Management

Question Bank 2
Name of subject: MANAGEMENT www.cwipedia.in
Semester:VI
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Business is the process of providing platform to the people to exhibit their &
abilities.
a. Technical and economical
b. thinking and mental
c. technical and managerial d Leadership and vocal.
2. What does a business provide to the customers in exchange of their money?

a. goods and services
b. profit and services
c. satisfaction and reliability
d. knowledge and happiness.
3. According to Drucker, the purpose of business is:

a. to get money
b. to acquire success in market
c. to satisfy customers
d to create and keep customers
4. Which one of these is not a type of business?

a. service
b. manufacturing
c. machining
d. trade
5. Service sector is also known as .

a. primary sector
b. secondary sector
c. quarterly sector
d. tertiary sector.
6. What is manufacturing?
a. acquiring customers
b. production of merchandise.
c. gaining profit
d. completing demand
7. How do traders make profit?

a. in the form of commission
b. in the form of loans
c. in the form of shares
d. in the form of debentures.
8. What are the types of trade?

a. profitable and loss
b. singular and plural
c. bilateral and multilateral
d. direct and indirect.
9. Which one of these is the largest segment in Indian industry?

a. textile industry
b. banking industry
c. chemical industry
d. engineering industry
10. What are the segments of engineering sector?

a. precise and controlled
b. heavy and light
c. heavy and technical
d. civil and mechanical
11. Which one of these is not a relevant factor in process industries?

a. goods
b. ingredients
c. formulas
d. bulk
12. What plays an important role in the Indian textile industry?

a. satin
b. wood
c. cotton
d. machines
13. Which of the following cannotbe used in textile industry?

a. cotton
b. wool
c. jute
d. polythene
14. How many products are produced by chemical industry?

a. more than 70,000
b. more than 6,000
c. more than 60,000
d. more than 7,000
15. Chemical industries produce in the largest quantity.
a. soda and soaps
b. polymers and plastics
c. cosmetics and paper
d. water and detergents
16. Which one of the following processes is not a part of textile industry?
a. spinning
b. weaving
c. dying
d. polishing
17. Which one of the following is not a broad category of chemical industry? a.
durable product
b. basic chemicals
c. life sciences
d. consumers products.
18. Which one of the following is a fertilizer?

a. nitrogen
b. soda ash
c. chlorine
d. ammonia
19. Which one of the following categories of chemical industry has smallest volume? a.
basic chemicals
b. life sciences
c. specialty chemicals
d. consumers products
20. Which one of the following is not a consumer product? a.

soap
b. detergents
c. cosmetics
d. caustic soda.
21. is the leading manufacturer in the chemical industry.
a. Tata Petrochemicals b .Parle Agro-Products
c. Hindustan Unilever d. Reliance Petrochemicals 22. What is the mainstay
of Indian economy?
a. Agriculture b. Chemicals
c. Engineering d. Textile industries
23. Agriculture provides employment to almost % of Indian work force.
a. 40 b. 50
c. 60 d. none of above
24. India has a very large export of processed .
a. Chemicals b. Fruits and vegetables
b. Finished Products d. Fishes

25. demand high level of manual labor.
a. small scale industries b. large scale industries
c. village industries d. sugar industries 26.
Which type of industries are semi-automated?
a. small scale b. large scale
c. village d. sugar
27. Which type of industries involvethe largestinvestment?
a. small scale industries b. large scale industries
c. village industries d. sugar industries 28.
Which one of the following is not a cash crop?
a. cashew b. spices
c. tower d. tobacco
29. What does ITES stand for?
a. Information Technology Extend Service
b. Information Technology Education Service
c. Information Technology Enabled Service
d. Information Technology Energy Service
30. industry is the sunshine sector of Indian economy.

a. chemical b. information technology
c. agricultural d. process
31. Which one of the following is the leading software exporter from India?
a. Bangalore b. Hyderabad
c. Chennai d. Mumbai
32. Indian IT companies are not working in the business.
a. service b. telecom
c. software d. product development
33. Similar to manufacturing companies banking is a business to make .
a. public relation b. profit
c. goods d. customer relations
34. banking is not a business segment of industry.
a. retail b. internet
c. whole sale d. treasury operations
35. It takes too many days for payment by .
a. demand draft b. cash
c. cheque d. RTGS
36. For paying amount up to Rs2 lacs, is a better choice.
a. demand draft b. cheque
c. RTGS d. NEFT
37. Commission charged by a bank on DD is charges applied to RTGS & NEFT.
a. less than b. equal to
c. more than d. negligible to
38. The promise to compensate for any potential failure is called
a. fixed deposit b. recurring
c. insurance d. interest
39. The certain amount which an insurer pays to the company is

a. EMI b. premium
c. Interest d. bill
40. Find the odd one out
a. health insurance b. travel insurance
c. life insurance d. motor insurance

41. policy covers all the medial expenses following hospitalization
a. health insurance b. travel insurance
c. life insurance d. motor insurance
42. Very recently, the Indian government has permitted % FDI in the insurance sector.
a. 49 b. 48
c. 50 d. 51
43. Find the odd one out:
a. Bajaj Allianz general insurance b. LIC Of India
c. ESIC d. Kotak life insurance
44. Retailers can be classified into
a. big and small b. classified and non-classified
c. individual and group d. organised and unorganised
45. The Government of India has allowed % FDI in single brand retail trading
a. 49 b. 51
c. 100 d. 50
46.In multi brand retail trading the permission for FDI is %.
a. 49 b. 51
c. 100 d. 50
47. India is largely an retail market.
a. unorganised b. profitable
c. organized d. black
48. Hospitality falls under sector.
a. public b.retail
c. private d.service
49. Which one of the following is not a major segment of hospitality industries?
a. accommodation b. food services
c. public relation d. other hospitality operations
50. The health care sector in India is controlled by
a.public sector b. private sector

c. hospitality sector c. government
51. The process of transferring ownership of business from public sector to private sector is:
a. privatization b. liberalization
c. trading d. globalization
52. The relaxation of previous government restrictionon economic policies, transfer of trade and
foreign direct investment is
a. privatization b. globalization
c. liberalization d. modernization.
53. Who is known as the father of scientific management?
a. Alfred Marshall b. Matthew Bolton
c.F.W. Taylor d. Elton Mayo
54. Who is known as the father of modern management?
a. Max Weber b. Henri Fayol

c. Mary Follett d. Henry Gantt
55. FredrickTaylor stressed on:
a. Selecting the right people for the right job

b. Division of labour
c. Unity of command
d. Unity of direction
56. Fayol suggested that organizations can be sub divided into main groups of activity. a.
12
b. 4
c. 14
d. 6
57. Who is credited with having developed the concept of priority or hierarchy of needs? a. F.W.
Taylor
b. Abraham Maslow
c. Max Weber
d. Mary Follet
58.Arya Chanakya’sArthashastra written in the third century B.C. provides guide lines for:
a. The policies of governance of a kingdom and people management

b. How to work
c. Utilization of the organization strengths and the importance of discipline
d. The policies and objectives of an organization’s
59.In the early writings on managements, the art of war was written by:
a. Arya Chanaykya
b. Mark Twain
c. Suntzu
d. Adam smith
60. The breakdown of operations in a products manufacturing into small and repetitive tasks is
recommended by:
a. Peter Drucker
b. James Watt
c. F.W. Taylor
d. Adam Smith
61. To motivate workers, Taylorsuggested:
a. Differential piece rate method of payment

b. To pay more salary
c. To give less work
d. To provide festival bonus
62. Gantt chart represents:
a. Critical activities in a project

b. Schedule of projects
c. Predetermined duration and actual progress of activities
d. Details of design of a project
63.Who developed a theory of motion study?
a. Taylor
b. James watt
c. Gilbreth
d. Peter Drucker
64. Authority hierarchy, rules and procedures and division of roles and responsibilities to manage
work are all features of :
a. Taylor’s principles of management

b. Fayol’s principles of management
c. General administrative theory
d. Weber’s bureaucratic organization.
65. MaryFollett developed then theory of group dynamics for:
a. Resolution of conflict
b. Deciding wages
c. The communication process
d. Doing large – scale tasks
66. Possibly the most important pre-20th century influence on management was :
a. Scientific management
b. Middle management
c. The industrial revolution
d. The division of labour
67. Who is recognized as “the man who invented management”?
a. F.W. Taylor
b. Elton Mayo
c. Peter F. Drucker
d. Henri Fayol
68. Who is responsible for the actual operations of various departments?
a. Top management
b. Board of directors
c. Middle management
d. Frontline management
69. sets the vision and mission of the organization.

a. Top management
b. Middle management
c. Frontline management
d. Board of directors
70. The board objectives and policies are decided by:
a. Regional manager
b. Marketing manager
c. Supervisor
d. Chief executive officer
71.When we classify managers according to their level in the organization, they are described as :
a. Functional, staff and line managers
b. Top managers , middle managers and supervisors

c. High level and lower level managers
d. General managers and administrative manager
72.Top level managers engage chiefly in planning or long range planning.
a. Human resource
b. Financial
c. succession
d. strategic
73. “Analysis of causes of deviations “is a part of which process?
a. Motivation
b. Team work
c. Controlling
d. Leadership
74. Which of the following is not a basic function of the management process? a.
Controlling
b. Organising
c. Working
d. Leading
75. reduces uncertainty.
a. Negotiating
b. Planning
c. Organizing
d. Leading
76. The planning process is used to prepare in an organization.

