Indian Institute of Technology Tirupati: Roll No: Name
Indian Institute of Technology Tirupati: Roll No: Name
Indian Institute of Technology Tirupati: Roll No: Name
Date: 25-09-2020
Marks: 100 Time: 1 hr-45 min
Students who are writing the comprehensive written examination should follow
the below mentioned instructions carefully.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
a) Calculator is allowed
b) In case any data is missing, please make suitable assumptions.
c) Only one choice is correct for multiple choice questions.
d) Each correct answer will be awarded +1. Each incorrect answer will be
awarded -0.25. Each unanswered question will be awarded 0.
e) Write the answers in a plain white sheet and scan (or take photo) and send it to
TA email ( me19d505@iittp.ac.in)
f) After sending the answer sheets, take confirmation from TA through Zoom
meeting.
===========================GOOD LUCK=============================
01. The following figure was generated from experimental data relating spectral black body
emissive power to wave length at three temperatures T1, T2 and T3 (T1 > T2 > T3).
(a) correct because the maxima in Ebλ show the correct trend
02. In a parallel flow heat exchanger operating under steady state, the heat capacity rates of the
hot and cold fluids are equal. The hot fluid flowing at 1 kg/s with specific heat 4 kJ/kgK, enters
the heat exchanger at 102°C while the cold fluid has an inlet temperature of 15°C. The overall
heat transfer coefficient of the heat exchanger is estimated to be 1 kW/m2K and the
corresponding heat transfer surface area is 5 m2 neglecting heat transfer between the heat
exchanger and the ambient. The heat exchanger is characterized by the following relation:
2ε = 1 − exp (−2NTU)
(a) 45
(b) 55
(c) 65
(d) 75
03. The LMTD of a counter flow heat exchanger is 20°C. The cold fluid enters at 20°C and the
hot fluid enters at 100°C. Mass flow rate of the cold fluid is twice that of the hot fluid. Specific
heat at constant pressure of the fluid is twice that of the cold fluid. The exit temperature of the
cold fluid is
(a) 40°C
(b) 60°C
(c) 80°C
04. Nitrogen at an initial state of 10 bar, 1 m3 and 300 K is expanded isothermally to a final
a
volume of 2 m3. The p-v-T relation is p 2 RT , where a > 0. The final pressure
(a) will be slightly less than 5 bar
05. Steam enters an adiabatic turbine operating at steady state with an enthalpy of 3251.0 kJ/kg
and leaves as a saturated mixture at 15 kPa with quality (dryness fraction) 0.9. The enthalpies
of the saturated liquid and vapor at 15 kPa are hf = 225.94 kJ/kg and hg = 2598.3 kJ/kg
respectively. The mass flow rate of steam is 10 kg/s. Kinetic and potential energy changes
are negligible. The power output of the turbine in mW is
(a) 6.5
(b) 8.9
(c) 9.1
(d) 27.0
06. An industrial heat pump operates between the temperatures of 27°C and –13°C. The rates
of heat addition and heat rejection are 750 W and 1000 W, respectively. The COP for the heat
pump is
(a) 7.5
(b) 6.5
(c) 4.0
(d) 3.0
s s
07. For an ideal gas the expression T T is always equal to
T p T
(a) zero
(b) Cp/Cv
(c) R
(d) RT
08. One kilomole of an ideal gas is throttled from an initial pressure of 0.5 MPa to 0.1 MPa.
The initial temperature is 300 K. The entropy change of the universe is
(a) 13.38 kJ/K
09. A gas expands in a frictionless piston-cylinder arrangement. The expansion process is very
slow, and is resisted by an ambient pressure of 100 kPa. During the expansion process, the
pressure of the system (gas) remains constant at 300 kPa. The change in volume of the gas is
0.01 m3. The maximum amount of work that could be utilized from the above process is
(a) 0 kJ
(b) 1 kJ
(c) 2 kJ
(d) 3 kJ
10. A steel billet of 2000 kg mass is to be cooled from 1250 K to 450 K. The heat released
during this process is to be used as a source of energy. The ambient temperature is 303 K and
specific heat of steel is 0.5 kJ/kg K. The available energy of this billet is
(a) 490.44 MJ
(b) 30.95 MJ
(c) 10.35 MJ
(d) 0.10 MJ
11. For which of the following situations, zeroth law of thermodynamics will not be
applicable?
