Labour & General Laws MCQ Book

INDUSTRIAL,
LABOUR &
GENERAL LAWS
MCQ BOOK
ADVOCATE SANYOG VYAS

INDEX
S.NO. TOPIC PAGE NO.

1 The Factories Act, 1948 1-30
2 The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 31-41
3 The Payment of Wages Act,1936 42-60
4 The Equal Remuneration Act,1976 61-64
5 The Employee State Insurance Act, 1948 65-70
6 The EPF & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 71-76
7 The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 77-82
8 The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 83-86
9 The Workman Compensation Act,1923 87-106
10 The Contract labour(Regulation & Abolition) Act,1970 107-117
11 The Maternity Benefits Act, 1961 118-123
12 The Child Labour(Prohibition & Regulation)Act, 1986 124-128
13 The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 129-133
14 The Industrial Dispute Act, 1948 134-153
15 The Trade Union’s Act, 1926 154-158
16 The Labour Laws (exemption from furnishing returns and 159-161
maintaining registers by certain establishments) ACT, 1988
17 The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory notification of vacancies) 162-165
ACT, 1959
18 The Apprentice Act, 1961 166-169
19 Audit under Labour Laws 170-172
20 Constitution of India 173-183
21 Interpretation of Statutes 184-191
22 Law of Torts 192-201
23 The Specific Relief Act, 1963 192-201
24 The Limitation Act, 1940 192-201
25 The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 192-201
26 The Civil Procedure Code, 1908 202-217
27 The Criminal Procedure Code,1908 218-222
28 The Right to Information Act,2005 223-231
29 Model Test Paper 1 232-247
30 Model Test Paper 2 248-262
Industrial Labour & General Laws Adv. Sanyog Vyas
Chapter -1
Factories Act, 1948
MUTLIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Factories Act, 1948 is one of the major Central Act aimed to regulate the
a. Uniform practices in trade unions
b. Working conditions in the factories
c. Incorporation of the companies
d. State-wise allocation of factories
2. ____________ lays down all essential provisions relating to proper working condition,
working hours, holidays, overtime, employment of children, women and young person,
safety, health and welfare of the workers employed in a factory etc.
a. Partnership Act, 1932
b. Companies Act, 1956
c. Factories Act, 1948
d. All of the above
3. The main objective of the factories Act is/ are.
a. To ensure adequate safety measure
b. To promote health and welfare of the workers employed
c. To prevent haphazard growth of factories through the provisions relating to approval of
plans before creation of a factory.
4. The factories Act, 1948 has been enacted primarily with the object of protecting
workers employed in factories against.
a. Industrial and occupational hazards
b. Gender differences and child labour
c. Corruption
d. Sexual hazards
5. The Factories Act was enacted in 1948 and came into force with effect from
a. 1st April, 1950
b. 1st April, 1949
c. 1st April 1948
d. 1st April, 1947
6. The act relating to factories is called factories Act, __________?
a. 1956
b. 1857
c. 1948
d. 1936
7. The first Factories Act was enacted in
a. 1881
b. 1895
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c. 1887
d. 1885
8. Factory is included in list III of the Constitution entry No. _________
a. 30
b. 36
c. 39
d. 40
9. Factory is included in list _________ of the Constitution entry No. 36
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. All of the above.
10. Factory is a concurrent subject included in List III of 7 th Schedule to Constitution –
entry No. 36. Therefore, ………… can make legislation regulating the working of
factories.
a. Central Government
b. State Government
c. Both Central and State Government
d. Neither Central nor state Government
11. The Factories Act, 1948 extends to
a. Whole of India
b. Whole of India except Bihar and Jharkhand
c. Whole of India Union Territories
d. Jammu and Kashmir
12. J & K Manufacturing Ltd is manufacturing wooden products in Jammu & Kashmir.
What provisions of the Factories Act, 1948 are applicable to them?
a. Sec, 22 to Sec. 50
b. Sec. 67
c. Sec. 111
d. All the provisions
13. Factories Act, 1948 is one of the social enactments intended to achieve social reforms by
regulating the working conditions, working hours of the workers employed in a factory
wherein__________workers are employed if manufacturing process is being carried on
with the aid of power and __________workers without the aid of power.
a. Ten : Twenty
b. Twenty : Ten
c. Ten or more ; Twenty or more
d. Twenty or more ; Ten or more
14. ABC Ltd. has a factory where manufacturing process is being carried out without the
aid of power, Factories Act, 1948 will be applicable if –
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a. Ten or more workers are or were working on any day of the preceding twelve months.
b. Ten or more workers are or were working on any day of the preceding ten months
c. Twenty or more workers are or were working on any day of the preceding twelve months
d. Hundred or more workers are or were working on any day of the preceding twelve
months
15. XYZ Ltd. has a factory where manufacturing process is being carried out with the aid
of power, Factories Act, 1948 will be applicable if –
a. Ten or more workers are or were working on any day of the preceding twelve months
b. Ten or more workers are or were working on any day of the preceding ten months
c. Twenty or more workers are or were working on any day of the preceding twelve months
d. Hundred or more workers are or were working on any day of the preceding twelve
months
16. The Factories Act, 1948
a. does not apply to factories belonging to Central Government
b. does not apply to factories belonging to Central and State Government
c. does not apply to factories belonging to private Sector
d. applies to factories belonging to central and state Government
17. Section _______ of the Factories Act, 1948 provides the definition for a factory.
a. Section 2(k)
b. Section 2(l)
c. Section 2(m)
d. Section 2(n)
18. The definition of ‘Factory’ does not include
a. A mine
b. A railway running shed
c. A restaurant
d. All of the above
19. The definition of ‘factory’ does not include any premises including the precincts
thereof.
a. whereon ten or more workers are working, or were working on any day of the preceding
twelve months, and in any part of which manufacturing process in being carried on with
the aid of power, or is ordinarily so carried on.
b. Whereon twenty or more workers are working, or were working on and day of the
preceding twelve months, and in any part of which a manufacturing process is being
carried on without the aid of power, or is ordinarily so carried on
c. a mine subject to the operation of [the Mines Act, 1952 (35 to 1952], or [a mobile unit
belonging to the armed forces of the Union, railway running shed or a hotel, restaurant or
eating place]
d. all of the above
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20. A mobile unit that belongs to the armed forces of the Union is not a “Factory” as per
the definition of “Factory” given under the Act.
a. True
b. False because any mobile unit is considered as “Factory”
c. False because any armed forces of the Union is considered as “Factory”
d. False because of both (b) and (c).
21. The establishment of hotel would not fall for classification as a factory. This
explanation was a result of which of the following case?
a. Lal Bovta Hotel Aur Bakery Mazdoor Union v. Ritz Private Ltd.
b. Lal Mohammad v. Indian Railway Construction Co. Ltd
c. Parry Co. Ltd v. Presiding Officer, II Additional Labour Court, Madras
d. None of the above
22. All the workers employed by the construction company would squarely attract the
definition of the term ______.
a. Occupier
b. Occupied
c. Workmen
d. Adult
23. Section 2 (k) of the factories Act, 1948 contain definition of.
a. Manufacturing process
b. Factory
c. Worker
d. Goods
24. If any article is stored in a cold storage, is it considered as a manufacturing process
under the Act?
a. Yes
b. No
c. May be, may not be
d. Neither of the above
25. XYZ Construction Company is a commercial establishment receiving the products in
bulk and other unpacking such bulk products pack them according to the customer’s
requirements and dispatch such products to customers. Such as act is considered as
________ within the scope of the Factories Act, 1948.
a. Manufacturing process
b. Service work
c. Transmission machinery
d. Occupier
26. Section 2(a) of the Factories Act defines the term……..
a. Adult
b. Adolescent
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c. Child
d. Calendar year
27. Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948?
a. Who is more than 14 years
b. Who is more than 15 years
c. Who has completed 18 years of age
d. Who is less than 18 years
28. Who is an adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948?
a. Who has completed 18 years of age
b. Who is less than 18 years
c. Who has completed 15 years of age but has not completed 18 years of age
d. Who has completed 15 years of age but has not completed 21 years of age
29. Who is an adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948?
b. Who is less than 18 years
c. Who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years
d. None of these
30. What is a calendar year as per Factories Act, 1948?
a. period of twelve months beginning with the first day of July in any year
b. period of twelve months beginning with the first day of September in any year
c. period of twelve months beginning with the first day of January in any year.
d. Period of twelve months beginning with the first day of April in any year
31. According to Factories Act, 1948, a child is
b. Who has not completed 15 years of age
c. Who has completed 18 years of age
d. Who has not completed 18 years of age
32. As per the Act, a person who has not completed his 15 th year of age is a/an
a. Adolescent
b. Teenager
c. Child
d. Adult
33. The primary purpose of employee safety program is to preserve the employee.
a. Mental health
b. Physical health
c. Emotional health
d. All of the above
34. Hazardous process is specified in the ________ Schedule of the Factories Act, 1948.
a. Fourth
b. Third
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c. Second
d. First
35. Who is a young person as per Factories Act, 1948?
a. An adult
b. A child
c. An adolescent
d. A child or an adolescent
36. As per Factories Act, 1948, A “Day” means a period ________hours
a. 18 hours
b. Normal working hours of 9 hours
c. Period of 12 hours
d. Period of 24 hours
37. As per Factories Act, 1948, A “Day” means a period 24 hours beginning at __________.
a. Sun rise
b. Mid night
c. 6 o’clock morning
d. 12 hours of noon
38. As per Factories Act, 1948 “Day” means a period of
a. Twelve hours beginning at midnight
b. Twenty-four hours beginning at mid-night
c. Twenty-four hours beginning at 8 AM
d. Twelve hours beginning at 8 AM
39. “ ___________ “ means electrical energy, or any other form of energy which is
mechanically transmitted and is not generated human or animal agency, as per the
Factories Act, 1948.
a. Horse power
b. Power
c. Energy
d. Urja
40. As per Factories Act, 1948. “ __________” means any shaft, wheel drum, pulley, system
of pulleys, coupling, clutch, driving belt or other appliance or device by which the
motion of a prime mover is transmitted to or received by any machinery or appliance.
a. Prime mover
b. Machinery
c. Transmission machinery
d. Manufacturing process
41. Precient means a space __________
a. Accompanying a building
b. Adjoining a factory
c. Enclosed by walls
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d. Surrounded by buildings
42. According to the definition of “Week” under the Act, it is period of 7 days beginning at
midnight on ___________
a. Sunday
b. Monday
c. Saturday
d. Friday
43. Which of the following is/are part of manufacturing process under the Factories Act,
1948.
a. Making altering, repairing, ornamenting finishing packing, oiling washing, cleaning
breaking up, demolishing, or otherwise treating or adapting any article or substance with
a view to its use, sale, transport, delivery or disposal.
b. Pumping oil, water, sewage or any other substance
c. Generating transforming or transmitting power
d. All of the above
44. Which of the following is/are part of manufacturing process under the Factories Act,
1948.
a. Composing types for printing, printing by letter press, lithography, photogravure or other
similar process or book binding.
b. Constructing reconstructing, repairing, refitting, finishing or breaking up ships or vessels
c. Preserving or storing any article in cold storage.
d. All of the above
45. Identify the incorrect statement from the following :
The definition of worker as per factories act
a. Includes a person employed directly by principal employer
b. Includes a person employed through agency
c. Does not include a person employed without the knowledge of principal employer
d. Includes person employed without remuneration
46. Section 2(n) of the Factories Act, 1948 defines
a. Publisher
b. Manager
c. Owner
d. Occupier
47. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act,
1948 is called as __________
a. Occupier
b. Manager
c. Chairman
d. Managing Director
48. A general manager of a company ________ be appointed as a occupier of a company.
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a. Is deemed to
b. Can’t
c. May
d. Must
49. According to Sec. 2(n) of the Factories Act, 1948, an “Occupier” of a factory means –
a. The person who has established the factory
b. The person who has highest profit share in the factory
c. The person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory
d. The person who has ultimate control over the employees of the factory
50. The responsibility for maintenance of employee health under the Factories Act, is with
a. Employees
b. Employer
c. Government
d. RBI
51. Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is the primary purpose of the
a. Payment of wages Act, 1936
b. Factories Act, 1948
c. Companies Act, 1956
d. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
52. In which of the following situations, State Government has power to exempt any factory
or class of description of factories from any or all provisions of Factories Act, except
section 67?
a. When there are more than two factories under one group of companies
b. When there is public emergency
c. When Supreme Court requests State Government
d. Every calendar year, 1st January.
53. For the purpose of Factories Act, “ __________” means a grave emergency whereby the
security of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or
external aggression or internal disturbance.
a. Natural calamity
b. Terrorist attack
c. Public emergency
d. Private emergency
54. The State Government may use its power to exempt any factory or class of factories
from all or any provisions of Factories Act, except Sec. 67 Under the public emergency
for a period not exceeding ………….
a. 12 months
b. 9 months
c. 6 months
d. 3 months
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55. According to the Factories Act, 1948, every ________shall ensure, so far as is
reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare of all workers while they are at
work in the Factory.
a. Employee
b. Occupier
c. General manager
d. Government officer
56. The provision and maintenance of plant and systems of work in the factory that are safe
and without risks to health, is the duty of
a. General manager
b. Government officer
c. Employee
d. Occupier
57. The arrangement in the factory for ensuing safety and absence of risks to health in
connection with the use, handling, storage and transport of articles and substances, is
the duty of
a. Occupier
b. General manager
c. Government officer
d. Employee
58. Which of the following officers have the duty to the provision, maintenance monitoring
of such working environment in the factory for the workers that is safe, without risks to
health and adequate as regards facilities and arrangement for their welfare at work?
a. Government officer
b. Occupier
c. General manager
d. Employee
59. Which of the following section of the Factories Act, 1948 discusses the power of
inspectors?
a. Section 9
b. Section 10
c. Section 11
d. Section 12
60. The inspectors appointed under Factories Act operate within their
a. Local limits
b. State limits
c. Country limits
d. International limits
61. The District magistrate cannot become an Inspector as per the Act.
a. True
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b. True, however, District magistrate cannot give orders to occupiers of a factory

c. True, however, District Magistrate has to leave his practice of High court if any.
d. False
62. Under the factories Act, 1948, for every district, ________shall be an Inspector.
a. District Collector
b. District Inspector General
c. District Judge
d. District Magistrate
63. It is the duty of the manufacturer to ensure that the standards adopted in the country
outside for the manufacture of such article is _________the standardsadopted in India
that the article conforms to such standards.
a. Equal to
b. Below
c. Above
d. Either below or above
64. Under the Factories Act of Section 4, the State Government may, on its own or on an
application made in this behalf by an occupier, direct that ____________
a. Two or more factories shall be treated as a single factory
b. Different departments of a factory shall be treated as separate factories
c. Different branches of a factory shall be treated as separate factories
d. All of the above
65. Who appoints the inspector(s) under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. Local government
b. Municipality
c. Central Government
d. State Government
66. The power to appoint Chief Inspector lies with ___________
b. State Government
c. Municipal Corporation
d. Occupier
67. Who appoints the additional chief inspector, joint chief inspector and deputy chief
inspector under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. Local Government
b. Municipality
d. State Government
68. Every additional chief inspector, joint chief inspector and deputy chief inspector
appointed under the Factories Act, 1948 will have the powers of
a. Inspector
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b. Chief inspector
c. Joint inspector
d. State Government
69. Who appoints the chief inspector under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. Local government
b. Municipality
d. State Government
70. Which of the following is not the power of inspector under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. Make examination of the premises, plant, machinery, article or substance.
b. Inquire into any accident or dangerous occurrence, whether resulting in bodily, injury,
disability or not, and take on the spot or otherwise state-ments of any person which he
may consider necessary for such inquiry.
c. Require the production of any prescribed register or any other document relating to the
factory
d. The provision and maintenance of plant and systems of work in the factory that are safe
and without risks to health.
71. Which of the following is not the power of inspector under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. The provision of such information, instruction, training and supervision as are necessary
to ensure the health and safety, of all workers at work.
b. Seize, or take copies of, any register, record or other document or any portion thereof, as
he may consider necessary in respect of any offence under this Act, which he has reason
to believe, has been committed.
c. Enter, with such assistants being persons in the service of the Government, or any local
or the public authority, or with an expert as he thinks fit, any place which is used, or
which he has reason to believe is used as a factory.
d. Take measurements and photographs and make such recordings as he considers necessary
for the purpose of any examination under clause (b), taking with him any necessary
instrument or equipment.
72. The State Government may appoint qualified _________ to be “Certifying Surgeons”
for the purpose of Factories Act.
a. Medical patients
b. Medical surgeons
c. Medical practitioners
d. All of the above
73. A qualified medical practitioner may be appointed by State Government under the
Factories Act, 1948 to be
a. Government officer
b. Certifying surgeon
c. Examiner of all factory related documents
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74. A Certifying surgeon under the Factories Act, 1948 may
a. Authorize any qualified medical practitioner to exercise any of his powers
b. Write prescriptions only on the letter head of chief inspector
c. Exercise the powers of chief inspector
d. May appoint occupier and inspector in case of public emergency
75. The examination and certification of young persons under the Factories Act is done by
the
a. Certifying surgeon
b. Chief inspector
c. Occupier
d. Employee himself
76. Who does the examination of person engaged in factories in such dangerous
occupations or processes under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. Managing Director of the factory
b. Certifying surgeon
c. Chief inspector
d. Joint inspector or Deputy Chief inspector
77. The certifying surgeon may carry out medical supervision in case of
a. Cases of illness due to nature of manufacturing process
b. Likelihood of injury or illness due to change in manufacturing process
c. Likelihood of injury or illness of young persons
d. All of the above
78. A person who is or becomes directly or indirectly interested in a factory or in any
process or business carried on therein, shall not be appointed as a
a. Inspector
b. Chief inspector
c. Certifying surgeon
d. All of the above
79. Section ____________ of the Factories Act, 1948 deal with health of the workers.
a. 1 to 10
b. 11 to 20
c. 21 to 30
d. 31 to 40
80. Which of the following provisions of the Factories Act, 1948 deal with health, safety and
welfare of the workers?
a. Cleanliness
b. Disposal of waste and effluents
c. Ventilation and temperature
d. All of the above
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81. Dust and fume; artificial humidification; overcrowding; lighting etc. are the provisions
of the Factories Act, 1948, which deal with
a. Health, safety and welfare
b. Appointment of chief inspectors
c. Certifying surgeon
d. Manufacturing process
82. To avoid overcrowding there shall be posted in each workroom of a factory a notice
specifying the _________number of workers who may be employed.
a. Average
b. Variation
c. Minimum
d. Maximum
83. As per the Factories Act, 1948, the floor of every work room should be cleaned once
every
a. Day
b. Month
c. Week
d. Hour
84. As per Section 11 of the Factories Act, 1948, the floor of every workroom shall be
cleaned __________ be washing, using disinfectant, where necessary, or by some other
effective method.
a. At the most once a month
b. At least once in every week
c. At least 4 times in every week
d. Daily
85. As per Section 11 of the Factories Act, 1948, where a floor is liable to become wet in the
course of any manufacturing process to such extent as is capable of being drained,
effective means of ………. Shall be provided and maintained.
a. Drying
b. Drainage
c. Wet process
d. (a) and (c) above
86. “Welfare” is not part of the Factories Act, 1948.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially true
d. Partially false
87. Under the Factories Act, white-washing of the factory building should be carried out in
every ___________ months.
a. 12
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b. 24
c. 26
d. 14
88. A factory in Jamnagar has painted its walls, partitions, ceilings, staircases with
washable water paint. The wall, partitions, ceilings, staircases etc. need to be repainted
in every period of …………. and washed at least once in every period of ………….
a. Three years; six months
b. Three years; nine months
c. Three years; one month
d. Three years; three months
89. Repainting or re-varnishing (when he wall are painted otherwise than with washable
water paint or varnish) under the Factories Act is required to be carried out at least
once in every _____________ years.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 3
d. 1
90. Repainting with at least one coal of paint (when the walls are painted with washable
water paint) under the Factories Act is required to be carried out at least once in every
___________ years.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 3
d. 1
91. Disposal of waste and effluents is a measure related to _____________ of workmen
under the Factories Act, 1948.
a. Health
b. Safety
c. Welfare
92. In a factory, adequate ___________ is required for circulation of fresh air
a. Temperature
b. Ventilation
c. Cleanliness
d. Waste disposal
93. Where the nature of the work carried on in the factory involves, or is likely to involve,
the production of excessively high temperatures such adequate measures as are
practicable shall be taken to protect the workers therefrom, by
a. Separating the process which produces such temperatures from the workroom, by
insulating the hot parts or by other effective means.
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b. Integrating the process which produces such temperatures from the workroom, with
insulating the hot parts of by other effective means.
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Neither (a) not (b)
94. Who can serve an order in writing to the occupier under the Factories Act to adopt the
measure for reducing the excessively high temperature in the factory?
a. Certifying surgeon
b. Inspector
c. Chief inspector
d. Employee
95. Penalty for obstructing an inspector from discharge of his power will be
______________
a. Imprisonment for twelve months or fine of Rs. 10,000 or both
b. Imprisonment for six months or fine of Rs. 10,000 or both
c. Imprisonment for twelve months or fine of Rs. 200,000 or both
d. Imprisonment for six months or fine of Rs. 100,000 or both
96. An exhaust appliance is required in a factory to deal with
a. Cleanliness
b. Repainting and re-varnishing
c. Dust, furne and other impurities
d. Artificial humidification
97. In a factory, the humidity of the air is artificially increased for the health of employees.
This process is known as
a. Maintaining ventilation
b. Superior process handling
c. Artificial humidification
d. Artificial intelligence
98. In respect of all factories in which the humidity of the air is artificially increased, the
State Government may make rules under the Factories Act, 1948.
a. Prescribing standards of humidification
b. Regulating the methods used for artificially increasing the humidity of the air
c. Directing prescribed tests for determining the humidity of the air to be correctly carried
out and recorded
d. All of the above
99. What should be the area of the workroom as per section 16 of the Factories Act, 1948?
a. 16.2 cubic metres
b. 12.3 cubic metres
c. 6.6 cubic metres
d. 14.2 cubic metres
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100. The space for every worker employed in the factory after the commencement of
Factories Act, 1948 should be ____________cubic metres,
a. 9.9
b. 10.2
c. 14.2
d. 13.2
101. Chief inspector, may in writing, give the notice specifying maximum number of
workers to be employed in a room under the Factories Act, 1948.
a. True
b. False because Chief Inspector doesn’t have any right to specify number of workers
c. False because this right can be exercised by Chief Inspector only if Central Government
instructs him to do so
d. False because there is no limit on maximum number of workers in a room.
102. Which of the following lights are permitted under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. Artificial lights
b. Natural Lights
c. Artificial Lights or Natural Lights or both
d. Neither artificial lights nor Natural Lights.
103. In every factory all glazed windows and skylights used for the lighting of the
workroom shall be kept __________ on both the inner and outer surfaces.
a. Clean
b. Circular
c. Rectangular
d. Triangular
104. The examination of eye sight of certain workers under the Factories Act shall be
done at least one in every _____________
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
105. Which of the following provisions are required for lighting in a factory as per the
Factories Act, 1948?
a. Glare, either directly from a source of light or by reflection from as smooth or polished
surface
b. The formation of shadows to such an extent as to cause eye-strain or the risk of accident
to any worker
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Either (a) or (b)
106. The standards of sufficient and suitable lighting are provided by ___________
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b. State Government
d. Occupier
107. As per the Factories Act, 1948, washing place, urinal, latrine, spittoon, open drain
carrying sullage or effluent or any other source of contamination cannot be situated
within _________ from the place of “drinking water”.
a. 10 metres
b. 8 metres
c. 6 metres
d. 4 metres
108. In every factory where __________ or more workers are ordinary employed,
suitable provision for cold and hot water is made.
a. 250
b. 240
c. 230
d. 200
109. The provision for cooling water during hot weather should be made by the
organization if it employs ____________ or more employees.
a. 200
b. 250
c. 500
d. 1000
110. ABC Manufacturing Ltd. employs 600 employees ordinarily. Is ABC
Manufacturing Ltd. required to ensure provisions for cooling drinking water during
hot weather?
a. Yes because there are more than 500 employees ordinarily employed
b. Yes because there are more than 250 employees ordinarily employed
c. No because there are less than 1000 employees ordinarily employed
d. No because there are more than twenty employees ordinarily employed.
111. Which one of the following is not a welfare provision under Factories Act, 1948?
a. Canteen
b. Creches
c. First aid
d. Drinking water
112. Where ___________ are employed in a factory then there shall be a Safety
Committee in the Factory.
a. 100 or more workers
b. 150 or more workers
c. 200 or more workers
d. 250 or more workers
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113. To maintain proper cooperation between the workers and management in

maintaining proper safety and health at workplace ___________ is constituted by the
occupier.
a. Safety committee
b. Goodwill committee
c. Remuneration committee
d. Industrial dispute resolution committee
114. Safety Committee is required to be set up by the occupier of a factory where
__________
a. a hazardous process take place
b. hazardous substances are used
c. hazardous substances are handled
d. any of the above
115. Section 19 of Factories Act discusses about the ____________
a. Drinking Water
b. Lighting
c. Latrines and Urinals
d. Artificial Humidification
116. Who prescribes the number of latrines and urinals to be established in a factory
under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. State Government
b. Central Government
c. Chief Inspector
d. Certifying Surgeon
117. Separate enclosed accommodation of urinals and latrines under the Factories Act,
1948 shall be provided for
a. Children and Adults
b. Male and Female Workers
c. Senior Citizens and Non-Senior Citizens
d. All of the above
118. Where males are employed, there shall be at least one latrine seat for every
___________ male workers shall be provided.
a. 20 workers
b. 50 workers
c. 30 workers
d. 100 workers
119. The walls, ceilings and partitions of every latrine and urinal shall be white-washed or
colour washed at least once in every period of _____________
a. 6 months
b. 4 months
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c. 12 months
d. 14 months
120. Section 20 of the Factories Act deal with provision of
a. Drinking Water
b. Lighting
c. Spittoons
d. Latrines and Urinals
121. Provisions of Spittoons are under which of the following provisions of the Factories
Act, 1948?
a. Safety
b. Welfare
c. Health
122. First Aid Boxes is to be provided for ________ of persons
a. 125
b. 135
c. 150
d. 160
123. Which of the following shall be securely fenced by safeguards of substantial
construction which shall be constantly maintained and kept in position while the parts
of machinery they are fencing are in motion or in use?
a. Every part of an electric generator, a motor or rotary converter
b. Every part of transmission machinery
c. Every dangerous part of any other machinery
d. All of the above
124. The employment of young person on dangerous machines shall be prohibited under
_________ of Factories Act, 1947.
a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 23
d. Section 24
125. No woman or young person shall be allowed to clean, lubricate or adjust any part of
a prime mover or of any transmission machinery while the prime mover or
transmission machinery is in motion.
a. True
b. False because this provision is for adults
c. False because this provision is for adults and young person
d. False because this provision is for senior citizens
126. According to section 23 of the Factories Act, 1948, A(an) __________ person is not
allowed to work at any dangerous machine unless he has been fully instructed as to the
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dangers arising in connection with the machine and the precautions to be observed and
he has received sufficient training and he is under adequate supervision.
a. Child
b. Young
c. Adult
d. All of the above
127. No _____________ shall be employed in any part of a factory for pressing cotton in
which a cotton-opener is at work under section 27 of the Factories Act, 1948.
a. Woman or a child
b. Woman or an adult
c. Man or an adolescent
d. Adolescent or a child
128. Hoists and lifts. Lifting Machines, Chains, Ropes and Lifting Tackles are the part of
________provisions of the Factories Act, 1948.
a. Health
b. Wealth
c. Safety
d. Welfare
129. According to Factories Act, 1948 all floors, steps, stairs, passages and gangways
shall be of sound construction and properly maintained and shall be kept free from
___________ likely to cause person to slip, and where it is necessary to ensure safety,
steps, stairs passages and gangways shall be provided with substantial handrails.
a. Painting and ventilation.
b. Artificial and natural lighting
c. Obstruction and substances
d. All of the above
130. Which of the following is the example of safety measures under the Factories Act,
1948?
a. Protection of eyes
b. Spittoons
c. Drinking water
d. Overcrowding
131. A suitable goggles shall be provided for the protection of persons employed in any
factory is discussed under –
a. Section 36
b. Section 39
c. Section 40
d. Section 35
132. Which of the following is not an example of safety measures under the Factories
Act, 1948?
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a. Excessive weights
b. Protection of eyes
c. Precautions against dangerous fumes, gases etc. Canteen
133. How a factory can comply with measures for protection against fire?
a. Provision of safe means of escape fro all persons in the event of a fire
b. Provision of the necessary equipment and facilities for extinguishing fire
c. Effective measures taken so that workers are familiar with the means of escape in case of
fire and have been adequately trained in the routine to be followed in such cases.
d. All of the above
134. Safety officers are to be appointed if organization is engaging __________or more
employees.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 500
d. 750
135. Section 41G of the Factories Act, 1948 contains provision relating to
a. Fencing of machineries
b. Facing of machineries
c. Work on near machinery in motion
d. Workers participation in safety management.
136. A factory involved in hazardous process, within a period of ________days before the
commencement of such process, inform the Chief Inspector of the nature and details of
the process.
a. Ten
b. Thirty
c. Sixty
d. Ninety
137. The occupier has to provide for medical examination for each worker
a. Before such worker is assigned to a job involving the handling of, or working with, a
hazardous substance
b. While continuing in such job, and after he has ceased to work in such job, at intervals not
exceeding twelve months
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Either (a) and (b)
138. Under the Factories Act, 1948, it shall be the duty of such ________ to take
immediate remedial action imminent danger to the lives or health of employees due to
any accident due to hazardous process.
a. Occupier, agent, manager or the person in charge of the process or factory
b. Inspector, deputy inspector or chief inspector
c. Employee or worker related to the process
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d. State Government and Central Government

139. Under the Factories Act, 1948, washing facilities, facilities for storing and drying
clothing, facilities for sitting etc. are the part of
a. Welfare
b. Safety
c. Health
d. Longevity
140. Section __________ of the Factories Act, 1948 provide for welfare.
a. 11 to 20
b. 20 to 23
c. 21 to 41
d. 42 to 50
141. First-aid boxes must be available in factories during
a. First 4 working hours
b. Night hours
c. Weekends
d. All working hours
142. An ambulance room with prescribed equipments and in charge of medical and
nursing staff in required for a factory employing more than __________ persons.
a. 250
b. 230
c. 500
d. 1000
143. Masti Industries Ltd. has more than five hundred workers ordinarily employed.
One of the employees got injured while performing his duties. The factory management
should provide.
a. A doctor
b. An ambulance van
c. An ambulance room
d. A First-aid box
144. Canteen is to be provided if engaging employees more than ___________persons.
a. 250
b. 230
c. 300
d. 275
145. Under the Factories Act, 1948, Shelters, Rest Rooms and Lunch Rooms are required
to be provided if engaging employees more than _________persons.
a. 100
b. 150
c. 250
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d. 500
146. Creche is to be provided if _______or more lady employees are engaged.
a. 25
b. 32
c. 30
d. 40
147. In every factory wherein more than ________women workers are ordinarily
employed there shall be provided and maintained a suitable room or rooms for the use
of children under age of six years of such women.
a. Thirty
b. Fifty
c. Sixty
d. Hundred
148. In every factory wherein more than thirty women workers are ordinarily employed
there shall be provided and maintained a suitable or rooms for the use of children
under the age of _______years of such women.
a. Three
b. Five
c. Six
d. Eight
149. Section 49 of the Factories Act, 1947 contains provisions relating to
a. Welfare officer
b. Canteen
c. Rest room
d. Creche
150. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if organization is engaging _______or more
employees.
a. 500
b. 250
c. 600
d. 750
151. Under the Factories Act, 1948, for the purpose of computing the total number of all
workers, which of the following is taken into account?
a. different groups and relay on the last day of the year.
b. different groups and relay on a day
c. only day shift and single relay on a day
d. two shifts and same group on last day of the year.
152. No adult workers shall be required or allowed to work in a factory for more than
_________hours in any week.
a. 36
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b. 40
c. 48
d. 54
153. An adult workers can work upto _______hours in a day as per Factories Act, 1948
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 12
154. The periods of work of adult workers in a factory each day shall be so fixed that no
period shall exceed _________hours and that no worker shall work for more than
________hours before he has had an interval for rest of at least half an hour.
a. Five ; five
b. Six ; six
c. Eight ; eight
d. Nine ; nine
155. The periods of work of adult workers in a factory each day shall be so fixed that no
period shall exceed five hours and that no workers shall work more than five hours
before he has an interval for rest of at least_________
a. Half an hour
b. Forty Five minutes
c. One hour
d. One and half hour
156. Inclusive of the intervals no spread over in a factory is allowed for more than
a. Eight hours
b. Nine hours
c. Ten and half hours
d. Twelve and half hours
157. Janardan Ltd. has a morning shift of 7.30 am to 6.30 pm. Identify whether the
working hours are correct as per provisions of the Factories Act, 1948.
a. Incorrect-daily working hours should not be more than 8 hours in any day
b. Incorrect-daily working hours should not be more than 9 hours in any day
c. Incorrect-daily working hours should not be more than 10 hours in any day
d. Correct – daily working hours should not be more than 11 hours in any day
158. Workers will be entitled to overtime wages if they have worked for more than
a. Forty-eight hours in any four weeks
b. Forty-eight hours in any three weeks
c. Forty-eight hours in any two weeks
d. Forty-eight hours in any week
159. A worker under the Factories Act is eligible for ________when he works for more
than 9 hours a day or for more than 48 hours a week.
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a. Wages
b. Ordinary rate of wages
c. Overtime
160. (c) at the rate of (b) A worker under the Factories Act is eligible for _________when
he works for more than 9 hours a day or for more than 48 hours a week.
a. Overtime at an ordinary rate of wages
b. Overtime at one and half times of the ordinary rate of wages
c. Twice the ordinary rate of wages
d. Three times the ordinary rate of wages
161. Mohan, a worker in Ashapura Factories has done overtime in the factory. If his
basic wages at the ordinary rate of wages is Rs. 15,000, how much he can get for
overtime work?
a. Rs. 10,000
b. Rs. 15,000
c. Rs. 30,000
d. Rs. 22,500
162. Which of the following statement is correct ?
a. No adult worker shall be required or allowed to work in any factory on any day on which
he has already been working in the same factory.
b. No adult worker shall be required or allowed to work in any factory on any day on which
he has already been working in any other factory.
c. No adult worker shall be required or allowed to work in any factory on any day on which
he has not been working in any other factory.
163. No adult worker shall be required or allowed to work in any factory on any day on
which he has not been working in the same factory. Leave with wages is allowed for
employees if they work for _______days in a month.
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 28
164. Where all the adult workers in a factory are not required to work during the same
periods,
a. The inspector will order the occupier to lay-off the additional workers
b. The manager of the factory shall classify them into groups according to the nature of their
work indicating the number of workers in each group.
c. The provisions of the Factories Act are not required to be followed.
d. State Government and Central Government need to be notified about the same.
165. The Ambulance Room is to be provided if engaging employees more
than__________
a. 250
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b. 350
c. 500
d. 400
166. No women shall be required or allowed to work in any factory except between the
hours of __________
a. 12 A.M. and 12 P.M.
b. 10 A.M. and 6 P.M.
c. 9 A.M. and 5 P.M.
d. 6 A.M. and 7 P.M.
167. Who provides the form of register of child workers under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. Certifying Surgeon
c. State Government
d. Chief Labour Commissioner
168. No child who has not completed his _________year shall be required or allowed to
work in any factory.
a. Eighth
b. Tenth
c. Fourteenth
d. Eighteenth
169. A child who has completed his fourteenth year or an adolescent shall not be
required or allowed to work in any factory unless
a. A certificate of fitness granted with reference to him under section 69 is in the custody of
the manager of the factory
b. Such child or adolescent carries while he is at work a token giving a reference to such
certificate.
c. Both (a) and (b)
170. No child shall be employed or permitted to work in any factory for more than
____________hours in any day.
a. Four and half
b. Eight
c. Nine
d. Ten and half
171. No child shall be employed or permitted to work, in any factory
a. For more than four and a half hours in any day
b. During the night
c. Both (a) and (b)
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172. What is the penaly for allowing/permitting double employment of child in factory
under the Factories Act, 1948?
a. imprisonment of six months
b. fine which may extend to one thousand rupees
c. either (a) or (b)
d. both (a) and (b)
173. A female child shall be required or allowed to work in any factory only between
a. 6 A.M. and 8 P.M.
b. 8 A.M. and 7 P.M.
c. 10 A.M. and 6 P.M.
d. 12 A.M. and 5 P.M.
174. Liability of owner of premises under the Factories Act, 1948 is discussed in Section
a. 93
b. 11-20
c. 42
d. 80-100
175. The occupier shall be punishable with imprisonment extend to _______or fine
________or both for using false certificate of fitness.
a. two months, 1000 rupees
b. one year, 2000 rupees
c. six months, 500 rupees
d. one month, 5000 rupees
176. Certificate of fitness is granted by
a. Occupier of the factory
b. Inspector of the factory
c. The Certifying Surgeon
d. Civil Hospital of the City
177. What is the penalty to the occupiers for using false certificates of fitness under the
a. Imprisonment to the extent of six months and fine upto Rs. 5,000
b. Imprisonment to the extent of two months or fine upto Rs. 5,000
c. Imprisonment to the extent of four months or fine upto Rs. 1,000 or both
d. imprisonment to the extent of two months and fine upto Rs. 1,000 or both
178. Any person willfully obstructs an inspector in the exercise of any power conferred
upon him or fails to produce on demand and document or register shall be punishable
with __________
a. imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months
b. fine which may extend to rupees ten thousands
c. both (a) and (b)
d. either (a) and (b) or both
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179. Obligations of workers under the Factories Act, 1948 are discussed in section
___________
a. 100
b. 101
c. 105
d. 111
180. The term sabbatical is connected with
a. Paid leave for study
b. Paternity leave
c. Maternity leave
d. Quarantine leave
181. If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified
_________to carry out the prescribed duties.
a. Safety officer
b. Welfare officer
c. Security officer
d. None of these
182. For contravention of provisions of Factories Act or Rules, the occupier shall liable
for punishment up to
a. 2 years or fine upto Rs. 1,00,000 or both
b. 6 months or fine upto Rs. 10,000 or both
c. 3 years or fine of Rs. 10,000 or both
d. 5 years or fine of Rs. 50,000 or both
183. For contravention of provisions of factories Act or Rules, the worker shall liable for
punishment
a. with imprisonment of three months
b. with fine of one hundred rupees
c. both
d. either (a) or (b) or (c)
184. the license fee can be paid to get a license for a factory maximum upto
a. one year only
b. Two years only
c. Three years only
d. Five years only
185. The occupier has to submit the document on or before __________of every year to
renewal of a licence for a factory.
a. 31 st March
b. 30th June
c. 31st October
d. 31st December
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186. The renewal application for a licence submitted after December 31 of every year
shall paid the fine amount of ________
a. 10% of the licence fee
b. 20% of the licence fee
c. 30% of the licence fee
d. 5% of the licence fee
187. The factories employing more than 1000 workers are required to submit their plant
for approval to
a. Deputy Chief Inspector of Factories
b. Joint Chief Inspector of Factories
c. Chief Inspector of Factories
d. Additional Chief Inspector of Factories
188. Under the Factories Act, 1948, the Site Appraisal Committee shall be constituted
_________under the chairmanship of Chief Inspector of Factories.
a. Once in 5 years
b. Once in 2 years
c. Once in 3 years
d. Once in a year
189. To close down a factory, the occupier has to give _________ notice to the authorities.
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 14 days
190. Which of the following is/are the right(s) of workers?
a. represent to the inspector directly or through his representative in the matter of
inadequate provision for protection of his health or safety in the factory
b. get training
c. obtain information relating to workers health, safety of work
d. all of the above
1 B 2 C 3 D 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 A
8 B 9 C 10 C 11 A 12 D 13 C 14 C
15 A 16 D 17 C 18 D 19 C 20 A 21 A
22 C 23 A 24 A 25 A 26 A 27 C 28 C
29 C 30 C 31 B 32 C 33 D 34 D 35 D
36 D 37 B 38 B 39 B 40 C 41 C 42 C
43 D 44 D 45 C 46 D 47 A 48 C 49 C
50 B 51 B 52 B 53 C 54 D 55 B 56 D
57 A 58 B 59 A 60 A 61 D 62 D 63 C
64 D 65 D 66 B 67 D 68 B 69 D 70 D
71 D 72 C 73 B 74 A 75 A 76 B 77 D
78 D 79 B 80 D 81 A 82 D 83 C 84 B
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85 B 86 B 87 D 88 A 89 A 90 C 91 A
92 B 93 A 94 C 95 B 96 C 97 C 98 D
99 D 100 A 101 A 102 C 103 A 104 D 105 C
106 B 107 C 108 A 109 B 110 B 111 D 112 D
113 A 114 D 115 C 116 A 117 B 118 A 119 B
120 C 121 C 122 C 123 D 124 C 125 A 126 B
127 A 128 C 129 C 130 A 131 D 132 D 133 D
134 A 135 D 136 B 137 C 138 A 139 A 140 D
141 D 142 C 143 C 144 A 145 B 146 C 147 A
148 C 149 A 150 A 151 B 152 C 153 B 154 A
155 A 156 C 157 B 158 D 159 C 160 C 161 C
162 B 163 C 164 B 165 C 166 D 167 C 168 C
169 C 170 A 171 C 172 B 173 B 174 A 175 A
176 C 177 D 178 D 179 D 180 A 181 A 182 A
183 A 184 D 185 C 186 B 187 C 188 A 189 B
190 D
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Chapter – 2
Minimum Wages Act, 1948
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The Act prescribing minimum limit of wages in certain employment is known

