FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

BATCH – 923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I

Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183

 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

(i) Part-A (01-07) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: 1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in 1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(i) Part-A (08-13) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) Part-B (01-05) contains five (05) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com.
 923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-2

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. A particle of mass 5 kg moving in the X-Y plane has its potential energy given by U  ( 7 x  24 y )

Joule. The particle is initially at origin and has velocity u  (14.4iˆ  4.2 ˆj ) m/s
(A) the particle has speed 25 m/s at t  4 sec
2
(B) the particle has an acceleration 5 m / s
(C) the acceleration of particle is normal to its initial velocity
(D) none of these

2. A ball is dropped by a passenger from the window of a train moving with uniform velocity. The ball will
reach the ground following a
(A) parabolic path for the passenger
(B) parabolic path for the man standing on the road
(C) straight line path for the passenger
(D) straight line path for the man standing on the road

3. Four forces act on a point object. The object will be in equilibrium if

(A) all of them are in the same plane
(B) they are opposite to each other in pair
(C) the sum of x, y and z components of force is zero separately
(D) they from a closed figure of 4 sides

4. The blocks B and C in the figure have mass m each. The strings A
AB and BC are light, having tensions T1 and T2 respectively. The
system is in equilibrium with a constant force mg acting on C. 1 T1
(A) tan 1 = 1 /2 (B) tan 2 = 1/2 B
(C) T1  5mg (D) T 2  2mg
2 T2

F=mg
C

5. A block P of mass 4 kg is placed on P

horizontal rough surface with coefficient of B 4kg A
friction  = 0.6. And two blocks R and Q of
masses 2 kg and 4 kg connected with the
help of massless strings A and B
 = 0.6
respectively passing over frictionless pulleys
2
as shown, then (g = 10m/s ) 2kg
(A) acceleration of block P is zero. 4kg
(B) tension in string A is 20 N. Q R
(C) tension in string B is 40 N.
(D) the contact force on block P is 20 5 N.

6. A particle of mass m is initially at rest at the origin. It is subjected to a force and starts moving along
the x-axis. Its kinetic energy K changes with time as dK/dt = t, where  is a positive constant of
appropriate dimensions. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
(A) The force applied on the particle is constant
(B) The speed of the particle is proportional to time
(C) The distance of the particle from the origin increases linearly with time
(D) The force is conservative

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7. Displacement (s) versus time (t) graphs of two particles s s

moving in a straight line along x-axis are shown below. It
can be stated that
(A) particle (i) has accelerated motion
t t
(B) particle (i) has uniform motion (i) (ii)
(C) particle (ii) has uniform motion
(D) particle (ii) has a retarded motion

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a speed of 600 km/hr at a height of 1960 m. When it is
vertically above the point A on the ground, a body is dropped from it. The body strikes the ground at
point B. Calculate the distance AB. (Given g = 9.8 m/s2)
(A) 3.33 km (B) 4.5 km
(C) 5 km (D) 1.2 km

9. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the coefficient of friction between the chain and
the table surface is 0.25 then the maximum fraction of length of chain that can overhang on edge of
table is
(A) 20 % (B) 35 %
(C) 25 % (D) 15 %
 
10. The area of a parallelogram formed by the vectors A = î +2 ĵ +3 k̂ and B =3 î  2 ĵ + k̂ as adjacent
sides is
(A) 83 units. (B) 64 units
(C) 32 units. (D) 3 units

11. The graph given shows the velocity v versus time t for a
body. Which of the following graphs shown represents the
corresponding acceleration versus time graphs? v
t

a a
(A) (B)
t t

a
a
(C) (D)
t t

12. The acceleration of a particle at time t is given by A= a2sint. Its displacement at time t is
(A) a2 sint (B) asint
 t 
(C) a cost (D) a sin  
 2 

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website: www.fiitjee.com.
923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-4

1
13. A particle is dropped from height h = 100 m, from surface of a planet. If in last sec of its journey it
2
covers 19 m. Then value of acceleration due to gravity that planet is :
(A) 8 m/s2 (B) 6 m/s2
2
(C) 1/4 m/s (D) 4 m/s2

PART-B (Numerical Answer Type)

This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (positive or negative number in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).

