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ESE 2021 : PRELIMS EXAM

C L A SS ROOM T ES T S ERIES
BOOKLET SERIES
CIVIL
ENGINEERING
Test No. 18
Full Syllabus Test-2 : Paper-II

Duration: 3 hrs. Maximum Marks: 300

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2 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.1 Consider the following statements (a) Calcium chloride

regarding chemical composition and (b) Hydrogen sulphate
properties of cement and select the correct (c) Barium hydrate
statement(s): (d) Caustic alkalies
1. Increase in alkali content of cement
Q.5 Addition of clay in cement mortar:
delays the time of final settling.
1. Increases its workability
2. Tri-calcium silicate induces resistance to
2. Increases its water retaining ability
freezing and thawing, hydrates rapidly
3. Increases resistance against frost
and generates high heat.
Which of the above statements is/are
3. Approximately 23% of water by weight
correct?
of cement is required to complete the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
chemical reaction whereas 38% of water
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
by weight of cement is needed to
complete hydration of portland cement. Q.6 Which of the following is not a harmful
4. High early strength of cement is substance in brick earth?
obtained as a result of decreasing lime (a) Lime (b) Iron pyrites
content. (c) Flyash (d) Sulphur
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 2 only Q.7 Consider the following statements related
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 4 only to physical tests of cement and select the
Q.2 Consider the following statements correct statements:
regarding industrial timber and select the 1. 100 gm of rapid hardening cement if
incorrect statement: taken for sieve method of fineness test
(a) The primary process in manufacture of and if sieved for 15 minutes by
wood based product is known as 90 microns sieve then the residue should
veneering. not exceed 5% by weight.
(b) If faces in plywood are arranged with 2. For consistency test, 10 mm diameter
grain at 45° to that of centres then it is plunger is used and for initial setting
shown as star plywood. time, 1 mm2 square needle is used.
(c) The core of block boards is made up of 3. For Le-Chatelier’s method of soundness
test of cement, paste is formed by
strips of wood not exceeding 25 mm in
gauging 100 gm cement with 0.78 times
width.
water required to give a paste of
(d) Batten boards have core made up of 80
standard consistency.
mm wide wood pieces.
4. For compressive and tensile strength
Q.3 The lime used for finishing coat in plastering test of cement, a mixture of cement and
is: standard sand in proportion of 1 : 3 by
(a) Kankar lime weight is mixed.
(b) Magnesium lime (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Semi-hydraulic lime (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All are correct
(d) Eminently hydraulic lime
Q.8 Consider the following statements
Q.4 The chemical used to protect stones in regarding timber and choose the incorrect
industrial town is one:

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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 3

(a) Cupping is unequal shrinking in radial 2. Self-compacting concrete should have

and tangential direction. high water-cement ratio.
(b) Separation between adjacent layers of 3. Self-compacted concrete contains high
tissues is known as shake. viscous paste.
(c) For manufacturing of railway sleepers, (a) All are correct
generally cedar is used. (b) only 1 and 3
(d) Seasoning of highly refractory timber (c) only 1 and 2
can be achieved rapidly and it is free (d) only 2 and 3
from surface defects.
Q.12 Match the following pairs incorrectly
Q.9 Consider the following statements matched:
regarding brick masonry/brick bond and (a) Brass  Copper + Zinc
select the incorrect statement: (b) Bronze  Copper + Tin
(a) Stretcher bond is suitable for one half (c) Monel metal  Copper + Lead
brick thick wall as it can’t make effective
(d) Pewter  Tin + Antimony + Copper
bonding with adjacent brick in full
width. Q.13 Consider the following statements
(b) In header bond, the overlap is kept regarding proportioning of concrete and
equal to half width of the brick. select the correct statements:
(c) In English bond, to break the continuity 1. Water cement ratio is ratio of weight of
of vertical joint, quoin closer is used in water to volume of cement.
beginning and end of wall after first 2. The choice of mix proportion does not
header. depend on technique to be used for
(d) In single Flemish bond, front exposed mixing, batching, compaction and
surface of wall consists of English bond placing.
and back surface of wall consists of 3. The smaller the maximum size of
Flemish bond in each course. aggregate, smaller the quantity of
Q.10 Consider the following statements cement required for a particular water
regarding gypsum and select the incorrect cement ratio.
statement: 4. For a constant aggregate cement ratio,
(a) The setting of plaster of paris is delayed if coarse aggregate increased at expense
by adding retardant like glue. of sand, then the total surface of
(b) Keene’s cement is made from gypsum. aggregate reduces.
(c) Hydrated gypsum is fire resistant (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
gypsum. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
(d) Specific gravity of gypsum decreases
when it is heated up to about 200°C. Q.14 Consider the following statements
regarding hardening of concrete and select
Q.11 Consider the following statements the incorrect ones:
regarding self-compacting concrete and (a) Presence of algae in concrete reduces
select the correct statements: bond strength.
1. The aggregate content in self compacted (b) For fire resistance concrete should be air
concrete is smaller than conventional entrained.
concrete.
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4 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

(c) Shrinkage in concrete is due to loss of 2. Illite mineral has cation bond stronger
water by evaporation from surface. than hydrogen bond of kalonite but
(d) Shrinkage of concrete can be reduced by weaker than water bond of
using high water cement ratio. montmorillonite.
3. Honey comb structure possesses
Q.15 The strength of a sample of fully matured
relatively large void space.
ordinary concrete is determined as 38 MPa.
4. Pressure application over flocculent
Using maturity concept, estimate the
structure produces dispersed structure
strength of an identical concrete sample at
which forms more stable and denser
21 days when cured at an average
arrangement.
temperature of 12°C for 8 hours and 16°C
Which of the above statements are correct?
for 16 hours and 20°C for rest of period.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1236°C hour (b) 14504°C hour
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
(c) 15496°C hour (d) 17740°C hour
Q.20 Due to rise in temperature, the viscosity of
Q.16 The mass specific gravity of a soil sample is
pore fluid got reduced by 23% and unit
1.8. The specific gravity of soil solid is 2.70.
weight of pore got fluid reduced to 95%. If
Soil sample has 10% of water content. What
all other parameters remain constant, then
is the void ratio of soil in dry state? [Take
what will be the percentage change in
w = 10 kN/m3]
coefficient of permeability?
(a) 0.65 (b) 0.84
(a) 29.05% (b) 23.40%
(c) 0.51 (d) 0.48
(c) 80.20% (d) 20.40%
Q.17 An undisturbed saturated specimen of clay
Q.21 A large open excavation was made in stiff
has a volume of 18 cc and a mass of 30 gm.
clay with saturated unit weight of
On oven drying, the mass of soil specimen
19 kN/m3. When the depth of excavation
reduces to 20 gm. The volume of dry soil
reached 7 m, the bottom rise gradually. Clay
specimen was found to be 10 cc. The
layer is underlain by bed of sand with its
shrinkage limit of soil is
surface at a depth of 12 m. What will be the
(a) 50% (b) 30%
elevation to which the water would have
(c) 10% (d) 20%
risen above stratum into a drill hole before
Q.18 A sample of fine grained soil shows it’s excavation was started?
liquid and plastic limit as 55% and 28% (Take w = 10 kN/m3)
respectively. The soil can be classified as (a) 9.5 m (b) 4.5 m
(a) CH (b) MH (c) 2.5 m (d) 7.5 m
(c) CI (d) MI
Q.22 Consider the following statements
Q.19 Consider the following statements regarding effect of compaction on soil
regarding soil structure and clay properties and choose incorrect statement:
mineralogy: (a) For same density, soil sample compacted
1. A clay is having flocculent structure if to dry side of optimum shrinks less than
there is a concentration of dissolved sample compacted on wet side of
minerals in water. optimum.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 5