as_____________
a. Payment of Wages Act, 1936
b. Factories Act, 1948
c. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
d. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
2. Minimum Wages Act, 1948 requires __________to fix minimum rates of wages in
respect of employment specified in the schedule.
b. State Government
c. Local Administration
d. Appropriate Government
3. Since the respective State Governments have been empowered under the Minimum
Wages Act, 1948 to independently fix minimum wages, disparities between wages in
neighbouring states are common.
a. True
b. False because State Governments are not empowered to fix minimum wages
independently.
c. False because there are no disparities between wages in different States.
4. Minimum Wages Act, 1948 extends to
a. Whole of India
b. Whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir.
c. Whole of India except Union Territories
d. Whole of India except Andaman and Nicobar.
5. “Adolescent” under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 means a person_____________
a. Who has completed his fourteenth year of age but has not completed his eighteenth year
b. Who has completed his tenth year of age but has not completed his eighteenth year
c. Who has completed his fourteenth year of age but has not completed his twentieth year
d. Who has completed his twelfth year of age but has not completed his twentieth year
6. “Adult under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 means a person who has completed his
___________year of age.
a. Fourteenth
b. Eighteenth
c. Twentieth
d. Twenty First
Page 31
7. “Appropriate Government” under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 has the same
definition as
(a) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(b) Companies Act, 1956
(c) Partnership Act, 1932
(d) Contract Act, 1872
8. According to Minimum Wages Act, 1948, a “Child” means a person who has not
completed his
a. 10th year of age
b. 12th year of age
c. 14th year of age
d. 16th year of age
9. An index number in relation to employees in any scheduled employment in respect of
which minimum rates of wages have been fixed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is
known as
a. Cost of living Index Number
b. Wholesale Price Index
c. Consumer Price Index
d. Cost of Products and Services
10. “Wages” under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 has similar meaning as in
the____________
a. Payment of Wages Act, 1936
b. Companies Act, 1956
c. Partnership Act, 1932
11. “Wages” under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 does not include____________
a. Value of house accommodation supply of light, water, medical attendance
b. Value of travelling allowance or the value of any travelling concession
c. Gratuity payable on discharge
d. All of the above
12. Which of the following is excluded from the definition of “Wages” under the Minimum
Wages Act, 1948?
a. House Rent Allowance
b. Dearness Allowance
c. Basic Salary
d. All of the above
13. Which of the following is excluded from the definition of “Wages” under the Minimum
Wages Act, 1948?
a. Leave Travel Allowance
b. Dearness Allowance
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c. Basic Salary
d. All of the above
14. How many schedule(s) is/are there of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
15. How many parts are there in the schedule of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
16. Defiition of “Employee” under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 includes
a. Skilled labour Clerical labour
b. Skilled and unskilled both labour Manual labour
c. Skilled and unskilled both labour Manual and clerical both labour
d. Unskilled labour Manual labour
17. Definition of “Employee” under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948__________an out-
worker.
a. Includes
b. Excludes
c. Includes or excludes at the discretion of Appropriate Government
d. The Act is silent on this provision
18. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, a/an “__________” employee is one who does
operations that involve the performance of simple duties, which require the experience
of little of no independent judgment or previous experience although familiarity with
the occupational environmental is necessary.
a. Unskilled
b. Semi-skilled
c. Skilled
d. White collar
19. Whose work requires physical exertion and familiarity with variety of articles or
goods?
a. Unskilled employee
b. Semi-skilled employee
c. Skilled employee
d. Out-worker
20. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 a/an “_______” worker is one who does work
generally of defined routine nature wherein the major requirement is not so much of
the judgement, skill and but for proper discharge of duties assigned to him or relatively
narrow job and where important decisions made by others.
a. Unskilled
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b. Semi-skilled
c. Skilled
d. Out-worker
21. Whose work is limited to the performance of routine operations of limited scope?
a. Unskilled
c. Skilled employee
d. Out-worker employee
22. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, a(an) “__________” employee is one who is
capable of working efficiently of exercising considerable independent judgment and of
discharging his duties with responsibility.
a. Unskilled
b. Semi-skilled
c. Skilled
d. Domestic
23. Who must possess a thorough and comprehensive knowledge of the trade, craft or
industry in which he is employed?
a. Unskilled employee
c. Skilled employee
d. Out-worker
24. A “ ________” worker is one who is capable of working efficiently and supervises
efficiently the work of skilled employees.
a. Unskilled
b. Semi-skilled
c. Skilled
d. Highly skilled
25. The responsibility of fixing minimum wages lies with
a. State Government
b. District Magistrate
c. Appropriate Government
d. Local Authorities
26. The Appropriate Government fixes the minimum wages as per ________ of the
Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
a. Part I or Part II of the Schedule
b. Schedule I of part II
c. Schedule III
d. Part II or IV of the schedule
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27. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the appropriate government may refrain from
fixing minimum rates of wages in respect of any scheduled employment in which there
are in the whole state less than _______employees engaged in such employment.
a. 100
b. 1,000
c. 50,000
d. 1,00,000
28. A minimum rate of wages for time work is known as ___________
a. A minimum time rate
b. A minimum piece rate
c. A minimum guaranteed rate
d. Overtime rate
29. A minimum rates of wages for piece work is known as ___________
c. A minimum guaranteed rate
d. Overtime rate
30. A minimum rate of remuneration to apply in the case of employees employed on piece
work for the purpose of securing to such employees a minimum rate of wages on a time
work basis
c. A minimum guaranteed time rate
d. Overtime rate
31. Minimum rate (whether a time rate or a piece rate) to apply in substitution for the
minimum rate which would otherwise be applicable in respect of overtime work done
by employees
c. A minimum guaranteed time rate
d. Overtime rate
32. Different minimum rates of wages may be fixed by the Appropriate Government for
a. Different scheduled employments
b. Different classes of work in the same scheduled employment
c. Adults, adolescents, children and apprentices
d. All of the above
33. Different minimum rates of wages may be fixed for different localities by the
Appropriate Government.
a. True
b. False because different maximum rates of wages may be fixed for different localities.
Page 35
c. False because different minimum rates of wages are not allowed to be fixed for different
localities.
34. The Appropriate Government may fix minimum wages ___________
a. By the hour
b. By the day
c. By the month
d. Any of the above
35. The minimum wages fixed or revised by the Appropriate Government may consist of a
basic rate of wages and a special allowance with the variation in the __________
a. Consumption index
b. Cost of living index
c. Inflation index
d. Stock index
36. The minimum wages fixed or revised by the Appropriate Government, an all-inclusive
rate includes __________
a. Basic rate
b. Cost of living allowance
c. Cash value of the concessions
d. All of the above
37. The cost of living allowance and the cash value of the concessions in respect of supplies
of essential commodities at concession rate shall be computed by the ____________
a. Occupier
b. CEO of the employer establishment
c. Competent authority
d. State Government
38. Who advises the Appropriate Government for co-ordinating work of committees and
sub-committees?
a. High Court
b. Local Authority
c. Advisory Board
d. Chief Committee
39. Who advises the Appropriate Government generally in the matter of fixing and revising
minimum rates of wages?
a. High Court
b. Local Authority
c. Advisory Board
d. Chief Committee
Page 36
40. The __________shall consist of persons of be nominated by the Central Government

representing employers and employees in the scheduled employments, who shall be
equal in number.
a. Advisory Board
b. Central Advisory Board
c. Local Advisory Board
d. State advisory Board
41. How many independent persons are to be appointed in the Central Advisory Board
under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
a. Maximum 1/3rd of the total number of members
b. Minimum 1/3rd of the total number of members
c. Maximum ½ of the total number of the members
d. Minimum 70% of the total number of members
42. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, each of the committees, sub-committees and the
Advisory Board shall consist of persons to be nominated by the ________Government
representing employers and employees in the scheduled employments.
a. Central
b. State
c. Local
d. Appropriate
43. Minimum wages payable under the Payment of Wages Act, 1948 shall be paid
a. In cash
b. In kind
c. Either cash or in Kind
d. Partly in cash and partly in kind
44. Where it has been the custom to pay wages wholly or partly in kind, the Appropriate
Government by notification in the Official Gazette authorize the payment of minimum
wages either wholly or partly in kind.
a. True
b. False because payment of minimum wages in kind is not allowed
c. False because Central Government will notify in Official Gazette
d. False because payment of minimum wages is not allowed in cash
45. Employment of an employee is essentially __________when it is declared to be so by the
appropriate government on the ground that the daily hours of duty include periods of
inaction during which the employee may be on duty but is not called upon to display
either physical activity or sustained attention.
a. Intermittent
b. Urgent
c. Technical
d. Preparatory
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46. If an employee has worked on any day in excess of the normal working hours, he is
eligible for __________ under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
a. Overtime rate
b. Minimum wages rate
c. (a) or (b) whichever is higher
d. (a) or (b) whichever is lower
47. Where an employee does two or more classes of work to each of which a different
minimum rate of wages of applicable, the employer shall pay to such employee in
respect of the time respectively occupied in each such class of work, wages at
_________the minimum rate in force in respect of each such class.
a. Less than
b. Not less than
c. Not more than
48. Where an employee is employed on piece work for which minimum time rate and not a
minimum piece rate has been lived under this Act the employer shall pay to such
employee wages at not less than the minimum.
a. Piece rate
b. Time rate
c. Overtime rate
d. Guaranteed piece rate
49. Who is required to maintain the registers and records regarding particulars of
employees, wages paid to them, work performed by them etc. under the Minimum
Wages Act, 1948?
a. Trade Union Leader
b. Employer
c. Employee
50. Who appoints the Inspector under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
a. Employer
b. Ministry of Labour
c. Appropriate Government
d. Committee of Welfare
51. Who can be appointed as a hearing and deciding authority under the Minimum Wages
Act, 1948?
a. Commissioner for Workmen’s Compensation
b. Labour Commissioner
c. Judge of a civil court
d. Any of the above
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52. What is the time period of presentation of application under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 12 months
d. 24 months
53. The hearing and deciding authority appointed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948
has the power of a
a. Civil Court
b. Criminal Court
c. High Court
d. Supreme Court
54. Provisions regarding single application in respect of a number of applicants are covered
under section __________of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
a. 15
b. 17
c. 21
d. 22
55. Penalties for the offences under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 are covered under
Section __________
a. 15
b. 17
c. 20
d. 22
56. What is the penalty under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 to the employer who pays to
any employee less than the minimum rates of wages fixed for that employee’s class of
work?
a. Imprisonment of term extending to 6 months or a fine extending to Rs. 500 or both
b. Imprisonment of term extending to 12 months or a fine extending to Rs. 500 or both
c. Imprisonment of term extending to 24 months or a fine extending to Rs. 500 or both
d. Imprisonment of term extending to 36 months or a fine extending to Rs. 500 or both
57. Definition of a “Company” under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 includes
a. A private Limited Company and a Public Limited Company
b. A partnership firm
c. Association of Individuals
d. All of the above
58. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the term “Director” in relation to a firm means
a. Partner in the firm
b. General manager of the firm
c. Karta of HUF
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d. Chief dealer of the firm

59. Any contract or agreement whereby an employee either relinquishes or reduces his
right to a minimum rate of wages or any privilege or concession accruing to him under
the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 shall be
a. Required to be honoured completely by the employee and the employer, both
b. Needs to be registered with the Appropriate Government
c. Required to be registered in the “Register of Charges” with the ROC.
d. Null and void in so far as it purports to reduce the minimum rate of wages
60. Who has the power to add in the Schedule of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
a. Appropriate Government
b. Labour Commissioner
c. State Government
61. How many months notice is required in case any addition is to be done by the
Appropriate Government in the Schedule of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
a. 2 months
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 7 months
62. The __________may give directions to a State Government as to be carrying into
execution of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 in the State.
b. Appropriate Government
c. Local Authorities
d. Labour Commissioner
63. Who has the power to make the rules for the operations of Central Advisory Board
under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 in the State?
64. Who has power to prescribe the powers of inspectors under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948 in the State?
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ANSWERS
1 C 2 D 3 A 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 A
8 C 9 A 10 A 11 D 12 A 13 A 14 A
15 B 16 C 17 A 18 A 19 A 20 B 21 B
22 C 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 A 27 B 28 A
29 B 30 C 31 D 32 D 33 A 34 D 35 B
36 D 37 C 38 C 39 C 40 B 41 A 42 D
43 A 44 A 45 A 46 C 47 B 48 B 49 B
50 C 51 D 52 B 53 A 54 C 55 D 56 A
57 D 58 A 59 D 60 A 61 B 62 A 63 A
64 B
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CHAPTER – 3
Payment of Wages Act, 1936
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The Act regulating the payment of wages is known as Payment of Wages Act,
___________
a. 1936
b. 1948
c. 1956
d. 1972
2. The payment of Wages Act, 1936 is based on the recommendation of the _________ on
labour
a. Royal Committee
b. International Wages and Labour Organisation
c. Kabra Committee
d. Chaturvedi Committee
3. In 1933, the Payment of Wages Act was not passed due to
a. Earthquake in North India
b. Dissolution of Assembly
c. Riots across India
d. Lack of approval President of India
4. The objective of the payment of Wages Act, 1936 is to regulate the payment of wages in
a. All the classes of employed person
b. Certain classes of employed persons
c. Certain classes of employers
d. All the classes of employers.
5. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is essentially meant for the benefit and safeguard of
interest of _________ employees not getting very high salaries.
a. Industrial
b. Service class
c. Child Labour
d. Elite class
6. The regulations of the Payment of wages Act, 1936 are related to
a. the date of payment of wages i.e, wages must be paid within the time periods prescribed
in the Act
b. the amount of deductions from wages whether fines or otherwise
c. both (a) and (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)
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7. The payment of Wages Act, 1936 extends to

a. Whole of India excluding Jammu and Kashmir
b. Whole of India excluding Andaman and Nicobar Islands
c. Whole of India excluding North-East Region
d. Whole of India excluding North-East Region
8. Payment of Wages Act ensures payment of wages in a particular form and at irregular
intervals without authorized deductions
a. True
b. False because payment of Wages Act ensures payment of wages in a particular form and
at regular intervals without authorized deductions
c. False because Payment of Wages Act ensures payment of wages in a particular form and
at irregular intervals without unauthorized deductions
d. False because Payment of Wages Act ensures payment of wages in a particular form and
at regular intervals withou7t unauthorized deductions
9. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 was extended to _________ by the Central Labour Laws
(Extension to Jammu and Kashmir) Act, 1970.
a. Jammu and Kashmir
b. Union Territories
c. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
d. Gujarat and Maharashtra
10. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 was extended to Jammu and Kashmir by the
a. Factories Act, 1948
b. Central Labour Laws (Extension to Jammu and Kashmir) Act, 1970
c. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
d. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
11. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 came into effect from
a. 28th March, 1936
b. 28th March, 1937
c. 31st July, 1936
d. 31st July 1937
12. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is applicable to
a. persons employed in any factory
b. person employed in an industrial or other establishment
c. persons employed (otherwise than a factory) upon any railway by railway administration
or either directly or through sub-contractor, by a railway person fulfilling a contract with
railway administration.
d. all of the above
13. _____________ can extend the application of the whole or part of the payment of Wages
Act, 1936 to payment of wages to any class of persons employed in the establishment or
class of establishments.
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b. State Government
14. The Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India has specified the wage
ceiling to
a. Rs. 4,700
b. Rs. 18,000
c. Rs. 12,000
d. Rs. 12,700
15. Section __________ of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 defines various terms and
concepts used in the Act
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
16. According to Payment of Wages Act, 1936, “________” means in relation to railways,
air transport service, mines and oilfields the Central Government and in relation to all
other cases, the State Government.
b. Authority of payment of wages
c. Employer
d. Railway Administration
17. According to payment of Wages Act, 1936, “Appropriate Government” in relation to
railways, air transport service, mines and oilfields is
a. the Central Government
b. the State Government
c. the Ministry of Railways
d. the Ministry of Defence
18. According to payment of wages Act, 1936, “Appropriate Government” in relation to
other than railways, air transport service, mines and oilfields is
a. the Central Government
b. the State Government
c. the Ministry of Railways
d. the Ministry of Defence
19. Appropriate Government is case of a mines is ____________
b. State Government
c. Local Municipal Corporation
d. Ministry of Labour and Welfare
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20. Appropriate Government in case of a Railways is –

b. State Government
21. Appropriate Government in case of an oilfield is ___________
b. State Government
22. Who has the power to make the rules under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
c. State Government
d. Municipal Corporation
23. As per payment of Wages Act, 1936, “Employed person” includes the legal
representative of a deceased employed person; and “Employer” includes the legal
representative of a deceased employer.
a. True
b. False because “Employee” does not include legal representative of a deceased employed
person
c. False because “Employer” does not include legal representative of a deceased employer
d. False because of both (b) and (c)
24. In the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, “Factory” means
a. “Factory” as defined in Section 2 of the Factories Act, 1948
b. “Establishment” as defined in Section 2 of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation)
Act, 1986
c. “Workshop” as defined in Section 2 of the Central Labour Laws (Extension to Jammu
and Kashmir) Act, 1970
d. “Industry” as defined in Section 2 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
25. The definition of the term “factory” as per the payment of Wages Act, 1936 has the
same meaning as in __________
a. Factories Act
b. Industrial Disputes Act
c. The Companies Act
d. Partnership Act
26. The term “Industrial or other establishment” in the Payment of Wages Act, 19836
includes
a. Tramway service or motor transport service engaged in carrying passengers or goods or
both by road for hire or reward
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b. Dock wharf or jetty

c. Mine, quarry or oil-fieldAll of the above
27. The term “Industrial or other establishment” in the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 does
not include
a. Workshop or other establishment, in which articles are produced, adapted or
manufactured with a view to their use, transport or sale
b. Plantation
c. Inland vessel, mechanically propelled
28. “Plantation” under the Payment of Wages Act has the same meaning as it is under the
b. Plantations Labour Act, 1951
c. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
d. Indian Railways Act, 1989
29. “Railway Administrator” under the payment of Wages Act has the same meaning as it
is under the
b. Plantations Labour Act, 1951
c. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
d. Indian Railways Act, 1989
30. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, “Wages” can be paid
a. In terms of money
b. In terms of capable of being expressed in money
c. Either a or b or both
d. Neither a nor b
31. See the following two statements about definition of wages under the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936, and choose the best option.
I. Any remuneration payable under any award or settlement between the parties or order of a
court is included in the definition of wages under the Payment of Wages Act.
II. Any remuneration to which the person employed is entitled in respect of overtime work or
holidays or any leave period is included in the definition of wages under the payment of
wages Act
Statement I Statement II
a. True True
b. False False
c. False True
d. True False
32. See the following two statements about definition of wages under the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936, and choose the best option.
Page 46
I. Any additional remuneration payable under the terms of employment (whether called a bonus
or by any other name is excluded from the definition of wages under the Payment of Wages
Act.
II. Remuneration paid on termination of employment or contract is excluded from the definition
of wages under the payment of wages Act
Statement I Statement II
a. True True
b. False False
c. False True
d. True False
33. Which of the following is not included in the definition of wages under the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936?
a. Bonus as a part of the salary
b. Remuneration payable under any award or settlement between the parties or order of a
court
c. Overtime work and leave encashment
d. Contribution to provident Fund and Pension Fund by the employer
34. Which of the following is included in the definition of wages under the payment of
wages Act, 1936?
a. Contribution to Provident Fund and Pension Fund by the employer
b. Travelling allowance or the value of and travelling concession
c. Gratuity payable on the termination of employment
d. Remuneration payable under any award or settlement between the parties or order of a
court.
35. Under the payment of Wages Act, 1936, the value of any house-accommodation, or of
the supply of light, water, medical attendance, are ________ from the definition of
“wages” under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
a. Included
b. Excluded
c. Included with permission of the occupier
d. Excluded with permission of the occupier
36. Who is responsible for payment of wages to the employed person under the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936?
a. Employer
c. Factory
d. Establishment
37. The term Employer includes
a. Chief Executive Officer of the company
b. Manager of the company
Page 47
c. Person holding General Power of Attorney on behalf of the owner of the factory
d. Legal Representative of the Employer
38. The term Employed person includes
a. Legal Representative of the deceased employed person
b. Next best friend of the employed person
c. Wife and minor child of the employed person
d. Minor child of the employed person
39. Which of the following is not considered as an Employer under the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936?
a. A manager of the factory as named under the Factories Act
b. A person responsible to the employer for supervision and control of the industry and
establishments
c. Railway administration or a person nominated on behalf of railway administration for
local area concerned
d. The head of one of the departments of the company looking after a specific activity in a
company
40. Which of the following is considered as an Employer under the Payment of Wages Act,
1936?
a. A contractor
b. A person designated by a contractor who is directly under his charge
c. A person designated by the employer as a person responsible for employing with the
provision of the Act
d. All of the above
41. Who is responsible for payment of wages under the payment of Wages Act, 1936?
a. An employer
b. A person nominated by the employer as a person responsible for complying with the
provisions of the Act
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
42. Under the payment of Wages Act, 1936, maximum period of payment of wages can be
fixed as
a. 15 days
b. One month
c. One and a half month
d. Two months
43. Anjana Limited, to which the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is applicable, fixes the wages
period of 41 days. What is your advice to Anjana Limited as a Cost and Management
Accountant of the Company?
a. The company is following the provisions of Payment of Wages Act, 1936 appropriately.
Page 48
b. The company can have 41 days of wages period however, the company has to take the
approval of Central Government as the period is for more than one month.
c. According to Section 4 of the Payment of Wages Act, no wage period can exceed one
month. Therefore, the company should make it to the maximum limit of one month.
d. According to Section 4 of the payment of Wages Act, no wages period can exceed 15
days. Therefore, the company should make it to the maximum limit of 15 days
44. The following information relates to two companies namely Holistic Limited and
Realistic Limited, to which the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is applicable. Based on the
given information choose the best option indicating if the companies are following the
Section 4 of the Payment of Wages Act regarding fixation of the wage period.
I. Holistic Limited has fixed the wage period to 55 days
II. Realistic Limited has fixed the wage period to 30 days
Holistic Limited Realistic Limited
a. Yes No
b. No No
c. No Yes
d. Yes Yes
45. The following information relates to two companies namely Raj Industries and Raviraj
Industries, to which the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is applicable. Based on the given
information choose the best option indicating if the companies are following the section
4 of the Payment of Wages Act regarding fixation of the wage period.
I. Raj Industries has fixed the wages period to 15 days
II. Raviraj Industries has fixed the wages period to 30 days
Raj Industries Raviraj Industries
a. Yes No
b. No No
c. No Yes
d. Yes Yes
46. Who will fix the period of the payment of wages?

a. An employer
b. A person nominated by the employer as a person responsibility for complying with the
provisions of the Act.
c. a or b
d. Neither a nor b
47. The payment of wages is required to be done before ___________ after the last day of
the wage-period, in case where the railway, factory, industry or establishment employs
more than or equal to one thousand people.
a. The fifth day
b. The seventh day
Page 49
c. The tenth day

d. The fifteenth day
48. The payment of wages is required to be done before ___________ after the last day of
the wage-period, in case where the railway, factory, industry or establishment employs
less than one thousand people.
a. The fifth day
b. The seventh day
c. The tenth day
d. The fifteenth day
49. HIJ is a factory establishment, to which Payment of Wages Act is applicable. HIJ is
employing 725 employees. The factory has the practice of paying wages only after 15th
of following month. What is your advice to HIJ, as a Cost and Management Accountant
of the Factory?
a. It is up to the employer of the factory to decide when to pay the wages. So no problems at
all
b. The payment of wages needs to be done within 10 days of the last day of the wage period
for HIJ
c. The payment of wages needs to be done within 7 days of the last day of the wage period
for HIJ
d. The payment of wages needs to be done within 2 months for HIJ
50. OPO is a factory, to which payment of Wages Act is applicable. OP employs 1350
employees. The factory has a practice paying wages only after 15 th of following month.
What is your advice to HIJ, as a Cost and Management Accountant of the Factory?
a. It is up to the employer of the factory to decide when to pay the wages. So no problems at
all.
b. The payment of wages needs to be done within 10 days of the last day of the wage period
for OPO
c. The payment of wages needs to be done within 7 days of the last day of the wage period
for OPO
d. The payment of wages needs to be done within 2 months for OPO
51. Following is the information for two industry establishment Arunoday Industries and
Suryoday Industries, to which Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is applicable Based on the
following information, choose the best option regarding if the industries are following
provisions of payment of wages.
I. Arunoday Industries employ 500 employees and make payment of wages every 7 th day of the
following month.
II. Suryoday Industries employ 1400 employees and make the payment of wages every 10th day
of the following month.
Arunoday Industries Suryoday Industries
a. Yes No
b. No No
Page 50
c. No Yes
d. Yes Yes
52. Following is the information for two industry establishment. Varsha Industries and
Harsha Industries, to which Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is applicable. Based on the
following information, choose the best option regarding if the Industries are following
provisions of payment of wages.
I. Varsha Industries employ 650 employees and make the payment of wages every 6 th day of
the following month.
II. Harsha Industries employ 1375 employees and make the payment of wages every 17 th day of
Varsha Industries Harsha Industries
a. Yes No
b. No No
c. No Yes
d. Yes Yes
53. Following is the information for two factories, Amitabh Limited and Ajitabh Limited,
to which Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is applicable. Based on the following information,
choose the best option regarding if the factories are following provisions of payment of
wages.
I. Amitabh Limited employ 450 employees and make the payment of wages every 9th day of
II. Ajitabh Limited employ 2000 employees and make the payment of wages every 9 th day of
Amitabh Limited Ajitabh Limited
a. Yes No
b. No No
c. No Yes
d. Yes Yes
54. Following is the information for two factories, Khan’s Factories and Kapoor’s
Factories, to which Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is applicable, Based on the following
information, choose the best option regarding if the factories are following provisions of
payment of wages.
I. Khan’s Factories employ 450 employees and make the payment of wages every 9 th day of the
following month.
II. Kapoor’s Factories employ 2000 employees make the payment of wages every 19 th day of
Amitabh Limited Ajitabh Limited
a. Yes No
b. No No
Page 51
c. No Yes
d. Yes Yes
55. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, in the case of persons employed on a dock,
whart or jetty or in a mine, the balance of wages found due one completion the final
tonnage account of the ship or wagons loaded or unloaded, shall be paid before the
expiry of the ____day from the day of such completion.
a. Fifth
b. Seventh
c. Tenth
d. Fifteenth
56. Under the payment of wages Act, 1936, where the employment of any person is
terminated by or on behalf of the employer, the wages earned by him shall be paid
before the expiry of the ______ working day from the day on which his employment is
terminated.
a. Second
b. Fifth
c. Seventh
d. Tenth
57. Mr. A was terminated by his employer of the factory with a reason of non-satisfaction
of the performance of Mr. A’s work. When is the wages earned by Mr. A till the date of
termination need to be paid by the employer?
a. Before the expiry of the second working day from termination
b. Within a month’s time
c. Within a week’s time
d. On the fifteenth day from the termination date
58. As per the section 5 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, all payments of wages shall be
made on
a. a Sunday
b. a public holiday
c. a working day
d. a Monday
59. As per the Section 6 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the payment of wages cannot be
in/by
a. Currency notes
b. Currency coins
c. Crediting employee’s bank account
d. Kind
60. As per the Section 6 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the payment of wages can be
in/by
a. Currency notes and coins
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b. Cheque payment
c. Crediting employee’s bank account
d. All of the above
61. Sharda Industries, employing 1000 employees, to which provisions of Payment of
Wages Act, 1936 are applicable, decides to make the payment of wages to its employees
every 7th of the following month in the form of textile (shirts, dress material and sarees)
manufactured by the industry. What is your advice to Sharda Industries as a Cost and
Management Accountant of the industry?
a. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 allows payment of wages only in currency notes.
b. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 allows payment of wages only by crediting bank account of
the employee.
c. Payment of Wages Act, 1936 does not allow the payment of wages in kind. Therefore,
change the method of payment of wages (cash, or Cheque or credit in bank account of
employee)
d. The industry is paying the wages on 7th of every month, within the time limit allowed by
the Payment of Wages Act, so no problem.
62. Which of the following is considered to be a deduction from the wages paid by the
employer to the employee?
a. The withholding of increment or promotion (including the stoppage of increment at an
efficiency bar)
b. The reduction to a lower post or time scale or to a lower stage in a time scale
c. Suspension
63. Which of the following is considered to be a deduction from the wages paid by the
employer to the employee?
a. The withholding of increment or promotion (including the stoppage of increment at an
efficiency bar)
b. Payment made by the employed person to the employer or his agent
c. The reduction to a lower post or time scale or to a lower stage in a time scale
d. Suspension
64. Under the payment of wages Act, which of the following deductions from the wages are
allowed?
a. Fines
b. Deductions for absence from duty
c. Deductions for damage to or loss of goods directly attributable to the neglect or default of
the employed person
d. All of the above
65. Under the payment of wages Act, 1936, which of the following deductions from the
wages is/are not allowed?
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a. Deductions for absence from duty

b. Payment made by the employed person to the employer or his agent as an arrangement
of employment, not in accordance with the Act
c. Deductions for damage to or loss of goods directly attributable to the neglect or default of
the employed person
d. Fines
66. Under the Payment of Wages Act, which of the following deductions from the wages are
allowed?
a. Deductions for recovery of advances and interest thereon
b. Deductions for recovery of loans made to the employed person
c. Deductions for recovery of loans granted for house-building or other purposes
d. All of the above
67. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the total amount of deductions from the wages
shall not exceed __________of the wages, in case where the total deductions are wholly
or partly made for the payment to co-operative societies.
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 80%
68. Under the payment of Wages Act, 1936 the total amount of deductions from the wages
shall not exceed ________ of the wages, in case where the total deductions are not for
the payments to co-operative societies.
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 80%
69. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, no fine shall be imposed on any employed
person until
a. He has in written asked for the apology for his misdeed/mistake
b. He has been given an opportunity of showing cause against the fine
c. The employer notifies the same of the Official Gazette
d. All of the above
70. According to the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the total amount of fine which may be
imposed in any one wage-period on any employed person shall not exceed an amount
equal to _________ of the wages payable to him in respect of that wage-period.
a. 1%
b. 3%
c. 25%
d. 50%
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71. According to the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, no fine shall be imposed on any
employed person who is under the age of __________ years.
a. Eight
b. Fourteen
c. Fifteen
d. Eighteen
72. No fine imposed on any employed person shall be recovered from his by instalments or
after the expiry of ninety days from the day on which it was imposed, as per the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
a. By instalments
b. After the expiry of ninety days from the day on which it was imposed
c. After the expiry of seventy days from the day on which it was imposed
d. Either a or b
73. According to Section 8 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, every fine shall be deemed
to have been imposed on the day of the act or omission in respect of which it was
imposed.
a. True
b. False because employers are not allowed to impose the fine on the employed person
c. False because every fine shall be deemed to have been imposed on the 30 th day from the
day of the act or omission in respect of which it was imposed.
d. False because the fine shall be deemed to have been imposed on the day as decided by
the Appropriate Government in consultation with the Employer.
74. Deductions for absence of duty are covered under section __________ of the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936.
a. 7
b. 2
c. 1
d. 5
75. Deductions for damage or loss are covered under section __________ of the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936.
a. 7
b. 2
c. 1
d. 5
76. An employed person is deemed to be _________ in the work premises if he refuses to
work due to a stay in strike.
a. Present
b. Absent
c. Present or absent at the discretion of the employer
d. Present or absent at the discretion of the employee
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77. All the deductions from the wages due to damage or loss due to neglect of the employed
person and all realizations thereof shall be recorded in a register to be kept by
b. Employee
c. A person responsible for payment of wages
d. All of the above
78. According to section 13A of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, every __________
shall maintain such registers and records giving such particulars of persons
employed by him the work performed by them the wages paid to them the
deductions made from their wages the receipts given by them and such other
particulars and in such form as may be prescribed.
a. Employee
b. Employer
c. Magistrate
d. Union leader
79. According to section 13A of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, every record and
register must be kept for at least _________ years.
a. One
b. Three
c. Five
d. Seven
80. An inspector appointed under the Payment of Wages Act shall be the inspector of all
factories within _____________ assigned to him.
a. Countries
b. States
c. Local limits
d. Area of work
81. Who appoints Inspectors for establishments other than factories under the Payment
of Wages Act, 1936?
a. Employer
82. Who appoints Inspectors for establishments for class of factories and industrial or
other establishments under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
a. Employer
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83. ___________ has the power to appoint an inspector under the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936.
a. Employer
84. Which of the following is/are the power(s) of the inspector appointed under the
Payment of wages Act, 1936?
a. Make such examination and inquiry as he thinks fit in order to ascertain whether the
provision of this Act or rules made there under are being observed.
b. With such assistance, if any, as he think fir enter inspect and search any premises of
any railway factory or industrial or other establishment at any reasonable time for the
purpose of carrying out the objects of this Act.
c. Supervise the payment of wages to persons employed upon any railway or in any
factory or industrial or other establishment.
d. All of the above
85. Which of the following is/are the power(s) of the inspector appointed under the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
a. Seize or take copies of such registers or documents or portions thereof as he may
consider relevant in respect of an offence under this Act which he has reason to
believe has been committed by an employer
b. Require by a written order the production at such place, as may be prescribed, of any
register maintained in pursuance of this Act, and taken on the spot or otherwise
statements of any persons which he may consider necessary for carrying out the
purposes of this Act
c. Supervise the payment of wages to persons employed upon any railway or in any
factory or industrial or other establishment
d. All of the above
86. Every Inspector shall be deemed to be a __________ within the meaning of the
Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860).
a. Member of Managing Committee
b. Leader of Trade Union
c. Chief operating Officer
d. Public servant
87. Every Inspector shall be deemed to be a __________under the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936.
a. Chief Operating Officer
b. Leader of Trade Union
c. Public servant
d. Member of Managing Committee
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88. Who can apply against the employer for inappropriate deductions and/or delay of
payment of wages under the payment of Wages Act, 1936?
a. The employer himself
b. Legal practitioner
c. Official of a Registered trade union
d. Any of the above
89. What is the time limit of application for inappropriate deductions and/or delay of
payment of wages under the payment of Wages Act, 1936?
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. Twelve months
d. Two years
90. Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, where there is any dispute as to the person
or person being the legal representative or representatives of the employer or of the
employed person the decision of the _______ on such dispute shall be final
a. Authority hearing the application
b. High Court judge
c. Inspector or chief inspector
d. District magistrate
91. Any inquiry under Section 15 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is deemed to be a
a. Criminal proceeding
b. Judicial proceeding
c. Illicit proceeding
d. Discriminating proceeding
92. Which section provides for the penalties for various offences under the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 23
93. An authority appointed for hearing under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 shall
have all the powers of a ________ for the purpose of taking evidence and of
enforcing the attendance of witnesses.
a. Civil Court
b. Criminal Court
c. High Court
d. Supreme Court
94. Failure to maintain register and record under the payment of Wages Act, 1936
attracts the penalty of
a. Minimum Rs. 500/-, which may extend of Rs. 7,000/-
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b. Minimum Rs. 1,500/-, which may extend to Rs. 5,000/-

c. Minimum Rs. 2000/-, which may extend to Rs. 10,000/-
d. Minimum Rs. 1,500/-, which may extend to Rs. 7,000/-
95. Wilfully obstructing an Inspector in the discharge of his duties under the Payment
of Wages Act, 1936 attracts the penalty of
a. Minimum Rs. 500/-, which may extend to Rs. 7,000/-
b. Minimum Rs. 1,500/-, which may extend to Rs. 5,000/-
c. Minimum Rs. 2000/-, which may extend to Rs. 10,000/-
d. Minimum Rs. 1,500/-, which may extend to Rs. 7,000/-
96. If any person who has been convicted of any offence punishable under the Payment
of Wages Act, 1936 is again guilty of an offence involving contravention of the same
provision he shall be punishable on a subsequent conviction with
a. An imprisonment of one month to three month
b. A fine with Rs. 3,750/- to Rs. 22,500/-
c. Both a and b
d. Either a or b or both
97. Failure or willful neglect to pay wages to the employed person under the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936 is punishable with an additional fine which may extend to
a. Rs. 500/- for each day
b. Rs. 700/- for each day
c. Rs. 1,700/- for each day
d. Rs. 2,500/- for each day
98. No suit prosecution or other legal proceeding shall lie against the _________ for
anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under the payment of
Wages Act, 1936.
a. Government or any officer of Government
b. Employer of any office of the employer
c. Establishment or an officer of the Establishment
d. Workshop or an officer of a Workshop
99. If an employed person dies before payment of wages, his wages are paid to
___________
a. A person nominated by the employed person
b. Legal representative of employed person
c. Either a or b
d. Both a and b equally
100. If an employed person dies before payment of wages, and no nomination was made
by the employed person, the payment of wages is deposited with _________ .
a. Bank account of the employed person
b. Bank account of legal representative of the employed person
c. Prescribed authority under the payment of Wages Act
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d. Any of the above at the discretion of the employer
ANSWERS
1 A 2 A 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 A
8 D 9 A 10 B 11 B 12 D 13 D 14 B
15 A 16 A 17 A 18 B 19 A 20 A 21 A
22 A 23 A 24 A 25 A 26 D 27 D 28 B
29 D 30 C 31 A 32 B 33 D 34 D 35 B
36 A 37 D 38 A 39 D 40 D 41 C 42 B
43 C 44 C 45 D 46 C 47 C 48 B 49 C
50 B 51 D 52 A 53 C 54 B 55 B 56 A
57 A 58 C 59 D 60 D 61 C 62 D 63 B
64 D 65 B 66 D 67 C 68 B 69 B 70 B
71 C 72 D 73 A 74 A 75 A 76 B 77 C
78 B 79 B 80 C 81 B 82 B 83 B 84 D
85 D 86 D 87 A 88 D 89 C 90 A 91 B
92 C 93 A 94 D 95 D 96 C 97 B 98 A
99 A 100 C
Page 60
Chapter – 4
Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
1. Equal Remuneration Act is enacted in ___________

a. 1976
b. 1967
c. 1876
d. 1867
2. The main objective of Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is ____________
a. Remuneration
b. Fair remuneration
c. Equal remuneration
d. Fair and equal remuneration
3. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is not applicable to
a. Tamilnadu
b. Jammu and Kashmir
c. Bihar
4. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is applicable to
a. Whole of India
b. Whole of India except state of Maharashtra
c. Whole of India as well as out of India
d. Whole of India except states as exempted by Central Government
5. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is applicable to ______ in India.
a. All established
b. All factories
c. All workers
d. All of the above
6. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is applicable to _______
a. Men
b. Men and Women
c. Men and women workmen
7. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 has ________ effect over other laws
a. Overriding
b. Similar
c. Same
d. Temporary
8. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 provides for the payment of equal remuneration to men
and women workers and for the prevention of discrimination _______ against women.
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a. On ground of designation
b. On ground of sex
c. Both of the above
9. To give effect to ___________ of constitution the Parliament enacted the Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976.
a. Article 14
b. Article 21
c. Article 39
d. Article 15
10. Provisions of Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is applicable to _________
a. Skilled workmen only
b. Unskilled workmen only
c. Technical workmen only
d. All categories of workmen
11. Under Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 same work or Work of a similar nature means
work in respect of which ____________ required are the same, when performed under
similar working conditions, by a man or a woman
a. Skill
b. Effort
c. Responsibility
d. All of the above
12. Provisions of Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is
a. Overriding
b. Optional
c. Not overriding
d. Both (b) and (c)
13. Provisions of Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is overriding to _________
a. Any employment agreement or contract made in 1976
b. Any employment agreement made after 1976
c. Any employment agreement made before 1976.
d. All of the above
14. Provisions of Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is overriding to __________
a. Any award
b. Any service agreement
c. Any instrument
d. All of the above
15. As per Section 2(g) of Provisions of Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, remuneration
means
a. Basic wages and additional employments for work done under employment
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b. Basis salary and additional employments for work done under employment
c. Basic salary or wages but does not include any kind of employments
d. Both (a) and (b)
16. Who appoint officers as authorities for the purpose of hearing and deciding complaints
with regard to the contravention of any provision of Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
c. State Government
d. Local Government
17. Appropriate Government appoint officers not below the rank of ___________ as
authorities for the purpose of hearing and deciding complaints with regard to the
contravention of any provision of Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
a. Labour commissioner
b. Assistant labour commissioner
c. Labour Officer
18. Which of the following is not duty of employer under Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
a. To pay equal remuneration to men and women workers for same work or work of a
similar nature.
b. To discriminate against women work-men while making recruitment for the same work
or work of a similar nature, or while considering promotions, training or transfer except
where the employment of women is prohibited or restricted by and law.
c. To maintain registers and documents relating to workers employed by him in the
prescribed manner.
d. Both (a) and (c)
19. Mohan and Meera both were employed in ABC Ltd for performing the same work.
Mohan was getting remuneration at higher rate. For complying with the legal
provisions to pay equal remuneration for the same work, the employer reduced the rate
of remuneration of Mohan. Which of the following step taken by employer is not
appropriate in this regard?
a. Reduce remuneration of Mohan
b. Increase remuneration of Mohan
c. Employ either Mohan or Meera.
d. All of the above
20. Advisory committee is constituted by __________
c. State Government
d. Parliament
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21. Advisory committee constituted by appropriate governments under Equal

Remuneration Act consists of ___________members.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
22. Advisory committee constituted by appropriate governments under Equal
Remuneration Act consists of 10 members out of which ________shall be women.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
23. For any offence under Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, employer is punishable with
a. Fine
b. Imprisonment
c. Fine and imprisonment
d. Any one of the above
24. When an employer is liable to be punishable under Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
a. He makes any recruitment of contravention of the provisions of Act
b. He makes any payment of remuneration at equal rates to men and women workers for the
same work or work of a similar nature
c. both of the above
d. none of the above
25. When an employer is not liable to be punished under Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
a. He makes any discrimination between men and women workers in contravention of the
provisions of Act
b. He omits or fails to carry out any direction made by the appropriate Government
c. Both of the above
d. None of these
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
8 9 10 11 12 13 14
15 16 17 18 19 20 21
22 23 24 25
Page 64
CHAPTER 5
EMPLOYEES STATE INSURANCE ACT, 1948
1. Employee’s State Insurance was enacted in the year
(a) 1936
(b) 1948
(c) 1951
(d) 1958
2. The objective of Employee’s Slate Insurance Act includes
(a) provides an integrated need based social insurance scheme
(b) protect the interest of workers in contingencies such as sickness
(c) guarantees reasonably good medical care to workers
(d) All of the above
3. The Central Government established a Corporation to be known as the
______which is the premier social security organization in India
(a) Employees’ State Pension Corporation
(b) Employees State Welfare Corporation
(c) Employees’ State Health Corporation
(d) Employees State Insurance Corporation
4. The Act applies in the first instance to all factories other than
(a) Government factories
(b) Scheduled factories
(c) seasonal factories
5. Appropriate Government to extend any of the provisions of the Act to any other
establishment after giving _____ month’s notice in the Official Gazette
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
6. What is the minimum qualification required for a person to qualify as a judge of the
E.l, Court?
(a) Judicial officer with minimum 5 years standing
(b) Legal practitioner with minimum 3 years standing
(c) Chartered Accountant with minimum 5 years standing
(d) Special Legal Officer with minimum 5 years standing
7. Dependent as per ESI Act does not includes
(a) widow
(b) legitimate or adopted son who has not attained the age of twenty-five years
(c) married legitimate or adopted daughter
(d) widowed mother
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8. Which of the following are elements of employment injury?