a. Advancement
b. Technologies
c. Discoveries
d. Budgets
77. Getting work done with a minimum effort, expense or waste is the definition of: a.
efficiency
b. effectiveness
c. productivity
d. planning
78. are an organization’s objectives and are the documented ways that
organizations intend to meet those objectives.
a. standing plans: single-use plans

b. stated goals : real goals
c. goals : plans
d. specific plans : directional plan
79. is the judgment of the future.
a. Forecasting
b. Planning
c. Mission
d. Organizing
80. A is a long term goal.
a. plan
b. operation
c. innovation
d. vision
81. is a communication that flows from a higher level to lower level in the organization.
a. Horizontal communication
b. Upward communication
c. Downward communication
d. None of given option
82. determines specific goals and lays down the board areas within which the goals are to
be attained.
a. Organization
b. Management
c. Business
d. None of them
83. is the application of knowledge and personal skills to achieve results. a.
Art
b. Science
c. Work
d. None of the above
84. Who is not a middle level manager?
a. General manager
b. Production manager
c. Section head
d. Marketing manager
85. Which managers supervise and coordinate the activities of operating employees?
a. production manager
b. frontline manager
c. section head
d. operation’s manager
86. is a policy making function.
a. Production
b. Plan
c. Work
d. Administration
87. does not belongto henryfayol’s 14 principles of management.
a. Standardization
b. Scalar chain
c. Authority
d. Discipline
88. is the 2nd function of management.
a. Organizing
b. Planning
c. Leading
d. Controlling
89. The process of inspiring the subordinates to put in their best is known as . a.
Motivation
b. Team work
c. Management
d. Leadership
90. Which one of the following functions involves recruiting and placing qualified
personal needed for the organization?
a. Planning
b. Organization
c. Staffing
d. Leading
91. converts efforts into results.
a. Goal
b. Business plan
c. Vision
d. Strategy
92. Plans that apply to the entire organization, establish the organization’s overall objectives
and seek to position the organization in terms of its environment are called:
a. Tactical plans
b. Strategic plans
c. Single- use plans
d. Operation plans
93. Formanager, to control or direct the work of an employee, the manager must have: a. Line
authority
b. Responsibility
c. Referent power
d. Staff authority
94. is the process by which an organization decides what it will sell , to whom , when and
how.
a. Strategic management
b. Planning
c. Selling
d. Marketing
95. Manager who are responsible for making organization – wide decisions and establishing the
plans and goals that affects the entire organization are:
a. Production managers
b. Top managers
c. Frontline managers
d. Research managers
96. is the process of getting activities completed efficiently and effectively with and
through other people.
a. Leading
b. Supervision
c. Controlling
d. Management
97. Which is not a type of communication?
a. Voice mails
b. Publications
c. Formal presentation
d. Listening
98. The five management functions of planning,organizing,commanding, coordinating and

controlling work proposed by:
a. F.w. taylor
b. Henry ford
c. Chester barnard
d. Henri fayol
99. Organizing includes:
a. Defining organizational goals

b. Hiring organizational members
c. Motivating organisatinal members
d. Determining who does what tasks
100. The process of monitoring, comparing and correcting is called .
a. Coordinating
b. Controlling
c. Leading
d. Organizing
101. The three essential managerial skills required by any person in an organization are .
a. Technical, human and empirical

b. Human, empirical and conceptual
c. Technical, interpersonal and controlling
d. Technical, human and conceptual
102. Managers with good are able to get the best out of their people.
a. Human skills
b. Conceptual skills
c. Technical skills
d. Visual skills
103. Which one of the following skills is more important at lower levels of managements? a. Human
b. Technical
c. Conceptual
d. Empirical
104. In order to achieve a mission, is/are set.
a. Smaller goals
b. Vision
c. Big plan
d. Strategy
105. A business plan depends upon information.
a. Product
b. Word of mouth
c. Finance
d. Market
106. refers to produce and earn at least what the business did the last year. a.
Profit
b. Survival
c. Progress
107. Which of the following factor is considered while developing premises in the planning process?
a. Government policy
b. Technological changes
c. Cost of raw materials
108. is the right to issue orders or make decisions.
a. To manage
b. Government policy
c. Supervise
d. Authority
109. Developing responsible employees is a/an process.
a. Leading
b. Planning
c. Coordinating
d. Old
110. is the function of employing eligible people for the company.

a. Planning
b. Staffing
c. Strategy
d. Mission
111. In a joint stock company, loans are repaid by the .
a. members b. promoters.
c. company d. none of the above
112. A private limited company can have minimum and maximum members.
a. 4, 50b. 4, 20 c.2, 50 d 2, 20
113. In a private limited company, generally are the members.

a. partners b . Neighbors
c. friend and family members d. anyone
114. A company in which not lessthan of the paid up share capital is held by
Government is known as a Government company..
a.48% b.49%
c. 50%d.51%
115. In a line organization the authority flows from
a. subordinate to subordinate
b. superior to superior.
c. subordinate to superior.
d. superior to subordinate
116. In a line organization who is responsible for final results?
a. the workers b. the superior authority
c. the manager d. the foreman
117. donot pay taxes on the profit earned.
a. Partnerships
b. Private ltd companies
c. Public ltd. Companies.

d. All of the above
118. Line organization is:
a. rigid b. flexible c
.strong d. expensive
119. What sort of company is Infosys?
a. Public Ltd. b. Private Ltd
c. Partnership d. none of them
120. In functional organization activities are grouped by function.
a. common b. separate c
grouped d.special
121. According to law is not viewed as a separate legal entity.
a. Entrepreneur b. Partner
c. Company d. Proprietorship 122.
In functional organization, line authority.
a. does not exist b.certainly exists
c. partially exists d. somewhat exists
123. is a voluntary organization formed to serve the members and for the welfare of society. a.
Cooperative society b. Company
c. Public Limited company d. None of the above
124. Line organization lacks:
a. coordination b. conflicts
c. specialization d. nothing
125. Line and staff organization is the modification of:
a. Functional organization b. Staff organization
c. Special organization d. Line organization

126. The staff specialist provides to line managers.
a. machine b. work
c. advice d. order
127. Which the following is not an advantage of a public limited company.
a. Quick formation b. Large capital
c. Professional management d. Limited liability
128. Project organization is a/an organizational structure.
a. Temporary b. Permanent
c. Annual d. Quarterly
129. Assistant to the president to a company refers to which type of authority.
a. Line b. Functional c. Assistant d. Staff
130. Members of a project organization are from the department.
a. higher b. HR c. functionald. CEO
131. In a department the is in charge of a department.
a. manager b. HR c. CEO d. project manager
132. is a right to issue orders.
a. Responsibility b. Span c. Stability d. Authority
133. The persons forming a joint stock company are
a. Partners b. Entrepreneurs c. Promoters d. Investors
134. Which of the following is not the responsibility of a product manager?.

a. Quality b. Quantity c. Storage of goods d. Controlling accident
135. authority is the right given to an individual or a department to control specified processes
or activities in other department.
a. Functional b. Line c. Project d. Job
136. The process of concentration of authority with the top management is known as
centralization.
a. Top b. Functional c. Line d. Decision making
137. In a project organization, the members can be from:
a. within the organization b. outside the organization c. None of the above d. a & b
138. Which of the following can be considered as a project organization?
a. Car production b. Manufacturing of parts
c. Installation of a dairy d. None of the above
139. The advantages of project organization are
a. It takes less time to complete b. Maximum use of specialist knowledge
c. Decisions are taken independently d. None
140. The process of of tasks of similar nature is known as departmentation.
a. arranging b. deciding c. aligning d. grouping
141. The various departments in a company are: capacitors, sensors, resistors
and Fuses. It is an example of departmentation on the basis of:
a. Process b. Product c. Function d. Project
142. A public limited company can have minimum and maximum members.
a. 2, unlimited b. 2,100 c. 4,100 d. 7, unlimited

143. Suggest a suitable form of ownership for a bicycle repair business.
a. Public Limited b. Private Limited c. Partnership d. None of the above
144. Memorandum of Association of a company does not contain:
a. Purpose b. Liability c. Authorized capital d. Dividend
145. Departmentation helps to improve the of an organization.
a. effectiveness b. life c. quality d. skills

146. Which of the following is not an element of a Communication process?
a. Feedback b. Noise c. Span d. Message
147. is the legitimate power to exercise influence, make decisions, carry out action and to
direct others.
a. C.E.O b. Supervisor c. Responsibility d. Authority
148. is essential to direct, guide, instruct, and order the subordinate.
a. Manager b. Authority c. Responsibility d. Chairman
149. The authority that a possesses is known as line authority.
a. Subordinate b. Manager c. Superior d. Chief Executives
150. The life and existence of a doesn’t depend upon the life of members. a.
Partnership b. Entrepreneurship c. Proprietorship d. Company
151 Advantage of centralization
a) Greater Quality
b) Greater Control
c) Greater self-satisfaction amongst staff
d) Great fluency of work
152. In centralization the skills of the middle level management are
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Underestimated
d) Underutilized
153. With , the top management can focus on strategic issues for finding new avenues and
opportunities.
a) Work
b) Processes
c) Centralization
d) Decentralization.
154.Inpartnership, the partners have unlimited liability:
a) True
b) False
c) Partly True
d) Partly False
155. The speed of decision making is quick in .
a) Centralization
b) Decentralization
c) Span of control
d) None of above
156. is the number of subordinates that can be effectively supervised.
a) Centralisation
b) Decentralisation
c) Span of control
d) None of above
157. Theorganization always prefers span of control.
a) Small
b) Economical
c) Wide
d) Narrow
158.In a tall organization structure, the span of control is:
a) Economical
b) Big
c) Wide
d) Narrow
159.In a flat organization structure, the span of control is:
a) Economical
b) Big
c) Wide
d) Narrow
160.Which the following is the advantage of a narrow span?
a) Closer Supervision
b) Lower Overhead
c) Economical
d) More Delegation
161. Which of the following is the advantage of a wide span?
a) Lesser skilled people Managed easily

b) Monitoring is easy
c) Lower Operational cost
d) Good Communication
162.Supervisors with high ability can have .
a) Narrow span
b) Wide span
c) Big span
d) Small Span.
163.Managers at lower level can have span of control.
a) Wide
b) Narrow
c) Low
d) High
164.When complexity of a work is more, then is preferable.
a) Narrow span
b) Wide span
c) Big span
d) Small Span.
165. Delegation is a right given by a to to make decisions.
a) Manager , Employee
b) CEO, HR
c) Manager , Supervisor
d) Supervisor , Subordinate
166. Organization is a/an a system.
a) Closed
b) Exposed
c) Open
d) None of above
167. In order to have flexibility, the maintenance activities must be supported by

activities.
a) Co ordinate
b) Adaptive
c) Supportive
d) Financial
168. Which of the following not an adaptive activity?

a) Modified plans
b) Extensive market research
c) Outsourcing of services
d) Material development
169. Minimum and maximum persons can be partners in a business. a) 4,20
b) 2,20
c) 4,10
d) 2,10
170. Which one of the following is not included in the “Contents of Partnership Deed”?
a) Name of Partnership Firm

b) Duration of partnership
c) Permanent address of partnership Business.
d) Face value of share.
171. concentrates on development of the organization.
a) Availability
b) Stability
c) Productivity
d) Flexibility
172. Stability is reluctance to .
a) Change
b) Productivity
c) Availability
d) Predictability
173. Communication is the transfer of .
a) Words
b) Speech
c) Message
d) Sayings
174. Noise is the in communication.
a) Medium
b) Transmitter
c) Both a and a.
d) Barrier
175. The communication process is said to be completed only when receiver has the
message.
ANS
a) Received
b) Read
c) Understood
d) Seen.
176. Which one of the following is not a form of communication?

