The Soteriological Meaning of Jesus' Death in Luke-Acts. A Survey of Possibilities
The Soteriological Meaning of Jesus' Death in Luke-Acts. A Survey of Possibilities
The Soteriological Meaning of Jesus' Death in Luke-Acts. A Survey of Possibilities
A survey of possibilities
Hermie C van Zyl
Dept of New Testament, University of the Free State
ABSTRACT
The soteriological meaning of Jesus’ death in Luke-Acts. A survey of
possibilities
The portrayal of Jesus' death in Luke-Acts remains an intriguing issue. Ever
since the rise of critical scholarship it has become the standard view that
Luke does not accord salvific meaning to the death of Jesus, but rather
stresses the exaltation of Jesus as the zenith of his soteriology. In light of this
standard view, this article investigates the question whether the
soteriological meaning of Jesus' death has received more attention in recent
literature. The finding is that in the main scholarship still favours the
exaltation of Jesus as the soteriological zenith. However, it is also clear that
there is a tendency to move away from a bland underestimation of Jesus'
death towards a more balanced view in which Jesus' death acquires a more
positive soteriological meaning in and of itself.
1 STATING THE PROBLEM
Ever since the rise of critical scholarship the peculiar position of Luke-Acts
vis-à-vis Mark, Matthew, John and Paul concerning the portrayal of the
death of Jesus has been noted1. Although the matter was addressed by earlier
scholars, it was the work of the early redaction critics that brought the issue
to a head (Richard 1990:126). These scholars are generally in agreement that
Luke has greatly reduced the salvific sense of the death of Jesus. Usually the
following data are lined up in support of this view:
(a) In Luke 22:27 Luke omits the luvtron-logion of Mark 10:45 (taken over
almost verbatim by Matthew in 20:28) which has Jesus saying that the Son
of Man came to give his life as a “ransom for many”. As a matter of fact,
Luke altogether alters the Son of Man saying2 by emphasising only the
1
For a fine overview of the problem in the history of research, see Pilgrim 1971:1-34.
For an equally commendable and more updated survey, see Herrick 1997.
2
To say that Luke “altogether alters the Son of Man saying” implies that Luke used and
edited Mark 10:(41-)45, as indeed some scholars believe (cf Grundmann 1969:401;
Matera 1985:472). However others are of the opinion that Luke did not edit Mark at this
point, but used a non-Markan, pre-Lukan source for 22:24-27 (so Green 1988:46; Carroll
& Green 1995:12; theory already introduced by H Schürmann, Jesu Abschiedsrede, 63-
99, in 1957). See also footnote 24 for further discussion.
3
An instance of a Western non-interpolation, according to the minority view among the
members of the UBS Committee that compiled the UBS Greek Text. The point is that
some Committee members regarded the omission as the original reading. For a complete
and balanced discussion of the text critical problems involved, see Metzger 1975:173-
177.
4
It is generally accepted that qeov~, in the phrase th;n ejkklhsivan tou` qeou`, and not
kuvrio~ (as some witnesses suggest), is the original reading. But if so, a conceptual
problem arises when the following phrase seemingly speaks of “God's own blood” (dia;
tou` ai{mato~ tou` ijdivou). But should ijdivou be taken to mean “God's own blood” or “the
blood of God's own (Son)”? Some scholars prefer the latter, because ijdivo~ is seen as an
abbreviated term of endearment for “God's own Son” (so Metzger 1975:481). This is
perhaps the easiest way to solve the conceptual awkwardness arising from the translation
“his (God's) own blood” in the sentence … poimaivnein th;n ejkklhsivan tou` qeou`, h{n
periepoihvsato dia; tou` ai{mato~ tou` ijdivou. However, as Pilgrim (1971:170) has
pointed out, perhaps this is too easy a solution. It may very well be that the two phrases,
“the church of God” having been “obtained through his own blood” (“own blood”
grammatically referring to its antecedent “God”), were inadvertently combined without
Luke or his source being aware of the theological problem it caused in terms of the
“patri-passion” theories of later times. The implication of this solution, though, is still
that in the mind of the author “own blood” refers to the death of Jesus and not to the
passion of God. So even if it is accepted that the two phrases were inadvertently
combined, with ijdivou grammatically referring to God's blood, materially it boils down to
the same as if ijdivou is taken as a substantive for the Son.