(b) Saturated sample of clay when pressure of backfill on per unit length of
compacted on dry side of optimum wall? (Take w = 10 kN/m3)
tends to develop lower pore water (a) 810 kN/m (b) 1405 kN/m
pressure. (c) 1620 kN/m (d) 2025 kN/m
(c) A clayey soil sample when compacted
Q.26 Consider the following statements
on dry side of optimum tends to have
regarding type of slope and their failure:
more random orientation.
1. Failure of infinite slope take place due
(d) As compactive effort increases, the
permeability of soil increases due to to sliding.
simultaneous decrease in dry density. 2. Face failure of finite slope take place of
soil at toe is rigid then soil present over
Q.23 Two samples of soil were tested in a tri- it.
axial machine. The all-around pressure 3. Failure of infinite slope for cohesionless
maintained for first sample was 2 kg/cm2 soil occurs when angle of inclination is
and failure occurred at an additional axial less than angle of friction between soil
stress of 7.7 kg/cm 2 . While for second particles.
sample these value were 5.0 kg/cm2 and Which of the above statements are correct?
13.7 kg/cm2 respectively. The friction angle (a) 1 and 2 only
of soil is
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 25° (d) 40°
(d) All are correct
Q.24 Consider the following statement in form
Q.27 Consider the following statements
of expression:
regarding shear failures of soil and select
1 the correct statement:
1. t  mv 2. t 
K (a) General shear failure results in excessive
2
3. t  d 4. t U settlement of a structure.
where (b) Due to effect of shear strain in dense
t = Time required for consolidation to sand, negative pore water pressure
achieve the particular degree of develops.
consolidation. (c) Dense sand will have ductile nature of
d = Depth of drainage failure whereas loose sand will have
U = Degree of consolidation upto 60% brittle nature of failure.
K = Permeability coefficient of soil (d) Punching shear failure is a phenomenon
mv = Coefficient of volume compressibility of dense sand.
Which of the above expression are correct?
Q.28 A wooden pile is being driven with a drop
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
hammer weighing 60 kN and having a free
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All are correct
fall of 1 m. The penetration in last five blows
Q.25 A retaining wall of 9 m height has backfill is 25 mm. What will be the load carrying
of saturated soil upto ground level having capacity of pile as per engineering news
unit weight of 20 kN/m3. The friction angle record formula?
of soil is 30°. What will be the overturning (a) 200 kN (b) 333.33 kN
moment developed due to active earth (c) 400 kN (d) 666.67 kN

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6 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.29 At a place situated 300 m above MSL, length Q.34 Two stations A and B are apart at a certain
of a slope is measured as 640 m. What will distance. The reduced levels of A and B are
be the correct horizontal length for this known to be 300.000 m and 298.615 m
given slope if gradient is 1 in 40? respectively. A level was kept on line AB
(a) 368.43 m (b) 640.23 m and readings were taken on staff held at A
(c) 641.85 m (d) 639.77 m and B. The readings observed were 1.400 m
at A and 2.800 m at B. The error of
Q.30 In a right angled triangle, BC the
collimation is
hypotenuse. If AB : AC is 3 : 4 and bearing
of AC is 65°, then the bearing of BC is (a) –0.015 m (b) +0.015 m
(a) 281.87° (b) 101.87° (c) –0.025 m (d) +0.025 m
(c) 53.13° (d) 83.13° Q.35 The time at a place in India as per clock is
Q.31 Consider the following statements 10 pm. The longitude of that place and
regarding theodolite and select the standard meridian are 72°30E and 82°30E
incorrect statement: respectively. Find the local mean time.
(a) Transiting of theodolite means rotating (a) 4 : 30 pm (b) 9 : 20 pm
the telescope about optical axis of (c) 3 : 30 pm (d) 10 : 40 pm
telescope. Q.36 Two lines AB and BC are observed at
(b) The vertical circle of theodolite is bearing of 60° and 120° respectively. A
generally graduated from 0 to 90° in four 314 m long curve is going tangential to these
quadrants. lines. The tangent length of curve is
(c) A theodolite is often designated by (a) 259.80 m (b) 173.20 m
diameter of horizontal circle. (c) 150.00 m (d) 519.61 m
(d) None of these
Q.37 Aerial photographs were taken with a
Q.32 The two point and three point problem are camera of focal length 180 mm. The average
essentially the method of elevation of ground in photograph was
(a) finding the line joining two points or
180 m. The scale of photograph is ________
three points.
if flying height was 2500 m.
(b) solving a line of triangle.
(a) 1 : 18516 (b) 1 : 12890
(c) centering and levelling of table at a (c) 1 : 12113 (d) 1 : 13582
certain location.
(d) orienting the plane table. Q.38 Match List-I (Water pollutant) with List-II
(Adverse impact) and select the correct
Q.33 A 15 m high telephone tower is situated at
answer using the codes given below the
an elevated ground. The top of tower when
lists:
observed vertically subtends angle of 60°
List-I
from a bench mark situated at 80 m
A. Synthetic organic pollutants
horizontal distance from the tower and at
B. Inorganic pollutants
a RL of 320.000 m. The RL of base of tower C. Oils
will be _______ m, if height of instrument D. Nutrients
taken at BM is 2 m.
List-II
(a) 460.56 (b) 475.56
1. Endanger water birds and coastal plants
(c) 445.56 (d) 383.18 2. Adverse impact on flora and fauna
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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 7