a) Downward
b) Upward
c) Horizontal
d) Diagonal.
Visit:
https://www.cwipedia.in/
https://www.circuitcoder.com/
9/17/2020 MCQ QUESTIONS
MANAGEMENT
TOUR2TECH
Unit 01 : Introduction to Management Concepts & Managerial Skills.
1. serve important roles in organizations.
a) Supervisors
b) Subordinates
c) Managers
d) Employees
2. Managerial roles involve specific types of behavior conduct &..........that a manager must
demonstrate to be successful.
a) Activity
b) Task
c) Decisions
d) Actions
3. Which of the following is not included in the three general manager roles identified by Henry
Mintzberg
a) Figurehead roles
b) Interpersonal roles
c) Information roles
d) Decision roles
4. Manager is responsible for activities of his/her …………
a) Employee
b) Ordinates
c) Subordinates
d) Supervisor
5. role involves receiving collecting of information & distributing them as required.
a) Interpersonal
b) Information
c) Decisional
d) Managerial
6. Decision roles include ………….
a) Negotiator
b) Monitor
c) Disseminator
d) Spokesperson
7. According to Peter Drucker,................is what the modern world is all about
a) Controlling
b) Management
c) Directing
d) Innovation
8. Administrative is also called as ………….
a) Top level management

b) Middle level management
c) Low level management
d) None of the above
9. Executive is also called as …………

10. Supervisory is also called as ……….

11. Top management includes ……….
a) President
b) Superintendents
c) Branch manager
d) General foreman
12. Which is doesn’t belongs to middle management
a) President
b) Superintendents
c) Branch manager
d) General foreman
13. Middle management is concerned with implementation of policies & plans chalked out by
the ………..
a) Top management
b) Upper middle management
c) Lower management
14. Top management doesn’t belong to ………
a) Board of directors
b) Managing directors
c) Chief executives
d) Branch managers
15. Lower management includes ………
a) President
b) Foreman
c) Managing directors
e) Chief executives
16. Operating force doesn’t include …….
a) Workers
b) Rank & file workman
c) Skilled workers
d) Employee
17. is the function of management.
a) Organizing
b) Managing
c) Execution
18. Identification of activities is the part of which management function.
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Directing
d) Controlling
19. Which of the following is not the element of direction
a) Supervision
b) Motivation
c) Authority
d) Leadership
20. …… is one of the managerial skills.
a) Technical skills
b) Managing skills
c) Communication skills
21. is not the element of managerial skills.
a) Technical skill
b) Conceptual skill
c) Communication skill
d) Human relation skill
22. involves giving information about products to buyers through different media.
a) Marketing
b) Costing
c) Advertising
d) Financial accounting
23. is related with the purchase of various materials required by the organization.
a) Material management
b) Purchasing
c) Taxation
d) Costing
24. The managerial function of organization may be called as the …………
a) Process of managing
b) Process of controlling
c) Process of management
25. Lower manager is also called as ……….
a) Foreman
b) Inspector
c) Director
d) Supervisor
26. Executory level is nothing but the ……….

27. Which term best describes the process of obtaining, deploying & utilizing a variety of
essential resources to contribute to an organization’s success
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Staffing
d) Management
28. Which title is given to an individual who is in charge of and coordinates the activities of a
group of employees engaged in related activities of a group of employees engaged in related
activities with in a unit of an organization
a) Manager
b) Employee
c) Vender
d) Contractor
29. Which types of managers are responsible for reporting to middle managers
a) Employees
b) Managers
c) Executive managers
d) Second level managers
30. Which influential thought leader is known as the father of scientific management
a) Dale Carrnegie
b) Frederick W. Taylor
c) W. Edwards Deming
d) Peter F. Drucker
31. Which management principle states that work should be divided so that each person will
perform a specialized portion
a) Unity of direction
b) Chain of command
c) Division of work
d) Unity of command
32. Which of the following characterize a manager as being effective
a) They use a minimum amount of resources for the amount of resources for the amount
of output produced
b) They interview, select & train people who are most suitable to fill open jobs.
c) They achieve their goals
d) They devote a large amount of time to planning.
33. Which management function involves setting goals & objectives & creating specify plans for
completing them
a) Planning
b) Controlling
c) Organizing
d) Leading
34. In management, the various roles that managers are called on to perform are defined in
which process
a) Management process
b) Executive process
c) Supervisory process
d) Business process
35. The ability of a manager to interface & work effectively with individuals & groups is
descriptive of what type of managerial skill
a) Technical
b) Administrative
c) Interpersonal
d) Organizational
36. Which influential thought leader is known for his theory on organizational forms
a) John Maxwell
b) Tom J. Peters
c) Henry Mintzberg
d) John P. Kotter
37. The term “core competency “, which coined by which of the following influential business
thinkers
a) W. Edwards Deming
b) C.K. Prahalad
c) Ken Blanchard
d) Frederick W. Taylor
38. Which influential thought leader is known for his common sense approach to
selfimprovement as demonstrated through the book he authored, How to win Friends &
Influence People
a) Dale Carrnegie
b) Frederick W. Taylor
c) W. Edwards Deming
d) Steven Covey
39. Which part of the management process includes measuring results, comparing results to
expectations, & taking corrective action to bring results into line
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Leading
d) Controlling
40. In management, the various roles that managers are called on to perform are defined in
which process
a) Management process
b) Executive process
c) Business process
d) Supervisory process
41. Which two major end results are manager seeking on a daily basis
a) A product or service
b) Management & efficiency
c) Energy & utilities
d) Facilities & equipment
42. Which management principle states that work should be divided so that each person will
perform a specialized portion
a) Division of work
b) Chain of command
c) Unity of direction
d) Unity of command
43. Which of the following characterize a manager as being efficient
a) They use a minimum amount of resources for the amount of outputs produced.
b) The devote a large amount of time planning.
d) They interview, select & train people who are most suitable to fill open jobs.
44. Which of the following characterize a manager as being effective
a) They use a minimum amount of resources for the amount of outputs produced.
b) The devote a large amount of time planning.
d) They interview, select & train people who are most suitable to fill open jobs.
45. Which type of issues are first level managers routinely influenced by
a) Long range issues

b) Short range issues
c) Strategic issues
d) Shareholder issues
46. Which management function involves measuring results, comparing results to expectations,
& taking corrective actions
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Leading
d) Controlling
47. Economic uncertainty, regulatory requirements, & new competitors are examples of what
type of factors that affect managers
a) Interpersonal factors
b) Internal factors
c) Intrapersonal factors
d) External factors
48. For a manager, which should take priority- the job task or the employees performing the job
a) The job task always takes priority over employees.

b) Employees always take priority over the job task.
c) Neither, a manager should balance interest in the job task with the needs of the
employees performing the jobs.
d) Neither, administration of the business takes priority over the job task & the
employees.
49. If a manager leads a team to exceed their monthly goal of new clients, which type of
performance results have they attained
a) Quantity
b) Quality & workmanship
c) Cost & budget control
d) Customer satisfaction
50. By exceeding the monthly marketing budget set for a company, a manager would fail to
meet which type of performance measure
a) Quantity
b) Quality & workmanship
c) Cost & budget control
d) Customer satisfaction
51. The ability of a manager to interface & work effectively with individuals & group is
descriptive of what type of managerial skills
a) Technical
b) Administrative
c) Interpersonal
d) Organizational
52. A manager who possesses knowledge of the processs, equipment, & potential problems of
an industry would possess what type of managerial skills
a) Technical
b) Administrative
c) Interpersonal
d) Organizational
53. Which management function involves setting goals & objectives & creating specific plans for
completing them
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Leading
d) Controlling
54. Which management principle states that each individual should report to only one boss in
order to avoid confict and/or confusion
a) Division of command
b) Chain of command
d) Unity of command
55. Which management principle states that orders & instructions should flow down from top to
bottom or from a higher level manager to a lower one
a) Division of Work
b) Chain of command
d) Unity of command
56. Which level of management is responsible for implementing programs that are intended to
carry out the broader objectives of an organization set by the executives
a) Supervisory managers
b) Middle managers
c) First level managers
d) Chief financial managers
57. Which level of management is responsible for establishing a vision for the organization,
developing broad plans & strategies, & directing subordinate managers
a) First level managers

b) Middle managers
c) Executive managers
d) Second level managers
Unit 02 : Planning & Organizing at Supervisory Level
1. Which of the following is a single use plan
a) Objectives
b) Policies
c) Rules
d) Budget
2. Policy formation is the function of
3. Budget is an instrument of
a) Planning
b) Control
c) Both planning & Control
d) None of these
4. Planning process began with
a) Setting objectives
b) Identity alternatives
c) Developing planning premise
d) Selecting alternatives
5. Responsibility always flows from
a) Superior to subordinate
b) Subordinate to superior
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
6. Which of the following is not the principle of organization
a) Unity of objectives
b) Specialization
c) Span of control
d) Initiative
7. Organization is the process of
a) Identifying & grouping of word to be performed
b) Defining & delegating the responsibility & authority
c) Both A & B
d) None
8. Which among the following involves in planning process
a) Selection of objective
b) Determine the way to achieve objective
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
9. Which among the following is a single use plan
a) Objectives
b) Policies
c) Rules
d) Budget
10. Policy formulation is the functionof

c) Operational management
d) All of the above
11. are the prescribe guidelines for conducting an action.
a) Rules
b) Method
c) Budget
d) Policy
12. The purpose and the aim for which the organization is the set up & operate is called
a) Objective
b) Strategy
c) Policy
d) Procedure
13. Authority always flows from
c) Both A & B
d) None of the these
14. The following is not a type of organisation structure
a) Line organisation
b) Functional organisation
c) Line & staff organisation
d) Flexible organisation
15. Planning provides
a) Information to outsiders
b) Basis for recruitment & selections
c) Purpose & direction of all persons
16. Planning is
a) Forward looking
b) Backward looking
c) Both A & B
17. Which of the following is not a function of management
a) Planning
b) Staffing
c) Co-operation
d) Controlling
18. Which among the following is not the principles of organisation
a) Unity of objectives
b) Specialisation
c) Span of control
d) Initiative
19. is a systematic way of handling regular events.
a) Procedure
b) Rules
c) Policies
d) Strategy
20. co-ordination refers to the description of the behaviour & relationships of the
organisation.
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Procedural
d) Substantive
21. Whose definition on authority is, " Authority is the right to give orders & power to exact
obedience"
a) Henry fayol
b) Allen
c) Simon
d) S. George
22. Which of the following statement is true
a) There is scope for specialisation in line organisation
b) It is difficult to fix responsibility in line organisation
c) The line of authority in line Organisation is vertical
d) Line organisation is only suitable for large scale operation
23. Which among the following is considered as reluctance on the path of subordinates in delegation
a) Perfectionism
b) Fear of criticism
c) Autocratic attitude
d) Absense of control
24. Which among the following is not a principle of delegation
a) Functional Definition
b) Nity of command
c) Remuneration
d) Authority level principle
25. Delegation is
a) Getting things done by others
b) Fixing of responsibility
c) Assigning the task
d) Unity of command
26. Principles of specialisation requires
a) Division of labour
b) Centralisation of work
c) Decentration of work
27. Authority refers to
a) Getting work done
b) Right to get work done
c) Being in a management position
d) None of these
28. The process of organising consists of
a) Division of work into job
b) Establishing authority relationships
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
29. Organising deals with
a) Division of work
b) Decentralising activities
c) Centralisation activities
d) All of these
30. Formal organisation is
a) Created by management
b) A result of social interaction
c) To satisfy cultural needs
d) None of these
31. Organising process involves
a) Division of work
b) Grouping of identical work
c) All of these
d) None of these
32. Organising is
a) A remedy for all types of problems
b) Ensure accurate forecasting
c) All of these
d) None of these
33. For delegation to be effective it is essential that responsibility be accompanied with necessary
a) Authority
b) Manpower
c) Incentives
d) Promotion
34. Which of the following doesn't follow the scalar chain
a) Functional structure
b) Divisional structure
c) Formal organization
d) Informal organization
35. Grouping of activities on the basis of products of line is a part of
a) Delegated organisations
b) Divisional organisations
c) Functional organisations
d) Autonomous organisation
36. The form of organisation known for giving rise to rumours is called as
a) Centralised organisation
c) Decentralised organisation
d) Informal organisation
37. Line organisation is also called
a) Military organisation
c) Line & Staff organisation
d) Project Organisation
38. The process of sharing authority by superior to subordinate is
a) Delegation
b) Accountability
c) Centralisation
d) Responsibility
39. Which among the following is true for formal organisation
a) It is not clear
b) To satisfy the members
c) Importance to persons & feelings
d) To fulfill the firm's goal
40. First step in organizing is
a) Establishing authority relatiinship
b) Co-ordination of activities
c) Grouping of jobs into departmentation
d) Division of works
41. Budgetary control requires the preparation of
a) Training schedule
b) Budget
c) Network Diagram
d) Responsibility centres
42. The line of authorithy from the chief executives to the lowest level of organisation is called
a) Unity of command
b) Unity of direction
c) Scalar chain
d) Order
43. Planning is process
a) Directing
b) Thinking
c) Forecasting
d) None of these
44. A sequence of activities to implement the policy of
a) Programme
b) Budget
c) Plan
d) Procedure
45. is described as interpretive planning
a) Procedure
b) Strategy
c) Policies