(a) 50 cc of water at 25°C is mixed with 150 cc of water at 25°C
(b) 500 cc of milk at 15°C is mixed with 100 cc of water at 15°C
(c) 5 kg of wet stream at 100°C is mixed with 50 kg of dry and saturated steam at 100°C
12. A turbo-charged four-stroke direct injection diesel engine has a displacement volume of
0.0259 m3 (25.9 liters). The engine has an output of 950 kW at 2200 rpm. The mean effective
pressure (in MPa) is closest to
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 0.2
(d) 0.1
13. In order to burn 1 kilogram of CH4 completely, the minimum number of kilograms of
oxygen needed is (take atomic weights of H, C and O as 1, 12 and 16 respectively)
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
14. For the same values of peak pressure, peak temperature, and heat rejection, the correct order
of efficiencies for Otto, Dual, and Diesel cycles is
(a) ηOtto > ηDual > ηDiesel
(a) P and S
(b) Q and S
(c) P, R and S
(d) P, Q, R and S
16. In a power plant, water (density = 1000 kg/m3) is pumped from 80 kPa to 3 MPa. The
pump has an isentropic efficiency of 0.85. Assuming that the temperature of the water remains
the same, the specific work (in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is
(a) 0.34
(b) 2.48
(c) 2.92
(d) 3.43
17. The thermal efficiency of an air-standard Brayton cycle in terms of pressure ratio rp and γ
(= Cp/Cv) is given by
1
(a) 1
rp 1
1
(b) 1
rp
1
(c) 1 1
rp
1
(d) 1 1
rp
18. In a three-stage air compressor, the inlet pressure is p1 , discharge pressure is p4, and the
intermediate pressures are p2 and p3 (p2 < p3). The total pressure ratio of the compressor is 10
and the pressure ratios of the stages are equal. If p1 = 100 kPa, the value of the pressure p3 (in
kPa) is __________.
19. The pressure, dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air in a room are 1 bar, 30°C
and 70%, respectively. If the saturated steam pressure at 30°C is 4.25 kPa, the specific humidity
of the room air in kg water vapour/kg dry air is
(a) 0.0083
(b) 0.0101
(c) 0.0191
(d) 0.0232
20. Atmospheric air from 40°C and 60% relative humidity can be brought to 20℃ and 60%
relative humidity by
(a) cooling and dehumidification process
(c) the dew point and wet bulb temperatures are equal
(d) the dry bulb and dew point temperatures are equal
22. In the vapor compression cycle shown in the figure, the evaporating and condensing
temperatures are 260 K and 310 K, respectively. The compressor takes in liquid–vapor mixture
(state 1) and isentropically compresses it to a dry saturated vapor condition (state 2). The
specific heat of the liquid refrigerant is 4.8 kJ/kgK and may be treated as constant. The enthalpy
of evaporation for the refrigerant at 310K is 1054 kJ/kg. The difference between the enthalpies
at state points 1 and 2 (in kJ/kg) is ___________.
