current. Sometimes due to
excess heat or wear and tear, the live wire comes in direct
contact with the metallic cover of the appliances, which can
give an electric shock on touching them. To prevent from the
shock the metallic part is connected to the earth through a
three-pin plug due to which the current flows to the earth at
the instant there is a short circuit.

It is necessary to earth metallic appliances because it ensures

that if there is any current leakage in the metallic cover, the
potential of the appliance becomes equal to that of the earth.
The potential of the earth is zero. As a result, the person
handling the appliance will not get an electric shock.

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Water energy which was used for transportation before is

CHAPTER 14: SOURCES OF ENERGY now a good source to generate electricity. Dams have been
IN-TEXT / PAGE 255 constructed on the river for generating electricity. Waterfalls
were used as a source of potential energy which was
1. What is a good source of energy? converted to electricity with the help of turbines
Answer: A good source of energy is a source which can IN-TEXT / PAGE 265
provide a large amount of usable energy per unit volume or
mass. It should be easily available, easy to store and transport 1. What kind of mirror – concave, convex or plain – would
also it should be economical. be best suited for use in a solar cooker? Why?

2. What is a good fuel? Answer: A concave mirror would be best suited for use in
solar cooker because it can concentrate the light ray coming
Answer: A fuel is said to be good fuel if it produces a large from the sun to a point which will produce a lot of heat.
amount of heat on burning a unit volume or mass without Which is required for the solar cooker to cook the food.
producing a lot of smoke. It should have a high calorific value.
Also, it should be easily available, easy to store and easy to 2. What are the limitations of the energy that can be
transport. obtained from the oceans?

3. If you could use any source of energy for heating your Answer: Tidal energy, wave energy, and ocean thermal
food, which one would you use and why? energy are various forms of energy that can be obtained from
the sun. But there are several limitations to harness these
Answer: LPG (liquid petroleum gas) can be used for heating energies. Those limitations are
food because it is a clean source of energy, does not produce (i) Tidal energy depends on the relative positioning of sun,
smoke while burning. Also, it is easily available easy to store moon and the earth
and transport. (ii) To harness the tidal energy large dams are needed to be
built. The locations where such dams can be built are limited.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 260
(iii) The cost of building such dams and maintaining them is
1. What are the disadvantages of fossil fuels? also expensive.
(iv) For wave energy, there are very limited areas and devices
Answer: Some of the disadvantages of fossil fuels are as to trap this of energy.
follow (v) To harness ocean thermal energy the difference in the
i) They are the non-renewable source, hence may exhaust in temperature of surface hot water and the cold water at
the near future. o
depth must be 20 C or more.
ii) They produce harmful chemicals like oxides of Carbon,
Nitrogen and Sulphur are released while burning fossil fuels 3. What is geothermal energy?
iii) They cause air pollution and acid rain
Answer: Geothermal energy is thermal energy generated and
iv) They cause a greenhouse effect.
stored in the Earth. It is obtained in the form of steam from
2. Why are we looking at alternate sources of energy? under the earth’s crust .

Answer: As we go on using the non-renewable sources of 4. What are the advantages of nuclear energy?
energy at the present rate, we get a shortage of them after
Answer: The advantages of nuclear energy are
some years as it takes millions of years to form petroleum
and coal. So, to avoid such condition now onwards we need (i) The energy released per unit mass millions of times more
to look for the alternate sources of energy. than burning an equal amount of coal.
(ii) It does not produce any smoke. It is clean energy.
3. How has the traditional use of wind and water energy
been modified for our convenience? IN-TEXT / PAGE 265
Answer: Earlier, the windmills were used to harness wind 1. Can any source of energy be pollution-free? Why or why
energy to do mechanical work such as lifting/drawing water not?
from a well. Today in windmills, the kinetic energy of wind is
harnessed and converted into electricity. Answer: Some sources of energy such as solar cell and
windmill can be considered pollution- free as they don’t
pollute the environment when operational, but the assembly

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of the device would have caused some environmental 3. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored
damage. solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately
derived from the Sun’s energy?
2. Hydrogen has been used as rocket fuel. Would you
consider it a cleaner fuel than CNG? Why or why not? Answer: (C) nuclear energy