46. Organisation means a formalised international
a) Roles
b) Rooms
c) Routes
d) none
47. Organisational decisions are made by
a) Directors
b) Managers
c) Managing directors
48. The superivisors motivate the subordinates in
a) Consultative direction
b) Free rein direction
c) Autocratic direction
d) All
49. Effective control depends on
a) Organisation structure
b) Proper direction
c) Flow of communication
d) All
50. The process of MBO starts with
a) Setting up of obligation
b) Fetron plan
c) Review
d) All
51. MBO was developed by
a) Peter.F.Drucker
b) Chester Bernard
c) Fayol
d) None
52. MBO offers the basis for accessing the
a) Operations
b) Performance
c) Equality
d) None
53. is the decision making body of an organization
a) Decentralisation
b) Administration
c) Functional organisation
d) Leadership
54. According to whom objectives are goals, they are aims which management wish organisations to
achieve.
a) John Maxwell
b) Tom J. Peters
c) Robert C.
d) John P. Kotter
55. Which of the following policies don’t comes under the criteria regarding of level
a) General policy
b) Basic policy
c) Marketing policy
d) Departmental policy
56. Which of the following policies don’t comes under the criteria regarding of functions
a) General policy
b) Basic policy
c) Marketing policy
d) Departmental policy
57. Which of the following policies don’t comes under the criteria regarding of source
a) Orginated policies
b) Production policies
c) Appealed policies
d) External polices
58. is a term which is normally used in the battle fields for planning a military movement,
handling of troops, etc.
a) Guideline
b) Strategy
c) Policy
d) Management
59. Organization structure allocates authority &
a) Responsibility
b) Power
c) Facility
d) None
60. means a form of human association for attaintment of common objectives.
a) planning
b) organization
c) committee
d) group activities
61. Which of the following is not the step of process of organizing
a) Grouping of activities
b) Granting authority
c) Employment test
d) Establishing relationship
62. How many steps are included in the organizing function
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 3
63. Subordination must be avoided.
a) Dual
b) Single
c) Multiple
d) Triple
64. Which of the following is not the principle of organization
a) Objectives
b) Delegation
c) Span of control
d) Interviews
65. is the right to decide, direct & coordinate.
a) Employment Test
b) Exception
c) Authority
d) Granting
66. Scalar principle can also called as
a) Unity of command
b) Chain of command
c) Delegation
d) Unity of Direction
67. The activities of the should be divided according to functions & assigned to persons
according to their specialization.
a) Enterprise
b) Objectives
c) Planning
d) Supervision
68. Effective organization must promote
a) Interviews
b) Creativity
c) Specialization
d) Responsibility
69. The of the enterprise influence the organization structure.
a) Span of control
b) Exception
c) Delegation
d) Objectives
70. Authority always from
c) Both A and B
d) None of these
Unit 03 : Directing & Controlling at Supervisory Level
1. Coordinating people & human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the process
of
a) Management
b) Directing
c) Planning
d) Leadership
2. Empowerment is related to
a) Controlling
b) Directing
c) Planning
d) Organizing
3. Directing & controlling are the
a) Results of management
b) Goals of management
c) Functions of management
d) All
a) Training schedule
b) Responsibilities centre
c) Budgets
d) Network diagram
5. Supervisory management spends most of his/her time in
a) Planning & controlling

b) Directing & controlling
c) Planning & organizing
d) Organizing & controlling
6. Which of the following would be included in the " controlling function"
a) Measuring results against corporate objectives
b) Giving assignments
c) Setting standards
d) Explaining routines
7. is a deciding in advance what to do & how to do
a) Organizing
b) Controlling
c) Planning
d) Directing
8. Which is the first & most essential function of management
a) Organizing
b) Controlling
c) Planning
d) Directing
9. Planning is
a) Goal oriented
b) Objective oriented
c) Both A & B
d) None
10. are goals, they are aims which management wish organization to achieve.
a) Goals
b) Objectives
c) Activities
d) None of these
11. A clear statement of purpose universally understood is the outstanding guarantee of effective
a) Execution
b) Communication
c) Process
d) None
12. Approach is essentialy one-way & it is called an authoriatarian approach.
a) Modern
b) Traditional
c) Conventional
d) Specific
13. are a guide to decision making
a) Procedures
b) Policies
c) Activities
d) None
14. are a guide to action.
a) Procedures
b) Policies
c) Activities
d) None
15. are units for measuring one ot more aspects of performance
a) Rules
b) Standards
c) Quantity
d) All
16. Standard operating procedures & methods evolve considerable use of way scientific
management
a) Two best
b) Three best
c) One best
d) None
17. Which budget includes spending data items
a) Revenue
b) Flexibility
c) Project
d) Expenditure
18. Which of the following is not the type of budget
a) Revenue
b) Project
c) Flexibility
d) Activity
19. is the managerial function of guiding & andreading people to the attaintment of objectives
a) Controlling
b) Direction
c) Planning
d) Organising
20. Which among the following is not an element of direction
a) Supervision
b) Organising
c) Motivation
d) Leadership
21. Which among the following statement relating to leadership is false
a) leadership is a process of influence
b) leadership is goal oriented
c) leadership is bossism
d) a leader must have followers
22. Which type of leader allow complete delegation of authority
a) creative leaders
b) persuasive leaders
c) laissez faire leaders
d) intellectual leaders
23. Which among the following is not a quality for a leader
a) charming personality
b) ability to take decision
c) communication skill
d) lazy attitude
24. Under which style of leadership the leader completely delegate the authority to the subordinates
a) Free rein leadership
b) Paternalistic leadership
c) Participative leadership
d) Authoritarian leadership
25. Which among the following is not a style of grid in the managerial grid byBlake & Mouton
a) Task management
b) Innovation management
c) Middle road
d) Country club
26. Which leadership Theory suggest that “leaders are born not made”
a) Trait theory
b) Situational theory
c) Great man theory
d) Behavioural theory
27. Which of the following is not applicable to responsibility accounting
a) Cost centre
b) Accounting centre
c) Profit centre
d) Investment centre
a) Training Schedule
b) Responsibility centres
c) Budgets
d) Network Diagram
29. An example of an effective standard for a control system would be :
a) Deciding to hire 5 new employees
b) Improving the quality of production
c) Renting new premises
d) Planning to increase sales of product XYZ from 2,000 to 4,000 per month by December of next
year
30. Management audit is a technique to keep a check on the performance of
a) Company
b) Customers
c) Shareholders
d) Management of the company

31. An efficient control helps to
a) Accomplishes organisational objectives
b) Judges accuracy of standards
c) Boosts employee morale
d) All of above
32. Which management function involves measuring results, comparing results to expectations, &
taking corrective action
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Leading
d) Controlling
33. The most effective leader is one who :
a) Makes managerial decisions without consulting others
b) Has the leadership style most appropriate to the situation & the employee involve
c) Works with managers & employees to make decisions
d) None
34. An efficient control system helps to
a) Accomplished organizational objectives
b) Boosts employees morale
c) Judges accuracy of standards
d) All
35. Leadership style which takes decisions with subordinate is
a) Democratic leadership
b) Autocratic leadership
c) Laissez-faire leadership
d) Paternalistic leadership
36. Find Odd Man Out
a) Supervision
b) Leadership
c) Co-ordination
d) Communication
37. Ability of a leader to look things from other points of view is
a) Empathy
b) Sympathy
c) Responsibility
d) Communication
38. The highest level need in the need hierarchy of Abraham Maslow
a) Safety needs
b) Belongingness needs
c) Selfctualisation needs
d) Prestige needs
39 Grapevine is
a) Formal communication
b) Barrier communication
c) Lateral communication
d) Informal communication
40. Which of the following is not an element of communication
a) Decoding
b) Communication
c) Channel
d) Receiver
41. Which of the following is a financial Incentive
a) Promotion
b) Stock Incentive
c) Job security
d) Employees participation
42. The motivation theory which classifies need in hierarchical order is develop by
a) Fred Luthans
b) Scott
c) Abraham Maslow
d) Peter F. Drucker
43. Which following is not element of direction
a) Motivation
b) Delegation
c) Communication
d) Supervision
44. The hurt of management is
a) Planning
b) Organising
c) Directing
d) Controlling
45. is the point at which their no profit or no loss
a) Maximum profit point
b) Minimum loss point
c) Break even point
d) Break down point

46. Which theory explains that there are two separate factors influence motivation
a) Adam’s Equity theory
b) Maslow’s need hierarchy theory
c) Herzberg’s hygiene theory
d) McGregor’s Theory X & Theory Y
47. Which among the following is not in the 5 types of needs proposed by maslow
a) Psychological needs
b) Social needs
c) Esteem needs
d) System needs
48. Which among the following is a characteristics of a motivation
a) Internal feeling
b) Simple process
c) One time process
d) Not a goal oriented process