23. Critical damping is the
(a) largest amount of damping for no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(b) smallest amount of damping for which no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(c) largest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free vibration
(d) smallest amount of damping for which the motion is simple harmonic in free
vibration
24. Consider a cantilever beam, having negligible mass and uniform flexural rigidity, with
length 0.01 m. The frequency of vibration of the beam, with a 0.5 kg mass attached at the free
tip, is 100 Hz. The flexural rigidity (in Nm2) of the beam is _____
25. An automotive engine weighting 240 kg is supported on four springs with linear
characteristics. Each of the front two springs have a stiffness of 16 MN/m while the stiffness
of each rear spring is 32 MN/m. The engine speed (in rpm), at which resonance is likely to
occur, is
(a) 6040
(b) 3020
(c) 1424
(d) 955
26. A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation
frequency of vibration of machine to the natural frequency of the isolation system is equal to
0.5, the transmissibility ratio of isolation is
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.75
(c) 1.33
(d) 2
27. Consider a single degree-of-freedom system with viscous damping excited by a harmonic
force. At resonance, the phase angle (in degree) of the displacement with respect to the exciting
force is
(a) 0
(b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 135
28. A stepper motor has 150 steps. The output shaft of the motor is directly coupled to a lead
screw of pitch 4 mm, which drives a table. If the frequency of pulse supply to the motor is 200
Hz, the speed of the table (in mm/min) is
(a) 400
(b) 320
(c) 300
(d) 280
29. For the CNC part programming, match Group-A with Group-B:
Group-A Group-B
P. Circular interpolation, counter
1. G02
clockwise
Q. Dwell 2. G03
R. Circular interpolation, 4° clockwise 3. G04
S. Point to point countering 4. G00
30. A robot arm PQ with end coordinates P (0, 0) and Q (2, 5) rotates counter clockwise about
P in the XY plane by 90°. The new coordinate pair of the end point Q is
(a) (–2, 5)
(b) (–5, 2)
31. For cutting double start screw threads of pitch 1.0 mm on a lathe, the thread cutting tool
should have a feed rate of
(a) 0.5 mm/rev
(b) 1.0 mm/rev
(c) 2.0 mm/rev
(d) 4.0 mm/rev
32. A milling cutter having 10 teeth is rotating at 100 rpm. The table feed is set at 50 mm per
minute. The feed per tooth in mm is
(a) 5
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.2
(d) 0.05
33. The tool life equation for HSS tool is VT0.14 f0.7 d0.4 = constant. The tool life (T) of 30 min
is obtained using the following cutting conditions = 45 m/min, f = 0.35 mm, d= 2.0 mm. If
speed (V), feed (f) and depth of cut (D) are increased individually by 25%, the tool life (in mm)
is
(a) 0.15
(b) 1.06
(c) 22.50
(d) 30.0
34. A DC welding machine with a linear power source characteristic provides open circuit
voltage of 80V and short circuit current of 800A. During welding with the machine, the
measured arc current is 500A corresponding to an arc length of 5 mm and the measured arc
current 460A corresponding to an arc length of 7 mm. the linear voltage (E) & arc length (L)
characteristic of the welding arc can be given as (where E is in Volts and L is in mm)
(a) E= 20+2L
(b) E= 20+8L
(c) E= 80+2L
(d) E= 80+8L
35. In a typical metal cutting operation, using a cutting tool of positive rake 𝛾 = 10 deg, it was
observed that the shear angle was 20 deg. The friction angle is
(a) 45
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 40
36. In a machining operation, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1/8th of the
original value. The exponent n in Taylor’s tool life equation VTn =C, is
(a) 1/8
(b) 1/4
(C) 1/3
(d) 1/2
37. Two tools P and Q have signature 5o -5o -6o -6o -8o -30o -0 and 5o -5o -7o -7o -8o -15o -0
(both ASA) respectively. They are used to turn components under the same machining
conditions. If hp and hq denote the peak to valley heights of surfaces produced by the tools P
and Q, the ratio hp/hq will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
38. The standard specification of a grinding wheel is A-46-M-6-V-21. It means a wheel of
(a) aluminum oxide of mesh size 6
(b) Boron carbide of mesh size 46
(c) aluminum oxide of mesh size 46
(d) silicon carbide of mesh size 6
40. A 80 mm thick steel plate with 400 mm width is rolled to 40 mm thickness in 4 passes with
equal reduction in each pass, by using rolls id 800 mm diameter. Assuming the plane strain
deformation, what is the minimum coefficient of friction required for unaided rolling to be
possible?