Answer: Hydrogen is a cleaner fuel than CNG because 4. Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the Sun as direct
hydrogen on burning/combustion form water whereas CNG sources of energy.
that contain methane burns to produce carbon dioxide.
Answer: The sun is the main source of energy for all living
IN-TEXT / PAGE 266 beings on this earth. Even the energy in fossil fuels has come
from the sun. When green plants prepare food, they convert
1. Name two energy sources that you would consider to be
solar energy into chemical energy which is stored in the form
renewable. Give reasons for your choices.
of biomass. The same biomass gets transferred to the
Answer: The two energy sources which can be considered as animals. Thus, the energy in the form of biomass which is
a renewable energy source are (i) solar energy and (ii) wind stored in fossil fuels has come from the sun.
energy.
5. Compare and contrast biomass and hydroelectricity as
(i) Solar energy: Solar energy is energy obtained from the sun, sources of energy.
which can be used for cooking, heating and generating
Answer: Hydroelectricity is generated using the kinetic
electricity. The sun has a large amount of hydrogen and
energy from moving water, while the energy from biomass is
helium which could last over billions of years. Hence, solar
generated by decomposition of farm waste. Since biomass is
energy is a renewable source of energy.
composed of organic compounds so energy from biomass
(ii) Wind energy: Wind energy is harnessed by the windmill
results in air pollution. Hydroelectricity, on the other hand, is
which converts the kinetic energy of wind into mechanical
pollution free.
work or electricity. The movement of the wind is due to the
temperature difference on the surface of the earth. The 6. What are the limitations of extracting energy from— (a)
heating of the earth is due to the sun which will be available the wind? (b) waves? (c) tides?
for billions of years. Hence, wind energy can be considered a
Answer: (a) Wind flowing with sufficient speed is not
renewable source of energy
available everywhere and all the time. Thus, wind is not a
2. Give the names of two energy sources that you would dependable source of energy. The kinetic energy of wind
consider to be exhaustible. Give reasons for your choices. (wind energy) can be used only at the site of the windmill.

Answer: Two exhaustible sources of energy is as follows (b) Wave energy would be commercially viable only at places
where the waves are strong. The energy produced from
(i) Coal: It is produced from dead remains of plants and
waves has to be transmitted through long distances at the
animals that buried under the earth’s crust for millions of
possibility of use.
years ago and cannot be replenished in a short time. Hence, it
is an exhaustible source of energy. (c) There are very few sites suitable for harnessing tidal
(ii) Petroleum: Petroleum (also known as crude oil or simply energy. The rise and fall of water during tides is not very
oil) is a fossil fuel that was formed from the remains of large. So, the large-scale generation of electricity is not
ancient marine organisms in millions of years and cannot be possible.
replenished in a short time. Hence, it is an exhaustible source
7. On what basis would you classify energy sources as (a)
of energy.
renewable and non- renewable? (b) exhaustible and
EXERCISES inexhaustible? Are the options given in (a) and (b) the
same?
1. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on
Answer: Options given in (a) and (b) are almost the same.
Answer: (B) a cloudy day.
Renewable sources or inexhaustible of energy are those
2. Which of the following is not an example of a biomass which can be generated by us or which are constantly being
energy source? generated by natural processes or whose supply is unlimited.
On the other hand, the energy source which cannot be
Answer: (C) coal

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renewed in the foreseeable future are called non-renewable Large dams are built to conserve large amounts of water.
or exhaustible sources of energy.
The three main problems that should particularly be
8. What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy? addressed to maintain peace among local people are-

Answer: Followings are the qualities of an ideal source of I. they should be given money for property loss.
energy: II. they should be ensured of providing new shelter.
III. they should be given agricultural land.
- It should do a large amount of work per unit volume or
mass. 13. Increasing demand of fossil fuels has caused harm to our
- Which would be easily accessible. environment. List its three ill-effects. Suggest three
- Which would be easy to store and transport. measures to reduce the consumption of fossil fuels.
- Be economical.
Answer: The three ill effects of burning fossil fuels are as
9. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a given below:
solar cooker? Are there places where solar cookers would
(i) Air pollution
have limited utility?
(ii) Global warming
Answer: The advantages of the solar cooker are: (iii) Acid rain

