Done by: Hajer Alhajri

Good luck everybody 

A multiple antibody problem was resolved using enzyme. One of the antibody reactions was
eliminated after treatment. Which of the following antibodies was probably present?

a) Anti-c
b) Anti-I
c) Anti-Jka
d) Anti-Fya

Monospecific AHG reagents:

a) Increase the dielectric constant in-vitro

b) Contain either anti-IgG or anti-C3d antibody specificities
c) Are not useful in identifying the molecule causing a positive DAT
d) Contain human IgG or complement molecule

Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous for the C antigen?

a) R1r
b) R2R2
c) R1R1
d) r’r’

Antigen typing on red cells should not be performed if the patient has been transfused within
the following:

a) 30 days
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 6 months

What reagent would be selected to detect the presence of unexpected red cell antibodies in a
patients serum sample?

a) A1 and B cells
b) Panel cells
c) IgG-sensitized cells
d) Screening cells

Antibodies to the Rh blood group system antigens are usually characterized as:

a) Naturally occurring IgM

b) Immune IgG
c) Immune IgM
d) Naturally occurring IgG and IgM
Group O red cells are used as a source for commercial screening cells because:

a) Anti-A detected using group O cells

b) Anti-D reacts with most group O cells
c) Weak subgroup of A react with group O cells
d) ABO antibodies do not react with group O cells

The term used when two of the same alleles of a gene are inherited from each parent is:

a) Homozygous
b) Allele
c) Heterozygous
d) Systemic

To determine the specificity of a red cell antigen in patient sample, what source of antibody is
selected?

a) Commercial reagent red cells

b) Commercial antisera
c) Patient serum
d) Patient plasma

The removal of an antibody from serum or plasma using the individuals own red cells is:

a) Autoadsorption
b) Differential adsorption
c) Neutralization
d) Elution

A patient who has a phenotype group AB, D-negative requires 1 unit of plasma. Which of the
following units of plasma would be best for transfusion?

a) Group A, D-negative
b) Group B, D-positive
c) Group AB, D-positive
d) Group O, D-negative

What reagents are derived from plant extracts?

a) Panel cells
b) Commercial anti-B
c) Lectins
d) Antiglobulin reagents
Part of the daily quality control in the blood bank laboratory is the testing of reagent antisera
with corresponding antigen-positive and antigen-negative red cells. What dose this procedure
ensures?

a) Antibody class
b) Antibody titer
c) Antibody specificity
d) Antibody sensitivity

To determine the presence of red cell antibody in a patient sample, what source of antigen is
selected?

a) Commercial reagent red cells

b) Commercial antisera
c) Patient serum
d) Patients red cells

An antibody was detected at the screen at 37 Celsius and did not react at the AHG phase. Which
of the following should be suspected?

a) Anti-s
b) Anti-e
c) Anti-N
d) Anti-Jka

What antibodies are present in polyspecific AHG reagent?

a) Anti-IgG
b) Anti-IgM and IgG
c) Anti-IgG anti anti-C3d
d) Anti-C3d

A DAT performed on a clotted sample stored at 4 degree may demonstrate:

a) In vivo complement attachment

b) In vivo IgG attachment
c) In vitro complement attachment
d) In vitro IgM attachment

Which of the following situations may produce ABO discrepancies in the serum testing?

a) Newborn
b) Patient with hypogammaglobulinemia
c) Cold alloantibody
d) All of the above
With which of the following red cell phenotypes would anti-Jka react most strongly?

a) Jk(a-b+)
b) Jk(a+b-)
c) Jk(a+b+)
d) Jk(a-b-)

Which lectin agglutinates A1 red cells?

a) Dolichos biflorus
b) Ulex europaeus
c) Dolichos europaeus
d) Ulex biflorus

A mothers titer has risen above the critical level and the father is unavailable for testing. The
MOST useful procedure to determine the antigen type of fetus is:

a) Family studies involving grandparents and siblings

b) Typing a cord specimen at the time of delivery
c) Cordocentesis
d) Aminocentesis

Which of the following tests is not necessary when testing a cord blood sample?

a) ABO
b) Rh
c) DAT
d) Antibody screen

Which of the following tests is the MOST useful in predicting ABO-HDN

a) Maternal ABO type

b) Paternal ABO type
c) Maternal antibody screen
d) None of the above

Which of the following antibodies is not associated with HDN?