(a) 0.111
(b) 0.158
(c) 0.233
(d) 0.316
41. A 300 mm thick slab is being cold rolled using roll of 600 mm diameter. If the coefficient
of friction is 0.08, the maximum possible reduction (in mm) is
(a) 1.92
(b) 3.92
(c) 5.92
(d) 6.92
42. The fit on a hole shaft pair system is specified as H7-s6. The type of fit is
(a) clearance fit
(b) running fit
(c) transition fit
(d) interference fit
43. A sine bar has a length of 250 mm. each roller has a diameter of 20 mm. during taper angle
measurement of a component, the height from the surface plate to the center of a roller is 100
mm, the calculated taper angle (in degree) is
(a) 21.1
(b) 22.8
(c) 23.6
(d) 68.9
45. In terms of Poisson’s ratio (µ) the ratio of Young’s Modulus (E) to Shear Modulus (G) of
elastic materials is
(a) 2(1+µ)
(b) 2(1-µ)
(c) 0.5(1+µ)
(d) 0.5(1-µ)
46. The number of independent elastic constants required to define the stress strain relationship
for an isotropic elastic solid is
(a) 9
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 7
48. A shaft with a circular cross section is subjected to pure twisting moment. The ratio of the
maximum shear stress to the largest principal stress is
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) 0
49. A two-dimensional fluid element rotates like a rigid body. At a point within the element,
the pressure is 1 unit. Radius of the Mohr’s circle, characterizing the state at that point
(a) 0.5 unit
(b) 0 unit
(c) 1 unit
(d) 2 unit
50. A simply supported beam of length L is subjected to a varying distributed load Sin(3πx/L)
Nm-1, where the distance x is measured from the left support. The magnitude of the vertical
reaction force in N at the left support is
(a) zero
(b) L/3π
(c) L/π
(d) 2L/π
51. For a long slender column of uniform cross section, the ratio of critical buckling load for
the case with both ends clamped to the case with both ends hinged is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
52. A cantilever beam of length L, with uniform cross section and flexural rigidity EI, is loaded
uniformly by a vertical load w per unit length. The maximum vertical deflection of the beam
is given by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
53. A disc clutch with a single friction surface has coefficient of friction equal to 0.3. The
maximum pressure which can be imposed on the friction material is 1.5 MPa. The outer
diameter of the clutch plate is 200 mm and its internal diameter is 100 mm. Assuming uniform
wear theory for the clutch plate, the maximum torque (in N-m) that can be transmitted is
(a) 530
(b) 640
(c) 750
(d) 440
55. If the ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to the pitch of rivets is 0.25, then the tearing
efficiency of the joint is
(a) 0.50
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.25
(d) 0.84
56 A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld carries a steady load of 15kN along the weld. The
shear strength of the weld material is equal to 200 MPa. The factor of safety is
(a) 2.4
(b) 3.4
(c) 4.8
(d) 6.8
57. The uniaxial yield stress of a material is 300 MPa. According to Von mises criterion, the
shear yield stress (in MPa) of the material is
(a) 173
(b) 273
(c) 373
(d) 277
59. A solid disc of radius r rolls without slipping on a horizontal floor with angular velocity ω
and angular acceleration α. The magnitude of the acceleration of the point of contact on the
disc is
(a) zero
(b) rα
(c) (𝑟𝛼) + (𝑟𝜔)
(d) r𝜔
60. A planar closed kinematic chain is formed with rigid links PQ= 2.0 m, QR= 3.0 m, RS=
2.5 m and SP= 2.7 with all revolute joint. The link to be fixed to obtain a double rocker (rocker-
rocker) mechanism is
(a) PQ
(b) QR
(c) RS
(d) SP
61. In a certain slider crank mechanism, lengths of crank and connecting rod are equal. If the
crank rotates with a uniform angular speed of 14 rad/s and the crank length is 300 mm, the
maximum acceleration of the slider (in m/s2) is
(a) 117