3. Decrease in oxygen carrying capacity of 1. Combined system sewers are required

the blood in infants. to be laid at steeper gradients.
4. Toxic and bio-refractory organics 2. In case of separate system, pumping is
Codes: only required for sewage.
A B C D 3. Large capacity treatment plant is
(a) 3 1 2 4 required for combined system.
(b) 4 1 2 3 4. In separate system, only sewage is
(c) 4 2 1 3 treated before it is discharged into a
(d) 3 2 1 4 large water body.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q.39 An activated sludge process is used to treat
(b) 2 and 3 only
a wastewater with a flow rate of
2100 m3 /day. It has an inflow BOD 5 of (c) 3 and 4 only
300 mg/l. The aeration tank is operated at (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a MLSS of 2400 mg/l. The hydraulic Q.43 Consider the following statements with
retention time of aeration tank is 6 hr. The reference to Indoor Air Quality (IAQ)?
effluent BOD5 is 25 mg/l. What is the food 1. IAQ refers to the nature of the
to mass ratio? conditioned (heat/cool) air that
(a) 0.23/day (b) 0.4/day
circulates throughout space/area, where
(c) 0.46/day (d) 0.8/day
one lives and works.
Q.40 Consider the following statements with 2. Carbon based gaseous pollutants
reference to heating value of waste: (VOCs) in indoors are 2 to 5 times higher
1. Heat value is directly proportional to than outdoors.
carbon content and inversely 3. Pressure gradient is the only driving
proportional to ash and moisture force causing natural ventilation.
content. 4. The feeling of illness among majority of
2. Preferred ratio of carbon to nitrogen in occupants of an unconditioned space is
a waste is around 20-35. called sick building syndrome.
Which of the following statements is/are Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect? correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Q.41 A 3% solution of a sewage sample is kept
Q.44 Calculate the quantity of soda (Na 2CO 3 )
at an incubation temperature of 20°C. If
required per day to soften 2 MLD of hard
BOD of sample is 200 mg/l and final DO
water, containing alkalinity of 250 mg/l;
value after 5 days is 4.5 mg/l then what
hardness as CaCl 2 = 55 mg/l, and as
would have been the initial DO value?
MgSO4 = 80 mg/l. Purity of soda available
(a) 15 mg/l (b) 10.5 mg/l
is 80%.
(c) 17.5 mg/l (d) 20 mg/l
(a) 154.58 kg/day
Q.42 Which of the following are considered (b) 123.67 kg/day
before finalizing the type of collection (c) 309.17 kg/day
system? (d) 247.34 kg/day
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8 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.45 Match List-I (Pipe appurtenances) with (a) 11.5 kW (b) 57.5 kW
List-II (Uses/function) and select the (c) 0.575 kW (d) 5.75 kW
correct answer using the codes given below
Q.48 Consider the following disadvantages of
the lists:
intermittent system of water supply:
List-I
1. During fire break, rescue operations
A. Air valve
cannot be done effectively.
B. Sluice valve
2. Severe pollution and contamination
C. Relief valve
problem during supply.
D. Blow off valve
3. Cost of pipe fittings increases.
List-II
4. It results more wastage of water than
1. To remove the sand, silt accumulated
in continuous supply.
from the pipe line.
Which of the above statements are correct?
2. To release the excess pressure if it
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
reaches greater than the permissible
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
pressure.
3. Provided at the summit to release the Q.49 Consider the following assumptions for the
backward pressure creating blockage to design of horizontal sedimentation tank:
the flow of water. 1. Concentration of particles and velocity
4. To regulate flow of water. of flow are evenly distributed across the
Codes: tank cross-section at inlet.
A B C D 2. The liquid moves as in ideal slug, down
(a) 4 3 1 2 the length of tank.
(b) 3 4 2 1 3. A particle is said to be removed when it
(c) 3 4 1 2 reaches the bottom of the tank.
(d) 4 3 2 1 Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Q.46 A 250 ml of sample of water has initial pH
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
of 10. If 8 ml of 0.02 N H2SO4 is required to
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
titrate the sample to reach pH of 8.3 and
further 22 ml of 0.02 N H2SO4 is required Q.50 The intensity of noise level of a source is
to titrate sample to reach pH upto 4.5 then measured by installing a noise meter located
determine the concentration of carbonate at a distance of 60 m and recorded noise
alkalinity at 25°C. level is 100dB. The reading of the noise
(a) 61 mg/l (b) 54 mg/l meter at a distance of 120 m from the source
(c) 120 mg/l (d) 15.25 mg/l will be __________ (in dB).
(a) 90 dB (b) 94.87 dB
Q.47 Two parallel mixing basins are provided
(c) 93.98 dB (d) 106.02 dB
with mechanical mixers in a 96 MLD water
treatment plant. The mixing velocity Q.51 The intensity of rainfall for the successive
gradient and detention time should be 30 min period of a 3 hour storm are 1.5, 3.5,
1 × 103 sec–1 and 9 sec respectively. Calculate 5, 3, 2, 1 cm/hr. The corresponding surface
the power required for the mixers. runoff is estimated as 3.5 cm. What is the
[water = 1.15 × 10–3 kg/m-sec] -index?

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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 9

