Examiner Report Nov 2020 PDF

(NBAA)
THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS

TANZANIA
EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT
92ND EXAMINATION SESSION – NOVEMBER 2020
NBAA, Telephones: +255 26 2660170-4

4 UKAGUZI ROAD, AUDIT HOUSE, + 255 22 2211890-9
8TH FLOOR, Mobile: 0713 320423
P. O. BOX 1271, Email: info@nbaa.go.tz
41104 TAMBUKARELI, Website: www.nbaa.go.tz
DODOMA. TANZANIA
23RD DECEMBER 2020

TABLE OF CONTENTS
PAGE
(ii)
Foreword & Acknowledgement …………………………………….
Executive Summary of 92nd Examination session ………………….. (vii)
CHAPTER 1 Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 92nd Examination Session 1
CHAPTER II Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise …………………................. 4

 Accounting Technician Examination Level I ……….................. 5
 Accounting Technician Examination Level II …………………. 18
 Foundation Level ………………………………………………. 31
 Intermediate Level ……………………....................................... 51
 Final Level …………………………………………………….. 80
CHAPTER III Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………. 101
CHAPTER IV Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………. 111
CHAPTER V Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to November 2020 132
CHAPTER VI The NBAA Special Awards Programme for Candidates with 134
Meritorious Examination Achievements …………………………….
FOREWORD AND ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
The current examination scheme has been tested for the first time in this November 2020 examination
session. It has basically be designed to test competencies rather than understanding of knowledge.
In order to realize this goal, there is a need to streamline the whole process from teaching of the
students, setting of examination questions as well as marking of the examinations. Here it means
that the trainers, learners, examiners as well as examination markers need to speak the same
language. If there is any mismatch between these key stakeholders the aim of competence based
examination scheme cannot be realized. Trainers are required to change their teaching orientation
to match with competence approach. They are required to guide learners to acquire competencies
rather than knowledge. Learners are supposed to change their learning styles from rote learning to
active learning that will enable them to learn the required competencies. Those who are setting
examination questions should also consider the fact that they are testing understanding of skills and
competencies rather than understanding of information. How to orient all these stakeholders to have
the same orientation has remained a challenge in implementing the competence based examination
scheme. But as we move forward the situation is changing into better through trainings and
acquisition of experiences.
The current examination scheme has eight subjects in the Accounting Technician Levels I and II
as shown below:
Code Name
Accounting Technician Level I
T01 Book keeping and Accounts
T02 Elements of Business Mathematics and Statistics
T03 Introduction to Information and Communication Technology
T.04 Business Communication Skills
Accounting Technician Level II

T.05 Principles of Accounting and Auditing
T.06 Elements of Cost Accounting and Procurement
T.07 Elements of Commercial Knowledge and Taxation
T.08 Accounting for Public Sector and Cooperatives
ii
The Professional Examination Scheme has three level structures as
follows:
(i) Foundation (Knowledge and Skills) level, having six subjects,
(ii) Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context) level, having six subjects, and
(iii) Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation) level, having four subjects.
In total, the Professional Examination Scheme has 16 subjects as shown hereunder:
Foundation (Knowledge and Skills Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
A1 Quantitative Techniques
A2 Business and Management
A3 Financial Accounting
A4 Cost Accounting
A5 Business Law
A6 Business Economics
Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
B1 Financial Management
B2 Financial Reporting
B3 Auditing Principles and Practice
B4 Public Finance and Taxation
B5 Performance Management
B6 Management, Governance and Ethics
Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
C1 Corporate Reporting
C2 Auditing and Assurance Services
C3 Business and Corporate Finance
C4 Advanced Taxation
iii
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER
Since the inception of the Accounting Technician examinations, the Board has been able to produce
14,289 Accounting T e c h n i c i a n s . This category of Accounting Technicians covers 4,035
Accounting Technicians Certificate (ATEC) graduates, 2,971 Basic Book-keeping Certificate
(BBC) graduates, 5,746 National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE) graduates and 1,537
National Accountancy Diploma (NAD) graduates.
The Board has also been able to produce 10,498 CPA (T) graduates since it started conducting these
examinations in May, 1975, 210 CPA (T) Equivalent since it started conducting these examinations
in November 2014. In total, the Board has been able to produce 24,812 accounting personnel
(manpower) of different levels and categories serving both in public and private sectors inside and
outside Tanzania.
EXAMINATION CENTRES
During the 92nd examination session, examinations were held in 16 examination centres, where Dar
es Salaam had 06 centers and the other 10 centers located in Tanzania Mainland and Zanzibar. These
centres accommodated 6,179 candidates sitting at different levels of the Board’s examinations. The
examination centres were as follows:
Dar es Salaam Centres were all located at APC Hotel and Conference Centre (Bunju).
Other centres
1. Arusha – Institute of Accountancy Arusha (IAA)
2. Dodoma – Institute of Rural Development Planning (IRDP)
3. Iringa – Iringa RVTSC
4. Kilimanjaro – Moshi Cooperative University (MoCU)
5. Mbeya – Mzumbe University – Mbeya
campus
6. Morogoro – Muslim University of Morogoro (MUM)
7. Mwanza –St. Dominic Pastoral Centre
8. Tabora – Tabora RVTSC
9. Tanga – St. Joseph’s Commercial School (SJCS)
10. Zanzibar - State University of Zanzibar (SUZA)
iv
OBJECTIVES OF THE REPORT
The Report is intended to avail to trainers and candidates, the examinations’ overall general
performance, specific areas of weaknesses and suggestions for improvement. It is an important
guide to candidates as well as trainers, setters, markers and moderators of the Board’s future
examinations.
Analysis of the examination performance is presented in Table 3 of this report while a detailed
analysis indicating the performance of candidates registered by the recognized Tuition Providers is
shown in Tables 10 to 11 of the report. Analysis of performance in each subject is presented in
Tables 5.1 to 9.1.8. Comments and observations in the Examiners' and Performance Report are
supported by relevant statistical analysis of the candidates' performance in each examination level.
The last chapter of the Report comprises a list of prizes offered by NBAA and other prize donors.
These prizes will be awarded to candidates who have excelled in their examinations during the
graduation ceremony expected to be held on October 2021.
v
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
On behalf of the Board and on my own behalf, I wish to convey my very sincere appreciation to all
persons who willingly supported the Board in this demanding professional task. I am indeed
particularly thankful to all Tuition Providers who devoted their energy and time to guide the
candidates and preparing them for the examinations. I am also delighted to acknowledge the
contribution of Board’s Examiners, Markers, Invigilators, and the Board’s Secretariat, the Education
and Publications Committee and the Governing Board for their much appreciated co- operation
during the whole process of the NBAA’s 92nd examination session. Last but not least, I congratulate
all examination candidates who studied hard and sat for the 92nd examinations of the Board.
Once again, I would like to reiterate that the Examiners' Report is prepared to help trainers and the
Board’s candidates to improve on their future performance by learning from previous experiences.
I, therefore, call upon readers of this Report to come up with constructive suggestions on how to
improve further the examination process and reports arising therein.
Yours sincerely,
CPA Pius A. Maneno

EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR
vi
EXECUTIVE SUMMARY TO THE 92ND EXAMINATION SESSION – NOVEMBER 2020
1.0 PREAMBLE:
The Board conducts its normal session examinations twice in a year during the months of
May and November. This session is the 92nd examination session in which the
examinations were conducted from Tuesday 3rd to Friday 6th November 2020.
4,492 candidates applied for the examinations, out of whom 349 (7.8%) were absent, 4,143
(92.2%) sat for the examinations at different levels. The candidature distribution this
session is as shown in the Table below:
EXAMINATION CANDIDAT CANDIDATES % CANDIDATES %

LEVELS ES ABSENT SAT
APPLIED
TECHNICIAN LEVELS
ATEC I: 48 02 4.2 46 95.8

ATEC II: 93 01 1.1 92 98.9
PROFESSIONAL LEVELS
Foundation 431 35 8.1 396 91.9

Intermediate 2,361 229 9.7 2,132 90.3
Final 1,559 82 5.3 1,477 94.7
TOTALS 4,492 349 7.8 4,143 92.2
vii
2.0 TREND OF THE EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE
2.1 Candidature Exam Sitting

Candidature enrolment this session has decreased from 6,282 to 4,143
Candidates, which is a decrease of 34.0% candidates.
Table 1 and Graph 1 shows candidature trend (candidates who sat for the
examinations) for the eight examination sessions: November 2016 to November 2020.
Table 1
EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE TREND FOR THE PRECEDING NINE
EXAMINATION SESSIONS NOVEMBER 2016 TO NOVEMBE 2020
EXAMINATION ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

I II
84th Session November 2016 84 158 405 3,522 2,113 6,282
85th Session May 2017 103 185 557 3,477 2,292 6,614
86th Session November 2017 100 172 572 3,235 1,977 6,056
87th Session May 2018 61 98 370 1824 1238 3,591
88th November 2018 113 212 621 3197 2,040 6,183
89th May 2019 102 190 696 3,276 1,971 6,235
90th November 2019 85 173 688 3,310 1,923 6,179
91st May (August) 2020 84 162 722 3,721 2,245 6,934
92nd November 2020 46 92 396 2,132 1,477 4,143
viii
Graph 1
GRAPHICAL PRESENTATION OF THE BOARD’S OVERALL EXAMINATION

CANDIDATURE FOR THE PRECEDING NINE (9) EXAMINATION SESSIONS
(NOVEMBER 2016 TO NOVEMBER 2020)
8,000
Column1 6,934
7,000 6,614
6,282 6,183 6,235 6,179
6,056
6,000
5,000
No. of Candidates
4,492
4,000 3,591
3,000
2,000
1,000
0
Nov-16 May-17 Nov-17 May-18 Nov-18 May-19 Nov-19 May-20 Nov-20
Examination Sessions
ix
2.2 Candidature Distribution – November 2020
Candidature distribution for the November 2020 examination session shows that majority
of the candidates who sat for these examinations were in the Intermediate level
examinations.
The Chart below shows the candidature distribution
Chart 1
Candidate Distribution - November 2020

48
93
431
1559
2361
ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL
Candidature in Intermediate level is highest as most of the candidates who enroll at this
level are those who have completed a three years’ bachelor degree programme or its
equivalent in accounting and enjoy exemptions to sit for the Intermediate Level
examinations. A tertiary institution which offers bachelor degree courses related to
accountancy courses has to apply to NBAA for its graduands to be given exemption in the
Board’s examinations.
x
3.0 EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE
3.1 Pass rates for examination levels tested in November 2020
Table 2 (i) shows pass rates in November 2020 examination session

EXAMINATION LEVEL NUMBER OF PASSES PERCENTAGE
ATEC I
Passed 18 39.1
Part passed 13 28.3
ATEC II
Passed 14 15.2
Part passed 44 47.8
FOUNDATION
Passed 103 26.0
Part passed 177 44.7
INTERMEDIATE
Passed 279 13.1
FINAL
Passed 249 16.7
TOTAL PASSES
Passed 663 22.0
Part passed 2,676 43.3
NOTE:
Among the candidates who passed Intermediate and Final Levels there were twenty (20)
candidates with foreign qualifications.
Table 2 (ii) shows number of candidates with foreign CPA – equivalent

qualification who sat and cleared the subjects with local contents
Subject Number of entries

A5 Business Law 13
B4 Public Finance and Taxation 11
C3 Business & Corporate Finance 06
C4 Advanced Taxation 12
These candidates are eligible for the award of letters of success and certificates to enable
them register as members.
xi
3.2 Examination Performance by Gender:
Table 3: Examination performance by gender in the five examination levels
ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION LEVEL INTERMEDIATE LEVEL FINAL LEVEL

Total
Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total
No % No % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. %
PASSED
10 22% 8 17% 18 39% 10 11% 4 4% 14 15% 54 14% 49 12% 103 26% 151 7% 128 6% 279 13% 133 9% 116 8% 249 17% 663 16%
PARTLY PASS
6 13% 7 15% 13 28% 24 26% 20 22% 44 48% 95 24% 82 21% 177 45% 469 22% 468 22% 937 44% 331 22% 293 20% 624 42% 1795 43%
FAILED
6 13% 9 20% 15 33% 18 20% 16 17% 34 37% 62 16% 54 14% 116 29% 489 23% 427 20% 916 43% 328 22% 276 19% 604 41% 1685 41%
TOTAL
22 48% 24 52% 46 100% 52 57% 40 43% 92 100% 211 53% 185 47% 396 100% 1109 52% 1023 48% 2132 100% 792 54% 685 46% 1477 100% 4143 100%
xii
CHAPTER I
ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE

92ND EXAMINATION SESSION –
NOVEMBER 2020
OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE

During the 92nd examination session, 6,806 candidates were registered for the Board’s examinations
held in November 2020, out of whom 627 (9.2%) candidates were absent from the examinations,
6,179 candidates sat for the examinations. Of the 6,179 candidates who sat for the examinations,
1,202 (19.5%) candidates passed while 2,675 (43.3%) candidates part passed and 2,302 (37.3%)
candidates failed the examinations. (See Table 4 on page 3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I

The November 2020 examination session was the first session since the review of the
examinations structure and syllabi of ATEC. 48 candidates registered themselves for the
examination. 02 (4.2%) candidates were absent. 46 candidates sat for the examination, out of
whom 18 (39.1%) passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this
level. 13 (28.3%) candidates are part passed while a total of 15 (32.6%) candidates failed the
examination. (See Table 4 on page3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II

This examination was conducted for the first time since the review of the examination structure and
Syllabi of ATEC II. Out of 93 candidates who registered for the examination, 01 (1.1%) candidates
were absent leaving a total of 46 candidates who wrote the examination. 14 (15.2%) candidates
passed and hence are eligible to be issued with CERTIFICATES OF COMPLETION of the
Accounting Technician Certificate Examination. 44 (47.8%) candidates have part passed while a
total of 34 (37.0%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3).
FOUNDATION LEVEL
The Foundation Level examinations consist of six subjects. These subjects were tested for the
first time this session following the review of the examination structure and syllabi.
In this examination, 431 candidates registered themselves for the examination out of whom
35 (8.1%) candidates were absent. Of the 396 candidates who wrote the examination, 103 (26.0%)
candidates passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level.
177(44.7%) candidates have part passed while 166 (29.3%) candidates failed the examination. (See
Table 4 on page 3).
1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
The Intermediate Level examinations consist of six subjects. As with the Foundation Level
examinations, these subjects were tested for the first time this session following the review of the
examination structure.
In this examination, 2,361 candidates registered themselves out of whom 229 (9.7%) candidates were
absent. Of the 2,132 candidates who wrote the examination, 279 (13.1%) candidates passed hence
becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 937 (43.9 %) candidates have part
passed while 916 (43.0%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 4 on page3).
FINAL LEVEL
The Final Level examinations consist of four subjects. These examinations were tested for the
first time following review of the examination structure.
In this examination, 1,559 candidates registered themselves for Final Level examinations, out of
whom 82 (5.3%) candidates were absent. Of the 1,477 candidates who wrote the examination,
663 (22.0%) candidates passed, hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this
Level. 2,676 (43.3%) candidates have part passed while 604 (40.9%) candidates failed the examination.
(See Table 4 on page 3).
CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATE OF

COMPLETION
In this examination session, 14 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the ATEC
programme, comprising 4 (28.6%) female candidates and 10 (71.4%) male candidates.
All 14 candidates who qualified for the Accounting Technician Certificate passed ATEC II
subjects
On the other hand, 243 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the CPA programme,
comprising 114 (46.9) female candidates and 129 (53.1%) male candidates.
2
TABLE 4
GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSISOFEXAMINATIONRESULTS

92ND EXAMINATIONSESSION– NOVEMBER 2020
EXAMINATION ATECI ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL
NO. % NO. % NO % NO. % NO % NO. %
ENTRIES 48 100 93 100 431 100 2,361 100 1,559 100 4,492 100
ABSENTEES 02 4.2 01 1.1 35 8.1 229 9.7 82 5.3 349 7.8
CANDIDATES 46 95.8 92 98.9 396 91.9 2,132 90.3 1,477 94.7 4,143 92.2
WHOSAT
PART 13 28.3 44 47.8 177 44.7 937 43.9 624 42.2 1,795 41.4
PASSED
PASSED 18 39.1 14 15.2 103 26.0 279 13.1 249 16.7 663 22.0
FAILED 15 32.6 34 37.0 166 29.3 916 43.0 604 40.9 1,685 36.5
TOTAL 46 100 92 100 396 100 2,132 100 1,477 100 4,143 100
3
CHAPTER II
PERFORMANCE EVALUATION SUBJECT-WISE
INTRODUCTION
This chapter provides a detailed analysis of performance of candidates in each subject at
each level of the Board’s examinations. General evaluation and assessment of candidates’
performance at each level and specific assessment of candidates in each topic examined is
analysed. The Board hopes that this report will provide necessary guidance to trainers and
students for the better results in the Board’s future examinations.
The November 2020 examination is the first examination session under the revised
examination scheme and syllabi. The scheme has a two tier system of five different levels:
two at the Accounting Technician level and three at the Professional level.
A total of 24 examination papers were attempted this session as detailed hereunder:
(a) Accounting Technician Level I with four papers;
(b) Accounting Technician Level II with four papers;
(c) The Foundation Level with six papers;
(d) The Intermediate Level with six papers;
(e) The Final Level with four papers.
4
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
46 candidates sat for the ATEC I examinations. The performance indicates that 18
(39.1%) candidates passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF
SUCCESS for ATEC. 13 (28.3%) candidates have passed some of the subjects in this level
while 15 (32.6%) candidates failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown in Table 5.1
TABLE 5.1
ATEC I SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: NOVEMBER 2019
AND NOVEMBER 2020
Performance
Paper Subject November November
Code 2019 2020
2018
Entries Pass % Entries Pass %
T.01 Bookkeeping and Accounts

55 32 58.2 23 18 78.3
Elements of Business Maths
T.02
and Statistics 56 21 37.5 28 10 35.7
Introduction to Information and
T.03 Communication Technology 60 36 60.0 28 12 42.9
T.04
Business Communication Skills 59 52 88.1 16 10 62.5
5
GENERAL COMMENTS
T.01 - BOOK-KEEPING AND ACCOUNTS
I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to apply knowledge
of Book keeping and Accounts for recording, posting business transactions in the
book of accounts and preparation of accounting statements in both private and
public sectors.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER
The paper comprised of four questions whereby candidates were required to answer
all questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40% of the total
marks.
III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS

Candidates were required to:
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives.
(b) State whether the given statements were true or false.
(c) Pair each statements from LIST A with the item from LIST B
appropriately.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 23

candidates who answered the question, 17 (73.9%) candidates passed
while the remaining 06 (26.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 16 (69.6%) and 01 (4.3%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidates scored distinction marks.
There were no major weaknesses noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: RECORD AND POST ACCOUNTING

TRANSACTIONS

(a) Open all accounts that are necessary to record the given transactions
and enter the balance brought forward from the previous accounting
period.
(b) Post necessary entries in the relevant accounts to record transactions,
ensuring that they account correctly for any discounts.
(c) Explain the difference between ‘trade’ and ‘cash’ discounts and how
they are treated in the account.
6
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of
23 candidates who answered the question only 03 (13.0%) candidates
passed while the remaining 21 (91.3%) candidates failed. Out of those
who passed 01 (4.3%), 01 (4.3%) and 01 (4.3%) candidates scored pass,
credit and distinction marks respectively.
Majority of candidates demonstrated weakness in posting entries in

relevant accounts to record transactions.
QUESTION 3: CASH BOOKS AND PETTY CASH

(a) Define the term petty cash.
(b) Use information from petty cash transaction given to:
(i) Determine the amount necessary to restore the imprest and
carry down the balance for the following month.
(ii) Open and post the company’s analyzed petty cash book for the
period of a given month, with analysis columns for expenditure
on travelling, stationery, postage, miscellaneous and repairs.

candidates who answered the question,19 (82.6%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 04 (17.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 08 (34.8%), 05 (21.7%) and 06 (26.1%) candidates scored pass,
No major weakness was noted in this question.
QUESTION 4: P R E P A R A T I O N O F F I N A N C I A L S T A T E M E N T S
(a) Mention and briefly explain set of financial statements as per
IAS 1.
(b) Prepare the Statement of Financial Position as at the given period.
candidates who answered the question, 21 (91.3%), candidates passed
while the remaining 02 (8.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed
08 (34.8%), 06 26.1) and 07 (30.4%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Candidates who failed in this question demonstrated weakness in

preparing the statement of financial position.
7
IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS
(a) Assessment of the paper
The panel of examiners observed that the questions were clear and fair. Also
they commented that the questions were set within the prescribed syllabus
and could be answered within the allocated time.
(b) Candidates’ overall performance

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 23
candidates who answered the examination, 18 (78.3%), candidates passed while the
remaining 05 (21.7%) candidates failed. Candidates who passed 18(78.3%)
scored pass m a r k s . N o c a n d i d a t e s c o r e d credit and distinction marks in this
examination paper.
The over-all candidates’ performance in the subject is as shown in table
5.1.1
TABLE 5.1.1
T.01 – CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
No. of Candidates (Frequency) 05 18 00 00 23
Percentage 21.7 73.8 00 00 100
TABLE 5.1.2
T.01 – COMPARISON OF PASS RATES WITH NOVEMBER 2019
EXAMINATIONS
November 2019 November 2020
No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed %

32 out of 55 58.2 18 out of 23 73.8
8
T.02 - ELEMENTS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS
The principal learning outcome of this paper is to build basic skills in the collection,
processing, presentation and interpretation of simple numerical and statistical
knowledge and skills as a tool of learning and understanding related subjects at
higher levels.
all questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40% of the total
marks.
Candidates were tested on the following topics:

(a) Choose the best answer from the among given
alternatives.
(b) Pair each item from LIST A with the statement from LIST B
appropriately.
(c) State whether the given statements were true or false.
15 (88.2%), 01 (5.9%) and 01 (5.9%) candidates scored pass, credit and
distinction marks respectively.
No major weakness was observed.
QUESTION 2: A: RATIOS AND PROPORTIONS
B: SIMPLE AND COMPOUND INTEREST
C: PERMUTATION AND COMBINATION
(a) Explain how do ratio differs from proportion.
(b) Explain, how many four-letter words can be made with the first ten
letters of the alphabet if:
(i) No letter is repeated.
(ii) Repetition is allowed
(c) Draw a pie chart for the data.
(d) Determine the amount of money to be deposited monthly.
9
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 28
candidates who answered the question, only 01 (03.57%), candidates passed
while the remaining 27 (96.43%) candidates failed. A candidate who passed
scored pass marks. No candidate scored credit and distinction marks in this
question.
Majority of the candidates failed to compute numbers of four-letter words
with repetition allowed. They also demonstrated weakness in applying
compound interest formulae
QUESTION 3: A. PERCENTAGES
B. ANNUITY, SINKING FUND, PRESENT VALUES OF ANNUITY AND
AMORTIZATION

(a) Find the new price of a skirt.
(b) E x p l a i n , what principal will amount to TZS. 415,000 at 25% per
annum simple interest for 6 years.
(c) Explain, how much is in the account after 15 years’ period
(d) Find value of flat screen TV after 15 months.

candidates who answered the question only 03 (10.7%) candidates scored
pass marks while the remaining 25 (89.3%) candidates failed.
Most o f candidates failed to apply a correct formula for future value, hence
got wrong answer.
QUESTION 4: A. SAMPLING METHOD OF SALMPLING

B. MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY
C. BASIC PROBABILITY THEORY
(a) ( i ) Rank-order values and determine the median.
(ii) Calculate the average for the raw data
( b ) ( i ) State the probability that on randomly selected day, the number
of cartons of mango juice sold in the evening is between 80 and
99.
( i i ) State the probability that 39 or fewer cartons were sold during a
randomly selected afternoon.
(c) Provide a clear distinction between probability and non-probability
sampling methods by giving two examples for each.
(d) Find the probability that he will get both contracts

candidates who answered the question, only 02 (7.1%) candidates passed
10
passed 01 (3.6%) and 01 (3.6%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Majority of the candidates failed to provide a clear distinction between
probability and non-probability.

