COMMUNICABLE DISEASES POST TEST 2

1. Nurse Jojo asked Lady Gaga what she did a. Administration of tetanus prophylaxis
immediately after the incident. LG’s and antibiotics
response indicates correct understanding of b. Locating and observing the rabid
first aid measure when she says that: animal
a. I ran after the dog and killed it c. Suturing the bite wound (techniques
before it can bite again. should allow adequate wound drainage)
b. I washed my wound immediately with d. Rubbing garlic on the wounds
soap and water. Rationale: observing rabid anima is not a part in
c. I went to the drug store and bought nursing
500mg antibiotic.
d. I went to the police station and SITUATION: Mr. Boy Abundat has been
reported the incident. experiencing paresthesia on his lower
Rationale: first aid measure to every wound is to wash extremities for the past few months
it with soap and water. associated with a non-healing wound on his
2. The confirmatory diagnostic test for big toe. The skin scraping on the site
rabies: confirms presence of Mycobacterium leprae.
a. Negri bodies antibody test 8. Of the following statements about
b. Flourescent Rabies antibody test Hansen’s disease, which one is false?
c. Immunodiagnostic procedure a. an early symptom is loss of
d. Nasal and throat swab sensation, sweating, and hair in a
Rationale:this is stated on the module given,demonstration localized patch of skin
of negri bodies b. the incubation period is less than a
3. Rabies is preventable but not curable. month
The patient was given Imurab. The doses c. treatment should include giving
are given on the following schedule: rifampicin with dapsone
a. Day 0, 3, 7, 14, 28 d. the form the disease takes depends on
b. Day 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 the immune status of the victim
c. Day 3, 7, 10 Rationale: the incubation period for leprosy or Hansen's
d. Day 1, 7, 10, 11, 16, 22 disease is about five years (two to 10 years), and it can
Rationale: The Imurab should be given at Day 0, 3, 7, 14, take as long as about 20 years before symptoms and
28. signs of leprosy develop in some patients.
4. Jang Gium interviewed Lady Gaga and her
mother at the emergency room to take the 9. The identification of M. Leprae is best
history before seeing a doctor. She told seen on which of the following tests:
LG’s mother not to kill the dog because a. Agglutination test c. Skin biopsy
the dog will be: b. Direct microscopy d. Acid fast
a. Injected with a vaccine bacilli
b. Confined at a veterinary clinic Rationale:skin biopsy is commonly used to diagnose
c. Observed for 10 days leprosy.
d. Treated with antibiotic against 10. Preventive aspect of care is a priority
rabies consideration. Which of the following
Rationale: the dog will be observed for 10 days, if the dog vaccine is also preventive measure?
died meaning there is rabies virus on the dog. a. BCG c. MMR
b. DPT d. ATS
5. Based on report that the Philippines Rationale:A.T.S. - Anti-Tetanus Serum
ranked number six among the countries 11. The following are late signs and
with the highest reported incidence of symptoms of leprosy except:
rabies in the world and considering that a. Madarosis
rabies is one of the most accurately b. Loss of sensation on the skin lesion
fatal infections which causes the death c. Clawing of fingers and toes
of between 200-500 Filipinos annually, d. Lagophthalmos
voluntary pre-exposure prophylaxis among Rationale: Lagophthalmos is the inability to close the
people who are at risk is highly eyelids completely.
recommended. These people include: 12. As a nurse, you must do an assessment
a. Barangay tanod officials patrolling upon seeing a patient with leprosy.
the streets at night, pet owners, Which one of the following is early sign
veterinarians, animal handlers and symptom?
b. All people living within an area a. clawing of fingers and toes
where there are dogs that roam their b. decrease or loss of sweating or hair
neighborhood growth
c. Pet owners, animal handlers, health c. contractures
personnel working in anti-rabies d. loss of eyelids or eyebrowS
units and children below 15 years Rationale: Early symptoms begin in cooler areas of the
old. body and include loss of sensation
d. Pregnant women, side-walk vendors, 13. Which of the following attributes is/
pet owners, veterinarians an are true of amoebiasis?
Rationale: people are at risk when there are roaming dogs 1. Amoebiasis can cause amoebic liver
in an area abscess.