(a) 1.6 cm/hr (b) 1.5 cm/hr 1. For intercropping, crop intensification is
(c) 1.625 cm/hr (d) 1.8 cm/hr only in time dimension.
2. In sequential cropping, crop
Q.52 Consider the following statements with
intensification is in both time and space
respect to instantaneous unit hydrograph
dimensions.
(IUH):
Which of the above statements is/are
1. As the duration of unit hydrograph is
correct?
increased, the unit hydrograph becomes
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
more skewed.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It is also called unit hydrograph of zero
duration. Q.56 The discharge required at head of water
3. IUH is indicative of rainfall course with 20% losses of water is 1 cumec.
characteristics. The duty on field for a certain crop is 2000
4. Ordinate of IUH is the slope of S-curve hectare/cumec with the intensity of
of intensity 1 cm/hr. irrigation being 60% then what is the
Which of the above statements is/are culturable command area?
correct? (a) 16666 ha (b) 3334 ha
(a) 2 and 4 only (c) 6000 ha (d) 4167 ha
(b) 1 only Q.57 The upper portion of a dam is also subjected
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only to the impact of waves then which of the
(d) 1 and 3 only following is/are correct statements:
1. Wave pressure against massive dams of
Q.53 Probability of a 10 years flood to occur
large height is usually of more
atleast once in the next 3 years is
important.
(a) 72.9% (b) 27.1%
2. The maximum wave pressure occurs at
(c) 12.4% (d) 87.6%
0.125 hw above the still water level.
Q.54 Consider the following statements with 3. The total wave force acts at 0.375 h w
reference to flood routing: above the still water level in the
1. For regulated reservoir, peak does not downstream direction.
occur when inflow discharge is equal to Note: (hw = height of wave)
outflow discharge. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
2. The volume that would be stored in the (c) 3 only (d) 2 only
reach if the flow were uniform Q.58 The minimum thickness of floor required
throughout at the level of upstream at a point to counteract the uplift pressure
water level is called prism storage. is 4 m. If the relative density of concrete is
Which of the above statements is/are 2.5 then the uplift pressure head due to
correct? seepage is
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1.6 m (b) 0.625 m
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 6 m (d) 4 m
Q.55 Consider the following statements about Q.59 Consider the following statements and
multiple cropping to meet food choose the correct set of statements with
requirements: reference to canal outlets:
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10 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

1. Outlet is provided at the junction of 2W

watercourse and the distributary as the
A B
water flows from watercourse to
0.5MP
distributary. 1.5MP
2. The main objective of providing an outlet
is to provide ample water supply to the l/2 l/2
fields, whenever needed.
0.75 M P 0.5 M P
3. Non-modular outlets are controlled by (a) (b)
l l
a shutter at its upstream end.
MP 1.5 M P
4. Non-modular outlets are very suitable (c) (d)
l l
for high head conditions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 only Q.63 Consider the following statements about
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only welded joint:
1. The effective throat thickness of an
Q.60 When the tail-water depth is less than the incomplete penetration butt welds shall
depth required for the jump formation then be taken as the minimum thickness of
the energy dissipator used is the weld metal common to the parts
(a) Ski-jump bucket joined excluding reinforcement.
(b) Submerged bucket 2. The size of normal fillet welds shall be
(c) Flashboard taken as minimum weld leg size plus
(d) Rectangular lifts 2.4 mm.
3. The clear spacing between the effective
Q.61 A simply supported steel joist with a 4 m
lengths of intermittent fillet weld shall
effective span carries a uniformly
not exceed 12 times the thickness of
distributed load of 10 kN/m over its entire
thicker plate being joined for tension
span inclusive of self-weight. The beam is
joint.
supported laterally throughout and Which of the following statements is/are
comprises of ISLB 250 @ 194.2 N/m. The incorrect?
relevant properties of the section are (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Df = 200 mm, t f = 7.3 mm, t w = 5.4 mm, (c) 2 only (d) All of these
Ixx = 1600 × 104 mm4, Modulus of elasticity
Q.64 Consider the following statements about
= 2 × 105 N/mm2.
the design method of steel structures.
(a) The beam is safe in deflection and
1. The structure designed by plastic
allowable deflection is 10.42 mm.
method is economical.
(b) The beam is not safe in deflection and
2. Factor of safety is the same in both plastic
allowable deflection is 9.82 mm.
and elastic method for indeterminate
(c) The beam is safe in deflection and
structures.
calculated deflection is 10.42 mm.
3. It is easy to design for fatigue by plastic
(d) The beam is not safe in deflection and
method.
calculated deflection is 10.42 mm.
4. In elastic method of design, design
Q.62 Calculate the collapse load for the cantilever process consumes more time than plastic
beam as shown in figure. method.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 11

Which of the following statements is/are of 2 ISMC 350 channels connected by lacing.
correct? The lacing is designed to carry a load of:
(a) All of these (a) 3.125 N (b) 3.50 N
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3.75 N (d) 4 N
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q.68 Calculate the value of plastic modulus for a
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
thin walled circular tube of radius 100 mm
Q.65 The design tensile strength from and thickness 20 mm.
consideration of rupture of 160 × 12 mm (a) 140 × 103 mm3
plate with holes for 16 mm bolts as shown (b) 170 × 103 mm3
in figure below is [Assume plate is made of (c) 200 × 103 mm3
steel of grade Fe410] (d) 800 × 103 mm3

40 mm Q.69 In a plate girder, the thickness of the web

in a section shall satisfy which of the
30 mm serviceability requirement when transverse
25 mm stiffeners are not provided and web is
connected to flanges along one longitudinal
160 mm

25 mm
25 mm edge only? [As per IS 800 : 2007]
25 mm d d
(a)  90 (b)  200
30 mm tw tw
d d
(c) t  270 (d) t  350
(a) 255.7 kN (b) 290.8 kN w w
(c) 375.5 kN (d) 436.36 kN
Q.70 The moment-rotation curve as shown in the
Q.66 A tie member in a roof truss diagonal given figure is that of a
system consists of an angle of dimension
100 × 75 × 10 mm which is connected to a
Moment

gusset plate by a 5 mm fillet weld. Calculate

the net area.
100 mm

Rotation

(a) Rigid joint (b) Semirigid joint

10 mm (c) Flexible joint (d) Pin joint

75 mm Q.71 A four cycle gasoline engine when tested

under the given condition of temperature
(a) 1512.1 mm2 (b) 950 mm2
32°C and pressure of 700 mm Hg was found
(c) 700 mm2 (d) 1462.85 mm2
to develop 75 HP. Determine the horse
Q.67 A steel column in a multi-storeyed building power for standard condition. [Assume
carries an axial load of 150 N. It is built up standard temperature as 15°C, standard