The panel of examiners in assessing the questions was of the opinion that the
question paper was of good quality and standard for the intended level of
candidates as it combines both application and knowledge type of questions.
The question paper was fair in terms of marks awarded, time allocated, and
length of questions.
Marks distribution was done evenly to each question.
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of 28
candidates who answered the examination only 10 (35.7%), candidates passed while
the remaining 18 (64.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 09 (32.1%)
and 01 (3.6%) candidates scored pass and credit. No candidate scored distinction
marks.
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 5.1.3

TABLE 5.1.3
T.02 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

No of Candidates
(Frequency) 18 09 01 00 28
Percentage
64.3 32.1 3.6 00 100
TABLE 5.1.4
T.02. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2019 EXAMINATIONS
21 out of 56 37.5 10 out of 28 35.7
11
T.03 – INTRODUCTION TO INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION
TECHNOLOGY
The principal learning outcome of the paper i s to enable candidates apply
knowledge and skills in information technology to solve problems in the business
environment.
all questions. Question one was an objective question which carried 40% of the
total marks.
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the four given
alternatives.
(b) State whether the given statement is true or false.
(c) Match item from LIST A with the statements from LIST
B appropriately.

candidates who answered the question, only 04 (14.3%), candidates passed
while the remaining 24 (85.7%) candidates failed. 04 (14.3) candidates
who scored a pass mark. There were no candidates who scored credit and
distinction marks.
There was no major weakness observed in this question.

QUESTION 2: A. DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
B. COMPUTER SYSTEM
C. COMMONLY USED APPLICATION SOFTWARE

(a) List five important factors to consider when choosing a type
of network cable to use.
(b) Outline five most important features that are commonly
found in the Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) software
system.
(c) List and briefly explain the major software issues that
organizations face today.
(d) Explain the three types of communication system based on
direction of communication and state one example on each
type of communication system.
12
Majority of the candidates demonstrated weakness in:

i. Listing important factors when choosing type of network cable
ii. Outlining important features of enterprise resources planning
software system
iii. Explaining data communication systems
QUESTION 3: A. BUSINESS USE OF INTERNET, INTRANET AND EXTRANET

B. COMMONLY USED APPLICATION SOFTWARE
(a) Write short notes on:
(i) Online Transaction Processing System
(ii) Structured Query Language
(iii) Computer related fraud and Computer related forgery.
(iv) Contrast and compare between computer ‘antivirus’ and
‘computer firewall’
(b) Explain the shortcomings of using digital dashboard report during
presentation.
(c) Differentiate “FTP” from “VOIP”
candidates who answered the question only 08 (28.6%), candidates scored
Candidates demonstrated weakness in explaining the online transaction
processing system, structured query language, computer fraud and forgery.
QUESTION 4: A. HARDWARE COMPONENTS

B. E-BUSINESS AND E-COMMERCE

(a) Explain the design and functions of the Central Processing Unit (CPU).
(b) (i) Explain the six benefits of e-commerce
(ii) Explain the main challenges of e-commerce

candidates who answered the question, 09 (32.1%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 19 (20.0%) candidates failed.
Majority of the candidates failed to explain the design and function of CPU.
Furthermore, candidates revealed failure in explaining the challenges of e-
commerce.
13
The panel of examiners in assessing the paper were of the opinion that the
paper was fair and the questions tested covered a wide range of the syllabus.
The mixture of the questions was adequate and the distribution of marks was
fair in relation to the time allocated.
(b) Candidates overall performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out
of 18 candidates who answered the examination, 12 (42.9%), candidates
passed while the remaining 16 (57.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 11 (39.3%) and 01 (3.6%) candidates scored pass marks. There were
no candidates who scored credit and distinction marks in this examination
paper.
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table
5.1.5
TABLE 5.1.5
Classification of
Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
No. of Candidates
(Frequency) 16 11 01 00 28
Percentage
57.1 39.3 3.6 00 100
TABLE 5.1.6
T.03 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2019 EXAMINATIONS

36 out of 60 60.0 12 out of 28 42.9
14
T.04 – BUSINESS COMMUNICATION SKILLS
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to master basic
English language skills and be able to use them for communicating effectively in
business environment.
This paper consisted of six compulsory questions.
Candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: A. DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF THE ENGLISH LANGUAGE

(a) (i) Suggest the title of the passage
(iii) Summarize the passage in not more than 150 words
(b) Punctuate the given sentences
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of

16 candidates who answered the question, 15 (93.8%) candidates
who passed 09 (56.3%), 05 (31.3%) and 01 (6.3%) candidates scored
pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Candidates demonstrated weakness in summarizing accurately the
given passage.
QUESTION 2: DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE
(a) Write down the letter of the correct word class of the bolded word
(b) Rewrite the sentences as instructed
(c) Identify the error(s) in sentences and then write the correct sentence
(d) Identify the types of tenses used in the following sentences

candidates who answered the question 08 (50.0%), candidates passed
passed 05 (31.3%) and 03 (18.8%) candidates scored pass and credit
marks. No candidate scored distinction marks
Candidates who failed in this question were not able to identify the
types of sentences used.
15
QUESTION 3: A. DEMONSTRATE LISTENING SKILLS

(a) Write match utterance items from LIST A with the words from LIST
B appropriately.
(b) Explain step by step on how he/she will apply the five (5) techniques
that would help you to easily take the best notes.
scored pass marks while the remaining 11 (68.7%) candidates failed.
Some candidates failed to explain step by step the techniques to be
applied in taking notes
QUESTION 4: A : WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRENDENCE
B: DEMOSTRATE SPEAKING SKILLS
(a) Write a memo to instruct colleges to submit their weekly report to

the Chief Auditor for approval as he was close to the end of financial
year.
(b) Explain five (5) factors to consider when preparing the presentation.

candidates who answered the question only 04 (25.0%), candidates scored
Majority of the candidates demonstrated lack of writing and presentation
skills.
QUESTION 5: WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES
(a) Briefly explain any five (5) parts of an official letter with their
functions
(b) Write a letter to the Company Manager showing how interested your
company is in fixing all the AC’s for the whole project
(c) Explain with reasons the kind of correspondence which will be suitable
for you to call them for the meeting? and Why

No major weakness noted in this examination question.
16
QUESTION 6: D E M O N S T R A T I O N O F R E A D I N G S K I L L S
(a) Carefully read the passage and then answer the questions that followed.
Majority of candidates demonstrated poor reading skills as they failed to
read and comprehend hence chose wrong answers from the given
alternatives.

The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, clear and well
spread within the syllabus. They found the questions to be within reach
of well-prepared candidates. The questions were also fair in relation to the
time allocated.

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory.
Out of 16 candidates who answered the examination, 10 (62.5%)
candidates passed while the remaining 06 (37.5%) candidates failed. No
candidate scored credit and distinction marks in this examination paper.

5.1.7
TABLE 5.1.7
No. of Candidates
(Frequency) 06 10 00 00 16
Percentage
37.5 62.5 00 00 100
TABLE 5.1.8

52 out of 59 88.1 10 out of 16 62.5
17
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN EXAMINATION LEVEL II
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
In this level, 92 candidates sat for the examinations, out of whom 14 (15.2%) passed, 44
(47.8%) candidates passed various subjects in this level while 34 (37.0%) failed the
examination. The 14 candidates who passed are eligible for the Board's award of the
STATEMENT OF SUCCESS FOR ATEC II. The general performance subject-wise is
as shown on table 6.1
TABLE 6.1
ATEC II SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: NOVEMBER 2019

AND NOVEMBER 2020
Paper Subject Performance
Code No. November 2019 November 2020
T.05 Principles of Accounting and 110 33 30.0 53 16 30.2
Auditing
T.06 Principles of Cost 150 65 43.0 60 11 18.3
Accounting and Procurement
T.07 Elements of Commercial 91 58 63.7 51 43 84.3
Knowledge, Management
Practices and Taxation
T.08 Accounting for Public Sector 91 67 73.6 40 28 70.0
and Cooperatives
18
T.05 - PRINCIPLES OF ACCOUNTING AND AUDITING
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates on application of basic
concepts and principles of accounting in preparing and interpreting statements and
reports on a practical context as per IAS 1 and apply audit knowledge in appraising
data and assisting audit staff during audit undertakings.
The paper consisted of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
question which carried 40% of the total marks.
In this paper, candidates were tested on the following topics:
(b) Write whether True or False for each of the given statements.
(c) Write the letter from list B against the corresponding roman number
in list A.
candidates who answered the question, 29 (54.7%) candidates passed while
the remaining 24 (45.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 28
(52.8%) and 1 (1.9%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively.
No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Candidates demonstrated lack of knowledge on theoretical accounting
relevant to this subject.
QUESTION 2: PREPARATIONS OF MANUFACTURING ACCOUNTS
From the given information, candidates were required to prepare:
(a) Manufacturing Statement.
(b) Income Statement.
(c) Statement of Financial Position.

candidates who answered the question only 15 (28.3%) candidates passed
passed 14 (26.4%), 00 (0.0%) and 01 (1.9%) candidates scored pass, credit
and distinction marks respectively
Most candidates who answered this question failed to make year-end

adjustments and also failed to make allocation of cost either manufacturing
(production) cost or administration cost.
19
QUESTION 3: NON-PROFIT-MAKING ORGANIZATIONS
(a) Use the given information to prepare:

(i) Income and Expenditure accounts.
(ii) Statement of Financial Position
(b) Calculate profit using the capital concept.
candidates who answered the question only, 07 (13.2%) candidates scored
pass marks while the remaining 46 (86.9%) candidates failed. There was
neither credit nor distinction marks in this question.
Most candidates failed to distinguish between the financial statements of
non-profit making organization and profit-making organization.
QUESTION 4: I N T R O D U C T I O N T O A U D I T I N G : DEFINITION AND
CONCEPTS IN AUDITING
(a) Explain the reasons to undertake non-statutory auditing.
(b) Explain the concepts of control activities.
(c) Describe the components of an engagement letter
(b) (i) State and briefly explain the main types of audit engagements.
(ii) Explain who bears the responsibilities for internal controls in
an organization.
pass marks while the remaining 48 (90.6%) candidates failed. There was
Most of the candidates failed to mention the components of control
activity.
20
(a) Assessment of the Examination
The panel of examiners was of the opinion that the examination was fair,
clearly worded and appropriately spread within the syllabus.
candidates who answered the examination only 16 (30.2%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 37 (69.8%) candidates failed. There were neither credit
nor distinction marks in this examination paper.
6.1.2
TABLE 6.1.2

CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS
0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 37 15 01 00 53
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 69.8 28.3 1.9 0.0 100
TABLE 6.1.3
33 out of 110 30.0 16 out of 53 30.2
21
T.06 - PRINCIPLES OF COST ACCOUNTING AND PROCUREMENT
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates on application of
terminologies, methods, techniques and principles of Cost Accounting and Procurement
for providing management with information for decision making, planning and controlling
business operations.

The paper comprised of four questions. Question one was an objective type which
carried 40% of the total marks.


(b) Write True for the correct statement and False for the incorrect statement.
(c) Write the letter from list B against the corresponding Roman number in
list A.

candidates who answered the question only, 09 (15.0%), candidates passed scored
pass marks, while 51 (75.0%) candidates failed. No score for credit and distinction
marks.
Candidates showed poor understanding of the concepts used.

QUESTION 2: ACCOUNTING FOR MATERIALS, LABOUR AND OVERHEADS AND
COST BOOKKEEPING AND COST STATEMENTS AND SIMPLE
BUDGET
(a) Use the given information to prepare a Statement of Profit or Loss realized on the
customer’s order and advise the entity on whether to accept or reject the order.
(b) Explain four (4) factors that may contribute to conflicting objectives between an
organization and its departments.
(c) Use the given information to apportion the service department costs to production
departments using modified repeated distribution method.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 60 candidates who
answered the question only, 01 (1.7%), candidates passed scored pass marks, while 59 (98.3%)
candidates failed. No score credit and distinction marks.
Most of the candidates were confusing among the various methods of overheads absorption.
22
QUESTION 3: ACCOUNTING FOR MATERIALS, LABOUR AND OVERHEADS AND
COST STATEMENTS AND SIMPLE BUDGET
(a) Explain applicability of why absorption costing.
(b) Briefly explain in favour of any five (5) arguments marginal cost.
(c) Use information given to:
(i) Compute the total budgeted sales quantity (unit) for the forthcoming
year.
(ii) Compute the budgeted sales quantity for each of the months
identified.
(iii) Prepare the production quantity (unit) budgeted for each of the first
three months of the forthcoming year.
(iv) Prepare the direct materials purchase budget (kg and value) for the
first three months of the forthcoming year.
candidates who answered the question, all of them failed.
Not only candidates failed to prepare the required budgets and failure to
workout sales from the information given but also, demonstrated lack of
preparation for these topics.
QUESTION 4: NATURE, MEANING, IMPORTANCE AND SCOPE OF COST

ACCOUNTING, COST CLASSIFICATION AND CODING AND THE
INTRODUCTION TO PROCUREMENT
;-
Candidates were required to: -
(a) (i) Briefly explain the term “Make or Buy Decision” as used in the project
procurement management.
(ii) Differentiate between “fixed-price procurement contracts” and “cost
reimbursable procurement contracts”.
(b) Discuss the importance of negotiation during the procurement management.
(c) Explain the meaning of Procurement Performance Reviews.
(d) Briefly explain, with the aid of an example, each of the following three cost
classifications:
(i) Variable cost
(ii) Fixed cost
(iii) Mixed cost (Semi variable/semi fixed cost)
(e) Use information given to prepare a table that summarizes the variable cost per
unit and total fixed cost for each of the five cost headings
candidates who answered this question only 03 (5.0%) candidates passed while
(3.3%), 00 (0.0%) and 01 (1.7%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
23
Most candidates demonstrated weakness on buy or make analysis and
on differentiating fixed price from cost reimbursable procurement
contracts and the importance of negotiation.
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, clearly worded
and within the prescribed syllabus. The examination questions were well
mixed, containing computational as well theoretical questions and could
have easily been answered by an average prepared candidate within the
allocated time of three hours.
(b) Candidates Overall Performance
candidates who answered the examination only 11 (18.3%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 49 (81.7%) candidates failed. There were neither credit
nor distinction marks in this examination paper.
TABLE 6.1.4
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY) 49 11 00 00 60
PERCENTAGE 81.7 18.3 0.0 0.0 100
TABLE 6.1.5

65 out 150 43.3 11 out 60 18.3
24
T.07 - ELEMENTS OF COMMERCIAL KNOWLEDGE,
MANAGEMENT PRACTICES AND TAXATION
Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge of commerce, commercial law, management and taxation in managing
business functions.
The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
type which carried 40% of the total marks.
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS:

Candidates were required
to:
(a) Choose the most correct answer from the four given
alternatives.
(b) P air each item from List A with an item from List B
appropriately.
(c) Write whether is True or False for each of the given statements.
candidates who answered the question 39 (76.5%) candidates passed
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
No specific weakness was observed in this question.
QUESTION 2: LAW OF AGENCY AND LAW OF BUSINESS ASSOCIATION

OF AGENCY
(a) (i) Explain five (5) duties of an agent.
(ii) Describe how can the agreement between the parties in the
agency relationship be terminated.
(b) Outline the characteristics of liability of partners in a standard
partnership.
(c) Explain the essentials of valid endorsement.

25
Not only candidates failed to distinguish duties of agency and principal,
but also failed to identify elements of the agreement which binds the
contract between principal and agent.
QUESTION 3: L A W OF CONTRACT, OFFICE

MANAGEMENT, MECHANIZATION AND
TAXATION THEORY
(a) Explain five (5) rules of accepting an offer.
(b) Show how coordination function works in the management of an
organization.
(c) Name and explain five (5) types of cannons of taxation.
credit and distinction marks respectively
Candidates demonstrated poor expressions as well as writing and
spellings mistakes were observed.
QUESTION 4: WAREHOUSING, LAW OF CONTRACT AND TAX

ADMINISTRATION
(a) Mention and explain six (6) advantages of warehousing.
(b) Explain five (5) main features of a free consent
(c) Name and explain four (4) main types of electronic filing systems.
(d) Mention and explain four (4) powers of Tanzania Revenue
Authority (TRA).
No major weakness was noted in this question, except that candidates
who failed in this question did not comprehend to the requirements.
26
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair in relation to the
level of candidate examined, with mixture of easy and difficult questions
and could be answered within the allocated time of three hours by an
average prepared candidate.
(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance
candidates who answered the examination, 43 (84.3%) candidates passed while
the remaining 08 (15.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 35 (68.6%),
05 (9.8%) and 03 (5.9%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown in table

6.1.6
T TABLE 6.1.6
A
0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 15.7 68.6 9.8 5.9 100
TABLE 6.1.7
T.07 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2019
EXAMINATIONS
58 out 0f 91 63.7 43 out of 51 84.3
27
T.08 ACCOUNTING FOR PUBLIC SECTOR AND COOPERATIVES I:
PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply public sector
and cooperative accounting knowledge and skills to manage government and cooperative
funds economically, efficiently and effectively in accordance with the constitution, laws,
rules and regulations in one or more specialized fields.

The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective type
which carried 40% of the total marks.
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives and write
its appropriate letter.
(b) Pair each item from list A with the items from list B appropriately.
(c) State whether the statement is true or false and write ‘True’ for the
correct statement and ‘False’ for the incorrect statement.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 40 candidates
who answered the question, 36 (90.0%) candidates passed while the remaining
04 (10.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 34 (85.0%) and 02 (5.0%)
candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored
distinction marks in this question.

QUESTION 2: GOVERNMENT GENERAL CASH MANAGEMENT AND CONTROL
(a) Mention and explain three (3) motives for the government to hold cash.
(b) Briefly explain four (4) ways which can lead to the loss of government’s
money.
(c) Use the information given to prepare Cash Budget for the period identified.
13 (32.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 06 (15.0%), 05 (12.5%)
and 16 (40.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
28
QUESTION 3: THE LEGAL FRAMEWORK GOVERNING THE FINANCIAL
ACCOUNTING REPORTING IN THE PUBLIC SECTOR AND ANNUAL
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND ACCOUNTS UNDER IPSAS AND THE
PUBLIC FINANCE ACT
(a) List any five (5) roles of the Treasurer in Local Government Authorities.
(b) Use the information given to prepare Statement of Financial Performance
and Statement of Financial Position as per IPSAS 1 for the year ended.
and 02 (5.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
QUESTION 4: A C C O U N T I N G F O R C O O P E R A T I V E S A N D
INTRODUCTION TO PUBLIC SERVICE REGULATIONS
(a) (i) Explain the meaning of farming cooperative society.
(ii) Mention and explain three (3) types of farming cooperatives.
(b) Explain in detail the terms economy, efficiency, and effectiveness as used
for achieving value for money.
(c) Mention six (6) code of ethics for public servants in Tanzania.
candidates who answered the question 15 (37.5%) candidates passed while the
remaining 25 (62.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 09 (22.5%), 04
(10.0%) and 02 (5.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively.
Majority of Candidates failed to explain in detail the terms economy,
efficiency, and effectiveness as used for achieving value for money.
29
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced
containing a mixture of computational as well as theoretical questions. It was
further found to be within the syllabus and that it could have been done within the
time allocated of three hours.
(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance
candidates who answered the examination, 28 (70.0%) candidates passed while the
remaining 12 (30.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 22 (55.0%) and
06 (15.0%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
scored distinction marks in this examination paper.