(i) The cost of making such a cooker is very less. The three measures to reduce the consumption of fossil fuels
(ii) The food never gets burnt in this type of cooker and stays are as below:
hot.
(i) Using clean fuel like CNG, LPG etc.
The disadvantages of the solar cooker are: (ii) Using public transport instead of private vehicles.
(iii) Using renewable sources of energy.
(i) This type of cooker cannot be used for frying or preparing
chapatis. 14. A group of farmers teamed together to set-up a biogas
(ii) This device cannot be used at night for preparing food. plant close to their farms. List any six advantages that they
would be able to derive from the plant.
In a colder climate where there is not enough sunshine all
year, the solar cooker would have very limited utility. Answer: Six advantages that they would be able to derive
from the plant.
10. Why is biogas plant a safe and efficient method of waste
disposal? Justify. (i) Waste disposal from farms.
(ii) Efficient disposal of animal excreta.
Answer: In a biogas plant all the organic wastes such as cow
(iii) Biogas as fuel in chulhas.
dunk, plant wastes or the residue of any crop is used as a fuel
(iv) Manure for the farms.
for the production of biogas. Other waste products such as
(v) Biogas for lighting in the homes.
kitchen wastes is also used .Hence, all waste is being disposed
(vi) Economical benefits.
and converted into biogas .
15. What do you suggest to overcome the problem of
11. Construction of dams submerges large areas of forests,
"limitation of sources of energy”? Mention any three
how does this contribute to the greenhouse effect?
suggestions for the effective use of energy.
Answer: When dams are built large areas of forests are
Answer: We can overcome the problem of “limitation of
submerged. When this submerged vegetation undergoes
sources of energy” by using the limited sources of energy
anaerobic respiration, it releases gases like methane and CO2
judiciously.
which are greenhouse gases. Thus it contributes to the
greenhouse effect. Three suggestions for the effective use of energy are:

12. What is a dam? Why do we seek to build large dams? I. Turning off lights or appliances when we do not need them.
While building large dams, which three main problems II. Replace our light bulbs with energy efficient lights.
should particularly be addressed to maintain peace among III. Increase our consumption of renewable sources of energy.
local people? Mention them.
16. What are the environmental consequences of the
Answer: Dam is a barrier across flowing water that stores, increasing demand for energy? What steps would you
stops, and directs the flow of water. suggest to reduce energy consumption?

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Answer: Environmental consequences of increasing demand TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
for energy are as follows:
1. Choose the only renewable source of energy from the
(i) Use of fossil fuels is increasing air pollution which is not following:
good for our health.
(ii) The greenhouse effect has resulted in global warming Answer: (b) geothermal power
which is manifesting itself in strange changes in the weather 2. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?
pattern around the world.
Answer: (d) wood
Steps to reducing energy consumption:
3. Which of the following is not obtained on the destructive
(i) Use public transport instead of private modes of transport, distillation of food?
use a bicycle whenever possible.
(ii) Avoid unnecessary use of modern gadgets which consume Answer: (a) coal
a lot of energy.
4. The average amount of energy released during the fission
(iii) Use of more renewable and eco-friendlier source of
of uranium atom is:
energy such as solar and wind energy.
Answer: (d) 200 MeV

*****

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Answer: The non-biodegradable substances can affect the