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12 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

pressure as 760 mm of Hg and Normal time Crash time Normal cost Crash cost
Activity
(days) (days) (Rs.) (Rs.)
1.059  1.029 ]
10-20 5 3 4000 6000
(a) 83.79 HP (b) 118.93 HP 20-40 3 2 6000 8000
(c) 67.13 HP (d) 71.08 HP
Determine the total cost of the project
Q.72 A four wheel tractor weighting 20000 kg corresponding to optimum duration?
has weight distribution between the front Take overhead cost of the project as 1500
and the rear wheels of 40 and 60 percent per day.
respectively. It is operating on a level haul (a) Rs. 21500 (b) Rs. 22000
road whose rolling resistance is 45 kg per (c) Rs. 19750 (d) Rs. 21000
tonne. What is the maximum effective Q.76 A construction equipment was purchased
rimpull of tractor? [Take  = 0.7] at Rs. 6000 and its salvage value at the end
(a) 9300 kg (b) 4700 kg of 3 years is Rs. 500. Determine the amount
(c) 6500 kg (d) 7500 kg of depreciation as per sinking fund method
when rate of interest for sinking fund is 6%.
Q.73 Consider the following statements
(a) Rs. 1439 (b) Rs. 1728
regarding resource smoothening:
(c) Rs. 1927 (d) Rs. 1269
1. The total project duration is not changed
during the process. Q.77 Match List-I with List-II and select the
2. The efforts are being made to generate correct answer using the codes given below
uniform demand by utilizing the float the lists:
available. List-I (Type of contract)
Which of the above statements is/are A. Lump sum contract
incorrect? B. Labour contract
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only C. Cost plus percentage rate contract
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 D. Percentage rate contract
List-II (description)
Q.74 Consider the following statements 1. Actual cost in addition with some
regarding the mixers used in construction: percentage.
1. Construction mixer specified as 6S by the 2. Above or below the owner’s rate.
ASTM where the number indicates 3. Labour cost excluding materials.
nominal volume of mixed concrete per 4. Fixed sum is quoted to complete the
batch. work.
2. Tilting type batch mixer is commonly Codes:
used for small works. A B C D
3. Tilting type batch mixer produces more (a) 1 3 2 4
satisfactory results for dry concrete. (b) 4 1 3 2
Which of the above statements are correct? (c) 2 4 1 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (d) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Q.78 A PERT network along with the three time
Q.75 The information about the activities of a estimates (in days) for each activity is shown
network is shown below: below:

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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 13

4. Optimum cost and duration of project

20 is obtained by crashing.
3-4
.5 Which of the above statements are correct?
-1 4 -9
2 -5 (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only

1-2.5 -7
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
10 40
Q.81 Calculate the minimum sight distance
6-
9- 5 -1 4 required for a road on which two vehicles
18 2- are coming towards each other from
30 different lanes with speed of 80 kmph and
40 kmph respectively. [Assume reaction
Determine the total duration of the project
time = 2.5 sec, Coefficient of longitudinal
at which the project is completed with 95%
friction = 0.4.]
probability.
(a) 162.14 m (b) 43.55 m
[Given for 95% probability, Z = 1.65]
(c) 118.59 m (d) 75.04 m
(a) 16.33 days (b) 19.62 days
(c) 20.67 days (d) 22.57 days Q.82 A car whose front axle is power driven was
moving with a tractive force of 80 kN and
Q.79 Table below shows the activities and the
then forced to traverse a horizontal curve
corresponding durations (in weeks) for a
with the turning angle of 30°. Determine
construction project. Determine the project
the loss in traction.
completion time (in weeks)
(a) 10.72 kN (b) 69.28 kN
Activity Duration (in weeks) (c) Zero (d) 40.00 kN
1-2 3 Q.83 Bureau of Indian Standard classifies
2-3 2 bitumen into grades such as 65/25, 85/40
2-4 1 etc. The first and second number
2-5 5 respectively refer to
3-6 2 (a) Penetration and softening point
5-6 1 (b) Flash point and fire point
4-6 4 (c) Penetration and flash point
6-8 7 (d) Softening and penetration

Q.84 Consider the following causes for the

(a) 16 (b) 14
occurrence of rutting:
(c) 15 (d) 13
1. Heavy channelize of traffic
Q.80 A bar chart is similar to the PERT/CPM 2. Shrinkage of bitumen with age
network in respect of the following 3. Improper compaction
statements: 4. Weak pavement
1. Time of completion of the project can 5. Construction during cold weather
be evaluated. Which of the above cause(s) are incorrect?
2. Critical path of project can be (a) 2 and 5 only
determined. (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. It depicts instantaneous resource (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
requirements. (d) None of the above
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14 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.85 Determine the radius of relative stiffness 4. The airport pavement is designed for
using the following data: maximum structural landing weight.
Poisson’s ratio = 0.15 Which of the above statements is/are
Modulus of elasticity of slab incorrect?
= 1.5 × 107 kN/m2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Modulus of elasticity of subgrade (b) 2 and 4 only
= 0.15 × 104 kN/m2 (c) 1 and 4 only
Modulus of subgrade reaction (d) 3 only
corresponding to 45 cm diameter plate = 6 ×
Q.89 Determine the approximate angle of
104 kN/m3
crossing if the curve lead of the BG track
Thickness of pavement = 0.36 m
turnout is 5.80 m.
[Take (1.65)1/4 = 1.133, (1.657)1/4 = 1.135, (a) 30° (b) 60°
(1.757)1/4 = 1.157 and (1.75)1/4 = 1.150] (c) 45° (d) 25°
(a) 113.5 cm (b) 23.6 cm
(c) 151.1 cm (d) None of the above Q.90 An airport runway is situated at MSL and
is having length 2500 m. The monthly mean
Q.86 Consider the following data related to a of maximum and mean daily temperature
plain cement concrete pavement: for the hottest month of the year are 40°C
Friction coefficient, f = 1.4 and 25°C respectively. What will be the final
Tensile strength of concrete, corrected length of the runway for landing
tc = 1.3 kg/cm 2
operation?
Unit weight of concrete, c = 2400 kg/cm2 (a) 2875 m (b) 2565 m
Determine the contraction joint spacing of (c) 2625 m (d) 2500 m
the pavement.
Q.91 Match List-I with List-II and select the
(a) 7.7 m (b) 4.2 m
correct answer using the codes given below
(c) 6.7 m (d) 4.5 m
the lists:
Q.87 The maximum flow of vehicles at a certain List-I (Track component)
section on the road is 1500 vph. Determine A. Fastening
the area under the curve plotted between B. Fish plates
speed and density. C. Tie bars
(a) 3000 vph (b) 6000 vph D. Crossing
(c) 1500 vph (d) 750 vph List-II (Function)
1. Fixing rails to CI sleepers through a
Q.88 Consider the following statements:
plate.
1. The main gear of an aircraft is designed
2. Fixing rail with sleepers directly.
to support the minimum structural
3. Fixing rail to rail.
weight. 4. At the intersection of two rails.
2. Payload is the total revenue producing
Codes:
load including weight of passengers
A B C D
also.
(a) 4 1 3 2
3. Maximum gross take-off weight is the (b) 2 1 3 4
maximum load that the aircraft is (c) 2 3 1 4
certified to carry during take-off.
(d) 4 3 1 2
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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 15

Q.92 Consider the following statements

60 kNm
regarding the structures used in docks &
harbours: B C
3m
1. Jetties are provided at a place where sea
is deep for a long distance.
2. Revetments are the structure considered 4m
parallel to shore line.
3. Groynes are structures to protect the
beaches.
A
Which of the above statements are correct? EI is constant
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 180 120
(a) (b)
EI EI
Q.93 What will be the fixed end clockwise
150 90
moment at A for the beam given below? (c) (d)
EI EI
10 kNm 20 kNm
Q.96 The given frame is loaded with a uniformly
A C D B distributed load on the member DE.
Determine the moment developed at the
1m 2m 4m fixed support.