(a) personal injury to an employee caused by accident
(b) injury caused by an occupational disease
(c) disease arising out of and in the course of his employment
9. Is there any requirement of nexus or casual connection between the accident and
employment for the purpose of ESI?
(a) Nexus required
(b) Nexus not required
(c) May or may not be there
(d) Accident has to be in India
10. In relation to ESI. which of the following statement is true
(a) There is requirement of nexus or casual Connection between the accident and
employment
(b) injury means visible injury in the form of some wound
(c) Accident may occur in India or abroad
(d) Injury may be caused by negligence
11. Employee for the purpose of ESI Act means
(a) directly employed by the principal employer on any work
(b) employed by or through a immediate employer on the premises of the factory
(c) services are temporarily lent or let on hire to the principal employer
12. Employee for the purpose of ESI Act does not includes
(a) member of the Indian Naval, Military or Air Forces
(b) person so employed whose wages does not exceed 10,000
(c) Apprentice
(d) services are temporarily lent or let on hire to the principal employer
13. Employee whose wages exceed _______ a month at any time after and not before the
beginning of the contribution period, shall continue to be an employee until the
end of the period
(a) 5000
(b) 10,000
(c) 15,000
(d) 50,000
14. Factory means any premises whereon _________or more persons are employed or
were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 100
Page 66
15. Permanent total disablement shall be deemed to result from every injury specified in
(a) Part-I of the First Schedule
(b) Part-Il of the First Schedule
(c) Part-I of the Second Schedule
(d) Part-Il of the Second Schedule
16. Permanent partial disablement shall be deemed to result from every injury specified
in
(a) Part-I of the First Schedule
(b) Part-Il of the First Schedule
(c) Part-I of the Second Schedule
(d) Part-Il of the Second Schedule
17. Which of the following executives are ex-officio members of the Employees’ State
Insurance Corporation?
(a) Three members of Parliament & Director General of the Corporation
(b) Chairman of the Board of the Corporation
(c) Vice-president of the Corporation
18. Wages for the purpose of ESI does not includes
(a) contribution paid by the employer to any pension fund or provident fund
(b) travelling allowance or the value of any travelling concession
(c) gratuity payable on discharge
19. Seasonal factory includes a factory which is engaged for a period not exceeding
______ months in a year
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 11
20. Any dispute will be settled by the ______
(a) Civil Court
(b) Labour Court
(c) Employees’ insurance Court
(d) Supreme Court
21. Which body has been constituted For the administration of the scheme of Employees’
State Insurance?
(a) Employees’ Insurance Court
(b) Employees’ State Insurance Corporation Standing Committee
(c) Employees’ State Administration Committee
(d) Employees’ State Provident Fund Committee
Page 67
22. Which of the following body has been constituted For the administration of the
scheme of Employees’ State Insurance?
(a) Employees’ Insurance Court
(b) Employees’ Welfare Standing Committee
(d) Medical Benefit Council
23. Who establishes Employees’ Insurance Corporation
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Parliament
24. The functionof the ESI Corporation is to
(a) to promote measures for the improvement of the health and welfare of insured persons
(b) rehabilitation and re-employment of insured persons who have been disabled or injured
(c) carry out the scheme of benefits specified in the Act
25. The function of the ESI Corporation includes
(a) acquire and hold, sell or transfer property both movable and immovable
(b) invest and reinvest any moneys which are not immediately required for expenses
(c) raise loans and discharge such loans with the previous sanction of Central Govt.
26. How many wings does the ESI Corporation has
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
27. ____________administers affairs of the ESI Corporation
(a) The Standing Committee
28. Duties of the Medical Benefit Council includes
(a) advise the Corporation and the Standing Committee on matters relating to administration
of medical benefit
(b) the certification for purposes of the grant of benefit and other connected matters;
(c) investigation in relation to complaints against medical practitioners in connection with
medical treatment
29. All contributions paid under ESI Act and all other moneys received on behalf of the
Corporation shall be paid into a Fund named
Page 68
(a) Provident Fund

(b) Pension Fund
(c) Employee’s Welfare Fund
(d) Employees’ State Insurance Fund
30. Bank account in the name of Employees’ State Insurance Fund shall be operated on
by such officers who are authorized by __________
(a) Standing Committee
31. The ESI Fund shall be expended for which of the following purposes
(a) payment of benefits and provisions of medical treatment
(b) payment of fees and allowances to members of the Corporation
(c) establishment and maintenance of hospitals, dispensaries and other
institutions
32. Rates of contribution for ESI is ______of workers' wages byemployers
(a) 4.75%
(b) 1.75%
(c) 8.33%
(d) 12%
33. Rates of contribution for ESI is ______of workers' wages by employees
(a) 4.75%
(b) 1.75%
(c) 8.33%
(d) 12%
34. The _______________may exempt any factory/establishment from the purview of the
ESI Act
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Collector
(c) Appropriate Government
(d) President
35. If any contribution payable is not paid by the principal employer on the date on
which such contribution has become due, he shall be liable to pay simple interest at the
rate of ________ %
(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) LIBOR+2%
Page 69
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B D D C A A C D A B D A B A C
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D A D C C B D A D D A A D D A
31 32 33 34 35
D A B C C
Page 70
CHAPTER 6
EMPLOYEES PROVIDENT FUNDS AND MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS ACT,
1952
1. Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act was enacted in the
year
(a) 1952
(b) 1948
(c) 1960
(d) 1938
2. To which state the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act
does not applies
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
3. Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is applicable to
employees drawing pay not exceeding _______________
(a) Rs. 5,000p.m.
(b) Rs. 6,500 p.m.
(c) Rs. 10,000 p.m.
(d) Rs. 20,000 p.m.
4. The term wages for the purpose of Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act includes
(a) Basic wages with dearness allowance
(b) Retaining allowance
(c) Cash value of food concession
5. Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act applies to industries
specified in which Schedule
(a) Schedule I
(b) Schedule II
(c) Schedule lII
(d) Article I
specified in which Schedule I with persons or more
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 100
Page 71
7. ____________ can extend the provisions of the Employees’ Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act to any establishment
(a) State Govt.
(b) Central Govt.
(c) Collector
(d) President
8. To which of the establishment do the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act does not applies?
(a) Mine
(b) Co-operative society employing less than 50 members
(c) Co-operative society employing more than 50 members
9. The date of establishment of a factory is the date when the factory starts/ get its
(a) Manufacturing process
(b) Certificate of incorporation
(c) Certificate of business
(d) Any of these
10. The date of establishment of a factory in case of shift of ownership is the date when
the factory _____?
(a) Date of transfer
(b) Date of registered transfer deed
(c) Start its manufacturing process
(d) Any of these
11. Central Government shall be considered as Appropriate Govt. in relation to an
establishment connected with
(a) Railway company
(b) Major port
(c) Mine or an oil field
(d) All of these
12. Employee for the purpose of Provident Fund does not include
(a) Contract employee
(b) Apprentice under Apprentices Act, 1961
(c) Apprentice not covered under Apprentices Act, 1961
(d) All of these
13. Which of the person is included in the definition of employee
(a) Part-time employee
(b) Sweeper working just twice a week
(c) Gardener working for only ten days in a month
14. Which of the person is included in the definition of employee
Page 72
(a) Beedi Makers

(b) Apprentice
(c) Partner
15. Which authority has been constituted by the Central Government to preside over the
cases regarding determination of monies due from employers?
(a) Employees Provident Fund Appellate Tribunal
(b) Employees Provident Fund Consultancy Tribunal
(c) Employees Provident Fund Helpdesk
(d) Employees Provident Fund Information Centre
16. What percentage of the basic wage, dearness allowance and retaining allowance of an
employee is paid as contribution by the employer in general?
(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) 13%
17. What percentage of the basic wage, dearness allowance and retaining allowance of an
employee is paid as contribution by the employer in specifically notified cases?
(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) 13%
18. Superannuation means the member of the Pension Scheme who has attained the age
of _______ years
(a) 58
(b) 60
(c) 62
(d) 65
19. The Employees Provident Fund Scheme is administered by ___________
(a) Central Board
(b) State Board
(c) Pension Board
20. Excluded employee for the purpose of EPF means
(a) An employee who, having been a member of the Fund, withdraw he full amount of his
accumulations in the Fund.
(b) An employee whose pay at the time be is otherwise entitled to become a member of the
Fund, exceeds five thousand rupees per month
(c) An apprentice.
Page 73
21. Advances from the Provident Fund can be taken for the following purposes
(a) Payment of premium towards a policy or policies of Life Insurance of a
member
(b) Purchasing a dwelling house or flat or for construction of a dwelling house
(c) Due to temporary closure of any factory or establishment
22. In which cases the advances from the Provident Fund can be taken for the medical
purposes
(a) Hospitalization lasting one month or more
(b) Major surgical operation in a hospital
(c) Mental derangement
23. In which cases the advances from the Provident Fund can be taken for the marriage
related purposes
(a) Marriage of daughter/sons
(b) Self-marriage
(c) Marriage of sister/brother
24. Full accumulations with interest thereon are refunded in the event of
(a) Death
(b) Permanent disability
(c) Superannuation
25. A member is allowed to draw full amount when he ceases to be in employment and
has not been employed in any establishment to which the Act applies for a continuous
period of at least ______.
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
26. This requirement of 2 months waiting period shall not apply in cases of
(a) Female members resigning from service for the purpose of maternity
(b) Female members resigning from service for the purpose of getting married
(c) None of the above
(d) Both of the above
27. Minimum _____years contributory service is required for entitlement to pension.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 58
Page 74
28. Pension on a discounted rate is also payable on attaining the age of _______ years
(a) 50
(b) 52
(c) 58
(d) 60
29. Formula for pension is as follows
(a) [Pensionable Salary x (Pensionable Service + 2)] /70
(b) [Pensionable Salary x (Pensionable Service + 2)] / 50
(c) [Pensionable Salary x (Pensionable Service + 2)] / 365
(d) [Pensionable Salary / (Pensionable Service + 2)] /70
30. The rate of minimum widow pension is _____
(a) Rs. 250 p.m.
(b) Rs. 450 p.m.
(c) Rs. 2,500 p.m.
(d) Rs. 4,500 p.m.
31. The rate of children pension is _____% of widow pension for each child subject to a
minimum of 115 p.m. per child.
(a) 10%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 90%
32. The rate of children pension is for each child subject to a minimum of per child.
(a) 100 p.m.
(b) 115 p.m.
(c) 150 p.m.
(d) 500 p.m.
33. Pension is payable up to two children at a time till they attain the age of ______
(a) 18 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 22 years
(d) 25 years
34. If there are no parents alive, the scheme provides for orphan pension at the rate of
_____of the widow pension payable to orphans
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
35. The rate of children pension is for each orphan subject to a minimum of Rs. _______
per child.
(a) 100p.m.
Page 75
(b) 115p.m.
(c) 150p.m.
(d) 170 p.m.
36. The employers share of PF contribution representing _____ of the wage is being
diverted to the Pension Fund
(a) 1.33%
(b) 8.33%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%
37. The Central Government is also contributing to the Pension Fund at the rate of
_____of the wage of the employees
(a) 1.16%
(b) 1.33%
(c) 8.33%
(d) 12%
38. The employers are required to pay contributions to the Insurance Fund at the rate of
_____ of wages
(a) 0.01%
(b) 1%
(c) 1.33%
(d) 8.33%
39. The employers of all covered establishments are required to pay charges to the
Insurance Fund, at the rate of _____ the pay
(a) 0.01%
(b) 1%
(c) 1.33%
(d) 8.33%
40. Central Government has constituted ___________ for adjudicating PF related
matters
(a) Employees Provident Fund Adjudicating Tribunal
(b) Employees Provident Fund Appellate Tribunal
(c) Employees Provident Fund Appellate Court
(d) Labour Court
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A B B D A B B B A C D B D A A
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C A A D D D D D B B B A B B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B B D D C B A B A B
Page 76
CHAPTER 7
PAYMENT OF BONUS ACT, 1965
1. Payment of Bonus Act was enacted in the year
(a) 1950
(b) 1948
(c) 1960
(d) 1965
2. Which of the following is an objective of Payment of Bonus Act:
(a) Payment of bonus to persons employed in certain establishments
(b) Secure good working conditions
(c) Regulate the contract labourers
(d) Provide for adequate safety measures of factory workers
3. The provision of the Payment of Bonus Act have no say on _______ bonus
(a) Customary
(b) Statutory
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
4. Payment of bonus Act applies to any establishment which is a factory or where more
than persons are employed in a year
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 100
5. Appropriate Government may after giving not less than__— notice of its
intention, by notification in the Official Gazette apply the provisions of Payment of
Bonus Act to any establishment
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
6. Wherein Appropriate Govt. applies Payment of Bonus Act to any other
establishment with less than 20 persons , however the number of persons so
specified shall in no case be less than _______
(a) 19
(b) 18
(c) 10
(d) 5
7. To which of the following, shall Payment of Bonus Act not apply
(a) Indian Red Cross Society
(b) Universities and other educational institutions
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(c) Hospital & welfare institutions

8. To which of the following , shall Payment of Bonus Act not apply
(a) Employees of RBI
(b) Employees of UTI
(c) Employees of IDBI
9. What are the different types of bonus?
(a) Profit based bonus
(b) Customary bonus
(c) Attendance bonus
10. What do you mean by Accounting year in relation to a company
(a) Period commencing from April 1st to March 31st
(b) Period in respect of which any profit and loss account of the company is made
(c) Period in respect of which any profit and loss account of the company laid before AGM
(d) Year ending on the day on which the books are to be closed and balanced
11. Allocable Surplus in relation to an employer, being a company (other than a
banking company which has not made the arrangements for the declaration and
payment of dividend?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 67%
(d) 83.3%
12. Allocable Surplus in relation to an employer, being a company which has made the
arrangements for the declaration and payment of dividend?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 67%
(d) 83.3%
13. Employee for the purpose of Payment of Bonus means any person employed on a
salary or wages not exceeding ______in any industry?
(a) Rs. 5,000 p.m.
(b) Rs. 6,500 p.m.
(c) Rs. 10,000p.m.
(d) Rs. 15,000 p.m.
14. Which of the following does not count for employee as per Payment of Bonus Act,1
965?
(a) Part time employee
(b) Unskilled employee
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(c) Apprentice
15. A corporation in which not less than __ of its capital is held (whether singly or taken
together) by Government/ RBI:
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 51%
16. Salary or wage for the purpose of Payment of Bonus Act,1965 does not include
(a) Travelling concession
(b) Bonus
(c) Contribution to PF
17. Which of the following constitute Salary or wage for the purpose of Payment of Bonus
Act,1965
(a) Subsistence allowance
(b) lay-off compensation
(c) Overtime allowance
18. Establishment for the purpose of Payment of Bonus Act shall include
(a) Departments of a establishment -
(b) Undertakings and branches situated in the same place
(c) Undertakings and branches situated in different places
19. Gross Profit for the purpose of banking company is calculated in the manner
specified in the which Schedule of Bonus Act:
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Third Schedule
(d) Fourth Schedule
20. Gross Profit for the purpose of establishment other than banking company is
calculated in. the manner specified in the which Schedule of Bonus Act
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Third Schedule
(d) Fourth Schedule
21. Which of the following sums are deductible from gross profits from Payment of Bonus
Act?
(a) Amount by way of depreciation
(b) Development rebate, investment allowance, or development allowance
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(c) Third Schedule

22. Every employee shall be entitled to be paid by his employer in an accounting year,
bonus, in accordance with the provisions of this Act, provided he has worked in the
establishment for not less than days in that year?
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 120
(d) 300
23. An employee suspended but subsequently reinstated with full back wages will for
bonus for the period of suspension?
(a) Eligible
(b) Ineligible
(c) Suspended
24. An employee shall be disqualified from receiving bonus under Bonus Act, if he is
dismissed from service for:
(a) Fraud
(b) Riotous or violent behavior
(c) Theft, misappropriation or sabotage
25. If an employee is dismissed from service for any act of misconduct enumerated in
Section 9, he stands disqualified from receiving
(a) Bonus under the Act for all years
(b) Bonus only for that accounting year
(c) Bonus for next 5 accounting year
(d) None of these
26. Every employer shall be bound to pay to every employee in respect of any,
accounting year a minimum bonus which shall be of the salary?
(a) 2%
(b) 8.33%
(c) 20%
27. The maximum bonus shall be of the salary?
(a) 2%
(b) 8.33%
(c) 20%
28. Bonus is to be paid by the employer in which of the following cases
(a) Profit of Rs. 10,000
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(b) Nil Profit

(c) Loss of 10,000
(d) All of these
29. Where the salary or wage of an employee exceeds _________ p.m., the bonus payable
under section 10 or 11 shall be calculated as if his salary or wage were ______
p.m.
(a) 5,000; 3,500
(b) 3,500; 3,500
(c) 3,000; 3,000
(d) 2,500; 2,500
30. ______ shall be included for computation of number of working days for the
purpose of Bonus Act?
(a) Employee has been on leave with salary or wage
(b) Employee has been absent due to temporary disablement
(c) Employee has been on maternity leave with salary or wage
31. Which of the following can be adjusted against the bonus required to be paid under
the Bonus Act?
(a) Puja Bonus
(b) Customary Bonus
(c) Interim bonus
32. Where there is a dispute regarding payment of bonus pending before any authority
under, all amounts payable to an employee by way of bonus Act shall be paid in cash by
his employer, within ______month from the date from which the award
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 8
33. The bonus should be paid within a period of — months from the close of the
accounting year
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 8
34. ______having regard to the financial position and other relevant circumstances, may
by notification in the Official Gazette, exempt for such period such establishment or
class of establishments from Bonus Act
(a) Appropriate Government
(b) Collector
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(c) Occupier
(d) President
35. If any person contravenes any of the provisions of this Act or any rule made there
under; he shall be punishable with
(a) 3 months or Rs. 1,000 or both
(b) 3 months or Rs. 10,000 or both
(c) 6 months or Rs. 1,000 or both
(d) 6 months or Rs. 10,000 or both
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
D A A B B C D D D C C B C C C
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B D A B D A A D A B C D B D
31 32 33 34 35
D A D A C
Page 82
CHAPTER 8
PAYMENT OF GRAUTITY ACT, 1972
1. Payment of Gratuity Act was enacted in the year
(a) 1950
(b) 1948
(c) 1960
(d) 1972
2. Which of the following is an objective of Payment of Gratuity Act
(a) Protect interest of workers in factories
(b) Secure good working conditions
(c) Regulate the contract labourers
(d) Payment of gratuity to employees
3. ________or more workers carrying manufacturing process with aid of power
constitutes Factory as per Factories Act, 1948
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 100
(d) 7
4. Payment of Gratuity Act, 1965 applies to
(a) Factory
(b) Mine & Oilfield
(c) Port and Railway Company
5. The Payment of Gratuity Act has been amended to enhance the ceiling on amount of
gratuity to _________
(a) RS. 3.5 lakhs
(b) Rs. 5 lakhs
(c) Rs. 10 Iakhs
(d) Rs. 20 lakhs
6. What is the minimum number of employees required in an establishment for it to
come under the purview of the Payment of Gratuity Act?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
7. Which of the following authorities are the important functionaries in the operation of
the Payment of Gratuity Act?
(a) Controlling & Appellate Authority
(b) Arbitration Authority
(c) Concessional Authority
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(d) Adjunct Authority

8. . Which of the following are not included in ‘wages’?
(a) Dearness allowance
(b) Bonus
(c) Basic salary
9. The number of days on which an employee has actually worked under an employer
shall include the days on which
(a) he has been laid-off
(b) he has been on leave with full wages, earned in the previous year
(c) he has been absent due to temporary disablement
10. Which of the following constitutes continuous period for the purpose of Gratuity
Act,1972?
(a) Legal termination of service
(b) Maternity Break
(c) Re-employment
11. When is gratuity payable?
(a) superannuation
(b) Retirement or resignation
(c) Death or disablement due to accident or disease
12. Gratuity shall be payable to an employee on the termination of his employment after
he has rendered continuous service for not less than _____
(a) 1 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 20 years
13. Completion of continuous service of five years is not necessary where the
termination of the employment of any employee is due to
(a) Death or disablement
(b) Resignation
(c) Both the above
14. Can forfeiture of Gratuity can be made under any of the following cases
(a) Riotous and disorderly conduct
(b) Act of violence on his part
(c) Offence involving moral turpitude
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15. __________may exempt any factory or establishment covered by the Act or any
employee or class of employees if the gratuity or pensionary benefits for the employees
are not less favorable than conferred under the Act
(b) Collector
(c) Occupier
(d) President
16. A person who is eligible for payment of gratuity under the Act shall send a written
application to the employer within ______from the date gratuity becomes payable?
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
17. The employer shall arrange to pay the amount of gratuity within _____ from the date
of its becoming payable to the person to whom it is payable?
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
18. The employer shall pay, from the date on which the gratuity becomes payable to the
date on which it is paid, simple interest at the rate of _______?
(a) 8%p.a.
(b) 10%p.a.
(c) 12%p.a
(d) 15%p.a
19. Gratuity has been exempted from attachment in execution of
(a) Decree or order of any Civil Court
(b) Decree or order of any Revenue Court
(c) Decree or order of any Criminal Court
20. If an employer contravenes any provision of the Payment of Gratuity Act, he shall be
punishable with imprisonment of
(a) 1 month to 1 year or fine of RS. 10,000 to Rs.1,00,000
(b) 3 months to 1 year or fine of Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 1,00,000
(c) 6 months to 1 year or fine of Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 1,00,000
(d) 6 months to 1 year or fine of Rs. 50,000 to Rs. 1,00,000
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ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
D D A D C A A B D B D B A D A
16 17 18 19 20
B B B D B
Page 86
CHAPTER 9
EMPLOYEES COMPENSATION ACT 1923
1. Pakhi Savant is an illegitimate major daughter of Ravi Kapoor. In which of the
scenario whether she will be eligible for compensation in case of death of Ravi Kapoor as
per the Employee’s Compensation Act 1923
(a) If she is not dependant on Mr. Ravi
(b) If she is wholly or partly dependant on Mr. Ravi
(c) Only if she is wholly dependent on Mr. Ravi
(d) She won’t be eligible for any compensation being an illegitimate child.
2. Mr. Ghanshyam is a paternal grandfather of Shammy Kapoor. Parents of Mr.
Shammy died two years ago in a road accident. In which of the scenario whether she will
be eligible for compensation in case of death of Shammy Kapoor as per the Employee’s
Compensation Act 1923.
(a) If he is not dependant on Mr. Shammy
(b) If he is wholly or partly dependant on Mr. Shammy
(c) Only if he is wholly dependent on Mr. Shammy
(d) He won’t be eligible for any compensation being a grandfather
3. Katrina Sen is an unmarried major daughter of Mr. Sen. In which of the scenario
whether she will be eligible for compensation in case of death of Mr. Sen as per the
Employee’s Compensation Act 1923.
(a) Even if she is not dependant on Mr. Sen
(b) Only if she is wholly or partly dependant on Mr. Sen
(c) Only if she is wholly dependent on Mr. Sen
(d) She won’t be eligible for any compensation being a major daughter
4. Radhika is daughter in law of Mr. Kapil Sharma. She lives in Mumbai with her
husband and her father in law Mr. Sharma. Mr. Sharma died this year while on work.
In which of the scenario whether she will be eligible for compensation in case of death of
Mr. Sharma as per the Employee’s Compensation Act 1923
(a) Even if she is not dependant on Mr. Sharma
(b) Only if she is wholly or partly dependant on Mr. Sharma
(c) Only if she is wholly dependent on Mr. Sharma
(d) he won’t be eligible for any compensation
5. . MS Ghoni adopted a minor child Rishi. MS Ghoni died this year while on work. In
which of the scenario whether he will be eligible for compensation in case of death of Mr.
Ghoni as per the Employee’s Compensation Act 1923
(a) Even if she is not dependant on Mr. Sharma
(b) Only if she is wholly or partly dependant on Mr. Sharma
(c) Only if she is wholly dependent on Mr. Sharma
(d) She won’t be eligible for any compensation
6. Which of the following not an element of Employer:
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(a) Any managing agent of the employer

(b) Legal representative of a deceased employer
(c) General Manager of Railway
(d) Head of Department in a firm
7. Which of the following not an element of Employer
(a) Anybody of persons incorporated or not
(b) Any person to whom the services of a employee are temporarily lent or let on hire by a
person with whom the employee has entered into a contract of service or apprenticeship
(c) Contractor
(d) Agriculturist
8. According to Section 2(1 )(m), which of these constitute wages
(a) Contribution paid towards Pension or Provident Fund
(b) Any benefit which is capable of being estimated in money
(c) A travelling allowance or the value of any travelling concession
(d) A sum paid to employee to cover any special expenses entailed on him
9. Referring to the case of Godawari Sugar Mills Ltd. v. Shakuntal, Wages include
(a) Dearness Allowance
(b) Overtime
(c) Free Accommodation
10. Shiva, the driver of a bus died in an accident. On a claim for compensation made by
widow, what are the components to be included in determining compensation
(a) Line Allowance
(b) Night Out Allowance
(c) Claim of Bonus
11. Which of the following terms are not defined in the Workmen’s Compensation Act,
1923?
(a) Dependant
(b) Disablement
(c) Workman
(d) Seaman
12. The Act classified disablement into
(a) Partial Disablement and Minimal Disablement
(b) Minimal Disablement and Total Disablement
(c) Partial Disablement and Total Disablement
13. The disablement resulting in reduction of earning capacity in respect of only that
employment in which he was engaged at the time of accident, This form of disablement
is:
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(a) Partial disablement of temporary nature

(b) Partial disablement of permanent nature
(c) Total Disablement
14. Anil Kapoor works in an organization and met with an accident. Due to this, he was
not able to do particular job. The employer appoints Anil for another job which he is
capable to do. For what type of disablement, will anil get compensation.
(a) As Partial Disablement
(b) As Full Disablement
(c) No compensation as he gets another job
(d) No compensation as he is still alive
15. Part II of Schedule I contains the list of injuries which shall be deemed to result in
________
(a) Temporary Partial Disablement
(b) Permanent Partial Disablement
(d) No Disablement
16. Which ofthe following will be part of limb, as per Note to Schedule I
(a) Eyes
(b) Lungs
(c) Kidneys
(d) Heart
17. Disablement which incapacitates an employee for all work which he was capable of
performing at the time of accident resulting in disablement is _________
(a) Partial Disablement
(b) Total Disablement
(c) No Disablement
(d) Serious Disablement
18. Yuvraj Ganguly met with an accident and suffered injuries while working at HUL.
He got disabled but still fit for doing only a specific job. He searched for job in full
capacity but unable to get the same
(a) Partial Disablement
(b) Serious Disablement
19. Where an employee employed in any employment specified in Part A of Schedule Ill
contracts any disease specified therein, as an ____________, peculiar to that
employment, the contracting of disease shall be deemed to be an injury by accident
arising out of and in the course of employment.
(a) Seasonal Disease
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(b) Occupational Disease

(c) Climate Disease
20. Where the employee employed in any employment specified in Part B of Schedule Ill,
for a continuous period of not less than _______ under the same employer, and whilst in
the service contracts any disease specified in the Part B of Schedule Ill, the contracting
of disease shall be deemed to be an injury by accident arising out of and in the course of
employment
(a) Twelve months
(b) Nine months
(c) Six months
(d) Three months
21. Shashi Tharur was working in Z Ltd. for last 9 months. He left the job and later then
contracted a disease specified in Part B of Schedule III. The disease arose out of the
employment z Ltd will be:
(a) Liable to pay compensation
(b) Not liable to pay compensation
(c) Liable to pay partial Compensation
(d) Liable to pay only doctor fees
22. Raj Malhotra was in service for many employers as specified in Part C of Schedule Ill.
Later he contracted a disease, when he has ceased to be in employment Such disease
occurred in the course of employment. Who will be liable to pay Compensation
(a) Last Employer
(b) All employers in equal proportion
(c) All employers in proportion decided by Commissioner
(d) No compensation as he is ceased to be in employment
23. Whether in case of personal injury, employer is liable to pay compensation
(a) Yes, in case injury occurred in the course on employment
(b) No, personal injury is not liable to compensation even if occurred in course of
employment
(c) Partially payable but not fully
24. Personal injury includes
(a) Nervous shock
(b) Break down
(c) Mental strain
25. Accident has been defined as a _____ event which is not expected or
designed
(a) mishap or an untoward
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(b) minor
(c) expected
(d) Suicidal
26. ______ means an untoward mishap which is not expected or designed by workman
(a) Injury
(b) Accident
(c) Disablement
(d) Compensation
27. The burden of proof is on _______ to prove the connection of employment and injury.
(a) Employer
(b) Applicant
(c) Commissioner
(d) Court
28. ________ suffered by a workman mainly due to the progress of disease unconnected
with employment may amount to an injury arising out of and in the Course of
employment if the work, that the workman was doing at the time of the occurrence of
the injury contributed to its occurrence
(a) Accident
(b) Compensation
(c) Attack
(d) Physiological injury
29. To make the ______liable, it is necessary that the injury is caused by an accident
which must be raised out of and in the course of employment
(a) Employer
(b) Employee
(c) Commissioner
(d) Director
30. Generally if an employee is suffering from a particular disease and as a result of wear
and tear of his employment he dies of that disease, What is the liability of employer?
(a) Employer is not liable
(b) Employer is partially liable
(c) Employer is 50% liable
(d) Employer is fully liable
31. If an employee is suffering from a particular disease, death was due to disease coupled
with the employment, what is the liability of employer?
(a) Employer is not liable
(b) Employer is partially liable
(c) Employer is 50% liable
(d) Employer is fully liable
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32. Referring the case of Mackenzie v. l.M. Issak,________ means that injury has resulted
from risk incidental to the duties of the service which unless engaged
in the duty owing to the master, it is reasonable to believe that the workman would not
otherwise have Suffered. There must be a casual relationship between the accident and
the employment
(a) Accident
(b) Disablement
(c) Arising in the course of employment
(d) Compensation
33. Which of the following injuries does not come under the definition of the term
‘personal injury’?
(a) Nervous Shock
(b) Mental Strain
(c) Breakdown
(d) Loss of money
34. Which of these is not a basic ingredient of “accident arising out of and in the Course
of employment’?
(a) Unexpectedness
(b) Injury must be traceable within reasonable limits
(c) Injury must be traceable to a cause
(d) Disease
35. According to ________ If the presence of the workman concerned at the
particular point was SO related to the employment as to lead to the conclusion that he
was acting within the scope of employment that would be sufficient to deem the accident
as having occurred in the course of employment.
(a) Theory of Notional Extension of Employment -
(b) Theory of Resjudicata
(c) Theory of Corporate Veil
(d) Theory of Habebus Corpus
36. A workman while returning home after duty was murdered within the premises of the
employer. Referring to the facts of case of Naima Bibi v. Lodhne Colliery, whether
compensation be payable
(a) Compensation is payable
(b) Compensation is not payable
(c) Compensation is partial payable
(d) Minimum compensation is payable
37. In which of the following cases, employer is not liable for compensation
(a) When the injury does not result in disablement for a period exceeding 3 days.
Page 92
(b) When the employee suffers temporary disability when the employee, wilfully disregards
or removes any safety guards or safety devices which he knew to have been provided for
the safety of the employee.
(c) When the employee dies in accident, under the influence of drink or drugs.
(d) When the employee suffers temporary disability when the employee, wilfully disobeyed
an order expressly given or a rule expressly framed for the purpose of securing safety of
workers.
38. Under section 3(5), an employee is not entitled to any compensation under the
Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, if he has instituted, in a ___, a suit for
damages against the employer or any other person
(a) Civil Court
(b) Criminal Court
(c) Labour Court
(d) Supreme Court
39. An employee is prohibited from instituting a suit for damages in any court of law:
(a) he has instituted a claim to compensation in respect of the injury before a Commissioner
(b) employee and the employer have entered into an agreement for the payment of
compensation in accordance with the provisions of this Act
(c) Both a&b
40. The employer is not liable for compensation to such employees hired by the
contractor under following circumstances:
(a) The contractor is engaged to do a work which is part of the trade or business of the
employer (called principal).
(b) The employee were engaged in the course of or for the purpose of his trade or business.
(c) The accident occurred in or about the premises on which the principal employer has
undertaken or undertakes to execute the work concerned.
(d) The accident occurred elsewhere than on, in or about the premises on which the principal
has undertaken.
41. All questions as the right to and the amount of any indemnity in relation to contractor
and employer shall, in default of agreement, be settled by the __________
(a) Commissioner
(b) Contractor
(c) Court
(d) Chief Manager
42. According to Section 12(4), the provisions relating to compensation to contracted
employee will not apply, where the accident occurred
(a) Elsewhere than in premises of principal in which work undertakes
(b) Elsewhere than in premises of principal where the work usually undertakes
(c) Elsewhere than in premises under the control of management
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43. A Municipal Board entrusted the electrification work of the town to State employees.
An employee received injuries while performing his work. Who will be responsible to
pay compensation.
(a) State
(b) Municipal Board
(c) Central Government
44. A contractor was entrusted with the repairs of a defective chimney. An employee
engaged by him was injured while carrying out repairs. Who is liable
(a) Mill
(b) Contractor
(c) State
45. A cart man was engaged by a Rice Mill to carry rice bags from mill to railway
station. The cart man met with an accident on a public road while returning back from
railway station and this resulted in his death. There was no evidence to show that
employee was engaged through a contractor. Who will be liable for compensation.
(a) Mill
(b) Contractor
(c) State
46. Amount of ______ is payable in the event of an employee meeting with an accident
resulting into temporary or permanent disability or disease as stated in Schedule II and
Ill in terms of Section 4 of the Act, read with Schedule IV of Employee Compensation
Act
(a) Wages
(b) Bonus
(c) Overtime
(d) Compensation
47. Schedule II contains a ________ engaged in different employments! operations
specified therein who are covered by the definition of employee and entitled to
compensation
(a) List of persons
(b) List of diseases
(c) List of Judicial authority
(d) List of employers
48. Schedule lII contains a list of occupational __________ which if contracted while in
employment entitles an employee to compensation such as disease caused by lead,
mercury, etc.
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(a) Disablement
(b) Disease
(c) Talent
(d) Facilities
49. Referring to the case of Smt. Jayamma v. Executive Engineer, P.W.D. Madhugiri
Division, when did compensation become due in Employee Compensation Act.
(a) On date of death of employee
(b) On date from when employee not attending office
(c) On date when Commissioner decides it
(d) On date when employer deems fit
50. Where an employer is in default in paying compensation, he would be liable to pay:
(a) Interest
(b) Compensation
(c) Penalty
51. Where an employer is in default in paying compensation, he will be liable to pay a
sum not exceeding _____________ of compensation as penalty.
(a) Twenty Five Percent
(b) Fifty Percent
(c) Seventy Five Percent
(d) Hundred Percent
52. Where an employer is in default in paying compensation, the interest and penalty
shall be payable to
(a) Employee
(b) Commissioner
(c) State Government
(d) Court
53. Monthly wages in case of an employee has been service for a continuous period not
less than 12 immediately preceding date of accident, the monthly wages of the employee
shall be _____ of the total wages which have fallen due for payment to him by the
employer in the last ______ months of that period
(a) 1/6th, 6 months
(b) 1/9th, 9 months
(c) 1/12th, 12 months
(d) 1/6th,12 months
54. Where the whole of the continuous period of service was less than one month, the
monthly wages of the employee shall be the average monthly amount which during the
12 months immediately preceding the accident was being earned by an employee
employed on the same work by the _________
(a) Same Employer
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(b) Related Employer