6. A 22 year male was bitten by a rabid 2. Entamoebahystolitica is the etiologic
dog. To confirm whether the client is agent and has two developmental stages
infected with rabies, what test is to be which are the cyst and the
done? trophozoite.
a. FAT (Fluorescent Antibody Test) 3. Source of infection is human excreta.
b. MAT (Microscopic Agglutination Test) 4. The cysts are resistant to levels of
c. LAT (Leptospira Agglutination Test) chlorine normally used for water
d. SSS (Slit Skin Smear) purification.
. Rationale: flourescent antibody test detect bites form a. 1, 2,3 c. 2, 3, 4
dogs b. 1, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
7. The following are nursing management for Rationale:the number four is not belong to the group
rabies, except:
 COMMUNICABLE DISEASES POST TEST 2

14. Nurses should be aware that clinical 1. Ingestion of raw or inadequately

features of amoebiasis include the cooked bi-valve shellfish during red
following, except: tide season.
a. Bloody-mucoid stool 2. Ingestion of raw or inadequately
b. Onset is sudden cooked mollusks during red tide
c. Tenesmus season.
d. Diarrhea and abdominal distention 3. Ingestion of raw or inadequately
Rationale: the Amoebiasis is not sudden onset its cooked fishes during red tide season.
incubation period is 10hrs- 7 days and the illness may 4. Ingestion of raw or inadequately
last for weeks. cooked shrimps and crabs.
a. 1,2 c. 1, 2, 3, 4
15. The patient asks the nurse what are the b. 1, 2, 3 d. 1, 2, 4
treatment modalities for amoebiasis. The Rationale: ingestion of raw seafoods during red tide season
nurse mentions the following as can result to poisoning
treatment modalities, except: 21.Pedro has eaten infected tahong and
a. Metronidazole sought consultation to the nearby health
b. Tetracycline center due to numbness, vomiting and
c. Fluid and electrolytes replacement tingling sensation. The nurse
d.Praziquantel anticipated the following as management
Rationale:It is an antibiotic that works by stopping the to the patient:
growth of bacteria. 1. The doctor would prescribe medication
16. One of the most important to the patient.
responsibilities of a nurse is to provide 2. Advised the patient to cook
health education. Health education should shellfishes with vinegar the next time
tackle about the following, except: around.
a. Eat ground vegetables such as 3. Induced vomiting
lettuce, carrots and the like 4. Instructed the patient to drink
regularly. coconut milk and sodium bicarbonate
b. Boil water for drinking or use solution during the early stage of
purified water. poisoning.
c. Avoid washing food from open drum or a. 1, 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 2
pail. b. 1,2, 3 d. 3, 4
d. Cover left-over foods. Rationale: there is no definite treatment for poisoning but
Rationale: health teaching must not include preferences of early actions such as induced vomiting and give
food to eat regularly coconut milk to weaken the poison
17. A client with a bacterial pneumonia is 22. Individuals who ingested shellfish
to be started on IV antibiotics. Which of during red tide season should be
the following diagnosis test must be monitored for:
completed before antibiotic therapy begins? 1. numbness of face especially the mouth
a. Urinalysis 2. vomiting, hematemesis and dizziness
b. Chest X-ray 3. tingling sensation, paresthesia and
c. WBC count eventual paralysis of hands and feet
d. Sputum culture and sensitivity 4. floating sensation and weakness
Rationale:should undergo sputum culture, blood culture, a. 1, 2, 3, 4 c. 2, 3, 4
and/or urine antigen testing preferably before the b. 1, 2, 3 d. 1,3,4
institution of antibiotic therapy Rationale: all of the above should be monitored
18. Mr. Underson, 41 years old is brought 23. One of the residents in Brgy. Bagumbong
by his wife Kim Chow to a doctor’s asks the nurse if it’s recommended to
clinic to be tested for filariasis upon cook and eat tahong affected by red
the advice of their family physician. tide. The nurse is correct in his
The most likely diagnostic test that he response if he states:
will undergo is: a. “Eating tahong affected by red tide
a. Immunochromatographic test ( ICT ) can be eaten provided that it is cook
b. Nocturnal Blood Examination with vinegar to destroy the toxin.”
c. Stool exam b. “Tahong is rich in iodine hence it
d. Urinalysis should be eaten despite the red tide
Rationale: The standard method for diagnosing active infection warning issued by the proper
is the identification of microfilariae in a blood smear by authorities.”
microscopic examination c. “Toxin of red tide is not totally
19. Mr. Underson is in the acute stage of destroyed upon cooking hence eating
the disease, expected findings at this time tahong should be avoided.”