CHAPTER 15: ENVIRONMENT environment in the following ways:
IN-TEXT / PAGE 272
(i) Substances like DDT, BHC enter the food chain and cause
1. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain biomagnification.
and state the different trophic levels in it. (ii) They cause pollution.
(iii) They also kill useful microorganisms.
Answer: Various links or steps in a food chain at which the
transfer of food and energy takes place are called “trophic IN-TEXT / PAGE 276
levels”.
1. What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem?
Eg. Sun → Grass → Grasshopper → Shrew → Owl
Answer: Ozone (OO3) is a triatomic molecule, made up of
Here, grass is the producer which is eaten by the grasshopper three atoms of oxygen. Ozone as it shields (OO3) forms the
known as primary consumer. Then the grasshopper is eaten surface a layer of in the the earth upper from atmosphere.
by shrew, secondary consumer and lastly shrew eaten up by ultraviolet It is radiation very essential (UUUU) for coming
owl, tertiary consumer. this planet from the sun. These radiations are very harmful
causing skin cancer and cataracts in humans. It also causes
2. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem? harm to the crops.
Answer: Role of decomposers in the ecosystem: 2. How can you help in reducing the problem of waste
disposal? Give any two methods.
(i) They clean the environment.
(ii) They decompose biodegradable substances into useful Answer: The following measures should be taken to reduce
substances. the waste disposal:
(iii) They release nutrients into the soil by decomposing dead
and decaying matter, thus making the soil fertile. (i) By separating the biodegradable substances from non-
(iv) They maintain the nutrient pool by returning the biodegradable substances.
nutrients in the pool. (ii) By reducing, reusing and recycling the non-biodegradable
substances.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 274
EXERCISES
1. Why are some substances biodegradable and non-
biodegradable? 1. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable
items?
Answer: All the substances are classified as biodegradable
and non-biodegradable as some substances can be (A) Grass, flowers, and leather
decomposed by microorganisms and some cannot. (B) Grass, wood, and plastic
(C) Fruit-peels, cake, and lime juice
Substances that are broken down into simple soluble forms
are called biodegradable substances and the substances that (D) Cake, wood, and grass
are not decomposed by microorganisms into harmless
Answer:(A), (C) and (D)
substances are called nonbiodegradable substances.
2. Which of the following constitute a food-chain?
2. Give any two ways in which biodegradable substances
would affect the environment. Answer: (B) Grass, goat, and human

Answer: The biodegradable substances would also affect the 3. Which of the following are environmentally-friendly
environment: practices?

(i) They may produce foul smell during the decomposition Answer: (D) All of the above
process.
4. What will happen if we kill all the organisms at one
(ii) They may produce harmful gases such as ammonia,
trophic level?
methane, carbon dioxide.
Answer: Loss of organism of any trophic level will impact the
3. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable
other trophic levels, indirectly or directly. It will lead to an
substances would affect the environment.
imbalance in the ecosystem.

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Let us consider the following food chain with three trophic maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated
levels: in human bodies as we form the topmost trophic level.

Grass ⟶ Deer⟶ Tiger Thus, the level of biological magnification differs at different
trophic levels. The concentration of pesticides increases as it
Here, first Trophic Level is occupied by ‘Producers’ that is
moves along the food chain, from one trophic level to
grass. Second Trophic Level is occupied by ‘Primary
another. The concentration of the pesticide at the topmost
Consumer’ that is deer. Third Trophic Level is occupied by
trophic level is maximum.
‘Secondary Consumer’ that is a tiger.
7. What are the problems caused by the non-biodegradable
Case-I: If all producers die (Producer missing)
wastes that we generate?
If there is no grass, deer will die of hunger. If all deer die, all
Answer: The non-biodegradable wastes cannot be degraded
tigers will also die due to the unavailability of their food
by the action of biological agents such as microorganisms.
(deer).
They create environmental issues in the following ways-
Case-II: If the primary consumers are missing
a. They persist in the environment and cause pollution.
If the herbivore is missing, it will affect the population of both b. They can harm and even kill organisms if consumed.
carnivores and producers. The tiger population will decrease c. They enter the food chain and cause biomagnification.
as their food, that is, deer is no longer available. The
8. 'Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional’. Justify this
population of producers or grass will increase as it will not be
statement. Explain how the pesticides enter the food chain
eaten up by deer (herbivore).
and subsequently get into our body.
Case-III: If the secondary consumers are missing
Answer: The flow of energy in food chains is unidirectional.
If there are no tigers, the population of deer or primary The energy which passes to the herbivores does not come
consumers will rapidly increase, causing a reduction in grass back to the autotrophs. The energy that is captured by the
or producer population. autotrophs does not revert back to the Sun. Therefore, in the
food chain, the energy moves progressively through various
5. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic trophic levels. This energy is no longer available to the
level be different for different trophic levels? Can the previous trophic level. Thus, the flow of energy in a food
organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing chain is unidirectional.
any damage to the ecosystem?
The pesticides enter the food chain and subsequently get into
Answer: True, the impact of removing the organisms from a our body by the following way:
trophic level varies for different trophic levels. For example,
removing all producers would put all consumers population Pesticides are sprayed on the crop plants to protect them
at risk. However, removing all primary consumers positively from the attack of pests. These pesticides when washed away
impacts the producer population and negatively impacts the into the soil or water bodies get absorbed by the plants.
secondary consumer population. When plants are consumed as food by man or other animals,
the pesticides enter the food chain. Since the pesticides are
Removing all organisms of a trophic level creates an non-biodegradable, these chemicals get accumulated
imbalance in the ecosystem. Hence, organisms of a trophic progressively and enter our body.
level cannot be removed as it will be damaging to the
ecosystem. 9. Non-biodegradable materials do not breakdown by the
action of microorganisms. Will there be any effect of heat
6. What is the biological magnification? Will the levels of and pressure if they remain buried under the land for a long
this magnification be different at different levels of the time?
ecosystem?
Answer: No, heat and pressure do not have any effect on
Answer: “Biological magnification” or biomagnification is the them if they remain buried under the land for a long time.
process of increase in the amount of some toxic,
nonbiodegradable substances such as pesticides in successive 10. Non-biodegradable materials do not breakdown by the
trophic levels of a food chain. It results in accumulation of action of microorganisms. Will there be any effect of heat
these toxins in topmost trophic level. The pesticides can enter and pressure if they remain buried under the land for a
into various food chains and eventually enter our bodies. The longtime?