UNIT 04 : Safety Management
1. Which of the following is not the economic reason for ensuring safe workplace
a) Reduce accidents
b) Insurance
c) Improved employees relations
d) Reduce cost
2. Employees have a right to work in a safe & healthy environment
a) Legal
b) Illegal
c) Prior
3. Who has beauty to maintain a safe workplace
a) Employee
b) Employer
c) Worker
d) Manager
4. safety is very important each & every employee in the industry
a) Industry
b) Workplace
c) Individual
d) All
5. In the measures are not apply than the accident may result into direct & indirect cost
a) Legal
b) Safety
c) Economic
d) Environmental
6. Each shop supervisor may report to as regards safety matters
a) Top executive
b) Executive
c) Lower Executive
d) Top Executive
7. Shop supervisor may treat safety as a accept
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) None considerable
d) Prior
8. Which director/ manager may be given a line position or staff position depending upon the
conditions in the industry
a) Safety
b) Deputy
c) Top
d) None
9. Who appoints the management members of the safety committee
a) Employee
b) Top Executive
c) Manager
d) Employer
10. A safety commitee may consists of executive shop floor workers and
a) Employer
b) Employees
c) Supervisors
d) none
11. On which level thr lower level employees get a channel of communication on safety matters
directly
a) Top
b) Lower
c) Executive
d) middle
12. It was observed that those organizations which made safety committes had record of
accidents than those without safety committees.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) More
13. Which of the following management is an integral part of an organization's responsibilities
a) Economic
b) Employee
c) Safety
d) All
14. The statement will give direction to the management.
a) Strategy
b) Functions
c) Safety policy
d) None
15. Who is responsible for the implementation of safe method & practices
a) Organization
b) Planning
c) Management
d) Employer
16. Whose health & safety takes priority to the job or task to be accomplished
a) Employer
b) Manager
c) Executive
d) Workers
17. If a job cannot be done in a safe method, the job shouldn't be
a) Allocate
b) Taken
c) Attempted
d) Recognize
18. Industry units or factories are often thought of as places to work.
a) Safe
b) Dangerous
c) Efficient
d) None
19. The success of any safety program relies on
a) Importance of safety
b) Planning
c) Safety Policy
d) All
20. Who are the workers in the company
a) Employers
b) Employees
c) Managers
d) Executives
21. The supervisor in the company is referred as
a) Employer
b) Foreman
c) Manager
d) Executive
22. The safety norms for are similar to that of in many other industries.
a) Factories
b) Institutes
c) Organizations
d) Committee
23. Which prevention is significant in industry
a) Safety
b) Disease
c) Hazards
d) Accident
24. Who has various responsibilities for effective industrial safety management in order to prevent
the occurence of accident
a) Employee
b) Manager
c) Employer
d) Foreman
25. Who is charged with the responsibilities of preventing accidents
a) Safety officer
b) Foreman
c) Employer
d) Employee
26. is a chemical reaction that takes place when a material oxides rapidly
a) Hazard
b) Safety
c) Accident
d) Fire
27. Which type of fire involves solid materials of an organic nature
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
28. Which type of fire involves liquid materials of an organic nature
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
29 . Which type of fire involves electricity
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
30 . Which type of fire involves flammable metals of an organic nature
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
31. procedure is a step by step description of a process when deviation may cause a
loss
a) Fire work
b) Safe work
c) Permit
d) None
32. is an act of been fire from harm & danger
a) Accident
b) Fire
c) Safety
d) Awareness
33. The safety function is taken care by officer
a) Executive
b) Foreman
c) Management
d) Personnel
34. Which types of accidents have great effect on the employees, employer and nation economy
a) Industrial
b) Fire
c) Transportation
d) All
35. Which of the following fire material comes under class D
a) Liquid
b) Wood
c) Magnesium
d) All
36. Which of the following fire material comes under class A
a) Wood
b) Petrol
c) Aluminium
d) Solid
37. Policy formulation is the function of _
c) Operational management
d) All
38. A safety programme consists of
a) 3 E's
b) 4 E's
c) 5 E's
d) 6 E's
39. The following is indirect cost of accident
a) Money paid for treatment of worker
b) Compensation paid to worker
c) Cost of lost time of injured worker
d) All
40. Which of these is most likely to cause an accident in a workplace
a) Administration
b) Manual Handling
c) Adequate lighting
d) Excessive noise
41. Water is used to extinguish
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fire
d) All
42. The following class of fire occur in electrical equipment
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) All
43. is best suited to extinguishing oil or flammable liquid fire
a) Soda acid
b) Vaporizing liquid
c) Foam
d) Dry Chemical
45. The following extinguisher is suitable for cotton or other textile fire.
a) Water
b) Soda acid
c) Foam
d) Dry Chemicals
46. Industrial safety management if that branch of management which is concerned with
hazards from the industries
a) Reducing
b) Controlling
c) Eliminating
d) All
47. The purpose of a Permit-To-Work is to
a) Ensure that potentially dangerous work is done safely
b) Ensure that only competent workers undertake the job
c) Ensure that the correct tools and equipment are used on a job
d) Ensure that emergency procedures are in place
47. Which of the following is not a principal duty of an employer
a) To provide adequate supervision of work practices
b) To give necessary instruction & training to employees
c) To provide meals at break times free of charge
d) To provide and maintain workplaces, machinery and equipment which are safe and without risk to
health as in reasonably practicable
48. In case of an accident, the victim should immediately be
a) Asked to take rest
b) Enquired about the accident
c) Attended to
d) Left to himself without treatment
49. The safe way of working is
a) An effective & right way of working
b) An ancient way of working
c) A way of handling the work in a hurry
d) A way of normal working
50. Which of these is most likely to cause an accident in a workplace
a) Administration
b) Manual handling
c) Adequate lighting
d) Excessive noise
UNIT 05 : Legislative Acts
1. Labour law is also known as law
a) Development
b) Employment
c) legislation
2. How many types are there of labour law
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
3. is a law making body
a) Assembly
b) Management
c) Organization
d) Legislation
4. law defines the right & obligation as workers, union members & employers in the
workplace
a) Labour
b) Development
c) Collective labour
d) All
5. Which labour law relates to the tripartite relationship between employee, employer and union
a) Individual
b) Collective
c) Both
d) None
6. Which labour law concerns employees rights at work & through the contract for work
a) Individual
b) Collective
c) Both
d) None
7. Among all the sources of law, which one is the most patent & sovereign source of law making
a) Assembly
b) Management
c) Legislation
d) Organization
8. The term that describes an act and States what the future law will be for cases arising from it is
a) Labour act
b) Development act
c) Industrial act
d) Legislation act
9. The making of general orders by our judges is as as is carried on by the crown
a) Legislation
b) Development
c) Labour
d) Purpose
10. Legislative act gives legal framework to relationship between employer and
a) Executive
b) Manager
c) Employee
d) Foreman
11. Labour legislation in India has a history of over years
a) 100
b) 150
c) 200
d) 125
12. Labour laws are enacted by the
a) State Government
b) Central Government
c) Legislation
d) Organization
13. has the sole responsibility for enforcement in labour laws
a) State Government
b) Central Government
c) Legislation
d) Organization
14. Which of the following is not he law related wages
a) Payment of wages act, 1936
b) Minimum wages act, 1948
c) Payment of bonus act, 1965
d) Mines act, 1952
15. Which of the following is not the law related to employment
a) Factories act, 1936
b) Mines act, 1952
c) Payment of bonus act, 1965
d) Plantation labour act, 1951

16. Which of the following is not the law related to deprived & disadvanted sections of the society
a) Children act, 1933
b) Personal injuries act, 1962
c) Bonded labor system act, 1976
d) Child labour act, 1986
17. Which of the following is not the law related to social security
a) Payment of bonus act, 1965
b) Personal injuries act, 1962
c) Doc Workers act, 1986
d) Child labour act, 1986
18. covers all manufacturing processes & establishment falling.
a) Applicability of act
b) Purpose of act
c) Importance of act
d) All
19. Adult means apersin who has completed his/her year of age
a) 16
b) 18
c) 21
d) 19
20. Adolescent means a person who has/her year of age
a) 16
b) 15
c) 17
d) 18
21. Child means a person who has not completed f his year age
a) 15
b) 16
c) 18
d) 21
22. means a person who is either a child or adolescent
a) adult
b) Human
c) Aged – Person
d) Young-person
23. means a period of 12 months beginning with the first day of January in any year
a) Leap year
b) Year
c) Calendar year
d) None
24. means a period of 24 hours beginning at mid-night
a) Night
b) Noon
c) Day
d) None
25. means electrical energy or any form of energy which is mechanically transmitted &
is not generated by human & animal agencies
a) Work
b) Energy
c) Kinetic energy
d) Power
26. Chief inspector is appointed by
a) Chief Minister
b) Prime Minister
c) State government
d) Central government
27. Who may appoint qualified medical pracititoners as certifying surgeons
a) Chief Minister
b) Prime Minister
c) State government
d) Central government
28. Workers cannot be employed for more than hours in a day
a) 8
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10
29. Workers cannot be employed for more than hours in a week
a) 48
b) 40
c) 36
d) 30
30. If workers works beyond 9 hours a day or 48 hours a week, overtime wages are the rate
of wages are payable.
a) Same
b) Double
c) One & half

d) Triple
31. means a person who has not attained the age of 18 years
a) Employer
b) Employee
c) Minor
d) Managing agent
32. No contribution is required for getting benefit under which of the following legislations
a) Maternity Benefit Act
b) Workmen’s Compensation Act
c) Both A & B
d) None
33. Under this Act, employer shall not be liable to pay compensation in respect of any injury which
doesn’t result in the total or partial disablement of the workman for a period exceeding days
a) 7
b) 3
c) 5
d) 2
34. Statutory Minimum Wage is fixed under
a) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
b) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
c) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
d) Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
35. means the permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof
a) Closure
b) Industry
c) Award
d) Grievance
36. Sections 42 to 49 of Factories Act discuss about
a) Health
b) Leave
c) Welfare Measures
d) Proper lighting
37. Section 35 of factory act deals with
a) Cleanliness
b) No overcrowding
c) Proper Lighting
d) Protection of eyes
a) Cleanliness
b) No overcrowding
c) Proper Lighting
d) All
a) Cleanliness
b) No overcrowding
c) Both
d) All
a) Health
b) Safety Measures
c) Leave
d) Proper lighting
a) Welfare
b) Wages
c) Health
d) Leave
42. Child below the age of should not be employed
a) 16
b) 15
c) 14
d) 13
43. act has been proposed to be attended to allow night shift for women workers.
a) Factory
b) Mine
c) Wages
d) Welfare
9/17/2020
MCQ QUESTIONS
MANAGEMENT
Tour2Tech
Page 1 of 30
Management MCQ’s
1. Business firm Produce and supply wide varieties of goods and required by the
society.
A) Money
B) Services
C) Entities
D) Social Service
2. The year 1991 is famous for.
A) New Fiscal deficit policy