(c) Any Employer in locality
55. In case where it is not possible to determine wages by same or similar work, in such
case wages to be determined as:
(a) 30 Wages earned for last continuous period before accident / number of days
of such period
(b) 30* Wages earned for last continuous period before accident * number of days
of such period
(c) 30/ Wages earned for last continuous period before accident / number of days
of such period
(d) 30* number of such period / Wages earned for last continuous period
before accident
56. As per Employee Compensation Act, A period of service shall be deemed to be
continuous which has not been interrupted by a period of absence from work exceeding
_____ days
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 28 days
(d) 30 days
57. Shahrukh Deshmukh died in an accident on the premises of work. According to
Section 8 of Employee Compensation Act, The employer has to pay compensation
(a) Legal Heirs
(b) Employee
(c) Commissioner
(d) Labour union
58. Tushaar Kapoor works in a mill. He dies in an accident while on duty. HFFC bank
who has given loan to Tushaar wants to set off their dues against the amount of
compensation payable to him. In the light of provisions of Employee Compensation Act,
which of the following can be done with compensation amount?
(a) Set off
(b) Passed to any person
(c) Charged
59. According to the Section 14A of Employees Compensation Act, compensation money
shall bear the _____ charge on the assets transferred by the employer.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Last
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60. In case employer has entered into a contract with insurer, the insurer will be liable to
employee up to the extent
(a) Amount of compensation fully
(b) Amount Insurer is liable to employer
(c) Amount as decided by commissioner
(d) Amount as demanded by employee
61. In case of insolvency, If the liability of the insures to the employee is less than the
liability of the employer to the employee, the employee may prove for the balance from
(a) Commissioner -
(b) Employer
(c) Insolvency Proceedings
(d) Trade Union
62. In case the contract of the employer with the insurers is void or voidable by reason of
non-compliance of terms and conditions by employer, the insurer will
(a) Not be liable to pay compensation
(b) Will have to bear compensation on his own
(c) Will have to pay compensation and can recover from insolvency proceedings
63. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, Section 14 will not apply
(a) Voluntary wound up for reconstruction or amalgamation
(b) Permanent wound up
(c) Dissolution of company
(d) Hostile Acquisition
64. Section 17 provides that any contract or agreement whereby an employee relinquishes
any right of compensation from the employer for personal injury arising out of or in the
course of the employment shall be _________
(a) Fully valid
(b) Valid only in case of temporary disablement
(c) Not valid only in case of death
(d) Null and void
65. In case of an employee has died as a result of an accident arising out of and in the
course of his employment, the __________ can send a notice to the employee’s employer,
requiring him to submit details about circumstances attending the death of the employee
(a) Legal Heirs
(b) Commissioner
(c) Labour Union
(d) Court
66. The Commissioner may require employer to submit within _______ of the service of
the notice, a statement, in the prescribed form giving the circumstances attending the
death of the employee
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(a) Fifteen days

(b) Twenty days
(c) Twenty five days
(d) Thirty days
67. Where by any law for the time being in force, notice is required to be given to any
authority, by or on behalf of an employer, of any accident occurring in his premises
which results in death or serious bodily injury, the person required to give the notice
shall, within _________ of the death or serious bodily injury, send a report to the
Commissioner
(a) Seven days
(b) Fifteen days
(c) Twenty one days
(d) Thirty days
68. “Serious bodily injury” means an injury which involve
(a) the permanent loss of the use of, or permanent injury to, any limb
(b) the permanent loss of or injury to the sight or hearing
(c) the fracture of any limb
69. The State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, extend the
provisions of sub-section (i) relating to notice of death or serious injury to commissioner,
to any class of premises other than those coming within the scope of that sub-section,
and may, by such notification, specify the persons who shall send the report to the
Commissioner
(a) Commissioner
(d) Labour Court
70. According to Section 10B, nothing in this section shall apply to the factories to which
the ______________ applies
(a) Maternity Act
(b) Minimum Wages
(c) Industrial Dispute Act
(d) Employees’ State Insurance Act
71. No claim for compensation shall be entertained by a Commissioner, unless the claim
is preferred before him within two years of the occurrence of the accident/death
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years
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72. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, where the accident is

thecontracting of a disease the accident shall be deemed to have occurred from the day
when _________ in consequence of the disablement caused by the disease
(a) Doctor declared disease
(b) Employee was continuously absent from work
(c) Employee gives notice to employer of disablement
(d) Commissioner decides on case basis
73. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, in case of partial
disablement due to the contracting of any such disease and which does not force the
employee to absent himself from work, the period of two years shall be counted from the
day
(a) Doctor declared disease
(b) Employee was continuously absent from work
(c) Employee gives notice to employer of disablement
(d) Commissioner decides on case basis
74. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, if an employee who, having
been employed in an employment for a continuous period specified under sub-section
3(2) in respect of that employment ceases to be so emplcyed and develops symptoms of
an occupational disease peculiar to that employment within ________ of the cessation of
employment, the accident shall be deemed to have occurred on the day on which the
symptoms were first detected
(a) Six Months
(b) One Year
(c) Eighteen Months
(d) Two Years
75. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, The State Government may
require that any prescribed class of employers shall maintain at their premises at which
employees are employed a ________, in the prescribed form, which shall be readily
accessible at alt reasonable times to any injured employee employed on the premises and
to any person acting bona fide on his behalf.
(a) Slam book
(b) Balance sheet
(c) Notice book
76. What is the period within which an employer must make a deposit with the
Commissioner if he is liable to pay compensation?
(a) Within 10 days of being served the notice
(b) Within 20 days of being served the notice
(c) Within 30 days of being served the notice
(d) Within 40 days of being served the notice
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77. According to Section 11 of Employee Compensation Act, Where an employee has

given notice of an accident, he shall, if the employer, before the expiry of _________
from the time at which service of the notice has been effected, offers to have him
examined free of charge by a qualified medical practitioner, submit himself for such
examination
(a) 3 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 12 days
78. According to Section 11 of Employee Compensation Act, If an employee refuses to
submit himself for examination by a qualified medical practitioner or in any way
obstructs the same, his right to compensation shall be _________ during the continuance
of such refusal, or obstruction unless, in the case of refusal, he was prevented by any
sufficient cause from so submitting himself
(a) Accepted
(b) Approved
(c) Rejected
(d) Suspended
79. According to Section 11 of Employee Compensation Act, If an employee, voluntarily
leaves without having been so examined the vicinity of the place in which he was
employed, his right to compensation shall be suspended until he
(a) Gets fit out of disablement
(b) Returns and offers himself for such examination
(c) Denies any examination
(d) He leaves the job and premises
80. Where an employee dies, whose right to compensation has been suspended for non
availability of medical examination, the _________ may, if he thinks fit, direct the
payment of compensation to the dependants of the deceased employee
(a) Employer
(b) Employee
(c) Commissioner
(d) Court
81. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, which of the following are
not covered as eligible person to be appointed as Commissioner?
(a) Member of a State Judicial Service
(b) Advocate
(c) Gazetted officer qualified in industrial relations
(d) Doctor
82. As per the provisions of Employee Compensation Act, the Commissioner has
jurisdiction over
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(a) Liability of any person to pay compensation

(b) Whether a person injured is or is not an employee
(c) The nature and extent of disablement
83. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, No Civil Court shall have
jurisdiction to settle, decide or deal with any question which is by or under this Act
required to be settled, decided or dealt with by a ________ or to enforce any liability
incurred under this Act.
(a) Commissioner
(b) Employer
(c) Legal Descendant
(d) Supreme Court
84. Where the Commissioner has no jurisdiction to decide any matter and even faIl to
decide when raised, thereby leaving a party without any defence the will have
jurisdiction to entertain such Suits.
(a) Deputy Commissioner
(b) Assistant Commissioner
(c) Chief Commissioner
(d) Civil Court
85. Venue of proceedings and transfer of cases, is to be done by or before a
Commissioner, the same shall, subject to the provisions of this Act and to any rules made
hereunder, be done by or before the Commissioner for the area in which
(a) the accident took place which resulted in the injury
(b) the employee or in case of his death, the dependent claiming the compensation ordinarily
resides
(c) the employer has his registered office
86. An application for compensation shall contain following particulars
(a) a concise statement of the circumstances in which the application is made and the relief
of order which the applicant claims
(b) in the case of a claim for compensation against an employer, date of service of notice of
the accident on the employer and, if such notice has not been served or has not been
served in due time, the reason for such omission
(c) except in the case of an application by dependents for compensation, a concise statement
of the matters on which agreement has and of those on which agreement has not been
come to
87. Any defect in the application, e.g., when it is not in the prescribed form
(a) Will reject the claim
(b) Will reduce the claim
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(c) Will not be fatal to the claim

(d) Will be acceptable
88. The Commissioner shall have for the following purposes, all the powers of a Civil
Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for the purpose of
(a) taking evidence on oath
(b) enforcing the attendance Of witnesses
(c) compelling the production of documents and material objects
89. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, Any appearance, application
or act required to be made or done by any person before or to a Commissioner other
than an appearance of a party which is required for the purpose of his examination as a
witness, may be made or done on behalf of such person, other than
(a) Legal Practitioner
(b) official of an Insurance Company
(c) Inspector appointed under factories act
(d) medical practitioner
90. As per Section 25A of Workmen’s Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2009, the
Commissioner shall dispose of the matter relating to compensation within a period
of________ from the date of reference and intimate the decision in respect there of
within the said period to the employee
(a) Six weeks
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) Fifteen days
91. An appeal shall lie to the High Court from the following orders of a Commissioner,
except
(a) an order awarding as compensation a lump sum whether by of redemption of a half-
monthly payment or otherwise or disallowing a claim in full or in part for a lump sum
(b) an order awarding interest or penalty under section 4A
(c) an order refusing to allow redemption of a half-monthly payment
(d) an order to get employee examined by independent medical
92. An appeal shall lie to the High Court from the following orders of a Commissioner,
except
(a) an orderprovidingforthedistributionofcompensationamongthedependants of a deceased
employee or disallowing any claim of a person alleging himself to be such dependant
(b) an order allowing or disallowing any claim for the amount of an indemnity under the
provisions of Sub-section (2) of Section 12
(c) an order for depositing claim with commissioner until the final decision takes place
(d) an order awarding interest or penalty under Section 4A
93. An appeal shall lie to the High Court against orders of a Commissioner, within
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(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 60 days
94. Finding whether the claimant was an employee arrived by commissioner on material
on record
(a) No further appeal allowed
(b) Further appeal allowed
(c) Further appeal allowed only if commissioner permits
(d) Further appeal allowed only if employee permits
95. Section 18A of the Employee Compensation Act prescribes penalties tor the
contravention of the provisions of the Act which include fine up to
(a) 1,000
(b) 2,000
(c) 5,000
(d) 10,000
96. Which of the omissions attract punishment under the act
(a) Whosoever fails to maintain a notice book which he is required to maintain under section
10(3)
(b) Whosoever fails to send to the Commissioner a statement of fatal accidents which he is
required to send under section 10A(1)
(c) Whosoever fails to send a report of fatal accidents and serious bodily injuries which he is
required to send under section 10B
97. According to Section 15 of Employee Compensation Act. The notice of the accident
and the claim for compensation may be served on the master of the ship as if he were the
employer except when
(a) Person injured is a seamen
(b) Person injured is master of the ship
(c) Person injured is crew
(d) Person injured is employee
98. It is not necessary to give notice of disablement
(a) accident happened on ship
(b) disablement commenced on board of ship
(c) both a & b
99. According to Employee Compensation Act, In the case of the death of a master or
seaman, the claim for compensation shall be made within after the
news of the death has been received by the claimant
(a) Three months
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(b) Six months

(c) Nine months
(d) One year
100. According to Employee Compensation Act, where the ship has been or is deemed to
have been lost with all hands, within —— of the date on which the ship was, or is
deemed to have been, so lost
(a) Six months
(b) Twelve months
(c) Eighteen months
(d) Twenty four months
101. According to Section 15A of Employee Compensation Act, The notice of the accident
and the claim for compensation may be served on the captain of the aircraft as if he were
the employer except when
(a) Person injured is a copilot
(b) Person injured is captain of the aircraft
(c) Person injured is crew
(d) Person injured is employee
102. It is not necessary to give notice of disablement
(a) accident happened on aircraft
(b) disablement commenced on board the aircraft
(c) both a&b
103. According to Employee Compensation Act, In the case of the death of a captain of
aircraft, the claim for compensation shall be made within _______ after the news of the
death has been received by the claimant.
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) Nine months
(d) One. year
104. According to Employee Compensation Act, where the aircraft has been or is deemed
to have been lost with all hands, within ________ of the date on which the aircraft was,
or is deemed to have been, so lost
(a) Six months
(b) Twelve months
(c) Eighteen months
(d) Twenty four months
105. To make an employer liable under the Employees’ Compensations Act, 1923, it is
necessary that the injury is caused by an accident which must arise
(a) Out of employment
(b) In the course of employment
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(c) Out of employment and in the course of employment

(d) By any other reason
106. Contracting out of compensation by an employee under an agreement shall be:
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Active
(d) Successful
107. An employer is not liable to pay compensation under the Employees’
Compensation Act, 1923, if the injury does not result in disablement for a period
exceeding
(a) 1 week
(b) 3 days
(c) 1 month
(d) 6 months
108. The employer is required to send a report to the commissioner for employees’
compensation within _________ of the death or serious injury of an employee
(a) 3 days
(b) 7days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days
109. Compensation under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 becomes due
(a) On the date of death/accident of an employee
(b) On the date of order of the Commissioner for employees’ compensation
(c) On the completion of one month from the date of accident
(d) On demand from an employee
110. The period within which an employer-must make a deposit with the
Commissioner, if he is liable to pay compensation under the Employees’
Compensation Act, 1923 is
111. Rajat, an employee in a factory, had no vision in his left eye but the defect was not
visible. Later, during welding operations, accidentally, a spark hit his blind eye. He lost
his eye-ball and the blindness became visible. Though, there was no physical disability,
he lost his employment because the defect became visible. Has the accident caused any
disablement? Is the employer liable to pay any compensation?
(a) Employer liable to pay compensation
(b) Employer not liable to pay compensation
(c) Employer liable to pay partial compensation
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(d) Employer can defer compensation
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B B B D A D D B D D C C A A B
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B C B C A C A D A B B D A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
D C D D A A C A C D A D A B A
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D A B A D B A C A A B C D A B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
C C A D B D A D B D B B C D C
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C A D B C D D A D D D C D D B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
D C D A C D B C D C B C D C C
106 107 108 109 110 111
B B B A C A
Page 106
CHAPTER 10
CONTRACT LABOUR (REGULATION AND ABOLITION) ACT, 1970
1. When was the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act was enacted?
(a) 1968
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1998
2. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 regulates the
employment of contract labour in certain establishments and to provide for its abolition
in certain circumstances and for matters connected therewith
(a) The Factories Act
(b) The Minimum Wages Act
(c) The Industrial Dispute Act
(d) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act
3. According to Section 1(4) of The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act,
this act applies to every establishment in which — or more workmen are employed or
were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months as contract labour.
(a) Ten
(b) Twenty
(c) Fifty
(d) Hundred
4. According to Section 1(4) of The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act,
this act applies to every contractor who employs or who employed on any day of the
preceding twelve months _____ or more workmen
(a) Five
(b) Ten
(c) Fifteen
(d) Twenty
5. The appropriate Government may, after giving not less than two months notice of its
intention to do so, by notification in the Official Gazette, apply the provisions of this Act
to any establishment or contractor employing such number of workmen less than twenty
as may be specified in the notification
(a) Labour court
(b) Commissioner in charge
(d) Supreme Court
6. According to provisions of The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, the
Act shall not apply to establishments in which work only of an intermittent or casual
nature is performed. Question of work being intermittent nature has to be decided by
______ in consultation with_______.
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(a) Commissioner, Central Board or State Board

(b) Commissioner, High Court or Supreme Court
(c) Central Board, Commissioner
(d) Ministry of corporate Affairs, Commissioner
7. Who is the appropriate government for an establishment under Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act, if the Appropriate Government under the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 is the Central Government.
(c) Commissioner In charge
(d) Chief Commissioner
8. Who is the “Appropriate Government” for an establishment, if it is not Central
Government?
(a) State Government
(b) President
(c) Commissioner In charge
(d) Chief commissioner
9. According to Section 2(1)(b) of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, A
workmen shall be deemed to be employed as — in or in connection with the work of an
establishment when he is hired in or in connection with such work by or through a
contractor, with or without the knowledge of the principal employer
(a) Contractor
(b) Contract Labour
(c) Apprentice
(d) Consultant
10. According to Section 2(1)(b) of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act,
____________ in relation to an establishment, means a person who undertakes to
produce a given result for the establishment, other than a mere supply of goods or
articles of manufacture to such establishment, through contract labour or who supplies
contract labour for any work of the establishment and includes a sub-contractor.
(a) Contractor
(b) Contract Labour
(c) Apprentice
(d) Consultant
11. According to Section 2(1)(d) of Contract Labour (Regulation and AboliLion) Act,
__________ means any industry the control of which by the Union has been declared by
any Central Act to be expedient in the public interest
(a) Private Industry
(b) Public Industry
(c) Controlled Industry
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(d) Independent Industry

12. According to Section 2(1)(e) of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act,
_________ means any office or department of the Government or local authority, or any
place where any industry, trade, business, manufacture or occupation is carried on
(a) Factory
(b) Establishment
(c) Industry
(d) Contractor
13. Who would be not be a Principal employer as per the provisions of Contract
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, in case of office of department or a local
authority
(a) Head of the office
(b) Head of the department
(c) Person specified authority
(d) Commissioner in charge
14. Who would be a Principal employer as per the provisions of Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act, in case of factory
(a) The owner of the factory
(b) Occupier of factory
(c) Person has been named as the manager of the factory under the Factories Act, 1948
15. Who would be not be a Principal employer as per the provisions of Contract
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act in case of office of department or a local
authority
(a) Owner of the mine
(b) Safety officer of the mine
(c) Agent of the mine
(d) Manager of the mine
16. ________ means any person employed in or in connection with The work of any
establishment to do any skilled, semi-skilled or unskilled, manual, supervisory, technical
or clerical work for hire or reward, whether the terms of employment be expressed or
implied
(a) Contractor
(b) Workman
(c) Principal Employer
(d) Commissioner
17. Which of these is not a part of ‘Workman” as per the provisions of Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act
(a) employed mainly in a managerial or administrative capacity
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(b) employed in a supervisory capacity draws wages exceeding five hundred rupees per
mensem
(c) is an out-worker
18. According to Section 3 Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act requires the
Central Government to constitute a to advise the Central
Government on such matters arising out of the administration of the Act as may be
referred to it and to carry out other functions assigned to it under the Act
(a) Central Advisory Contract Labour Board
(b) State Advisory Board
(c) Central Planning Commission
(d) Labour Compliance Board
19. According to the provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, who
is authorized to constitute State Advisory Board
(c) Commissioner
(d) Planning Commission
20. Section 6 of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act empowers the
appropriate Government appoint by notification in the Official Gazette, persons being
gazetted officers of Government, to be registering officers and define the limits within
which a registering officer shall exercise the powers conferred on him by or under the
Act
(a) Registering Officer
(b) Central Advisory Contract Labour Board
(c) State Advisory Board
(d) Central Planning Commission
21. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act , every
establishment covered by the Act, if it wants to engage _________ or more persons
through a contractor has to get itself registered
(a) Twenty
(b) Ten
(c) Thirty
(d) Fifty
22. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, every
establishment covered by the Act, if it wants to engage twenty or more persons through
a contractor has to get itself _________
(a) Registered
(b) Abolished
(c) Audited
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(d) Reported
23. Registration of certain establishment can be revoked, in which of the following cases
(a) If registration has been obtained by misrepresentation
(b) If registration has become useless
(c) If registration has been obtained by suppression of material facts
24. Which of these is a pre requisite for revoking the registration of establishment?
(a) Previous Approval of Appropriate Government
(b) Publishing in local newspaper
(c) Notice of 60 days
25. If a Principal Employer has not obtained registration or its revoked, what are its
implications
(a) Cannot employ contract labour
(b) Cannot carry production
(c) Cannot provide maternity leave
(d) Cannot employ labours
26. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition)
Act,____________ can prohibit employment of contract labour in any process,
operation or other work in any establishment by issuing a notification in the Official
Gazette.
(b) Central Advisory Contract Labour Board
(c) State Advisory Board
(d) Central Planning Commission
27. What is the prerequisite before issuing notice for prohibiting of Contract Labour
(a) Consulting the Central Board
(b) Consulting the State Board
(c) Consulting the Central Board or State Board as the case may be
28. Whose approval does the Registering Officer require in a case of revocation of
particular establishment’s registration?
(a) Commissioner of Labour
(b) Central Government
(d) Appropriate Government
29. Referring to the facts of Vegolis Private Ltd. v/s The Workmen, Tribunal ca
abolish contract labour?
(a) Tribunal can abolish independently
(b) Tribunal can abolish with consultation with Appropriate Government
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(c) Appropriate Government can abolish only with consultation of Tribunal

(d) Tribunal cannot abolish
30. Referring to the facts of Air India Statutory Corporation v/s United Labour Union
___________ in exercise of its jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution, ca
direct a principal employer in an appropriate case to absorb the workman concerned
after abolition of the contract labour
(a) Labour Court
(b) High Court
(c) Commissioner
(d) State Board
31. Section 11 of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act empowers the
_________ to appoint Gazetted Officers to be licensing officers and define the limits of
their jurisdiction
(d) High Court
32. Under section 12 of the Act, no contractor to whom the Act applies can undertake or
execute any work though contract labour except under and in accordance with the
license issued in that behalf by the ________
(a) Commissioner
(b) Licensing Officer
(c) High Court
(d) Central Board
33. In what condition license of contractor can be revoked?
(a) License obtained by misrepresentation
(b) License obtained by suppression of material facts
(c) The holder of license has contravened the provisions of the act
34. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, appeal
can be made against orders relating to
(a) Registration of establishments
(b) Revocation of registration
(c) Suspension of license
35. The aggrieved person may file appeal within _______ from the date on which the
order is communicated to him
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 45 days
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(d) 60 days
36. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, which of
the following not a part for welfare activity to be done for contract labour?
(a) Canteen
(b) Rest room
(c) Township
(d) First aid
37. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, one or
more canteens shall be provided and maintained by the contractor for the use of such
contract labour wherein contract labour numbering _______ or more is ordinarily
employed
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 100
38. In amenities are not provided by contractor, then such amenities shall be provided by
_____________ and amount to be recovered from contractor
(a) Employer
(b) Employee
(c) Commissioner
(d) High court
39. To take care of such malpractices, Section 21 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and
Abolition) Act, 1970, lays down that the Contractor shall pay wages in the presence of
the authorized representative of the __________
(a) Contractor
(b) Principal Employer
(c) Commissioner
(d) High Court
40. Rules 64 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Central Rules, 1971, No
wage period shall exceed ________
(a) 15 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 2 months
(d) 3 months
41. Rules 65 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Central Rules, 1971, The
wage of every person employed as contract labour in an establishment or by a
contractor where less than one thousand such persons are employed shall be paid before
the expiry of _____ day after the last day of the wage period in respect of which wages
are payable
(a) First
Page 113
(b) Fifth
(c) Tenth
(d) Fifteenth
42. Rules 66 of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Central Rules, 1971,
Where the employment of any worker is terminated by or on behalf of the contractor the
wages earned by him shall be paid before the expiry of the _______ working day from
the day on which his employment is terminated
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
43. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, penalty
for Obstructing an inspector in the discharge of his duties under the Act or refusal or
wilful neglect to afford the inspector any reasonable facility for making any inspection,
examination, enquiry or investigation authorized by or under the Act in relation to an
establishment to which, or a contractor to whom, this Act applies
(a) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to 1 months or fine which may extend to Rs.
500 or both
(b) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 months or fine which may extend to Rs.
500 or both
(c) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 months or fine which may extend to Rs.
1,000 or both
(d) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to 1 months or fine which may extend to Rs.
1,000 or both
44. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, penalty
for Wilful refusal to produce on the demand of an inspector any register or other
document kept in pursuance of this Act or prevention or attempted prevention or doing
anything which the inspector has reason to believe is likely to prevent any person from
appearing before or being examined by an Inspector acting in pursuance of his duties
under the Act
500 or both
500 or both
1,000 or both
1,000 or both
45. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act,
Contravention of any provision of the Act or any rule made there under prohibiting or
Page 114
restricting or regulating employment of contract labour or contravention of any

condition of a license granted under the Act
500 or both.
500 or both
1,000 or both.
1,000 or both
46. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act,
Contravention of any of the provisions of the Act or of any rule made there under for
which no penalty is elsewhere provided
500 or both.
500 or both
1,000 or both.
1,000 or both
47. Section 27 prescribing limitation of prosecutions stipulates that no Court shall take
cognizance of an offence punishable under this Act unless the complaint thereof is made
within _______ from the date on which the alleged commission of the offence came to the
knowledge of an inspector
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Six months
48. Under section 28 of the Act, ___________ have been given powers to appoint,
inspectors for the purposes of the Act and to define the local limits within which they
shall exercise their powers.
(a) Central Board
(b) State Board
(d) Commissioner
49. Which of these are powers of the Inspectors appointed under Section 28 of Contract
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act.
(a) Enter into the premises at reasonable hours where he believes contract labour is being
carried out
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(b) Examine any person whom he finds in such premises

(c) Seize or take copies of such register relevant in respect of this offence.
50. Which of these is not powers of the inspectors appointed under Section 28 of Contract
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act?
(a) Examine records or notices required to be kept under this act
(b) Require any person giving out work to give information with respect to payments
(c) Arrest Principal employer or manager Incharge if he deems fit
(d) Seize record of wages o notices relevant for the case
51. Which of the following is to be carried out by employer with respect to Contract
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act?
(a) Registers and records to be maintained
(b) Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss to be submitted
(c) Notices to be displayed
(d) Returns to be submitted
52. Under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, the principal
employer of an establishment can employ contract labour if
(a) The principal employer has not obtained the certificate of registration
(b) The work is of urgent nature
(c) The work is not of perennial nature
(d) The work provides instant employment to a considerable number of unemployed persons
53. It is mandatory to register an establishment under the Contract Labour (Regulation.
and Abolition) Act, 1970 in case it employs labour through a contractor
(a) 10 or above
(b) 20 or above
(c) 30 or above
(d) 50 or above
54. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 applies to every
establishment or contractor wherein workmen employed on any day of the
preceding 12 months shall be
(a) 10 workmen or more
(b) 20 workmen or more
(c) 50 workmen or more
(d) 100 workmen or more
55. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 shall not apply to
establishments In which work is of___________
(a) Casual Nature
(b) Urgent Nature
(c) illegal Nature
(d) Automated Nature
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56. As per the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 and the central
rules, in case the work is completed before the expiry of the wage period, final payment
shall be made within
(a) 24 Hours of the last working day
(b) 48 Hours of the last working day
(c) 7 Days of the last working day
(d) 3 Days of the last working day
57. The employment of contract labour can be prohibited
(a) By an order of the Labour Court
(b) By notification of the Government
(c) When the number of workmen exceeds 50
(d) By the Central Advisory Board
58. The establishments which have been exempted from the purview of the Contract
Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 are
(a) Establishments where manufacturing work is performed
(b) Establishments where metal work is performed
(c) Establishments where embroidery work is performed
(d) Establishments where work of intermittent nature is performed
59. Some contract labour was engaged by an organization. There was subsequently
prohibition of employment of contract labour in that category as a consequence of the
notification issued by the Central Government. The employer did not absorb the
contract labour and employ them on regular basis. Referring to facts of Steel Authority
of India V/s National Union of Water Front Workers and Others, what is the action?
(a) Principal Employer has to absorb the workmen
(b) Principal employer has to provide job in other establishments which are not prohibited
(c) Principal employer has to absorb at least 60 percent workmen
(d) Principal employer is not obliged to absorb the workmen
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B D B D C A A A B A C B D D B
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B D A B A A A D A A A C D D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
C B D D B C D A B B C B B B C
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59
C C C D C B C B B A B B D D
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CHAPTER 11
MATERNITY BENEFIT ACT 1961
1. In which year Maternity Benefit Act was enacted?
(a) 1948
(b) 1951
(c) 1961
(d) 1975
2. Maternity Benefits are aimed to protect the dignity of.
(a) Childhood
(b) Motherhood
(c) Fatherhood
(d) Doctor
3. Maternity Benefit Act is applicable to establishments employing
(a) Five or more persons.
(b) Ten or more persons
(c) Twenty five or more persons
(d) Hundred or more persons
4. Maternity Benefit Act can be extended to other establishments at the discretion of
(c) Occupier
(d) Tribunal
5. According to the Section 3(a), Central Government is not the appropriate
government in
(a) Establishment being a mine.
(b) Exhibition of equestrian acrobatic and other performances
(c) Establishment operating railway operations
6. As per Section 3(b) Child includes a _________.
(a) Adolescent
(b) Young child
(c) Adult
(d) Still born child
7. Which of these is not an Establishment as per Maternity Benefit Act?
(a) A factory
(b) Amine
(c) A plantation
(d) A farm
8. Which of these is not an Establishment as per Maternity Benefit Act?
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(a) An establishment wherein persons are employed for the exhibition of equestrian acrobatic
and other performance.
(b) A shop or establishment
(c) A grocery store
(d) An establishment to which the provisions of this Act have been declared under sub-
section (1) of section 2 to be applicable
9. Which of these does not form part of wages as per Maternity Benefit Act?
(a) Such cash allowances (including dearness allowance and house rent allowances) as a
woman is for the time being entitled to.
(b) Any contribution paid or payable by the employer to any pension fund or provident fund
or for the benefit of the woman under any law for the time being in force
(c) Incentive bonus
(d) The money value of the concessional supply of food grains and other articles
10. Which of these forms part of wages as per Maternity Benefit Act?
(a) Any bonus other than incentive bonus.
(b) Over-time earnings and any deduction or payment made on account of fines
(c) Incentive bonus
(d) Any gratuity payable on the termination of service
11. According To Section 4 of Maternity Benefit Act, no employer shall knowingly
employ a woman in any establishment during the ________ immediately following the
day of her delivery, miscarriage or medical termination of pregnancy.
(a) Four Weeks
(b) Six Weeks
(c) Eight Weeks
(d) Ten Weeks
12. According To Section 4 of Maternity Benefit Act, no employer shall knowingly
employ a woman in any establishment during the six weeks immediately following the
day of her.
(a) Delivery
(b) Miscarriage
(c) Admitting in Hospital
(d) Medical termination of pregnancy
13. A pregnant woman makes request to her employer, she shall not be given to do during
the period of one month immediately preceding the period of six weeks, before the date
of her expected delivery, not to give such type of work. Which among the following is not
included in it
(a) Any work which is of an arduous nature or which involves long hours of standing.
(b) Any work which in any way is likely to interferu with her pregnancy or the normal
development of the foetus
(c) Any work which the woman is not willing to do
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(d) Any work is likely to cause her miscarriage or otherwise to adversely affect her health
14. A woman is eligible for maternity benefits equal to average of the woman’s wages
payable to her for the days on which she has worked during the period of
_______________ immediately preceding the date from which she absents herself on
account of maternity
(a) Three Calendar months.
(b) Six Calendar months
(c) Nine Calendar months
(d) Twelve Calendar months
15. A woman is eligible for maternity benefits highest of: (i) Average of last three
calendar months wages (ii) the minimum rate of wage fixed or revised under the
Minimum Wages Act, 1948 (iii) 50 percent of last two years wages (iv) ten rupees
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
16. A woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit if she has actually worked in an
establishment of the employer from whom she claims maternity benefit, for a period of
not less than _________ in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of her
expected delivery
(a) Sixty days
(b) Seventy days
(c) Eighty days
(d) Ninety days
17. A woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit if she has actually worked in an
establishment of the employer from whom she claims maternity benefit, for a period of
not less than eighty days in the _______ immediately preceding the date of her expected
delivery
(a) Six months
(b) 180 days
(c) Twelve months
(d) 360 days
18. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, the maximum period for which any woman shall be
entitled to maternity benefit shall be ________
(a) Twelve weeks
(b) Three months
(c) Ninety days
19. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, the benefit period shall not exceed _______
preceding the expected date of delivery.
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(a) Four weeks

(b) Six Weeks
(c) Eight Weeks
(d) Ten Weeks
20. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, if a woman dies during this period, the maternity
benefit shall
(a) Not be payable.
(b) Payable for whole period
(c) Payable up to the date of her death
(d) Payable up to her expected date of delivery
21. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, if a woman dies after delivery, leaving behind her
child, the maternity benefit shall
(a) Not be payable.
(b) Payable for whole period
(c) Payable up to the date of her death
(d) Payable up to her expected date of delivery
22. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, the amount of maternity benefit for the period
preceding the date of her expected delivery shall be paid
(a) In advance.
(b) Within four weeks from the date of absenteeism
(c) On the date of her expected delivery
(d) Within 48 hours of her actual delivery
23. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, the amount due for the subsequent period shall be
paid by the employer to the woman within ___________ of production of such proof as
may be prescribed that the woman has been delivered of a child
(a) Forty Eight hours
(b) One Week
(c) Two Week
(d) Four Weeks
24. Sheena was working with A Limited for 5 years. She got pregnant and remained
absent from work without giving notice to the employer. After the delivery, she gave
notice to the employer and claimed maternity benefits. The employer denied her the
benefits claiming that she should have given notice before going on maternity leave.
What corrective action she would have taken to get maternity benefits?
(a) She has done it correctly.
(b) She should have given notice before getting absent from job
(c) She should have given notice before getting admitted in hospital
(d) She is not required to give notice at all
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25. Every woman delivered of a child who returns to duty after such delivery shall, in
addition to the interval for rest allowed to her, be allowed in the course of her daily work
_____ breaks of the prescribed duration for nursing the child
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
26. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, nursing breaks will be allowed to woman until the
child attains
(a) Nine Months of age.
(b) Twelve Months of age
(c) Fifteen Months of age
(d) Eighteen Months of age
27. As per Section 27 of Maternity Benefit Act, penalty to be imposed on employer for
nonpayment of maternity benefit is/dismiss/discharge woman from work is
(a) Imprisonment not be less than one month but may extend to three months and with fine
not be less than two thousand rupees but may extend to five thousand rupees.
(b) Imprisonment not be less than one month but may extend to three months and with fine
not be less than one thousand rupees but may extend to ten thousand rupees
(c) Imprisonment not be less than three months but may extend to one year and with fine not
be less than one thousand rupees but may extend to ten thousand rupees
(d) Imprisonment not be less than three months but may extend to one year and with fine not
be less than two thousand rupees but may extend to five thousand rupees
28. On whose discretion, imprisonment can be reduced for nonpayment of maternity
benefits, on record of sufficient reasons
(a) Court
(b) Company Secretary
(c) District Collector
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
29. If any employer contravenes the provisions of the Act or the rules made there under,
he shall, if no other penalty is elsewhere provided by or under the Act for such
contravention, be punishable with
(a) imprisonment which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees, or with both.
(b) imprisonment which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees, or with both
(c) imprisonment which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to two
(d) imprisonment which may extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to two
Page 122
30. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) The Act provides for payment of maternity benefit at the rate of half of average daily
wage for the period
(b) No employer shall knowingly employ a woman in any establishment during the six
weeks immediately following the day of her delivery
(c) The maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit shall be
twenty four weeks
(d) Nursing breaks are allowed for nursing the child until the child attains the age of 2 years
31. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 applies to every establishment being a factory, mine or
plantation.
(b) Where a woman dies during the period of maternity leave, the maternity benefit shall be
payable only for days up to & including the day of her death
(c) The maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit shall be
twenty four weeks
(d) Any woman who has not given the notice when she was pregnant may give such notice as
soon as possible after the delivery
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B B B A C D D C B C B B C A B
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C A B C B A A A B C D A A B
31
C
Page 123
CHAPTER 12
THE CHILD LABOUR ACT 1986
1. When was The Child Labour (Prohibition And Regulation) Act, 1986 was enacted?
(a) 1948
(b) 1986
(c) 1992
(d) 1996
2. The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986 enacted to
(a) Prohibit employment in factories and mines
(b) Prohibit employment in hazardous employments
(c) Regulate their conditions of work in certain other employments
3. According to Section 2(i), Appropriate Government means an establishment under
the control of
(b) Railway Administration
(c) A major port or mine or oilfield
4. According to Section 2(u), Child means a person who has not completed
(a) Tenth Year of age
(b) Fourteenth Year of age
(c) Sixteenth Year of age
(d) Eighteenth Year of age
5. According to Section 2(iii), Day means a period of twenty-four hours beginning at
(a) Afternoon
(b) Midnight
(c) The time when work commences
(d) Anytime during the day
6. Which of these is not a part of establishment as given in Section 2(iv) of The Child
Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986?
(a) A shop, commercial establishment or workshop
(b) Farm, residential hotel, restaurant, eating joints
(c) Theatre, Place of amusement or entertainment
(d) Bus stop, railway station and airport
7. According to Section 2(vi) of The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986,
OCCUPIER in relation to an establishment or a workshop, means the person who
(a) has the ultimate control over the affairs of the establishment or workshop
(b) is actually carrying out day to day affairs of the establishment or workshop
(c) has major dealings with the establishment or workshop
(d) is the owner of the property of establishment or workshop
Page 124
8. According to Section 2(x) of The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986,
a workshop does not include
(a) any premises to which provisions of Sec 67 of Factories Act apply
(b) any premises to which provisions of Sec 57 of Factories Act apply
(c) any premises to which provisions of Sec 87 of Factories Act apply
(d) any premises to which provisions of Sec 11 of Factories Act apply
9. According to The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986, prohibition of
employment of children is not applicable to
(a) Workshop wherein any process is carried on by the occupier with the aid of his family
(b) Any school established by Government
(c) Any school receiving assistance or recognition from, Government
10. Section 3 of The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986 provides that no
child shall be employed or permitted to work in
(a) occupations set forth in Part A of the Schedule
(b) workshop wherein any of the processes set forth in Part B of the Schedule is carried
(c) Both a & b
(d) ) None of the above
11. Part Ill of The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986 shall apply to an
establishment or a class of establishments
(a) Occupations covered in section 3
(b) Duties covered in section 3
(c) Processes referred in section 3
(d) Only a & c
12. Total hours of work for a child including interval for rest should be
(a) 5 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 7 hours
(d) 8 hours
13. The period of interval for a child should be minimum
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 45 minutes
(c) 1 hour
(d) 1 hour 30 minutes
14. A child can work Continuously maximum up to before he can get an
interval for rest
(a) 2 hours
(b) 3 hours
(c) 4 hours
(d) 4.5 hours
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15. Which of these is not stipulated in section 7 of The Child Labour (Prohibition &
Regulation) Act, 1986?
(a) No child shall be permitted or required to work between 7 p.m. and 8 a.m.
(b) No child shall be required or permitted to work overtime
(c) No child Should take interval for rest more than one hour.
(d) No child shall be required or permitted to work in, any establishment on any day on
which he has already been working in another establishment.
16. A child employed in an establishment is entitled in each week, a holiday of
(a) Halt day
(b) 1 full day
(c) 2 full day
(d) As per discretion of the child
17. According to Section 8 of The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986, the
day of weekly holiday shall be specified by the_____ and to be put as notice permanently
exhibited in a conspicuous place in the establishment
(a) Occupier
(b) Child
(c) Government
(d) Company Secretary
18. The Weekly holiday Specified by occupier shall not be altered by the occupier more
than
(a) Once in every month
(b) Once in every three month
(c) Twice in every month
(d) Twice in every three month
19. According to Section 9 of The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986,
notice of employing a child Should be sent to ______
(a) Inspector
(b) Occupier
(d) Chief Commissioner
20. According to Section 9 of The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986,
notice of employing a child should be sent to Inspector within ______ from the date of
employment.
(a) Seven days
(b) Fifteen days
(c) Thirty days
(d) Forty five days
Page 126
21. According to section 9 of The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986,
which is not a particular to be submitted in notice given to inspector for employment of
child?
(a) The name and situation of the establishment
(b) The nature of the occupation or process carried on in the establishment
(c) The name of auditor/compliance officer of the establishment
(d) The name of the person in actual management of the establishment
22. The register maintained by the occupier containing details of child employments
should contain
(a) the name and date of birth of every child soemployed or permitted to work;
(b) hours and periods of work of any such child and the intervals of rest to which he is
entitled
(c) the nature of work of any such child
23. Every railway administration, every port authority and every occupier shall cause to
be displayed in a conspicuous and accessible place ________ abstract of Section 3 and 14
(a) at every station
(b) within the limits of a port
(c) at the place of work
24. The penalty for first contravention of Section 3 of The Child Labour (Prohibition &
Regulation) Act, 1986 is
(a) imprisonment maximum up to six months, fine of maximum Rs. ten thousand or both
(b) imprisonment maximum up to one year, fine of maximum Rs. twenty thousand or both
(c) imprisonment maximum up to one year, fine of maximum Rs. ten thousand or- both
(d) imprisonment maximum up to six months, fine of maximum Rs. twenty thousand or both
25. Minimum imprisonment for subsequent contravention of Section 3 of The Child
Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986
(a) Three months
(b) Six Months
(c) Nine Months
(d) One Year
26. Penalty for contravention of any other provision (other than Section 3) of The Child
Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986 is
(a) Imprisonment which may extend to 1 month
(b) Fine
(c) Either a or b
(d) Both a and b
27. No child shall be permitted to workbetween
(a) 6pm to 6am
Page 127
(b) 7pm to 8am