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Answer: No, there will not be any effect of heat and pressure iii. Large amounts of biodegradable waste can also cause
if they remain buried under the land for a longtime. blockage of drains, which in turn causes unhygienic
conditions and multiplication of mosquitoes.
11. State with reason any two possible consequences of
iv. Accumulation of biodegradable waste in water bodies
elimination of decomposer from the earth.
could lead to problems like algal bloom, which leads to
Answer: Two possible consequences of elimination of deficiency of dissolved oxygen and eutrophication.
decomposer from the earth are:
15. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern?
(i) There would be no organic nutrients and all the dead What steps are being taken to limit this damage?
plants would consequently ruin the animal habitat.
Answer: Ozone layer protects us from Sun’s harmful UV
(ii) The ecosystem would be brimming with plants and animal
radiations. It shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet
wastes, because the procedure decomposition of waste
(UV) radiation from the Sun. This radiation is highly damaging
material would never take place (due to the absence of
to organisms, for example, it is known to cause skin cancer in
decomposers).
human beings.
12 (a) What would happen if number of carnivores
The depletion of ozone causes the harmful UV rays to reach
decreases in an ecosystem?
the earth and this has resulted in increased incidence of skin
(b) What is an ecosystem? List its two main components.
cancers in humans.
Answer: (a) If the no of carnivorous decreases in an
To limit the damage to the ozone layer, the release of CFCs
ecosystem, then it will lead to the increase in the no of
into the atmosphere must be reduced. CFCs used as
herbivores. As a result,the no of plants will decrease and the
refrigerants and in fire extinguishers should be replaced with
amount of oxygen will also decrease in the atmosphere.
environmentally-safe alternatives. Also, the release of CFCs
(b) All the interacting organisms in an area together with the through industrial activities should be controlled.
non-living constituents of the environment form an
TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
ecosystem. For example a garden is an ecosystem which
consists of plants, insects, water, soil etc. The two 1. The decomposers in an ecosystem:
components of the ecosystem are − Bio c and Abio c.
Answer: (b) convert organic material to inorganic forms
13. What do you mean by ozone depletion? Which
compounds are responsible for the depletion of the ozone 2. Depletion of ozone is mainly due to:
layer? Answer: (a) chlorofluorocarbon compounds
Answer: Reduction in the concentration of ozone in the 3. In a food chain, the third tropic level is always occupied
ozone layer is called ozone depletion. by:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated ozone Answer: (a) carnivores
depleting substances (ODS) are mainly responsible for man-
made chemical ozone depletion. 4. What will happen if deer is missing in the food chain given
below?
14. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this
have no impact on the environment? Grass → Deer → Tiger

Answer: Our environment is able to degrade biodegradable Answer: (d) the population of tiger decreases and the
waste at a particular pace. But dumping huge amounts of population of grass increases
waste, even if biodegradable, will end up polluting the
5. Disposable plastic plates should not be used because:
environment. This is because nature will be unable to
decompose the waste into harmless materials at the right Answer: (d) they are made of non-biodegradable materials
time. If produced in excess, biodegradable waste can create
the following problems: *****

i. Rotting of large amounts of biodegradable waste in open

emanates foul odour.
ii. Heaps of biodegradable waste provides a breeding ground
for mosquitoes, flies and worms which spread many diseases.