will include the following: d. “Red tide phenomena cannot affect
a.Lymphangitis,lymphadenitis, tahong thus it can be safely eaten.”
epidydimitis Rationale: seafoods should be avoided during red tide
b. Hydrocele, lymphedema, elephantiasis 24. Organism that causes red tide:
c. Orchitis, hydrocele, elephantiasis a. Red Algae
d. Lymphangitis, lymphedema, Orchiti b. Sarcoptesscabiei var. hominis
Rationale: in acute stage of filariasis manifestations are c. Yersinia
lymphadenitis as inflammation of lymph nodes, d. Pediculushumanus
lymphangitis as inflammation of lymph vessels and in Rationale:Red algae, (division Rhodophyta), any of about
some cases are the male genitalia is affected leading 6,000 species of predominantly marine algae, often
to funiculitis, epidydimitis or orchitis as redness, painful found attached to other shore plants.
and tender scrotum. SITUATION: Mang Pedro Penduko, a ricefield
SITUATION: Red tide poisoning is a syndrome farmer from Samar, sought consult to a
of characteristic symptoms predominantly private MD regarding the progressive
neurologic which occurs within minutes or enlargement of his abdomen associated with
several hours after ingestion of poisonous a history of watery stools and easy
shellfish. fatigability. Impression was liver
20. Modes of transmission of red tide cirrhosis secondary to schistosomiasis.
poisoning:
 COMMUNICABLE DISEASES POST TEST 2

25. You know as a nurse that 34. Positive Hoyne’s sign is present in
Schistosomiasis has an intermediate paralytic of poliomyelitis. Positive
host. What is it? Hoyne’s is:
a. Rat c. Mosquito a. Hyperextension or arching of the
b. Snail d. Tick back.
Rationale: intermediate host of schistososmiasis are b. Stiffness and rigidity of spinal
various species of freshwater snail. column.
26. What is the specific name of the c. Resistance to full extension of knee
intermediate host in the above question? when hip is flexed.
a. Aedespoecilus d. Head falls back when the pt. is in
c. Oncomelaniaquadrasi supine position with shoulders
b. Wuchereriabancrofti elevated.
d. Plasmodium Rationale: may result in the patient assuming the tripod
Rationale: Oncomelania hupensis is a species of very small position with the knees and hips flexed
tropical freshwater snail, 35. All of the following are TRUE of
27. The mode of transmission of poliomyelitis except:
schistosomiasis is: a. MOT is thru fecal-oral route
a. airborne c. Skin Contact b. Poliomyelitis affects chiefly the
b. Respiratory d. Sexual anterior horn of CNS
Rationale: People become infected when larval forms of the c. Positive Hoyne’s sign is present in
parasite – released by freshwater snails – penetrate paralytic polio
the skin during contact with infested water. d. The use of handroll, trochanter roll
28. Which of the following species of and footboard is contraindicated.
Schistosoma, the causative agent of Rationale: This positioning technique can help the client
Schistosomiasis, is the only endemic to the stabilize the body alignment in transfering, therefore it
Philippines? is not contraindicated.
a. Haematobium c. Japonicum 36. If this is pertussis, the nurse will
b. Mansoni d. Falciparum prepare which of the following drugs:
Rationale: In the Philippines, S. japonicum is the causative a. Cephalosporins c. Erythromycin
agent of the disease. b. Tetracyclines d. Ciprofloxacin
29. The nurse would anticipate that Mang Rationale:erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin
Pedro will be taking which of the are preferred for the treatment of pertussis in persons
following drug: 1 month of age and older.
a. Primaquine c. Mebendazole SITUATION: Malaria is one of the major
b. Metronidazole d. Praziquantel health problems in Palawan. Knowledge of
Rationale: Schistosomiasis can usually be treated the nature of this disease and its mode of
successfully with a short course of a medication called transmission will help the nurse in