5
Ehrman (1991) contends that it was not Luke that introduced the Pauline tradition, but
second century scribes, out of orthodox concerns, i e, to give support to the salvific
meaning of the death of Jesus. Thus, for Ehrman this is an instance of the “orthodox
corruption of Scripture”.
6
Du Plessis (1994:527-528) makes much of the Last Supper as part of Luke's penchant
for portraying Jesus as enjoying table companionship with his disciples and with a variety
of other people to put across his teaching (see Lk 5:29-39; 7:36-50; 11:37-52; 14:1-24).
Thus, according to Du Plessis, at the Last Supper the emphasis is not on this meal's
sacramental character, but on its quality as the final opportunity Jesus uses to instruct his
disciples about the spiritual legacy He is leaving them. It takes the form of a farewell
speech in which Jesus forms a pact, a covenant, with them to continue his teaching.
7
The whole concept of divine necessity would not have been out of touch with general
beliefs in ancient times about history being controlled by divine necessity. In the Greek
world it was viewed as a “neutral” force, but in Israel as deriving from the personal will
of God who is a living person (Talbert 1984a:96).
8
Although the aspect of humiliation is certainly important in Luke's quoting of Is 53:7-8
in Acts 8:32-33, reference to the meaning of the death of Jesus as such cannot be ruled
out here. In this regard Parsons (1998:115-119) has drawn our attention to the intertextual
links between Acts 8:32-33 and Lk 24:25-27,44-47. The latter verses supply the
theological exposition of Christ's suffering that scholars usually claim is missing from
Acts 8:32-33.
active participation in the evil of killing the Christ of God (the Jewish leaders). But to be
held responsible is not the same as being rejected by God. Carlson (1991) concurs with
Chance that, according to Luke, the Jewish people are just as guilty of the death of Jesus
as the Jewish leaders, but that Luke constantly leaves open the possibility for repentance
by the people (Lk 23:48; Acts 2:37).
11
Tiede (1991:305) contends that Acts 2:36 should first be heard as a threat. It ties in
with his view that what is at stake in Jesus' death in Luke is a confrontation with God in
which God's will is tried. “Those who resist the king's reign (see Lk 19:11-27) or kill the
royal heir (Lk 20:9-19) place themselves in grave peril, testing God's forbearance” (Tiede
1991:305).
13
Behind the persecution-vindication motif one needs to see the motif of the righteous as
exponent of the group of pious people adhering to the Torah (cf Ruppert 1989). It is
precisely because of this devotion to the law that they are persecuted by the enemies of
the law.
primitive Servant Christology – nor could they, since … such a Christology did not exist”
(:159).
17
Luke is the only NT writer who quotes Is 53 in connection with Jesus' personal fate
(Williams 1975:224).
18
For a detailed study on Luke's overt and covert references to Servant language, see
O'Toole 2000.
21
1 Enoch dated 2nd century BC to 1st century AD by IsaActs (1983:5-7).
22
Although in this period Satan's minions, the daimovnia, are active, it is not Satan in
person. Satan is only mentioned in Lk 8:12; 10:18 and 11:15-18, but is not active, in any
case not as far as Jesus is concerned.
23
To Carpinelli “expiation” and “atonement” function as synonyms. They mean what
ijlavskomai and cognates mean in the LXX as translations of rpk (1999:75 fn 1).