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resources with long term aims allows the present as well as

CHAPTER 16-SUSTAINABLE future generations to utilize the resources for fulfilling their
MANAGEMENT OF RESOURCES needs. This also ensures a continued supply of resources.

IN-TEXT / PAGE 284 Thus, in the interest of our future generations, we must use
the resources with long- term goals.
1. What changes can you make in your habits to become
more environment-friendly? 4. Why do you think there should be equitable distribution
of resources? What forces would be working against an
Answer: We can incorporate the 5R’s of environmental equitable distribution of our resources?
protection in our daily habits to become more environment-
friendly, such as: Answer: Equitable distribution of resources would ensure
that everyone would be able to access and utilize the
(a) By reducing the consumption of our resources: resources for their benefit.
(i) Using less water and avoiding its wastage while The following forces would work against an equitable
brushing, bathing and performing other activities distribution of resources:
which consume water.
(ii) Reducing the usage of fossil fuels by walking or (i) Geographical and climatic factors such as rainfall
cycling to nearby places and using public transport distribution and soil type.
more often. (ii) Economic factors such as the influence of rich and
(iii) Limiting the use of electronic equipment which powerful people.
consumes more electricity such as air conditioners,
IN-TEXT / PAGE 288
vacuum, heaters, etc.
1. Why should we conserve forests and wildlife?
(b) By reusing water and waste materials such as plastic or
glass containers to reduce waste generation. Answer: Forests are biodiversity hotspots. Thus, it is
(c) By segregating wastes into different bins so that they can necessary to conserve forests and wildlife in order to
be sent for recycling. conserve biodiversity. Conservation of forest resources
(d) By saying NO to single-use plastic bags or packaging ensures their continued supply to the current as well as
materials as they produce non-biodegradable waste. future generations.
(e) By creating useful products from some wastes such as
decorative materials from waste paper, pots from broken 2. Suggest some approaches towards the conservation of
utensils, etc. forests.

2. What would be the advantages of exploiting resources Answer: Following are the useful measures to conserve
with short-term aims? forests:

(i) Formation of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries which

Answer: Exploiting resources with short-term aims would
reduces human intervention.
benefit the present generation in the following ways:
(ii) Involving local people in conserving forests.
(i) It would help fulfill the basic needs such as food, water, (iii) Limiting the destruction of forests for developmental
and shelter, of everyone. purposes making roads, dams, and hotels, or mining.
(ii) It would encourage rapid economic growth through (iv) Driving tree plantations.
development and industrialization.
IN-TEXT / PAGE 291
However, such exploitation of these resources will eventually
1. Find out about the traditional systems of water
lead to its exhaustion. This will deprive future generations of
the benefits of these resources. harvesting/management in your region.

Answer: The traditional water harvesting methods are being

3. How would these advantages differ from the advantages
used in our region are tanks, wells, tube wells etc.
of using a long-term perspective in managing our
resources? 2. Compare the above system with the probable systems in
hilly/mountainous areas or plains or plateau regions.
Answer: Exploiting resources with short-term aims benefits
only the present generation as they utilize the resources for
their growth and development. However, sustainable use of

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Answer: Being from plains, our traditional water harvesting (v) Repurpose- We can create useful products from some
methods are tanks and wells. In hilly areas, dams and canal wastes such as decorative materials from waste paper, pots
irrigation are commonly used. from broken utensils, etc.