(c) 8pm to 9am
(d) 8pm to 7am
28. No child shall be employed or permitted to work in any of the occupations set forth in
(a) Part A of the Schedule
(b) Part B of the Schedule
(c) Part C of the Schedule
(d) Part D of the Schedule
29. No child shall be employed to work in any of the workshop wherein any of the process
set worth in which Schedule is carried on?
(a) Part A of the Schedule
(b) Part B of the Schedule
(c) Part C of the Schedule
(d) Part D of the Schedule
30. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Under the Act, no child shall be required to work overtime
(b) Child is not required to work between 7 p.m. and 6 a.m.
(c) No provision of holiday is provided under the Act for the child working in an
establishment
(d) The appropriate Government cannot make rules for the health & safety of the children
employed or permitted to work in any establishment
31. Which of the following statements is correct
(a) Occupier may at his option, shall display in the abstract of section 3 & 14 in form-D of
the Act
(b) Child, as per the Act, means a person who has not completed the age of 18 years
(c) Every child shall be allowed in each week a holiday of one whole day
(d) No provision of holiday is provided under the Act for the child working in an
establishment
32. Which of the following statements is notcorrect?
(a) Child is not required to work between 7 p.m. and 8 a.m.
(b) The Child Labour Act, 1986 extends to whole of India
(c) Every child shall be allowed in each week a holiday of one whole day
(d) No provision of holiday is provided under the Act for the child working in an
establishment ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B D D B B D A A D C D B C D C
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A B A C C D D B B C B A B A
31 32
C D
Page 128
CHAPTER 13
INDUSTRIAL EMPLOYMENT ACT, 1946
1. When was The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act was enacted
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1950
(d) 1956
2. What was the object of The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act was
enacted?
(a) To enforce uniformity in the Conditions of services under different employers in different
industrial establishments
(b) The employer, once having made the conditions of employment known to his employed
workmen cannot change them to their detriment or to the prejudice of their rights and
interests
(c) With the express or written Conditions of employment, it is open for the prospective
worker to accept them and join the industrial establishment
(d) All off the above
3. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act was applicable in all industrial
establishments wherein ______ workmen are employed or were employed on any day
during the preceding twelve months.
(a) 10 or more
(b) 20 or more
(c) 50 or more
(d) 100 or more
4. The appropriate government may after giving notice of not less than. ._, by
notification in the Official Gazette, extend the provisions of this Act to any industrial
establishment employing such number of persons less than 100 as may be specified.
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 4 months
5. Section 14 provides that the __________ may by notification In the Official Gazette
exempt conditionally or unconditionally any industrial establishment or
class of industrial establishments from all or any of the provisions of this Act
(a) Central Board
(b) State Board
(d) Labour Court
Page 129
6. _____________ means in respect of industrial establishments under the control of the

Central Government or a Railway administration or in a major port, mine or oilfield,
the Central Government and in all other cases the State Government
(a) Adjudicating Authority
(b) Appropriate Government
(c) Inspector
(d) Collector
7. Central Government is Appropriate Government as per the provisions of The
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act for establishments under the control of,
except.
(b) Railway administration
(c) Major port, mine or oilfield
(d) State Government
8. According to Section 2(c) of The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
___________ means a Labour Commissioner or a Regional Labour Commissioner, and
includes any other officer appointed by the appropriate Government by notification in
the Official Gazette, to perform, all or any of the functions of a Certifying Officer under
this Act.
(a) Adjudicating Officer
(b) Occupier
(c) Auditor
(d) Certifying Officer
9. According to provisions of The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
Employers include
(a) A manager so named under section 7(1)(f) of the Factories Act, 1948
(b) The head of the department or any authority appointed by the Government in any
industrial establishment under its control
(c) Any person responsible to the owner for the supervision and control of any other
industrial establishment which is not under the control of Government
Industrial Establishment include
(a) an industrial establishment defined by Section 2(u) of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(b) a factory as defined by Section 2(m) of the Factories Act, 1948
(c) a railway as defined by Section 2(4) of the Indian Railways Act, 1890
11. The employer of establishment shall submit to the Certifying Officer five copies of the
draft Standing Orders proposed by him for adoption in the establishment within______
of this act becomes applicable
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(a) One months

(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Six months
12. Which of the following documents must a Standing Order be in conformity with?
(a) Standard Standing Orders
(b) Model Standing Orders
(c) Uniform Standing Orders
(d) Form Standing Orders
13. Which of the following is not a part of procedure lobe followed by Certifying Officer
as per the provisions of The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act?
(a) Receiving draft standing order from employer
(b) Forward draft standing order to trade union or workmen
(c) Receiving objections of workmen without giving opportunity of being heard to them
(d) Certify the standing orders
14. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Workmen are not entitled to apply for modification of the Standing Orders
(b) A copy of Standing Orders won’t be furnished on payment of prescribed fee
(c) A copy of the certified Standing Orders will be sent by Certifying officer to both the
employer and the employees association
(d) Certifying officer shall provide not an opportunity of being heard to the workmen or the
employer in relation to objections/changes
15. Within how many days, an appeal can be filed with appellate authority against the
order of Certifying Officer
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days
16. The appellate authority shall send copies of modified Standing Orders to employer
and worker representative within
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 30 days
17. Which of the following is not the power of appellate authority in relation to an
appeal?
(a) Confirm the Standing order
(b) Amend the Standing order
(c) Set aside the Standing order
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18. Standing Orders shall come into operation on the expiry of _____ days from the date
on which the authenticated copies are sent to employer and workers
representatives in case there is no appeal
(a) 7
(b) 15
(c) 21
(d) 30
19. Where an appeal has been preferred, Standing Orders will become effective on the
expiry of ______ days from the date on which copies of the order of the appellate
authority are sent to employer and workers representatives
(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 21
(d) 30
20. The text of the Certified Standing Orders under The Industrial Employment
(Standing Orders) Act shall be prominently by the employer in English and
in the language understood by the majority of his workmen
(a) Posted
(b) Dictated
(c) Read
(d) Remembered
21. An employer can modify the Standing Orders even if they are certified under this Act
if there is agreement between, except
(a) The employer and the workmen
(b) The employer and trade union
(c) The employer and other representative body of workmen
(d) The employer and the certifying officer
22. Which of following statements are incorrect?
(a) Women are entitled to apply for modification of the standing orders
(b) There is no time limit for making modification application
(c) The standing orders shall be effective after expiry of 6 months from certification
(d) The application for modification in standing order shall be submitted to trade union.
23. Where any workman is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry
into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay to such a
workman the subsistence allowance at the rate of ___________ for first ninety days
(a) Fifty percent of wages
(b) Twenty five percent of wages
(c) Seventy five percent of wages
(d) Hundred percent of wages
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24. How much subsistence allowance is payable to a workman after 90 days of enquiry
when he has been suspended pending an inquiry against him
25. Any dispute regarding subsistence allowance may be referred by the workman or the
employer, to the ___________ constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(a) Tribunal
(b) Labour Court
(c) Ministry of corporate Affairs
(d) Inspector
26. Where there are two categories of workers, daily rated and monthly rated but the
certified Standing Orders are in respect of daily rated workmen only, then
________________ can be applied to monthly rated workmen
(a) Standard Standing Order
27. From the date on which the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
becomes applicable to an industrial establishment, an employer is required to submit to
the Certifying Officer the draft standing orders
(a) Within 3 months
(b) Within 6 months
(c) Within a month
(d) Immediately on receipt
28. The interpretation of certified standing orders is within the jurisdiction of
(a) Labour court
(b) Certifying officer
(c) Workmen
(d) Employer and workmen
29. The function of a certifying officer or the appellate authority is to adjudicate upon the
________ of the standing orders
(a) Proper display and posting
(b) Reasonableness and fairness
(c) Monetary value
(d) Occupier ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B D D B C B D D D D D B C C C
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
A C D A A D D A C B B B A B
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CHAPTER 14
INDUSTRIAL DISPUTES ACT 1947
1. Where was Industrial Dispute Act enacted?
(a) 1948
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1921
2. The first enactment dealing with the settlement of industrial disputes was the
(a) Employer’s and Workmen’s Disputes Act
(b) Trade Disputes Act
(c) Factories Act
(d) Industrial Disputes Act
3. industrial Disputes Act ensures progress of industry by bringing about harmony and
cordial relationship between the ___________
(a) Employer and Government
(b) Employee and Government
(c) Employment and their families
(d) Employers and Employees
4. What are the objectives of Industrial Disputes Act?
(a) Promotion of measures of securing and preserving amity and good relations between the
employer and workmen
(b) Prevention of illegal strikes and lockouts
(c) Promotion of collective bargaining
5. Which of these is not an objective of Industrial Disputes Act?
(a) Relief to workmen in the matter of layoff and retrenchment.
(b) Settlement of industrial disputes between employers and employers
(c) Settlement of disputes between employer and government authorities
(d) Settlement of industrial disputes between employers and employees
6. Employer’s and Workmen’s Disputes Act, 1860 was later on replaced by
(a) Trade Disputes Act, 1929
(b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(c) Factories Act, 1948
(d) Employee Compensation Act, 1923
7. According to Section 2(j) of Industrial Disputes Act, ______ means any business,
trade, undertaking, manufacture or calling of employers and includes any calling
service, employment, handicraft, or industrial occupation or avocation of workmen.
(a) Occupier
(b) Industry
(c) Establishment
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(d) Principal Employer

8. Which of the following institutions are considered “Industry”?
(a) Posts and Telegraphs Department
(b) Central Institute of Fisheries
(c) Construction and maintenance of National and State Highways
(d) Dock Labour Board
9. Which of the following is not a part of industry?
(a) Sovereign functions by government
(b) Welfare activities by government
(c) Economic adventures by government
(d) Economic adventures by statutory bodies
10. Which of these municipality activity is industry?
(a) Public Gardens
(b) Fire Brigade
(c) Public conveyance
11. Absence of profit motive or gainful objective is ___________ for ‘industry”.
(a) Mandatory
(b) Irrelevant
(c) Basic nature
(d) Partially required
12. Which of the following are not industry in case of Hospital and Charitable
Institutions?
(a) Those that yield profit but the profits are siphoned off for altruistic purposes
(b) Those that make no profit but hire the services of employees as in any other business, but
the goods and services which are the output, are made available at a low or at no cost to
the indigent poor
(c) Those that are oriented on a humane mission fulfilled by men who work, not because
they are paid wages, but because they share the passion for the cause and derive job
satisfaction from their contribution
13. _________ may qualify for exemption if, in simple ventures, substantially and going
by the dominant nature criterion substantively, no employees are entertained, but in
minimal matters marginal employees are hired without destroying the non-employee
character of the unit
(a) Club
(b) Co operative
(c) Gurukulas
14. What are not the ingredients of triple tests to be applied for determining Industry?
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(a) Systematic Activity

(b) Cooperation between employer and employee
(c) Production of goods and services
(d) Employment of contract labour
15. An establishment was being operated without introduction of any capital. Whether it
will be considered as industry?
(a) No, it will not be an industry
(b) It will be an industry once capital is introduced
(c) It is an industry even without capital
16. Which of these forms part of an industry?
(a) Activity is carried on with a motive to make any gain or profit
(b) Any activity of the Dock Labour Board
(c) Any activity relating to the promotion of sales or business or both carried on by an
establishment
17. Which of the following institutions are not exceptions to “Industry”?
18. According to Section 2(k) of Industrial Dispute Act, ______ means any dispute or
difference between employers and employers, or between employers and workmen, or
between workmen and workmen, which is connected with the employment or non-
employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour, of any person
(a) Court case
(b) Appeal
(c) Aggrieved party
(d) Industrial dispute
19. Which of these is not an Ingredient of definition of Industrial Dispute?
(a) There should exist a dispute or difference
(b) The dispute or difference should be between employer-employee; employer-employer,
employee-employee
(c) The dispute or difference should be connected with monetary benefit only
(d) The dispute should relate to an industry
20. Abhishek Bachpan was a member of a trade union. A part of the trade union wants to
raise an industrial dispute against AB corp. Ltd. However they are not directly related
with AB Corp Ltd. The want to raise dispute on behalf of their members in AB Corp
Ltd. What are provisions related to it?
(a) Abhishek bachpan can raise the dispute
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(b) Abhishek bachpan should be in majority to raise dispute

(c) Abhishek bachpan cannot raise dispute as he is not substantially interested
(d) Abhishek bachpan should be in management of AB Corp Ltd to raise dispute
21. _______ means any person (including an apprentice) employed in any industry to do
any manual, unskilled, skilled, technical, operational, clerical or supervisory work for
hire or reward, whether the terms of employment be expressed or implied,
(a) Contract Labour
(b) Workman
(c) Establishment
(d) Employer
22. Which of the following is a workman as per the provisions of Industrial dispute act?
(a) Person dismissed in connection with dispute
(b) Person discharged which led to the dispute
(c) Person retrenched as a consequence of dispute
23. Which is these not an exception to the definition of Workman as per the provisions of
Industrial Dispute Act?
(a) Person who is subject to Army Act
(b) Person who is employed mainly in a managerial or administrative capacity
(c) Person who is employed in the police service or as an officer or other employee of a
prison
(d) Person who is employed in a supervisory capacity drawing less than? 1,600 per month as
wages
24. In the case of J.K. Cotton Spinning arid Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. v. L.A. T., AIR 1964
S.C. 737, the Supreme Court held that ____________ to bungalows provided by the
company to its officers and directors, are engaged in operations incidentally connected
with the main industry carried on by the employer
(a) Malis looking after the garden
(b) Police providing safety
(c) Govt. Hospitals nearby
(d) Supplementary Industries situated
25. Only those persons who are engaged in the following types of work are covered by the
definition of “workman”:
(a) Skilled or unskilled manual work
(b) Supervisory work
(c) Technical or clerical work
26. A person engaged in supervisory work will be a workman only if he is drawing more
than ________ per month as wages
(a) Rs. 1,000
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(b) Rs. 1,500

(c) Rs. 1,600
(d) Rs. 2,000
27. Which of these is a workman?
(a) Teachers
(b) Medical Representative
(c) Salesman doing clerical work also
(d) Temple Priest
28. Persons employed mainly in the ___________ have been excluded from the definition
of “workman”:
(a) Labour Activity
(b) Managerial or administrative capacity
(c) Construction Activity
(d) Incidental Activity to the main work
29. According to provisions of Industrial Dispute Act, Occasional entrustment of
supervisory, managerial or administrative work, take a person mainly
discharging clerical duties, out of purview of Workman
(a) Will
(b) Will not
(c) May temporarily
(d) As per view of employee
30. According to Section 2(q) of Industrial Dispute Act, _______ means a cessation of
work by a body of persons employed in any industry acting in combination, or a
concerted refusal, or a refusal under a common understanding of any number of persons
who are or have been so employed to continue to work or to accept employment
(a) Strike
(b) Shutdown
(c) Retrenchment
(d) Load Shedding
31. Which of the following is relevant in determining a Strike?
(a) Time Factor
(b) Purpose behind the cessation
(c) Cessation of work
32. Which of these will not constitute a strike?
(a) Refusal to work on death of fellow worker
(b) Going on a mass causal leave under a common understanding
(c) Refusing to do regular work
(d) Refusing to do illegal activities
33. Which of the following is not a type of strike?
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(a) Sit Down

(b) Pen Down
(c) Voice Down
(d) Tool Down
34. Which of the following is not correct related to Go Slow Strike?
(a) Deliberate delaying of production by workmen
(b) Going on a mass casual leave under a common understanding
(c) Serious form of misconduct
(d) Reducing the output while remain on full wages
35. Cessation of work in the support of the demands of workmen belonging to other
employer is called a _________
(a) Hunger Strike
(b) Sympathetic Strike
(c) Go Slow Strike
(d) Work to rule
36. Which of the following types of strikes are called ‘primary strikes’?
(a) Stay in
(b) Tool down
(c) Go slow
(d) Pen down
37. The justification of strikes has to be viewed from the stand point of ___________
made by workmen and not merely from stand point of their exhausting all other
legitimate means open to them for getting their demands fulfilled
(a) Monetary benefits involved in demands
(b) Number of workers involved in strike
(c) Duration and intensity of strike
(d) Fairness and reasonableness of demands
38. . When can a strike be unjustified?
(a) Demands are fair and reasonable
(b) Carried in Peaceful manner
(c) Demands are bonafide
(d) Acts of violence or sabotage happens
39. Referring to case of Crompton Greaves Ltd., whether employees are eligible for 45.
wages for strike period even if strike is fair and reasonable
(a) They will be entitled for full wages
(b) They will be entitled for half wages
(c) They will entitled to no wages
(d) They will be entitle to bonus only
40. Referring to case of Statesman Ltd. v. Their Workman., whether employees are
eligible for wages for strike period even if strike is illegal and unjustified
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(a) They will be entitled for full wages 46.

(c) They will be entitled to no wages
41. Referring to case of India Marine Service Pvt. Ltd. v. Their Workman, whether
employees are eligible for wages for strike period followed by lockout and even if both
are unjustified
(a) They will be entitled for full wages
(c) They will be entitled to no wages
42. According to Section 2(l) of Industrial Dispute Act ______ means the temporary 48.
closing of a place of employment, or the suspension of work, or the refusal by an
employer to continue to employ any number of persons employed by him
(a) Lockout
(b) Strike
(c) Retrenchment
(d) Load Shedding
43. “Lay off” means the failure, refusal or inability of an employer to give employment, to
a workman whose name appears on the muster rolls of his industrial establishment and
who has not been retrenched
(a) Strike
(b) Load Shedding
(c) Layoff
(d) Shut down
44. Which of these is not a reason of Lay off?
(a) Closure in retaliation for certain acts of workmen
(b) Break down of machinery
(c) Shortage Coal, power or raw materials
(d) Accumulation of sticks
45. Every workman whose name appears the muster rolls of the industrial
establishment and presents himself at the time appointed for the purpose and is not
given employment by the employer within _______ hours of his so presenting himself
shall be deemed to have been laid off for that day within the meaning of this act
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
46. If the workman is asked to be present himself during the second shift of the day and is
given employment in second shift, he shall be deemed to have been______
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(a) Not laid off

(b) Laid off for one half day
(c) Laid off for one full day
47. In case of laid off, the contract of employment is __________
(a) Broken permanently
(b) Suspended for the time being
(c) Carried out irrespective of no work
48. The matter whether the layoff is malafide or not can be adjudicated by
(a) Commissioner
(b) Tribunal
(c) Management
(d) Labour Court
49. Which of the following is not correct regarding lay off?
(a) It is inherent right of the employer
(b) It should be specifically provided by contract of employment
(c) It should be part of standing orders governing the establishment
(d) Lay off cannot be done in industry which is closed down
50. Which of the following are not valid reasons for an employer declaring ‘Lay off’?
(a) Shortage of coal, power or raw materials discretion
(b) Accumulation of stocks
(c) Breakdown of machinery
(d) Financial stringency
51. Which of the following is not correct in respect of lay off
(a) Lay off is subject to penalty
(b) Business Continues in case of lay off
(c) Layoff is the result of trade reasons
(d) Employer refuses to give employment due to certain reasons in lay off
52. _________ means the termination by the employer of the service of a workman for
any reason what so ever, otherwise than as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary
action
(a) Retrenchment
(b) Lay off
(c) Lockout
(d) Strike
53. Which of these are not requirements for retrenchment?
(a) There should be termination of the service of the workman.
(b) The termination should be by the employer
(c) The termination is not the result of punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action
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(d) The termination of the service of workman is on the ground of continued ill health
54. Which of these is retrenchment?
(a) voluntary retirement of the workman
(b) retirement of the workman or reaching the age of superannuation if the contract of
employment between the employer and the workman concerned contains a stipulation in
that behalf
(c) termination of the service of the workman as a result of the non-renewal of the
contract of employment on its expiry
(d) termination of the service for carrying out activities permitted in premises of
establishment
55. Which of these are principles of retrenchment laid down by Supreme Court in case of
workmen of Subong Tea Estate v. Subong Tea Estate.
(a) The management can retrench its employees only for proper reasons. It must
not be actuated by any motive of victimisation or any unfair labour practice
(b) It is for the management to decide the strength of its labour force, and the
number of workmen required to carry out efficiently the work in his industrial
undertaking must always be left to be determined by the management in its
(c) The right of the employer to effect retrenchment cannot normally be challenged but when
there is a dispute in regard to the validity of the retrenchment, it would be necessary for
the tribunal to consider whether the impugned retrenchment was justified
56. Which of these is considered as retrenchment?
(a) Termination on account of lack of confidence
(b) Disengagement of workers of seasonal factories after season
(c) Striking of the name of a worker from the rolls on the ground of absence for a specific
period, provided under Standing Orders
(d) Termination on account of physical defect
57. ______ means an interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute or of any
question relating thereto by any Labour Court, Industrial Tribunal or National
Industrial Tribunal and includes an arbitration award made under Section 10-A
(a) Dispute
(b) Resolution
(c) Strike
(d) Award
58. “Average pay” means the average of the wages payable to a workman and includes
(a) in the case of monthly paid workman, in the three complete calendar month
(b) in the case of weekly paid workman, in the four complete weeks
(c) in the case of daily paid workman, in the twelve full working days preceding the date on
which the average pay becomes payable
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59. ____________ means any industry the control of which by the Union has beer
declared by any Central Act to be expedient in the public interest
(a) Controlled Industry
(b) Closure Industry
(c) Industry
(d) Industrial Dispute
60. Employer in case of an industry carried on by or under the authority of any
department of the Central Government or a State Government
(a) Prescribed authority of Head of Department
(b) Central Board
(c) Tribunal
(d) State board
61. Employer in case of an industry carried on by or on behalf of a local authority
(a) Chief Executive Officer of that authority
(b) Head of Department
(c) Central Board
(d) Tribunal
62. Employer includes among others
(a) Agent of the employer
(b) General manager
(c) Occupier of factory
(d) Head of the trade union
63. ________ in relation to a Trade Union, means the body, by whatever name called, to
which the management of the affairs of the trade union is entrusted
(a) Employer
(b) Executive
(c) Occupier
(d) Employee
64. A person can be appointed as the chairman or other member of a Board, Court or
Tribunal even if ___________, if he discloses the such connection to Appropriate
government
(a) He is a shareholder of an incorporate company connected with dispute
(b) He is part of management of establishment connected with dispute
(c) He is executive of Trade Union connected with dispute
65. Public Utility Service” means
(a) any railway service or any transport service for the carriage of passengers or goods by air
(b) any service in, or in connection with the working of, any major port or dock
(c) any postal, telegraph or telephone service
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66. __________ means a settlement arrived at in the course of conciliation proceeding and
includes a written agreement between the employer and workmen arrived at otherwise
than in the course of conciliation proceeding
(a) Dispute
(b) Settlement
(c) Closure
(d) Award
67. ________ means all remuneration capable of being expressed in terms of money,
which would, if the terms of employment, expressed or implied, were fulfilled, be
payable to workman in respect of his employment or of work done In such employment
(a) Wages
(b) Settlement
(c) Award
(d) Dispute
68. Which of these are not included in wages as per Industrial Dispute Act
(a) allowance (including dearness allowance) as the workman is for the time being entitled to
(b) value of any house accommodation, or of supply of light, water, medical attendance or
other amenity or of any service or of any concessional supply of food grains or other
articles
(c) any bonus
(d) any travelling concession
69. Which of these are included in wages as per Industrial Act?
(a) any commission payable on the promotion of sales or business or both
(b) any gratuity payable on the termination of his service
(c) any contribution paid or payable by the employer to any pension fund or provident fund
or for the benefit of the workman under any law for the time being in force
(d) any allowance including dearness allowance
70. Section 3 of the Act provides that the ____________ may by general or special order
require the employer to constitute in the prescribed manner a Works Committee in
(b) Commissioner
(c) High Court
(d) Inspector
71. Works Committee to be constituted by Appropriate Government, where or more
workmen are employed or have been employed on any working day in the preceding 12
months
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 75
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(d) 100
72. What is the duty of Works Committee?
(a) to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the
(b) to comment upon matters of their common interest or concern
(c) to compose any material difference of opinion in respect of such matters
73. The Conciliation Officer may be ______ either Permanently or for a limited period
(a) Appointed for specified area
(b) Appointed for specified industries in a specified area
(c) Appointed for one or more specified industries
74. The main objective of appointing the Conciliation Officers, by the appropriate
Government, is
(a) to create congenial atmosphere within the establishment
(b) promoting the settlement of the disputes
(c) reconcile disputes through the mediation
75. For promoting the settlement of an industrial dispute, the __________ may, as
occasion arises, constitute by a notification in the Official Gazette, a Board of
Conciliation
(b) Central Board
(c) State Board
(d) Labour Court
76. A Board of Conciliation shall consist of a Chairman and ________ other members as
the appropriate Government thinks fit
(a) Two or four
(b) Five or seven
(c) One or three
(d) Eight or nine
77. What are the duties of Board of Conciliation?
(a) To bring about a settlement of the dispute
(b) Do all such things which may be considered fit by it, for including the parties to come for
a fair and amicable settlement of the dispute
(c) Send a report thereof to the appropriate Government together with a memorandum of
settlement signed by all the parties to the dispute
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78. A Court of Inquiry may consist of one independent person or of such number of
independent persons as the appropriate Government may think fit and where a Court
consists of two or more members, one of them shall be appointed as the __________
(a) Chairman
(b) Manager
(c) Executive
(d) Government
79. The Court of Inquiry should ordinarily submit its report to the appropriate
Government within a period of ___________
(a) Three Months
(b) Five Months
(c) Six Months
(d) Nine Months
80. Which of the following is not a designated authority for investigation and settlement
of industrial disputes?
(a) Works Committee
(b) Conciliation Officers
(c) Labour Courts
(d) Dispute Tribunal
81. A Labour Court shall consist of ______ person only to be appointed by the
appropriate Government
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
82. A person shall be qualified for appointment as the presiding officer of a Labour Court
unless
(a) he is, or has been, a judge of a High Court,
(b) he has, for a period not less than three years, been a district Judge or an Additional
District Judge
(c) he has held any judicial office in India for less than seven years
(d) he has been the presiding officer of a Labour Court constituted under any provincial Act
or State Act for not less than five years
83. Appropriate government may constitute of one or more Industrial Tribunal for the
adjudication of industrial disputes relating to
(a) any matter whether specified in the Second Schedule
(b) any matter whether specified in the Third Schedule
(c) other functions as may be assigned to them under this act
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84. A tribunal shall consist of __________ person only to be appointed by the appropriate
government
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
85. A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the presiding officer of a
Tribunal
(a) he is, or has been, a Judge of high Court
(b) he has, for a period of not less than three years, been a District Judges
(c) he has, for a period of not less than three years, been an Additional District Judge
(d) he has been the presiding officer of a Labour Court
86. The person appointed as a Presiding Officer of Industrial Tribunal should be an
independent person and must not have attained the age of _____ years
(a) 45
(b) 55
(c) 65
(d) 75
87. Under section 7-B, the _____________ alone has been empowered to constitute one or
more National Tribunals for the adjudication of industrial disputes which (a) involve
questions of national importance or (b) are of such a nature that industrial
establishments Situated in more than one State are likely to be interested in or affected
by such disputes
(c) Industrial Tribunal
(d) Labour Court
88. A National Tribunal shall consist of _____ person only to be appointed by the
Central Government
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
89. Who is qualified to be a Presiding Officer of National Tribunal?
(a) he is, or has been, a judge of High Court
(b) he has, for a period of not less than three years, been a District Judges
(c) he has, for a period of not less than three years, been an Additional District Judge
(d) he has been the presiding officer of a Labour Court
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90. Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal shall submit its award on dispute to the
appropriate Government, if such order is connected with individual workmen, such
award shall be provided within
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 month
(c) 6 month
(d) 8 months
91. Where an industrial dispute has been referred to a ___________________ under this
section, the appropriate Government may by order prohibit the continuance o any strike
or lockout in connection with such dispute which may be in existence on the date of the
reference
(a) Board
(b) Labour Court
(c) Tribunal or National Tribunal
(d) Any of the above
92. Where an industrial dispute has been referred to a Board, Labour Court, Tribunal or
National Tribunal, the appropriate Government may
(a) Prohibit continuance of strike or lockout
(b) Prohibit continuance of work in establishment
(c) Prohibit lay off of workers
93. AnIndustrial Dispute can be referred to Arbitrator at which stage
(a) The dispute not yet referred to Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal
(b) The dispute has been referred to Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribun but not yet
adjudicated
(c) The dispute has been referred to Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribun and has been
adjudicated
(d) The dispute can be referred at any time before or after referring to Labour Court, Tribunal
or National Tribunal
94. Board, Court, Labour Court, Tribunal and National Tribunal shall have the same
powers as are vested in Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 when trying
a suit in respect of the maters
(a) enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on oath
(b) compelling the production of documents and material objects
(c) issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses
95. If Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal, Is satisfied that the order of
discharge or dismissal was not justified; then it can
(a) set aside the order of discharge or dismissal
(b) direct reinstatement of the workman on such terms and conditions, if any, as it thinks fit
Page 148
(c) give such other relief to the workman including the award of any lesser punishment in
lieu of discharge or dismissal
96. In which of the scenarios a strike or lockout is preferred
(a) during the pendency of conciliation proceedings before a Board and seven days the
conclusion of such proceedings
(b) during the pendency of proceedings before a Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal
and two months after the conclusion of such proceedings
(c) during the pendency of arbitration proceedings before an arbitrator and two months after
the conclusion of such proceedings, where a notification has been issued under
subsection (3A) of Section 10A
97. No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of
contract
(a) without giving to the employer notice of strike, as hereinafter provided, within six weeks
before writing, i.e., from the date of the notice to the date of strike a period of six weeks
should not have elapsed
(b) within 14 days of giving of such notice, i.e., a period of 14 days must have elapsed from
the date of notice to the date of strike
(c) during the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a conciliation officer and
seven days after the conciliation of such proceedings
98. No employer carrying on any public utility service shall lock out any of his workmen
(a) without giving them notice of lock out as hereinafter provided within six weeks before
locking out
(b) within 14 days of giving such notice
(c) before the expiry of the date of lock out specified in any such notice as aforesaid
99. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A lock out declared in consequences of an illegal strike or strike declared in consequence
of an illegal lock out shall not be deemed to be illegal
(b) No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike without giving to the
employer a notice of strike, within five weeks before striking
(c) A medical representative whose main and substantial work is to do canvassing for
promotion of sales is a workman
(d) Payment of pension cannot be a matter of an industrial dispute
100. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) No wages are payable if the strike is illegal or it is unjustified
(b) If the workers indulge in violence, wages will be paid even when their strike was legal
and justified
Page 149
(c) The use of force, violence or acts of sabotage by workmen during the strike period will
not entitle them for wages for the strike period
(d) If workers participate in an illegal strike, the employer is within his right to dismiss the
striking workmen on ground of misconduct after inquiry
101. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Dismissal of peaceful strikers who merely acted as dumb driven cattle is justified
(b) The payment of wages for the strike period will not depend upon whether the strike is
justified or unjustified
(c) Workmens guilty of violence, encourage other workers to join an illegal strike and
physically obstruct the loyal workers from joining their duties, they can be dismissed
from their service
(d) The workmen who had participated in an illegal strike, did not join their duties which
resulted in their dismissal under the Standing Orders can be dismissed
102. Notice of change in service conditions when no proceedings are pending before
Labour Court Tribunal etc should be given within
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 28 days
103. Change in condition of service is permissible under which of the following conditions
(a) To alter in regard to ‘any matter not connected with the dispute
(b) To discharge or punish, whether by dismissal or otherwise, that workman for any
misconduct not connected with the dispute
(c) No such workman shall be discharged or dismissed, unless he has been paid wages for
one month and an application has been made by the employer to the authority before
which the proceedings are pending for approval of the action taken by the employer
104. Which of the following in not a principle governing domestic enquiry as per the
provisions of Industrial Disputes Act?
(a) The enquiry should be conducted by an unbiased person
(b) The enquiry officer should conduct the enquiry honestly
(c) The employee should not be given a fair opportunity to defend himself
(d) The enquiry officer should clearly and precisely record his conclusions giving briefly
reasons for reaching the said conclusion
105. The application of recovery of money due from employer under a settlement or an
award or under the provisions of Chapter V-A or Chapter V-B, shall be made to
appropriate government within
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 12 months
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(d) 18 months
106. Section 25U provides that any person who commits any unfair labour practice shall
be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend ____________
(a) Imprisonment extending 6 months
(b) Fine up to one thousand rupees
(c) Imprisonment extending 6 months or fine upto one thousand rupees or both
(d) Imprisonment extending 6 months and fine upto one thousand rupees
107. In which of the following matters penalty cannot be imposed
(a) Illegal strikes
(b) Instigation
(c) Lock out
(d) Financial aid to illegal strikes
108. Penalty for illegal strike as per the provisions of Industrial Dispute Act is
(a) imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend
to one hundred rupees or with both
(b) imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend
to fifty rupees or with both
(c) imprisonment for a term which may extend to three month, or with fine which may
extend to fifty rupees or with both
(d) imprisonment for a term which may extend to three month, or with fine Which may
extend to one hundred rupees or with both
109. Penalty for illegal lockout as per the provisions of Industrial Dispute Act is
(a) Imprisonment extending 1 month
(b) Fine up to one thousands rupees
(c) Imprisonment extending 1 months or fine upto one thousand rupees or both
(d) Imprisonment extending 1 month and fine upto one thousand rupees
110. Penalty for instigation providing financial aid to illegal strike or lock out as per the
provisions of Industrial Dispute Act is
(a) Imprisonment extending 6 months
(b) Fine up to one thousand rupees
(c) Imprisonment extending 6 months or tine upto one thousand rupees or both
(d) Imprisonment extending 6 months and fine upto one thousand rupees
111. Penalty for breach of settlement or award as per the provisions of Industrial Dispute
Act is
to two hundred rupees per day during which breach continues
(b) imprisonment for a term which may extend to six month, or with fine which may extend
to two hundred rupees per day during which breach continues
(c) imprisonment for a term which may extend to six month, or with fine which may extend
to one hundred rupees per day during which breach continue
Page 151
(d) imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend
to one hundred rupees per day during which breach continue
112. Penalty for disclosing confidential information as per the provisions of Industrial
Dispute Act is
(a) imprisonment for a term which may extend to three month, or with fine which may
extend to one thousand rupees or with both
(b) imprisonment for a term which may extend to six month, or with fine which may extend
to one thousand rupees or with both
(c) imprisonment for a term which may extend to six month, or with tine whict may extend
to five hundred rupees or with both
(d) imprisonment for a term which may extend to three month, or with fine which may
extend to five hundred rupees or with both
113. Penalty for closure of undertaking without notice as per the provisions oi industrial
Dispute Act is
(a) imprisonment for a term which may extend to three month, or with fine which may
extend to five thousand rupees o with both
(b) imprisonment for a term which may extend to six month, or with fine whici may extend
to five thousand rupees or with both
(c) imprisonment for a term which may extend to six month, or with fine whici may extend
to one thousand rupees or with both
extend to one thousand rupees or with both
114. An ‘arbitrator’ under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 includes an ___________
(a) Referee
(b) Umpire
(c) Retired judge
(d) Inspector
115. Which of the following is considered an ‘industry’ under the Industrial Disputes Act,
1947?
(a) Posts and Telegraph Department of Fisheries
(b) Central institute of Fisheries
(c) Construction and maintenance of national and state highways
116. The subject matter of an industrial dispute should relate to employment or non-
employment or terms of employment or the conditions of ________ any person
(a) Labour
(b) Occupier
(c) Pregnant Lady
(d) Apprentice
117. Which of the following type of strike is not called a primary strike
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(a) Stay in strike

(b) Tool down strike
(c) Pen down strike
(d) Go slow
118. Unfair labour practices on the part of workmen and trade unions of workmen under
the Industrial Disputes legal strike. Act, 1947 does not include
(a) To make part. or support any to the trade union
(b) To force the workman of force or violence against non striking
(c) To indulge in the at the residence of the employers
(d) Wrongful demonstrations at residence of the employers
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B A D D C A B D A D B C D D C
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D D C C B D D A D C C B B A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
C D C B B C D D A C B A C A B
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B B B A D A A D D D C D D A A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
A D B A D B A C D A D D D D A
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A D A C D A C D A D C A A A B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
D A A D D D D D A B A C D C C
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
C C B C C B B B B D A D A
Page 153
CHAPTER 15
THE TRADE UNION ACT 1926
1. Ensures that their funds are utilized properly
(a) 1921
(b) 1926
(c) 1929
(d) 1945
2. A trade union does not deal in which of the following as per the Trade Union Act?
(a) Registration of trade Unions
(b) Ensures job guarantee to trade union members
(c) Review rights, liabilities and responsibilities of trade union
(d) Ensures that trade union funds are utilized properly
3. According to Section 2(a) of The Trade Union Act, Executive means the body, by
whatever name called, to which the _______ of the affairs of a trade union is entrusted
(a) Presentation
(b) Audit
(c) Management
(d) Utilization
4. According to Section 2(b) of The Trade Union Act, Office-bearer in the case of a trade
union, includes any member of the executive thereof, but does not include ____________
(a) Manager
(b) Chairman
(c) Employer
(d) Auditor
5. According to Section 2(d) of The Trade Union Act, Registered office means that office
of a trade union which is registered under this Act as the ________ thereof
(a) Branch Office
(b) Head Office
(c) Factory Office
6. Which of these is not a party to dispute as per the Trade Dispute in Section 2(g) of
The Trade Union Act?
(a) Employer and Employer
(b) Employer and Workmen
(c) Workmen and Workmen
(d) Employee and Shareholder
7. Which of these is not a dispute as per the Trade Dispute in Section 2(g) of The Trade
Union Act?
(a) Issue connected with the employment or non-employment
(b) Terms of employment
Page 154
(c) Education of employees

(d) Conditions of labour
8. What is minimum number of members required to subscribe the rules of Trade Union
at the time of registration
(a) Five or more
(b) Seven or more
(c) Ten or More
(d) Hundred or more
9. What is the minimum number of members required to form a Trade Union of
workmen?
(a) At least seven percent or 100 whichever is less
(b) At least ten percent or 100 whichever is less
(c) At least fifteen percent or 200 whichever is less
(d) At least twenty percent or 200 whichever is less
10. Section 5 stipulates that every application for registration of a Trade Union shall be
made to the _______
(a) Registrar
(b) Company Law Board
(c) Employer
11. Every application for registration of a Trade Union shall be made to the Registrar
and shall be accompanied by
(a) All members of Trade Union
(b) Rules of Trade Union
(c) Employer consent of Trade Union
(d) History of Trade Union
12. If a Trade Union has been in existence for more than one year before the making of
an application for its registration, it should submit to registrar
(a) Assets and Liabilities of Trade Union
(b) Expenditure statement of Trade Union
(c) Audit report of Trade Union
(d) Compliance report of Trade Union
13. Which of the following is not a subject matter of rules of trade union as per The
Trade Union Act?
(a) the name of the Trade Union;
(b) the whole of the objects for which the Trade Union has been established
(c) the whole of the purposes for which the general funds of the Trade Union shall be
applicable, all of which purposes shall be purposes to which such funds are lawfully
applicable under this Act
(d) the source of income of trade union
Page 155
Trade Union Act?
(a) the maintenance of a list of the members of the Trade Union and adequate facilities for
the inspection thereof by the office-bearers arid members of Trade Union;
(b) the admission of ordinary members who shall be persons actually engaged or employed
in an industry with which the Trade Union is connected, and also the admission of the
number of honorary or temporary members as office-bearers required under section 22 to
form the executive of the Trade Union
(c) the payment of a minimum subscription by members of the Trade Union
(d) personal interest details of members in Trade Union/Organization
Trade Union Act?
(a) the conditions under which any member shall be entitled to any benefit assured by the
rules and under which any fine or forfeiture may be imposed on the members;
(b) the manner in which the rules shall be amended, varied or rescinded
(c) the manner in which the members of the executive and the other office-bearers of the
Trade Union shall be elected and removed
(d) the manner in which the operations of Trade Union has been carried out till date
Trade Union Act?
(a) the duration of period being not more than three years, for which the members of the
executive and other office-bearers of the Trade Union shall be elected;
(b) the safe custody of the funds of the Trade Union, an annual audit, in such manner as may
be prescribed, of the accounts thereof, and adequate facilities for the inspection of the
account books by the office-bearers and members of the Trade Union; and
(c) the manner in which the Trade Union may be dissolve
(d) the manner in which trade union will carry out educational programmes for development
of its members
17. Who will issue the certificate of registration to trade union as per The Trade Union
Act?
(a) Employer
(b) Registrar
(c) Labour Court
18. What will be the conclusive evidence that trade union is registered
(a) Certificate of Registration
(b) Rules of Trade Union
(c) Heading Committee of Trade Union
(d) Members of Trade Union
19. Which of the following is a feature of Trade Union?
Page 156
(a) Have a perpetual succession