14. For what values of , the vectors 2i – j + 2k and 3i + 2  j are perpendicular?

1 2
15. The equation of the trajectory of an oblique projectile projected from origin is y  3x  gx . Here,
2
2
x and y are in meter and g is in m/s . The angle of projection is 12k degree. Find the value of K.
[Assume : x-axis along horizontal and y-axis along vertical]

16. Two particles A and B are projected in the same plane from the 10 m/s B
two towers of height 10 m and 20 m respectively. Particle A is
10 2 m/s
projected with an initial speed of 10 2 m/s at an angle of 450
A 450
with horizontal, while particle B is projected horizontally with 20 m
speed 10 m/s as shown. If they collide in air, The distance
between the towers is 5K (in meter). Find K. 10 m

2
17. A particle is moving along a straight line such that its position depends on time as x  2  at  bt ,
where a = 3 m/s, b = 1 m/s2 then distance covered by the particle during first 3 seconds from starting
of the motion

18. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The distance moved
by the body in time t is proportional to n th power of time find n. Find the value of n .

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 923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-5

SECTION – II : CHEMISTRY
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

1. If T1, T2 and T3 are the temperatures at which the urms, uaverage, umps of oxygen gas are all equal to
1500m/s then the not correct statement is/are
(A) T1  T2  T3 (B) T1  T2  T3
(C) T1  T2  T3 (D) None of these

2. The hybridization of I3 is

(A) sp (B) sp2
(C) sp3 (D) sp3 d

3. Which of the following statements are correct for an electron that has n = 4 and m = 2?
(A) The electron may be in a d-orbital
(B) The electron is in the fourth principal electronic shell
(C) The electron may be in a p-subshell
1
(D) The electron must have the spin quantum number = 
2

4. When a equimolar mixture of Cu2S and CuS is titrated with Ba(MnO4)2 in acidic medium, the final
products contain Cu2+, SO2 and Mn2+. If the mol. mass of Cu2S, CuS and Ba(MnO4)2 are M1, M2 and
M3 respectively then
M
(A) eq. mass of Cu2 S is 1
8
M2
(B) eq. mass of CuS is
6
M
(C) eq. mass of Ba MnO4 2 is 3
5
(D) Cu2S and CuS both have same equivalents in mixture

5. On moving down the group from F to I, which of the properties decrease

(A) ionic radius (B) ionization energy

(C) oxidizing nature (D) electronegativity

6. Which of the following species have a bond order of 3?

(A) CO (B) CN
(C) NO (D) O 2

7. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water whereas barium sulphate is sparingly soluble because
(A) The hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than its lattice energy
(B) The lattice energy of barium sulphate is more than its hydration energy
(C) The lattice energy has no role to play in solubility
(D) The hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its lattice energy

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 923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-6

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. In the process, O 2  O 22  e the electron lost is from

(A) Bonding   orbital (B) Antibonding   orbital
(C) 2pz orbital (D) 2 p x orbital

9. A gas in an open container is heated from 27°C to 127°C. The fraction of the original amount of gas
left in the container would be
(A) 3/4 (B) 1/2
(C) 2/3 (D) 7/8

10. The equivalent mass of an element is 4. Its chloride has a vapour density 59.25. Then the valency of
the element is
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1

11. Number of radial node in 4d orbital

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0

12. The hydrated salt Na2CO3.xH2O undergoes 63% loss in mass on heating and becomes anhydrous.
The value of x is

(A) 10 (B) 12

(C) 8 (D) 18

13. Which of the following show least dipole character?

(A) Water (B) Ethanol
(C) Ethane (D) Ammonia

PART – C: (Integer Answer Type)

This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.

1. KIO3 reacts with KI and both produce I2. The n factor of KIO3 is:

2. In Na , Mg2 , Al3 , O2 , F , atoms, how many atoms are having more radius as compare to Al+3?.

3. The ratio of rate of diffusion of helium and methane under identical conditions of pressure and
temperature will be

4. In an experiment, 50 ml of 0.1 M solution of a metallic salt reacted exactly with 25 ml of 0.1 M solution
of Na2SO3. In the reaction SO32– is oxidized to SO42–. If the original oxidation number of the metal in
the salt was 3, what would be the new oxidation number of metal?

5. The amount of energy required to remove the electron from a Li+2 ion in its ground state is how many
times than the amount of energy required to remove the electron from an H-atom in its ground state?