(a) 1.633 kNm (b) –8.163 kNm

(c) –1.633 kNm (d) 8.163 kNm

Q.94 Find the horizontal displacement at the C

roller support in the given truss.
3m
D P kN
C
5 kN/m
D
A E
L 2m 2m

A B
3m

L B EI = Constant
AE = Constant

PL 2PL
(a) (b) (a) 3.33 kNm (b) 4.67 kNm
2 AE AE
(c) 2.67 kNm (d) 5.33 kNm
PL PL
(c) (d)
2 AE AE Q.97 Determine the degree of static
indeterminacy for the beam as shown in
Q.95 For the frame shown below, what will be
figure.
the deflection at the roller support C?

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16 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

(a) 27 (b) 23
(c) 22 (d) 17
String
Q.101 For the given beam, the maximum positive
shear force at section H when a UDL of
8 kN/m of length 8 m moves from A to F
Hinge
will be
(a) 1 (b) 4 H G I J
A F
(c) 5 (d) 3 Hinge

9m
Q.98 A system with a natural frequency of
40 rad/s and damping ratio 10% is subjected 18 m 5m 5m 5m

to a harmonic motion force of 100 sin 60t. (a) 17.76 kN (b) 35.52 kN
The frequency ratio of this system is: (c) 8.88 kN (d) 23.64 kN
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.4
Q.102 The flexibility coefficient f11 for the beam
(c) 25 (d) 3
shown below is:
Q.99 Determine the vertical reaction at support
2
A of the three-hinged circular arch as shown
below.
1 2EI
EI
B 6 kN/m A B
C
L/2 L/2

13L 9L
A m (a) (b)
20 48EI 16 EI
 =45° C 19 L 5L
(c) (d)
14.14 m D 20 m 48EI 16 EI

(a) 72.43 kN (b) 45.65 kN Q.103 A bar produces a lateral strain of

(c) 24.62 kN (d) 97.62 kN magnitude –120 × 10–5, when subjected to
a tensile stress of magnitude 300 MPa along
Q.100 Neglecting the horizontal axial the axial direction. If the Poisson’s ratio is
deformation, the kinematic indeterminacy 0.3, then
of the structure shown below is: 1. Elasticity modulus is nearly 150 GPa
2. Modulus of rigidity is nearly 29 GPa
3. Bulk modulus of elasticity is nearly
62.5 GPa
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.104 A member ABC is formed by connecting a

steel bar of 25 mm × 25 mm to an

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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 17

aluminium bar of 50 mm × 50 mm cross- 1 = 600 × 10–6

section, as shown in figure. 2 = 500 × 10–6
C
and 3 = 200 × 10–6
B
A Aluminium y
Steel 50 kN
100 kN 150 kN

1.2 m 1m
3
The total deformation of the bar is
_________. (Take E for aluminium as 2
0.8 × 10 5 N/mm 2 and that for steel as
45° 1
2 × 105 N/mm2)
x
(a) 1.7 mm (elongation)
(b) 1.9 mm (elongation) What is the shearing strain (xy)?
(c) 1.7 mm (contraction) (a) 200 × 10–6 (b) 400 × 10–6
(d) 1.9 mm (contraction) (c) 150 × 10–6 (d) 300 × 10–6

Q.105 A simply supported beam of length 3 m Q.107 Consider the following statements:
carries a uniformly increasing load of 1. In case of bi-axial state of stress, radius
4 kN/m run at one end to 12 kN/m run of Mohr’s circle will be half the
at the other end, as shown in figure. difference of the two principal stresses.
2. The Mohr’s stress circle will be
12 kN/m tangential to the vertical axis in the case
of uniaxial stress field.
4 kN/m 3. The centre of Mohr’s circle for a two-
dimensional stress system always lies
A B in the y-axis (adopting conventional
3m axes notation).
4. When the state of stress is such that
The expression for bending moment at any there is no shear stress but, identical
distance ‘x’ from A will be direct stresses, radius of Mohr’s circle
is zero.
2 5 3
(a) 3x  x  10x Which of the above statements are correct?
9
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
2 3 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 5x  x  10x
8
Q.108 A cylindrical shell made of mild steel plate
8 and 1.2 m in diameter is to be subjected to
(c) 2 x 2  x 3  10 x
9 an internal pressure of 1.5 MN/m2. The
4 3 material yields at 240 MN/m 2 . The
(d) 2 x 2  x  10 x thickness of the plate on the basis of
9
maximum principal stress theory,
Q.106 A rectangular strain rosette as shown in assuming a factor of safety as 4 would be
figure, gives following readings in a strain (a) 15 mm (b) 13.5 mm
measurement: (c) 12 mm (d) 18 mm
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18 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.109 A wooden beam supports a UDL of Q.112 A conjugate beam shown in figure below:
40 kN/m run over a simply supported span
of 4 m. It is of square cross-section with
one diagonal horizontal, having diagonal 9wl2 2°
32EI
length 800 mm. What would be the
maximum shear stress indicates in the C B
A
cross-section of the beam?
3l l
(a) 0.25 N/mm2 (b) 0.28 N/mm2 4
4
(c) 0.22 N/mm2 (d) 0.32 N/mm2
What would be the slope in real beam
Q.110 Two beams have the same length, same corresponding to point at B?
allowable bending stress and the same
9 wl 3 9 wl 3
bending moment. The cross-section of the (a) (b)
32 EI 64 EI
beams are square and rectangle with depth
twice the width. The ratio of weight of the 9 wl3 9 wl 3
(c) (d)
rectangular beam with respect to square 128EI 512 EI

beam is: Take 3
2  1.26, 3
4  1.587  Q.113 A uniform bar simply supported at the
(a) 0.794 (b) 1.26 ends, carries a concentrated load P at mid-
(c) 0.63 (d) 1.587 span. If the same load be, alternatively and
uniformly distributed over the full length
Q.111 A short wooden rectangular pillar 40 cm ×
of the bar, the maximum deflection of the
24 cm carries two loads P1 and P2 at the
bar will
top as shown in figure. If the stress is
(a) decrease by 37.5%
compressive throughout and the maximum
(b) increase by 37.5%
stress on side towards P 1 is twice the
(c) decrease by 25%
maximum stress on the other side, then the
(d) increase by 25%
ratio of P1 and P2 will be
P2 P1 Q.114 A round steel rod ACB, 1.8 m long is firmly
held at its ends A and B as shown.