TABLE 6.1.8
0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY) 12 22 06 00 40
PERCENTAGE 30.0 55.0 15.0 0.0 100
TABLE 6.1.9
No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates %

passed
67 out of 91 73.6 28 out of 40 70.0
30
PROFESSIONAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS FOUNDATION LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
This is the first level of the Board’s three tier professional examination scheme which leads
to the Certified Public Accountant [CPA (T)] award.
The Foundation level examinations comprise of six subjects as indicated hereunder:
A1 Quantitative Techniques
A2 Business and Management
A3 Accounting
A4 Cost Accounting
A5 Business Law
A6 Business Economics
The examinations draw candidates from two main sources, namely: -
(a) Those candidates w h o have successfully completed the Board’s Accounting
Technician Level examinations.
(b) Those candidates who have acquired non-accounting first degree (or its equivalent)
qualifications awarded by institutions of higher learning in the country recognized by
the Board.
GENERAL OBSERVATIONS
In this examination session, 396 candidates sat for the examination out of whom 103
(26.0%) passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS for
the Foundation Level. 177 (44.7%) have passed some of the subjects while 116 (29.3%)
candidates failed the examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 7.1
TABLE 7.1
FOUNDATION LEVEL SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS: NOVEMBER 2019 AND

NOVEMBER 2020
Paper Performance
Code Subject November November
No. 2019 2020
A1 Quantitative Techniques 265 131 49.4 136 59 43.4
A2 Business and Management 218 192 88.1 101 100 99.0
A3 Accounting 361 267 74.0 229 121 52.8
A4 Business Information 482 347 72.0 184 64 34.8
A5 Business Law 296 181 61.1 146 81 55.5
A6 Business Economics 90 51 56.7 91 82 90.1
31
A1 – QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge and skills of mathematical and quantitative techniques, concepts and tools
in the day to day accounting, business functions and decision making.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER
The paper consisted of three compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:
(a) Use the given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer.
(b) Match the given items in list A with those in list B to produce complete
and meaningful sentences.
(c) State whether the statement is true or false.
candidates who answered the question, 100 (73.5%), candidates passed while
(54.4%), 24 (17.6%) and 02 (1.5%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Distinction marks respectively.
Some candidates failed to choose the most correct answers, and to state whether
the given statements are true or false.
QUESTION 2: THEORY OF THE FIRM, PROJECT SCHEDULING,

HYPOTHESIS TESTING, TIME SERIES AND FORECASTING
From the give information, candidates were required to: -
(a) Draw a network diagram.
(b) Determine the project duration for the given project.
(c) Find the expected value and variance of a random variable.
(d) Calculate the three-month moving averages for the series data.
candidates who answered the question only 84 (61.8%), candidates passed
while the remaining 52 (38.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 34
(25%), 36 (26.6%) and 14 (10.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
Most of the candidates failed to find the marginal cost and total manufacturing
cost by applying integral calculus regression and to calculate the three-months
moving averages for the series data
32
QUESTION 3: LINEAR PROGRAMMING AND SHADOW VALUE,
TRANPORTATION AND ASSIGNMENT MODELS
(a) Formulate the problem as a linear programming model and determine
the optimal mix of the two products.
(b) Formulate and solve the problem using Hungarian method.
candidates who answered the question only, 32 (23.5%) candidates passed
Most candidates failed to formulate problem as a linear programming model.
QUESTION 4: QUEUING MODELS AND PROBABILITY

The candidates were required to use the given information to: -
(a) Calculate the probability that they will not be able to deal
with all the people requiring treatment in an hour.
(b) Calculate the is the probability that all the passengers
showing can be accommodated if first class seats can be
used for economy class passengers?
(c) Calculate the average time customers spend in the system,
average number of customers in the system and
probability that the system is idle.
candidates who answered the question only 01 (0.7%), candidate scored
pass mark while the remaining 135 (99.3%) candidates failed.
Most of candidates were not able to use poison distribution to calculate
probabilities, using binomial distribution and normal distribution to
calculate binomial probabilities.
33
(a) Assessment of the Paper

The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced with
a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions. Time allocated
to the questions was adequate to enable an average candidate to complete
the examination.
(b) Candidates’ performance

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of
136 candidates who answered the examination, 59 (43.4%) candidates
and distinction marks respectively.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on Table

7.1.1
TABLE 7.1.1
A1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 56.6 34.6 8.1 0.7 100
TABLE 7.1.2
A1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2019 EXAMINATIONS
131 49.4 59 43.4
34
A2 – BUSINESS AND MANAGEMENT
Principal learning outcome of this subject is to test candidates’ ability to apply concepts
and principles of business and management in business environment.
The paper consisted of three questions which were compulsory. Question one was
An objective question which comprised of 40% of the total marks.
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:
(b) Pair each item from list A with the item from list B appropriately.
(c) State whether the given statement is true or false.
34 (33.7%), 53(52.5%) and 12 (11.9%) candidates scored pass, credit and
No common weakness was noted in this
question.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ORGANIZATION AND ENVIRONMENT;
OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
Candidates were required to use the given information to: -
(a) Explain any four (4) benefits that an organization can gain by
providing quality products and services.
(b) Identify any four (4) main areas in which B2B transactions are
prevalent.
(c) Describe the relationship among strategic, business, and
operational plans of an organization
No major common weakness was noted in this question.
35
QUESTION 3: BUSINESS ORGANIZATION AND ENVIRONMENT
(a) Explain the reasons for the failure of the organizations to achieve
their desired objectives.
(b) Give the legal differences between “sole trader” and a “limited
liability company.
(c) Write short notes on: Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness
candidates who answered the question, 97 (96%) candidates passed while
the remaining 04 (4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 30
(29.7%), 50 (49.5%) and 17 (16.8 %) candidates scored pass, credit and
Candidates who failed did not understand the requirements of the
question.
QUESTION 4: HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT AND MARKETING

(a) Examine any four factors that influence the choice of a certain
leadership style.
(b) Discuss any six factors that make employees to have
strong power over their employers in an industrial
dispute.
(c) Distinguish between a “product” and a brand”.
(d) To link necessary stages to an effective quality control in
relation to the life cycle of the product.

No major weakness was noted
36

The panel of examiners found the paper to be well spread within the syllabus
which resulted to the candidates’ good performance.

passed while the remaining 01(1.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who
Candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.1.3
TABLE 7.1.3

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 01 30.7 64.4 6.9 100
TABLE 7.1.4
A2 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2018
EXAMINATIONS

192 88.1 100 99.0
37
A3 – ACCOUNTING
knowledge and skills in recording financial transactions and preparing financial
statements for an entity including not for profit entities in accordance with the
IFRSs and IPSASs.
The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
The A3-Accounting subject this session tested candidates on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE
(b) Pair each item from list A with the item from list B appropriately.
(c) State whether the statement is true or false.
No major weakness noted but those who failed were not able to choose
the most correct answer among the given alternatives.
QUESTION 2: PREPARATION OF YEAR-END ADJUSTMENTS;

INTRODUCTION OF BASIC FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
From the given information candidates were required to: -
(a) Write up the rent receivable account and the interest payable account
for the year
(b) Prepare income statement
229 candidates who answered the question only 75 (32.8%), candidates
who passed 57 (25%), 16 (6.9%) and 02 (0.9%) candidates scored pass,
Some candidates failed to prepare the income statement.
38
QUESTION 3: ACCOUNTING TREATMENT FOR INVENTORIES;
CORRECTING ACCOUNTING ERRORS
(a) Calculate the value of inventory
(b) Correct the accounting errors and ascertain the amount of gross profit
and net profit
candidates who answered the question only 28(12.2%), candidates passed
passed 23 (10%) and 05(2.2%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidate scored Distinction marks in this question.
Candidates failed to value inventory as per IAS2 and to differentiate

between cost and net realizable value.
QUESTION 4: INTRODUCTION TO BASIC FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

(a) Prepare the Statement of Comprehensive Income, the
appropriation, the current account and statement of financial
position
(b) Identify and explain any five (5) errors which do not affect the
agreement of the trial balance

229 candidates who answered the question, 68 (29.7%), candidates
who passed 65 (28.4%) and 3 (1.3%) candidates scored pass and credit
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction mark
Most of candidates failed on preparation of financial statements and
correction of error

The panel of examiners found the paper to be fair with adequate coverage
of the syllabus. The panel also observed that candidates could manage to
complete the examination within the allocated time.
(b) Candidates’ Performance

of 229 candidates who answered the examination, 121 (52.8%) candidates
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction
39
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in Table
7.1.5
TABLE 7.1.5

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 47.2 48.7 3.9 0.0 100
TABLE 7.1.6
EXAMINATIONS
267 74.0 121 52.8
40
A4 – COST ACCOUNTING

knowledge of cost analysis and awareness of information technology to produce
accurate and useful information to support management in decision-making and its
application in performance management.

The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective

In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics:
(a) Candidates were required to choose the most correct answer among the given
alternatives.
(b) Candidates were required to state whether the given statements were true or
false.
(c) Candidates were required to pair each item from list A with the item from list
B appropriately.
who answered the question,103 (55.9%), candidates passed while the remaining 81
(44.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 93 (50.5%) and 10 (5.4)
candidates scored pass, and credit marks. No distinction marks.
No major weakness noted in this question.
QUESTION 2: COSTING
(a) Prepare a trading statement to identify the manufacturing profit using the
existing absorption costing method.
(b) Determine the manufacturing profit that would be reported if marginal costing
was used.
(c) Explain, with supporting calculations
(i) the reasons for the change in manufacturing profit where absorption costing
is used in each year.
(ii) why the manufacturing profit in (a) and (b) differs.

candidates who answered the question only 38 (20.7%) candidates passed while
respectively.
41
A good number of candidates demonstrated very poor analytical skills and could
not calculate the total figures under the two costing methods. In addition to that,
candidates failed to prepare trading statements under both marginal and absorption
method.
QUESTION 3: INTRODUCTION TO DECISION MAKING

Candidates were required to; use the given information to: -
(a) Outline any four assumptions of the Cost-Volume-Profit analysis

(b) Use the given information to; -
(i) Calculate the margin of safety in units and sales
(ii) The sales level in units and shillings to achieve a target profit of TZS.
2,250,000.
(iii) The selling price to be charged to earn a profit of TZS. 2,250,000 on sales
of 10,000 units.
(iv) The additional sales volume required to meet TZS. 570,000 additional
fixed promotion expenses to maintain the original profit
184 candidates who answered the question, 65 (35.3%) candidates passed while
23 (12.5%) and 09 (4.9) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively.
Majority candidates demonstrated poor computational skills and failed to outline

assumptions of the cost-volume profit analysis.
QUESTION 4: COSTING FOR PRODUCTS, SERVICES AND PROJECTS
Candidates were required to compute:
(a) Equivalent units for materials during a given month
(b) Equivalent units for conversion during a given month
(c) The cost of finished units and transferred out
(d) The cost of the work in process
(e) Total production cost for the given

candidates who answered the question, only 26 (14.1%), candidates passed while
respectively.
Most candidates were not able to compute equivalent units and conversion
costs.
42
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced
containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was examiners’
view that the paper could have been well attempted within the allocated time of
three hours by an average candidate.
(b) Overall Candidates performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out of
184 candidates who answered the examination, 64 (34.8%), candidates passed
(28.8%), 08(4.3) and 03 (1.6%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on table 7.1.7

TABLE 7.1.7

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 65.2 28.8 4.3 1.6 100
TABLE 7.1.8
EXAMINATIONS
347 out of 482 72.0 64 out of 184 34.8
43
A5 – BUSINESS LAW

theories, practices and laws governing business in providing accounting services
and protecting business against unnecessary litigations.

The paper comprised seven questions. Candidates were required to answer five
questions.

QUESTION 1: THE LEGAL SYSTEM OF TANZANIA

Candidates were required to explain on the following:
(a) Doctrine of judicial precedent statutory law and customary law.
(b) Relationship between “law” and “state” in Marxist theory.
(c) (i) Delegated legislation
(ii) Discuss how delegated legislation is controlled
who answered the question, 94 (85.5%), candidates passed while the remaining 16
(14.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 32 (29.1%), 41 (37.3%) and 21
(19.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Those who failed did not understand the requirements of the question.
QUESTION 2: CIVIL LAW FOR BUSINESS AND PROFESSIONAL ACCOUNTANTS

Candidates were required to read the cases and use the information provided to:
(a) Discuss the reason(s) for his failure
(b) Describe the reason(s) for her failure
(c) Explain the reason(s) for the court’s finding that the plaintiff’s claim was
unsuccessful.
(d) Describe one situation in which the general rule will not apply

candidates who answered the question, only11 (11.3%) candidates passed while the
remaining 8 6 (88.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 10 (10.3%) and
01 (1.0%) candidates scored pass and credit marks. Candidates did not score
distinction marks.
Most of the candidates did not comprehend the cases which were provided.
44
QUESTION 3: EMPLOYMENT LAW
(a) State the legal position by using a given scenario.
(b) Describe the notions of “causation” and “remoteness of damage” as far as the
breach of a duty of care and assessment of damages is concerned in a tortuous
liability.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 95 candidates who

answered the question 55 (57.9%) candidates passed while the remaining 4 0
(42.1%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 30 (31.6%), 22 (23.2%) and 03
(3.2) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Most candidates demonstrated lack of acquaintance with the relevant legal
instruments on employment law. This led to failure to support their arguments
with relevant legal provisions from relevant legal instruments.
QUESTION 4: EMPLOYMENT LAW

Candidates were required to use the given information to:
(a) Advise accordingly
(b) Discuss the ground under which dismissal can be said to be fair
(c) State the ground under which dismissal is capable of being unfair
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 126 candidates
who answered the question, only 45(35.7%) candidates passed while the remaining 81
(64.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 23 (18.3%),18 (14.3%) and 04
Candidates who answered this question failed to understand the needy of the
question i.e. mixed up ground for dismissal and procedures for fair and unfair
dismissal from employment.
45
QUESTION 5: COMPANY LAW
Candidates were required to read a given scenario and advise accordingly.
answered the question only 03 (5.0%), candidates scored pass marks while the remaining
57 (95%) candidates failed.
Candidates demonstrated poor knowledge on the procedures for liquidation of a
corporate body in line with the respective legal provisions of Companies Act.
QUESTION 6: COMPANY LAW AND INSOLVENCY

(a) Explain the differences between a “share” and a “debenture”.
(b) Explain, which creditors have priority over a floating charge holder in the
liquidation of a company
(c) Explain the purpose of the “Memorandum of Association” and “Articles of
Association”.
(d) Explain remedies are available against a promoter for breach of duty
(e) Explain the authority of a Company Secretary to bind the company
(f) Explain, when can a public limited company commence trading
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 126 candidates who
answered the question, 80 (63.4%) candidates passed while the remaining 38 (30.2%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 45(35.7%), 34(27.0%) and 05(7.1%)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
No weakness major weakness was noted in this question.
QUESTION 7: LAW OF CONTRACT

(c) Advise on; the precise nature of the fiduciary duties that directors owe to their
companies
(d) State whether any action can be taken against the given company in relation to their:
(i) Purchase of the machinery from the given company
(ii) Development of the new product by the given company
who answered the question, 82 (70.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 35
(29.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 25 (21.4), 24 (20.5%) and
33 (28.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
46
IV: GENERAL OBSERVATION
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners view that the paper could have been well attempted within the
allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out
of 146 candidates who answered the examination 81 (55.5%), candidates
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in table 7.1.9
TABLE 7.1.9

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 44.5 47.3 8.2 0.0 100
TABLE 7.1.10
A5. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2019
EXAMINATIONS
181 out of 296 61.1 81 out of 146 55.5
47
A6 – BUSINESS ECONOMICS
economics theories and methodologies as alternatives in managerial decisions.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER:

The paper comprised four questions. Question one was an objective question
which carried 40% of the total marks. Candidates were required to answer all
questions.


Candidates were required to; -
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the four given alternatives.
(b) Pair each item from list A with the statement from list B appropriately.
(c) State whether the statements given were true or false.
candidates who answered the question, 83 (91%), candidates passed while
the remaining 08 (9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 62
(75%) and 21 (25%) candidates scored pass and credit marks and no
distinction marks.
QUESTION 2: NATURE AND SCOPE OF ECONOMICS
(a) Give major differences between “Macro-economic” and
“Microeconomic:
(b) (i) Briefly describe four major macroeconomic objectives of
Tanzanian government features of mixed economic system.
(iii)Explain two main policy measures which can be used to
achieve these objectives
(e) (i) Explain, how many watches should you produce to maximize
profit.
(ii) Explain, what will the profit level be
(iii)Explain, at what minimum price will the firm produce a positive
output
candidates who answered the question 70 (77.0%) candidates passed while
48
Most of the candidates failed to answer part of the question which required
them to determine price required to produce positive output.
QUESTION 3: THEORY OF PRODUCTION, COST AND REVENUE

(a) Calculate the Marginal and average product of labour for this
production function.
(b) Explain, if this production function exhibit diminishing return to labour
(c) Explain intuitively what might cause the marginal product of labour to
become negative.
(12.1%), 22 (24.2%) and 37 (40.7) candidates scored pass, credit and
Most of the candidates confuse on the calculations of average cost and
marginal cost.

(a) State and provide examples on the canons of public expenditure
(b) With examples, identify effects or consequences of unemployment
(c) With examples explain the four phrases of a business cycle
(d) Identify the role of private sector on economic development in
Tanzania.
(e) Use the given information to determine:
(i) How will two countries trade and which goods should they
exchange.
distinction marks respectively
Most of candidates demonstrated weakness in explaining the canon of
public expenditure.
49
IV: GENERAL OBSERVATION
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners view that the paper could have been well attempted within the
allocated time of three hours by an average candidate.
candidates who answered the examination, 82 (90.1%), candidates passed while
28 (30.8) and 03 (3.3%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in table 7.1.9

TABLE 7.1.9

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 9.9 56.0 30.8 3.3 100
TABLE 7.1.10
COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2019
EXAMINATIONS
51 56.7 82 90.1
50
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Intermediate level examinations are the second level of the Board’s professional
examinations under the current examination scheme and syllabus. This examination level
consists of six subjects as shown hereunder: -
B1 Financial Management
B2 Financial Reporting
B3 Auditing Principles and Practices
B4 Public Finance and Taxation
B5 Performance Management
B6 Management, Governance and Ethics
Under this examination scheme and syllabus, a candidate is required to complete

Foundation Level before moving to Intermediate Level. However, candidates who were
caught in the transition from the phased-out syllabus to the current syllabus were allowed
to cross the levels.
The examination draws candidates from the following sources:
(a) Candidates who have been referred previously in the respective corresponding subjects.
(b) Candidates who have majored in accounting in their bachelor degree programmes from
recognized institutions.
51
GENERALPERFORMANCE
In this session 2,132 candidates sat for the Intermediate Level Examinations out of whom 279 (13.1%)
have passed this level and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 937 (43.9
%) have passed some of the subjects while 916 (43.0%) candidates have failed the examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 8.1 below:
TABLE8.1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS:

NOVEMBER 2019 AND NOVEMBER 2020
Paper Performance
Code No. Subject November 2019 November 2020
B1 Financial Management 1,644 649 39.5 798 210 26.3
B2 Financial Reporting 1,145 456 39.8 629 324 51.5
B3 Auditing Principles and 1,225 342 27.9 793 243 30.6
Practices
B4 Public Finance and 1,295 609 47.0 697 505 72.4
Taxation
B5 Performance Management 1,986 448 22.6 953 233 24.4
B6 Management, Governance 1,069 1,003 93.9 476 402 84.5
& Ethics
52
B1 FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT

Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to
apply financial management knowledge and skills in valuing various assets as well
as businesses; in evaluating investment opportunities; in forecasting and planning
financial needs of a firm; in deciding on the level of debt financing to use relative
to equity capital; in determining the level of working capital to carry in a business
and; in deciding on the share of the earnings after tax between retained earnings and
shareholders.

The paper had two sections A and B, with six questions carrying 20 marks each.
Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four
out of five questions in Section B.
The following topics were tested in this paper: -
QUESTION 1: INVESTMENT DECISIONS

(a) Explain how sensitivity and scenario analysis contributes to decision
making in capital budgeting.
(b) Explain the concept of capital rationing
(c) Use the given information to:

(i) Comment on the given CEO’s argument on manufacturing and
selling of the new ATM, with the aid of net present value
computations.
(ii) Identify and explain any costs not included in the analysis.
(iii) Describe any two assumptions which underlie the calculations
in (i) above.