(b) 217
(c) 317
(d) zero
62. Which one of the following is used to convert a rotational motion into a translational motion
(a) bevel gears
(b) double helical gears
(c) worm gears
(d) Rack and pinion gears
63. A and B are the end points of a diameter of a disc rolling along a straight line with a counter
clock wise angular velocity as shown in the figure. Referring to the velocity vectors Va and Vb
shown in the figure:
(a) Va and Vb are both correct
ω Vb
(b) Va is incorrect but Vb is correct
va
(c) Va and Vb are both incorrect
(d) Va is correct but Vb is incorrect
64. A stone of mass m at the end of a string of length l is whirled in a vertical circle at a constant
speed. The tension in the string will be maximum when the stone is
(a) at the top of the circle
(b) half way down from the top
(c) quarter way down from the top
(d) at the bottom of the circle
65. A car moving with uniform acceleration covers 450 m in a 5 second interval, and covers
700 m in the next 5 second interval. The acceleration of the car is (in m/s2)
(a) 7
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 10
66. Two books of mass 1 kg each are kept on a table one over the other. The coefficient of
friction on every pair of contacting surface is 0.3. The lower book is pulled with a horizontal
force F. The minimum value of F for which slip occurs between the two books is
(a) zero
(b) 1.06 N
(c) 5.74 N
(d) 8.83 N
71. The iron carbide diagram and TTT curves are determined under
(a) equilibrium and non-equilibrium conditions respectively
(b) non-equilibrium and equilibrium conditions respectively
(c) equilibrium conditions for both
(d) non-equilibrium conditions for both
72. Plain carbon steel is called hypo eutectoid steel if it has carbon percentage
(a) less than 0.8
(b) equal to 0.8
(c) between 0.8 and 2.0
(d) between 2.0 and 4.3
74. Consider a single server queuing model with Poisson arrivals (ƛ = 4/hour) and exponential
service (µ = 4/hour). The number in the system is restricted to a maximum of 10. The
probability that a person who comes in leaves without joining the queue is
(a) 1/11
(b) 1/10
(c) 1/9
(d) 1/2
75. Cars arrives at a service station according to Poisson’s distribution with a mean rate of 5
per hour. The service time per car is exponential with a mean of 10 minutes. At state, the
average waiting time in the queue is
(a) 10min
(b) 20min
(c) 25 min
(d) 50 min
76. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20
respectively. If the exponential smoothing constant (α) is taken as 0.2, then forecast sales for
January 2003 would be
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 24
(d) 25
77. The total number of decision variables in the objective function of an assignment problem
of size n x n ( n jobs and n machines) is
(a) n2
(b) 2n
(c) 2n-1
(d) n
78. When a cylinder is located in a Vee-block, the number of degrees of freedom which are
arrested is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 8
79. The process utilizing mainly thermal energy for removing material is
(a) ultrasonic machining
(b) electrochemical machining
(c) abrasive jet machining
(d) laser beam machining
81. If ‘P’ is the gauge pressure within a spherical droplet, then gauge pressure within a bubble
of the same fluid and of same size will be
P
(a)
4
P
(b)
2
(c) P
(d) 2P
82. A cubic block of side ‘L’ and mass ‘M’ is dragged over an oil film across table by a string
connects to a hanging block of mass ‘m’ as shown in figure. The Newtonian oil film of
thickness ‘h’ has dynamic viscosity ‘µ’ and the flow condition is laminar. The acceleration due
to gravity is ‘g’. The steady state velocity ‘V’ of block is
Mgh
(a)
L2
Mgh
(b)
mgh
(c)
L2
mgh
(d)
83. You are asked to evaluate assorted fluid flows for their suitability in a given laboratory
application. The following three flow choices. Expressed in terms of the 2-dimensional
velocity fields in the x-y plane, are made available.