9 cm 6 cm
Nm B
580
T =
T2
0.6 m m
L = 40 m
m =
= 1.2 D
L C
24 cm

A B m
m
= 50
D
40 cm
P1 71 P1 101 A
T1
(a) P  24 (b) P  24
2 2 At C, a twisting couple moment of 580 Nm
P1 71 P1 101 is applied. The moment of resisting couples
(c) P  34 (d) P  34
2 2 at A and B are:

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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 19

(a) T1 = 320.6 Nm; T2 = 259.4 Nm Q.117 The figure below shows a U-tube having
(b) T1 = 318.7 Nm; T2 = 261.3 Nm a 8 mm × 8 mm square cross-section filled
(c) T1 = 355.2 Nm; T2 = 224.8 Nm with mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) in
(d) T1 = 307.4 Nm; T2 = 272.6 Nm each limb (open to the atmosphere)

Q.115 Consider the following statements:

1. The critical load is the maximum axial
load that a column can support when it
is on the verge of buckling. This loading
represents a case of stable equilibrium.
2. An ideal column is initially perfectly Mercury
straight, made of homogeneous
material, and the load is applied
through the centroid of the cross- If 20 cm 3 of water is added in the right
section. limb, then what is the rise of the meniscus
3. A pin-connected column will buckle in the left limb?
about the principal axis of the cross- (a) 1.45 cm (b) 1.25 cm
section having the least moment of (c) 1.15 cm (d) 1.05 cm
inertia.
u y
4. Buckling will occur about the axis where Q.118 For the velocity profile  , the
slenderness ratio gives the greatest u 
value. momentum thickness of a laminar
Of these statement: boundary layer on a flat plate at a distance
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are true of 1 m from the leading edge (for air
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are true kinematic viscosity = 2 × 10–5 m2/s) flowing
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are true at a free stream velocity of 2 m/s is
(d) 1, 2 and 4 are true (a) 3.28 mm (b) 2.63 mm
Q.116 Consider the following statements in (c) 5.26 mm (d) 4.88 mm
respect of steady laminar, flow through a Q.119 Oil of specific gravity 0.8 flows in a 8 cm
circular pipe: diameter pipeline. A sudden expansion
1. The shear stress distribution from the takes place into a second pipeline of such
centre line of the pipe upto the pipe diameter that the maximum pressure rise
surfaces increases linearly. is obtained. If the rate of flow through the
2. The discharge varies as the inverse of pipeline is 12.5 lit/s, then the loss of energy
viscosity of fluid. in the sudden expansion is
3. The friction factor is inversely (a) 8.4 cm of oil
proportional to pipe wall roughness (b) 9.2 cm of oil
and independent of Reynold’s number. (c) 7.9 cm of oil
4. The average velocity at a section is half (d) 6.5 cm of oil
the velocity at the centre of the pipe.
Which of the above statements are correct? Q.120 Water flows through a 300 mm × 150 mm
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 horizontal venturimeter at the rate of
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 0.065 m3 /s and the differential gauge is

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20 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

deflected by 1.2 m, as shown in figure of the following statement(s) is/are

below. correct?
1. It is a possible case of rotational flow.
1.2 m
2. It is a possible case of an irrotational
flow.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Specific gravity of manometric liquid is 1.6. Q.124 Consider the following statements with
The coefficient of discharge of the respect to specific energy:
venturimeter will be 1. Specific energy is the total energy above
(a) 0.99 (b) 0.98 the floor of an open channel.
(c) 0.95 (d) 0.92 2. For a given specific energy, two depths
Q.121 Which one of the following sets of exists and these are called normal
standard flows are superimposed to depths.
represent the flow past a Rankine oval 3. Critical flow occurs when the specific
body? energy is minimum for the given flow
(a) Doublet, vortex and uniform flow rate.
(b) Source, sink and uniform flow 4. The specific energy may decrease,
(c) Sink, vortex and uniform flow increase or remain constant in the
(d) Source and uniform flow direction of flow.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Q.122 The water surface profile in the channel
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
connecting the reservoirs, as shown in
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
figure will be
[HJ = Hydraulic Jump] Q.125 A bridge is planned on a 50 m wide
rectangular channel carrying a flow of 200
m3/s at a flow depth of 4 m. For reducing
Reservoir
the length of the bridge, what should be
NDL
NDL the minimum channel width such that the
upstream water level is not influenced for
Reservoir this discharge? (Take g= 10 m/s2)
Steep
(a) 12.8 m (b) 14.3 m
Mild
(c) 24.8 m (d) 18.6 m
(a) S2, HJ, M1, M2
Q.126 A pump has a performance curve
(b) M2, M1, HJ, S2
described by the relation
(c) M2, HJ, M1, S2
H = 13.0 – 0.15Q2
(d) S2, M3, HJ, M2
What is the performance curve relation for
Q.123 If for a flow, stream function  exists and a system having three of these pumps
satisfies the Laplace equation, then which connected in series?

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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 21

1 2 (a) 450 mm (b) 600 mm

(a) H  13  Q
60 (c) 150 mm (d) 300 mm
1 2 Q.130 The critical section for maximum bending
(b) H  39  Q
60 moment in the footing under masonry wall
27 2 as shown in figure is at section:
(c) H  39  Q
60
27 2 3 1
(d) H  13  Q 2 4
60
b

Q.127 A Pelton wheel having a mean bucket Brick wall

dimeter of 1.2 m is running at 1000 rpm. GL
The net head on the Pelton wheel is 840
m. If the side clearance angle is 15°, then
b/4 b/8
the hydraulic efficiency of the turbine is:
(cos 15° = 0.965, coefficient of velocity
= 1.0, g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 98.2% (b) 95.7% RCC
(c) 96.2% (d) 97.4%