i. Dams are water harvesting structures which are crescent- 2. Can you suggest some changes in your school which
shaped earthen embankments. They are made up of concrete would make it environment- friendly?
and can hold huge volumes of river water flowing down the
Answer: Our school can be made environment-friendly by
mountains.
making the following changes
ii. Canal irrigation is also commonly used in hilly regions. A
system of canal irrigation called Kulhs is used for water (i) lights and fans in classes should be switched off when not
harvesting in Himachal Pradesh. This involves the collection in use.
of rainwater in a stream, which is then diverted into man- (ii) Dry waste such as paper or plastic waste should be
made channels down the hillsides. separated from the wet waste using different dust bins for
these wastes.
3. Find out the source of water in your region/locality. Is
(iii) More trees can be planted in the field.
water from this source available to all people living in that
(iv) Leakage from taps should be fixed.
area?
3. We saw in this chapter that there are four main
Answer: Groundwater is the main source of water in our
stakeholders when it comes to forests and wildlife. Which
region. It is available to all the people living in the area. The
among these should have the authority to decide the
municipal corporation also supplies water in our area.
management of forest produce? Why do you think so?
EXERCISES
Answer: The wildlife and nature enthusiasts should be given
1. What changes would you suggest in your home in order the authority to manage the forest produce as they care
to be environment- friendly? about conserving the forest. They also have the required
knowledge about the local forests and they do not depend on
Answer: We can make our homes environment-friendly by
the forests. They can work closely with the forest department
utilizing the resources reasonably and generating less waste.
of the government to implement the conservation steps.
We can follow the five R’s to achieve the same-
Other stakeholders such as people living around forests and
(i) Reduce- We can reduce the consumption of the following the industrialists consume forest products. If they are given
in our house- the authority, it could lead to the exploitation of the forest.

a. We should reduce the usage of electricity by 4. How can you as an individual contribute or make a
switching off lights and fans when not in use. difference to the management of
b. We should reduce the usage of water by taking in
a. Forests and wildlife
shorter showers.
b. Water resources and
c. We should reduce the wastage of water by fixing
c. Coal and petroleum
any leaking taps.
d. We should reduce the use of plastics. Answer: We can contribute individually to manage the
e. We should reduce food waste. resources in the following ways-

(ii) Reuse- We should reuse plastic or glass packaging (a) Forests and wildlife
containers. We can reuse the water used for washing
(i) We should protest against deforestation and poaching of
vegetables for watering the plants. We should also try to
wild animals.
reuse old clothes, utensils, etc.
(ii) We should work towards developing more efficient
(iii) Refuse- We should say NO to single-use plastic bags or agricultural practices which can prevent clearing of forests for
packaging materials as they produce non-biodegradable agricultural use.
waste. (iii) We should use the forest produce such as paper wisely
and avoid their wastage.
(iv) Recycle- We should segregate recyclable wastes from the
non-recyclable ones so that new materials can be made (b) Water resources
using the old ones.
(i) We must fix the leaking taps or pipes and use water
cautiously.

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(ii) We should try to conserve and use rainwater. i. to improve the water quality by interception,
(iii) We should reuse water and ensure proper disposal of ii. diversion and treatment of domestic sewage, and
sewage. iii. to identify grossly polluting units to prevent their toxic and
industrial chemical wastes from entering the river.
(c) Coal and petroleum
9. What was “Chipko Andolan”? How did this andolan
(i) We should limit the use of petrol or diesel by avoiding
people ultimately benefit the local and the environment?
unnecessary travel and by using public transport or car-pool.
(ii) We should switch to alternative energy sources such as Answer: Chipko Andolan or Hug the Trees Movement was a
CNG for vehicles instead of petrol or diesel and LPG for protest against the cutting of the trees of the forest. In this
cooking instead of coal. Andolan, the women of Reni village in Garhwal hugged the
(iii) We should use solar energy as much as possible, such as tree trunks and did not allow the contractors to cut the
for outdoor lighting, heating of water, etc. trees.