(b) Have a common seal
(c) Cannot hold property
(d) Can enter into contract
20. Which of the following conditions is not a valid condition for cancellation of
registration?
(a) on the application of the Trade Union lobe verified in such manner as may be prescribed
(b) if the Registrar is satisfied that the certificate has been obtained by fraud or mistake or
that the Trade Union has ceased to exist or has willfully and after
notice from the Registrar contravened any provision of this Act or allowed any rule to
continue in force which is inconsistent with any such provision or has rescinded any rule
providing for any matter provision for which is required by
Section 6
(c) if the Registrar is satisfied that a registered Trade Union of workmen ceases’ to have the
requisite number of members
(d) if the Trade Union does not hold requisite assets for its operations
21. The return should be submitted by Trade Unions
(a) Monthly
(b) Quarterly
(c) Semi annually
(d) Annually
22. The return of Trade Union should be submitted to
(a) Practicing Company Secretary
(b) Registrar
(d) Employer
23. The annual general statement of Trade Unions should be______ before submission to
Registrar
(a) Approved
(b) Reviewed
(c) Audited
(d) Published
24. The audited general statement of Trade Union which is to be submitted to Registrar
should contain
(a) Receipts and expenditure statement
(b) Assets and Liabilities statement
(c) A statement showing changes of office-bearers
25. The general audited statement of Trade Union shall be prepared as on
(a) 31 December
Page 157
(b) 31 March
(c) 30 September
(d) Any day during the year
26. Within how many days of making alteration fl rules it is to be submitted to registrar
(a) 1 week
(b) 15days
(c) 1 month
(d) 6 weeks
27. Registrar may require production of requisite documents at place not farther than
_______ from registered office
(a) 5 Miles
(b) 7.5 Miles
(c) 10 Miles
(d) 15 Miles
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B B C D B D C B B A B A D D D
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
D B A C D D B C D A B C
Page 158
CHAPTER 16
THE LABOUR LAWS(EXEMPTIONN FROM FURNISHING RETURNS AND
MAINTAINING REGISTER BY CERTAIN ESTABLISHMENTS) ACT 1988
1. In which year The Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and
Maintaining Register by Certain Establishments) Act was enacted?
(a) 1985
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 1999
2. As per Section 2(e) of The Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and
Maintaining Register by Certain Establishments) Act, how many employees should be
there in Small establishment?
(a) Less than 10
(b) Not less than ten and not more nineteen
(c) Not less than twenty and not more twenty nine
(d) More than thirty
3. As per Section 2(e) of The Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and
Maintaining Register by Certain Establishments) Act, minimum duration of
employment for being a Small establishment is
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 1 year
4. As per Section 2(f) of The Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and
Maintaining Register by Certain Establishments) Act, how many employees should be
there in Very Small establishment?
(a) Less than 10
(b) Not less than ten and not more nineteen
(c) Not less than twenty and not more twenty nine
(d) More than thirty
5. As per Section 2(f) of The Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and
Maintaining Register by Certain Establishments) Act, an establishment will become very
small .establishment if it employees not more than nine persons for during the preceding
12 months
(a) Any day
(b) 1 Months
(c) 3 Months
6. Who are exempt to furnish the returns or to maintain the registers required to be
furnished or maintained under that Scheduled Act?
Page 159
(a) Small Establishment

(b) Very Small Establishment
(c) Both a & b
7. Which of these are exemptions to establishment under The Labour Laws (Exemption
from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining Register by Certain
Establishments) Act?
(a) To furnish the returns
(b) To maintain the registers required to be furnished or maintained
(c) Both a & b
8. Small establishments are not required to maintain register in
(a) Form B
(b) Form C
(c) Form O
(d) Form E
9. Small establishment and Very small establishment are required to furnish return as
per The Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining Register
by certain publishments) Act in which Form
(a) Form A
(b) Form B
(c) Form C
(d) Form D
10. Very Small establishments are not required to maintain register in
(a) Form C
(b) Form O
(c) Form E
11. As per Section 2(d) “Scheduled Act’ means an Act specified in the _________ and
includes the rules made there under
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Third Schedule
(d) Fourth Schedule
12. What is the penalty for first violation of provisions of this act?
(a) fine which may extend to rupees five thousand
(b) fine which may extend to rupees twenty five thousand
(c) imprisonment for a period which shall not be less than one month but which may extend
to six months
(d) Both A & C
Page 160
13. What is the penalty for subsequent violation of provisions of this act?
(b) fine which may extend to rupees twenty five thousand
(c) imprisonment for a period which shall not be less than one month but which may extend
to six months
(d) Both B & C
14. Which of the following does not form part of First Schedule of The Labour Laws
(Exemption from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining Register by Certain
Establishments) Act.
(a) The payment of Wages Act, 1936
(b) The Weekly Holidays Act, 1942
(c) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(d) The Companies Act, 2013
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
B B D A C C D A A A A A D D
Page 161
CHAPTER 17
EMPLOYMENT EXCHANGES ACT 1959
1. In which year Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act
was enacted?
(a) 1955
(b) 1959
(c) 1963
(d) 1989
2. What are the activities of Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of
Vacancies) Act?
(a) Notification of Employment opportunities to Employment Exchanges
(b) Career counseling
(c) Collection of employment market information
3. Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act was applicable to
(a) all establishments IC the public sector and such establishments in the private sector as are
engaged in non agricultural activities and employing 25 or more workers
(b) all establishments in the public sector and such establishments in the private sector as are
engaged in non agricultural activities and employing less than 25 workers
(c) Only public sector establishment
(d) Only private sector establishment
4. Which of these is not a feature of Employment Exchange?
(a) persons who seek to engage employees
(b) persons who seek employment
(c) vacancies to which persons seeking employment, may be appointed
(d) welfare of the persons appointed
5. Which of these is not an establishment IC public sector as per Employment
Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act?
(a) The Government or a department of the Government
(b) A Government company as defined in Section 617 of the Companies Act,1 956 (1 of
1956)
(c) A corporation (including a cooperative society) established by or under a
Central, Provincial or State Act, which is owned, controlled or managed by the
Government
6. Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959 does not
apply in relation to vacancies in any employment relating to
(a) A Vacancy related to domestic service
(b) A local authority vacancy
(c) A vacancy to do unskilled office work
Page 162
(d) Vacancy connected with the staff of Parliament

7. A ltd. has vacancy of 10 employees, it intimated the same to Employment Exchanges.
Based on the requirement the employment exchange provided certain people for
recruitment. Whether A limited is obliged to appoint them
(a) A ltd. must recruit through employment exchange only
(b) A ltd. must recruit at least 50 percent of vacancy through employment exchange
(c) A ltd. is not obliged to recruit through employment exchange
(d) A ltd. cannot recruit through employment exchange
8. According to Section 5 of Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of
Vacancies) Act, 1959, to whom the establishment have to file return in relation to
vacancies
(a) Union Government
(c) Employment Exchange
9. What are not the rights of an officer to access records as per. the Employment
Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
(a) Enter at any reasonable time any premises where he believes such record or document to
be
(b) Inspect or take copies of relevant records or documents
(c) Ask any question necessary for obtaining any required information
(d) Arrest or detain any person if he thinks it necessary
10. How much fire can ‘je imposed on establishment for first offence of not informing
employment exchange for vacancies?
(a) Rs. 250
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 1,000
(d) Rs. 2,500
11. How much fine can be imposed on establishment for subsequent offence of not
informing employment exchange for vacancies?
(a) Rs. 250
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 1,000
(d) Rs. 2,500
12. How much fine to be imposed for first and subsequent offence, if any establishment
refuses or neglects to furnish information or return, or furnishes or causes to be
furnished any information or return which he knows to be false, or refuses to answer, or
gives a false answer to any question necessary for obtaining any information required to
be furnished or impeded the right of access to relevant records or documents or the right
of entry
Page 163
(a) Rs. 250 and Rs. 500 respectively

(b) Rs. 500 and Rs. 1,000 respectively
(c) Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 2,000 respectively
(d) Rs. 2,500 and Rs. 5,000 respectively
13. Who would be penalized for not recruiting from Employment Exchange in case of a
company?
(a) Managing Director
(b) Person in Charge
(c) Company Secretary
14. What is the amount of penalty to be imposed not recruiting from Employment
Exchange in case of a company?
(a) Rs. 250
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 1,000
15. Which of the following is not a valid exclusion form intimation to Employment
Exchange?
(a) To do unskilled office work
(b) Where the period of employment is less than three months
(c) Which carries a remuneration of greater than sixty rupees in a month
(d) Proposed to fill through promotion or by absorption of surplus staff
16. Establishment in private sector means an establishment which is not an
establishment in public sector and where ordinarily persons are
employed to work for remuneration
(a) 10 or more
(b) 25 or more
(c) 50 or more
(d) 20 or more
17. The ___________ may by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules for
carrying out the purpose of the Act
(a) Employment Exchange
(d) Supreme Court
Page 164
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B D A D D B C C D B C A D D C
16 17
B C
Page 165
CHAPTER 18
APPRENTICES ACT 1961
1. The Apprentice Act was enacted in which year
(a) 1948
(b) 1936
(c) 1959
(d) 1961
2. The objective of Apprentice Act 1961 is to
(a) Regulate and control the programme of training of apprentice
(b) Regulate and maintain health of apprentice
(c) Regulate working conditions of employees in factory
(d) Provide social security to employees
3. What are the essential elements of Apprentice training?
(a) Undergone in pursuance of contract of apprenticeship
(b) Course of training in any industry or establishment
(c) Terms and conditions may be different for different categories of apprentices
4. Which of the following is not an essential element of Designated trade as per
Apprentice Act?
(a) Trade or occupation or any subject field in engineering or technology or any vocational
course
(b) Notified by central Government, after consultation with the Central Apprenticeship
Council
(c) Notified in Concurrent list
(d) Notified in Official Gazette
5. In which field degree to be held to be a graduate or technician apprentice
(a) Biology
(b) Finance
(c) Engineering & technology
(d) Literature
6. What is the minimum age for being Apprentice Act
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 21
7. Which of these is not a qualification required for being an apprentice as per The
Apprentice Act?
(a) Age
(b) Education
(c) Fitness
Page 166
(d) Gender
8. On which date contract of apprentice is deemed to be commenced?
(a) Date of entering into Contract
(b) Date of Initiate of Apprenticeship
(c) Date of Approval
(d) Date of finish
9. Which of the following is an obligation of employer as per the Apprentice Act?
(a) To take care of fitness of apprentice
(b) To provide adequate instructional staff, possessing such qualifications as may be
prescribed for imparting practical and theoretical training
(c) To provide apprentice with adequate emotional support
(d) To provide apprentice with adequate financial requirement as may be demanded by him
from time to time
10. Which of the following is an obligation of employer as per the Apprentice Act?
(a) To provide the apprentice with the training in his trade in accordance with the provisions
of the Act and the rules made there under;
(b) If the employer is not himself qualified in the trade, to ensure that a person who possesses
the prescribed qualifications is placed in charge of the training of the apprentice
(c) To provide adequate instructional staff, possessing such qualifications as may be
prescribed for imparting practical and theoretical training and facilities for trade test of
apprentices
11. Which of the following are not obligations of apprentice as per The Apprentice Act?
(a) (a) To learn his trade conscientiously and diligently and Endeavour to qualify himself as
a skilled craftsman before the expiry of the period of training
(b) To carry out his obligations under the contract of apprenticeship
(c) To carry out due diligence audit for the employer
(d) To learn his trade conscientiously and diligently and Endeavour to qualify himself as a
skilled craftsman before the expiry of the period of training
12. Which of the following are obligations of apprentice as per The Apprentice Act?
(a) To enjoy the period of apprentice to the fullest and have a leisure life along with
employer.
(b) To learn his trade conscientiously and diligently and Endeavour to quality himself as a
skilled craftsman before the expiry of the period of training
(c) To carry out due diligence audit for the employer irrespective of contract
(d) To have full knowledge of employers activities inside and outside the business
13. Which of the following Acts will be applicable on the apprentice as per The
Apprentice Act?
(a) The Factories Act
(b) The Apprentice Act
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(c) The Minimum Wages Act

14. Which of the following is a category of apprentice as per The Apprentice Act
(a) Employee
(b) Trainee
(c) Labour
15. Whether employer is required to maintain records of training as per The Apprentice
Act
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) At the discretion of employer
(d) At the discretion of Apprentice
16. What is the minimum amount of payment for apprentice as The Apprentice Act?
(a) 5,000 pm
(b) 8,000 pm
(c) 2,500 pm
17. Amount of payment of apprentice shall be decided by
(a) By government in the Official Gazette
(b) By government on case to case basis
(c) As specified in the contract of apprenticeship
(d) As mandated by Apprenticeship advisor
18. As per Section 15 of The Apprentice Act, an apprentice can work overtime
(a) Without approval
(b) With approval of Employer
(c) With approval of Apprentice advisor
(d) Can’t work overtime
19. As per section 20 of The Apprentice Act, any dispute arising between employer and
apprentice shall be referred to
(a) Tribunal
(b) ICSI
(c) Labour Court
(d) Apprentice Advisor
20. Within how many days, any apprentice aggrieved by the decision of the
Apprenticeship Adviser, can go to Apprentice Council
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
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21. Every State Apprenticeship Council shall be affiliated to

(a) All India Council
(b) Central Apprenticeship Council
(c) National Council
22. As per Section 30 of The Apprentice Act, what is the penalty that can be imposed on
employer?
(a) Imprisonment up to six month
(b) Monetary fine
23. Which of the following is not an offence as per the Apprentice Act?
(a) Makes payment to an apprentice on the basis of piecework
(b) Requires an apprentice to take part in any output bonus or incentive scheme
(c) Requires an apprentice to work overtime with the approval of the Apprenticeship Adviser
(d) Employs an apprentice on any work which is not connected with his training
24. As per the Apprentice Act, who would be the person responsible for offence in case of
companies?
(a) Shareholders of the company
(b) Person in charge of the company
(c) Company Secretary of the company
(d) Occupier of the company
25. When can a person in charge will not be liable for offence in case of companies, as per
The Apprentice Act?
(a) Offence was committed without his knowledge
(b) He exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of such offence
(c) Both a & b
26. As per the Apprentice Act in case of company, manager, secretary or other officer
shall not be deemed to be guilty of offence if offence happened due to ________
(a) Negligence
(b) Consent
(c) Connivance
(d) Without Knowledge's
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
D A D C C A D A B D C B B B A
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
D C C D B B C C B C D
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CHAPTER 19
AUDIT UNDER LABOUR LEGISLATIONS
1. Under the Constitution of India, labour is a subject in the
(a) State List
(b) Union List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Government List
2. Which of these is not directive principle?
(a) There should be equal pay for equal work or both men and women
(b) The economic system should not result in concentration of wealth and the means of
production to the common detriment
(c) There should be food for every citizen
(d) That state shall secure to all workers living wage, decent standard of living and free
enjoyment of leisure
3. Labour audit can be conducted by
(a) Practicing Cost Accountant
(b) Practicing Company secretary
(c) Practicing Chartered Accountant
4. Labour Audit envisages systematic ____________ of records prescribed under labour
legislations
(a) Repoting
(b) Presentation
(c) Scrutiny
(d) Approval
5. Labour audit report should be addressed to
(a) Management of the Company
(b) Shareholders of the company
6. The scope of labour audit shall be
(a) All labour laws
(b) Applicable labour laws
(c) Labour laws as decided by Employer
(d) Labour laws as decided by Auditor
7. Checklist for labour audit compliance has to be prepared ___________ audit
(a) Before commencement of
(b) During conduct of
(c) After completion of
(d) Not required
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8. Which of these is not a benefit of labour audit for employees?

(a) Higher Profits
(b) Social security
(c) Timely Wages
(d) Morale boost for employees
9. Which of thee is a benefit of labour audit for employees?
(a) Increase in status in the society due to government recognition
(b) Strict compliance will reduce penalties, damages, fines
(c) Atmosphere of good corporate governance
(d) Timely payment of entitlements will reduce absenteeism
10. Which of these is not a benefit of labour audit for employers?
(a) Increase in status in the society due to government recognition
(b) Strict compliance will reduce penalties, damages, fines
11. Which of these is not a benefit of labour audit to the government?
(a) Compliance of past defaults
(b) deduction in the number of field staff
(c) Improved image before international labour council
(d) Increase in status of employer in eyes of society
12. Which of these is a benefit of labour audit for Government?
(a) Compliance of past defaults
(b) Strict compliance will reduce penalties, damages, fines.
13. Under Labour Audit, if a particular piece of law is not applicable, the same shall be
(a) Should not be disclosed in the report
(b) May be disclosed in the report at the discretion of employer
(c) Should be disclosed separately in the report
(d) May be disclosed in the report at the discretion of auditor
14. The mode of disclosure of non applicability of labour legislations to a specific
organization should be suggested by
(a) Employer
(b) Shareholders
(c) Ministry of Labour
(d) Independent Auditor
15. Process of conducting labour audit will be beneficial for
(a) Employee
(b) Employer
(c) Government
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ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
C C B C C B A A D C D A C C D
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CHAPTER 20
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
1. The Constitution of India came into force on
(a) January 26, 1949
(b) January26, 1950
(c) January26, 1951
(d) January 26, 1952
2. The Constitution of India contains
(a) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules.
(b) 495 Articles and 12 Schedules
(c) 295 Articles and 12 Schedules
(d) 395 Articles and 10 Schedules
3. The to the Constitution sets out the aims and aspirations of the
people of India
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Equality
4. The preamble declares India to be a
(a) Sovereign
(b) Socialist and Secular
(c) Democratic and Republic
5. Constitution of India is
(a) Unitary
(b) Federal
(c) Basically federal but with certain unitary features
6. Which of the following is not a fundamental right in Part Ill of the Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Information
7. No fundamental right in India is absolute and reasonable restrictions can be imposed
in the interest of the state by valid legislation
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partially true
8. Definition of ‘State’ includes
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(a) the Government and Parliament of India.

(b) the Government and the Legislature of each of the States
(c) All local or other authorities
9. Invalid part of the law shall be severed and declared invalid if really it is severable.
Which doctrine states the same?
(a) Doctrine of eclipse.
(b) Doctrine of severability
(c) Doctrine of waiver
(d) Doctrine of prospective ruling
10. Law made before the commencement of the Constitution remains eclipsed or dormant
to the extent it comes under the shadow of the fundamental rights, i.e. is inconsistent
with it, but the eclipsed or dormant parts become active and effective again if the
prohibition brought about by the fundamental rights is removed by the amendment of
the Constitution. This is known as the
(a) Doctrine of eclipse.
(b) Doctrine of severability
(d) Doctrine of prospective ruling
11. Article 14 to 18 of the Constitution covers
(a) Right to Religion
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Education
12. State can deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the
laws within the territory of India”
(a) True
(b) False
(c) All of the above
13. guarantees to every person the right to equality before the law or the
equal protection of the laws
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17
14. Article 14 applies to all persons and is not limited to citizens
(a) True
(b) False
15. Article 14 forbids class legislation, but does not forbid classification
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(a) True
(b) False
16. Article 15(1) prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds of
(a) Religion
(b) Race
(c) Caste, sex, place of birth
17. Under Articlel5(3), the State can make special provision for
(a) Women
(b) Children
(c) Both (a) and (b)
18. Article 15(4) permits the State to make spial provision for the advancement of
(a) Socially and educationally backward classes of citizens;
(b) Scheduled Castes
(c) Scheduled Tribes
19. As per Article 16(4) , a provision cannot be made for the reservation of appointments
or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which in the opinion of the State is
not adequately represented in the services under the State
(a) True
(b) False
20. Article 20 guarantees to all persons — whether citizens or non-citizens the
following right(s):
(a) Protection against ex-post facto laws
(b) Protection against double jeopardy
(c) Protection against self-incrimination
21. Protection against double jeopardy states that
(a) ) No person accused of any offence shall be compelled t be a witness against himself.
(b) No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the
time of the commission of the act charged as an offence
(c) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
22. Person can be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(a) True
(b) False
23. The expression ‘procedure established by law’ means
(a) Procedure laid down by statute.
(b) Procedure prescribed by the law of the State
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24. As per Article 21A, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all
children of the age of
(a) six to ten years
(b) six to fourteen years
(c) six to sixteen years
(d) six to eighteen years
25. Preventive detention means
(a) Detention of a person with trial.
(b) Detention of a person without trial
26. The object of preventive detention is
(a) To punish a person for having done something.
(b) To prevent him from doing something wrong
27. As per the Article 22 , generally a person cannot be detained for a period more than
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
28. Which of the following articles prohibit the State from discriminating against any
citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
(a) Article 15(1)
(b) Article 15(2)
(c) Article 15(3)
(d) Article 15(4)
29. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of in any
factory or mine
(a) Six
(b) Ten
(c) Fourteen
(d) Eighteen
30. The right to speech and expression includes right to make a good or bad speech
(a) True
(b) False
31. guarantees the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(a) Article 30
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(b) Article 31
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 33
32. The right guaranteed by Article 32 shall not be suspended except
(a) By order of High Court
(b) By order of Supreme Court
(c) By way of President’s order under Article 359 when a proclamation of
Emergency is in force
33. The Directive principles
(a) Enforceable in the courts
(b) Not enforceable in the courts
(c) Partially enforceable in the courts
34. The Directive principles are
(a) Create any justifiable rights in favour of individuals
(b) Do not create any justifiable rights in favour of individuals
(c) Partially create any justifiable rights in favour of individuals
35. The Directive Principles of State Policy have to conform to and run as subsidiary to
the chapter of Fundamental Rights
(a) True
(b) False
36. State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people. This is a
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles
37. Right to freedom is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Directive Principles
38. Which of the following is not the Directive Principles?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) The State shall secure that the operation of legal system promotes justice on a basis of
equal opportunity
(c) State to-secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people
39. Article imposing the fundamental duties on every citizen of India
Page 177
(a) 49(A)
(b) 50(A)
(c) 51(A)
(d) 52(A)
40. Fundamental duties include
(a) To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and
the National Anthem.
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
41. The fundamental duties are imposed upon the
(a) States
(b) Citizens
42. Fundamental duties are not enforceable by the courts
(a) True
(b) False
43. In its Article 53 the Constitution lays down that the “executive power of the union
shall be vested in the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Chief Minister
44. The various powers that are included within the comprehensive expression
‘executive power in a modern state includes
(a) Administrative power.
(b) Military power
(c) Legislative power and Judicial power
45. The most important legislative power conferred on the is to promulgate
Ordinances
(a) Courts
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Minister
46. Ordinance has the following peculiarities
(a) This power is to be exercised by the President on the advice of his Council of
Ministers.
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(b) The President must be satisfied about the need for the Ordinance and h
cannot be compelled
(c) The Ordinance must be laid before Parliament when it re-assembles
47. The executive power of the state is vested in the ______________
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Courts
48. The Governor of a state is not elected but is appointed by the
(a) Prime minister
(b) President
(c) Member of Parliament
(d) Chief Minister
49. In which case the Governor cannot promulgate any Ordinance without instructions
from the President
(a) If a Bill containing the same provisions would under this constitution have required the
previous section of the President.
(b) He would have deemed it necessary to reserve a Bill containing the same provisions for
the consideration of the President
(c) An Act of the state legislature containing the same provisions would under this
constitution have been invalid under having been reserved for the consideration of the
President; it had received the assent of the President
50. Which of the following powers are not held by the Governor?
(a) Executive power
(b) Military power
(c) Legislative power
(d) Judicial power
51. A citizen of the federal country thus becomes subject to the decrees of following
Government
(a) The Central Government
(b) The Regional/State Government
52. The has the power to make laws for the whole of the territory of India or
any part thereof
(a) Union Legislature, i.e., Parliament
(b) State Legislatures
(c) Courts
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53. The have the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the
territory of the respective States
(c) Courts
(a) List I is named as the Union List.
(b) List II as the State List
(c) List Ill as the Concurrent List
55. Those subjects which are of national interest or importance, or which need national
control and uniformity of policy throughout the country have been included in the
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
56. Which of the following is not included in the Union List?
(a) Defence of India
(b) Foreign affairs
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Police
57. Which of the following is not included in the State List?
(a) Police
(b) Public Order
(c) Railways
(d) Public health and sanitation
58. There is no tax subject included in the
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
59. Which pattern was followed by The Government of India Act, 1935?
(a) Australian
(b) Canadian
(c) British
(d) African
60. With respect to the subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List, who has the power to
make laws?
Page 180
(a) Union Legislatures/Parliament

(d) Courts
61. With respect to all those matters which are not included in any of the three lists, has
the exclusive power to make laws
(a) Parliament
(c) Courts
62. Parliament can make a law with respect to a matter enumerated in the State List in
following case
(a) In the National interest, during a proclamation of emergency
(b) Breakdown of Constitutional Machinery in a State
(c) Legislation for enforcing international agreements
63. The freedom guaranteed by Article 301 is not made absolute and is to be read subject
to the certain exceptions
(a) True
(b) False
64. According to Article 302 Parliament may, by law, impose such restrictions on the
freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse as may be required in the public interest
(a) True
(b) False
65. The Courts in the Indian legal system consist of
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The High Courts
(c) The subordinate Courts
66. The is the highest Court in the country
(a) Supreme Court
(b) The High Courts
67. Which of the following courts can advise the President on a reference made by the
President on questions of fact and law?
(b) The High Courts
(d) Special Tribunals
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68. Every _______ has the power to issue directions or orders or writs including writs in
the nature of Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo warranto and Certiorari or
any of them for the enforcement of fundamental rights
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) Subordinate Courts
(d) Special Tribunals
69. The writ of ________ provides a remedy to a person who is confined without legal
justification
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo warranto
70. The writ of _______is issued to an Inferior Court preventing the latter from
usurping jurisdiction which is not legally vested in it
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo warranto
71. The writ of _______, a command issued to direct any person, corporation, inferior
court, or Government requiring him or it do a particular thing specified therein which
pertains to his or its office and is further in the nature of a public duty
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo warranto
72. The writ of ________ enables enquiry into the legality of the claim which a person
asserts, to an office or franchise and to oust him from such position if he is an usurper
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo Warranto
73. The writ of ________ is available to any person, wherever anybody of persons having
legal authority to determine questions affecting the rights of subjects and having the
duty to act judicially in excess of their legal authority
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Quo Warranto
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74. Subordinate legislation cannot take effect unless published

(a) True
(b) False
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B A A D C D A D B A C B A A A
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D C D B D C B C B B B C A C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
C C B B B A D D C D B A B D C
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D C B D B C A B D D D D C B C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74
A D A A D A A B A C B A C A
Page 183
CHAPTER 21
INTERPRETATION OF STATUTUES
1. A ______________ is a will of legislative conveyed in the form of text
(a) Statement
(b) Decree
(c) Judgment
(d) Statute
2. Which among the following is false. Statute are commonly divided into
(a) General
(b) Codifying
(c) Remedial
(d) Disabling
3. The purpose of the interpretation is
(a) To understand the statute according to one’s own comprehension
(b) To make a guess of what is written
(c) To see what is the intention expressed by the words used
(d) To be able to change the meaning according to the situation
4. _____________ is the process by which the Court seek to ascertain the meaning of the
legislature through the medium of the authoritative forms in which it is expressed
(a) Understanding
(b) Explanations
(c) Interpretation
(d) Statute
5. Which among the following statement is true
(a) The court applies the rules of interpretations where the law is clear and not ambiguous
(b) In case where rule of interpretation is to be applied, judge is not under obligation to find
the real intention behind the law
(c) The court applies the rules of interpretations where the law is not clear and is ambiguous
6. According to this rule, the words, phrases and sentences of a statute are ordinarily to
be understood in their natural, ordinary or popular and grammatical meaning unless
such a construction leads to an absurdity or the content or object of the statute suggests
a different meaning. Name the rule of interpretation
(a) Rule of Literal Construction
(b) The Mischief Rule or Heydon’s Rule
(c) Rule of Reasonable Construction
(d) Rule of Harmonious Construction
7. Which among the following statement is false
(a) According to the rule of Literal Construction, Interpretation should not be given which
would make other provisions redundant,
Page 184
(b) According to the rule of Literal Construction, Interpretation can be given which would
make other provisions redundant
(c) While applying the rule of Literal Construction, the main part of the section must not be
construed in such a way as to render a proviso to the section redundant.
8. Which among the following is not the feature of “Rule of Literal Construction”
(a) Every word in the law should be given meaning as no word is unnecessarily used.
(b) One should not presume any omissions and if a word is not there in the Statute, it shall
not be given any meaning
(c) the main part of the section must not be construed in such a way as to render a proviso to
the section redundant
9. While discussing rules of literal construction the Supreme Court in State of H.P v
Pawan Kumar (2005) held
(a) One of the basic principles-of interpretation of statutes is to construe them according to
plain, literal and grammatical meaning of the words.
(b) He must advance something which clearly shows that the grammatical construction
would be repugnant to the intention of the Act or lead to some manifest absurdity
(c) The onus of showing that the words do not mean what they say lies heavily on the party
who alleges it
10. According to the Mischief Rule or Heydon’s Rule, the Court while applying this rule,
should consider
(a) What was the Common Law before the making of the Act
(b) What was the mischief and defect for which the Common Law did not provide
(c) What remedy the parliament had resolved and appointed to cure the disease of the
Commonwealth and the true reason of the remedy
11. According to _________________ rule, the words of a statute must be construed ut res
magis valeat quam pareat, so as to give a sensible meaning to them. A provision of law
cannot be SO interpreted as to divorce it entirely from common sense; every word or
expression used in an Act should receive a natural and fair meaning
12. Rule of Reasonable Construction is also known as
(a) Ut Res Magis Valeat Quam Pareat
(b) Heydon’s Rule
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(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

13. Which among the following is false: While applying the rule of Reasonable
construction
(a) Courts can depart from dictionary meaning of a word and give it a meaning which will
advance the remedy and suppress the mischief
(b) A construction will be adopted in accordance with the policy and object of the statute
(c) It is only when the language of a statute, in its ordinary meaning and grammatical
construction, leads to a manifest contradiction of the apparent purpose of the enactment,
or to some inconvenience or absurdity, hardship of injustice, presumably not intended, a
construction may be put upon it which modifies the meaning of the words and even the
structure of the sentence
(d) To make the discovered intention fit the Words used in the statute, actual expression used
in it cannot be modified
14. According to _________________ rule, a statute must be read as a whole and one
provision of the Act should be construed with reference to other provisions in the same
Act so as to make a consistent enactment of the whole statute
15. Where in an enactment, there are two provisions which cannot be reconciled with
each other, they should be so interpreted that, if possible, effect may be given to both.
This is what is known as the
16. According to the Rule of Literal Construction, a statute is interpreted according to
the general meaning of the words even if it leads to absurdity
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can only be interpreted in exceptional circumstances
(d) Can be interpreted where law is a ambiguous
17. According to the __________________ rule, where there are general words
following particular and specific words, the general words following particular and
specific Words must be confined to things of the same kind as those specified, unless
there is a clear manifestation of a contrary purpose
(c) Rule of Ejusdem Generis
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18. According to the ______________________________rule, express mention of
one thing implies the exclusion of another
(a) Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima Et Fortissima in Lege
(b) Expressio Unis Est Exclusio Alterius
19. The maxim means that the best way to give the meaning to a document or
proposition of a law is to read it as it would have read when it was made. Name the
maxim
(b) Expressio Unis Est Exclusio Alterius
(d) Noscitur a Sociis
20. According to _______________ rule of interpretation, meaning of
a word should be known from its accompanying or associating Words
(b) Rule of Mischief
(c) Strict and Liberal Construction
21. Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima Et Fortissima in Lege, rule will not be applied
by court, where applying this rule leads to
(a) Effects on title of property
(b) Everyday transaction would get affected
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) There is as such no restriction on applying this rule
22. Rule of Noscitur a Sociis will not be applicable in which of the circumstance
(a) if sufficient reason can be assigned, it is proper to construe a word in one part of an Act
in a different sense from that which it bears in another part of the Act.
(b) where it would cause injustice or absurdity
(c) where the words are used in a different context
23. According to Rule of _______________________ “Acts, are not to be regarded as
including anything which is not within their letter as well as their spirit, which is not
clearly and intelligibly described in the very words of the statute, as well as manifestly
intended”, while by ‘liberal construction’ is meant that “everything is to be done in
advancement of the remedy that can be done consistently with any construction of the
statute”.
(b) Rule of Mischief
Page 187

24. Rule of Strict Construction should generally be applied in which type of case
(a) Criminal cases
(b) Civil cases
(c) Labour and welfare cases
(d) Property issues
25. Rule of Liberal Construction should generally be applied in which type of case
(a) Criminal cases
(b) Civil cases
(d) Property issues
26. The rule of Ejusdem Generis must be applied with great caution because it implies a
departure from the natural meaning of words
(a) True
(b) False
(c) There is no departure from natural meaning of word
(d) Not applicable to this rule
27. If the intention of the legislature is not clear, there are number of presumptions.
Which among the below is not the presumptions
(a) That the state is not affected by a statute unless it is expressly mentioned as being so
affected
(b) That the words in a statute are used precisely and not loosely
(c) That “mens rea”, i.e., guilty mind is required for a criminal act
(d) That a statute is intended to be consistent with the principles of International Law
28. The long _________ sets out in general terms, the purpose of the Act and it often
precedes the preamble
(a) Preamble
(b) Heading
(c) Title
(d) Marginal Notes
29. The Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is a
(a) Preamble
(b) Long title
(c) Short title
(d) Heading
30. ___________ describes the objective of the Act
(a) Preamble
(b) Long title
(c) Short title
Page 188
(d) Heading
31. Which among the below statement is false
(a) Heading generally describes the provisions contained under it
(b) Heading is like preamble to the provision contained under it
(c) Headings can override while interpreting statue even where provision contained in it is
clear and unambiguous
(d) Heading of a chapter cannot be used to restrict the plain terms of an enactment
32. Marginal note cannot be invoked for construction where the meaning is clear
(a) True
(b) False
33. Is reference to the Marginal Notes permitted?
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True, but only Supreme Court can refer it
(d) True, but only High Court can refer it
34. _______________ is added to an enactment to qualify or create an exception to what is
in the enactment
(a) Proviso
(b) Interpretation Clause
(c) Marginal Notes
(d) Explanations
35. _____________ is not interpreted as stating a general rule
(a) Proviso
(b) Interpretation Clause
(c) Marginal Notes
(d) Explanations
36. There is no distinction between ‘proviso’, ‘exception’ or ‘Saving Clause’.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Proviso and exception are one and same thing
(d) Exception and saving clause are one and same thing
37. The purpose of Interpretation Clause is
(a) To give dictionary meaning of the word or expression.
(b) To give an overview of the statute
(c) To give complete meaning of the statute
(d) To avoid the necessity of frequent repetitions in describing all the subject-matter to which
the word or expression so defined is intended to apply
38. _______________ attached to sections are part of the statute and they are useful so
far as they help to furnish same indication of the presumable intention of the legislature
(a) Explanation
Page 189
(b) Illustrations
(c) Schedule
(d) Proviso
39. An __________________ is at times appended to a section to explain the meaning of
words contained in the section
(a) Explanation
(b) Illustrations
(c) Schedule
(d) Proviso
40. Illustrations cannot have the effect of modifying the language of the section and they
cannot either curtail or expand the ambit of the section which alone forms the enactment
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can effect if the law is not clear and is ambiguous
(d) Depends on case to case
41. Expression in the schedule can control or prevail against the express enactment
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can effect if the law is not clear and is ambiguous
(d) Depends on case to case
42. Which among the below statement is true
(a) if there is any appearance of inconsistency between the schedule and the enactment, the
schedule shall prevail.
(b) if there is any appearance of inconsistency between the schedule and the enactment, the
enactment shall prevail
(c) Expression in the schedule can control or prevail against the express enactment
(d) Illustrations can have the effect of modifying the language of the section and they can
either curtail or expand the ambit of the section which alone forms the enactment
43. Among the below options, what aid Court can use for interpreting the statues?
(a) Foreign Decisions
(b) Dictionaries
(c) Parliamentary History
44. Which among the following is not an external aid in interpretation?
(a) Reference to Reports of Committees
(b) Reference to other Statutes
(c) Explanation
(d) Dictionaries
45. Which among the following is not a primary rule of interpretation?
Page 190

ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
D A C C C A B D D D C A D D D
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C B A D C D C A C A D C B A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
B B A A A B D B A A B B D C C
Page 191
CHAPTER 22
AN OVERVIEW OF LAW RELATING TO SPECIFIC RELIEF, TORT
LIMITATION AND EVIDENCE
1. The law relating to specific relief in India is provided in the
(a) Specific Relief Act of 1961.
(b) Specific Relief Act of 1962.
(c) Specific Relief Act of 1963.
(d) Specific Relief Act of 1964.
2. Where the contract is a settlement on marriage, or a compromise of doubtful rights
between members of the same family, any person beneficially entitled there under can
sue for specific performance
(a) True
(b) False
3. Generally, only a party to the contract can get its specific performance
(a) True
(b) False
4. Specific performance of any contract may be enforced
(a) When there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-
performance of the act agreed to be done
(b) When the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for its non-
performance would not afford adequate relief.
(c) Both(a) and (b)
(d) In any circumstances
5. As per Section 10, which of the following case is not specifically enforceable?
(a) Contracts for sale of patent right
(b) Copy right
(c) Rent laws
(d) Future property
6. Contracts which cannot be specifically enforced does not include
(a) A contract for the non- performance of which compensation in money is an adequate
relief
(b) A contract which is in its nature determinable
(c) A contract, the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty
which the court cannot supervise
(d) When there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-
performance of the act agreed to be done
7. Which of the following Sections deal with the recovery of possession of movable
(a) Sections 1 and 2
(b) Sections 3 and 4
(c) Sections 7 and 8
Page 192
(d) Sections 9 and 10

8. Any person having the possession or control of a particular article of movable
property of which he is not the owner, may be compelled specifically, to deliver it to the
person entitled to its immediate possession in which case
(a) When the compensation in money would not afford the plaintiff adequate relief for the
loss of the thing claimed.
(b) When it would be extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage caused by its loss
(c) When the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff
9. According to Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act, who can bring an action for specific
performance?
(a) Either party thereto
(b) Any person claiming under a title which though prior to the contract, and known to the
plaintiff, might have been displaced by the defendant
(c) When a company has entered into a contract and subsequently becomes amalgamated
with another company— the new company which arises out of the amalgamation
10. Under __________ of the Specific Relief Act, the Court is empowered to award
compensation in certain cases
(a) section 20
(b) section 21
(c) section 22
(d) section 23
11. ___________means correction of an error in an instrument in order to give effect to
the real intention of the parties
(a) Ratification
(b) Rectification
(c) Rescission
12. __________means putting an end to a contract which is still operative and making it
null and void ab initio
(a) Ratification
(b) Rectification
(c) Rescission
13. Rescission does not apply to
(a) voidable contracts
(b) void contracts
(c) Both(a) and (b)
Page 193
14. Which of the following is not required for rectification of instruments?