Q.128 Consider the following statements with 2 4

3 1
respect to splicing of reinforcement:
1. Splices in flexural members should be (a) 1-1 (b) 2-2
located where the bending moment is (c) 3-3 (d) 4-4
less than 50 percent of the moment of
Q.131 A square column is subjected to an ultimate
resistance.
axial load of 1500 kN. Assuming concrete
2. Normal lap splices can be used for all
of grade M25 and steel of grade Fe415 and
type of bars irrespective of the sizes.
2% of longitudinal steel, what would be
3. Where bars of two different diameters
the dimension of the column (to the nearest
are to be spliced, the lap length is
higher multiple of 10)?
governed by the smaller diameter.
(a) 420 mm × 420 mm
4. Splices in tension member shall be
(b) 360 mm × 360 mm
enclosed in spirals made of bars not less
(c) 450 mm × 450 mm
than 8 mm diameter with pitch not more
(d) 320 mm × 320 mm
than 100 mm.
Which of the above statements are correct? Q.132 A singly reinforced rectangular concrete
(a) 1 and 3 only beam of width 300 mm and effective depth
(b) 2 and 4 only 400 mm is to be designed using M25 grade
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only concrete and Fe500 grade steel. For the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 beam to be under-reinforced, the
Q.129 What is the adoptable maximum spacing maximum number of 20 mm diameter
between vertical stirrups in an RCC beam reinforcing bars that can be provided is
of rectangular cross-section having (a) 3 (b) 4
effective depth of 600 mm? (c) 5 (d) 6

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22 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.133 An unrestrained reinforced concrete slab

of effective dimensions 4.5 m × 6.0 m is
simply supported on all four walls. It has
to carry a characteristics live load of
20 kN/sq.m in addition to the dead load. Retained earth
Assuming M25 and Fe415, thickness of the (b)
slab being 400 mm and finishing load of
1.5 kN/sq.m, what should be the design
load as per limit state method?
(a) 17.80 kN/sq.m
(b) 24.80 kN/sq.m
(c) 47.25 kN/sq.m
(d) 54.45 kN/sq.m

Q.134 Consider the following statements with Retained earth

(c)
respect to shear wall in a building:
1. Primarily designed to resist lateral
forces in its own plane.
2. It resists major portion of the lateral
shear in building through flexure
deformations and not through shear
deformation.
3. Efficient in terms of construction cost
and is effective in minimizing Retained earth
(d)
earthquake damage.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.136 The approximate reinforcement required
Q.135 Which of the following figure correctly to be provided per meter height of tank at
shows the reinforcement details in stem, the base of a RC circular tank with flexible
toe slab and heel slab of a cantilever base for a capacity of 400000 litres, will be:
retaining wall? (The depth of water is 4 m, including a
freeboard of 200 mm, use M20 concrete,
Fe250 steel).
(a) 1760 mm2/m (b) 1880 mm2/m
(c) 1680 mm2/m (d) 1960 mm2/m
Retained earth
Q.137 The negative bending moment at the next
(a)
to end support of a continuous beam is
 wu , DL wu , LL  2
(a)    L
 12 9 

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 Civil Engineering | Test 18 23

Q.139 Statement (I): High compressible soil takes

 wu , DL wu , LL  2
(b)   10  9 L more time to achieve ultimate primary
  consolidation than low compressible soil.
Statement (II): Coefficient of consolidation
 wu , DL wu , LL  2 is inversely proportional to coefficient of
(c)   9  10  L
  volume compressibility.

 wu , DL wu , LL  2 Q.140 Statement (I): General shear failure of

(d)   9  12  L dense soil does not result in excessive
 
settlement under application of load.
where w u, DL = Factored dead load, Statement (II): Stress zone in general shear
wu, LL = Factored live load failure reaches upto ground level.

Q.138 A simply supported post-tensioned Q.141 Statement (I): If food available is abundant,
prestressed concrete beam of span L is pre- then the growth phase is log growth phase.
stressed by a tendon located at an Statement (II): Food to microorganism
eccentricity of h at mid-span and zero at ratio controls the rate of metabolism in
the supports. If the magnitude of the continuous reactions.
prestressing force is P and flexural rigidity
Q.142 Statement (I): In a gantry girder, the
of beam is EI, then maximum central
allowable stresses are increased by 10%.
deflection of the beam is
Statement (II): A gantry girder section is
5 PhL2 PhL2 subjected to vertical loads and horizontal
(a) (b)
8 EI 8EI thrust simultaneously.

5 PhL2 PhL2 Q.143 Statement (I): The Pandrol clip is a fit and
(c) (d)
48 EI 48EI forget type of fastening and is made from
silicon manganese spring steel bar and heat
Direction (Q.139 to Q.150): The following items treated.
consists of two statements, one labelled as Statement (II): The revetments are usually
Statement (I) and the other labelled as Statement built to separate land from rail lines to
(II). You have to examine these two statements pressure the fasteners.
carefully and select your answers to these items
using the codes given below: Q.144 Statement (I): Force response under zero
Codes: loading condition indicates the possibility
of static indeterminacy.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
Statement (II): When structure is statically
are true and Statement (II) is the correct
determinate and fails to zero load test it
explanation of Statement (I).
shows structure is not only geometrically
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
unstable but also statically indeterminate
are true but Statement (II) is not a
to some loading cases.
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) Q.145 Statement (I): For a cantilever beam
is false. subjected to uniformly distributed load
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) (downward) slope of bending moment
is true. diagram is positive and decreasing.

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24 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Statement (II): Shape of shear force Q.148 Statement (I): A semi-circular channel with
diagram is triangle with maximum value its centre at the middle of the water surface
at fixed end and decreases linearly to zero is the most-efficient cross-section.
at free end. Statement (II): A hydraulically efficient
channel has the minimum perimeter for a
Q.146 Statement (I): In a circular shaft subjected
given area of flow.
to torsion, shear stress is maximum at the
outer surface and shear stress is zero at Q.149 Statement (I): In a prestressed concrete
the axis of shaft. beam, lever arm varies with the bending
Statement (II): Shear stress at any point in moment whereas the magnitude of net
the shaft is proportional to the distance of compressive force and net tensile force
the point from the axis of the shaft. remain constant.
Statement (II): Steel acts as a tension flange
Q.147 Statement (I): There is a capillary fall in
of a beam in a prestressed concrete.
non-wetting liquids like mercury.
Statement (II): Adhesive forces are Q.150 Statement (I): The minimum
stronger than cohesive forces for a non- reinforcement in either direction of the slab
wetting liquid. is based on the consideration of shrinkage
and temperature effects.
Statement (II): The minimum
reinforcement required for slabs is more
than that required for beams.

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