Large number of candidates demonstrated very poor mathematical skills

particularly on the capital budgeting analytical framework.
53
QUESTION 2: FINANCING DECISIONS: COST OF CAPITAL AND CAPITAL
STRUCTURE
(a) Explain the meaning of “right issue”. Briefly discuss the pros and
cons of making a right issue.
(b) Use the given information to:

(i) Calculate the ratio of new to old shares in this right issue.
(ii) Calculate the theoretical ex-right price per share and value of
the right on each old share.
(iii) Show the gain which could be expected by a holder of the

given shares, if he took up all his rights.
(iv) Calculate earnings per share if the right issue was made half
way through the financial year and the market price of the
ordinary share on the last day of quotation on a cum right basis
was the given amount per share.

candidates who answered the question, 36 (9.3%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 351 (90.7%) candidates failed. There were
Most of the candidates failed to calculate the theoretical ex-right price

per share.
QUESTION 3: FINANCING DECISIONS: LONG-TERM ALTERNATIVES
Candidates were required to-
(a) Use the given information to:

(i) Advise a given corporation whether to lease the given
server or buy it.
(ii) Explain if the decision will change once the salvage value
is reckoned to be a given amount at the end of three years.
(b) Use the given information to evaluate whether the proposed changes
in credit policy will increase the profitability of a given company.
(c) Briefly explain the meaning and usefulness of the security market
line.

while the remaining 603 (96.3) candidates failed. Out of those who passed
22 (3.5%) and 01 (0.2%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
Candidates lack knowledge on the computation of the net present values

and evaluation of credit policy for financing decision making.
54
QUESTION 4: FINANCIAL PLANNING AND FORECASTING
(a) Briefly explain the meaning of and basis for financial forecasting.
(b) Use the given information to: -
(i) Use formula to compute external financing required for the
company during the coming given year.
(ii) Explain the need for external financing be, if the net profit
margin went up to a given percent and the dividend payout ratio
was increased to certain percent.
(c) Assess the role of financial intermediaries in providing finance and
facilitating investment in business organizations.

candidates who answered the question only 277 (37.9%), candidates
who passed 114 (15.6%), 110 (15.0%) and 53 (7.3%) candidates scored
pass credit and distinction marks respectively.
Most candidates failed to use formula in computing external financing.

They also failed to assess the role of financial intermediaries in providing
finance.
QUESTION 5: DIVIDEND POLICY

(a) Use the given information to: -
(i) Evaluate the Modigliani and Miller (MM) proposition regarding
the irrelevance of dividend policy.
(ii) Discuss script dividend as an alternative to cash dividends.
(iii) Provide two advantages and two disadvantages of making script
dividend.
(i) Estimate the price of a company share now and two years from
now and explain the basis for your estimation.
(ii) Explain the effect of retaining one third of earnings on share
price.
candidates who answered the question only 119 (16.6%) candidates
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
question.
Majority of the candidates failed to evaluate MM dividend irrelevance

proposition. They also failed to compute the price of shares.
55
QUESTION 6: FINANCING DECISIONS: COST OF CAPITAL AND
GEARING

(a) Explain the meaning of preference stock and discuss any three of its
features.
(i) Calculate an appropriate discount rate for appraising the
project.
(ii) Advise the given company whether or not to accept the
proposal of diversification.
(c) Use the given information to calculate:
(i) The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC).
(ii) The amount of floatation cost .
(iii) The Net Present Value (NPV) of the investment.

candidates who answered the question only 214 (29.1%), candidates
Most candidates failed to calculate discount rate, weighted average cost

of capital and net present value .
56
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the
questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers
also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eighty percent of the
topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and
computational questions.

798 candidates who answered the examination, 210 (26.3%), candidates passed
(25.7%) and 05 (0.6%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.
The candidates ’over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table 8.1.1
TABLE8.1.1
B1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 73.7 25.7 0.6 0.0 100
TABLE8.1.2
B1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2019
EXAMINATIONS

passed
649 out of 1,644 39.5 210 out of 798 26.3
57
B2 FINANCIAL REPORTING

apply knowledge and skills in preparation of financial statements for a separate
entity and a group in accordance with the IFRSs and IPSASs and analyze financial
statements to examine the sustainability of the business entity.


QUESTION 1: PREPARING FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use the given information to prepare:
(i) The Statement of Profit or Loss and Other Comprehensive Income for
a given company for the given year ended.
(ii) The Statement of Financial Position for a given company as at a given
year.

Most of the candidates failed to work on cost of sales and depreciation.
QUESTION 2: PREPARING CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

Candidates were required to use the given information to prepare:
(i) The Consolidated Statement of Profit and Loss for the given year.
(ii) The Consolidated Statement of Financial Position as at a given
year
passed 01 (0.2%) and 04 (0.8%) candidates scored pass and distinction
marks respectively. No candidate scored credit marks in this question.
Candidates failed to compute the shareholding percentage of the parent

entity in subsidiary entity. They proceeded to consolidate financial
statements while the shareholding percentage is less than 50%.
58
QUESTION 3: ELEMENTS OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

(i) Explain how the given items will be reported in the given year
Financial Statements, including journal entries and relevant
extracts.
(ii) State specific disclosures (if any) required in relation to each
given item.
(b) Use the given information to show, in the nearest TZS, how the change
in accounting policy must be reflected in the statement of changes in
equity for the year ended.

candidates who answered the question, only 02 (0.6%) candidates scored
pass marks while the remaining 345 (99.4%) candidates failed. There
were neither credit nor distinction marks in this question.
Candidates failed to understand the requirements of the question.
QUESTION 4: PREPARING FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use given information to prepare a Statement

of Cash Flows for a company in accordance with IAS 7: Statement of Cash
Flows.

59
QUESTION 5: ELEMENTS OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to-
(i) State any three types of inventories which are within the scope of
IAS 2.
(ii) State two types of inventories which are excluded from the scope
of IAS.
(iii) State four disclosure requirements as per IAS 2.
(i) Differentiate between “permanent differences” and “temporary
differences”.
(ii) With reference to IAS 12, explain how temporary differences are
accounted for.
(c) Use the given information to compute:
(i) The amount of liability to be included in the Statement of
Financial Position as at a given year.
(ii) Finance charge to be included in the Statement of Profit or Loss
and Other Comprehensive Income.
(d) Use the given information to show how the impairment loss is allocated.

candidates who answered the question, 112 (22.0%), candidates passed while the
remaining 398 (78.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 92 (18.0%),
respectively.
QUESTION 6: FINANCIAL STATEMENTS ANALYSIS AND EVALUATION

(a) Use the given ratios to: -
(i) Comment on the performance of the company.
(ii) Determine whether the answer change if informed that a major fire
broke out at the premises a company in a given year.
(iii) Show the limitations of financial ratios in analysing corporate
performance.
(b) Use the given information to calculate the basic and diluted earnings per share
for a company.

candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Most of the candidates failed to interpret the ratios given in the question. They
failed to compute basic and diluted earnings per share.
60
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the questions
examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the
paper to be well balanced, covering over eighty percent of the topics in the syllabus.
The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions.

candidates who answered the examination, 324 (51.5%), candidates passed while the
(2.1%) and 01 (0.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 8.1.3.
TABLE8.1.3
CLASSIFICATION OF 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL

MARKS
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 48.5 49.3 2.1 0.2 100
TABLE8.1.4
EXAMINATIONS
456 out of 1145 39.8 324 out of 629 51.5
61
B3 AUDITING PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE
apply auditing principles and standards in executing audit assignments (carrying out
Audit procedures) and coming up with appropriate reports, as well as implementing
entity’s internal control policies in carrying out internal audits.

Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out
of five questions in Section B.
QUESTION 1: A. THE NATURE AND USE OF INTERNAL CONTROLS

B. THE NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND THE SELECTION
OF SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE
(a) Use the given case to evaluate the circumstances and advise which
controls, between “manual controls” and “automated controls”, are
suitable for a given company.
(b) Use information given to explain the reliability of the audit evidence
provided by the directors in the given written representation letter.
Determine whether you should rely wholly on the representation of
the directors or whether you should obtain other evidence.
(c) Explain the differences between “rules based” and “principle-based”
approaches to professional ethics.
(d) Explain any five elements of an “assurance engagement”

Most of the candidates wrote advantages and disadvantages of manual

controls versus automated controls, they did not focus to the given
scenario. Most of them wrote methods of collecting audit evidence instead
of the reliability of the written representation. They also failed to show the
differences between rules based and principle-based approaches to
professional ethics.
62
QUESTION 2: OBJECTIVES, PROCESS AND NEED FOR EXTERNAL AUDIT
AND ASSURANCE SERVICES

(i) Explain to the fresh trainees, any four qualities/features of good working
papers.
(ii) Explain rationale for maintaining both a “permanent file” and a “current
file” for recurring audits.
(b) Use the given case to describe the nature of the risks arising from fraud and
errors to which a given hotel is subjected to.

marks respectively.
Most of the candidates failed to explain qualities/features of good working papers.

They were unable to relate aspects in the case of part (b) and the risks associated
with the case.
QUESTION 3: THE NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND THE SELECTION OF

SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE

(a) Discuss why the inventories need special attention in an audit of financial
statements.
(b) Elaborate the auditors’ responsibilities and procedures in case of events
reported after the approval of financial statements.
(c) Briefly explain matters that the auditor should consider in obtaining an
understanding of the information system, relevant to financial reporting as per
the requirements of ISA 315.
who answered the question only 13 (2.5%), candidates passed while the remaining
500 (97.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 11 (2.1%) and 02 (0.4%)
candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored
Candidates failed to understand requirements of the question.
63
QUESTION 4: A. INTERNAL AUDIT OF ENTITIES
B. THE NATURE AND USE OF INTERNAL CONTROLS
Candidates were required to use the information given to:
(a) (i) Explain the meaning of “Internal Auditing function” as per

International Professional Practice Framework (IPPF).
(iii) Explain the factors that enhance the effectiveness of the Internal
Audit Unit regarding the internal control system of an entity.
(iv) Explain the main role of the internal audit function in regard to risks
facing an organization.
(v) Explain the factors that may influence the precise role of internal
audit function in an organization.
(vi) Describe any three procedures that will enable internal audit
function, to achieve corporate governance compliance.
(b) (i) Identify and explain any five control deficiencies

(ii) Recommend a control to address each of the deficiencies identified

who answered the question, 390 (64.1%) candidates passed while the remaining 218
(35.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 216 (35.5%), 161 (26.5%) and
13 (2.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Candidates failed to describe the procedures that will enable internal audit function
to achieve corporate governance compliance.
QUESTION 5: A. PUBLIC SECTOR AUDITING

B. PROFESSIONAL ETHICS, PUBLIC INTEREST, FUNDAMENTAL
OBJECTIVES, THREATS AND SAFEGUARDS TO INDEPENDENCE
C. ASSURANCE REPORTS

(i) Explain why the scope of public sector audits is wider than the scope of
private sector audits.
(ii) Explain three areas where given person would face challenges in his
new occupation.
(b) Identify the threat in the given scenario and suggest appropriate safeguards.
(c) Explain the possible impacts on the audit report and specify the procedures (if
any) which would be undertaken in the given situations.
candidates who answered the question only 130 (18.3%), candidates passed while
marks respectively.
Some candidates failed to explain the areas in which an auditor would face
challenges when moved from private to public sector.
64
QUESTION 6: OBJECTIVES, PROCESS AND NEED FOR EXTERNAL AUDIT AND
ASSURANCE SERVICES
(a) Explain the responsibilities of external auditors to directors and shareholders.
(b) Describe the limitations of the external audit in relation to the detection and
reporting of fraud.
(c) Explain why it is essential for external auditors to be independent of their
clients.
(d) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of external auditors in providing
consulting services to their audit clients.
who answered the question only 148 (19.1%), candidates passed while the remaining
and 01 (0.1%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Large number of candidates misinterpreted general limitations of the audit process

(methodology) and the specific limitations in relation to detection of frauds.
65

examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the paper
to be well balanced, covering almost eight five percent of the topics in the syllabus. The
paper had a good mixture of questions.
candidates who answered the examination only 243 (30.6%), candidates passed while the
remaining 550 (69.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 235 (29.6%) and 08
(1.0%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored
Candidates’ overall performance
TABLE8.1.5
00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 69.4 29.6 1.0 0.0 100
TABLE8.1.6
EXAMINATIONS

342 out of 1,225 27.9 243 out of 793 30.6
66
B4 PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION

apply knowledge of public finance, tax laws and principles in the computation of
tax liabilities, preparation and filing of tax returns; and in administering compliance
with the tax laws; both in the public sector and in the private sector.


The following topics were tested in this paper:
QUESTION 1: COMPUTATIONAL OF TAXABLE INCOME, PUBLIC FINANCE

AND NATIONAL INCOME
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to:
(i) Calculate total income of the company before housing

benefit.
(ii) Determine the value of housing benefit.
(iii) Explain if the mentioned employee will be required to file

individual return of income.
(b) Candidates were required to:-
(i) Use the Laffer curve to briefly explain the relationship

between tax rate and revenue collection.
(ii) Briefly explain impacts of tax on labour supply

candidates who answered the question 403 (58.0%), candidates passed
Most candidates who failed were not able to use the Laffer curve to
briefly explain the relationship between tax rate and revenue
collection.
67
QUESTION 2: CUSTOMS
Candidates were required to use given information to:
(a) Advise on what exactly is needed to be done as the qualifications to be
given a license for the internal container (depot) business.
(b) Explain the meaning of the following terms:
(i) Smuggling
(ii) Restricted goods
(iii) Transshipment
(c) Candidates were required to use the given information as tax expert to
determine:-
(i) Import duty

(i) Excise duty
(d) Explain advantages of imposing import duty on imported goods.

Most of the candidates could not explain on what exactly was needed to
be done as the qualifications to be given a license for the internal container
(depot) business. Also, they were not able to explain the meaning of the
given terms in section B of the question.
68
QUESTION 3: I N C O M E T A X A N D COMPUTATIONAL OF TAXABLE
INCOME
Candidates were required to use the given information to compute the
total taxable income from the business.
Most candidates were incompetent to use the given information to compute
the total taxable income.
QUESTION 4: VALUE ADDED TAX

(a) Briefly explain the time in which goods and services are regarded as
supplied.
(b) Describe the consequences of not complying with the filing and payment
requirements on the due date.
(c) Show clearly the apportionment of the input tax on calculating total net
amount of VAT payable to or repayable from the Tanzania Revenue
Authority (TRA).
130 (22.1%), 335 (56.9%) and 101 (17.1%) candidates scored pass, credit
Those who failed were not able to calculate total net amount of VAT and
were not able to clearly apportion the input tax.
QUESTION 5: NATIONAL INCOME ACCOUNTING

(a) Differentiate between “Gross Domestic Product” (GDP) and “Gross
National Product” (GNP).
(b) Briefly explain weaknesses of measuring National Income (NI).
(c) Compute the Net Domestic Product.

candidates who answered the question only, 208 (38.9%) candidates passed
Most of candidates failed to compute the Net Domestic Product at factor

price.
69
QUESTION 6: COMPUTATION OF TAXABLE INCOME
(a) Explain at least three returns other than VAT returns a businessman is
needed to submit in the year of income and when they are supposed to
be submitted.
(b) Compute to know if there is any penalty or interest liable.
(c) Calculate the chargeable investment capital gain arising from asset
disposals during the tax year.

448 candidates who answered the question only 52 (11.6%), candidates
credit marks and distinction respectively.
Most candidates were not able to explain types of tax returns other than
VAT also most candidates were not able to compute investment capital
gain from asset disposals during the tax year.
70
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the
questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced with excellent spread of
the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and
examination paper.
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table
8.1.7
TABLE 8.1.7
CLASSIFICATION OF
MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 27.6 65.4 7.0 00 100
TABLE 8.1.8
EXAMINATIONS

609 out of 1,295 47.0 505 out of 697 72.4
71
B5 PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT
Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge and skills of financial and non-financial data analysis in providing information
and decision support to management for decision-making, performance evaluation, and
control.
Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out of
five questions in Section B
The following topics were tested in this paper:
QUESTION 1: DECISIONS-MAKING TECHNIQUES, COST CLASSIFICATION
AND ESTIMATION
(a) Decompose the manufacturing overhead cost into fixed and variable costs.
(b) Compute the total cost to manufacture the additional units.
(c) Compute the unit cost to manufacture the additional units.
(d) Write a brief report, supported by relevant figures, recommending whether the
project should be accepted or rejected.
candidates who answered the question only 93 (9.8%) candidates passed while the
(3.3%) and 12 (1.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively
Most candidates were unfit to compute the costs that were required to be decomposed.
QUESTION 2: COSTING ACCOUNTING TECHNIQUES AND DECISION MAKING
TECHNIQUES
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to:
(i) Prepare the flexed budget, using the actual volume.
(ii) Prepare an operating statement reconciling the actual profit with the loss
figure from the flexed budget.
(iii) Suggest reasons for any variances arose.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to explain with
reasons, for each of the remaining stages of the product’s life cycle, the
changes that would be expected in the:
(i) Average unit production cost
(ii) Unit selling price
72
the remaining 452 (93.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 27 (5.6%)
and 04 (0.8%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
scored distinction marks in this question.
Candidates were not capable to prepare operating statement for reconciling the
actual profit with the loss from the flexed budget. Majority prepared income
statement instead.
QUESTION 3: BUDGETARY CONTROL SYSTEM

(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to explain external and
internal sources from where data can be collected by a company seeking to
add a new product to its production line.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to:

(i) Prepare the production budget
(ii) Prepare the labour budget
(c) Candidates were required to identify and explain steps in the preparation of
Zero-Based Budget.
(16.8%), 25 (3.0) and 02 (0.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
Most candidates were not able to identify and explain steps in the preparation of
Zero-Based Budget instead they explained steps in formulating activity-based
budget. Also, they explained factors to consider when introducing the new
product rather than sources of information.
QUESTION 4: COST CLASSIFICATION AND ESTIMATION
(a) Briefly explain two-stage allocation process of transitional or conventional
costing system.
(b) Discuss any factors prompting the development and application of Activity-
Based Costing system as an alternative to traditional costing system.
(i) Compute overhead cost per unit.
(ii) Calculate the overhead cost per unit.
(iii) Comment of the results in (i) and (ii) above.

17 (02.2%) and 03 (0.4%) candidates scored pass, credit marks and distinction
respectively.
73
Most of Candidates could not demonstrate understanding on the application of
activity-based costing as they failed to ascertain cost per unit as per ABC and as
per current absorption system.
QUESTION 5: DECISIONS MAKING TECHNIQUES
(a) Explain assumptions of CVP analysis.
(b) Discuss major factors to be considered when setting transfer prices for an
international group.
(i) Calculate the transfer price
(ii) Comment on the circumstances in which the proposed transfer price
may result in a sub optimal decision for the company as a whole.
Most candidates were not able to understand the requirements of the question.
QUESTION 6: STANDARD COSTING, VARIANCES ANALYSIS AND

BUDGETARY PLANNING AND CONTROL
(a) Calculate:
(i) Variable costs variances as much as data allows.
(ii) Sales volume and sales price variances.
(b) Briefly explain problems associated with standard cost in
today’s environment.
(c) Explain the steps a company should follow to implement a
Zero Based Budgeting system.
marks respectively.
Candidates were not able to prepare themselves well for the topic hence
most of them failed to provide the appropriate answers.
74
examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of markers also found the
paper to be well balanced. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and
953 candidates who answered the examination only 233 (24.4%), candidates passed
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 8.1.9.
TABLE 8.1.9
CLASSIFICATION OF 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL

MARKS
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 75.6 23.8 0.6 00 100
TABLE 8.1.10
EXAMINATIONS
448 22.6 passed 233 24.4
75
B6 MANAGEMENT, GOVERNANCE AND ETHICS
Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
principles of strategic management, good governance and business ethics management and
administrative functions of an organization.
Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other four out of
five questions in Section B
The following topics were tested in this paper:-
QUESTION 1: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT AND GOVERNANCE, RISK MANAGEMENT
AND ETHICS
(a) Explain critically how the 4P’s model can be applied as a decision-
making model to analyze how to penetrate into the existing market.

(i) Explain whether there is any relationship between
teleological ethics and the profit-making objective of the
business.
(ii) Give examples of actions taken by a business which aims
to make profits and believes in teleological ethics that
would otherwise seem wrong.
(c) Discuss the important steps to examine the organizational activities
using value chain analysis.
(d) Use Porter’s five forces to assess the business competitive
advantages.
Most candidates who failed this question were not able to read and clearly
understand the requirements of question.
QUESTION 2: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT AND GOVERNANCE RISK

MANAGEMENT AND ETHICS
Candidates where required to use the given information to:-
(a) Give clear explanation on each of the three strategic levels and show
how they are important in any successful organization.
76
(b) Discuss different strategic capabilities available in an organization.
(c) Give elaboration on how Rule of Law promotes sustainable

development in a country.

passed 160 (39.2%), 80 (19.6%), and 10 (02.5%) candidates scored
Most candidates who failed did not prepared themselves well for the topic.
QUESTION 3: S T R A T E G I C M A N A G E M E N T , G O V E R N A N C E RISK
MANAGEMENT AND ETHICS
Candidates were required to use the given information to:-
(a) Discuss internal risks that can affect the wellbeing of an organization.
(b) Explain elements of costs, which would go into the process of
manufacture if the company were to adopt the full cost accounting
method.
(c) State the kind of strategy from the strategy clock, which is being
followed by the mentioned company.
Most candidates showed inadequate preparation for this topic.
QUESTION 4: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
(a) Discuss the main stages of product life circle.

(b) Illustrate various ways in which board can lead through
accountability and transparency.
(c) Illustrate five questions that are to be asked when making a
decision using Tucker’s Model.

candidates who answered the question, 375 (91.0%) candidates
who passed 111 (26.9%), 176 (42.7%) and 88 (21.4%) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
No major weakness was noted.
77
QUESTION 5: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
(a) From the given instance about hyper competition which financial
service industry has faced, candidates were required to give a
presentation on which elements are needed for a successful
strategy include possible reasons for the given situation.