praziquantel, planning and implementing preventive
30. The primary preventive measure against control measures.
HIV-AIDS is: 37. As a prevention for malaria, you
a. Withdrawal educate people living in malaria endemic
c. Use of condom areas to do which of the following:
b. Virus killing drugs A. Avoid going out between 12
d. Foams and gels use nn to 3 am
Rationale:The next best step is to always use a latex B. Take chloroquine tablets
condom if one is having sex with more than one once a day
partner, C. Apply insect repellant on
31. Transmission of HIV from an infected house walls
individual to another person occurs: D. Use long sleeved shirts when
a. Most frequently in nurses with needle going out at night
sticks E. Plant Neem tree in their
b. Only if there is a large viral load back yards
in the blood F. Clear hanging branches near
c. In all infants born to women with HIV rivers
infection a. A, B, C, D, E, F c. C, D, E, F
d. Most commonly as a result of sexual b. B, C, D, E, F d. B, C, D,E
contact Rationale: all of the above are correct
Rationale: sexual contact is the most common 38. You are assigned in Palawan where there
SITUATION: A suspect cases of is a sudden increase in the occurrence
poliomyelitis is defined as any patient of malaria. As a preventive measure to
below 15 years old with acute flaccid your pregnant clients, you will:
paralysis. a. Instruct the patient to wear long
32. Which of the following serologic types sleeve and pants all the time and
of poliovirus is the most frequent cause apply mosquito repellants when going
of paralytic poliomyelitis? out of the house to protect
a. Type I – Brunhilde themselves from mosquitoes.
c. Type II – Lansing b. Tell the pregnant women to transfer
b. Type III – Leon to another place of residence
d. Type IV – Tigre temporarily until there are no more
Rationale: type 1 is the most frequent cause of paralytic cases of malaria in the locality.
poliomyelitis c. Give them each 2 chloroquine tablets
33. Pandy’s test or Lumbar puncture is used to be taken every week as prophylaxis
for the CSF analysis. The expected d. Perform fumigation to destroy all
finding of protein in the CSF is? mosquitoes
a. Moderately elevated as disease Rationale; to prevent acquisition of the disease
progresses. 39. When monitoring laboratory results, the
b. Remained normal throughout the course most important parameter frequently
of illness. checked in patient with Dengue is:
c. Decreased as disease progresses a. Hematocrit c. Prothrombin time
d. None of the above b. Platelet d. Hemoglobin
Rationale: protein in the CSF decreases
 COMMUNICABLE DISEASES POST TEST 2

Rationale: its important to monitor patients platelet with Philippines. The infectious agent that
dengue causes this disease in cattle is known
40. Mateo, 23 years old sought consultation as:
due to high grade fever for three days a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
unresponsive to oral paracetamol, severe b. Mycobacterium bovis
nausea and vomiting, headache and c. Wuchereriabancrofti
malaise. After taking the vital signs, d. Mycobacterium leprae
the nurse performs a tourniquet test. Rationale: mycobacterium bovis is an infectious agent that
Jumong is positive if: cause TB disease in cattle
a. There are 20 or more petechiae noted 46. One of the early preventions against
in 2.5 cm square tuberculosis is:
b. There are 20 or more petechiae noted a. Prompt diagnosis and treatment of
in 1 inch square infectious cases
c. There are 20 or more petechiae noted b. Improve social condition
in 5 cm square c. BCG vaccination of newborn
d. Both a and b d. Make available medical and laboratory
Rationale: to note if positive is there are 10 to 20 petechiae facilities for examination
per inch square . Rationale: BCG vaccination at birth is an early prevention
SITUATION: Abigail, a 12 year-old female, to Tuberculosis
was brought to Dr. San Diego’s clinic 47. As part of your duties as community
because of generalized rashes and was nurse you are discussing about the
subsequently diagnosed with chickenpox. nature of tuberculosis. Your attendees
41. Nurse Sasuke recognizes the following understand the discussion if they state
as signs and symptoms of chickenpox: that the primary diagnostic tool in
a. Rashes which pass through stages of tuberculosis to detect extent of lesion
macule, papule, vesicle and pustule is:
more abundant on the face and a. X – ray and culture
extremities. b. Direct sputum smear microscopy
b. Rashes which begin on the head and c. PPD skin test
neck and spread cephalocaudally d. X – ray
c. Red blotchy rashes which appears on 48. A Mantoux test or Purified Protein
the 3rd to the 7th day. Derivative (PPD) is interpreted after:
d. Rashes which begin on the head and a. 12 hours c. 36 hours
spread peripherally and more abundant b. 24 hours d. 48-72 hours
on covered body parts. Rationale: PPD result is after 48 to 72 hours
Rationale: chickenpox is more abundant on the face and 49. Which clients are considered targets
extremities for DOTS Category III?