a) Anti-Lea
b) Anti-A,B
c) Anti-Fya
d) Anti-kell

A mother in group A, D-negative with anti-D in her serum. Which of the following units should
be selected for an intrauterine transfusion?

a) Group O, D-negative
b) Group O, D-positive
c) Group A, D-negative
d) Gro+up A, D-positive
Which of the following would be the LEAST effective in the control of variables affecting the
results of titration procedures?

a) Use of commercial screen cells

b) Procedural control of incubation time/temperature
c) Repeating previous serum sample when the subsequent sample is tested
d) Using standard media and techniques

The appearance of spherocytes in a baby’s blood smear after delivery is usually associated with:

a) ABO HDFN
b) HDFN caused by anti-D
c) HDFN caused by other IgG antibodies
d) Normal physiologic anemia detected in newborns

If bio data regarding critical titer are available. Which of the following titer values is frequently
used as a cutoff?

a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 64

Select the most common antibody specificity associated with DAT positive cord sample:

a) Anti-A,B
b) Anti-C
c) Anti-D
d) Anti-K

A group A, D-negative mother demonstrating anti-D antibodies delivered a group O,D-negative

baby with a positive DAT(2+), elevated bilirubin (18mg/dl) and low hemoglobin (8 g/dl). Which is
the most probable explanation for these test results?

a) ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn

b) Hemolytic disease of the newborn with a false negative D typing due to blocking
antibodies
c) Large fetomaternal hemorrhage causing discrepancy in the blood type
d) Prenatal RhIG administration

The principal of the Kleihauer-Betke test is that:

a) Fetal hemoglobin resist acid elution

b) Adult hemoglobin resist acid elution
c) Fetal red cells lose hemoglobin under alkaline conditions
d) Adult red cells accept dye under alkaline conditions
The purpose of irradiated blood selected for an exchange transfusion is to prevent:

a) Formation of HLA antibodies

b) Sepsis from bacterial contamination
c) Graft versus host disease
d) Transmission of viruses

The pathophysiology of HDN is associated with both anemia and bilirubinemia. From a
treatment standpoint, which of the following statements is true regarding the clinical concerns
in these two periods?

a) Billirubinemia is of primary concern in the antenatal period, whereas anemia is of

primary concerns in the postpartum period
b) Anemia is of primary concerns in the antenatal period, whereas bilirubinemia is of
primary concern in the postpartum period

In HDN bilirubin levels are generally normal at birth but but begin to elevate during the first few
hours after delivery. Which of the following statements BEST explains the reason for this clinical
feature?

a) The newborn experience rapid red cell destruction

b) Newborn antibody titers continue to rise
c) Newborns are deficient in glucuronyl transferase

An A-positive mother with anti-Kell (K1) gives birth to a B-negative, Kell(K1) positive infant with
HDN. The physician requests blood for exchange transfusion. Which of the following is MOST
suitable?

a) A-negative, Kell negative blood

b) O-negative, Kell positive blood
c) B-negative, Kell negative blood
d) O-negative, Kell negative blood

Rh immunoglobulin (RhIG) is:

a) Effective in preventing HDN from any Rh system antibody

b) An IV injection of anti-human globulin
c) Gamma globulin containing anti-D
d) Given at delivery only

Objectives for performing an exchange transfusion include all of the following expect to:

a) Decrease the level of maternal antibody

b) Reduce the level of indirect bilirubin
c) Provide platelets to prevent disseminated intravascular coagulation
d) Provide compatible RBCs to correct anemia
 Which of the following tests is required only if other than group O blood is selected for
exchange transfusion?

a) Maternal antibody identification

b) Hemoglobin S screen on donor unit
c) Testing infants serum for Anti-A and anti-B using antiglobulin test
d) ABO and Rh type of the infant

Which of the following antibodies carries no risk for HDFN?

a) Anti-Lea
b) Anti-C
c) Anti-K
d) Anti-S

What are the two components of the major crossmatch?

a) Recipient red blood cells and donor serum

b) Donor red blood cells and recipient serum
c) Reverse cells and recipient serum
d) Screening cells and donor serum