B) IT parks initiated in Bangalore
C) Globalization policy, liberalization was accepted by India
D) Policies of cooperative societies changed
3. The primary sector includes all of the following except.
A) Forestry
B) Manufacturing
C) Mining
D) Agriculture
4. product comes under petrochemical industry.
A) Vehicles
B) Plastic
C) Wood
D) Paper
5. Management causes.
A) Miss-communication
B) Wastage of resources
C) Miss-coordination
D) None of the above
6. Skill is needed at the top level management.
A) Technical
B) Conceptual and technical
C) Conceptual
D) Conceptual, Technical and human
MCQ QUESTIONS TOUR2TECH

7. is recruitment of right people at right place in an organization.
A) Planning
B) Organizing
C) Staffing
D) Controlling
8. Policy making in an industry is a role of
A) Management
B) Administration
C) Public
D) Workers
9. Scientific management works on
A) Research and experimentation

B) Trial and error
C) More attention on production only
D) Tradition management theory
10. What is Espirit De Corps ?
A) It is a function of management
B) It is a principle of management
C) It is management concept in Russia
D) It is a name of company
11. The process of monitoring, comparing and correcting is called
A) Coordinating
B) Controlling
C) Leading
D) Organizing
12. A joint venture can be defined as
A) Two firms collaborate with each other on a specific project

B) One firm licenses its intellectual property to another firm
C) Two firm merge together
D) Two firm come together to form a third, legally seperate firm
13. Grouping the activities or operations of an enterprise into various units is referred as
A) Centralization
B) Departmentation
C) Delegation
D) Communication
14. can be defined as running business by a single owner
A) Proprietorship
B) Partnership
C) Private limited
D) Public limited
15. Which are factors in which span of control depends?
A) Trained and experienced subordinates

B) Type of work
C) Capacity of executive or manager
D) All of the above
16. Unlimited liability is present in
A) Proprietorship
B) Partnership
C) Both a & b
17. “Achievement due to one will be shared by all others”, this happens in
A) General partnership
B) Limited partnership
C) Both a and b
18. Factories act come into force from
A) 1948
B) 1949
C) 1976
D) 1st April 1949
19. VAT and sales tax falls under
A) Indirect tax
B) Service tax
C) Direct tax
D) All of the above
20. The necessity of industrial act is to protect the interests of :
A) Workers
B) Employers
C) A and B
21. Safety management deals with

A) loss of life
B) Personal injury
C) Damage to the equipment
D) Prevention of an accident
22. Collapse of crane is a cause of accident, under which type of accident it come ?
A) Mechanical cause of accident

B) Natural cause of accident
C) Human error
D) All of the above
23. Capital required by a company to purchase building for starting the company is
called as
A) Working capital
B) Fixed capital
C) Loan
D) Dept
24. Variance report is the difference between outcome of the company
A) Material cost and labor cost

B) Planned budget and actual budget
C) Cash budget and fixed budget
D) Purchased budget and overhead budget
25. Which is input to MRP
A) Current forecasting
B) Bill of material
C) On hand inventory
D) All of the above
26. Value added tax (VAT) is a tax on ?
A) An employee earning
B) The organization profits
C) The investment earnings
D) Good and services
27. Internal source/s of finance is/are:
A) Deferred taxation
B) Shares
C) Debentures
D) All of the above
28. According to which Act, a business is required to prepare a balance sheet?
A) Companies Act
B) Factory Act
C) Environmental Act
29. Which is part of material management
A) Inventory Management
B) Marketing Management
C) Both A & B
D) None
30. Which is not the feature of ERP
A) Integrated system
B) Common Data-Base
C) Departmental access
D) Different look for each module
31. Which of the following is the name given to a bill of lading where goods have been
received by a carrier free of defects?
A) Shipped bill of lading

B) Claused bill of lading
C) Ordinary bill of lading
D) Clean bill of lading
32. In EOQ, cost=unit price x annual consumption volume
A) Consumption
B) Protection
C) Investment
D) None of these
33. Which of the followings are the aims of material management ?
A) Continuity of supply
B) Low payroll cost
C) Higher inventory turn over
D) All of the above
34. A type of Item has …… importance due to consumption

A) 10-20%
B) 15-25%
C) 40-50%
D) 70-80%
35.
A) Direct labor budget
B) Material budget
C) Purchase budget
36. The activity of “Control” in Six sigma refers to :
A) Develop alternatives
B) Determines various controls needed and validate them
C) Prepare control chart
37. Which of the following is the constituent of total quality management ?
A) Orderliness and punctuality

B) Quality of inventory
C) TPM
38. In PDCA, act consist of which of the following ?
A) Ensure continuous improvements

B) Analyze result
C) Plan policies
D) Train employees
39. To achieve quality (i.e defects free product and services), we require
A) Close cooperation between management and staff

B) Commitment
C) An environment in which quality can flourish
D) All of the above
40. Bench marking determines
A) Customer requirement
B) Process capability
C) Standards
D) Getting ISO 9000 audit done
41. Top agro industry in India is
A) FabIndia
B) Pidilite
C) Dupont India
42. Trading business means
A) Buying a Raw material

B) Selling a finished goods
C) Buying goods and selling them without any processing
D) All
43. Following is not associated with insurance
A) Bajaj Allianz
B) Max Life
C) LIC
D) ICC
44. Father of scientific management is
A) Fedrick W. Tailor
B) Arthur Dunkel
C) Henry Fayol
D) Robert owen
45. Deciding in advance what to do, how to do and when to do is……..
A) Decision-making
B) Organizing
C) Planning
D) Motivating
46. Which statement is wrong
A) Authority can not be delegated

B) Authority is the power to act
C) Hidher the post, higher is the authority
D) Authority is right to command
47. Which is the appropriate reason of failure of good plan ?
A) Insufficient data
B) Lack of knowledge
C) Over confidence
D) All of the above
48.is The process of operations, verify conformity with the predetermined plan
and takes corrective action
A) Coordinating
B) Forecasting
C) Organizing
D) Controlling
49. Which statement regarding Joint stock company is incorrect ?
A) Joint stock companies have no separate legal status than their members
B) Members of joint stock companies have limited liability
C) Joint stock companies can undertake several activities like expansion, modernization
, diversificatn, etc.
50. Which one of following is not included in the ‘contents of partnership deed’.
A) Name of partnership firm

B) Duration of partnership
C) Permanent address of partnership business
D) Face value of share
51. In automobile industry, departments can be on the basis of

A) Territorial
B) Product
C) Customer
D) Process
52. Minimum wages needed to be paid in:

A) Cash
B) Demand draft
C) Cheque
53. In accident prevention, Safe workplace layout does not include:
A) Obstruction fees passageways

B) Antiskid floors
C) Separate storage of inflammable materials
D) Enough height of workrooms
54. Safety management deals with
A) Loss of life
B) Personal injury
C) Damage to the equipment
D) Prevention of an accident
55. Safety promotes
A) Sales
B) Productivity
C) Profit
D) Research
56. Fixed capital is also called as
A) Tight capital
B) Blocked capital
C) Working capital
D) Current capital
57. The firm type of Bajaj Auto ltd is ?
A) Proprietorship
B) Partnership
C) Joint stock company
D) Public sector
58. is method of buying goods by making instalment payments over the

period of time.
A) Bank loan
B) Hire purchase
C) Sale and lease back
D) All of the above
59. Debentures are included in source of finance
A) Long term
B) Short term
C) Medium term
D) None
60. are the term used to indicate purchases made during the year for the purpose
of sale, When goods purchased are returned is referred as purchase return.
A) Opening stock
B) Purchases
C) Sales
D) Office administrative expenses
61. I want the products of my company to achieve perfect quality, which tool will I apply
to check this
A) Six sigma
B) ABC analysis
C) MRP
D) EOQ
62. Which is a part of Material management
A) Inventory management
B) Marketing management
C) Both A & B
D) None
63. Which of the following are the aims of Material management ?
A) Continuity of supply
B) Low payroll cost
C) Higher inventory turn over
D) All of the above
64. Following are the kinds of partners
A) Active partner and sleeping partner

B) Owner and distributor
C) Global partner and media partner
D) Permanent partner and temporary partner
65. What is the full form of ISO ?
A) Indian organization for standardization

B) International organization for standardization
C) International standardization Organization
66. In Quality management, PDCA means
A) Plan,Do,Check,Act
B) Process,Do,Committee,Act
C) Plan,Do,Committee,Approach
67. The participation of all members in an organizing, aiming at long term success
through customer satisfaction for the benefits to all members and to the society is known
as
A) Quality control
B) Quality assurance
C) Total quality management
D) Quality team
68. All the person working in the organization ( including managers & workers ) Should
be involved in operation
A) MRP
B) TQM
C) Globalization
D) EOQ
69. Following are the principles of : 1) System approach to management 2) continual

improvement 3) Factual approach to decision making 4) Mutually beneficial supplier
relationships
A) Delegations
B) Organizations
C) ISO:9001
D) EOQ
70. Remuneration is based on
A) Performance
B) Responsibility
C) Emotion
D) Designation
71. The unity of authority and plan of action is about

A) Unity of direction
B) Authority
C) Discipline
D) Unity of commands
72. stands for granting of authority to subordinates to accomplish or perform a

particular assignment while operating within pre-decided limits and standards
established
A) Delegation of authority
B) Responsibility
C) Effective Delegation
D) Accountability
73. Following business is not coming under sole proprietorship ?
A) Service centre
B) Press shop
C) Hardware unit
D) Insurance company
74. can be defined as goods or cash used (invested) to generate income

from business or property (that can give income)
A) Capital
B) Finance
C) Budget
D) VAT
75. Which one of the following is not a module of ERP
A) Manufacturing
B) HR
C) Quality Control
D) Supply Chain Management
76. If the company has a goal to accept only .0003% defect, which is the most important
modern technique it should adopt
A) ERP
B) SAP
C) BAAN
D) Sigma
77. Which one of the following is not a part of process industry ?
A) Base metals
B) Plastics
C) Automobiles
D) Petroleum
78.What is not the advantage of globalization
A) Competition Foreign Investment

B) Loss of culture
C) None of the above
79. Plans, policies and procedures are the function of ------
A) Top level management

B) Middle level management
C) Bottom level management
D) Middle and bottom level management
80. is an activity which defined the steps of how and when work will be
done effectively
A) Directing
B) Planning
C) Organizing
D) Controlling
81.Which theory was put forward by F.W Taylor ?
A) Management by objectives
B) Industrial management
C) Functional management
D) Scientific management
82.Which of the following post comes under middle level management ?
A) Director
B) Branch Manager
C) Foreman
D) Supervisor
83. Policy making in an industry is a role of

A) Management
B) Administration
C) Public
D) Workers
84. Management is not directly visible instead; its presence is observed in the form of
results such as higher productivity, higher efficiency, disciplined work force,etc . Hence
management is
A) Tangible
B) Intangible
C) Concrete
85. can be defined as running business by the single owner