42. The following nursing interventions are a. Sputum negative cavitary cases
appropriate for the patient, except: b. Clients returning after a default
a. Increase oral fluid intake c. Relapses and failures of previous PTB
b. apply calamine lotion to the lesions treatment
to decrease pruritus d. Clients diagnosed for the first time
c. give aspirin for fever through a positive sputum exam
d. Soap is omitted to prevent irritation Rationale: new (-) smear PTB with minimal lesions
Rationale: administration of medication is required Doctors 50. Treatment failure and relapses falls
order under what recommended category of
43. A nurse is performing an assessment on treatment regimen?
a child with chicken pox. The mother of a. Category I c. Category III
the child tells the nurse that child b. Category II d. Category IV
keeps scratching at night, and the nurse Rationale: Category 2 was for sputum smear positive patients
teaches the mother about the measures who have relapsed, who have treatment failure or who are
that will prevent an alteration in skin receiving treatment after treatment interruption.
integrity. Which statement of the mother 51. Sauke stopped taking his medications
indicates that the teaching is prescribed in the hospital for PTB
effective? because he had no money to buy for the
a. “I will apply generous amounts of a next month’s supply. He stopped taking
cortisone cream to prevent itching.“ it for a few months then he goes to the
b. “I need to place white gloves on my nearest health center in their baranggay
child’s hands at night. “ for check-up and treatment. Mr. Carlos
c. “I need to keep my child in a warm will be placed under DOTS treatment
room at night so that covers will not regimen?
cause my child to scratch. “ a. 2 HRZE / 2 HR
d. “I will give my child a glass of warm b. 2 HRZE / 4 HR
milk at bedtime to help my child c. 2 HRZES / 4 HRE
sleep.“ d. 2 HRZES / 1 HRZE / 5 HRE
Rationale: gloved hands will prevent an alteration in skin Rationale: the blurring of vision is also indicated thus this is
integrity when it is being scratched. not advisable to give to children.
44. The name for a comprehensive strategy
which primary health services around the 52. The most adverse side effect of
world is using to detect and cure TB Ethambutolis:
patients a. Stomach upset
a. National TB program c. Vertigo
b. Direct Observe Treatment Short Course b. Peripheral neuritis
(DOTS) d. Optic Neuritis
c. Center for Communicable Diseases Rationale: blursing of vision is an adverse effect of
d. International TB Control Organization Ethambutol
Rationale: DOTS is an organization used to detect and cure 53. A nurse is reading a Mantoux skin test
TB patients for a client with no documented health
45. Tuberculosis is considered as the problems. The site has no induration and
world’s deadliest disease remains as a a 1mm area of ecchymosis. The nurse
major public health problem in the interprets that the result is:
 COMMUNICABLE DISEASES POST TEST 2

a. Positive c. Uncertain Rationale: Reverse isolation are procedures designed to

b. Negative d. Borderline protect a patient from infectious organisms carried by
Rationale: no significant patients, the organisms are typically spread by
54. Which of the following cold be ordered droplets in the air or on equipment.
to relieve the spasm in a patient 62. In CSF analysis of patient with
suffering from tetanus? meningitis, the level, of protein is of
a. Pen G Sodium c. Diazepam protein is:
(Valium) a. Elevated/increased c.
b. Tetanus Antitoxin d. Anti-Tetanus Fluctuating
serum b. Decrease d. none of
Rationale: for muscle spasm the above
55. Nurse Shan Deok, who is caring for a Rationale: if there is alteration on CSF there is elevated
child with symptoms of tetanus responds Protein
to the child’s parents request to assist 63. Stool exam is used as diagnostic exam
their son’s care by stating: in Amoebiasis. Proper collection of
a. I can understand you wanting to help, stool is a must. Which of the following
but we must avoid all unnecessary should be advice to the patient?
stimuli at this time a. Instruct patient to mix urine with
b. You may talk but don’t touch him stool
since it could cause uncontrolled b. Small portion of stool is needed
seizures c. Sending of specimen to the laboratory
c. Tell me more about your concerns, we can be delayed.
realize you must be so upset with the d. Label specimen properly
hospitalization. You may attend to Rationale: its okay have a small portion of stool
your son as much as you wish. 64. Most prevalent form of parasitic
d. We encourage you to speak to him and infection in the Philippines:
touch him even though he is unable to a. Ascariasis c. Taeniasis
respond you b. Enterobiasis d. Trichuriasis
Rationale: state your concern with comfort Rationale: common in tropical area with poor sanitation
56. Tetanus is an acute disease caused by a 65. It is known as giant worm infestation:
bacillus growing in wounds and at the a. Ascariasis c. Taeniasis
site of the umbilicus among infants. The b. Enterobiasis d. Uncinariasis
causative agent for tetanus is: Rationale: giant worms and roundworms
a. Gram (-)Aerobic 66. Which among the following offers the
c. Gram (+) Aerobic least chance to get infected with HIV?