Which of the following drug is associated with the drug adsorption (drug-dependent)
mechanism in drug-induced immune hemolysis?

a) Penicillin
b) Methyldopa
c) Quinine
d) Acetaminophen

Which of the following are the purposes of using IgG coated ‘’check cells’’ in indirect antiglobulin
testing?

a) To ensure that the crossmatch is incompatible

b) To ensure that serum proteins were effectively washed of the tests RBCs
c) To ensure that test IgG was added to the test tubes
d) Both B and C

The following statement about cold agglutinin syndrome is true:

a) Blood samples can auto agglutinate at room temperature

b) Can be induced by mycoplasma pneumoniae infection
c) Involves mostly IgG antibodies
d) Autoantibodies mainly directed against the Rh blood group antigens
Sensitization of the mothers immune system to the fetus RBCs stimulates the production of the
immunoglobulin……….that is transplacentally transferred to the fetus

a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgD

Which of the following is true for paroxysmal cold hemoglobinria(PCH):

a) The autoantibody is usually IgM

b) The antibody is biphasic
c) The antibody usually has broad Rh specificity
d) The disease is often secondary to infectious mononucleosis

Which of the following statements is true of mixed-type autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

a) Only C3 is present on the red cells

b) The elute is generally nonreactive
c) Patients generally do not have severe hemolysis
d) It has serologic features of both CAS and WAIHA

The following form of treatment of autoimmune hemolytic anemia decreases autoantibody

production:

a) Aspirin tablets
b) Corticosteroids
c) Iron supplements
d) Blood transfusion

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is characterized most frequently by which of the following
serologic pattern?

a) A DAT positive for both IgG and C3 with a reactive elute

b) A DAT positive for IgG only with a nonreactive elute
c) A DAT positive for C3 only with a reactive elute
d) A DAT positive for both IgG and C3 with a nonreactive elute

The component best suited for a patient deficient in IgA who has had a previous anaphylactic
reaction is:

a) Whole blood
b) Red blood cells
c) Red blood cells leukocyte reduced
d) Red blood cells washed
If a patients RBC phenotype is D+C+E-c-e+S-s+K-Fy(a-b+)Jk(a-b+), which alloantibodies is the
patient capable of forming?

a) Alloanti-E,s,K,Fya,Jka
b) Alloanti-E,c,K,Fya,Jkb
c) Alloanti-E,c,S,K,Fya,Jka
d) Alloanti-E,c,S,Fyb,Jka

Donath-landsteiner antibodies:

a) Are IgM polyclonal antibodies

b) Are found in druged induced autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c) Cross react with P blood group system
d) Are found in 70% of patients with warm type autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A donor who is positive for HBsAg is:

a) Temporally deferred
b) Permanently deferred
c) Deferred if ALT is elevated
d) Deferred for 3 months

A history of previous transfusion is important in the investigation of autoimmune hemolysis

because it helps:

a) Differentiate between primary and secondary disease

b) Determine the type of adsorption studies to be run
c) Predict the category of autoimmune hemolysis
d) Determine the urgency of serologic evaluation

Which of the following is true regarding the infusion of fresh frozen plasma?

a) Only blood group specific plasma may be administered

b) Group O may be administered to recipients of all blood groups
c) Group A may be administered to AB recipient only
d) Group A may be administered to both A and O recipients

Irradiated blood is recommended for exchange transfusion in order to:

a) Decrease the incidence of graft versus host diseases

b) Shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right
c) Decrease the of CMV transmission
d) Decrease the risk of febrile transfusion reactions

In warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, serum can contain:

a) Autoantibody alone
b) Alloantibody alone
c) Both autoantibody and alloantibody
d) All of the above
Which of the following plasma exchange techniques is the MOST specific?

a) Simple exchange
b) Exchange with filtration
c) Exchange with cytofiltiration
d) Exchange with immunoadsorption

What is the most important step in assuring that transfused blood is safe?

a) Using the most sensitive testing techniques available

b) Using the most specific techniques available
c) Careful selection of the donor
d) Careful selection of the recipient

The ‘ window period’ is defined as:

a) The period that viral antibodies are detected

b) The period that viral infections show symptoms
c) The period that bacterial infections are detected
d) The period that pathogen antibodies cannot be detected