(b) Explain various means of controlling the actions of the Executive
Management by the shareholders.
(c) Analyze internal control policies and procedures.
(d) Analyze the importance of data base management in a business
firm.

No major weakness was noted in this question, however, some

candidates failed to describe possible reasons for the hyper
competition.
QUESTION 6: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT, GOVERNANCE RISK MANAGEMENT

AND ETHICS
(a) Identify and elaborate key essential features of a Business Plan.
(b) Discuss various strategies a businessman can use to do business

ethically in order to face the competitive nature of business.
(c) Discuss steps under risk assessment in an organization.

passed 102 (29.2%), 109 (31.2%) and 79 (22.6%) candidates scored
Most candidates could not prepare themselves well for these topics.
78
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of
the questions examined and time allocated for each question, with a wider
spread of topics within the syllabus.
8.1.11
TABLE 8.1.11

(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 15.6 67.4 16.8 0.2 100
TABLE 8.1.12
EXAMINATIONS
1,003 93.8 passed
402 84.4
79
FINAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Final Level examinations are the last level of the three-tier professional examination system of
the Board.
The final level examinations consist of four subjects as mentioned hereunder: -
C1 Corporate Reporting
C2 Auditing and Assurance
C3 Business and Corporate Finance
C4 Public Finance and Taxation II
These examination papers have been tested in this examination session.
The examination draws candidates from: -
(a) Candidates who were referring P15 Financial Reporting II and P20 Contemporary
Issues in Accounting in the phased out syllabus where these candidates sat for C1
Corporate Reporting in the current syllabus
(b) Candidates who were referring P18 Auditing and Assurance Services in the phased out syllabus
where these candidates sat for C2 Auditing and Assurance Services
(c) Candidates who were referring P16 International Finance in the phased out syllabus where these
candidates sat for C3 Business and Corporate Finance in the current syllabus and
(d) Candidates who were referring P17 Public Finance and Taxation in the phased out syllabus
where these candidates sat for C4 Advanced Taxation in the current syllabus
The performance of the candidates who attempted both modules is shown at the end of the
level’s report.
During the November 2020 examination session, 1,477 candidates sat for Final Level
examinations out of whom 244 (16.9%) have passed this level and therefore eligible for
the award of STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 624 (42.2%) have passed some of the subjects
while 604 (40.9%) have failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise for the final level examination in this session is as
shown on Table 9.1
TABLE 9.1
FINAL LEVEL SUBJECT -WISE PERFORMANCE
ANALYSIS: NOVEMBER 2019 AND NOVEMBER 2020
Code Subject Performance

Entrie Pass % Entrie Pass %
C1 Corporate Reporting s 997 394 39.5 s
616 191 31.0
C2 Auditing and Assurance 969 465 48.0 607 398 57.1
C3 Business and Corporate Finance 991 240 24.2 571 170 29.8
C4 Advanced Taxation 726 484 66.7 424 402 76.7
80
C1 CORPORATE REPORTING
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to financial
reporting standards and corporate law in preparing, analyzing and evaluating corporate
reports by entities, both in the private and public sectors.
This examination paper comprised two sections with six questions. Candidates
were required to answer four questions. Question one which carried 40 % of the total
marks was compulsory
In this paper, topics examined and candidates’ performances were as follows:
QUESTION 1: FINANCIAL STATEMENTS OF GROUP ENTITIES
(a) Prepare the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position of the given
company’s group as at the given period in accordance with International
Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS).
(b) Explain if the given company decides to go ahead with the debt factoring
arrangements, explain the Financial Reporting principles involved and
advise how each of the above arrangements would impact upon the
Financial Statements of future years.
(c) Discuss the ethical issues which arise from the proposal by the given
company.
(d) Describe the purpose of the Conceptual Framework for Financial
Reporting.
answered the question, only, 245 (39.8%) candidates passed while the remaining 371 (60.2%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 231 (37.5%) and 14 (2.3%) candidates scored
pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Most candidates did not understand the concept and accounting for factoring receivables.
Most of them did not understand the purpose of conceptual framework for financial reporting.
QUESTION 2: IAS 8 — ACCOUNTING POLICIES, CHANGES IN ACCOUNTING
ESTIMATES AND ERRORS
Candidates were required to use given information to: -
(a) Re-draft the Income Statements of the given company for the given
period
(b) (i) As a graduate accountant to be: Present the extract from the
of Profit or Loss and Other Comprehensive Income of the
given company reflecting the change in accounting policy, in
accordance with IAS 8: Accounting Policies, Changes in
Accounting Estimates and Errors
81
(ii)Compute the given company’s retained earnings at the given period
and the restated retained earnings as at the given period
(iii)Evaluate how statement of changes in equity for
the given year end should be presented in the
company’s financial statements.

Most of the candidates demonstrated poor understanding

of the ISA 8.
QUESTION 3: IAS 33 (EPS), IAS 38 (SEGMENT REPORTING), IFRS 15, IFRS 5 AND IFRS
9
Candidates were required to use the given figures to answer the
following questions:
(a)(i) Compute basic and diluted earnings per share as at the given period.
(ii) Discuss two (2) major limitations of using earnings per share as a measure
of a company’s performance.
(iii) Compute basic and diluted earnings per share as at the given period.
(c) Advise the given company as to which of the segments are

reportable in its operating segments disclosure note.
(d) Discuss the correct accounting treatment of the given

transactions for the given year end.

Many candidates showed understanding of the provisions of standards but failed

to interpret and apply those provisions in different scenarios.
82
QUESTION 4: PRESENTATION OF ACCOUNTING & DISCLOSURE;
ENHANCING FINANCIAL REPORTING, PPE, ISA 16, IAS
40 AND IFRS 5
(a) Compute the Economic Value Added (EVATM) and comment on the difference
between “Economic Value Added” versus “Profit-based” measures of
performance.
(b) In each of the given case, candidates were required to show entries in the
Financial Statements of the given company in the given year end resulting from
recording the events described. Also they should clearly identify any
depreciation charges involved and how each transaction may impact upon if at
all, the Statement of Profit or Loss and Other Comprehensive Income of the given
company at the given year end.
who answered the question, 04 (1.7%) candidates scored pass marks while the
remaining 232 (98.3%) candidates failed. There were neither credit nor distinction
marks in this question
It seems that most candidates had poor knowledge on the topics tested in this
question.
QUESTION 5:FINANCIAL PERFORMANCE; CASH FLOW STATEMENTS AND IAS 38

Candidates were required to use the give information to: -
(a) (i) Prepare a report for the given client which analyses and discusses the financial
performance and position of the given company as portrayed by the above
financial statements and the additional information provided.
(ii) Calculate the given company’s net cash flow generated from operating
activities in accordance with IAS 7 – Statement of Cash Flows.
(c) Prepare the journal entries to record the initial and subsequent measurement of
this financial instrument in the financial statements of the given company at the
given period.
(d) Discuss the principles and practices to be used by the given company in
accounting for the valuation and recognition issues in the given case.
who answered the question only 62 (10.2%) candidates passed while the remaining
346 (56.9%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 51 (8.4%), 10 (1.6%) and 01
Most candidates had problems with part (c) of the question that required adequate
knowledge of IAS 38-Intangible Assets.
83
QUESTION 6: IFRS 5: NON-CURRENT ASSETTS HELF FOR SALE AND
DISCONTINUED OPERATIONS
(a) Discuss the accounting treatment of each of the above events in the financial
statements of the given company for the given year end considering the
implications of events occurring after the end of the reporting period.
(b) (i) Discuss the accounting treatment of the hedge in the given year end.
(ii) Outline the accounting treatment of the inventory sale and the futures
contract settlement on the given period.
candidates who answered the question only, 02 (0.6%) candidates scored pass marks
while the remaining 285 (86.1%) candidates failed. There were neither credit nor
Most candidates lacked adequate knowledge on IFRS 5 (Non- Current Assets Held
for Sale), IFRS 2 (Share Base Payments) and also hedging accounting
84
The panel of examiners found that the question had an appropriate mixture
of questions, the distribution of marks and the time allocated was adequate.
The paper had easy and difficult questions which were all within the
prescribed syllabus.
(b) Candidates’ overall performance of the paper
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory. Out
of 616 candidates who answered the examination only, 192 (31.0%)
candidates passed while the remaining 625 (69.0%) candidates failed. Out
of those who passed 190 (30.8%) and 01 (0.2%) candidates scored pass and
credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
examination paper.
9.1.1
TABLE 9.1.1
C1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 Total

Marks
No. of Candidates 425 190 01 00 616
(Frequency)
Percentage 69.0 30.8 0.2 0.0 100
TABLE 9.1.2
C1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2019
EXAMINATIONS
394 out of 997 35.9 192 out of 616 31.0
85
C2 AUDITING AND ASSURANCE SERVICES
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
auditing and assurance standards and relevant laws in undertaking and managing
auditing and assurance engagements in complex auditing and reporting situations.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% of the total
marks was compulsory.
QUESTION 1: LEGAL, REGULATORY AND ETHICAL ISSUES; ACCEPTING
ENGAGEMENT AND MANAGING ASSIGNMENT; PLANNING
AND UNDERTAKING AUDIT WORK
(a) Discuss the implication of the external auditor providing

an internal audit service to a client, explaining the current
ethical guidance on the provision of other services to
clients.
(b) (i) Describe how adequate audit planning benefits an
audit of financial statements.
(ii) For each of the aspects of the given company’s operations outlined
in the scenario above, explain how they will affect audit strategy
of the company
(c) (i) Explain the meaning of true and fair view in respect of the audit
report issued by an external auditor.
(ii) For each matter, clearly evaluate whether the Audit Supervisor’s
proposed audit opinion is appropriate, and if not, recommended an
alternative.
(iii) Explain the contents and importance of the following basic
elements of the auditor’s report:
i) Opinion paragraph
ii) Key audit matters paragraph

86
Some candidates failed to know audit strategy in accordance with the given
case. Also they failed to know circumstances lead to which audit opinion,
and some were confusing -key audit matters with emphasis of matters
contents and importance.
QUESTION 2: DRAWING CONCLUSIONS AND REPORTING

(a)(i) Briefly explain what do you understand about the “risk of material
misstatement” at financial statement level.
(ii) Explain the risk assessment procedures as referred above.
(d) Identify and explain the four (4) components of the corporate
governance in any organization.
(c)(i) Analyze the event that occurred on 31st May 2020, in view of IAS 10:
“Events after the reporting period” and explain to your staff whether
the event is adjusting or non-adjusting.
(ii) Explain the responsibilities of the external auditor in relation to this
event. Additionally, state what audit procedures should be carried out
to discharge your duties as auditors, while auditing the events after the
reporting period.
Some candidates failed to differentiate between adjusting and non- adjusting
from the given cases
QUESTION 3: ACCEPTING ENGAGEMENTS AND MANAGING
ASSIGNMENTS; PLANNING AND UNDERTAKING AUDIT
WORKS
Candidates were required to use given information to:-
(a) Explain the responsibilities of the successor and predecessor auditors
when a company is changing auditors.
(b) Discuss the ways in which the auditor’s observations made during
the course of the plant tour will be of help in planning and conducting
the audit.
(c)(i) You tested stock amounts totaling TZS.2,339,000,000 and found
TZS.23,390,000 in overstatements. Ignoring sampling risk, what is
your estimate of the total misstatement in stock?
(ii) Based on the audit of the assets accounts and ignoring other
accounts, explain if the overall financial statements are acceptable.
87
(iii) What do the auditor supposed to do in such circumstances?

passed while the remaining 223 (91.4%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 16 (6.6%) and 05 (2.0%) candidates scored pass and
credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
question.
Candidates failed to differentiate successor and predecessor auditors as

many of them mixed the two terms. Candidates failed to work out
materiality level and its effects, others failed to differentiate the benefits
of audit plan tour. Most provided answers for benefit of audit plan rather
than plant tour.
QUESTION 4: LEVEL, REGULATORY AND ETHICAL ISSUE AND DRAWING
CONCLUSIONS AND REPORTING
(a) Describe the ethical threats which may occur and how they can be
minimized in the above four (4) situations.
(b) (i) Identify and justify the type of opinion you will issue
(ii) Prepare the appropriate paragraphs under
management responsibility, auditor’s responsibility and the
auditor’s opinion for inclusion in the audit report of the given
company.

distinction marks respectively
Those who failed in this question, were unable to prepare the appropriate
paragraphs that elaborate the responsibilities of management and auditors.
Majority ended rushing to the answers instead of elaborating the
responsibilities in full.
QUESTION 5: DRAWING CONCLUSIONS AND REPORTING

(a) Comment on the sufficiency and appropriateness of the audit

evidence obtained.
(b) Recommend further audit procedures to be performed by the audit

team.
88
(c) Explain the matters which should be included in a report in
accordance with ISA 265: Communicating Deficiencies in Internal
controls to those charged with Governance and Management.

Those who failed were unable to relate sufficiency and appropriateness of

audit evidence to the case study given. They failed to differentiate audit
report to those charged with governance from audit report to shareholders.
QUESTION 6: LEGAL, REGULATORY AND ETHICAL ISSUES; DRAWING

CONCLUSIONS AND REPORTING
Candidates were required use the information to:
(a) Identify and elaborate irregularities that you suspect regarding sales
and inventories in a given case.
(b) (i) Describe actions that auditors can take when being threatened with
removal by the Directors.
(ii) State the requirements of the IFAC’s Code of Ethics relating to the
supply of non-audit services to public company audit clients.
(iii) Explain why there are sometimes negative perceptions when

auditors provide non audit services to their audit clients.

(35.6%) and 25 (11.1%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
Those who failed were unable to provide concise answer in part (a). They
could not provide good elaboration on the required irregularities.
89

of 697 candidates who answered the examination, 398 (57.1%), candidates
examination paper.
9.1.3
TABLE 9.1.3

Classification of Marks 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 Total

(Frequency)
Percentage 42.9 56.4 0.7 0.0 100
TABLE 9.1.4
EXAMINATIONS
465 out of 48.0 398 out of 57.1
969 697
90
C3 BUSINESS AND CORPORATE FINANCE

business and financial theories, concepts and analytical frameworks in evaluating
and assessing business strategy, business and financing options as well as financial
engineering products and provide advice based on such assessments.
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% of the total marks
was compulsory
QUESTION 1: MERGERS AND ACQUISITION; INTERNATIONAL

DIVERSIFICATION AND THE INTERNATIONAL CAPM
Candidates were required to use given information to:-
(a) (i) Discuss the merits and demerits of mergers and acquisition as an
expansion strategy.
(ii) Discuss the qualities of an appropriate acquisition strategy.
(b) Write a report to the CEO by showing relevant computations to assist
him to:
(i) decide whether to invest in the domestic market or the foreign market.
(ii) establish how returns from the domestic market are correlated with
those of the foreign market.
(iii)know whether establishing an equally invested portfolio will reduce
the firm’s investment risk.
(c) Prepare a briefing note to the Chairman of the Board in which you
demonstrate the computation of the value of the firm using the Gordon’s
Model and Discounted Cash Flow Method. Propose an issue price based
on each of the two valuation approaches.
Most candidates failed to link the required calculations in the report asked.
Some showed weaknesses on the part of applying the required formula to
the relevant requirements.
91
QUESTION 2: FOREIGN EXCHANGE AND MANAGEMENT OF RISKS
(a) Explain main types of foreign exchange rate systems and discuss how
such systems might affect the ability of Financial Managers to
forecast exchange rates.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to:

(i) Evaluate the proposed forward rate agreement as a way of
managing the interest rate risk anticipated by the given company.
(ii) Analyze the foreign currency risk associated with the future
interest payment of the given company and briefly discuss ways
that this risk might be hedged.

question.
Forward rate agreement was a problem to majority of candidates as many
could not answer the question.
QUESTION 3: FINANCIAL ENGINEERING AND PLANNING

(a) Write a briefing note to the directors in which you describe the
APV approach, its applicability and limitations.
(b) As a financial analyst, provide a description of the arguments

for and against hedging foreign exchange risk and inform the
directors of what multinational companies do in practice with
respect to the management of foreign exchange risk.
(c) (i) Estimate the current given period’s value for the given
company
(ii) Assess and comment on the performance of the
management by using the Market Value Added (MVA)
approach and describe the problems with the EVA
Approach.
Candidates performance in this question was not satisfactory as all 322

(100%) candidates who answered the question failed
Most candidates were not good in Adjusted Present Value method. They
showed poor understanding on arguing for the people who support hedging
and the bases of their support.
92
QUESTION 4: GLOBAL BUSINESS; ENVIRONMENTAL & FINANCIAL
ENGINEERING AND PLANNING
(a)(i) Briefly discuss the meaning of “fixed exchange rate”.
(ii) Discuss the cases for and against a country using fixed exchange rate
system.
(b) Design a plan vanilla swap that will appear equally attractive to both
companies and net a bank acting as intermediary 0.1% per annum.
(c) Estimate the following:
(i) The initial margin to be deposited with the clearing house
(ii) The total gain/loss due to price decrease
(iii) The total gain/loss due to price increase
(iv) The balance in the trader’s margin account after 15 days

The major weakness was on financial engineering where candidates were not
able to analyze the plain vanilla swap and trading in the futures exchange market.
QUESTION 5: BUSINESS VALUATION
(a) Compare and contrast operating cash flows and free cash flows as used in the
valuation of a business operation.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information to:-
(i) Estimate the Free Cash Flow (FCF) to the company for the year given
year end
(ii) Estimate the value of the company for the given year
(iii) Estimate the value of equity and the value per share for the given year
end by using the FCF approach.
(c) Discuss any two (2) major types of risks on a bond.

93
respectively.
Most candidates failed to answer Part b(ii) and (iii) of the question.
QUESTION 6: FUTURE S, OPTIONS, SWAPS AND FORWARD RATE AGREEMENT

(a) Briefly explain each criteria stated above and suggest factors
that could be used to assess them.
(b) (i) Illustrate how the given company might hedge its foreign
exchange risk using currency futures
(ii) Explain the meaning of basis risk and show what basis risk is involved
in the proposed hedge.
(iii) Assuming the spot exchange rate is 120 yen/US$ on 1st September
and that basis risk decreases steadily in a linear manner, calculate what
the result of the hedge is expected to be. Briefly discuss why this result
might not occur.
(iv) In addition, the given company is concerned about its exposure to

variable interest rate borrowing. Discuss the relevant considerations
when deciding between futures and options to hedge a company’s
interest rate risk.

marks respectively.
Most candidates demonstrated poor computations, did not follow the necessary
steps.
94
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper not was satisfactory.
Out of 571 candidates who answered the examination only, 170 (29.8%)
candidates passed while the remaining 401 (70.2%) candidates failed. No
candidates scored credit or distinction marks in this examination paper.
9.1.5
TABLE 9.1.5
Classification of Marks 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 Total

(Frequency)
Percentage 70.2 29.8 0.0 0.0 100
TABLE 9.1.6
EXAMINATIONS
240 out of 911 24.2 passed
170 out of 571 29.8
95
C4 ADVANCED TAXATION
knowledge of public finance, tax laws and Financial Reporting Standards and
Corporate Law in preparing, analyzing and evaluating corporate reports by entities,
both in the private and public sectors.
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% of the total
marks was compulsory.

QUESTION 1: TAXATION OF SPECIALIZED INDUSTRIES; TAX
ADMINISTRATION
Candidates were required to use the given information:
(a) Based on the above facts and from Umeme Rural Electrification Ltd
perspective, highlight income tax and Value Added Tax implications
of each contract above.
(b) Compute taxable corporate business income of the given company

along with explaining reasons for adjustment/non-adjustment of
items.
(c) With reference to Income Tax Act, Cap 332 compare and contrast
between taxation of a corporation and that of a partnership.
(d) (i) Briefly discuss any three (3) reasons that make taxpayers to
practise tax
avoidance and tax evasion in Tanzania.
(ii) With examples explain the current efforts made by the
Government of the United Republic of Tanzania to reduce the
problem of tax avoidance and tax evasion.
No major common weakness was noted.
96
QUESTION 2: TAXATION OF RETIREMENT FUNDS; TAX
ADMINISTRATION AND VALUE ADDED TAX; TAX REFORMS
(a) Briefly discuss the taxation rules relating to transfer of funds among
retirement benefit funds.
(b) Identify three (3) legal and two (2) administration changes in
Tanzania from 2018 aiming at achieving such obligations
(c) Briefly explain any six (6) of those consequences.
(d) Briefly Explain the concept and treatment of partial input tax
in VAT

334 candidates who answered the question, 248 (74.3%) candidates
passed while the remaining 86 (25.8%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 127 (38.0%), 103 (30.8%) and 18 (5.4%)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
No major weakness noted in this question. However, some

candidates lacked understanding of the treatment of funds transfer
among retirement funds.
QUESTION 3: CORPORATE BUSINESS INCOME
(a) (i) Explain five circumstances under which an asset is said to have
been
realized.
(ii) Briefly explain what constitutes the cost of an

asset.
(b) With reasons, discuss any further five pieces of information you would
require to enable you to calculate taxable income of the given company
for the given year.

97
No major weakness noted in this question.
98
QUESTION 4: INTERNATIONAL TAXATION; TAX ADMINISTRATION;
VALUE ADDED
TAX
(a) Discuss any three usefulness and any two limitations of the method.
(b) Clarify the functional analysis as used in transfer pricing, clearly

showing justification for its use.
(c) Briefly explain the circumstances under which VAT registration may
be cancelled and state the consequences for such cancellation.
(d) discuss in line with Tanzania tax laws, that in Tanzania, ‘tax once
assessed must be paid’.

passed 152 (43.2%) and 39 (11.1%) candidates scored pass and credit
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Those who failed were not able to produce relevant materials to the
question.
QUESTION 5: VAT ON INSURANCE BUSINESS; PARTIAL INPUT TAX CREDIT

AND VAT
REFUND
(a) Briefly explain the conditions to be met before an insurer

can have a decreasing adjustment.
(b) Compute net VAT payable.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory.