b. Gram (-) Anaeobic a. French kissing
d. Gram (+) Anaerobic b. Sexual contact
Rattionale:anaerobic spore forming heat-resistant c. Drug users involving sharing of
needles
SITUATION: Gloria, a 58 year old former d. Blood transfusion
politician was brought to the Jose Reyes Rationale: french kissing is low risk transmission of HIV
Medical Center after complaining of fever, 67. Disease that is/are strongly associated
headache and vomiting. She was diagnosed with AIDS includes the following,
with meningitis by Dr. Quack-quack. except:
57. If Gloria develops sign of meningeal a. Pulmonary tuberculosis
irritation, this may include the b. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
following, except: c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
a. Nuchal rigidity c. Kerning’s Sign d. None of the above
b. Opistothonus d. Homan’s sign Rationale: all of the above are associated with AIDS
Rationale:homans sign is not belong to the group 68. The confirmatory test for the diagnosis
58. Which among the following is/are of AIDS:
possible complication(s) in children with a. ELISA
meningitis? c. Western Blot Test
a. Hydrocephalus c. Deafness b. Polymerase chain reaction
b. Blindness d. All of the above d. CBC and viral culture
Rationale: all of the above are complications of meningitis Rationale: Western blot test is used for confirmatory test
59. An osmotic diuretic used in patients 69. When taking the blood pressure of a
with meningitis to counter cerebral edema client who has AIDS. The nurse must:
includes: a. Wear clean gloves
a. Dexamethasone c. Furosemide b. Wear a mask and gown
b. Corticosteroid d. Mannitol c. Use barrier techniques
Rationale: to reduce ICP and relieve cerebral edema; d. Wash the hands thoroughly
60. A child is admitted with a diagnosis of Rationale: routine care for patients with AIDS is the same
meningococcal meningitis. The nurse is to patients with different diseases
aware that isolation: 70.The patient manifests foul smelling
a. of any kind is not required serosanginous secretions from the nose
b. will be required for seven days and as well as excoriation of the upper
c. must be maintained during the lip. Based on the presenting sign and
incubation period. symptoms, Phokee most probably
d. is required for 24 hours after onset experiencing which type of diphtheria?
of antibiotic therapy a. nasal diphtheria
Rationale: incubation period of 2-10 days b. pharyngeal diphtheria
61. The physician’s order for a child c. laryngotracheal diphtheria
admitted with meningitis includes d. None of these
specific isolation. The nurse Rationale: Since there is foul smelling coming from the
understands that the child be placed on: mouth
a. Reverse isolation
b. Respiratory isolation 71. Diagnostic Exam used in diphtheria to
c. Enteric precautions determine susceptibility or resistance of
d. Syringe and needle precaution the person:
a. malarial smear
 COMMUNICABLE DISEASES POST TEST 2

c. Shick’s test d. Artificial passive

b. typhidot exam Rationale: artificial passive is an introduction of antibodies
d. Moloney test from other sources
Rationale: Schicks determines susceptibility of bacteria 79. The immediate and continuous
72. Murea, 25 y/o suddenly was febrile with disinfection of infected discharges and
abdominal pain, headache and rashes. He articles:
was diagnosed of dengue fever. Which of a. Concurrent disinfection
the following is the mode of c. Quarantine
transmission of dengue fever? b. Terminal disinfection
a. Bite of infected female Aedesaegypti d. Sterilization
b. Bite of infected female Anopheles Rationale: concurrent disinfection is continuos
c. Bite of infected female Culex 80. Type of Immunoglobulin that is detected
mosquito first after exposure to an antigen:
d. Bite of infected female bee a. IgM antibodies c. IgD antibodies
Rationale: Aedesaegypti is the vector of dengue virus b. IgG antibodies d. IgG antibodies
73. Biologic control against larvae as Rationale: IgM is the first antibody secreted by the adaptive
method of control of dengue mosquito immune system in response to a foreign antigen
includes which of the following? 81. Legal responsibilities of the nurse
a. larvae eating fishes regarding protection and control of CD
c. insect repellant 1. Isolation of the CD case
b. 4 o’clock habit 2. Carry out of quarantine laws
d. mosquito coils 3. Assist in surveillance and case
Rationale:The 4 o'clock habit is part of the “4S” strategy finding
advocated by the Department of Health to counter 4. Report cases to the health authority
dengue, a. Only 1 & 2 c. All except
74. Which of the following is NOT true 2
regarding occurrence of dengue fever in b. All of the above d. None of
the Philippines? the above
a. high incidence is usually from July Rationale: all given numbers above are the answer
to November
b. Peak period is February to April 82. It is a system that will isolate all
c. More common in urban areas compare to moist and potentially infectious
rural areas substance from all patients:
d. Common during rainy season a. Standard precaution
Rationale: February to april is summer season b. Body substance isolation
75. When diagnosing DHF, one should c. Handwashing
consider all, except: d. Transmission base precaution
a. fever for 1-7 days Rationale: isolation is separation of infectious substance
c. hypotension from all patient
b. thrombocytopenia 83. Hospital waste management program is a
d. increase triglycerides new requirement before construction of a
Rationale: triglycerides do not affect DHF facility. The hospital personnel
76. Which of the following statements best required to train in waste management to
describes Communicable Disease? prevent which of the following?