In plasma exchange procedures, which of the following statements is true regard to the relative
effectiveness of Ig removal?

a) IgM and IgG can be removed with equal efficacy

b) IgM can removed more effectively than IgG
c) IgG can be removed more effectively than IgG
d) Neither IgG nor IgM can be removed by this procedure

A nonreactive eluate is frequently associated with which type of autoimmune hemolysis?

a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

b) Methyldopa-induced immune hemolysis
c) Mixed-type autoimmune hemolysis
d) Cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS)

Identification of alloantibodies in the serum of a patient with autoantibody is essential for the
selection of blood for transfusion. Which of the following specimens is MOST appropriate to
identify an alloantibody in the serum of an untransfused patient who has a strong autoantibody
that reacts with all panel cells at the anti-human globulin phase of testing?

a) Serum adsorbed with autologous cells

b) Serum adsorbed with allogeneic cells
c) An elute from the patient red cells
d) Untreated serum using prewired technique
Which of the following statements describes both harmless and pathologic cold autoantibodies?

a) They usually react at 30 to 37 degree

b) They usually have titers greater than 1000 at 4 degree
c) They are usually polyclonal
d) They are usually IgM

The process by which bound antibody is removed from red cells and captured in a fluid medium
is called:

a) Elution
b) Auto agglutination
c) Adsorption
d) Allo immunization

If autologous cells are pretreated with ZZAP before adsorption, which of the autoantibodies is
not adsorbed out?

a) Anti-e
b) Anti-Jka
c) Anti-K
d) Anti-C

Even with the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay
phenotype will always have naturally occurring:

a) Anti-Rh
b) Anti-Lea
c) Anti-H
d) Anti-o

Autoimmune antibodies directed against the I blood group antigen are produced in:

a) Cold agglutinin syndrome

b) Warm type autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
d) True drug induced autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Which of the following techniques is inappropriate for preparing eluates of autoantibody in

WAIHA?

a) Digitonin acid
b) Glycin-HCL
c) Organic solvents
d) Freeze thaw
A patient has blueing of the hands and feet after cold exposure. The patients hematologic and
serologic findings are as follows: hemoglobin of 10g/dL (100g/L), polychromasia,
hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, an elevated reticulocyte count and a positive DAT C3 only.
The MOST probable explanation for these findings is:

a) Warm autoimmune hemolysis

b) Penicillin induced immune hemolysis
c) Mixed type autoimmune hemolytic anemia
d) Cold agglutinin syndrome

When crossmatching blood for patients new tube should be drawn:

a) Once a week
b) On each new admittance
c) Every 3 days
d) Every time a unit is transfused

Which of the following steps should be included in the preliminary laboratory investigation of a
suspected transfusion reaction?

a) Perform DAT on the pretransfusion specimen

b) Perform an antibody screen on the post transfusion specimen
c) Repeat the cross match
d) Visually check the post transfusion serum/plasma for hrmolysis

Of the transfusion reaction types listed, which results in the thrombocytopenia owing to
platelets alloantibody?

a) IHTR
b) TA-GVHD
c) FNHTR
d) PTP

Which antibody is commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

a) Anti-A,B
b) Anti-D
c) Anti-Jka
d) Anti-Lub

Which of the following components is MOST frequently associated with transfusion reactions
due to bacterial contamination?

a) Fresh frozen plasma

b) Red blood cells
c) Granulocytes apheresis
d) Platelet concentrate
The first step the patient care staff should take when a hemolytic reaction is suspected is to:

a) Stop the transfusion

b) Call the laboratory
c) Call the patient physician
d) Administer IV fluid

The DAT is used to detect all of the following conditions expect:

a) Autoimmue hemolytic anemia

b) Drug induced hemolytic anemia
c) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
d) Graft versus host disease
e) Hemolytic transfusion reaction

Which of the following characteristics is associated with a delayed serologic transfusion

reactions?

a) Hives and wheals

b) Hemosiderosis
c) Positive antibody screen in post transfusion sample
d) ABO incompatibility between donor unit and recipient

Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following
transfusion reactions?

a) Allergic
b) Circulatory overload
c) Intravascular hemolysis
d) Anaphylactic
e) Extravascular hemolysis