A) Proprietorship
B) Partnership
C) Private limited
D) Public limited
86. Motivation based on force is called as
A) Negative motivation
B) Positive motivation
C) Extrinsic motivation
D) Intrinsic motivation
87. Workman’s compensation act for workers come in to existence in
year A) 1924
B) 1992
C) 1986
D) 1976
88. Oily or greasy floors is the factor which contributes to accident due to
A) Workers
B) Management
C) Faulty layout or design of working place
D) Natural disasters
89. Who is incorrect person in the definition of Dependent?
A) Wife
B) Minor son
C) Widowed mother
D) Friend
90. Safety provision/s for workers under Factory act 1948 is/are
A) First-aid appliance
B) Overcrowding
C) Improper ventilation and temperature
91. Minimum rates of wages may be fixed by
A) By the hours
B) By the day
C) By the month
D) All of the above
92. Financial planning deals with
A) Preparations of financial statement

B) Planning for Capital Issues
C) Preparing budgets
D) All of the above
93. is prepared to co-ordinate between various budget
A) Master budget
B) Sales budget
C) Production budget
D) Material budget
94. Custom Duty is charged on
A) Vessels
B) Currency
C) Movable property
D) All
95. The capital invested in assets which cannot be easily converted into
money is called:
A) Fixed capital
B) Rquity capital
C) Working capital
96. VAT started in Maharashtra from

A) 2003
B) 2004
C) 2005
D) 2006
97. “A’Class items are % of the total number of
items” A) 15-25%
B) 10-20%
C) 65-75%
D) None of these
98. Economic order quantity provides the number of units to order.
A) Minimum
B) Maximum
C) Optimum
C) None of the above
99. department floats enquiries and processes quotations

A) Sales budget
B) Purchase
C) Production
D) Inventory
100. The parts per million defects are accepted in 6 sigma is
A) 1.4
B) 2.4
C) 3.4
D) 4.4
101. Arrange the activities of ABC analysis in the sequential form i)Make the list of all
item as per there value ii)Find out the percentage of high, medium , and low valued
items
. iii)Separate and count the number of costly, medium valued and low valued items iv)Find
out and list all items used in the industry.
A) iv,ii,i,iii
B) Iv.i.iii.ii
C) ii,i,iv,iii
D) iv,iii,ii,I
102. Which statement about kaizen is wrong?
A) It needs heavy investment

B) It gives commitment to quality
C) It is a Japanese technique
D) It is a continuous improvement
103.
A) Six sigma, Quality control tool, Quality assurance tool

B) 5S. Kaizen, Quality assurance tool
C) Six sigma,5S, Kaizen
D) TQM tools
104. The ISO 9000:2000 standards consist of three documents of which ISO 9001
pertains to:
A) Fundamentals
B) Requirements
C) Vocabulary
D) Guidance for performance improvements
105. Service industry provides
A) Tangible Goods.
B) Intangible Goods.
C) Manufactured Goods.
D) Imported Goods.
107. Match pairs:

1) Adam Smith (i) Need Hierarchy
2) F.W Taylor (ii)Economics
3) Maslow (iii)Principle of Management
4)Henry Fayol (iv)Scientific Management
A) 1-(ii),2-(iv),3-(i),4-(iii)
B) 1-(ii),2-(iii),3-(iv),4-(i)
C) C) 1-(iii),2-(iv),3-(i),4-(ii)
D) 1-(iv),2-(i),3-(ii),4-(iii)
108. The function of administration

is………
A) Decision making
B) Policy making
C) Controlling & ensure discipline
D) All of above
109. Top level is know as because all important decision related to whole
organization is taken by top management.
A) Strategical level
B) Tactical level
C) Operational level
D) All of above
110. One disadvantage of forming a partnership is?
A) The number of partner is limited

B) Specialist skill may be introduced
C) More financial capita is usually is available
D) Any Financial must be shared
111. Co-operative play an important role in:
A) Aerospace
B) Agriculture
C) Manufacturing
D) All of the above
112. Mr. Ram , Mr. Shyam & Mr. Kiran has started a business of automobile in 2003 , in
that business Mr. Ram ,Mr. Shyam & Mr. Kiran have invested Rs 500000/- Lakhs
individually. But Mr. Ram & Mr. Shyam gives full attention towards the business and
Mr. Kiran does not gives the attention toward business.so in type of business who is
sleeping partner.
A) Mr. Ram
B) Mr. Shyam
C) Mr. Kiran
D) All of the above
113. Identify the alternative which can correctly replace blank space in following
statement. Statement: According to Factories acct no adult worker should be required or
allowed to work in a factory to more than------
A) 12 hour in a day
B) 36 hour per week
C) 48 hour per week
D) 10 hour per in a day
114. Which is the health provision.
A) Fencing of machinery
B) Cleanliness
C) Washing faculties
115. Mr. Praful Kulkarni is working in Birla Pvt. Ltd in the capacity of foreman.
Company provided him certain protecting devices under ACT.
A) Factory Act
B) Minimum Wages Act
C) Comensation Act
D) Safety Provision Act
116. Capital required by a company to purchase building for staring the company is
called as.
A) Working Capital
B) Fixed captital
C) Laon
D) Debt
117. is concerned with procurement, allocation and control of financial resources

of a firm.
A) Financial Management
B) Material Management
C) Personnel Management
D) Operation Management
118. A man working in an industry has annual income of 2,50,000 Rs. From all sources,
total investment like PF,PPF,LIC savings 50,000 Rs. Exempted amount for income
is 1,50,000 Rs. &income tax rate is 10% upto 3,00,000. Find out amount of income
tax paid by that person is
A) 2000
B) 10000
C) 5000
D) 3000
119. Inventory management is part of:
A) Product management
B) Marketing management
C) Material management
D) Sales management
120. Too little Inventory increases the risc of:
A) Out of stock condition
B) More stock
C) Theft
D) Can’t Predict
121. Determine quality and timing for material planning
A) EOQ
B) ERP
C) SAP
D) MRP
122. The company have to generate value able financial reports by compiling financial
data from every department of company which includes production, Accounts,
Sales, Purchase, personal, Product development and design. which of the following
module shall execute this task.
A) Financial Module
B) H. R. Module
C) Production module
D) Purchase module
123. The Objective of TQM is
A) To improve profitability
B) To improve process
C) To guide management
D) None
124. Work environment clause of ISO 9001:2001
A) Covers education, training, skill and experience of personnel involved in work

.Gives guideline about their development to maintain quality work.
B) The organization should identify work environment that ensures conformity of
service.
C) The organization must plan and develop and process that are required for
product realization
D) All of the above
125. Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps
A) Analyze, improve, control

B) Analyze, design, verify
C) Define, measure, analyze
D) Define, measure,control
126. 126.
A) Ishikawa diagram
B) Control chart
C) Pareto analysis
D) Check list
127. Which one of the following is benefit of the Kaizen?.
A) Improved efficiency
B) Improved Safety
C) Employee Satisfaction
D) All of the above
128. Which ‘S’ of 5S involves cleaning the floors, the walls and the equipment and
ensuring all items are restored to their designated place.
A) Seiri
B) Seiton
C) Seiso
D) Seietsu
129. The provide the information about when to order and how much to order.
A) MRP
B) ERP
C) EOQ
D) Inventory
130. While on a long tour, which are the itmes we take most care of? Certainly, it is the
jewerly and the
cash ….. this could be an analogy to :
A) EOQ
B) ABC Analysis
C) Minimum batch demand
D) None
131. Which of the following is advantages of ABC Analysis .
A) ABC analysis results in reduction of annual inventory cost.

B) ABC analysis does not give importance which are critical for production.
C) Cannot be used if some of the items are scarce and not readily available.
D) All
132. Even through permanent working capital is working capital but it’s nature is
for every year or month.
A) Temporary
B) Permanent
C) Variable
D) Increasing basis
133. Principles proposed by are very useful for the contemporary managers to
manage their work efficiently effectively.
A) Controlling
B) Organising
C) Directing
D) Planning
134. Business firms produces and supply wide verities of goods and required by
society.
A) Money
B) Service
C) Entities
D) Social service
135. The goal of the enterprise is fulfilled through the use of resources like
A) Man
B) Machine
C) Material
D) All of the above
136. Which of the following was the key aim of scientific management?
A) To increase worker control of production

B) To increase productivity
C) To decrease absenteeism
D) To develop time and motion studies
137. No smoking the factor is an example of
A) Rules
B) Programme
C) Project
D) Schedule
138. Features of project organizations are
A) Can be internally formed

B) Temporary in nature
C) Having less no. of employees
D) All of the above
139. Which of the following comes under government sector?

A) BOSCH
B) TATA
C) L & T Ltd
D) ONGC
140. Identify the alternative which can correctly replace blank spaces following
statement. Statement: According to Factories Act no adult worker should be
required or allowed to work a factory for more than
A) 12hrs in a day
B) 36hrs in a week
C) 48hrs in a week
D) 10hrs in a day
141. The necessity of human acts is to protect the interest of:
A) Workers
B) Employee
C) A and B
142. Fixed capital is required for
A) Land
B) Equipment and machinery
C) Building
D) All
143. Sources of working capital
A) Land
B) Dividends
C) Long term borrowings
D) B&C
144. List the module of ERP
A) Human resources
B) Purchase
C) Finance and accounting
D) All of the above
145. Which of the following is not procurement cost?
A) Transportation cost
B) Cost of receiving, inspecting and stock material
C) Cost of processing vendors invoice
D) Storage cost
146. The six sigma methodology endorses
A) DMAIC concept
B) CRM concept
C) Quality circle inspect
D) TQM concept
147. Work out product requirement in detail and set product specification on the basis if
customers preference, cost and profit is a function of
A) Quality management
B) Material management
C) Production management
D) Inventory management
148. In first car was driven on the roads of India.
A) 1790
B) 1857
C) 1898
D) 1909
149. Which type of industries involves large investment and a high level of automation
process?
A) Village
B) Small scale
C) Large scale
D) Medium scale
150. The major function of Reserve Bank of India include:
A) Monitoring and controlling banking and functional system throughout India

B) Monitoring GDP and inflation
C) All of the Above
D) None of the Above
151. The art of getting things done by people is called as
A) Organization
B) Management
C) Direction
D) Staffing
152. Factors which affects depart-mentation are……….
A) Product
B) Process
C) Function
D) All of the Above
153. Senses of responsibility increases due to provide by seniors
A) Authority
B) Responsibility
C) Initiative
D) Leading
154. The sum that every shareholder gets is known as
A) Amount
B) Dividend
C) Shares
D) Capital
155. Which of the following is a false statement?
A) Capital is required to start the business

B) Capital is required to run the business
C) Capital is required to expand the business
D) Capital is required to sell the business
156. can be defined as an integrated information system that serves all

departments within an enterprise.
A) MRP
B) MPR
C) ERP D) EPR
157. Economic order quantity is represented by _
A) QB
B) EO
C) EQ
D) None
158. “A” type of items has importance due to consumption
A) 10-20%
B) 15-25%
C) 40-50%
D) 70-80%
159. Figure shows working model of quality circle of manufacturing industry working
on a tooling problem, couple of the important step no 5 and 7 are missing in the
model. Correctly identify the steps from the option given below.
A) 5)Presentation of Solution to Management, 7) Selection of best solution