(a) Existence of a complete agreement prior to the instrument
(b) in writing form
(c) A clear evidence of mutual mistake or fraud
(d) A verbal agreement
15. Rescission may be adjudged by the Court in which case
(a) Where the contract is voidable or terminable by the plaintiff.
(b) Where the contract is unlawful for causes not apparent on its face and the defendant is
more to blame than the plaintiff
(c) Where third-parties have, during the subsistence of the contract, acquired rights in good
faith without notice and for value
16. Relief of cancellation under Section 3lof Specific Relief Act would be available when
an instrument is
(a) void
(b) void contacts
(c) both (a) and (b)
17. A _____________ is a decree whereby any right as to any property or the legal
character of a person is judicially ascertained
(a) Declaratory decree
(b) Answerable decree
(c) Legal Decree
(d) Court Decree
18. ____________ is a judicial process whereby a party is ordered to refrain from doing
or to do a particular act or thing
(a) Injunction
(b) Specific Relief
(c) Both(a) and (b)
(d) Preventive Relief
19. The main difference between an injunction and specific performance is that the
remedy in case of an injunction is generally directed to prevent the violation of a
negative act whereas specific performance is directed to compelling performance of an
active duty
(a) True
(b) False
20. An injunction has the following characteristic
(a) It is a judicial process.
(b) The object is to restrain or to prevent
(c) The act restrained or prevented is a wrongful act
Page 194

21. The Court may grant a perpetual injunction in case there exists no standard for
ascertaining the actual damage caused
(a) True
(b) False
22. Injunction can be of following type
(a) Temporary injunction
(b) Perpetual injunction
(c) Mandatory injunction
23. Injunction cannot be granted in following case
(a) To restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding pending at the institution
of the suit in which the injunction is sought
(b) To restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a Court not
subordinate to that from which the injunction is sought
(c) To restrain any person from applying to any legislative body
24. The word ‘____________' is a French equivalent of English word ‘wrong’
(a) Specific Relief
(b) Tort
(c) Injunction
(d) Temporary Injunction
25. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) Tort means a civil wrong which is not exclusively a breach of contract or breach of trust
(b) Tort is a species of civil injury of wrong
(c) Tort is a species of criminal injury of wrong
(d) Every civil wrong is not a tort
26. To constitute a tort, there must be
(a) A wrongful act or omission of the defendant.
(b) The wrongful act must result in causing legal damage to another
(c) The wrongful act must be of such a nature as to give rise to a legal remedy
27. _____________ means injury without damage, i.e., where there is no damage
resulted yet it is an injury or wrong in tort, i.e. where there is infringement of a legal
right not resulting in harm but plaintiff can still sue in tort
(a) Damnum Sine lnjuria
(b) Injuria Sine Damno
(c) Both(a) and (b)
28. In case of “Damnum Sine lnjuria” plaintiff can sue in tort
Page 195
(a) True
(b) False
29. In which tort, the defendant is liable even though the harm to the plaintiff occurred
without intention or negligence on the defendant’s part(Strict or Absolute Liability).
(a) Liability for Inevitable Accident
(b) Liability for Inevitable Mistake
(c) Vicarious Liability for Wrongs committed by others
30. The act of trespassing upon another’s land is not actionable, if it has not caused the
plaintiff the slightest harm
(a) True
(b) False
31. Which of the following is not the exception to the Rule of Strict Liability?
(a) Damage due to Natural Use of the Land
(b) Damage due to act of Third Party
(c) Damage by Statutory Authority
(d) Liability for Inevitable Mistake
32. In _____________ a person may be held liable for the tort committed by another like
a master is for the tort of his servant
(a) Strict Liability
(b) Absolute liability
(c) Vicarious liability
(d) General liability
33. Which of the following is not the example of vicarious liability?
(a) Principal and agent
(b) Partners
(c) Master and servant
(d) Employer and employed contractor
34. _____________ is an attack on the reputation of a person
(a) Defamation
(b) Nervous Shock
(c) Malicious Prosecution
(d) Bodily Harm
35. Types of judicial remedies are available to the plaintiff in an action for tort includes
(a) Damages or Compensation
(b) Injunction
(c) Specific Restitution of Property
36. Which of the following situation is not considered as assault?
(a) Point a loaded gun at the plaintiff
Page 196
(b) Curse him in a threatening manner

(c) Use force
(d) Aim a blow at him which is intercepted
37. The law relating to _______________ prescribes different periods of limitation for
suits, petitions or applications
(a) Specific Relief
(b) Limitation
(c) Torts
(d) Injunction
38. Which of the following States does not come under the purview of the Act of
Limitation?
(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Delhi
39. Section 5 of the Limitation Act allows the extension of prescribed period in certain
cases on sufficient cause being shown for the delay. This is known as ___________
(a) Doctrine of sufficient cause
(b) Doctrine of time
(c) Doctrine of Judicial Delay
(d) Doctrine of delay
40. Which of the following authorities has the power to extend the period as per
Section 5 of the Limitation Act?
(a) Labour courts
(b) Quasi-judicial tribunals
(c) High Court
(d) Executive authorities
41. According to Section 12(1), the day which is to be excluded in computing period of
limitation is the day from which the period of limitation is to be reckoned
(a) True
(b) False
42. A period of three years has not been prescribed for
(a) Suits relating to accounts, contracts.
(b) Declaratory suits
(c) Suits relating to decrees and instruments and suits relating to movable property
(d) Suits by mortgagee for foreclosure
43. For suits relating to torts and other miscellaneous matters, period of limitation is
prescribed for
(a) Period of 30 years
(b) Period of 3 years
Page 197
(c) Period varying between 1 to 3 years

(d) Period in days varying between 90 to 10 days
44. The minimum period of limitation of 10 days is prescribed for
(a) Suits relating to torts and other miscellaneous matters.
(b) Application for leave to appear and defend a suit under summary procedure from the date
of service of the summons
(c) Suits relating to accounts, contracts.
(d) Suits relating to immovable property
45. Suits for which no period of limitation is provided in the schedule to the Act fall
under the following period of limitation
(a) Period of 30 years
(b) Period of 3 years
(c) Period varying between 1 to 3 years
(d) Period in days varying between 90 to 10 days
46. The_____________ is an Act to consolidate, define and amend the Law of
Evidence
(a) Indian Evidence Act, 1870
(b) Indian Evidence Act, 1871
(c) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(d) Indian Evidence Act, 1873
47. The term Evidence includes
(a) All statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in
relation to matters of fact under inquiry.
(b) All documents (including electronic records) produced for the inspection of the Court.
48. All facts logically relevant are not, however, legally relevant
(a) True
(b) False
49. Relevant facts may be classified in
(a) facts connected with the facts to be proved.
(b) statement about the facts to be proved
(c) statements by persons who cannot be called as witnesses
50. Which of the following are facts not necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts?
(a) Facts necessary to explain or introduce a fact
(b) Facts which do not support an inference
(c) Facts which establishes the identity of a person or thing
(d) Facts which show the relation of parties by whom any such fact was transacted
Page 198
51. Exception to the general rule known as the hearsay rule which states that what is
stated about the fact in question is irrelevant includes
(a) Admissions and confessions.
(b) Statements as to certain matters under certain circumstances by persons who are not
witnesses
(c) Statements made under special circumstances
52. Every confession must be an admission but every admission may not amount to a
confession
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partially true under special circumstances
53. Which of the following is not the characteristic of admission?
(a) Clear
(b) Precise
(c) Vague
(d) Not ambiguous
54. There can be admission in
(a) Civil proceedings
(b) Criminal proceedings
(d) Labour court
55. There can be confession in
(a) Civil proceedings
(b) Criminal proceedings
(d) Labour court
56. Confession to be relevant must be made by the
(a) Accused
(b) Agent
(c) Stranger
57. Confessions are classified as
(a) Judicial
(b) Extra-judicial
58. Which of the following is not judicial confession?
(a) Confessions made to the police
Page 199
(b) Confessions made before a Court

(c) Confessions made to a Judge
(d) Confessions made to a Magistrate
59. The following statement become relevant on account of their having been made
under special circumstances
(a) Entries made in books of account
(b) Entries made in public or official records
(c) Statement as to fact of public nature contained in certain Acts or notification
60. Which of the following is not included in the matters in respect of which a witness is
not bound to answer questions while giving evidence?
(a) Evidence of an individual in regard tocertain matters
(b) Communications during marriage
(c) Affairs of State
(d) Source of information of a Magistrate or Police officer or Revenue officer as to
commission of an offence or crime
(a) All facts except the contents of documents may be proved by oral evidence
(b) Oral evidence must in all cases be "direct"
(c) The direct evidence means the evidence of the person who perceived the fact to which he
deposes
(d) Oral evidence must in all cases be "indirect"
62. _____________ means statements which the court permits or requires to be made
before it by witness in relation to matters of fact under inquiry
(a) Oral evidence
(b) Documentary evidence
(c) Direct evidence
(d) Primary evidence
63. Documents produced for the inspection of the court is called ___________
(a) Oral evidence
(c) Direct evidence
64. ____________ means the document itself produced for the inspection of the Court.
(a) Oral evidence
(c) Direct evidence
65. ____________ is generally in the form of compared copies, certified copies or copies
made by such mechanical processes as in themselves ensure accuracy
Page 200
(a) Oral evidence

(c) Direct evidence
66. Secondary evidence includes
(a) certified copies given under the provisions
(b) copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves ensure the
accuracy of the copy, and copies compared with such copies
(c) copies made from or compared with the original
67. Doctrine of Estoppel is based on the maxim "allegans contratia non est. audiendus'
i.e. a person contraty facts should not be heard
(a) True
(b) False
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
C C A C C D C D D B B C B B D
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A A A D A D D B C D B B D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
D C D A A D C B A C A D C B C
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C C A D B D A C C A A C A D A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67
D A A D C D A
Page 201
CHAPTER 23
CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE
1. CPC Stands for
(a) Civil Procedure Code
(b) Civil Protection Code
(c) Chief Procedure Code
(d) Central Procedure Code
2. Which of the following statement is false
(a) The Civil Procedure Code consolidates and amends the law relating to the procedure of
the Courts of Civil Jurisdiction.
(b) The Code does not affect any special or local laws nor does it supersede any special
jurisdiction or power conferred or any special form of procedure prescribed by or under
any other law for the time being in force
(c) The Code is the general law so that in case of conflict between the Code and the special
law the latter prevails over the former. Where the special law is silent on a particular
matter the Code applies, but consistent with the special enactment
(d) The code prevails over special law
3. “Judgement” as defined in Section 2(9) of the Civil Procedure Code means
(a) The statement given by the Judge on the grounds of a decree or order.
(b) Thus a judgement must set out the grounds and reasons for the Judge to have arrived at
the decision
(c) In other words, a judgement” is the decision of a Court of justice upon the respective
rights and claims of the parties to an action in a suit submitted to it for determination
4. Essentials of a decree are
(a) There must be a formal expression of adjudication.
(b) There must be a conclusive determination of the rights of parties and the determination
must be with regard to or any of the matters in contravention in the suit
(c) The adjudication should have been given in the suit
5. A decree may be
(a) partly preliminary.
(b) partly final
(c) Both (a) and (b).
6. A decree comes into existence as soon as the _______ is pronounced and not on the
date when it is sealed and signed
(a) Order
(b) Decision
(c) Judgement
Page 202
(d) Action
7. Which of the following statement is true
(a) The preliminary decree is not dependent on the final.
(b) The preliminary decree is dependent on the final
(c) The preliminary decree is partly dependent on the final
(a) Final decree is dependent and subordinate to the preliminary decree.
(b) Final decree is neither dependent nor subordinate to the preliminary decree
(c) Final decree is partly dependent and subordinate to the preliminary decree
9. ____________ means any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an
order capable of execution has been made
(a) Decree-holder
(b) Judgement holder
(c) Decree-debtor
(d) Judgement debtor
10. ______________means any person against whom a decree has been passed or an
order capable of execution has been made
(a) Decree-holder
(b) Judgment holder
(c) Decree-debtor
(d) Judgement debtor
11. According to Section 104 of the Code, no appeal lies against orders other than what is
expressly provided in the Code or any other law for the time being in force. Under the
Code appealable orders are
(a) an order under section 35A, i.e. for compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious
claims within pecuniary jurisdiction of the Court, but only for the limited ground that no
order should have been made, or that such order should have been made for a lesser
amount
(b) an order under section 91 or Section 92 refusing leave to institute a suit under section 91
(Public nuisances and other wrongful acts affecting the public) or Section 92 (alleged
breach of trust created for public purposes of a charitable or religious nature) an order
under section 95, i.e. compensation for obtaining arrest attachment or injunction on
insufficient grounds
(c) an order under any of the provisions of the Code imposing a fine or directing the arrest or
detention in the civil prison of any person except where such arrest or detention is in
execution of a decree
(d) all of the above
Page 203
12. The Court may, on the application of any party to a suit, pass orders on different
applications and any order which is not the final order in a suit is called an order”.
(a) Temporary
(b) Interim
(c) Final
(d) Interlocutory
13. The main difference between an order and a decree is that
(a) When in an adjudication which is a decree appeal lies and second appeal also lies on the
grounds mentioned in Section 100 of CPC. However, no appeal
lies from an order unless it is expressly provided under section 104 and Order 43 Rule 1.
No second appeal in any case lies at all even in case of appealable
orders.
(b) A decree conclusively determines the rights and liabilities of the parties with regard to all
or any of the matters in controversy in the suit and may be either preliminary or final but
this is not the case in order
(c) Both (a) and (b).
14. A limitation on jurisdiction of a Civil Court may be any of the following
(a) Jurisdiction over the subject matter
(b) Place of suing or territorial jurisdiction
(c) Jurisdiction over persons
(d) Pecuniary jurisdiction depending on pecuniary value of the suit
(e) All of the above
(a) CMI Courts have jurisdiction to entertain a suit of civil nature unless barred by
law.
(b) Civil Court has jurisdiction to decide the question of its jurisdiction although as a result
of the enquiry it may be found that it has no jurisdiction over the matter
(c) Jurisdiction is determinable at the commencement not at the conclusion of the inquiry
(d) Jurisdiction can be determinable at the commencement or at the conclusion of the inquiry
16. Section 10 provides that no Court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the
matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit
between the same parties or between parties under whom they or any of them claim,
litigating under the same title, where such suit is pending in the same or any other Court
(in India) having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any Court beyond the
limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like
jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court. This is known as Doctrine of_______
(a) Res sub judice.
(b) Doctrine of eclipse
Page 204
(d) None of these

17. Essential conditions for stay of suits under Doctrine of Res sub judice are
(a) There must be two suits instituted at different times.
(b) The matter in issue in the later suit should be directly and substantially in issue in the
earlier suit
(c) Such suit should be between the same parties and Such earlier suit is still pending either
in the same Court or in any other competent Court but not before a foreign Court
18. Which Section is enacted to prevent the Courts of concurrent jurisdiction from
simultaneously trying two parallel suits in respect of same matter in issue
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 10
(c) Section 11
(d) Section 12
19. Section 15 lays down that every suit shall be instituted in the Court of the
__________ grade to try it
(a) Highest
(b) Middle
(c) Lowest
20. Where the jurisdiction for a suit is to obtain relief respecting, or compensation for
wrong to immovable property situated within the local limits of jurisdiction of different
courts, the suit may be instituted in __________ within the local limits of whose
jurisdiction the property is situated provided the value of the entire claim is cognizable
by such court
(a) Any court
(b) Both the court
(c) Court of Jurisdiction where property is situated
21. Where a suit is for compensation for wrong done to the person or to movable
property, if the wrong was done within the local limits of the jurisdiction of one court
and the defendant resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain, within
the local limits of the jurisdiction of another court, the suit may be instituted at the
option of the plaintiff in _________ of the courts
(a) Both
(b) Either
(c) Permission is to be taken from both court as to where to file a suit
22. Where there might be two or more competent courts which could entertain a suit
consequent upon a part of cause of action having arisen therewith if the parties to the
Page 205
contract agreed to vest jurisdiction in one such court to try the dispute. Such an
agreement would be
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Voidable
23. ___________ in Section 11 of the Civil Procedure Code deals with bar or restraint on
repetition of litigation of the same issues
(a) Res sub judice
(b) Res Judicata
(c) Doctrine of us pendens
(d) Doctrine of waiver
24. For the applicability of the principle of res judicata embodied in Section 11, which of
the requirements are necessary
(a) The matter directly and substantially in issue in former suit shall also be directly and
substantially in issue in later suit.
(b) The said issue has been heard and finally decided
(c) Such former suit and the latter are between the same parties or litigation under the same
title or persons claiming under parties above
25. ___________principle applies where an issue which has been raised in a subsequent
suit was directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties and
was heard and decided finally
(a) Res sub judice.
(b) Res Judicata
(c) Doctrine of lis pendens
26. Even if erroneous, an inter party judgement binds the party if the court of
competent jurisdiction has decided the us
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Depends on case to case
27. The principle of res judicata does not generally apply to a consent or compromise
decree
(a) True
(b) False
Page 206
28. The rule of_______________ relates toa matter which is pending judicial enquiry
while _______________ relates to a matter adjudicated upon or a matter on which
judgement has been pronounced
(a) Res sub judice and us pendens.
(b) Res judicata and lis pendens
(c) Res sub judice and Res judicata
(d) Res judicata and Res sub judice
29. ______________ arises out of considerations of public policy viz., that there should be
an end to litigation on the same matter
(a) Res sub judice
(b) lis pendens
(c) Res judicata
30. Dismissal of a suit for default, where there has been no adjudication on the merits of
the application, will not operate as res judicata
(a) True
(b) False
31. Explanation states that any relief claimed in the plaint but not expressly granted shall
be deemed to have been refused. This is known as
(a) Doctrine of Res sub judice
(b) Doctrine of Constructive Res Judicata
(c) Doctrine of lis pendens
32. Res-Judicata does not presume conclusively the truth of the former decision and ousts
the jurisdiction of the Court to try the case
(a) True
(b) False
33. ___________ is a reciprocal acquittal of debts between the plaintiff and defendant. It
has the effect of extinguishing the plaintiff’s claim to the extent of the amount claimed by
the defendant as a counter claim
(a) Set-up
(b) Set-on
(c) Set-off
(d) Counter-Claim
34. A defendant in a suit may, in addition to his right of pleading a set-off under Rule6,
set up by way of __________________ against the claim of the plaintiff, any right or
claim In respect of a cause of action accruing to the defendant against the plaintiff either
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before or after the filling of the suit but before the defendant has delivered his defence or
before the time limited for delivering his defence has expired
(a) Set-up
(b) Set-on
(c) Set-off
(d) Counter-Claim
35. ___________________means claim set-off in respect of an unascertained sum of
money where the claim arises out of the same transaction, or transactions which can be
considered as one transaction, or where there is knowledge on both sides of an existing
debt due to one party and a credit by the other party found on and trusting to such debt
as a means of discharging it
(a) Set-off
(b) Counter-Claim
(c) Equitable set-off
(d) Set-up
36. __________________ are passed by court to restrain any such act or make such other
order for the purpose of staying and preventing the wasting, damaging, alienation or
sale or removal or disposition of the property or dispossession of the plaintiff, or
otherwise causing injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the Suit
(b) Interlocutory orders
(c) Order
(d) Judgment
37. The Court may grant temporary injunction where it can be proved
(a) That any property in dispute in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated
by any party to the suit, or wrongfully sold in execution of a decree.
(b) That the defendant threatens, or intends to remove or dispose of his property with a view
to defrauding his creditors
(c) That the defendant threatens to dispossess the plaintiff or otherwise cause injury to the
plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit
38. In order to obtain temporary injunction it is not necessary for the plaintiff to satisfy
the Court that substantial and irreparable harm or injury would be suffered by him
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Depends on the discretion of Court
39. The Court may, on the application of any party to a suit order the sale, by any person
named in such order, and in such manner and on such terms as it thinks fit, of any
movable property, being the subject-matter of such suit, or attached before judgement
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in such suit, which is subject to speedy and natural decay, or which for any other just
and sufficient cause it may be desirable to be sold at once. Such orders by the court are
known as
(b) Interlocutory orders
(c) Decree
(d) Judgment
40. Which among the following statement is true: The
court may, on application of any party to a suit, and on such terms as it thinks fit
(a) make an order for the detention, preservation or inspection of any property which is the
subject-matter of such suit or as to which any question may arise therein.
(b) for all or any of the purposes as in (a) above, authorise any person to enter upon or into
any land or building in the possession of any other party to such suit
(c) for all or any of the purpose as in (a) above authorise any samples to oe taken, or any
observation to be made or experiment to be tried, which may seem necessary or
expedient for the purpose of obtaining full information or evidence
41. _________ ordinarily is a civil action started by presenting a plaint in duplicate to the
court containing concise statement of the material facts, on which the party pleading
relies for his claim or defence
(a) Case
(b) Complaint
(c) Suit
(d) Order
42. In every plaint the facts must be proved by an __________
(a) Advocate
(b) Affidavit
(c) Evidence
(d) Fact
43. The main essentials of the suit are
(a) The opposing parties
(b) The cause of action
(c) The subject matter of the suit, and the relief(s) claimed
44. Where a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of or intentionally relinquishes any portion of
his claim, he shall not afterwards sue in respect of the portion so omitted or relinquished
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can sue with the permission of court
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45. Where more than one persons joined in one suit as plaintiffs or defendants in whom
or against whom any right to relief does not arise or against whom separate suits are
brought, no common question of law or fact would arise, it is a case of
(a) Misjoinder of Court
(b) Misjoinder of parties
(c) Misjoinder of plaintiffs
(d) Misjoinder of defendants
46. What is the essential factors to avoid Misjoinder of parties
(a) the right to relief must arise out of the same act or transaction brought by the plaintiffs or
against the defendants
(b) there is a common question of law or fact
(d) Either (a) or (b)
47. It is sufficient that if there is one common question of law or of fact to avoid
misjoinder of parties
(a) True
(b) False
48. “___________ “means every fact which, if traversed, would be necessary for the
plaintiff to prove in order to support his right to the judgement of the Court
(a) Plaint
(b) Cause of action
(c) Cause of protection
(d) Claim
49. If the plaintiffs are not jointly interested in all the causes of action there is
(a) misjoinder of causes of action
(b) misjoinder of parties
(d) Cause of protection
50. When the suit has been duly instituted, the Court issues an order known as _________
to the defendant to appear and answer the claim and to file the written statement of his
defence if any
(a) Notice
(b) Summons
(c) Letter
51. When Court issues Summons, defendant has to appear within ________ days from the
date of service of summons
(a) 10
(b) 25
(c) 30
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(d) 45
52. If the defendant fails to file the written statement within the prescribed period of 30
days, he is allowed to file the same on such other days as specified by the Court for
reasons to be recorded in writing but not later than _______ days from the date of
service of summons
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 120
(d) 180
53. Every summons must be signed by
(a) the judge
(b) authorised officer of the Court
(d) Both(a) or (b)
54. Every summons need not be accompanied by a copy of the plaint
(a) False
(b) True
55. When an acknowledgement or any other receipt purporting, to be signed by the
defendant or his agent is received by the Court or postal article containing the summons
is received back by the Court with an endorsement purporting to have been made by a
postal employee or by any person authorised by the courier service to the effect that the
defendant or his agent had refused to take delivery of the postal article containing the
summons or had refused to accept the summons by any other means specified in sub-
rule (3) when tendered or transmitted to him, the Court issuing the summons shall
declare that the summons
(a) had not been duly served on the defendant
(b) had been duly served on the defendant
(c) is required to be served second time
(d) is required to be served second time personally by plaintiff
56. In the case of a defendant who is a ______________, the court may, if more
convenient, send the summons to the head of the office in which he is employed
(a) public officer
(b) servant of railways
(c) servant of local authority
(a) Any document which ought to be produced in the Court but is not so produced, such
document shall not be received in evidence at the time of hearing of the suit without the
leave of the Court.
(b) Particulars of set-off must be given in the written statement by defendant
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(c) Any right of counter claim must be stated by defendant in response to the summons
58. If the defendant is absent in spite of service of summons and the plaintiff appears, the
Court may proceed
(a) Ex-parte.
(b) To ask plaintiff to make a fresh application
(c) Ex-decision
(d) Ex-solution
59. A defendant has following remedies available if an ex-parte decree is passed against
him
(a) He may file an appeal against the ex-parte decree under section 96 of the
C.P.C
(b) He may file an application for review of the judgment
(c) He may apply for setting aside the ex-parte decree
(d) A suit can also be filed to set aside an ex-parte decree obtained by fraud
60. Discovery may be
(a) by interrogatories
(b) by documents
(d) None of these
61. A party may refuse to produce the document for inspection on the following
grounds
(a) where it discloses a party evidence
(b) by documents
(d) None of these
62. _________________“ means that one party accepts the case of the other party in
whole or in part to be true
(a) Acceptance
(b) Discovery
(c) Admission
(d) None of these
63. An ______________ is a written statement of the deponent on oath duly affirmed
before any Court or Magistrate or any Oath Commissioner appointed by the court or
before the Notary Public
(a) Plaint
(b) Complaint
(c) Plea
(d) Affidavit
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64. If the judgment is not pronounced at once every endeavour shall be made by the
Court to pronounce the judgment within a period of _______ days from the date on
which the hearing of the case was concluded
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120
(a) The judgment must be dated.
(b) The judgment must be signed by the judge
(c) The judgment must be dated and signed by the judge
66. Decree should be drawn up expeditiously and in any case within a period of
days from the date on which the judgment is pronounced
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
67. ______________ is the enforcement of decrees or orders of the Court
(a) Judgment
(b) Decision
(c) Execution
68. Right to appeal is a
(a) Inherent right
(b) Natural right
(c) Right provided by statue
(d) None of these
69. Various types of appeals provided under the Civil Procedure Code are
(a) Appeals from original Decrees
(b) Second Appeals
(c) Appeals from Orders
(d) Appeals to the Supreme Court
70. Appeals from original decrees may be preferred in the Court _______ to the Court
passing the decree
(a) Superior
(b) Inferior
(c) Lower
(d) None of these
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71. No appeal lies in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of small causes when the
amount or value of the subject matter of the original suit does not exceed _______
thousand rupees
(a) One
(b) Ten
(c) Twenty
(d) Fifty
72. As per Section 100 of the Civil Procedure Code, an appeal lies to the _____________
from every decree passed in appeal by any subordinate Court if the High Court is
satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) Civil Court
(d) District Court
73. Second appeal lies to the High Court in case where
(a) Substantial question of law is involved
(b) Substantial question of fact is involved
(d) Both (a) and (b).
74. Under what circumstances Appeals to the Supreme Court would lie
(a) from any decree or order of Civil Court when the case is certified by the Court deciding it
to be fit for appeal to the Supreme Court or when special leave is granted under section
112 by the Supreme Court Itself.
(b) from any judgment, decree or final order passed on appeal by a High Court or by any
other court of final appellate jurisdiction
(c) from any judgment, decree or final orders passed by a High Court in exercise of original
civil jurisdiction
75. Under what circumstance the appellate court has a discretion to allow additional
evidence
(a) When the lower court has refused to admit evidence which ought to have been admitted.
(b) The appellate court requires any document to be produced or any witness to be examined
to enable it to pronounce judgment
(c) For any other substantial cause
76. How many kinds of Appeals are there under the Civil Procedure Code?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
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77. At any time before judgment a court in which a suit has been instituted may state a
case and refer the same for opinion of the High Court and the High Court may- make
such order thereon as it thinks fit. This is known as ____________________
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) Forwarding of case
78. Any person considering himself aggrieved by a decree or order may apply for a
_____________ of judgment to the court which passed the decree or made the order
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
79. Aggrieved person can make a review on any of the following grounds
(a) discovery by the applicant of new and important matter or evidence which, after the
exercise of due diligence, was not within his knowledge or could not be produced by him
at the time when the decree was passed or order made.
(b) on account of some mistake or error apparent on the face of the record
(c) for any other sufficient reason
80. The High Court may call for the record of any case which has been decided by any
Court subordinate to such High Court and in which no appeal lies thereto. This is
known as ____________
(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
81. The High Court may call for revision where it appears that subordinate Court
(a) have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law.
(b) have failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested
(c) have acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity
82. In suits by or against a corporation, any pleading may be signed and verified on
behalf of the corporation
(a) by the secretary
(b) by any director
(c) other principal officer of the corporation
83. A minor is a person who has not completed the age of _________Years
(a) 15
Page 215
(b) 18
(c) 21
(d) 24
84. Every suit by a minor shall be instituted in his name by a person who in such suit
shall be called the ___________of the minor
(a) Next friend
(b) Next relative
(c) Next guardian
(d) Friend
85. A procedure by way of summary suit applies to suits upon
(a) bill of exchange
(b) hundies
(c) promissory notes
86. The summary suit must be brought within _________ year from the date on which the
debt becomes due and payable
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
87. To which of the Courts are the rules for summary suit procedure applicable?
(a) High Courts
(b) City Civil Courts
(c) Small Courts
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A D D D C C A A A D D D C E D
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A D B C A B A B D B A A C C A
Page 216
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
B B C D C A D B B D C B D A B
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C A B A B C B C A B D D A E C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
D C D A D B C C E A B B A D D
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87
D A B D C D D C A D A D
CHAPTER 24
CRIMINAL PROCEDURE CODE
1. The law of criminal procedure is intended to provide a mechanism for the
enforcement of
(a) Criminal Law
(b) Civil Law
2. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (Cr. P.C.) was repealed by the Code of
(a) 1971
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
3. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is an Act to consolidate and amend the law
relating to
(a) Criminal Procedure
(b) Civil Procedure
Page 217
(c) Both (a) and(b)

4. Mens rea means a
(a) Guilty mind
(b) Mistake
(c) Correction
5. Unless an act is done with a guilty intention, it will not be criminally punishable
(a) True
(b) False
6. “_______“ means an offence for which, and “cognizable case” means a case in which,
a police officer may, in accordance with the First Schedule or under any other law for
the time being in force, arrest without warrant
(a) Cognizable offence V
(b) Non- Cognizable offence
(c) Both(a) and (b)
7. A “_______“ means an offence which is shown as bailable in the First
Schedule or which is made bailable by any other law for the time being in force
(a) Non- bailable offence
(b) Bailable offence
(c) Cognizable offence
(d) Non- Cognizable offence
8. “_______“ means any allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate, with a view
to his taking action under this Code, that some person, whether known or unknown, has
Committed an offence
(a) Case
(b) Report
(c) Complaint
9. The requisites of a complaint are
(a) an oral or a written allegation
(b) some person known or Unknown has committed an offence
(c) it must be made to a magistrate
10. An “_______" is granted by the High Court or a Court of Session, to a person who
apprehends arrest for having committed a non-bailable offence, but has not yet been
arrested
(a) Temporary bail
(b) Permanent bail
Page 218
(c) anticipatory bail

(d) Partial bail
11. The three stages of a criminal procedure are ________, ______, ________
respectively
(a) ‘Inquiry’, ‘trial’ and ‘investigation’.
(b) ‘investigation’, ‘trial’ and ‘inquiry’
(c) ‘inquiry’, ‘investigation’ and ‘trial’
(d) ‘investigation’, ‘inquiry’ and ‘trial’
12. It includes all the proceedings under this Code for the collection of evidence
conducted by a police officer or by any person who is authorized by a Magistrate in this
behalf
(a) Inquiry
(b) Trial
(c) Investigation
13. The term judicial proceeding includes
(a) Inquiry and trial but not investigation.
(b) investigation and trial but not inquiry
(c) investigation and inquiry but not trial
(d) only inquiry
14. A “__________“ means any person appointed under section 24 of the Criminal
Procedure Code and is an officer of the Court
(a) Private prosecutor
(b) Public prosecutor
(c) Both(a) and(b)
15. __________ means a case relating to an offence punishable with death,
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
(a) Summon Case
(b) Warrant Case
(c) Police Case
16. Which of the following is not a class of criminal courts?
(a) High Courts
(b) Courts of Session
(c) Judicial Magistrates of the first and second class, Executive Magistrate
(d) Consumer Court
17. According to Section 28, a High Court may pass any sentence authorised by law
(a) True
(b) False
Page 219

(a) The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by law except
a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding
seven years.
(b) A Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not
exceeding three years or of a fine not exceeding five thousand rupees, or of both
(c) A Magistrate of the second class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not
exceeding one year, or of fine not exceeding one thousand rupees, or of both
19. A police officer may arrest a person without an order from a Magistrate and without
a warrant in the following case
(a) Who has been concerned in any cognizable offence
(b) Who has been proclaimed as an offender
(c) Who obstructs a police officer while in the execution of his duty
20. When a person is arrested without a warrant, he/she can be kept in the custody not
more than
(a) 24 hours
(b) 48 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 72 hours
21. The, general processes to compel appearance are
(a) Summons
(b) Warrants
(c) Both(a) and (b)
22. A __________ is issued either for appearance or for producing a document or thing
which may be issued to an accused person or witness
(a) Summon
(b) Warrant
(c) Notice
23. Summon issued by the Court shall be in
(a) Oral
(b) Writing
(c) Oral or writing
(d) Depend on case to case
24. The summons can be served by a
(a) police officer
(b) Officer of the Court
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(c) Public servant

(a) Warrant must bear the name and designation of the person who is to execute it
(b) Warrant must state the offence charged
(c) Warrant may be in oral
(d) Warrant must be signed by the presiding officer
26. Where a warrant remains unexecuted, the Code provides for following remedies
(a) issuing a proclamation
(b) attachment and sale of property
(c) Both(a) and (b)
27. Search warrant cannot be issued in the following case
(a) Where the Court has reason to believe that a person summoned to produce any document
or other thing will not produce it.
(b) Where such document or thing is not known to the Court to be in the possession of any
person
(c) Where a general inspection or search is necessary
(d) For searching a document, parcel or other thing in the custody of the postal or telegraph
authority, by a magistrate
28. If a case relates to two or more offences and one of the offences is a cognizable
offence, the case will be treated as a non-cognizable case
(a) True
(b) False
29. Section relates to cognizance of offences by Magistrates
(a) 188
(b) 189
(c) 190
(d) 191
30. Summons or warrant cannot be issued against the accused unless and until the list of
prosecution witnesses has been file(d)
(a) True
(b) False
31. __________ means the “speedy disposal” of cases
(a) Fast trials
(b) Summary trials
(c) Speedy trials
(d) Limited trials
32. Summary trial will apply to such offences not punishable with imprisonment for a
term exceeding years
Page 221
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
33. Which of the following judicial authority cannot conduct a summary trial?
(a) Any Judge of a High Court
(b) Any Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) Any Metropolitan Magistrate
(d) Any first class Magistrate empowered by a High Court
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A C A A A A B C D C D C A B B
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D A D D A C A B D C D B C C A
31 32 33
B B A
CHAPTER 25
RIGHT TO INFORMATION
1. Right to Information Act was enacted in Year
(a) 2002
(b) 2005
(c) 2007
(d) 2010
2. RTI stands for
(a) Right to Intelligence
(b) Right to Information
(c) Right to Interact
(d) Right to Inform
3. Right to Information (RTI) came into force
(a) w.e.f. January 12, 2005
(b) w.e.f. July 12, 2005
(c) w.e.f. August 12, 2005
Page 222
(d) w.e.f. October 12, 2005

4. The right to impart and receive information is a species of
(a) Right to freedom of speech and expression
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Religion
5. Which of the following Articles grant us right of freedom of speech and expression
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 19(1)
(c) Article 19(1)(a)
(d) Article 21
6. The RTI Act extends to
(a) the whole of India.
(b) the whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir
(c) only in Jammu & Kashmir
(d) none of these
7. Right to Information shall apply to
(a) Public Authorities
(b) Private Authorities
(c) Non Government Organization
(d) None of these
8. The objectives of Right to Information is
(a) RTI Act confers on all citizens a right to information
(b) Setting out the practical regime of right to information for citizens to secure access to
information held by public authorities
(c) To promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority
9. “Public Authority” under Right to Information Act means any authority or body or
institution of self government established or constituted
(a) By or under the Constitution
(b) By any other law made by Parliament and State Legislature
(c) By notification issued or order made by the appropriate Govt
10. “Record” under Right to Information Act means
(a) Any document, manuscript and file
(b) Any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document
(c) Any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm (whether enlarged or
not)
(d) Any other material produced by a computer or any other device
Page 223
11. “Information” under Right to Information Act does not include

(a) Records
(b) Memos
(c) E-mails
(d) Notices
12. “Right to information” means the right to information accessible under this act which
is held by or under the control of any public authority and includes the right to
(a) Taking notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records
(b) Inspection of work, documents, records and taking certified samples of material
(c) Obtaining information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any
other electronic mode or through printouts where such information Is stored in a
computer or in any other device
13. “Third party” under Right to Information Act means a person other than the citizen
making a request for information and includes a
(a) Public authority
(b) Private Institutions
(c) Non Government organizations
(d) All of these
14. Every public authority has to publish within one hundred and twenty days of the
enactment of this Act
(a) The particulars of its organization, functions and duties
(b) The powers and duties of its officers and employees
(c) The procedure followed in its decision making process, including channels of supervision
and accountability
15. PlO Stands for
(a) Public Intelligence officer
(b) Private Intelligence officer
(c) Public Information officer
(d) Private Information officer
16. Every public authority has to Designate in all administrative units or offices
_________ or _________ Public Information Officers to provide information to. persons
who have made a request for the information
(a) Central or State
(b) Central Assistant or State Assistant
(c) Chief and Sub chief
17. Every public authority has to Designate at each sub-divisional level or sub-district
level ___________ or __________ Public Information Officers to receive the applications
Page 224
for information or appeals for forwarding the same to the Central or State Public
Information Officers
(a) Central or State
(b) Central Assistant or State Assistant
(c) Chief and Sub chief
18. Application is to be submitted
(a) in writing
(b) electronically
(c) in writing or electronically
(d) Both (a) or (b).
19. Application is to be submitted to
(a) Public Intelligence officer
(b) Private Intelligence officer
(c) Public Information officer
(d) Private Information officer
20. Information to be provided within ______ days by Public Information officer
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
21. Information to be provided within ______ hours by Public Information officer where
life or liberty is involved
(a) 96
(b) 72
(c) 48
(d) 24
22. information to be provided within ______ days where request is given to Assistant
Public Information officer
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 40
23. Time taken for calculation and intimation of fees is _______ from the time frame
(a) Excluded
(b) Included
(c) Excluded or included depends on case to case
(d) Excluded or included depends on discretion of PlO
24. No action on application for ______ days is a deemed refusal
(a) 15
Page 225
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
25. If the interests of a third party are involved then time limit will be _______ days
(maximum period + time given to the party to make representation).
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 60
26. If the information requested for is held by or its subject matter is closely connected
with the function of another public authority, the PlO shall transfer, within _______
days, the request to that other public authority and inform the applicant Immediately
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
27. if the information requested for is held by or its subject matter is closely connected
with the function of another public authority
(a) The PIO shall transfer, within 5 days, the request to that other public authority
(b) The PlO is not under obligation to transfer the request to that other public authority
(c) Depends on the discretion of PlO to transfer or not
28. Where a request has been rejected, the PlO shall communicate to the requester
(a) The reasons for such rejection
(b) The period within which an appeal against such rejection may be preferred
(c) The particulars of the Appellate Authority.
29. Which of the information is true
(a) All information requested is compulsorily required to be given by PlO
(b) Information to be provided or not depends on sole discretion of PlO
(c) Certain categories of information have been exempted from disclosure under the Right to
Information Act.
30. Which among the below information have been exempted from disclosure under the
Right to Information Act
(a) Where disclosure prejudicially affects the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security,
strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead
to incitement of an offence
(b) Information which has been expressly forbidden by any court or tribunal or the disclosure
of which may constitute contempt of court
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(c) Where disclosure would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature
31. Is Public Information Officer empowered to reject a request for information where an
infringement of a copyright subsisting in a person would be involved
(a) True
(b) False
32. As per Section 10 of the Act if the request for access to information is rejected on the
ground that it is in relation to the information which is exempt from disclosure, in that
event access may be provided to that part of the record which does not contain any
information which is exempt from disclosure under this act and which can be reasonably
severed from any part that contains exempt information
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Complete information is to be provided as partial disclosure is not allowed
(d) None of these
33. Who all are excluded from providing information under Right to Information Act
(a) IB, R&AW, Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
(b) Central Economic Intelligence Bureau, Directorate of Enforcement, Narcotics Control
Bureau
(c) Aviation Research Centre, Special Frontier Force, 8SF, CRPF, ITBP, CISF, NSG, Assam
Rifles, Special Service Bureau, Special Branch (CID), Andaman and Nicobar, the Crime
Branch-CID-CB, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Special Branch, Lakshadweep Police
(d) All of these
34. The Act excludes Central Intelligence and Security agencies specified in the
Second Schedule to provide information. The exclusion, however, is not absolute
and these organizations have an obligation to provide information pertaining to
(a) allegations of corruption
(b) human rights violations
(d) These agencies have absolute exemption
35. Information relating to allegations of human rights violation shall be given by Central
Intelligence and Security agencies specified in the Second Schedule only with the
approval of the Central Information Commission within days from the date of the
receipt of request
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) 100
36. CIC Stand for
(a) Central Information Commission
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(b) Central Intelligence Commission