Which of the following patient histories might suggest future transfusions with saline-washed
RBCs?

a) History of multiple red cell alloantibodies

b) History of congestive heart failure
c) IgA negative recipient with anti-IgA antibodies

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (NAIT) is caused by:

a) Maternal alloantibody against fetal platelets antigens

b) Paternal antibody against fetal platelets antigens
c) Alloantibodies against HPA-1. HPA-4 platelets antigens
d) Only A and C are correct
e) All of the above are correct
Sever intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?

a) ABO
b) Rh
c) Kell
d) Kidd

All of the following are important actions/tests used in the immediate assessment of possible
intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction EXPECT:

a) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)

b) Visual inspection of serum
c) Determine of haptoglobin level
d) Clerical check
e) Visual inspection of a centrifuged urine sample

Platelets alloimmune thrombocytopenia is caused by:

a) Maternal antibody against alloantigen of fetal neutrophils

b) Alloantibodies against NA1, NA2, NB antigens
c) Paternal antibody against alloantigen of fetal platelets
d) Alloantibodies against HPA-5, HPA-13 antigens

When a patient receiving platelets transfusion experience purpura, the most likely cause is:

a) RBC alloantibodies
b) Platelet antigens
c) Contaminating leukocytes in the platelet component
d) Platelet antibodies

Acute intravascular hemolysis is MOST commonly associated with antibodies of which blood
group system?

a) ABO
b) Rh
c) Kidd
d) Duffy

Post transfusin purpura following transfusion of platelet or RBC unit is usually caused by:

a) HLA antibodies in the donor units

b) HLA antibodies made by the recipient
c) Anti-HPA-1a made by the recipient
d) Febrile reactions secondary to cytokines in the unit
Addition if which of the following will increase the shelf life of red cells?

a) Heparin
b) AS-3
c) Lactated ringers
d) Citrate

Which of the following genotypes could make anti-Ce (Rh7)?

a) R2R2
b) R1R0
c) R1R2
d) r’r

Which of the following phenotypes would react with anti-f?

a) rr
b) R1R1
c) R2R2
d) R1R2

A donor is tested with Rh antisera; given the following results, what is the most probable Rh
genotype?

Anti-D +
Anti-C +
Anti-E 0
Anti-c +
Anti-e 0

a) R1R1
b) R1r
c) R0r
d) R2r

Anti-D was detected in a serum of a D-positive person. What is a possible explanation?

a) The antibody is really anti-G

b) Compound antibody was formed
c) Regulator gene failure
d) Missing antigen epitope

An antibody to the E antigen was identified in a patient who received multiple transfusions.
What is the most likely phenotype to the patient red cells?

a) R1R1
b) R2R2
c) R1r
d) r’r’
The regulator gene RHAG:

a) is inherited on chromosome 1
b) is responsible for Rhmod phenotype
c) must be inherited to express LW antigens
d) is responsible for the D-deletion phenotype

which blood group system possess the Jsb and Kpa antigens?

a) Duffy
b) Lutheran
c) Kell
d) Kidd

An antibody commonly associated with delayed transfusion reactions is:

a) Anti-Lua
b) Anti-S
c) Anti-Jka
d) Anti-M

Which phenotype is associated with a resistance to plasmodium vivax?

a) Fy(a-b-)
b) Jk(a-b-)
c) Le(a-b-)
d) Lu(a-b-)

Enzyme treated reagent red cells used in antibody identification enhance all of the following
antibodies expect:

a) Anti-K
b) Anti-S
c) Anti-U
d) Anti-N

Which of the following reagents destroys the Kell system antigens?

a) Ficin
b) Albumin
c) PEG
d) DTT

Glycophorin A and glycophorin B posses antigen sites for which blood group system?

a) Duffy
b) Kidd
c) Lewis
d) MNS
Select the antibody that is characteristically clinically insignificant:

a) Anti-Kpb
b) Anti-S
c) Anti-Leb
d) Anti-Fya

The McLeod phenotype is associated with:

a) Rhnull phenotype
b) K0 phenotype
c) U-negative phenotype
d) Absence of the Kx antigen

Typing as Lu(a-b-) would be considered:

a) Rare in whites but not blacks

b) Rare in blacks but not whites
c) Rare in all populations
d) Common in all populations