B) 5)Discuss all the solutions, 7) Selection of best solution
C) 5) Selection of best solution, 7) Presentation of Solution to Management
D) 5) Selection of best solution, 7) Test the solution within Q.C.
160. Defects rate in 3 sigma level is
A) 6210
B) 66807
C) 405
D) 233
NOTE & TIPS
1] All these MCQ Question are for practice and have taken from syllabus.
2] don’t byheart this, understand them
3] Understand the management basic concept.
4] Do more and more practice
9/17/2020
MCQ QUESTIONS
MANAGEMENT
Tour2Tech
9/17/2020
MCQ QUESTIONS
MANAGEMENT
TOUR2TECH
Page 1 of 9
Q1)-------means integrating the economy of a country with global / word economy
a) Globalization
b) Privatization
c) Liberalization
d) L-P-G
Q2) The goals of the enterprise are fulfilled through the use of resources like
a) Man
b) Machine
c) Material
d) All of the above
Q3) Globalization increases –
a) Employment opportunity
b) Foreign Investment
c) Competition
d) All of the above
Q4) India adopted LPG Policy in –
a) 1980s
b) 1950s
c) 1990s
d) 1970s
Q5) Management theories are interpretive and evolve with organisational change
a) It is scientific
b) It helps decision making
c) a & b
Q6)------------is the function of putting together the different parts of enterprise into working
order
a) Planning
b) Management
c) Organization
d) Administration

Q7) Who is known as “ Father of Scientific Management “
a) Henry Feyol
b) F.W.Taylor
c) Gilberth
d) Juran
Q8) Esprit De corps refers to –
a) Team Work
b) Planning
c) Co-ordination
d) Authority
Q9) Planning Means-
a) Thinking before doing

b) Thinking after doing
c) Thinking during doing
d) All of the above
Q10) Policy making in an industry is a role of –
a) Management
b) Administration
c) Public
d) Workers
Q11) –---refers to the number of sub ordinates a manager can supervise effectively-
a) scope of supervisor
b) Span of control
c) focus of supervisor
d) None of the above.
Q12) Reliance Industries Ltd. Is a form of –
a) Single Ownership
b) Partnership
c) Private ltd.
d) Joint Stock Company
Q13) In----------type of organization the sub ordinates receive orders from their immediate boss-
a) Line organization
b) Line and staff organization
c) Functional organization
d) Product organization
Q14) Amul Dairy industries refers to which of the following company type-
a) Private limited company

b) Ownership company
c) Partnership company
d) Co-operative company
Q15) Collapse of crane is a cause of accident. Under which type of accidents does it comes?
a) Mechanical causes of an Accident

b) Natural Cause of an accident
c) Human error
d) All the above
Q16) Workman’s compensation act for workers came in to existence in year –
a) 1950
b) 1992
c) 1986
Q17) Identify the important wale fare provisions in an industry
a) Canteen
b) Crèches
c) Lunch room
d) All of the above
Q18) Age, Health, Fatigue and anxiety are the factors refers to-
a) Environmental causes of accidents

b) Personal causes of accidents
c) Mechanical causes of accidents
d) All of the above
Q19) Capital invested in Land and machinery is termed as –
a) Floating capital
b) Fixed Capital
c) Sinking Capital
d) Working Capital
Q20) Income tax and Property Tax falls under –
a) Indirect Tax
b) Service Tax
c) Direct Tax
d) All of the above
Q21) Which of the following comes under the title of “sources of fixed capital”
a) Shares or Equities
b) Preference shares and Deferred shares
c) Public deposits and Debentures
d) All of the above.
Q22) Major sources of for obtaining working capital are the commercial banks. They provide
finance in the form of:
a) Loans and credit facilities

b) Overdrafts and mortgages
c) Bills of exchange and public loans
d) All of the above
Q23) A technique for determining the quantity and timing of dependent demand items -
a) EOQ
b) ABC analysis
c) MRP
d) BOM
Q24) The input to MRP –

a) Master production schedule
b) Inventory record file
c) Bill of materials
d) All of the above
Q25) Which of the following process includes the activities of planning , scheduling and
controlling material.
a) Material Management
b) Resource Management
c) Resource Planning
d) ERP
Page 5 of 9
Q26)-----------is a cushion between supply and demand
a) Material Management
b) Inventory Management
c) Sales and Purchases
Q27)-------------is based on a very universal Pareto's Principal that a few high usage value items
constitutes a major part of the capital invested in inventories, whereas bulk of
items in inventory, having low usage value constitute insignificance part of the
capital.
a) EOQ
b) ABC Analysis
c) a and b both
Q28) Identify important constituents of Total Quality Management from Following -

i) Orderliness and Cleanliness ii) Punctuality and Continuous efforts
iii) Customers' Service iv) Standardization of work
a) only i
b) only i and ii
c) only s
d) i, ii, iii, and iv
Q29) Quality is the responsibility of --
a) all those in concern with product including end user

b) all those who are working in the organisation
c) all those who are managers
d) all those who are supervisors
Q30) Kaizen is a Japanese technique. Kaizen word is formed from two characters KAI and ZEN
in which -
a) KAI means change & ZEN means good

b) KAI means good & ZEN means
change
c) KAI means good & ZEN means
GURU
d) none of the above

Page 6 of 9
Two Marks Questions
Q31) Which of the following pair is true for above management triangle
a) Top Level –Strategic Decision – Chief Executive Officer

b) Middle Level –Tactical Decisions– Manager
c) Lower Level – Operational decisions – Foreman
d) All of the above
Q32) Following are the kinds of partners-
a) Active partner and Sleeping Partner

b) Owner and Distrubuter
c) Global Partner and Media Partner
d) Permanent Partner and Temperory Partner
Q33) The type of organisation shown below belongs to which type of organisation structure –
a) Line Organistion
b) Line and staff organisation
c) Functional Organisation
1) None of the above

Q34) Mr. Ramesh is working in ABC Electronics ltd in the capacity of Foreman. One Day while
working in the organization he met with an accident in which he has to lose his right
forehand . ABC Electronics is paying him fifty percent of his monthly wages in multiplication
with relevant factor. Under which act he is eligible for the said amount?
a) Indian Factory Act

b) Workman’s Compensation Act
c) Minimum wages Act
d) Safety provisions Act
Q35) Suggest the appropriate type of shares in the blank space provided in following figure.
Shares
Equity Preference Deferred

Shares Shares Shares
a) Cumulative ,Non Cumulative

b) Cumulative , Ordinary
c) Non Cumulative , Ordinary
d) Ordinary , Debentures
Q36) Name the type of following budget

XYZ Instrument Company Limited
No of units Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec Total
to be Units
produced
Product A
Product B
Product C
a) Master Budget
b) Sales Budget
c) a and b both
Q37) Arrange the activities of purchasing procedure in the sequential form
i) receipt of quotation ii) selection of right source of supply
iii) receipt of purchase requisition iv) making comparative statement
a) i, iii, iv, ii
b) iii, i, iv, ii
c) iv, ii, i, iii
d) i ,iv, iii, ii
Q38) ABC Auto ltd is a leading automobile company , manufacturing various range of
automobiles. The company regularly requires large quantity material particularly raw
materials and other essential accessories so that the requirement of the material is
ascertained and the job of supplying is entrusted to a firm by calling quotations .Mr. M.
Subrmaniyam is an sincere and workaholic person who is recently elevated from Assistant
Manager ( R & D) to Manager (Purchases). Company expects that he should set up a
structured purchase procedure for such kind of purchases . Suggest which type of purchase
procedure does Mr. M. Subrmaniyam should adopt so as to satisfy company's objective of
structured purchasing.
a) Market purchasing
b) Rate Contract purchasing
c) Global purchasing
d) Centralised purchasing
Q39) Which of the following are two main elements of quality

i) Quality of design ii) Quality of performance
iii) Quality of products iv) Quality circle
a) i and ii
b) i and iii
c) ii and iii
d) ii and iv
Q40) Match the following- select the proper option

l) ISO 9000-2000 i) Quality management system guidelines
m) ISO 9001-2000 ii) Quality management system vocabulary
n) ISO9004-2000 iii) Quality management system requirements
a) l-i. M-iii, n-ii

b) l-ii,m-iii, n-i
c) l-iii. M-i, n-ii
d) l-i. M-ii, n-iii
NOTE & TIPS
1] All these MCQ Question are for practice and have taken from syllabus.
2] Don’t byheart, understand.
3] Understand the management basic concept.
4] Do more and more practice

Management

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Management

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Management

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Question Bank 2

Name of subject: MANAGEMENT www.cwipedia.in

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

2. What does a business provide to the customers in exchange of their money?

3. According to Drucker, the purpose of business is:

4. Which one of these is not a type of business?

5. Service sector is also known as .

7. How do traders make profit?

8. What are the types of trade?

9. Which one of these is the largest segment in Indian industry?

10. What are the segments of engineering sector?

11. Which one of these is not a relevant factor in process industries?

12. What plays an important role in the Indian textile industry?

13. Which of the following cannotbe used in textile industry?

14. How many products are produced by chemical industry?

18. Which one of the following is a fertilizer?

20. Which one of the following is not a consumer product? a.

21. is the leading manufacturer in the chemical industry.

a. Tata Petrochemicals b .Parle Agro-Products

c. Hindustan Unilever d. Reliance Petrochemicals 22. What is the mainstay

23. Agriculture provides employment to almost % of Indian work force.

24. India has a very large export of processed .

a. Chemicals b. Fruits and vegetables

b. Finished Products d. Fishes

a. small scale industries b. large scale industries

c. village industries d. sugar industries 26.

Which type of industries are semi-automated?

a. small scale b. large scale

27. Which type of industries involvethe largestinvestment?

a. small scale industries b. large scale industries

c. village industries d. sugar industries 28.

Which one of the following is not a cash crop?

29. What does ITES stand for?

a. Information Technology Extend Service

b. Information Technology Education Service

c. Information Technology Enabled Service

d. Information Technology Energy Service

30. industry is the sunshine sector of Indian economy.

32. Indian IT companies are not working in the business.

c. software d. product development

33. Similar to manufacturing companies banking is a business to make .

a. public relation b. profit

c. goods d. customer relations

34. banking is not a business segment of industry.

c. whole sale d. treasury operations

35. It takes too many days for payment by .

a. demand draft b. cash

36. For paying amount up to Rs2 lacs, is a better choice.

a. demand draft b. cheque

37. Commission charged by a bank on DD is charges applied to RTGS & NEFT.

a. less than b. equal to

c. more than d. negligible to

38. The promise to compensate for any potential failure is called

a. fixed deposit b. recurring

39. The certain amount which an insurer pays to the company is

40. Find the odd one out

a. health insurance b. travel insurance

c. life insurance d. motor insurance

a. health insurance b. travel insurance

c. life insurance d. motor insurance