a. It is applied to diseases that are a. Cross infection
easily spread directly from one b. Communicable disease
person to another. c. Nosocomial infection
b. Is an illness caused by an infectious d. Transmission of disease
agent or its toxic products that are Rationale: Nosocomial infection is acquired from hospital
transmitted directly or indirectly to waste
a well person through an agency, and 84. A 42 year old male client has Community
a vector or an inanimate object. Acquired Pneumonia (CAP) hence the
c. A disease produced by the invasion of attending physician ordered airborne
the body tissues with pathogenic precaution. The following are
microorganisms which multiply and interventions for a client under
produce the signs and symptoms of airborne precaution except:
disease a. Wear an N95 respirator when visiting
d. All of the above the patient
Rationale: all of the above best describes Communicable b. Wear a mask when working within 3
diseases feet away from the client
77. A disease is said to be communicable c. Place the client in a private room or
if: a client infected with the same
a. It is capable of being transmitted organism
from an infected person or species to d. Instruct family members and
a susceptible host caregivers to wear respiratory
b. It persists for a long period of devices
time, usually with a duration greater Rationale: client with CAP should isolated in separate room
than three months that is transmitted 85. If a disease is said to be highly
to a susceptible host communicable like SARS, Meningococcemia
c. It is self limiting disease or Avian Influenza isolation must be
d. It may result from genetic or implemented by the Communicable Disease
lifestyle factors Nurse (CDN), which among the following
Rationale: it is said to be communicable if this is definition best describe the word
transmitable isolation?
78. What type of immunity is developed a. Isolation is the separation of
through introduction of antibodies that infected individual from those who
comes from other sources such as human are uninfected for the maximum
serum or from animals? incubation period of a specific
a. Natural active disease
c. Artificial active b. Isolation is the limitation of
b. Natural passive freedom of movement of a well
 COMMUNICABLE DISEASES POST TEST 2

individual exposed to a specific temperature 38.5 degrees Celsius,

disease for the maximum incubation respiration 28 with presence of grayish
period pseudomembrane. The following are the
c. Isolation is the limitation of nursing care for a client with
freedom of movement of a well diphtheria except:
individual exposed to a specific a. CBR to prevent myocarditis
disease for the maximum b. Increase fluid intake to liquefy
communicability period secretions
d. Isolation is the separation of c. Oral hygiene with emphasized on the
infected individual from those who removal of pseudomembrane
are uninfected for the maximum d. ANST before giving antitoxin
communicability period of a specific Rationale: it doesn't need to perform ANST before giving
disease. antitoxin.
Rationale: isolation is separation of infected patient with 92. Which of the following is NOT an
communicable disease appropriate management of diphtheria?