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 923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-7

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

d2 y
1. If y = t2 – 4t and x = t3, then at t = 1 is NOT equal to
dx2
(A) 3 (B) –3
(C) 1 (D) –1


2. If A + B = and cos A + cos B = 1, then which of the following is/are true
3
1 2
(A) cos(A  B) = (B) |cos A  cos B| =
3 3
1 1
(C) cos(A  B) =  (D) |cos A  cos B| =
3 2 3

3. If in a ABC sinC  cosC  sin  2B  C   cos  2B  C   2 2 , then ABC is

(A) equilateral (B) isosceles
(C) right angled (D) obtuse angled

2t 2t dy
4. If tany = 2
and sin x = 2
, then is equal to
1 t 1 t dx
(A) 1 (B) sin2  + cos2 
(C) –1 (D) none of these

5. Let f(x) = (ax + b)cos x + (cx + d)sin x and f(x) = x cos x for all x  R, then
(A) a = –1 (B) b = 1
(C) c = 1 (D) d = –1

6. Three lines px + qy + r = 0, qx + ry + p = 0 and rx + py + q = 0 are concurrent if

(A) p + q + r = 0 (B) p2 + q2 + r2 = pq + qr + rp
3 3 3
(C) p + q + r = 3pqr (D) none of these

7. If PQR is the triangle formed by the common tangents to the circle x2 + y2 + 6x = 0 and
x2 + y2  2x = 0, then
(A) centroid of the PQR is (1, 0) (B) incentre of the PQR is (1, 0)
(C) circumcentre of the PQR is (1, 0) (D) orthocentre of the PQR is (2, 0)

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)

This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. Value of x satisfying inequation logx2 x  1  0

(A) (0, 2) (B) (1, 2)
(C) (0, 7) (D) (1, 1)

9. If sin x + cosec x = 2, then sinn x  cosecn x is equal to

(A) 2n2 (B) 2n 1
(C) 2n (D) none of these

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 923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-8

10. If P(1, 2), Q(4, 6), R(5, 7) and S(a, b) are the vertices of a parallelogram PQRS, then the value of a +
b is
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 11 (D) none of these

11. Number of integral coordinate inside the triangle made by the line x + y = 15 and coordinate axes is
(A) 91 (B) 90
(C) 78 (D) none of these

12. The nearest point on the line 3x – 4y = 25 from the origin is

 25    25 
(A)  , 0 (B)  0, 
 3   4 
 5
(C)  5,  (D) (3,  4)
 2 

13. The equation of the circle passing through (2, 0) and (0, 4) and having the minimum radius is
(A) x2 + y2 = 20 (B) x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) (x + y – 4) + (x + y – 16) = 0 (D) none of these

PART – B: (Numerical Based Answer Type)

This section contains six (05) numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30)

xy
1. If log10x + log10y  2, then the smallest possible value of is
5

2. The value(s) of y for which the equation 4 sin x  3cos x  y 2  6y  14 has a real solution, is (are)

3. Number of points at unit distance from the lines 3x – 4y + 11 = 0 and 5x –12y + 7 = 0 is

4. The number of lines that can be drawn from the point (2, 3), so that its distance from (–1, 6) is equal
to 6, is

5. The number of real tangents that can be drawn from (2, 2) to the circle x 2  y2  6x  4y  3  0 is

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 923A, 923, 023, 2123 A Lot (RW)-Ph-I-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-9

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
CPT–1 PHASE-I CODE: 000000.1 PAPER–1

ANSWERS
PHYSICS (SECTION–I)
1. A, B, C 2. B, C 3. C, D 4. A, C, D
5. A, B, C, D 6. A, B, D 7. A, D 8. A
9. A 10. A 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. 3.00 15. 5.00 16. 4.00
17. 4.50 18. 1.50

CHEMISTRY (SECTION–II)
1. B 2. D 3. A, B 4. A, B
5. B, C, D 6. A, B, C 7. A, B 8. B
9. A 10. B 11. A 12. A
13. C 1. 5 2. 4 3. 2
4. 2 5. 9

MATHEMATICS (SECTION–III)
1. A, B, D 2. B, C 3. B, C 4. A, B
5. B, C 6. A, B, C 7. A, B, C 8. B
9. D 10. A 11. A 12. D
13. B 1. 4 2. 3 3. 4
4. 0 5. 0

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