(c) Central Information Court
(d) Central Intelligence Court
37. SIC Stand for
(a) State Information Commission
(b) State Intelligence Commission
(c) State Information Court
(d) State Intelligence Court
38. The Central Information Commission consists of the
(a) Chief Information Commissioner
(b) Central Information Commissioners
(d) Either (a) or (b).
39. The head quarter of Central Information commission will be at
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Kolkata
40. Which of the following acts as a chairman of the Central Information Commission
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) The Leader of Opposition in the Parliament
(d) Any designated member of the Parliament
41. The Central Information Commission/State Information Commission has a duty to
receive complaints from any person
(a) who has not been able to submit an information request because a PlO has not been
appointed or who has been refused information that was requested
(b) who has received no response to his/her information request within the specified time
limits or who thinks information given is incomplete or false or misleading
(c) who thinks the fees charged are unreasonable
42. An person who does not receive a decision within the specified time or is aggrieved by
a decision of the PlO may file a first appeal under the Act to
(a) Central Information Commission or State Information Commission
(b) Public Intelligence officer
(c) Chief Intelligence officer
(d) Officer senior in rank to the PlO in the concerned Public Authority
43. Any person who does not receive a decision within the specified time or is aggrieved
by a decision of the PlO may file a first appeal under the Act within
(a) 10 days from the expiry of the prescribed time limit or from the receipt of the decision
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(b) 20 days from the expiry of the prescribed time limit or from the receipt of the decision
(c) 30 days from the expiry of the prescribed time limit or from the receipt of the decision
(d) 40 days from the expiry of the prescribed time limit or from the receipt of the decision
44. Any person who does not receive a decision within the specified time or is
aggrieved by a decision of the PlO may file a second appeal under the Act to
(a) Central Information Commission or State Information Commission
(b) Public Intelligence officer
(c) Chief Intelligence officer
45. Any person who does not receive a decision within the specified time or is aggrieved
by a decision of the PlO may file a second appeal under the Act within
(a) 30 of the date on which the decision was given or should have been made by the First
Appellate Authority.
(b) 60 of the date on which the decision was given or should have been made by the First
Appellate Authority
(c) 90 of the date on which the decision was given or should have been made by the First
Appellate Authority
(d) 120 of the date on which the decision was given or should have been made by the First
Appellate Authority
46. Third Party appeal against PlO’s decision must be filed within _______ days before
first Appellate Authority; and, within _____ days of the decision on the first appeal,
before the appropriate Information Commission which is the second appellate authority
(a) 10 and 30 days
(b) 20 and 60 days
(c) 30 and 90 days
(d) 40 and 20 days
47. Burden of proving that denial of information was justified lies with the
(a) PlO
(b) Applicant
(c) Both PlO and Applicant
(d) None of these
48. First Appeal shall be disposed of within ______ days from the date of its receipt or
within such extended period not exceeding a total of ___________ days from the date of
filing thereof, for reasons to be recorded in writing
(a) 30 and45
(b) 35 and 40
(c) 50 and 100
(d) 180 and 360
49. Time limit for disposing first appeal can be extended by _______ days if necessary
(a) 5
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(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
50. Section 20 of the Act imposes stringent penalty on a Public Information Officer (PlO)
for failing to provide information. Every PlO will be liable for fine of per day, up to a
maximum of Rs. ________ /-.
(a) 250 and 25,000
(b) 500 and 50,000
(c) 750 and 75,000
(d) 1,000 and 1,00,000
51. The ________________ at the Centre and at the State levels will have the power to
impose this penalty under Right to Information Act
(a) Information Commission (IC)
(b) High Court
(c) Civil Court
52. Which of the following Statement is true
(a) As per Section 23, lower Courts are not barred from entertaining suits or applications
against any order made under this Act.
(b) As per Section 23, lower Courts are barred from entertaining suits or applications against
any order made under this Act
(c) Information Commission may ask lower courts to entertaining suits or applications
against any order made under this Act
(d) None of these
53. Section 26 contemplates the Role of Central/State Governments. It authorizes the
Central/State Governments to
(a) ` Develop and organize educational programmes for the public especially disadvantaged
communities on RTI and Encourage public authorities to participate in the development
and organization of such programmes.
(b) Promote timely and effective dissemination of accurate information by the public
authorities and Train officers and develop training materials
(c) Compile and disseminate a User Guide for the public in the respective official language
and publish names, designation, postal addresses and contact details of PIOs and other
information such as notices regarding fees to be paid, remedies available in law if request
is rejected etc
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ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
B B D A C B A D D E D D A D C
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B D C B C C A B C A A D C D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A A D C B A A C A B D D C A C
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53
C A A C A A B D
MODEL TEST PAPER - 1

1. Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948 means, a person who has completed:
(a) 21 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 16 years
2. Women workers shall not e employed except between the hours
(a) 5 a.m. and 8 p.m.
(b) 5 a.m. and 9 p.m.
(c) 6 a.m. and 7 p.m.
(d) 6 a.m. and 9 p.m.
3. An adult worker has been allowed leave for not less than _____ days, wages due for
the leave period should be paid in advance
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
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(d) 7
4. What is the maximum number of hours that a child can be employed for as per the
(a) 3½ hours in any day
(b) 4½ hours in any day
(c) 5½ hours in any day
(d) 6½ hours in any day
5. Which of the following does not constitute a factory as per the act?
(a) Mine
(b) Mobile Unit of Armed forces
(c) Hotel
(d) All the above
6. The term ‘wages’ for the purpose of Minimum Wages Act, 1948 does not includes
(a) HRA
(b) Traveling allowance
(c) PF
(d) All the above
7. Under Notification Method, the appropriate Government consult __________ and
thereafter fix or revise the minimum rates of wages
(a) Consultancy Board
(b) Advisory Board
(c) Censor Board
(d) CBDT
8. As per Minimum Wages, 1948 who is required to maintain registers and records?
(a) Chartered Accountant
(b) Company Secretary
(c) Collector
(d) Employer
9. The wages of every person employed in establishment in which more than one
thousand persons are employed, shall be paid before the expiry of the _____ day
(a) One
(b) Seventh
(c) Tenth
(d) Thirty
10. Wages for the purpose of Payment of Wages shall be paid in
(a) current coin
(b) currency notes
(c) Both the above
(d) Outdated coin
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11. Can the employer pay the wages either by cheque or by crediting the wages In
employee’s bank account ?
(a) On oral authorisation
(b) On written authorisation
(c) Oral or written authorisation
(d) Never
12. No fine shall be imposed on any employed person who is Under the age of_______
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 18
13. The term wages for the purpose of Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act includes
(a) basic wages with dearness allowance
(b) retaining allowance
(c) cash value of food concession
specified in which Schedule I with _______ persons or more
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 100
15. __________ can extend the provisions of the Employees’ Provident Funds and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act to any establishment
(a) State Govt.
(b) Central Govt.
(c) Collector
(d) President
16. Pension is payable up to two children at a time till they attain the age of
(a) 18 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 22 years
(d) 25 years
17. If there are no parents alive, the scheme provides for orphan pension at the rate of
_______ of the Widow pension payable to orphans
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
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18. The employers of all covered establishments are required to pay charges to the
Insurance Fund, at the rate of __________ the pay
(a) 0.01%
(b) 1%
(c) 1.33%
(d) 8.33%
19. Payment of bonus Act applies to any establishment which is a factory or where more
than _____ persons are employed in a year
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 100
20. Appropriate Government may after giving not less than _______ notice of its
intention, by notification in the Official Gazette apply the provisions of Payment of
Bonus Act to any establishment
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
21. The bonus Should be paid Within a period of _______ months from the close of the
accounting year
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 8
22. _________ having regard to the financial position and other relevant circumstances,
may by notification in the Official Gazette, exempt for such period such establishment or
class of establishments from Bonus Act
(b) Collector
(c) Occupier
(d) President
23. The employer shall arrange to pay the amount of gratuity Within from the
date of its becoming payable to the person to whom it is payable?
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
24. The employer shall pay, from the date on which the gratuity becomes payable to the
date on which it is paid, simple interest at the rate of _________?
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(a) 8% p.a.
(b) 10% p.a.
(c) 12% p.a.
(d) 15% p.a.
25. Anil Kapoor works in an organization and met an accident. Due to this, he was not
able to do particular job. The employer appoints Anil for another job which he is
Capable to do. For what type of disablement, will anil get compensation
(a) As Partial Disablement
(b) As Full Disablement
(c) No compensation as he gets another job
(d) No compensation as he is still alive
26. Where an employer is in default in paying compensation he will be liable to pay a sum
not exceeding _____________ of compensation as penalty
(a) Twenty Five Percent
(b) Fifty Percent
(c) Seventy Five Percent
(d) Hundred Percent
27. Where an employer is in default in Paying compensation, the interest and penalty
shall be payable to
(a) Employee
(b) Commissioner
(d) Court
28. Monthly wages in case of an employee has been service for a continuous period not
less than 12 immediately preceding date of accident, the monthly wages of the employee
shall be _____ of the total wages which have fallen due for payment to him by the
employer in the last ______ months of that period
(a) 1/6th,6 months
(b) 1/9th, 9 months
(c) 1/12th, 12 months
(d) 1/6th, 2 months
29. Contracting out of compensation by an employee under an agreement shallbe
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Active
(d) Successful
30. The employer is required to send a report to the commissioner for employees’
compensation within _________ of the death or serious injury of an employee
(a) 3 days
(b) 7 days
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(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days
31. According to provisions of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, Every
establishment covered by the Act, if it wants to engage _________ or more persons
through a contractor has to get itself registered
(a) Twenty
(b) Ten
(c) Thirty
(d) Fifty
32. The aggrieved person may file appeal within ________ from the date on which the
order is communicated to him
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 60 days
33. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 applies to every
establishment or contractor wherein workmen employed on any day of the preceding 12
months shall be
(a) 10 work men or more
(b) 20 workmen or more
(c) 50 workmen or more
(d) 100 work men or more
34. A woman is eligible for maternity benefits equal to average of the woman’s wages
payable to her for the days on which she has worked during the period of
_________________ immediately preceding the date from which she assents herself on
account of maternity
(a) Three Calendar months
(b) Six Calendar months
(c) Nine Calendar months
(d) Twelve Calendar months
35. A woman is eligible for maternity benefits highest of: (i) Average of last three
calendar months wages (ii) the minimum rate of wage fixed or revised under the
Minimum Wages Act, 1948 (iii) 50 percent of last two years wages (iv) ten rupees
(a) (I), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
36. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, the benefit period shall not be exceed _______
preceding the expected date of delivery
(a) Four weeks
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(b) Six Weeks

(c) Eight Weeks
(d) Ten Weeks
Industrial Establishment include
(a) an industrial establishment defined by Section 2(u) of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(b) a factory as defined by Section 2(m) of the Factories Act, 1948
(c) a railway as defined by Section 2(4) of the Indian Railways Act, 1890
38. The employer of establishment shall submit to the Certifying Officer five copies of the
draft Standing Orders proposed by him for adoption in the establishment within______
of this act becomes applicable
(a) One month's
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Six months
39. Which of the following documents must a Standing Order be in conformity with?
(a) Standard Standing Orders
40. How much subsistence allowance is payable to a workman after 90 days of
enquiry when he has been suspended pending an inquiry against him
41. Which of the following institutions are not exceptions to “Industry”?
42. According to Section 2(k) of Industrial Dispute Act, ______ means any dispute or
difference between employers and employers, or between employers and workmen, or
between workmen and workmen, which is connected with the employment or non-
employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour, of any person
(a) Court Case
(b) Appeal
(c) Aggrieved party
(d) Industrial dispute
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43. In which of the following matters penalty cannot be imposed

(a) illegal strikes
(b) Instigation
(c) Lockout
(d) Financial aid to illegal strikes
44. Penalty for illegal strike as per the provisions of Industrial Dispute Act is
to one hundred rupees or with both
(b) imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or with fine which may extend
to fifty rupees or with both
(c) imprisonment for a term which may extend to three month, or with fine which may
extend to fifty rupees or with both
extend to one hundred rupees or with both
45. Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal shall submit its award on dispute to the
appropriate Government, if such order is connected with individual workmen, such
award shall be provided within
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 month
(c) 6 month
(d) 8 months
46. The person appointed as a Presiding Officer of Industrial Tribunal should be an
independent person and must not have attained the age of _____ years
(a) 45
(b) 55
(c) 65
(d) 75
47. The mode of disclosure of non applicability of labour legislations to a specific
organization should be suggested by
(a) Employer,
(b) Shareholders
(c) Ministry of Labour
(d) Independent Auditor
48. Process of conducting labour audit will be beneficial for
(a) Employee
(b) Employer
(c) Government
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49. Which of these are exemptions to establishment under The Lalour Laws
(c) Both a & b
(a) Form B
(b) Form C
(c) Form D
(d) Form E
51. Which of these is not a qualification required for being an apprentice as per The
Apprentice Act?
(a) Age
(b) Education
(c) Fitness
(d) Gender
52. On which date contract of apprentice is deemed to be commenced?
(a) Date of entering into Contract ,
(b) Date of Initiate of Apprenticeship
(c) Date of Approval
(d) Date of finish
53. The general audited statement of trade union shall be prepared as on
(a) 31 December
(b) 31 March
(c) 30 September
(d) Any day during the year
54. Registrar may require production of requisite documents at place not farther than
______ from registered office
(a) 5 Miles
(b) 7.5 Miles
(c) 10 Miles
(d) 15 Miles
55. Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act was applicable to
(a) all establishments in the public sector and such establishments in the private sector as are
engaged in non-agricultural activities and employing 25 or more workers
(b) all establishments in the public sector and such establishments in the private sector as are
engaged in non-agricultural activities and employing less than 25 workers
(c) Only public sector establishment
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(d) Only private sector establishment

56. Which of these is not a feature of Employment Exchange?
(a) persons who seek to engage employees
(b) persons who seek employment
(c) vacancies to which persons seeking employment, may be appointed
(d) welfare of the persons appointed
57. Establishment in private sector’ means an establishment which is not an
establishment in public sector and where ordinarily _______ persons are employed to
work for remuneration
(a) 10 or more
(b) 25 or more
(c) 50 or more
(d) 20 or more
58. Which of these are exemptions to establishment under The Labour Laws
(c) Both a & b
(a) Form B
(b) Form C
(c) Form D
(d) Form E
60. Where a worker works in a factory for more than 9 hours in any day or more than 48
hours in any week, he shall be entitled to wages at the rate of _____ times his ordinary
rate of wages
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.75
(c) 2
(d) 2.5
61. Which of the following shall not be considered as ordinary rate of wages
(a) basic wages
(b) allowances which include the cash equivalent
(c) House rent allowance
(d) Concessional sale to workers
62. The register of adult workers to contain:
(a) the name of worker;
(b) the nature of his work
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(c) the group in which he is included

63. The maximum permissible threshold limits of exposure of chemical and toxic
substances in manufacturing processes (whether hazardous or otherwise) in any factory
shall be of the value indicated in
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Third Schedule
(d) Fourth Schedule
64. Safety Committee in every factory where a hazardous process takes place or where
hazardous substances are used or handled, set up a consisting _______
(a) 100% employer representatives
(b) 100% employee representatives
(c) 25% workers & 75% management representatives
(d) 50% workers & 50% management representatives
65. Which of the following shall not be a member of Site Appraisal Committees
(a) Representative of the Department of Environment in the State;
(b) a representative of the Meteorological Department of the Government of India
(c) a representative of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MC(a)
(d) a representative of the Town Planning Department of the State Government.
66. Site Appraisal Committee shall examine an application for the establishment of a
factory involving hazardous process and make its recommendation to the State
Government within
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
67. The date of establishment of a factory is the date when the factory starts/ get its
____________?
(a) Manufacturing process
(b) Certificate of incorporation
(c) Certificate of business
(d) Any of these
68. The date of establishment of a factory in case of shift of ownership is the date when
the factory _________?
(a) Date of transfer
(b) Date of registered transfer deed
(c) Start its Manufacturing process
(d) Any of these
69. Which of these is a pre requisite for revoking the registration of establishment?
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(a) Previous Approval of Appropriate Government

(b) Publishing in local newspaper
(c) Notice of 60 days
70. Referring to the facts of Vegolis Private Ltd. v. The Workmen, Tribunal can abolish
contract labour?
(a) Tribunal can abolish independently
(b) Tribunal can abolish with consultation with Appropriate Government
(c) Appropriate Government can abolish only with consultation of Tribunal
(d) Tribunal cannot abolish
71. The specific Relief Act applies to__________
(a) movable property.
(b) immovable property
(c) Both (a) and(b)
72. Limitation periods are imposed by, primarily the Limitation Act, _____________
(a) 1962
(b) 1963
(c) 1964
(d) 1965
73. The ____________ may be defined as a system of rules for a certain controverter
questions off act in judicial in queries
(a) The law of Evidence
(b) Law of Torts
(c) Law of Specific Relief
(d) Law of Limitation
74. Which of the following States does not come under the purview of the Act of
Limitation?
(a) Punjab
(b) Jammu &Kashmir
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar
75. The Constitution of India contains
(a) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules.
(b) 495 Articles and 12 Schedules
(c) 295 Articles and 12 Schedules
(d) 395 Articles and 10 Schedules
76. The _________ to the Constitution sets out the aims and aspirations of the people of
India
(a) Preamble
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(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Equality
77. The preamble declares India to be a
(a) Sovereign
(b) Socialist and Secular
(c) Democratic and Republic
78. As per Article 21 A, the States hail provide free and compulsory education to all
children of the age of
(a) six to ten years
(b) six to fourteen years
(c) six to sixteen years
(d) six to eighteen years
79. Preventive detention means
(a) Detention of a person with trial.
(b) Detention of a person without trial
80. The various powers that are included with in the comprehensive expression’ executive
power’ in a modern state includes
(a) Administrative power
(b) Military power
(c) Legislative power and Judicial power
81. The most important legislative power conferred on the _________ is to promulgate
Ordinances
(a) Courts
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Minister
82. Internal Aids in Interpretation are
(a) Title
(b) Preamble
(c) Heading and Title of a Chapter
83. Which among the following statement is false
(a) According to the rule of Literal Construction, Interpretation should not be given which
would make other provisions redundant,
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(b) According to the rule of Literal Construction, Interpretation can be given which would
make other provisions redundant
(c) While applying the rule of Literal Construction,
the main part of the section must not be construed in such away as to render a proviso to
the section redundant
84. Which among the following is not the feature of “Rule of Literal Construction”
(a) Every word in the law should be given meaning as no word is unnecessarily use(d).
(b) One should not presume any omissions and if a word is not there in the Statute, It shall
not be given any meaning.
(c) the main part of these action must flOtbe constructed in such a way as to
renderaproviotothesectionredundant.
85. _________ rule means that express mention of one thing implies the exclusion of
another
(a) Expressio Units Est Exclusio Alterius
(b) Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima Et Fortissimain Lege
(c) Noscitura Sociis
(d) Strict and Liberal Construction
86. According to the Rule of Literal Construction, a statute is interpreted according to
the general meaning of the words even if it leads to absurdity
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Can only be interpreted in exception circumstances
(d) Can be interpreted where law is a ambiguous
87. According to the ___________ rule, where there are general words following
particular and specific words, the general words following particular and specific words
must be confined to things of the same kind as those specified, unless there is a clear
manifestation of a contrary purpose
88. Rule of Liberal Construction should generally be applied in which type of case
(a) Criminal cases
(b) Civil cases
(d) Property issues
89. The rule of Ejusdem Generis must be applied with great caution because it implies a
departure from the natural meaning of words
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(a) True
(b) False
(c) There is no departure from natural meaning of word
(d) Not applicable to this rule
90. Which among the below statement is false
(a) Heading generally describes the provisions contained under it
(b) Heading is like preamble to the provision contained under it
(c) Headings can override while interpreting statue even where provision contained in it is
clear and unambiguous
(d) Headingofachaptercannotbeusedtorestricttheplaintermsofanenactment
91. Marginal note cannot be invoked for construction where the meaning is clear
(a) True
(b) False
92. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is an Act to consolidate and amend the law
relating to
(a) Criminal Procedure
(b) Civil Procedure
(c) Both (a) and(b)
93. Mens rea means a
(a) Guilty mind•
(b) Mistake
(c) correction
94. A”________ “ means any person appointed under Section 24 of the Criminal
Procedure Code and is an officer of the Court
(a) Private prosecutor ‘
(b) Public prosecutor
(c) Both(a) and(b)
95. ________means a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for
life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
(a) Summon Case
(b) Warrant Case
(c) Police Case
96. Right to Information Act was enacted in Year
(a) 2002
(b) 2005
(c) 2007
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(d) 2010
(a) Public Authorities.
(c) Non Government Organisation
(d) None of these
98. Information to be provided within __________ days by Public Information officer
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
99. Who all are excluded from providing information under Right to Information Act
(a) IB, A & AW, Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
(b) Central Economic Intelligence Bureau, Directorate of Enforcement, Narcotics Control
Bureau
(c) Aviation Research Centre, Special Frontier Force, BSF, CRPF, 1TBP, GISF, NSG,
Assam Rifles, Special Service Bureau, Special Branch(CI(d)), Andaman and Nicobar, the
Crime Branch-CID-CB, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Special Branch, Lakshadweep
Police
(d) All of these
100. The head quarter of Central Information commission will be at
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Kolkata
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
C C A B D D B D C C B B D B B
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D A B B D A B B A B A C B 7
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A B B A B B D D B C D D C B B
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C C D C D D A A C A D B C D C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
C D B D C C A C A D C B A B A
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A D B B D C D B D A B A A A B
Page 246
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A A A B B B A B D A
MODEL TEST PAPER - 2

1. At least one first-aid box or cup-board, be required for every
(a) 100 Workers
(b) 150 workers
(c) 250 workers
(d) 500 workers
2. If the Occupier proposes to engage in a hazardous process at anytime , the same needs
to be intimated within
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
3. Wages during the leave period shall not include
(a) Clearness Allowance
(b) Cash equivalent
(c) Bonus
Page 247

4. Which of the following does not constitute Manufacturing process as per Factories
Act, 1948?
(a) Laundry & carpet beating
(b) Stitching old gunny bags
(c) Imparting training
(d) Bidi making
5. _____ shall be deemed as an Occupier for in case of a Company?
(a) Company Secretary
(b) Manager
(c) Director
6. Appropriate Govt. fix the minimum rates of wages for employees in an employment
specified in
(a) Part I of Schedule
(b) Part II of Schedule
7. Appropriate Government may not fix minimum rates of wages in respect of any
scheduled employment in which less than _________ employees in the whole State
(a) 50
(b) 500
(c) 1000
(d) 5000
8. What is the penalty prescribe in case there is violation of Minimum Wages Act?
(a) Rs.500 or 1 month or both
(b) Rs.1000 or 1 month or both
(c) Rs. 500 or 6 month or both
(d) Rs. 1000 or 6 months or both
9. Industrial or other establishment for the purpose of Payment of Wages includes
(a) tramway service or motor transport
(b) mine quarry
(c) establishment in which articles are produced
10. Wages for the purpose of Payment of Wages includes
(a) Remuneration payable under any award
(b) Overtime
(c) additional remuneration
Page 248
11. The wages of every person employed in establishment in which less than one thousand
persons are employed, shall be paid before the expiry of the ______ day
(a) One
(b) Seventh
(c) Tenth
(d) Thirty
12. Within which period a claim under the Payment of Wages Act shall be disposed of as
far as practicable?
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 2 year
13. What is the minimum qualification required for a person to qualify as a judge of the
E.l, Court?
(a) Judicial officer with minimum 5 years standing
(b) Legal practitioner with minimum 3 years standing
(c) Chartered Accountant with minimum 5 years standing
(d) Special Legal Officer with minimum 5 years standing
14. Dependent as per ESI Act does not includes
(a) widow
(b) legitimate or adopted son who has not attained the age of twenty-five years
(c) married legitimate or adopted daughter
(d) widowed mother
15. Employee for the purpose of ESI Act does not includes
(a) member of the Indian Naval, Military or Air Forces
(b) person so employed whose wages does not exceed Rs. 10,000
(c) Apprentice
(d) services are temporarily lent or let on hire to the principal employer
16. Wages for the purpose of ESI does not includes
(a) contribution paid by the employer to any pension fund or provident fund
(b) travelling allowance or the value of any travelling concession
(c) gratuity payable on discharge
17. Central Government shall be considered as Appropriate Govt. in relation to an
establishment connected with
(a) Railway company
(b) Major port
(c) Mine or an oil field
(d) All of these
18. Employee for the purpose of Provident Fund does not includes
Page 249
(a) Contract employee

(b) Apprentice under Apprentices Act, 1961
(c) Apprentice not covered under Apprentices Act, 1961
(d) All of these
19. The Employees Provident Fund Scheme is administered by ______________
(a) Central Board
(b) State Board
(c) Pension Board
20. Minimum __________ years contributory service is required for entitlement to
pension
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 58
21. The maximum bonus shall be______ of the salary?
(a) 2%
(b) 8.33%
(c) 20%
22. Bonus is to be paid by the employer In which of the following cases
(a) Profit of Rs. 10,000
(b) Nil Profit
(c) Loss of 10,000
(d) All of these
23. Payment of Gratuity Act, 1965 applies to
(a) Factory
(b) Mine & Oilfield
(c) Port and railway company
(d) Allot the above
24. The Payment of Gratuity Act has been amended to enhance the ceiling on amount of
gratuity to ______
(a) Rs. 3.5 lakhs
(b) Rs. 5 lakhs
(c) Rs. 10 lakhs
(d) Rs. 20 lakhs
25. Ravana, the driver of a bus died in an accident. On a claim for compensation made by
widow, what are the components to be included in determining compensation
(a) Line Allowance
(b) Night Out Allowance
Page 250
(c) Claim of Bonus

26. Which of the following terms are not defined in the Workmen’s Compensation Act,
1923?
(a) Dependent
(b) Disablement
(c) Workman
(d) Seaman
27. ________ means an untoward mishap which is not expected or designed by workman
(a) Injury
(b) Accident
(c) Disablement
(d) Compensation
28. The burden of proof is on ________ to prove the connection of employment and
injury
(a) Employer
(b) Applicant
(c) Commissioner
(d) Court
29. According to provisions of Employee Compensation act, Section 14 will not apply
(a) Voluntary wound up for reconstruction or amalgamation
(b) Permanent wound up
(c) Dissolution of company
(d) Hostile Acquisition
30. Section 17 provides that any contract or agreement whereby an employee relinquishes
any right of compensation from the employer for personal injury arising out of or in the
course of the employment shall be _________
(a) Fully valid
(b) Valid only in case of temporary disablement
(c) Not valid only in case of death
(d) Null and void
31. What is the period within which an employer must make a deposit with the
Commissioner if he is liable to pay compensation?
32. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, which of the following are
not covered as eligible person to be appointed as Commissioner?
(a) Member of a State Judicial Service
Page 251
(b) Advocate
(c) Gazetted officer qualified in industrial relations
(d) Doctor
33. As per Section 25A of Workmen’s Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2009, the
Commissioner shall dispose of the matter relating to compensation within a period of
_______ from the date of reference and intimate the decision in respect thereof within
the said period to the employee
(a) Six weeks
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) Fifteen days
34. As per the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 and the central
rules, in case the work is completed before the expiry of the wage period, final payment
shall be made within
(a) 24 Hours of the last working day
(b) 48 Hours of the last working day
(c) 7 Days of the last working day
(d) 3 Days of the last working day
35. The employment of contract labour can be prohibited
(a) By an order of the labour court
(b) By notification of the Government
(c) When the number of workmen exceeds 50
(d) By the Central Advisory Board
36. Maternity Benefit Act is applicable to establishments employing
(a) Five or more persons
(b) Ten or more persons
(c) Twenty five or more persons
(d) Hundred or more persons
37. Maternity Benefit Act can be extended to other establishments at the discretion of
(c) Occupier
(d) Tribunal
38. As per the Maternity Benefit Act, nursing breaks will be allowed to woman until the
child attains
(a) Nine Months of age 45.
(b) Twelve Months of age
(c) Fifteen Months of age
(d) Eighteen Months of age
Page 252
39. Part Ill of The Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986 shall apply to an
establishment or a class of establishments
(a) Occupations covered in section 3
(b) Duties covered in section 3
(c) Processes referred in Section 3
(d) Only a & c
40. Total hours of work for a child including interval for rest should be
(a) 5 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 7 hours
(d) 8 hours
41. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act was applicable in all industrial
establishments wherein ________ workmen are employed or were employed on any day
during the preceding twelve months
(a) 10 or more
(b) 20 or more
(c) 50 or more
(d) l00 or more
42. The appropriate government may after giving notice of not less than________, by
notification in the Official Gazette, extend the provisions of this Act to any industrial
establishment employing such number of persons less than 100 as may be specified
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 month
(c) 3 month
(d) 4 month
43. Which of the following is not a designated authority for investigation and settlement
of industrial disputes?
(a) Works Committee
(b) Conciliation Officers
(c) Labour Courts
(d) Dispute Tribunal
44. A Labour Court shall consist of _______ person only to be appointed by the
appropriate Government
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
45. Section 3 of the Act provides that the ____________ may by general or special order
require the employer to constitute in the prescribed manner a Works Committee in
Page 253

(b) Commissioner
(c) High Court
(d) Inspector
46. Works Committee to be constituted by Appropriate Government, where _______ or
more workmen are employed or have been employed on any working day in the
preceding 12 month
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 100
47. What is the duty of Works Committee?
(a) to promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the
(b) to comment upon matters of their common interest or concern
(c) to compose any material difference of opinion in respect of such matters
48. The matter whether the layoff is malafide or not can be adjudicated by
(a) Commissioner
(b) Tribunal
(c) Management
(d) Labour Court
49. Labour audit report should be addressed to
(a) Management of the Company
(b) Shareholders of the company
50. The scope of labour audit shall be
(a) All labour laws
(b) Applicable labour laws
(c) Labour laws as decided by Employer
(d) Labour laws as decided by Auditor
51. What is the penalty for subsequent violation of provisions of this act?
(b) fine which may extend lo rupees twenty five thousand
(c) imprisonment for a period which shall not be less than one month but which
may extend months
(d) Both b & c
Page 254
52. Which of the following does not form part of First Schedule of The Labour Laws
Establishments) Act
(a) The payment of Wages Act, 1993.
(b) The Weekly Holidays Act, 1942
(c) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(d) The Companies Act, 2013
53. Whether employer is required to maintain records of training as porThe Apprentice
Act
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) At the discretion of employer
(d) At the discretion of Apprentice
54. What is the minimum amount of payment for apprentice as The Apprentice Act?
(a) 5000 pm
(b) 8000 pm
(c) 2500 pm
55. Which of these is not a dispute as per the Trade Dispute in Section 2(g) of The Trade
Union Act?
(a) Issue connected with the employment or non-employment
(b) Terms of employment
(c) Education of employees
(d) Conditions of labour
56. What is minimum number of members required to subscribe the rules of Trade union
at the time of registration
(a) Five or more
(b) Seven or more
(c) Ten or More
(d) Hundred or more
57. Which of the following is a feature of Trade Union?
(a) Have a perpetual succession
(b) Have a Common seal
(c) Cannot hold property
(d) Can enter into contract
58. A ltd has vacancy of 10 employees. It intimated the same to Employment
Exchanges. Based on the requirement the employment exchange provided certain people
for recruitment. Whether A limited is obliged to appoint them
(a) A ltd must recruit through employment exchange only
(b) A Ltd must recruit at least 50 percent of vacancy through employment exchange
Page 255
(c) A ltd is not obliged to recruit through employment exchange

(d) A ltd cannot recruit through employment exchange
59. According to Section 5 of Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of
Vacancies) Act, 1959, to whom the .establishment have to file return in relation to
vacancies
(a) Union Government
(c) Employment Exchange
60. What is the amount of penalty to be imposed not recruiting from Employment
Exchange in case of a company?
(a) Rs. 250
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 1000
61. Small establishment and Very small establishment are required to furni.,h return
as per The Labour Laws (Exemption from Furnishing Returns and Maintaining
Register by Certain Establishments) Act in which Form
(a) Form A
(b) Form B
(c) Form C
(d) Form D
62. Which of the following are essential elements of a factory?
(a) There must be premises
(b) There must be manufacturing process carried on at the premises
(c) 10 or more workers carrying out manufacturing process with aid of power
(d) All the above
63. Which of the following constitutes Manufacturing process as per Factories
Act,1948?
(a) Making or Producing the article
(b) Generating & transmitting power
(c) Cold storage
(d) All the above
64. What is the penalty if there is any contravention of the provisions of Factories Act
which has resulted in an accident causing serious bodily injury?
(a) 5,000
(b) 25,000
(c) 50,000
(d) 1,00,000
Page 256
65. Where an adolescent has not been granted this certificate, he shall not withstanding
his age, be deemed to be _________ for all the purposes of Factories Act?
(a) Adult
(b) Adolescent
(c) Child
(d) Occupier
66. Which authority has been constituted by the Central Government to preside over the
cases regarding determination of monies due from employers?
(a) Employees Provident Fund Appellate Tribunal
(b) Employees Provident Fund Consultancy Tribunal
(c) Employees Provident Fund Help desk
(d) Employees Provident Fund Information Centre
67. A member is allowed to draw full amount when he ceases to be in employment and
has not been employed in any establishment to which the Act applies for a continuous
period of at least __________
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 years
68. This requirement of 2 months waiting period shall not apply in cases of
(a) female members resigning from service for the purpose of maternity
(b) female members resigning from service for the purpose of getting married
(c) None of the above
(d) Both of the above
69. According to Section 2(1)(d) of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act,
__________ means any industry the control of which by the Union has been declared by
any Central Act to be expedient in the public interest
(a) Private Industry
(b) Public Industry
(c) Controlled Industry
(d) Independent Industry
70. Which of these is not a part of ‘Workman” as per the provisions of Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act
(a) employed mainly in a managerial or administrative capacity
(b) employed in a supervisory capacity draws wages exceeding five hundred rupees per
mensem
(c) is an Out-worker
71. The _________ have the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory
of the respective States
Page 257

(c) Courts
(a) List I named as the Union List.
(b) List II as the State List
(c) List Ill as the Con current List
73. Those subjects which are of national interest or importance, or which need national
control and uniformity of policy throughout the country have been included in the
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
74. The Courts in the Indian legal system consist of
(b) The High Court's
(c) The subordinate Courts.
75. The ________ is the highest Court in the country
(a) Supreme Court
(b) The High Court's
76. The writ of _________ is available to any person, wherever anybody of persons having
legal authority to determine questions affecting the right
sofsubjectsandhavinathedutvtoactiudiciallvinoxcessoftheirlenalauthorit
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Quo Warranto
77. The fundamental rights are envisaged in ___________ of the Constitution
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV
78. The Directive principles are
(a) Create any justifiable rights in favour of individuals
(b) Do not create any justifiable rights in favour of individuals
Page 258
(c) Partially create any justifiable rights in favour of individuals

79. As per the Article 22 of the Constitution , generally a person cannot be detained for a
period more than
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
80. _________ guarantees to every person the right to equality before the law or the equal
protection of the laws
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17
81. ___________is not interpreted as stating a general rule
(a) Proviso
(b) Interpretation clause
(c) Marginal Notes
(d) Explanations
(b) Dictionaries
83. Which among the following is not an external aid in interpretation?
(a) Reference to Reports of Committees
(b) Reference too their Statutes
(c) Explanation
(d) Dictionaries
84. Which among the following is not a primary rule of interpretation?
(b) Dictionaries
86. CPC Stands for
Page 259
(a) Civil Procedure code

(b) Civil Protection Code
(c) Chief Procedure code
(d) Central Procedure code
(a) The Civil Procedure Code consolidates and amends the law relating to the
procedure of the Courts of Civil jurisdiction.
(b) TheCodedoesnotaffectanyspecialorlocallawsnorcloesitsupersedeanyspecial
urisdictionorpowerconferredoranyspecialformofprocedureprescribedbyown
deranyotherlawforthetimebeinginforce
(c) The Code is the general law so that in case of conflict between the Code and
the special law the latter prevails over the former. Where the special law Is
silent on a particular matter the Code applies, but consistent with the special
enactment
(d) The code prevails over special law
88. A decree comes into existence as soon as the ________ is pronounced and not on the
date when it is sealed and signed
(a) Order
(b) Decision
(c) Judgment
(d) Action
(a) The preliminary decree is not dependent on the final.
(b) The preliminary decree is dependent on the final
(c) The preliminary decree is partly dependent on the final
90. _______________ principle applies where an issue which has been raised in a
subsequent suit was directly arid substantially in issue in a former suit between the same
parties and was heard and decided finally
(a) Res sub judice
(b) Res Judicata
(c) doctrine of lispendens
91. Eveniferroneous,aninterpartyjudgementbindsthepartyifthecourtofcompetentijurisdict
ionhasdecidethelis
(a) True
(b) False
Page 260
92. When a person is arrested without a warrant, he/she can be kept in the custody not
more then
(a) 24 hours
(b) 48 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 72 hours
93. The general processes to compel appearance are
(a) Summons
(b) Warrants
(c) Both(a)and(b)
94. The summons can be served by a
(a) police officer
(b) Officer of the Court
(c) Public servant
95. Section _______ relates to Cognizance of offences by Magistrates
(a) 188
(b) 189
(c) 190
(d) 191
96. The Code of Criminal Procedure, l898(Cr. P.(c))was repealed by the Code of
(a) 1971
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
97. RTI stands for
(a) Right to Intelligence
(b) Right t Information
(c) Right to Interact
(d) Right to Inform
98. The RTI Act extends to
(a) the whole of India.
(b) the whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir
(c) only in Jammu & Kashmir
(d) none of these
(a) Public Authorities.
(c) Non Government Organisation
Page 261
(d) None of these

100. Time taken for calculation and intimation of fees is ________ from the time frame
(a) Excluded
(b) Included
(c) Excluded or included depends on case to case
(d) Excluded or included depends on discretion of PlO
ANSWERES
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
C A C C C C C D D D B A A C A
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D B A B C D D C D C B B A D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
C D B B B B A C D B D B D A A
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D D B C B D D A D C B C C C D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
A D D A C A B D C D B D A D A
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C C B C A A D C C D A D C A B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A A C D C C B B A A
Page 262

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INDUSTRIAL,

ADVOCATE SANYOG VYAS

S.NO. TOPIC PAGE NO.

Factories Act, 1948

MUTLIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

b. True, however, District magistrate cannot give orders to occupiers of a factory

d. None of the above

113. To maintain proper cooperation between the workers and management in

d. State Government and Central Government

Minimum Wages Act, 1948

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The Act prescribing minimum limit of wages in certain employment is known

40. The __________shall consist of persons of be nominated by the Central Government

d. Chief dealer of the firm

Payment of Wages Act, 1936

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

7. The payment of Wages Act, 1936 extends to

20. Appropriate Government in case of a Railways is –

b. Dock wharf or jetty

46. Who will fix the period of the payment of wages?

c. The tenth day

a. Deductions for absence from duty

b. Minimum Rs. 1,500/-, which may extend to Rs. 5,000/-

d. Any of the above at the discretion of the employer

Equal Remuneration Act, 1976

1. Equal Remuneration Act is enacted in ___________

21. Advisory committee constituted by appropriate governments under Equal

8. Which of the following are elements of employment injury?

(a) Provident Fund

(a) Beedi Makers

(c) Hospital & welfare institutions

(c) Third Schedule

(b) Nil Profit

(d) Adjunct Authority

(a) Any managing agent of the employer

(a) Partial disablement of temporary nature

(b) Occupational Disease

(d) All of the above

(b) Related Employer

(a) Fifteen days

72. According to provisions of Employee Compensation Act, where the accident is

77. According to Section 11 of Employee Compensation Act, Where an employee has

(a) Liability of any person to pay compensation

(c) Will not be fatal to the claim

(b) Six months

(c) Out of employment and in the course of employment

(d) Employer can defer compensation

(a) Commissioner, Central Board or State Board

(d) Independent Industry

(c) Appropriate Government can abolish only with consultation of Tribunal

restricting or regulating employment of contract labour or contravention of any

(b) Examine any person whom he finds in such premises

(a) Four weeks

30. Which of the following statements are correct?

(b) 7pm to 8am

6. _____________ means in respect of industrial establishments under the control of the

(a) One months

(d) Principal Employer

(a) Systematic Activity