86. The following are not a type of a. Performing Moloney’s test to
transmission based precaution except: determine hypersensitivity to
a. Borreliosis antidiphtheria antitoxin
c. Dandy’s fever b. Removal of pseudomembrane to decrease
b. Consumption Disease the toxic effects of diphtheria toxin
d. Weil’s Disease c. Performing emergency tracheostomy for
Rationale: infectious disease of the tropics transmitted by suspected airway obstruction
mosquitoes d. Aerosol inhalations and postural
87. Nurse Sakura Chan just finished drainage of pulmonary secretion upon
rendering care to a patient with doctor’s order
Consumption Disease in an isolation Rationale: It is not implemented with diptheria
room. Nurse Sakura begins to remove her 93. A common finding in patients with
personal protective equipment (PPE). Diphtheria is the presence of
What should she remove first? pseudomembranes due to the necrosis of
a. Mask c. Gown local tissues leading to fibrinopurulent
b. Goggles d. Cap exudates. Which type of diphtheria is
Rationale: to prevent cross contamination characterized by bull neck apperance?
88. Lialives in Palawan, known to be a. Nasal diphtheria c. Pharyngeal
endemic area for Filariasis. Endemic means diphtheria
that? b. Laryngeal diphtheria d. Cutaneous
a. The pattern of occurrence and diphtheria
distribution is continuous throughout Rationale:Laryngeal diphtheria can lead to a characteristic
a period of time. swollen neck and throat, or "bull neck".
b. The pattern of occurrence and 94. A nurse provides home care instructions
distribution is intermittent of a few to the parents of a child hospitalized
isolated and unrelated cases in a with Pertussis. The child is in
given locality. convalescent stage and is being prepared
c. The pattern of occurrence and for discharge. Which of the following
distribution is unusually large will not be included in the teaching
number of cases in a relatively short plan?
period of time. a. Maintain respiratory precautions
d. The pattern of occurrence and and quiet environment for at least 2
distribution is simultaneous weeks
occurrence of the same disease in b. Coughing spells may be triggered
several countries. by dust or smoke
Rationale: an infection is said to be endemic in a population c. Encourage fluid intake
when that infection is constantly maintained at a d. Good handwashing techniques must
baseline level in a geographic area without external be instituted to prevent spreading of
inputs the disease to others
89. Mang Andres, who is one of the Rationale: it is excluded in the teaching plan
attendees in you seminar, asks you what 95. The nurse is wary of possible spread of
can be done to prevent the spread of a pertussis among children because the
disease. Your appropriate response would period of greatest communicability is at
be based on the easiest link to break, what stage?
which is: a. Incubation period
a. Portal of Exit c. Mode of c. Paroxysmal stage
Transmission b. Catarrhal stage
b. Reservoir or Environment d. d. Convalescent period
Portal of Entry Rationale:Catarrhal stage.
Rationale: determine reservoir and environment prevent is highly contagious, with a secondary attack rate of up to
spread of disease 90% among non-immune household contacts
90. As part of your duties as Community 96. Destruction of pathogenic microorganism
Health Nurse you conduct a seminar about outside the body by directly applying
Immunization. One of your attendees ask physical and chemical means but does not
you what type of immunity can an infant kill bacterial spores:
get through breast feeding your a. Sterilization c. Disinfection
appropriate response would be? b. Fumigation d. Antiseptic
a. Natural:Passive Rationale: is the determining of organism bit not tptally
c. Natural:Active killing the spores
b. Artificial:Active 97. Agents that inhibit growth of some
d. Artificial:Passive microorganism. It is safe to use in skin
Rationale: The type of immnuization that is innate to tissue
humans a. Disinfectant c. Sanitizer
91. A client 3 year old client was rushed b. Alcohol d. Antiseptic
by his mother to the hospital with Rationale: it is safe to use in skin tissue
Diphtheria; assessment reveals
 COMMUNICABLE DISEASES POST TEST 2

98. What do you call the objects that are b. Prodromal stage d.
contaminated with an infectious agent Convalescence
like Bacteria, Viruses, Fungi, Rationale; onset of typical or specific signs and symptoms
Rickettsia, Chlamydia, Protozoa or of a disease
Parasites? 100. A 3 year old boy with tetralogy of
a. Agent c. Vector fallot after 7 days of fever has whitish
b. Fomites d. Vehicle to bluish specks on his buccal area
Rationale: it is an any inanimate object that can transmit after attending a children’s party. As
infectious agents from one person to another the pediatric nurse assigned to this
99. What stage of infection pertains to the client you must suspect that the child
interval between entrance of pathogenic is in what stage of infection?
microorganism to the appearance of the a. Convalescence c. Prodromal
unique sign and symptom of a specific stage
infection? b. Incubation period d. Stage of
a. Stage of illness c. Incubation illness
period Rationale: the onset of signs and symptoms