5. What can you as an individual do to reduce your This Andolan quickly spread to other parts of the country and
consumption of the various natural resources? forced the government to stop the cutting of the trees of the
forest and preserve them. The environment was also saved
Answer: We can take the following measures to reduce the
from damage. The local people were also benefited as they
consumption of natural resources:
continued to get food and other benefits from the forest.
(i) We must avoid the wastage of natural resources.
10. What are the various factors which are damaging our
(ii) We should reuse forest products such as paper by
forest?
recycling them to reduce the cutting down of trees.
(iii) We should practice rainwater harvesting so that we can Answer: the various factors which are damaging our forest
reduce the usage of groundwater. are:
(iv) We should practice car-pooling and encourage the use of
i. Cultivation for agriculture.
public transport to limit the use of petrol and diesel.
ii. Many times fire damage the forest.
(v) We should use alternative sources of energy such as wind
iii. Increasing population need sufficient Area for life spend.
energy, hydro- energy, and solar energy.
11. Write the harmful effects of using plastic bags on the
6. “We need to manage our resources.'' List two reasons to
environment. Suggest alternatives to plastic bags.
justify this statement.
Answer: Yes plastic bags are harmful as it is not
Answer: The statement of the need for managing resources
environmentally friendly and it is non-biodegradable waste
can be fully justified by the following two points :
which cannot decay, often cannot be recycled, and tend to
i. The resources available on our Earth are not infinite. They disturb the ecological balance in nature. Their products also
are limited. Also, the resources are not renewable. So, once cause different environmental pollution.
all the resources are used up, then we cannot get back the
We can reduce plastic bag by using cloth bag or paper bag.
resources again.
ii. Second justification is that management of the resources 12. (a) Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable
will lead to the distribution of these resources equally among wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins?
every individual. (b) "Forests are biodiversity hotspots”. Give reason to justify
this statement.
7. What do the 3Rs refer to save the environment? Which
one of these would be the best for the environment? Answer: (a) Biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes
should be discarded in two different dustbins so that they can
Answer: Three R’s refer to Reduce, Recycle and Reuse.
be collected separately. Waste can be segregated at the
Reducing wastage of energy is the best one. source itself which in turn allows effective treatment and
disposal. The biodegradable waste can be decomposed in a
8. What were the main reasons behind "Ganga Action Plan”
natural manner by the process of composting. Non-
which was initiated in1985?
biodegradable wastes can be sent for recycling. If the two
Answer: The Ganga Action Plan was launched, with the main wastes are collected in a single bin, they would mix and may
objective of pollution abatement of river Ganga. The main form toxic compounds which can cause pollution.
reasons were:

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(b) Forests are biodiversity hotspot. The measure of the TICK (✓) THE CORRECT OPTION
biodiversity of an ares is the no. of species found there.
1. It is important to make small check dams across the
A forest being home for a range of different life forms from a flooded gullies because they:
tiny microorganisms fungi to animals like lions ,deer etc. and (i) hold water for irrigation
hence called biodiversity hotspots. (ii) hold water and prevent soil erosion
(iii) recharge groundwater
13. List five things you have done over the last week to —
(iv) hold water permanently
(a) Conserve our natural resources.
Answer: (b) (ii) and (iii)
(b) Increase the pressure on our natural resources.
2. The important message conveyed by the 'Chipko
Answer: (a) In the last week, I did the following things to
Movement’ is:
conserve our natural resources-
Answer: (a) to involve the community in forest conservation
(i) Turned off lights, fans, and other electronic
efforts
equipment when not in use.
(ii) Used less water and avoided its wastage while 3. Arabari forest of Bengal is dominated by:
brushing, bathing and performing other activities
which consume water. Answer: (b) sal
(iii) Created useful products such as a pen stand 4. Khadins, Bundnis, Ahars and Kattas are ancient structures
using waste paper. that are examples of:
(iv) Segregated biodegradable and non-
biodegradable wastes into separate bins. Answer: (c) water harvesting
(v) Planted new trees in my garden.
5. Select the eco-friendly activity among the following:
(iv) Avoided food wastage.
Answer: (d) using windmills to generate power for irrigation
(b) In the last week, I did the following activities which
increased pressure on the natural resources: *****

(i) Took printouts of some content which I could

have read on my computer.
(ii) Used plastic bags for carrying goods.
(iii) Used vacuum to clean our house.
(iv) Commuted to school in our car.

14. On the basis of the issues raised in this chapter, what

changes would you incorporate in your lifestyle in a move
towards sustainable use of our resources?

Answer: I will incorporate the following changes in my

lifestyle-

(i) Use of a bicycle to commute to school.

(ii) Limit the use of electronic equipment which consumes
more electricity such as air conditioners, vacuum, heaters,
etc.
(iii) Use of solar-powered geysers for heating water during
winters.
(iv) Walking to nearby places and using public transport more
often.
(v) Spread awareness about the need for saving our natural
resources.

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