Cold autoantibodies are usually of which specificity?

a) I
b) M
c) PI
d) S

Which of the following antibodies requires the antiglobulin test for the in-vitro detection?

a) Anti-M
b) Anti-P1
c) Anti-U
d) Anti-I

What procedure would help to distinguish between anti-Fya and anti-Jka in an antibody
mixture?

a) Lowering the pH of the patients serum

b) Using a thiol reagent
c) Testing at a colder temperature
d) Testing ficin-treated panel cells

Anti-K:

a) Agglutinate in IAT phase of the antibody screen

b) Is usually of the IgM antibody class
c) Dose not agglutinate with K+k+ panel cells
d) Loses reactivity in enzyme phases
Which of the following antigens is poorly expressed on cord blood cells?

a) K
b) M
c) Leb
d) D

Reagent antibody screening cells may not detect antibodies directed against low-incidence
antigens. Which antibody is most likely to go undetected?

a) Vel
b) S
c) Kpa
d) K

Select the disease commonly associated with the McLeod phenotype:

a) Infectious mononucleosis
b) Chronic granulomatous disease
c) Hodgkin’s disease
d) PCH

Which set of antibodies could you possibly find in a patient with no history of transfusion or
pregnancy?

a) Anti-I, anti-S, and anti-P1

b) Anti-M, anti-c, and anti-B
c) Anti-A, anti-I, and anti-D
d) Anti-B, anti-I and anti-Lea

The red cells of a donor have a phenotype of U-negative. What red cell antibody would not react
with these red cells?

a) Anti-M
b) Anti-S
c) Anti-P1
d) Anti-K

Chronic granulomatous disease is associated with a depression of the antigen in the____blood

group system.

a) Duffy
b) Kidd
c) P
d) Kell
HTLA antibodies:

a) Typically react at room temperature

b) Can be enhanced with PEG
c) Are usually clinically insignificant
d) Are associated with HDFN

Which of the following statements is associated with anti-I?

a) It has weaker reaction with stored blood

b) It can be neutralized with commercially prepared substances
c) It reacts best at 37 degree
d) It dose not react with cord blood cells

A multiple antibodiy problem was resolved by using enzymes. One of the antibody reactions was
eliminated after treatment. Which of the following antibodies was probably present?

a) Anti-c
b) Anti-I
c) Anti-Jka
d) Anti-Fya

An antibody demonstrating dosage would mean that:

a) Homozygous cells were stronger

b) Heterozygous cells were stronger
c) Cells reacted best with PEG
d) Cells reacted best at 4 degree

DTT is useful in evaluating a sample when which antibody is suspected?

a) Anti-Jsb
b) Anti-Kpb
c) Anti-k
d) All of the above

The purpose of additional procedures when working up a warm autoantibody is to:

a) Identify the warm autoantibody specificity in the serum

b) Locate RBC unit that are compatible with the autoantibody
c) Identify potential underlying alloantibodies
d) Identify the antibodies coating the red cells

What is the purpose of including a reagent control when interpreting group AB, D-positive red
cells after testing with a low protein anti-D reagent?

a) To detect false-positive agglutination reactions

b) To detect false-negative agglutination reactions
c) To identify a mix-up with patients sample
d) To confirm ABO typing results
What are the gene products of the A and B genes?

a) Glycolipids
b) Glycoproteins
c) Oligosaccharides
d) Transferase enzymes

Given the ABO typing results, what conclusion can be drawn from these results?

Patients red cells Patients serum

Anti-A Anti-B A1 B

4+ 4+ 1+ 0

a) Expected results for a group O individual

b) Expected results for a group AB individual
c) Discrepant results, patient has A antigen on red cells with anti-A in serum
d) Discrepant results, patient has B antigen on red cells with no anti-B in serum

Using known source of reagent antisera to detect ABO antigens on patients red cells is known
as:

a) Rh typing
b) Reverse grouping
c) Direct antiglobulin test
d) Forward grouping

What immunodominant sugar confers B blood group specificity?

a) D-galactose
b) L-fucose
c) N-acetylgalactosamine
d) L-glucose

What gene controls the presence of soluble H substance in saliva?

a) H
b) A
c) Se
d) B