Out of 244 candidates who answered the question only, 09
(3.7%) candidates scored pass marks while the remaining 235
(96.3%) candidates failed. There were neither credit nor
Candidates missed the concept and fact that income taxation of

insurance is different from treatment of VAT on insurance
business. They were not able to distinguish between exempt
supplies from taxable supplies while others were not able to
decide when VAT is considered inclusive or exclusive.
99
100
QUESTION 6: TAXATION OF TRUSTS; INTERNATIONAL DOUBLE
TAXATION OF INCOME
(a) (i) Calculate the taxable income of the Trust for the given year and show
how much
tax they should pay.
(ii) compute how much tax they could have paid, if the
beneficiaries were to receive the distribution from the
given company.
(b) Assist the given company on this aspect by answering the following
questions:
(i) What is international double taxation?

(ii) How can it be minimized or eliminated?

Most of the candidates failed to explain tax treatment of the distribution

from the Trust.
101
marks respectively. No candidates scored distinction marks in this
examination paper.
9.1.7
TABLE 9.1.7
Classification of 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 Total
Marks
(Frequency)
Percentage 23.3 67.4 9.4 0.0 100
TABLE 9.1.8
EXAMINATIONS
NOVEMBER 2019 NOVEMBER 2020
484 out of 726 66.7 402 out of 524 76.7
102
CHAPTER III
EXAMINERS’ RECOMMENDATIONS TO THE TUTORS AND STUDENTS

In each examination session, the panel of examiners come up with suggestions to both
Tutors and Students which are aimed at improving future candidates’ performance.
These recommendations arise from shortcomings observed in the course of marking the
candidates’ scripts.
RECOMMENDATIONS TO TUTORS
Guidance to the candidates
1. Tutors should encourage their students to put more efforts in their studies while
preparing for the examinations. They should ensure that only those students who
have performed well in the class tests and mock examinations are allowed to sit for
the Board’s examinations.
2. Tutors should expose their students to examination techniques including how to
tackle a question in on examination room.
3. Tutors should encourage their students to read extensively and do a lot of exercises.
They should discourage students from cramming the questions and their solutions
as this will not assist them during the examinations.
4. Tutors should encourage their students to create a habit of reading current issues
and keeping themselves abreast with the issues taking place within and globally.
This will assist them in answering the questions that are of general nature and at the
same time improve their vocabulary.
5. Tutors should encourage students to devote more time in their studies and help them
to obtain relevant materials and reference books for the particular subjects.
Teaching and learning materials

6. Tutors should prepare and update their teaching notes (competence based) that can
be made available to their students.
7. Tutors should devote their time to prepare appropriate case study questions and
orient students especially those at higher levels on how to tackle case study
questions.
8. Tutors should introduce an ‘examination technique’ topic during the course of
training. The examination techniques in one of the crucial areas that play a vital
role to students when it comes to answering examination questions.
9. Tutors should make sure that they concentrate on teaching using NBAA Learning
Materials and other supplementary relevant learning materials to cover the syllabus
adequately. It is important that the tutors should prepare work-plans that guide
them in covering the entire syllabus of the subjects they teach.
103
10. Tutors should devote their time to attend NBAA seminars, workshops and Training
of Trainers workshops in order to be aware of current emerging professional issues.
Evaluating the candidates

11. Tutors should at a certain point of time, prepare mock examinations that would test
the students understanding and segregate weak from strong students whom should
be given more exercises and attention before they can be allowed to register for the
examinations. The mock examinations should cover typical examination questions
in an examination atmosphere thereby familiarizing the students to similar
conditions that they would encounter when taking their examinations.
Effective teaching
12. Tutors should prepare scheme of works/lesson plans that will guide them during
the teaching process. Teaching plans have to be provided to enable the students be
aware of what has to be covered and at what time.
13. Tutors should ensure that they are using relevant and up-to-date teaching materials
in order to avoid misleading the students.
14. Tutors should ensure that they attend short courses regarding teaching
methodologies in order to improve their teaching styles and acquire modern
teaching methodologies.
15. Tutors should take time to read comments prepared by markers which have been
summarized in the Examiners’ and Performance Report. By so doing they will
understand their shortfalls and improve in the respective areas mentioned by the
markers.
16. For the subjects which need practical orientation like auditing, it would be much
better for the trainers to invite practicing auditors to teach some of the topics.
17. Tutors should avoid spoon feeding the students, instead they have to apply various
participatory teaching methods in order to bring about effective learning among the
students.
18. Tutors should in as much as possible try to observe the weaknesses of their students
and address them by equipping them with different skills on the subject matter
especially on new statutes.
19. Tutors should at all times be up-to-date with emerging teaching techniques and
should apply them. Tutors should also apply the techniques that make the learner
think more rather than cramming.
20. Tutors should ensure that they equip themselves with knowledge and skills that are
required to teach effectively the students under competence based syllabi
21. Tutors should assist students on how to use the learning materials for effectively
learning
104
RECOMMENDATIONS TO STUDENTS
Applying appropriate learning styles
22. Students should develop study schedules that will guide them during the
preparations for the examinations and ensure that they have covered each and every
topic in the syllabus.
23. Changes taking place in the accounting, auditing, tax, law regimes are vast and
hence students should keep up-to-date with those changes. For example, definitions
and terminologies in accounting and auditing have been modified since the adoption
of the International Accounting/Auditing Standards. Students need to know these
changes in order to be able to apply them in their course of study and in their work
places.
24. Students should develop a culture of reading NBAA Learning materials, various
textbooks and journals in order to get an in depth knowledge and understanding of
the subject matter.
25. Students should put more effort on Public Sector Accounting/Auditing as it seems
they do not give special attention on the area.
26. Students should work hard, think critically and do more practice to enhance their
competence and confidence in attempting examination papers.
27. Students should make sure that they respond to the requirements of the question
asked rather than answering what has not been asked. They should not formulate
their own questions and provide their own answers.
28. Students are required to do comprehensive preparations. They should not base their
preparations on occurrence of topics on past examinations.
Self motivation towards learning

29. Students need to take personal initiative to improve their mastery of English
Language. This can be achieved in many ways – through reading daily newspapers,
magazines, books and through speaking the language. Language limitations has
affected majority of candidates as they fail to express themselves properly let alone
giving them flexibility in answering the questions.
30. Students should take an initiative of improving their case study analysis. Should
seek assistance from their trainers on how to analyze a case study questions.
31. Students should develop their own learning strategies; they should not depend
entirely on their trainers.
105
Assurance of knowledge mastery
32. Students should work hard and not rush to sit for the examinations before they have
assured themselves that they are ready for the examinations. They should not take
chances and play a game of chance (doing examination is not gambling), hoping
that they will find the examinations questions they are familiar with. They need to
ensure that they get value for the money they have used as tuition and examination
fees.
33. Students to take seriously initiative and effort t o cover the whole syllabus
requirement material through reading various books, journals and published articles
not to concentrate mostly in teaching questions and answers of past examinations.
34. Students should avoid attempting the examination unless they have covered a major
part of the respective syllabus; also devote more time in private and group
discussions study rather than considering the examination as “going concern”.
35. Students should make a good use of the learning materials in order to improve their
learning
36. Students should ensure that they avoid learning through memorisation, instead they
have to study and understand subject matters in details
Appropriate preparation for examinations and examination techniques

37. When attempting the examinations, students/candidates are urged to first read the
instructions, and then read the questions properly before they start attempting the
question. Make a viable choice in case there are optional questions or even the
choice of questions they should start attempting.
38. Students should learn how to organize their answers during the examination
attempts. This can be achieved through practice.
39. Students should have extensive course contents coverage and attempt many
questions in the preparation of their examination in the form of self exercise to build
their ability to tackle questions properly and to be able to understand different term
used in examinations.
40. Students should ensure that they attend review classes without giving any excuses
for not enrolling to these reviews.
41. Students should take time to read about examination techniques that are published
regularly in the NBAA Students’ Newsletters and other publications in order to
acquire rightful techniques in dealing and answering examination questions.
42. Students should make use of the syllabus outlines during their preparations in order
to countercheck that they have adequately covered the syllabus.
43. Students should make use of group discussions in order to enhance their
understanding through such discussion.
106
44. Students should orient themselves with different type of questions, theoretical and
computational type of questions and do thorough preparations during the study
sessions. They should also equip themselves with analytical skills, especially as at
the higher levels in order to be tackle questions that require such skills.
45. Students should change their reading behaviour of memorizing various questions
and answers by devoting their time in reading various books and get an insight of
the subject matters.
46. Students should make thorough preparation for the examination by
reading extensively the recommendations text books to supplement what they are
getting from the review classes.
47. Students are advised to apply the following techniques among others in order to
pass their examinations.
47.1 Ensuring well coverage of the syllabus
Candidates are required to use the syllabus as their base of determining whether
they are ready to sit for the examinations or not. The problem of most candidates
is total dependence on the trainers. It is not funny to find a candidate attending a
review class without having a syllabus. It is difficult for such a candidate to know
what has been covered by the trainer and what has been left out. Some candidates
instead of ensuring that they have covered the syllabus adequately they rely on
Question and Answers (Qs and As) booklets. Questions and Answers of previous
examinations are good but they are not supplements of the syllabus. By reading
Question and Answer booklets students cannot get sufficient knowledge about the
subject matter. The best way of making use of Qs and as is after the completion
of the syllabus to see how examination questions are set and the best ways to
approach them.
47.2 Active participation in the classroom sessions
The education system of most countries including Tanzania does not prepare
students/candidates to take active role in the classroom. The predominant teaching
method used i.e. lecturing is characterized by various shortcomings including:
subject experts are not always good teachers, students are passive, learning is
difficult to gauge and communication is one way i.e. students are just listening to
lectures and do not participate actively. If a student goes to the class waiting for a
trainer to come and dish information to be grasped, automatically learning
becomes impaired. An effective learning to take place requires the learners to take
effective role in the learning process. Experience shows that students who ask
questions and pose challenges during the learning process they do well in their
examinations. Asking a question or posing a challenge to a trainer does not come
from nowhere, it come only if a student is interested to what he is learning. An
interested student in the learning process is the one who takes trouble to read what
is going to be taught before entering the class. Therefore, trainers are required to
prepare course outlines derived from the prescribe syllabus so as to enable
students to follow. Students can make use of the course outline to prepare on their
own before they go to the classroom. The lesson becomes enjoyable when both
107
students and the trainers are prepared before entering the classroom. In short,
student’s active role in the class is fundamental factor in the effective learning
process.
47.3 Review class attendance
Review classes are quite different from formal schooling. In the formal schooling
context trainers exercise authority of controlling students’ attendance. They can
penalize students who miss classes without genuine reasons. This does not happen
in the review classes because those who are attending review classes are
heterogeneous. Some are employees, some are self employed, and others are fresh
graduates from colleges while others are occupied with various social
responsibilities. It becomes difficult for the trainers to control attendance of such
categories of learners. But we should bear in mind that at higher level education,
classroom attendance is not a responsibility of the trainer. If there is any candidate
who misses classes just because there is no one to question about it, such a student
must have some problems. No one is expecting to see a student missing a class
without having genuine reasons at this level of education. But, generally there is
lack of seriousness among most candidates especially in the case of classroom
attendance. Candidates are therefore reminded that attending classroom sessions
appropriately should be self-motivated.
There is a good number of candidates who never attend review classes with
confidence that they know each and every thing. They register themselves for
examinations as private candidates. Experience shows that candidates who are
attending review classes have a far better chance to pass their examinations than
those who do not attend. Some of the candidates attend review classes only when
they sit for the examinations on the first time but when they are required to refer
or re-seat the examinations they neglect to register for review classes. They claim
to have adequate and sufficient materials and therefore they can study on their
own. This is not always a good decision. Human brain is characterized by the
nature of forgetting. A famous study on forgetting textbook materials compared
the percentage of material remembered after different intervals of time. The results
were as follows:
After 1 day 54% was remembered.
After 7 days 35% was remembered.
Remembering what you have heard in lectures is even more difficult to recall
because you are not able to slow down, pause, reflect, or to reread unless you take
excellent notes! In a study on recall after listening to a lecture, students forgot
more than 90% of the points from the lecture after 14 days! (Engle, Susan: Context
is everything: The nature of memory. W.H. Freeman & Co, 1999). If that is the
case, then there is no way a candidate may decide not to attend review classes.
108
47.4 Group discussions
By not sharing ones knowledge of understanding about a particular subject matter
a candidate may think that he knows much about the subject but when it comes into
examination, such a candidate fails! It is very easy for someone to cheat himself
that he knows much about a particular subject matter due to lack of sharing
knowledge with others. Going to the library daily or doing daily self-study is not a
direct ticket to pass examinations. There is a belief that when you are taught
something by your fellow student who understands the subject matter, the
knowledge sticks into your mind than being taught by a trainer. Group discussions
are said to be a good source of learning and sharing of knowledge and experiences
due to its nature of open interaction. Although most candidates who are preparing
for the professional examinations are facing limited time to organize group
discussions, they should not ignore it at all. They should be aware that sometimes
it is far better to discuss a subject/topic in a group than going to the library for self
study. Group discussion is a potential source of learning but it is ignored by most
candidates. Candidates are therefore obliged to form group discussions to discuss
various topics especially those which are most difficult or complicated.
47.5 Practise deep learning
One of the major factors that lead to poor performance in the examinations is
learning things in shallow. Most candidates have ample time to study but they do
not do it until the ‘late hours’. They keep on saying ‘there is enough time to study’.
But since time does not on the favour of anyone in this universe they find
themselves running shortage of time. What follows after this is to make ‘ad hoc’
preparations. In this case therefore they practise what the psychologists call ‘rote
learning’. By definition rote learning is a learning technique which avoids
understanding the inner complexities and inferences of the subject that is being
learned and instead focuses on memorizing the materials so that it can be recalled
by the learner exactly the way it was read or heard. In other words, it is learning
"just for the test".
The major practice involved in rote learning techniques is learning by repetition,
based on the idea that one will be able to recall the meaning of the material the more
they repeat it. However, in many fields, especially mathematics and related
disciplines, this can often produce poor results.
Rote learning is not the best way of studying. Students are required to study a
subject matter in deep. This will make them to own what they have learnt and
express it in their own words. In rote learning a student tries to reproduce what he
has read as it was read. ‘If a student reads something with the aim of reproducing
it as it is, that is not understanding. This method limits a student to learn many
things because memory capacity for human beings is also limited. Students should
also be aware that rote learning does not develop interest to learn. As you memorize
new materials the old ones fade out.
109
47.6 Conclusion
Candidates should take trouble to read various techniques for passing examinations
Rather than concentrating only on studying topics that will appear in the
examinations. Those who have been able to make use of various study techniques
have found themselves enjoying learning and finally pass their examinations.
Studying for the examinations should be enjoyable rather than becoming
cumbersome and boring exercise for the candidates. This is possible if the
candidates apply appropriate techniques in their studies.
110
CHAPTE IV
CANDIDATURE DISTRIBUTION
The Board’s examination candidature comes from various training institutions (Tuition
Providers) in the country. The November 2020 examination session drew candidates from
the following institutions as per Table 10:
TABLE 10
NO OF CANDIDATES
ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL

S/NO NAME ATEC II TOTAL
I LEVEL LEVEL LEVEL
ACT FINANCIAL
1 CONSULTANTS 3 1 8 16 3 31
ADONIJAH BUSINESS
2 CONSULTANCY LTD 0 0 2 10 7 19
ATTITUDE FINANCIAL
BCC FINANCIAL
4 CONSULTANTS 0 0 7 15 12 34
BETA BUSINESS
BRIGHT PROFESSIONALS
6 TANZANIA 1 0 2 19 4 26
CFC ONLINE TRAINING
7 CENTRE 0 0 9 63 60 132
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
8 EDUCATION 1 0 4 21 17 43
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
EDUCATION-MBEYA
9 CAMPUS 0 0 1 1 0 2
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE
10 OF ARUSHA 5 5 1 3 2 16
CONVENANT FINANCIAL
11 CONSULTANTS 17 30 150 584 341 1122
CORNERSTONE
FINANCIAL
12 CONSULTANTS 2 5 22 51 18 98
DSM CPA REVIEW
13 CENTER 0 0 0 4 4 8
EMINENT FINANCIAL
14 CONSULTANTS 0 0 3 85 70 158
EVIN SCHOOL OF
15 MANAGEMENT 0 1 26 281 279 587
EXCEL FINANCIAL AND
16 TAX FOUNDATION 2 4 6 38 21 71
17 FB TRAINING CENTER 0 0 0 0 0 0
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
18 CONSULTANCY 0 2 10 22 12 46
GENTCONCEPT
19 CONSULTANCY 0 0 0 0 0 0
111
IDIANA CONSULTANCY
AND CPA(T) REVIEW
20 CLASS 0 0 2 7 4 13
INSTITUTE OF
ACCOUNTANCY
21 ARUSHA 0 0 0 1 0 1
KAS INSTITUTE OF
22 PROFESSIONAL (T) LTD 5 3 3 2 0 13
23 KMC ASSOCIATES 0 0 0 0 0 0
24 MZUMBE UNIVERSITY 0 0 0 38 0 38
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY
DAR ES SALAAM
25 CAMPUS 0 0 2 3 0 5
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY-
MBEYA CAMPUS
26 COLLEGE 0 0 1 5 0 6
27 PAC ARUSHA 0 6 19 87 45 157
CANDIDATES WHO SAT
28 AS A PRIVATE 8 33 103 511 358 1013
ST.JOSEPH
29 COMMERCIAL SCHOOL 4 0 0 1 0 5
STAR FINANCIAL
30 CONSULTANTS 0 0 2 28 24 54
STEP AHEAD FINANCIAL
31 CONSULTANTS 0 0 6 65 47 118
TABORA GENERAL
33 TCCG DODOMA 0 0 0 5 0 5
THE ACCOUNTANT
FINANCIAL
34 CONSULTANTS 0 0 6 64 58 128
35 TIA SINGIDA CAMPUS 0 0 0 0 0 0
UPTAKE BUSINESS
36 RESOURCES(T) LTD 0 0 0 62 37 99
37 VUGA EAGLE CO.LTD 0 0 1 56 27 84
WADE-THROUGH
FINANCIAL
39 WAME INVESTMENT 0 1 0 1 0 2
WEXITO CONSULTING
40 GROUP 0 0 17 74 42 133
ZANZIBAR
INTERLLECTUAL
&BUSINESS
ZENJI REVIEW CLASS
42 AND CONSULTANCY 0 0 2 31 18 51
TOTAL APPLIED 48 92 420 2270 1517 4347
ABSENTEESIM 2 0 29 140 45 216
TOTAL SAT 46 92 391 2130 1472 4131
112
KEY
NAME OF REVIEW CENTRE
S/N INSTITUTION
1 PRIVATE Candidate who did not get an opportunity to attend review classes/or have
attended review classes in the previous examination sessions
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Attitude Financial
2 PT ATTITUDE
Consultants -
3 PT CCA - Mwanza
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Commercial College of
- Arusha Review Classes conducted by Cornerstone Financial
Part-Time
4 PT CORNERSTONE
Consultants - DSM
PT STEP AHEAD FIN. - Part Time Review Class conducted by Step Ahead Financial
5
Consultants
- -Part-Time
Dodoma Review Classes Conducted by Excel Financial & Tax
6 PT EXCEL- MOSHI
Solutions of Moshi
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by KAS Institute of
7 PT KAS
Professionals
8 PT PAC- ARUSHA - (T) Ltd. – Review
Part-Time DSM. Classes Conducted by PAC Consultants of Arusha
9 PT TABORA G.C. - Part Time Review Class conducted by Tabora General Consultancy
PT SJCS - Part Time Review Class conducted by St. Joseph’s Commercial
10
School –
PT MU-DSM - Part Time Review Class conducted by Mzumbe University – DSM
Tanga
11
Campus
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Accountants and Financial
12 PT AFC
Consultants Ltd - DSM
PT BRIGHT - - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Bright Professionals
13
MOROGORO Tanzania -
- Morogoro Review Classes conducted by Evin School of
Part-Time
14 PT EVIN
Management -
15 PT WAME MWANZA - DSM
Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by WAME Investment -
PT EMINENT - Mwanza
Part Time Review Class conducted by Eminent Financial
16
Consultants -
PT VUGA ARUSHA - DSMTime Review Class conducted by Vuga Eagles Company Ltd -
Part
17
Arusha
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Covenant Financial
18 PT COVENANT- FC
Consultants
PT UPTAKE - – DSM
Part Time review classes conducted by UPTAKE Business
19
Resources (T)
PT FILADEFIA F.C - Ltd – DSMReview Classes conducted by Filadefia Financial
Part-Time
20
DODOMA Consultancy
PT ZENJI - - DODOMA
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Zenji Review and
21
Consultancy -
PT ADONIJAH - Zanzibar
Part Time Review Class conducted by Adonijar Business
22
Consultancy -
PT IDIANA CONSULT. - Njombe Review Classes conducted by Idiana Consultancy -
Part-Time
23
Mbeya
24 PT STAR FIN. CONS. - Part Time Review Class conducted by Star Financial Consultants -
Mwanza
NAME OF REVIEW CENTRE
S/N INSTITUTION
PT BBC - Part Time Review Class conducted by BBC
25
113
26 PT BCC - Part Time Review Class conducted by BCC
27 PT CAG - Part Time Review Class conducted by Controller and Auditor
General
28 PT CBE DAR - Part Time Review Class conducted by College of Business Education
DSM
29 PT - CFC ONLINE - Part Time Review Class conducted by CFC ONLINE
30 PT – EIGHT SKYS - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by EIGHT SKYS Consulting
Ltd
31 PT – MU MBEYA - Part Time Review Class conducted by Mzumbe University – Mbeya
Campus
PT - NAO - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by National Audit Office –
32
DSM
33 PT – PTC MWANZA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Professional Training
Centre -
PT – PYTHAGORAS - Mwanza
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Pythagoras Financial
34
F.C. Consultancy
PT - TCCG - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Tanzania Centre for
35
Corporate
PT – WADE ARUSHA - Governance
Part-Time Review Classes conducted by WADE Through Financial
36
Consultants - ARUSHA
PT - WEXITO - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Wexito Consulting Group
37
38 PT - ZIBCO - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Zanzibar Intellectual and
Business Consultants
PT - ACG - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Accountant General’s
39
Office
40 PT- ACTS FIN. -
CONSULT.
41 PT- CBE DODOMA - Part Time Review Class conducted by College of Business Education
DODOMA
42 PT – DSM CPA REVIEW - Part Time Review Class conducted by DSM CPA review
114
INSTITUTIONAL PERFORMANCE
The assessment of institutional performance is done using two approaches:
1. Best Candidate Approach:

The best institution under this approach is the one which produces the “NBAA Best
Level Candidate”, a candidate who obtained the highest marks in aggregate, at a single
examination attempt. Using this approach, the best candidate for each of the Board’s
examination levels is as follows:
Examination Best Candidates came from

ATEC Level I PT – KAS
ATEC Level II PT -Covenant F.C
FOUNDATION LEVEL: PT – Covenant F.C
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL: PT – Covenant F.C
FINAL LEVEL: PT – Covenant F. C
2. Performance Approach:
Under this approach, the best institution is that which obtains the highest Grade Point
Average (GPA) in relation to the total number of A ,B, C, F grades obtained by
candidates in comparison with total number of papers sat by candidates in that level.
The following formula is applied
(NaPa + NbPb + NcPc + NfPf)
Subject GPA =
(Na + Nb + Nc + Nf)
Where Na = Total Number of Candidates who have scored A in an institution at

that level
Nb = Total Number of Candidates who have scored B in an institution at that
level
Nc = Total Number of Candidates who have scored C in an institution at that
level
Nf = Total Number of Candidates who have scored F in an institution at that
level
Pa = The weight of Grade A = 3
Pb = The weight of Grade B = 2
Pc = The weight of Grade C = 1
Pf = The weight of Grade F = 0
115
Arising from the above, the best three institutions under this approach for each examination level are as
indicated hereunder: (See tables 15.1 to 15.5(b) on pages 145 to 154 of this report).
Examination Level Best Institution
ATEC I:
Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT BRIGHT PROFESSIONAL
2nd - PT CBE
- PT ACT F.C
Category B: Above 5 Candidates 1st - PT COVENANT F.C
ATEC II:
Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT ATTITUDE F.C
2nd - PT FILADEFIA F.C
3rd - PT ACT F.C F.C
-
Category B: Above 5 Candidates 1st - PT COVENANT FC

2nd - PT PAC ARUSHA
FOUNDATION LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT MU –DAR CAMPUS
2nd -
PT AFC
3rd -PT STEP AHEAD FIN.
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT EVIN
2nd - PT CORNERSTONE
3rd - PT COVENANT F.C
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT CBE – MBEYA CAMPUS
2nd - PT BCC F.C
3rd - PT MU- MBEYA CAMPUS
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PTXCEL
2nd - PT MU- MOROGORO
3rd - PT COVENANT F.C
FINAL LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT BETA
2nd - PT ACT F.C.
3rd - PT CORNERSTONE
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT EXCEL MOSHI

2nd - PT COVENANT F.C
3rd - PT VUGA EAGLE LTD
116
TABLE 11.1
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVEL AND INSTITUTION WISE
1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
No of No of No of No of
Institution Ente Absent Sat papers A % of A B % of B C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking
red
1 0 1 1
TANZANIA 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2.00 1
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
1 0 1 3
EDUCATION
0 0.0% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1.00 2
ACT FINANCIAL
3 1 2 4
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 2 50.0% 1 25.0% 1.00 2
ST.JOSEPH COMMERCIAL
4 0 4 11
SCHOOL
0 0.0% 1 9.1% 5 45.5% 5 45.5% 0.64 4
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE
5 0 5 6
OF ARUSHA
0 0.0% 1 16.7% 1 16.7% 4 66.7% 0.50 5
KAS INSTITUTE OF
5 0 5 17
PROFESSIONAL (T) LTD
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 7 41.2% 10 58.8% 0.41 6
CORNERSTONE
FINANCIAL 2 0 2 5
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 40.0% 3 60.0% 0.40 7
EXCEL FINANCIAL AND
2 0 2 5
TAX FOUNDATION
0 0.0% 1 20.0% 0 0.0% 4 80.0% 0.40 7
Subtotals 23 1 22 52 0 0.0% 6 11.5% 18 34.6% 28 53.8% 0.58
RANKING
1ST - PT BRIGHT PROFESSIONAL
2ND - PT CBE
- PT ACT F.C
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.
117
TABLE 11.1
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
No of % of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers No of A A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking
CONVENANT
17 0 17 30
FINANCIAL 0 0.0% 7 23.3% 9 30.0% 14 46.7% 0.77 1
CONSULTANTS
Subtotals 17 0 17 30 0 0.0% 7 23.3% 9 30.0% 14 46.7%
RANKING
1ST - PT COVENSNT F.C.
Key:
Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level?
118
TABLE 11.2

1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking
ATTITUDE FINANCIAL
1 0 1 2
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0 0.0% 1.50 1
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
2 0 2 3
CONSULTANCY
0 0.0% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1.00 2
ACT FINANCIAL
1 0 1 3
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 66.7% 1 33.3% 0.67 3
CORNERSTONE
FINANCIAL 5 0 5 8
CONSULTANTS 1 12.5% 0 0.0% 2 25.0% 5 62.5% 0.63 4
EXCEL FINANCIAL AND

4 0 4 6
TAX FOUNDATION
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 50.0% 3 50.0% 0.50 5
COMMERCIAL
5 0 5 8
COLLEGE OF ARUSHA 0 0.0% 1 12.5% 0 0.0% 7 87.5% 0.25 6
EVIN SCHOOL OF
1 0 1 4
MANAGEMENT
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 100.0% 0.00 7
WAME INVESTMENT 1 0 1 1
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 7
KAS INSTITUTE OF
PROFESSIONAL (T) 3 0 3 4
LTD 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 100.0% 0.00 7
Subtotals 23 0 23 39 1 2.6% 3 7.7% 9 23.1% 26 66.7%
RANKING
1ST - PT ATTITUDE F.C
2ND - PT FILADEFIA F.C.
3RD - PT ACT F.C.
Key:
119
TABLE 11.2 (b)
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
No of
CONVENANT
FINANCIAL 30 0 30 94
CONSULTANTS
1 1.1% 25 26.6% 27 28.7% 41 43.6% 0.85 1
PAC ARUSHA 6 0 6 13
0 0.0% 2 15.4% 2 15.4% 9 69.2% 0.46 2
Subtotals 36 0 36 107 1 0.9% 27 25.2% 29 27.1% 50 46.7%
RANKING
1ST - PT COVENANT F.C
2ND - PT PAC ARUSHA
Key:
120
TABLE 11.3 (a)
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS

1- 20 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
No of No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat No of papers No of A % of A B % of B No of C % of C F % of F GPA Ranking
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY DAR
2 0 2 8
ES SALAAM CAMPUS 1 12.5% 1 12.5% 4 50.0% 2 25.0% 1.13 1
THE ACCOUNTANT
6 0 6 11
FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS
1 9.1% 3 27.3% 3 27.3% 4 36.4% 1.09 2
6 0 6 24
CONSULTANTS 1 4.2% 6 25.0% 11 45.8% 6 25.0% 1.08 3
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY-
MBEYA CAMPUS 1 0 1 3
COLLEGE 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1.00 4
TABORA GENERAL
1 0 1 5
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 1 20.0% 3 60.0% 1 20.0% 1.00 4
2 0 2 3
TANZANIA
0 0.0% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1 33.3% 1.00 4
ZANZIBAR
INTERLLECTUAL
2 0 2 4
&BUSINESS
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 2 50.0% 1 25.0% 1.00 4
ZENJI REVIEW CLASS AND
2 0 2 2
CONSULTANCY
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 4
ACT FINANCIAL
8 0 8 19
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 6 31.6% 7 36.8% 6 31.6% 1.00 4
CFC ONLINE TRAINING
9 0 9 23
CENTRE 0 0.0% 5 21.7% 9 39.1% 9 39.1% 0.83 10
WEXITO CONSULTING 15
GROUP 17 2 44 0 0.0% 5 11.4% 22 50.0% 17 38.6% 0.73 11
ADONIJAH BUSINESS
2 0 2 7
CONSULTANCY LTD
0 0.0% 1 14.3% 3 42.9% 3 42.9% 0.71 12
KAS INSTITUTE OF
3 0 3 6
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 66.7% 2 33.3% 0.67 13
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
10 2 8 14
CONSULTANCY 0 0.0% 1 7.1% 7 50.0% 6 42.9% 0.64 14
IDIANA CONSULTANCY
AND CPA(T) REVIEW 2 0 2 5
CLASS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 60.0% 2 40.0% 0.60 15
121
No of No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat No of papers No of A % of A B % of B No of C % of C F % of F GPA Ranking
BCC FINANCIAL
7 0 7 10
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 1 10.0% 4 40.0% 5 50.0% 0.60 15
PAC ARUSHA 19 2 17 44
0 0.0% 5 11.4% 16 36.4% 23 52.3% 0.59 17
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE
1
OF ARUSHA 1 0 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 18
TANZANIA CENTRE FOR
CORPORATE 1 0 1 2
GOVERNANCE
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 18
STAR FINANCIAL
2 1 1 2
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 18
EXCEL FINANCIAL AND
6 0 16
TAX FOUNDATION 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 8 50.0% 8 50.0% 0.50 18
ATTITUDE FINANCIAL
2 0 2 5
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 1 20.0% 0 0.0% 4 80.0% 0.40 22
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
4 0 4 11
EDUCATION 0 0.0% 2 18.2% 0 0.0% 9 81.8% 0.36 23
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
EDUCATION-MBEYA 1 1 0 0
CAMPUS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0.00 24
VUGA EAGLE CO.LTD 1 0 1 1
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 24
EMINENT FINANCIAL
3 1 2 3
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 100.0% 0.00 24
Subtotals 120 9 105 274 3 1.1% 41 15.0% 113 41.2% 117 42.7%
RANKING
1ST - PT MU- DAR CAMPUS

2nd - PT AFC
3RD - PT STEP AHEAD FIN.
Key:
122
TABLE 11.3 (b)
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS ABOVE 20

CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
No of
EVIN SCHOOL OF
26 2 24 44
MANAGEMENT
0 0.0% 10 22.7% 17 38.6% 17 38.6% 0.84 1
CORNERSTONE
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 11 19.0% 25 43.1% 22 37.9% 0.81 2
CONVENANT
FINANCIAL 150 7 143 336
CONSULTANTS
9 2.7% 50 14.9% 139 41.4% 138 41.1% 0.79 3
Subtotals 198 10 184 438 9 2.1% 71 16.2% 181 41.3% 177 40.4%
RANKING
1ST - PT EVIN
2ND - PT CORNERSTONE
3RD - PT COVENANT F.C
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
123
TABLE 11.4 (a)
1-20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
No of
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
EDUCATION-MBEYA 1 0 1 1
CAMPUS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 1
BCC FINANCIAL
15 0 15 29
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 2 6.9% 14 48.3% 13 44.8% 0.62 2
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY-
5 1 4 10
MBEYA CAMPUS COLLEGE
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 60.0% 4 40.0% 0.60 3
DSM CPA REVIEW CENTER 4 1 3 7
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 57.1% 3 42.9% 0.57 4
ZANZIBAR
INTERLLECTUAL 6 1 5 7
&BUSINESS CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 1 14.3% 2 28.6% 4 57.1% 0.57 4
WADE-THROUGH
1 0 1 2
FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 6
TANZANIA CENTRE FOR
6 0 6 13
CORPORATE GOVERNANCE 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 46.2% 7 53.8% 0.46 7
TCCG DODOMA 5 0 5 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 40.0% 3 60.0% 0.40 8
WAME INVESTMENT 1 0 1 6
0 0.0% 1 16.7% 0 0.0% 5 83.3% 0.33 9
TABORA GENERAL
2 0 2 3
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 2 66.7% 0.33 9
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY DAR
3 1 2 3
ES SALAAM CAMPUS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 2 66.7% 0.33 9
IDIANA CONSULTANCY
7 1 6 12
AND CPA(T) REVIEW CLASS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 33.3% 8 66.7% 0.33 9
19 0 19 37
TANZANIA 0 0.0% 1 2.7% 10 27.0% 26 70.3% 0.32 13
ADONIJAH BUSINESS
10 1 9 17
CONSULTANCY LTD 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 29.4% 12 70.6% 0.29 14
ACT FINANCIAL
16 1 15 30
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 8 26.7% 22 73.3% 0.27 15
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE OF
3 0 3 5
ARUSHA
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 20.0% 4 80.0% 0.20 16
124
No of
ATTITUDE FINANCIAL
7 0 7 16
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 12.5% 14 87.5% 0.13 17
INSTITUTE OF
1 0 1 1
ACCOUNTANCY ARUSHA
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 18
ST.JOSEPH COMMERCIAL
1 0 1 1
SCHOOL 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 18
KAS INSTITUTE OF
2 0 2 4
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 100.0% 0.00 18
Subtotals 115 7 108 209 0 0.0% 5 2.4% 68 32.5% 136 65.1%
RANKING
1ST - PT CBE – MBEYA CAMPUS

2ND - PT BBC F.C
3RD - PT MU- MBEYA CAMPUS
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
125
TABLE 11.4 (b)
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
No of No of % of No of % of No of % of No of % of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers A A B B C C F F GPA Ranking
EXCEL FINANCIAL AND TAX
38 2 36 78
FOUNDATION 1 1.3% 3 3.8% 44 56.4% 30 38.5% 0.68 1
MZUMBE UNIVERSITY 38 1 37 188

0 0.0% 6 3.2% 97 51.6% 85 45.2% 0.58 2
CONVENANT FINANCIAL
587 29 558 1318
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 74 5.6% 601 45.6% 643 48.8% 0.57 3
PAC ARUSHA 87 4 83 175 0 0.0% 7 4.0% 81 46.3% 87 49.7% 0.54 4
EVIN SCHOOL OF
276 17 259 490
MANAGEMENT 0 0.0% 24 4.9% 200 40.8% 266 54.3% 0.51 5
WEXITO CONSULTING GROUP 73 2 71 146
0 0.0% 4 2.7% 60 41.1% 82 56.2% 0.47 6
CORNERSTONE FINANCIAL
50 5 45 96
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 2 2.1% 38 39.6% 56 58.3% 0.44 7
UPTAKE BUSINESS
61 4 57 105
RESOURCES(T) LTD 0 0.0% 1 1.0% 43 41.0% 61 58.1% 0.43 8

0 0.0% 2 2.3% 32 37.2% 52 60.5% 0.42 9
65 3 62 133
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 2 1.5% 51 38.3% 80 60.2% 0.41 10
31 0 31 49
CONSULTANCY 0 0.0% 1 2.0% 18 36.7% 30 61.2% 0.41 11
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
21 2 19 30
EDUCATION 0 0.0% 2 6.7% 7 23.3% 21 70.0% 0.37 12
EMINENT FINANCIAL
85 5 80 140
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 2 1.4% 47 33.6% 91 65.0% 0.36 13
CFC ONLINE TRAINING
62 7 55 91
CENTRE
0 0.0% 2 2.2% 29 31.9% 60 65.9% 0.36 14
THE ACCOUNTANT
64 6 58 106
FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 2 1.9% 33 31.1% 71 67.0% 0.35 15
126
No of No of % of No of % of No of % of No of % of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers A A B B C C F F GPA Ranking
STAR FINANCIAL
28 1 27 47
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 1 2.1% 10 21.3% 36 76.6% 0.26 16
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
22 0 22 36
CONSULTANCY 0 0.0% 1 2.8% 6 16.7% 29 80.6% 0.22 17
Subtotals 1643 91 1552 3314 1 0.0% 136 4.1% 1397 42.2% 1780 53.7%
RANKING
1ST - PT EXCEL
2ND - PT MU- MOROGORO CAMPUS
3RD - COVENANT F.C.
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted(∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
127
TABLE 11.4 (a)
1-20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
No of
BETA BUSINESS
1 0 1 1
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 1
ACT FINANCIAL
3 0 3 5
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 80.0% 1 20.0% 0.80 2
CORNERSTONE FINANCIAL
19 2 17 35
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 3 8.6% 21 60.0% 11 31.4% 0.77 3
COMMERCIAL COLLEGE
2 0 2 3
OF ARUSHA
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 66.7% 1 33.3% 0.67 4
4 0 4 6
TANZANIA 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 66.7% 2 33.3% 0.67 4
DSM CPA REVIEW CENTER 4 0 4 6
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 66.7% 2 33.3% 0.67 4
BCC FINANCIAL
12 0 12 24
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 1 4.2% 14 58.3% 9 37.5% 0.67 4
IDIANA CONSULTANCY
AND CPA(T) REVIEW 4 0 4 6
CLASS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 50.0% 3 50.0% 0.50 8
17 0 17 29
CONSULTANCY
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 13 44.8% 16 55.2% 0.45 9
COLLEGE OF BUSINESS
17 2 15 25
EDUCATION 0 0.0% 1 4.0% 7 28.0% 17 68.0% 0.36 10
FILADEFIA FINANCIAL
12 0 12 17
CONSULTANCY
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 35.3% 11 64.7% 0.35 11
ADONIJAH BUSINESS
7 0 7 9
CONSULTANCY LTD
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 33.3% 6 66.7% 0.33 12
ATTITUDE FINANCIAL
3 0 3 4
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0.25 13
TABORA GENERAL
1 0 1 1
CONSULTANTS 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 14
128
No of
ZANZIBAR
INTERLLECTUAL
2 1 1 2
&BUSINESS
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 14
Subtotals 108 5 103 173 0 0 5 2.9% 83 48.0% 85 49.1%
RANKING
1ST - P T BETA
2ND - PT ACT F.C
2RD - PT CORNERSTONE
Key:
129
TABLE 11.5 (b)
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
No of
EXCEL FINANCIAL
21 0 21 36
AND TAX FOUNDATION
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 26 72.2% 10 27.8% 0.72 1
CONVENANT
FINANCIAL 342 12 330 595
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 25 4.2% 286 48.1% 284 47.7% 0.56 2

0 0.0% 0 0.0% 24 55.8% 19 44.2% 0.56 3
PAC ARUSHA 47 0 47 71
0 0.0% 1 1.4% 37 52.1% 33 46.5% 0.55 4
STEP AHEAD
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 3 3.8% 37 46.3% 40 50.0% 0.54 5
EVIN SCHOOL OF
278 6 272 435
MANAGEMENT
0 0.0% 8 1.8% 207 47.6% 220 50.6% 0.51 6
WEXITO CONSULTING
42 0 42 87
GROUP
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 43 49.4% 44 50.6% 0.49 7
CFC ONLINE TRAINING
60 3 57 95
CENTRE
0 0.0% 1 1.1% 40 42.1% 54 56.8% 0.44 8
THE ACCOUNTANT
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 1 1.2% 34 40.5% 49 58.3% 0.43 9
UPTAKE BUSINESS
37 2 35 53
RESOURCES(T) LTD 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 22 41.5% 31 58.5% 0.42 10
EMINENT FINANCIAL
70 1 69 94
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 35 37.2% 59 62.8% 0.37 11
STAR FINANCIAL
24 0 24 38
CONSULTANTS
0 0.0% 0 0.0% 10 26.3% 28 73.7% 0.26 12
Subtotals 1051 27 1024 1711 0 0.0% 39 2.3% 801 46.8% 871 50.9%
130
RANKING
1ST - PT EXCEL MOSHI

2ND - PT COVENANT F.C
3RD - PT VUGA EAGLE LTD
Key:
131
CHAPTER V
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER CREATED BY THE BOARD UP TO NOVEMBER 2020
In an effort to meet the demand of the highly needed accounting personnel in the
country, the Board has been able to create cumulatively 24,812 accounting manpower
since its inception in May 1975.
These qualified accounting personnel created are categorized in the
following groups:
(1) Certified Public Accountants CPA (T) 10,498

(2) Certified Public Accountants CPA (T) Equivalent 210
(3 National Accountancy Diploma (NAD)
(Phased out in November 1991) 1,537
(4) National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE)
(phased out in May 1991) 5,746
(5) Basic Book-keeping Certificate (BBC)
(phased out in November 1990) 2,971
(6) Accounting Technician Certificate (ATEC) 4,035
Table 12 below shows the statistics of graduates per session and cumulatively since May 1975 to
November 2020
TABLE 12
TABE 4: NBAA GRADUATES – CUMULATIVE STATISTICAL ANALYSIS
MAY 1975 TO NOVEMBER 2020
EXAMINATION BBC NABOCE ATEC NAD CPA CPA (T) TOTAL