P. u = 2y, v = − 3x
Q. u = 3xy, v = 0
R. u = −2x, v = 2y
Which flows should be recommended when the application requires the flow to be
incompressible and irrotational?
(a) P and R
(b) Q
(c) Q and R
(d) R
84. A siphon is used to drain water from a large tank shown in the figure. Assume that the level
of water is maintained constant. Ignore frictional effect due to viscosity and losses at entry and
exit. At the exit of the siphon, the velocity of water is
(a) 2 g (Z Q Z R )
(b) 2 g (Z P Z R )
(c) 2 g (Z O Z R )
(d) 2 g (Z Q )
85. In the case of turbulent flow of a fluid through a circular tube (as compared to the case of
laminar flow at the same flow rate) the maximum velocity is _____, shear stress at the wall is
_____, and the pressure drop across a given length is _____. The
correct words for the blanks are, respectively
87. In a Lagrangian system, the position of a fluid particle in a flow is described as x = xoe–kt
and y = yoekt where t is the time while xo , yo and k are constants. The flow is
(a) unsteady and one-dimensional
89. A curve passes through the point (x = 1, y = 0) and satisfies the differential equation
dy x 2 y 2 y
. The equation that describes the curve is
dx 2y x
y2
(a) ln1 2 x 1
x
1 y2
(b) ln1 x 1
2 x 2
y
(c) ln1 x 1
x
1 y
(d ) ln1 x 1
2 x
90. The area of a triangle formed by the tips of vectors a , b and c (where these are position
vectors) is
(a)
2
1
a b a c
(b)
2
1
a b a c
1
(c) a b c
2
1
(d) a b c
2
dy 6
91. The solution of x y x 4 with condition y (1) is
dx 5
x4 1
(a) y
5 x
4x 4 4
(b) y
5 5x
4
x
(c) y 1
5
x5
(d) y 1
5
92. Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton–Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x
− 7 = 0 gives the next value x1 as
(a) x1 = 0.5
(b) x1 = 1.406
(c) x1 = 1.5
(d) x1 = 2
93. lim x 2 x 1 x is
x
(a) 0
(b)
1
(c)
2
(d) -
1 2 1 1
94. The Eigenvectors of the matrix are written in the form and . What is a + b?
0 2 a b
(a) 0
1
(b)
2
(c) 1
(d) 2
u u
95. Consider the following partial differential equation with the constant c > 1: c 0.
x y
Solution of this equation is
(a) u(x, y) = f(x + cy)
(b) decreases
98. A brick wall k = 0.9W/mK of thickness 0.18 m separates the warm air in a room from the
cold ambient air. On a particular winter day, the outside air temperature is –5℃ and the room
needs to be maintained at 27℃. The heat transfer coefficient associated with outside air is 20
W/m2K. Neglecting the convective resistance of the air inside the room, the heat loss, in W/m2,
is
(a) 88
(b) 110
(c) 128
(d) 160
99. A metal ball of diameter 60 mm is initially at 220°C. The ball is suddenly cooled by an air
jet of 20°C. The heat transfer coefficient is 200 W/m2K. The specific heat, thermal conductivity
and density of the metal ball are 400 J/kgK, 400 W/mK and 9000 kg/m3, respectively. The ball
temperature (in °C) after 90 seconds will be approximately.
(a) 141
(b) 163
(c) 189
(d) 210
100. A coolant fluid at 30°C flows over a heated flat plate maintained at a constant temperature
of 100°C. The boundary layer temperature distribution at a given location on the plate may be
approximated as T = 30 + 70 exp (−y), where y (in m) is the distance normal to the plate and T
is in °C. If thermal conductivity of the fluid is 1.0 W/mk, the local convective heat transfer (in
W/m2K) at that location will be
(a) 0.2
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 10
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