24
In any case one should be wary of making too much of the absence of the luvtron-
saying (Mk 10:45) in Lk 22:27. If one takes the stance that Luke followed a non-Markan
source at this point, there is no suggestion of a deliberate omission of Mk 10:45 (see
footnote 2). Most recently it was Baarlink (2002:26-28) who tried to demonstrate in some
detail that Luke did not take over Mk 10:35-45, but made use of a unique tradition which
bears closer resemblance to John and Paul than to Mark, particularly through the coupling
of Last Supper and feetwashing (Jn 13), and Last Supper and parenesis (1 Cor 11). Thus
in both instances the Last Supper is linked to the problem of haughtiness among some
disciples / church members, precisely as we find it in Lk 22:14-30. In another argument
Baarlink (2002:23-25) also shows that due to Luke's overall structural strategies,
especially the way he links certain pericopes to the passion announcements (Lk 9:44 and
18:32) – which results in Mk 10:35-45 not being utilised – one should not infer from the
absence of the latter pericope that Luke deliberately removed Jesus' saying about his
death being a ransom for many. Baarlink regards such an inference as misleading, and
detrimental to the case of Jesus' death in Luke's soteriology. Fuller (1979), comparing the
statistics between Mark and Luke regarding the explicit references to the cross, more or
less comes to the same conclusion.
25
Scholars whose views on Mk 10:45 may be taken as in support of Carpinelli's
standpoint about Luke's redaction of Mk 10:45, are Pilgrim and Scheffler. Pilgrim
(1971:236) takes the view that Luke deliberately has edited out the luvtron -saying at this
point because “… Luke's conception of Jesus' death does not belong within the
framework of redemptive motifs.” This view may be corroborated by another set of data.
If we take as our point of departure that Luke used Mark as his Vorlage in compiling his
passion narrative, the exclusion of the luvtron -saying may be explained by the fact that
Luke wanted to place the emphasis on the service of Jesus to his followers. Thus Luke
transposed the whole pericope, Mk 10:41-45 (the dispute about greatness), to the context
of the institution of the Last Supper. In so doing he stressed the close relationship
between Jesus' death and his humiliation in service of his followers (cf Scheffler
1993:156), underplaying the so-called redemptive meaning of Jesus' death.
26
The subject of the various kinds of soteriological meanings attached to the death of
Jesus is far too complex to unravel within the ambit of this article. Suffice it to say that I
have used the adjectives “soteriological”, “redemptive”, “salvific”, “atoning”,
“expiatory” rather loosely, and as more or less working equivalents for viewing the death
of Jesus as effecting salvation. To my mind Carpinelli's distinction between the
vis-à-vis Mark: not after Jesus died (Mark), but before He died. From this Matera infers
that Luke wants to signal that it is not yet the end for the temple, as can be inferred from
Mark's rendition. Yes, the days of the temple are counted, but it still has a positive role to
play in Acts . Thus both Green and Matera acknowledge that the rending of the temple
veil marks the beginning of the end of the central position the temple occupied in the
religious life of Israel. The shift is irreversible towards the new experience of God in the
risen Jesus.
28
Moessner (1989:322-324) comes to the same conclusion, but from a different angle. He
understands the Lukan travel narrative (Lk 9:51-19:44) as modelled after the
Deuteronomistic exodus motif, according to which Moses had to die in order to deliver
his people from their sinful stubbornness during their exodus to the promised land.
Likewise Jesus took his journey to Jerusalem (= suffering and death) upon Him as a
divine necessity (Lk 9:51; 13:33). Also, the adding of the Last Supper tradition to the
travel narrative enhances the representative character of Jesus' death. This combined
narrative signals that the suffering and death of Jesus cannot be a mere prelude to the real
locale of salvation, the resurrection. It receives too much emphasis in Luke. The death of
Jesus, therefore, is not a mere appendix to the resurrection, but has independent meaning
in itself. For Luke there can be no forgiveness of sins without Jesus' death. (See also
Moessner 1993 how he links the atoning suffering and death of Moses to Jesus in terms
of Luke-Acts .)