SESSION EQUIVALE
NT
NO. CUM NO. CUM NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. - - NO. CUM.
. .
1ST SESSION - - 04 04 - - 01 01 NE NE - - 05 05
MAY 1975
NOV 1975 – MAY 18,438 18443
2013
78th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 36 3434 - 1537 377 5,168 - - 413 18,856
NOV. 2013
79th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 46 3480 - 1537 478 5,646 - - 524 19,380
MAY 2014
80th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 43 3523 - 1537 369 6,015 01 01 413 19,793
NOV. 2014
81st SESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 3565 - 1537 600 6,615 08 09 650 20,443
MAY 2015
132
1st Mid-SESSION - 2971 - 5746 - 3565 - 1537 03 6,618 04 13 07 20,450
AUGUST 2015
82nd SESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 3607 - 1537 270 6,888 03 16 315 20,765
MAY 2016
2ND MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3607 - 1537 01 6,889 07 23 08 20,773
SESSION
FEBRUARY 2016
83rd SESSION - 2971 - 5746 40 3647 - 1537 282 7,171 11 34 333 21,106
MAY 2016
3RD MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3647 - 1537 06 7,177 05 39 11 21,117
SESSION
AUGUST 2016
84TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 49 3,696 - 1537 420 7,597 19 58 488 21,605
NOVEMBER 2016
4TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,696 - 1537 - 7,597 05 63 05 21,610
SESSION
FEBRUARY 2017
85TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 65 3,761 - 1537 410 8,007 17 80 492 22,102
MAY 2017
5TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,761 - 1537 02 8,009 04 84 06 22,108
SESSION
AUGUST 2017
86TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 39 3,800 - 1537 450 8,459 20 104 509 22,617
NOVEMBER 2017
6TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,800 - 1537 - 8,459 04 108 04 22,621
SESSION
FEBRUARY 2018
90thSESSSION - 2971 - 5746 28 3,828 - 1537 63 8,522 15 123 106 22,727
MAY 2018
7TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,828 - 1537 03 8,525 04 127 07 22,734
SESSION
AUGUST 2018
88TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 63 3,891 - 1537 371 8,896 17 144 451 23,185
NOVEMBER 2018
8TH MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3,891 - 1537 02 8,898 01 145 03 23,188
SESSION
FEBRUARY 2019
89TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 49 3,940 - 1537 433 9,525 20 165 502 23,690
MAY 2019
9TH MID-SESSION - 2971 - 5746 - 3,940 - 1537 10 9,535 09 165 19 23,709
AUGUST 2019
90TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 53 3,993 - 1537 325 9,860 17 182 395 24,104
NOVEMBER 2019
10TH MID-SESSION - 2971 - 5746 53 3,993 - 1537 41 9,901 03 185 44 24,148
FEBRUARY 2020
91ST SESSION MAY - 2971 - 5746 28 4,021 - 1537 354 10,255 16 201 398 24,546
(AUGUST)2020
92ND SESSION -
NOVEMBER 2020 2971 5746 14 4,035 - 1537 243 10,498 09 210 266 24,812
Note: (An extract from May 1975 to November 2020
133
CHAPTER VI
CANDIDATES WINNING THE SPECIAL PRIZES – NOVEMBER 2020 EXAMINATION SESSION
1.0 PRIZES OFFERED BY NBAA

NBAA offers prizes in the following categories:
1.0.1 Best Level Performance Prize
1.0.2 Single Subject Prize
1.0.3 Best Female Prizes
1.1 Minimum Requirement to Win the Prize

In order to win any of the above prizes offered by NBAA, the minimum requirement is for a candidate to obtain an
overall pass in a level, having attempted whole set of subjects in that level and passing at a single examination attempt.
1.2 Amount offered in each Examination level:

1.2.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize
This prize is awarded to the best candidate who completes an examination level in the first attempt and scores
highest marks in aggregate in that level.
Examination Level Exam Paper Amounts

Codes Tshs.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 100,000
Foundation Level A1 – A6 120,000
Intermediate Level B1 – B6 160,000
Final Level C1 – C4 200,000
1.2.2 Single Subject Prize (Subject to Subject) Performance Prize

The prize is awarded to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by attaining at least a credit mark –
70% or above in the Accounting Technician Examination Scheme, 60% or above in the Professional
Examination Scheme.

Codes Tshs.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 80,000
Final Level C1 – C4 140,000
134
1.2.3 Best Female Prizes
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and perform better in the Board’s
examination, two categories of prizes are offered to female candidates as follows:
1.2.3.1 Best Level Female Performance Prize:

This prize is offered to a female candidate as long as the score in aggregate in a level is 70% and above in
ATEC examinations and 60% and above in professional examinations.

Codes Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level I T01 – T04 100,000
Accounting Technician Level II T05 – T08 100,000
Final Stage Level C1 – C4 200,000
1.2.3.2 Best Female Graduate Prize:

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is offered to the female candidate
who scores highest marks in aggregate among female candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).

Codes Tshs.
Best ATEC Female Graduate Prize Award T05 – T08 500,000
Best CPA (T) Female Graduate Prize Award C1 – C4 1,000,000
135
1.3 Prizes won by Candidates:
1.3.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize:
Code and Subject Name Name CR No. Amount

Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level I LEONARD MSUYA 135254 100,000
Accounting Technician Level II HAPPYINESS MASSAWE 236280 100,000
Foundation Level MIRAJI COLMAN 334962 120,000
Intermediate Level JERRY PASAPE 436330 160,000
Final Level JOAN TEMU 532657 200,000
1.3.2 Subject to Subject Performance Prize

The prize is offered to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by attaining at least a credit mark -
70% or above in Technician Examination Scheme or 60% or above in professional examination scheme.
The following candidates qualify for the prizes in each examination layer:
Accounting Technician Level I

Tshs.
T.01 – Bookkeeping and Accounts No Candidate qualified for the 80,000
Award
T.02 – Elements of Business Maths BEATUS NSIMBA 136279 80,000
and Statistics
T.03 – Introduction to Information LEONARD MSUYA 135254 80,000
and Communication Technology
T.04 – Business Communication Skills No Candidate qualified for the 80,000
Award
Accounting Technician Level II

Tshs.
T.05 – Principles of Accounting and No Candidate qualified for the 80,000
Auditing Award
T.06 – Principles of Cost Accounting No Candidate qualified for the 80,000
and Procurement Award
T.07 – Elements of Commercial HAPPYINESS MASSAWE 236280 80,000
Knowledge and Taxation
T.08 – Accounting for Public No Candidate qualified for the 80,000
Sector and Cooperatives Award
*Score Equal marks
136
FOUNDATION LEVEL
Tshs.
A1 – Quantitative Techniques NOLA MATOLO 336304 100,000
A2 – Business and Management SAIDI BRAMBATH 335631 100,000
A3 – Financial Accounting No Candidate qualified for the 100,000

Award
A4 – Cost Accounting MIRAJI COLMAN 334962 100,000
A5 – Business Law NOLA MATOLO 336304 100,000
A6 – Business Economics IRENE BRIGHTONE 335611 100,000
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
Tshs.
B1 – Financial Management No Candidate qualified for the 120,000
Award
B2 – Financial Reporting No Candidate qualified for the 120,000
Award
B3 – Auditing Principles and No Candidate qualified for the 120,000
Practice Award
B4 – Public Finance and Taxation JULIETH KIIZA 436336 120,000
B5 – Performance Management No Candidate qualified for the 120,000

Award
B6 – Management, Governance JERRY PASAPE 436330 120,000
and Ethics
FINAL LEVEL
Tshs.
C1 – Corporate Reporting No Candidate qualified for the 140,000
Award
C2 – Auditing and Assurance Services No Candidate qualified for the 140,000
Award
C3 –Business and Corporate No Candidate qualified for the 140,000
Finance Award
C4 – Advanced Taxation JOAN TEMU 532657 140,000
137
1.3.3 NBAA Best Female Prizes:
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and perform better in the Board’s
examinations, two categories of prizes shall be offered to female candidates.
1.3.3.1 NBAA Female Prizes:

This prize shall be offered to a female candidate as long as the score in aggregate in a level is 70% and
above in ATEC examinations and 60% and above in professional examinations.

Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level I AISHA SUPHIANI 136487 100,000
Accounting Technician Level II HAPPYINESS MASSAWE 236280 100,000
Foundation Level NOLA MATOLO 336304 120,000
Intermediate Level JULIETH KIIZA 436336 160,000
Final Level JOAN TEMU 532657 200,000
1.3.3.2 NBAA Best Graduate Female Prizes

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is to be offered to the female candidates who
scores highest marks in aggregate among female candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).
The following female candidates qualify for the award:
Level Name CR No. Amount

Tshs.
ATEC GRADUATE HAPPYINESS MASSAWE 236280 500,000
CPA (T) GRADUATE JOAN TEMU 532657 1,000,000
138
2.0 PRIZES FROM SPONSORING INSTITUTIONS
In support of the Board’s effort to improve candidates’ examination performance a number of professional progressive
institutions have willingly offered different prizes for the best performers.
The names of organizations and amounts offered in each examination session are indicated hereunder:
1 PricewaterhouseCoopers Prizes:
1.1 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.600,000
1.2 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.1,000,000
1.3 Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Tshs.500,000
2 Tanna Sreekumar Grant Thornton Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.400,000
3 STANBIC Tanzania Ltd Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100
4 TAC Associates Prize: Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.200,000
5 A.I Khatri & Company Prize: Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.200,000
6 Ernst & Young Prize:
6.1 Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.300,000
6.2 Best CPA (T) Graduate Overall Prize Tshs.100,000
6.3 Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.100,000
7 IPP Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.200,000

8 Tax Plan Associates Prize: Best Advanced Taxation (C4) Prize Tshs.500,000
9 TIB Development Bank Ltd: International Finance Prizes
1st TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.500,000,
2nd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.350,000
3rd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize &
Tshs.200,000
10 Dar Es Salaam Stock Exchange Prize:
Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.150,000
11 Deloitte &Touche Prize: Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000
12 Capital Markets and Securities Authority Prize: Best Financial Management (B1) Tshs.500,000
Prize
13 KPMG Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100
14 Accountant General’s Office Prizes:
14.1 Best CPA (T) Graduate Overall Prize Tshs.800,000
14.2 Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000
14.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize Tshs.500,000
14.4 Best Core Subject Prizes:
14.4.1 Financial Accounting (A3) Prize Tshs.30,000
14.4.2 Cost Accounting (A4) Prize Tshs.30,000
14.4.3 Financial Management (B1) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.4 Financial Reporting (B2) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.5 Auditing Principles and Practice (B3) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.6 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.100,000
14.4.7 Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.100,000
14.4.8 Advanced Taxation (C4) Prize Tshs.100,000
15 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser Prize:

15.1 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best Performance Offer of
Management (B5) Prize Employment
15.2 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best Advanced Taxation (C4) Offer of
Prize Employment
16 Innovex Prizes:
16.1 Innovex Best CPA(T) Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000
16.2 Innovex Best CPA(T) Female Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000
139
17 Controller and Auditor General’s Office Prizes
17.1 CAG: Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) Prize Tshs.1,000,000
17.2 CAG: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000
18 Peoples Bank of Zanzibar Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000
19 TAA Best Candidates’ Prizes
19.1 TAA Best Two ATEC Candidates Prizes Tshs.100,000
19.2 TAA Best Two CPA (T) Candidates Prizes Tshs.200,000
20 RSM EASTERN AFRICA Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000 &
Employment
21 Watumishi Housing Company Prize
21.1 Overall Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize 100,000
21.2 Best Financial Management (B1) Prize 100,000
21.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize 200,000
21.4 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize 200,000
22 Tanzania Association of Women Certified Accountants Prize

22.1 TAWCA: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate 100,000
23 Green Mark International Prizes

23.1 GMI: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize 100,000
24 MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES PRIZE

24.1 MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Auditing And Assurance Services (C2) Prize 300,000 &
Employment
24.2 MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: BEST CPA (T) Graduate Prize 400,000 &
Employment
24.3 MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize 300,000 &
Employment
25 Bakhresa Group Prize
25.1 Bakhresa Group: Best Level Accounting Technician II Prize 200,000
26 The Hanif and Nooreen Habib Prize Award:

26.1 The Hanif and Nooreen Habib Prize Award: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize 555,000
27 BAKERTILLY TANZANIA PRIZE

27.1 BAKERTILLY TANZANIA 500,000 &
PRIZE: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize Employment
140
1. PRICEWATERHOUSECOOPERS PRIZES
Name of Prize Name of Winner CR No. Amount
PWC: Auditing and Assurance No Candidate qualified for the Award 600,000
Services (C2) Prize
PWC: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 1,000,000
PWC: Best Female CPA (T) JOAN TEMU 532657 500,000

Graduate
2. TANNA SREEKUMAR GRANT THORNTON: PRIZES

Tanna Sreekumar Grant JOAN TEMU 532657 400,000
Thornton: Best CPA (T) Graduate
Prize
3. STANBIC TANZANIA LIMITED PRIZES

STANBIC TANZANIA JOAN TEMU 532657
LIMITED: Best CPA [T] Graduate US$ 100
Prize
4. TAC ASSOCIATES PRIZES

TAC ASSOCIATES: Auditing No Candidate qualified for the Award 200,000
and Assurance Services (C2) Prize
5. KHATRI AND COMPANY PRIZES

KHATRI AND COMPANY
FINANCIAL: Corporate Reporting No Candidate qualified for the Award 200,000
(C1)
6. ERNST & YOUNG PRIZES

ERNST & YOUNG: Auditing and No Candidate qualified for the Award
Assurance Services (C2) PRIZE 300,000
ERNST & YOUNG: Best CPA (T) JOAN TEMU 532657
Graduate Prize 100,000
ERNST & YOUNG: Best CPA (T) JOAN TEMU 532657
Female GRADUATE PRIZE 100,000
7. IPP BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZES

IPP: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 200,000
8. TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES PRIZES

TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES: JOAN TEMU 532657 500,000
Advanced Taxation (C4) Prize
141
9. TIB DEVELOPMENT BANK LTD PRIZES
TIB Development Bank Ltd:
Business and Corporate Finance (C3) 1ST No Candidate qualified for the 500,000
Prize Award
22ND No Candidate qualified for the 350,000

Award
3RD No Candidate qualified for the 200,000
Award
10. DAR ES SALAAM STOCK EXCHANGE PRIZES

DSE: Business and Corporate No Candidate qualified for the Award 150,000
Finance (C3) Prize
11. DELOITTE & TOUCHE PRIZES

DELOITTE & TOUCHE: No Candidate qualified for the Award 500,000
Auditing and Assurance Services
(C2) Prize
12. CAPITAL MARKETS AND SECURITIES AUTHORITY PRIZES

CMSA: Best Financial No Candidate qualified for the Award 500,000
Management (B1) Prize
13. KPMG PRIZES

KPMG: Best CPA (T) JOAN TEMU 532657 US$100
Graduate Prize
142
14. ACCOUNTANT GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES
The Office of the Accountant General offers special prize awards to candidates with excellent performance in the
Board’s examinations. The awards worth Tshs.2, 440,000 are offered in each examination session.
The conditions of winning the prizes are:
A candidate must obtain an overall pass at a single sitting in the first examination attempt and must score a credit pass
(60%) or above either overall, or in the subject be awarded a prize in the professional examinations as the case may be.
Candidates winning the prizes for the November 2018 examinations are as shown below:

AG’S: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 800,000
AG’S: Auditing and Assurance Services No Candidate qualified for the 500,000
(C2) Prize Award
AG’S: Best Performance Management (B5) No Candidate qualified for the 500,000
Prize Award
AG’S BEST CORE SUBJECT PERFORMANCE PRIZES

AG’S: Financial Accounting (A3) Prize No Candidate qualified for the 30,000
Award
AG’S: Cost Accounting (A4) Prize MIRAJI COLMAN 334962 30,000
AG’S: Financial Management (B1) Prize No Candidate qualified for the 50,000
Award
AG’S: Financial Reporting (B2) Prize No Candidate qualified for the 50,000
Award
AG’S: Auditing Principles and Practice No Candidate qualified for the 50,000
(B3) Prize Award
AG’S: Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize No Candidate qualified for the 100,000
Award
AG’S: Business and Corporate Finance No Candidate qualified for the 100,000
(C3) Prize Award
AG’S: Advanced Taxation (C4) Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 100,000
15. NEXIA SJ TANZANIA ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS ADVISERS PRIZES:

NEXIA SJ TANZANIA: Best Performance No Candidate qualified for the Employment
Management (B5) Prize Award
NEXIA SJ TANZANIA: Advanced Taxation JOAN TEMU 532657 Employment
(C4) Prize
16. INNOVEX PRIZES

INNOVEX: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 150,000
INNOVEX: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate JOAN TEMU 532657 150,000
Prize
17. CONTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES

CAG: Auditing and Assurance Services (C2) No Candidate qualified for the 1,000,000
Prize Award
CAG: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 500,000
143
18. PEOPLE’S BANK OF ZANZIBAR PRIZE
PBZ: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 500,000
19. TANZANIA ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANTS PRIZES

Name of Winner CR No. Amount
TAA: Best Two ATEC Candidate Prize HAPPYINESS MASSAWE 236280 50,000
ELVIN JULIUS 234741 50,000
TAA: Best Two CPA (T) Candidate Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 100,000
NENGILANG'ET LOVILILO 534787 100,000
20. RSM EASTERN AFRICA PRIZES

RSM Eastern Africa: Best CPA (T) Graduate JOAN TEMU 532657 500,000 &
Prize Employment
21. WATUMISHI HOUSING COMPANY PRIZE

WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: Overall Best HAPPYINESS MASSAWE 236280 100,000
Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: Best Financial No Candidate qualified for the 100,000
Management (B1) Prize Award
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: No Candidate qualified for the 200,000
Best Performance Management (B5) Prize Award
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: No Candidate qualified for the 200,000
Best corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Award
22. TANZANIA ASSOCIATION OF WOMEN CERTIFIED ACCOUNTANTS PRIZE

TAWCA: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate JOAN TEMU 532657 100,000
23. GREEN MARK INTERNATIONAL PRIZES

GMI: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 100,000
144
24. MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES PRIZE
Tshs.
MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Auditing No Candidate qualified for the 300,000 &
And Assurance Services (C2) Prize Award Employment
MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Best JOAN TEMU 532657 200,000 &

CPA (T) Graduate Prize Employment
MAZARS WISCON ASSOCIATES: Best JOAN TEMU 532657 300,000 &

Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize Employment
25. BAKHRESA GROUP PRIZE

Bakhresa Group: Best Level Accounting HAPPYINESS MASSAWE 236280 200,000
Technician II Prize
26. THE HANIF AND NOOREEN HABIB PRIZE AWARD

The Hanif and Nooreen Habib Prize JOAN TEMU 532657 555,000
Award: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize
27. BAKERTILLY TANZANIA PRIZE

BAKERTILLY TANZANIA JOAN TEMU 532657 500,000 &
PRIZE: Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Prize Employment
____________________
145

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(NBAA)

THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS

EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT

92ND EXAMINATION SESSION – NOVEMBER 2020

NBAA, Telephones: +255 26 2660170-4

23RD DECEMBER 2020

Executive Summary of 92nd Examination session ………………….. (vii)

CHAPTER 1 Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 92nd Examination Session 1

CHAPTER II Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise …………………................. 4

CHAPTER III Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………. 101

CHAPTER IV Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………. 111

CHAPTER V Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to November 2020 132

Accounting Technician Level II

In total, the Professional Examination Scheme has 16 subjects as shown hereunder:

Foundation (Knowledge and Skills Level)

Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level)

Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level)

CPA Pius A. Maneno

EXAMINATION CANDIDAT CANDIDATES % CANDIDATES %

ATEC I: 48 02 4.2 46 95.8

Foundation 431 35 8.1 396 91.9

2.1 Candidature Exam Sitting

EXAMINATION ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

84th Session November 2016 84 158 405 3,522 2,113 6,282

87th Session May 2018 61 98 370 1824 1238 3,591

88th November 2018 113 212 621 3197 2,040 6,183

89th May 2019 102 190 696 3,276 1,971 6,235

90th November 2019 85 173 688 3,310 1,923 6,179

91st May (August) 2020 84 162 722 3,721 2,245 6,934

92nd November 2020 46 92 396 2,132 1,477 4,143

GRAPHICAL PRESENTATION OF THE BOARD’S OVERALL EXAMINATION

Candidate Distribution - November 2020

ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL

Table 2 (i) shows pass rates in November 2020 examination session

Table 2 (ii) shows number of candidates with foreign CPA – equivalent

Subject Number of entries

ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION LEVEL INTERMEDIATE LEVEL FINAL LEVEL

No % No % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. % NO. % No % NO. %

ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE

OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II

CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATE OF

GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSISOFEXAMINATIONRESULTS

EXAMINATION ATECI ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

NO. % NO. % NO % NO. % NO % NO. %

ABSENTEES 02 4.2 01 1.1 35 8.1 229 9.7 82 5.3 349 7.8

T.01 Bookkeeping and Accounts

T.01 - BOOK-KEEPING AND ACCOUNTS

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 23

There were no major weaknesses noted in this question.

QUESTION 2: RECORD AND POST ACCOUNTING

Candidates were required to:

Majority of candidates demonstrated weakness in posting entries in

QUESTION 3: CASH BOOKS AND PETTY CASH

Candidates were required to: