"Ba Cây Tùng": Đề Thi Thử Thptqg Chuẩn Cấu Trúc Bgd

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Thạc sỹ - Giảng viên: Nguyễn Khả Thanh Tùng – 0983.449.

856
“BA CÂY TÙNG” Xóm Chùa - Cổ Loa – Đông Anh – Hà Nội
Date: ……/……/…… Facebook: Nguyễn Khả Thanh Tùng – greenriver16911@gmail.com

“BA CÂY TÙNG”

25 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG


CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BGD
2K4-VOL.3-8/2021

Thạc sỹ - Giảng viên: Nguyễn Khả Thanh Tùng


Điện thoại: 0983.449.856 – 0913.570.611
Địa chỉ: Xóm Chùa – Cổ Loa – Đông Anh – Hà Nội
Gmail: greenriver16911@gmail.com
Facebook: Nguyễn Khả Thanh Tùng

“DIARY IN PRISON – PSA – MPS”

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“BA CÂY TÙNG” Xóm Chùa - Cổ Loa – Đông Anh – Hà Nội
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 51 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. hates B. slopes C. tapes D. glasses
Question 2: A. head B. breathe C. clean D. beat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
Question 4: A. disappear B. arrangement C. opponent D. contractual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: There is too much _________ in this world.
A. greediness B. greed C. greedy D. greedness
Question 6: People can use different forms of communication; ________ verbal and non-verbal forms.
A. in fact B. in addition C. rather than D. for example
Question 7: _________ are the formal rules of correct or polite behavior among people using the Internet.
A. Traffic rules B. Family rules C. Codes of etiquettes D. Codes of netiquettes
Question 8: It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver ________ in the cash.
A. were injured B. are injurded C. was injured D. have been injured
Question 9: Working in over 150 countries, UNICEF _________ children with health care, clean water,
nutrition, education, emergency relief, and more.
A. presents B. assists C. provides D. offers
Question 10: He would win the race if he _________ his brother's example and trained harder.
A. repeated B. set C. answered D. followed
Question 11: "Excuse me. Where is the _________ office of OXFAM located?"
A. leading B. head C. central D. summit
Question 12: The fire brigade know that it is very difficult to rescue people from the blaze in this fashion
shop, _________ they will try their best.
A. but B. although C. despite D. however
Question 13: I’m sorry, I forgot to tell you the guests drink only water, so you really _________ all that
wine. But don’t worry, we’ll keep it for your birthday party.
A. can’t have bought B. needn’t have bought
C. wouldn’t have bought D. might not have bought
Question 14: Everybody in the house woke up when the burglar alarm _________.
A. went out B. went off C. came about D. rang off
Question 15: Have a piece of chocolate, _________?
A. do you B. would you C. don't you D. haven't you
Question 16: By the time you come here tomorrow, the work _________.
A. will have been finishing B. will be finishing

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C. will have been finished D. will be finished


Question 17: I didn’t take up his recommendation as he sounded so _________.
A. half-headed B. half-witted C. half-handed D. half-hearted
Question 18: I can’t possibly lend you any more money, it is quite out of the _________.
A. order B. practice C. place D. question
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Love and relationships will always be a topic of universal interest.
A. marked B. separated C. shared D. hidden
Question 20: His performance stood head and shoulders above the rest.
A. was much better than B. was a bit worse than
C. was a little bit higher than D. was far more acceptable than
Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: The magazine carries an intriguing mixture of high fashion, gossip, and racing, which readers
find unputdownable.
A. dull B. bright C. troublesome D. full
Question 22: It’s unbelievable how the success of his first novel has completely turned his head.
A. made him ashamed B. made him conceited C. made him crazy D. made him exhausted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27
The universal symbol of the Internet era communications, the @ sign used in e-mail addresses to
signify the word 'at', is (23)_________ a 500-year-old invention of Italian merchants, a Rome academic has
revealed. Giorgio Stabile, a science professor at La Sapienza University, claims to have stumbled on the
earliest known example of the symbol's use, as a(n) (24)_________ of a measure of weight or volume. He
says the sign represents an amphora, a measure of capacity based on the terracotta jars used to transport
grain and liquid in the ancient Mediterranean world.
The professor unearthed toe ancient symbol in the course of research for a visual history of the 20th
century, to be published by the Treccani Encyclopedia. The first (25)_________ instance of its use, he says,
occurred in a letter written by a Florentine merchant on May 4, 1536. He says the sign made its way along
trade routes to northern Europe, where it came to represent 'at the price of, its contemporary accountancy
meaning.
Professor Stabile believes that Italian banks may possess even earlier documents (26) _________
symbol lying forgotten in their archives. The oldest example could be of great value. It could be used
(27)_________ publicity purposes and to enhance the prestige of the institution that owned it, he says. The
race is on between the mercantile world and the banking world to see who has the oldest documentation of
@.
Question 23: A. actually B. truly C. essentially D. accurately
Question 24: A. proof B. sign C. evidence D. indication
Question 25: A. known B. knowing C. knowable D. knowledgeable
Question 26: A. taking B. carrying C. delivering D. bearing
Question 27: A. on B. for C. with D. by
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's
largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge
body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its
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unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's
core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface.
The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of
the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of
indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware
of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice
remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.
The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific
community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands
upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have
affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of
conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining
uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are
looking for possible ways to accomplish this.
Question 28: What is true of Lake Vostok?
A. It is completely frozen. B. It is a saltwater lake,
C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice. D. It is heated by the sun.
Question 29: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if _________.
A. there were no lake underneath B. the lake were not so big
C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used
Question 30: The word “microbes” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Pieces of dust B. Tiny bubbles C. Tiny organisms D. Rays of light
Question 31: The last paragraph suggests that scientists should be aware of _________.
A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica
B. problems with satellite-bome radar equipment
C. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it
D. the harsh climate of Antarctica
Question 32: The purpose of the passage is to _________.
A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered
B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica
C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok
D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica's geography
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 33: Luna and Juka are attending a wedding. Juka is complimenting Luna on her skirt.
Juka: “That's a very nice skirt you're wearing.”
Luna: “ _________ ”
A. How a compliment! B. That's all right.
C. It's nice of you to say so. D. I like you said so.
Question 34: Ms. Katie is decorating her house. She is asking her son for some help.
Ms. Katie: “ _________ ”
Son: “Yes, of course.”
A. You won’t help me this time. B. You’d better give me one hand.
C. I don’t think I’ll need your help. D. Could you give me a hand?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
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“BA CÂY TÙNG” Xóm Chùa - Cổ Loa – Đông Anh – Hà Nội
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Perhaps the most striking quality of satiric literature is its freshness and its originality of perspective.
Satire itself, however, rarely offers original ideas. Instead, it presents the familiar in a new form. Satirists do
not offer the world new philosophies. What they do is look at familiar conditions from a perspective that
makes these conditions seem foolish, harmful, or affected. Satire jars us out of complacence into a
pleasantly shocked realization that many of the values we unquestioningly accept are false.
Don Quixote makes chivalry seem absurd; Brave New World ridicules the pretensions of science; A
Modest Proposal dramatizes starvation by advocating cannibalism. None of these ideas is original. Chivalry
was suspect before Cervantes, humanists objected to the claims of pure science before Aldous Huxley, and
people were aware of famine before Swift.
It was not the originality of the idea that made these satires popular. It was the manner of expression,
the satiric method, that made them interesting and entertaining. Satires are read because they are
aesthetically satisfying works of art, not because they are morally wholesome or ethically instructive. They
are stimulating and refreshing because with commonsense briskness they brush away illusions and
secondhand opinions. With spontaneous irreverence, satire rearranges perspectives, scrambles familiar
objects into incongruous juxtaposition, and speaks in a personal idiom instead of abstract platitude.
Satire exists because there is need for it. It has lived because readers appreciate a refreshing stimulus,
an irreverent reminder that they live in a world of platitudinous thinking, cheap moralizing, and foolish
philosophy. Satire serves to prod people into an awareness of truth, though rarely to any action on behalf of
truth. Satire tends to remind people that much of what they see, hear, and read in popular media is
sanctimonious, sentimental, and only partially true. Life resembles in only a slight degree the popular image
of it.
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Difficulties of writing satiric literature.
B. Popular topics of satire.
C. New philosophies emerging from satiric literature.
D. Reasons for the popularity of satire.
Question 36: Don Quixote, Brave New World, and A Modest Proposal are cited by the author as .
A. classic satiric works B. a typical approach to satire
C. best satirists of all times D. good critiques by satirists
Question 37: The word “they” refers to _________.
A. works of art B. illusion C. opinions D. satires
Question 38: Which of the following can be found in satiric literature?
A. Newly emerging philosophies.
B. Odd combinations of objects and ideas.
C. Abstract discussion of morals and ethics.
D. Wholesome characters who are unselfish.
Question 39: According to the passage, there is a need for satire because people need to be _________.
A. informed about new scientific developments
B. exposed to original philosophies when they are formulated
C. reminded that popular ideas may often be inaccurate
D. told how they can be of service to their communities
Question 40: The word “refreshing” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. popular B. revitalizing _________ c. common D. awakening
Question 41: The word “sanctimonious” may be new to you. It most probably means “ _________ ” in this
context.
A. exaggerated B. good C. educational D. moderate
Question 42: The various purposes of satire include all of the following EXCEPT.
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A. introducing readers to unfamiliar situations B. brushing away illusions


C. reminding readers of the truth D. exposing false values
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Please remain in your assign seats until the instructor dismisses the class.
A. in B. assign seats C. until D. dismisses
Question 44: It is your generosity who I am impressed more than anything else.
A. It B. who C. more D. anything else
Question 45: The nutritionist told him to avoid eating lots of carbohydrates, focus having more protein-rich
foods and green vegetables, and drink at least eight glasses of water a day.
A. exaggerated B. good C. educational D. moderate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: You don’t try to work hard. You will fail the exam.
A. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail the exam.
B. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail the exam.
C. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail the exam.
D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail the exam.
Question 47: An loved her teady bear when she was a child. She couldn’t sleep without it.
A. When An was a child, she loved her teady bear so as not to sleep with it.
B. As An couldn’t sleep without her teady bear when she was a child, she loved it.
C. When An was a child, she loved her teady bear so much that she couldn’t sleep without it.
D. When An was a child, she loved her teady bear though she couldn’t sleep without it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: He decided not to go to university and went to work in a restaurant.
A. Despite of going to university he went to work in a restaurant.
B. He went to work in a restaurant instead of going to university.
C. Instead of going to university, he went to work in a restaurant.
D. He decided to go to work in a restaurant because he liked it.
Question 49: The secret to success is hard work.
A. Working hard ensures success.
B. If you keep your work secret, you will succeed.
C. One cannot succeed if he has secrets.
D. One must work hard to keep secrets.
Question 50: Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
A. I disturbed the meeting because I said goodbye.
B. I would rather disturb the meeting than leave without saying goodbye.
C. The meeting was disturbed as I left saying goodbye.
D. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.

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“BA CÂY TÙNG” Xóm Chùa - Cổ Loa – Đông Anh – Hà Nội
Date: ……/……/…… Facebook: Nguyễn Khả Thanh Tùng – greenriver16911@gmail.com

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 52 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Looking for an unforgettable way to celebrate that special occasion? Well, the (1) _________ of
options open today’s youngster - or even “oldster” for that matter, is a far cry from the traditional party or
restaurant visit. No longer is it considered sufficient to invite your friends round, buy some food and get a
barker to produce a cake. No, today’s birthday boy or girl is looking for something out of the ordinary,
ranging from the outrageously expensive to the downright dangerous. Anything goes, as long as it is unusual
and impressive.
Top of this year’s popular (2)_________ are as follows: taking some friends rally driving, helicopter
lessons, plane trip and parachuting, and hot air ballooning. Then there is always group bungee jumping or
taking your buddies on a stomach - churning, while water rafting ride down rapids.
The desire of adventurous celebration is not restricted to the young I recently met an octogenarian
(3)_________ celebrated (4) _________ the milestone of eighty by having a fly lesson.
Of course, if you have money the world is your oyster. A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of his
friends to a Caribbean island to mark the passing of his half century. Unfortunately I was only a distant
relation.
Undoubtedly, the more traditional forms (5) _________ celebration do continue to satisfy the less
extravagant or less adventurous among us. However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I
would not say no to a weekend in Paris and a meal at the Eiffel Tower. I can but dream. Perhaps by the time
I’m eighty I’ll be able to afford it.
Question 1: A. scale B. degree C. range D. variance
Question 2: A. experiments B. extravagances C. exposures D. expenses
Question 3: A. who B. which C. whose D. where
Question 4: A. attaining B. arriving C. reaching D. getting
Question 5: A. to B. for C. of D. about
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. invalid B. predict C. pretend D. preface
Question 7: A. mausoleum B. conservative C. disqualify D. magnificent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. chooses B. houses C. mixes D. breathes
Question 9: A. post B. local C. prominent D. hotel
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 10: You take your life in your hands just crossing the road here.
A. walk hand in hand B. save yourselves C. risk being killed D. go hand in hand
Question 11: The sales of drugs are controlled by law in most of countries.
A. permitted B. restricted C. illegal D. binding

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 12: Many people have tried to preserve the ecology of many natural places.
A. reserve B. destroy C. conserve D. maintain
Question 13: My dad is always getting very bad-tempered when when he's tired.
A. feeling embarrassed B. talking too much
C. very happy and satisfied D. easily annoyed or irritated
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom
and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its
construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is
a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the
burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid
are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient
Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based
on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines.
Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events - past, present and future.
Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are
prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have
supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial
beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?
Question 14: What has research of the base revealed?
A. There are cracks in the foundation. B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body,
C. The lines represent important events. D. A superior race of people built in.
Question 15: Extraterrestrial beings are _________.
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets
Question 16: What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
Question 17: The word “feat” in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to _________.
A. accomplishment B. appendage C. festivity D. structure
Question 18: What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid.
B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza.
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops.
Question 19: On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies. B. Advanced technology,
C. Advanced tools of measurement. D. knowledge of the earth’s surface.

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Question 20: Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?


A. As a solar observatory. B. As a religious temple,
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh. D. As an engineering feat.
Question 21: Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.
C. It was built by a super race.
D. It is very old.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following question.
Question 22: The room got _________ when the teacher started the lesson.
A. quiet B. quietness C. quietly D. quite
Question 23: In the years _________ all the trees will disappear if nothing is done to protect them.
A. come B. coming C. to come D. will come
Question 24: The accused _________ guilty to all charges.
A. pleaded B. admitted C. said D. confessed
Question 25: Mrs. Archer is known _________ the finest collection of twentieth century art in private
hands.
A. as have B. having C. by having D. to have
Question 26: Mark is nearsighted. He _________ glasses ever since he was ten years old.
A. should have worn B. must wear C. need wear D. has had to wear
Question 27: I like your new car. What _________ is it?
A. brand B. name C. label D. make
Question 28: John is _______ only child in his family so his parents love him a lot.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 29: _________ an emergency arise, call 911.
A. Should B. Can C. Does D. Will
Question 30: _________ in business, one must be prepared to take risks.
A. Succeeding B. Success C. To succeed D. Succeed
Question 31: I don’t like this wine. I like _________.
A. some other B. another C. other D. the other
Question 32: The house is found _________ down.
A. to bum B. burning C. having burned D. to have been burned
Question 33: The children gazed at the magician _________ as he performed his tricks.
A. eagle-eyed B. hawk-eyed C. open-eyed D. wide-eyed
Question 34: Only in the last few days _________ to repair the swimming pool.
A. anything has been done B. has done anything
C. has anything been done D. has there anything been done
Question 35: The air inside a house or office building often has higher concentrations of contaminants
________ heavily polluted outside air.
A. than does B. more than C. as that D. like of
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old- cat,
rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that
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troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York
Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikers -
you’re - out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning, a nine-man team. “The New York Game”
spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of
satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban - industrial society. At its inception it was it was
played by and for gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two
captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday
afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners.
During the 1850 - 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism
(charging admission), under - the - table payments to exceptional players, and gambling on the outcome of
games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first - nine, and
their “muffins” (the gentlemanly duffers who once ran the game). Beginning with the first openly all -
salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the complete
professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional baseball
players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-
minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s
“Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a
weekly periodical “The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double- deck stands
replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the
Western League based in the growing cities of the Mis west proclaimed itself the American League.
Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The origin of baseball
B. The commercialization of baseball
C. The influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
D. The development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 37: The word “lavish” in line 10 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive
Question 38: According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except _________.
A. commercialism became more prosperous B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income D. people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
A. Wooden stadiums replaced open fields.
B. A weekly periodical commenced.
C. The National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed.
D. Profits soared.
Question 40: The word “itself” in line 22 refers to _________.
A. the Western League B. growing cities C. the Midwest D. the American League
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 41: Zudic is inviting his family to have dinner.
Zudic: “Let’s have dinner now.”
Mother: “ _________ ”
A. You aren’t eating B. I won’t C. There aren’t any D. Bill isn’t here
Question 42: Macy is calling to Mr. Green’s office. A receptionist is answering the phone.
Macy: “Hello, I’d like to speak to Mr. Green, please.”
Receptionist: “ _________. ”
A. Sorry, can you say that again? B. I’m sorry, I’ll call again later
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C. I’m afraid I don’t know D. Let’s wait


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech, and
indication its correct use.
A. frequently B. origin C. defined D. indication
Question 44: Professor Layton was equally fond of the two children, but he had to admit that he found the
youngest an easier child to handle.
A. equally B. found C. youngest D. easier
Question 45: Automobile began to be equipped by built-in radios around 1930.
A. Automobile B. by C. built-in D. around
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: I think I should have cooked more food. There’s nothing left now.
A. I should not have cooked so much food.
B. I regrets cooking too much food now.
C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now.
D. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake.
Question 47: The contract ended six-month negotiation. It has just been signed.
A. The contract which ends six-month negotiation has just been signed.
B. The contract which has just been signed lasted six months.
C. The contract which lasted six months has just been signed.
D. The contract which has just been signed ended six-month negotiation.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: It is alleged that Rashid killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his
opportunity to be heir.
A. Rashid was alleged to have killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his opportunity
to be heir.
B. Rashid is alleged that to have killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his opportunity
to be heir.
C. Rashid is alleged to have killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his opportunity to
be heir.
D. Rashid is alleged have killed an assistant in the Ruler's office, thereby forfeiting his opportunity to be
heir.
Question 49: “You don’t appreciate me,” she said.
A. She complained that he took her for granted.
B. She said that he didn’t take her for granted.
C. She suggested that he shouldn’t appreciate her.
D. She told him not to appreciate her.
Question 50: Wouldn’t it be better to let them know about the alterations to the plan?
A. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
B. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
C. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?

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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 53 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. criticize B. miserable C. inferior D. questionable
Question 2: A. pharmaceutical B. engineer C. superstitious D. reliability
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. too B. food C. soon D. good
Question 4: A. culture B. country C. such D. music
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: She may look half asleep, but I can assure you she is _________ awake.
A. broad B. full C. well D. wide
Question 6: It’s important to project a(n) _________ image during the interview.
A. upbeat B. cheerful C. optimistic D. positive
Question 7: His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts of the case.
A. give B. bear C. posses D. reflect
Question 8: The children can stay here _________ they don’t make too much noise.
A. whether B. providing C. unless D. until
Question 9: It’s a serious operation for a man as old as my grandfather. He is very frail. I hope he _________.
A. gets away B. comes round C. pulls through D. stands up
Question 10: When Martin _________ the car, he took it out for a drive.
A. had repaired B. has repaired C. repaired D. was repairing
Question 11: “Don’t worry. I have _________ tire at the back of my car.”
A. another B. other C. others D. the other
Question 12: David was deported on account of his expired visa. He ________ it renewed.
A. must have had B. should have had C. needn’t have had D. miehtn’t have had
Question 13: Clean the floor _________ the children slip and fall.
A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. so long as
Question 14: Left - hand traffic, a custom existing in Britain only, _________ back to the days when
English people went to and fro on horseback.
A. dated B. dating C. dates D. which dates
Question 15: They can hardly expect profits to double again this year, _________?
A. can’t they B. do they C. don’t they D. can they
Question 16: The disaster has caused _________ damage to the area.
A. consider B. considering C. considered D. considerable
Question 17: Children can be difficult to teach because of their short attention _________.
A. limit B. duration C. span D. time
Question 18: The optic fiber was a major _________ in the field of telecommunications.
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A. break down B. breakthrough C. revolution D. technique


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a
greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily
available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth - friendly. Two such resources are solar
power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of
worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of
photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are
equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of the
world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal
power, which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that
are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which produces
electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel
resources and as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple. A
prime example of effective geothermal use in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where there are
over 80 percent of private homes, are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy
sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale.
Question 19: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.
B. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.
C. How energy resources are tapped from nature.
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 20: According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources?
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.
Question 21: Which of the following words could best replace the word “harnessing”?
A. Capturing B. Harassing C. Depleting D. Exporting
Question 22: According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
Question 23: According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy production?
A. They both require the use of a generator. B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface,
C. They both require fairly simple technology. D. They are both conventional and costly.
Question 24: According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.

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Question 25: What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?
A. It is widely used form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.
Question 26: What does the author imply about alternative energy sources?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce.
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: We really appreciate your help, without which we couldn’t have got our task done in time.
A. feel thankful for B. depreciate C. require D. are proud of
Question 28: The whole village was wiped out in the bombing raids.
A. changed completely B. cleaned well C. destroyed completely D. removed quickly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The crew divided the life preservers among the twenty terrified passengers as the ship began
to sink.
A. exhausted B. surprised C. excited D. interested
Question 30: He went to a seaside resort because he was keen on water- skiing.
A. bored with B. proud of C. tired of D. impassioned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 31: Providing relief after the disaster necessitated the mobilization of vast amounts of food,
medical supply, and people.
A. providing B. vast amounts C. medical supply D. people
Question 32: It was CFCs. which were used in aerosols, refrigerators and solvents, which made the
dangerous hole in the ozone layer over Antartica.
A. CFCs B. were used C. which D. over
Question 33: For thousands of years, man has gazed up at the beckoning stars and dreaming of flight to
worlds beyond his own.
A. man B. has gazed C. dreaming D. his own
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know what an “intranet” is? It is this: just as the
Internet connects people around the world, intranets connect people within a single company. In fact,
intranets make use of the same software programs as the Internet to (34)________ computers and people.
This means that you do not have to buy a lot of additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your
intranet is working properly, it can link together a huge amount of (35) _________ which is stored in
different places in the company. In this way, people can get the information they need, regardless
(36)_________ where it comes from. A company intranet can, of course, be used for unimportant
information like office memos or canteen menus. But an intranet should provide important information
which people need to make decision about new products, costs and so on. The intranet is (37) _________ to
share their information with other people. Unfortunately, many departments don’t want to share their
specialist knowledge with others. Another problem (38)______ often occurs is that top managers like to use
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the intranet to “communicate down” rather than to “communicate across”. That is, they use the intranet to
give orders, not to share information between themselves and others working in the same organization.
Question 34: A. contact B. compare C. distinguish D. introduce
Question 35: A. information B. properties C. elements D. parts
Question 36: A. to B. on C. with D. of
Question 37: A. going B. willing C. likely D. happened
Question 38: A. that B. when C. where D. whose
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Lighthouses are towers with strong lights that help mariners plot their position, inform them that land
is near, and warn them of dangerous rocks and reefs. They are placed at prominent points on the coast and
on islands, reefs, and sandbars.
Every lighthouse has a distinctive pattern of light known as its characteristic. There are five basic
characteristics: fixed, flashing, occulting, group flashing, and group occulting. A fixed signal is a steady
beam. A flashing signal has periods of darkness longer than periods of light, while an occulting signal’s
periods of light are longer. A group-flashing light gives off two or more flashes at regular intervals, and a
group - occulting signal consists of a fixed light with two or more periods of darkness at regular intervals.
Some lighthouses use lights of different colors as well, and today, most lighthouses are also equipped with
radio beacons. The three types of apparatus used to produce the signals are the catoptric, in which metal is
used to reflect the light; the dioptric, in which glass is used; and the catadioptric, in which both glass and
metal are used.
In the daytime, lighthouses can usually be identified by their structure alone. The most typical
structure is a tower tapering at the top, but some, such as the Bastion Lighthouse on the Saint Lawrence
River, are shaped like pyramids, and others, such as the Race Rock light, look like wooden houses sitting on
high platforms. Still others, such as The American Shoal lighthouse off the Florida Coast, are skeletal towers
of steel. Where lighthouses might be contused in daylight, they can be distinguished by day- marker patterns
- designed of checks and stripes painted in vivid colors on lighthouse walls.
In the past, the job of lighthouse keeper was lonely and difficult if somewhat romantic. Lighthouse
keepers put in hours of tedious work maintaining the lights. Today, lighthouses are almost entirely
automated with humans supplying only occasional maintenance. Because of improvements in navigational
technology, the importance of lighthouses has diminished. There are only about 340 functioning lighthouses
in existence in the United States today, compared to about 1,500 in 1900, and there are only about 1,400
functioning lighthouses outside the United States. Some decommissioned lighthouses have been preserved
as historical monument.
Question 39. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as one of the functions of
lighthouses?
A. To help sailors determine their location B. To warn of danger from rocks and reefs
C. To notify sailors that bad weather is approaching D. To indicate that land is near
Question 40: In the context of this passage, the author uses the term “characteristic” to refer to a _____.
A. period of darkness B. person who operates a lighthouse
C. pattern painted on a lighthouse D. distinctive light signal
Question 41: For which of the following does the author NOT provide a scientific example in the third
paragraph?
A. A lighthouse shaped like a pyramid. B. A lighthouse made of steel,
C. A lighthouse with day-marker patterns. D. A lighthouse that resembles a house on a platform.
Question 42: The word “tapering” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. soaring B. narrowing C. opening D. rotating

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Question 43: The author implies that, compared to those of the past, contemporary lighthouses _______.
A. employ more powerful lights B. require less maintenance
C. are more difficult to operate D. are more romantic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 44: Ms. Brook and Ms. Barack are talking about Ms. Barack’s son.
Ms. Book: “ _________.”
Ms. Barack: “Thank you. We are proud of him.”
A. Your child is just adorable! B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?
C. Your kid is naughty.D. I can give your kid a lift to school.
Question 45: Hasan and Huckfin are talking after finishing their final test.
Hasan: “The test results will be released at 9 a.m tomorrow!”
Huckfin: “Will it? _________ ”
A. Can I wait for it? B. Could it wait? C. Yes, please. D. I can’t wait!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past.
A. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past.
B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.
C. Women cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.
D. In the past, women covered their heads but they do so today in some countries.
Question 47: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
C. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Buying new clothes is something that I almost never make the effort to.
A. I hardly ever bother purchasing new clothes.
B. Not having bought any new clothes doesn’t bother me.
C. Almost all my clothes are old since I never buy any new ones.
D. It’s such a bother to buy new clothes that I never do it.
Question 49: Throughout his life, the fisherman suffered from great poverty.
A. The fisherman was so poor that he died young.
B. The fisherman’s life was one of great poverty.
C. Poverty prevented the fisherman from enjoying life.
D. Although the fisherman was poor, he led a great life.
Question 50: “Mum, please don’t tell Dad about my mistake,” the boy said.
A. The mother was forced to keep her son’s mistake as a secret when he insisted.
B. The boy earnestly insisted that his mother tell his father about his mistake.
C. The boy requested his mother not to talk about his mistake any more.
D. The boy begged his mother not to tell his father about his mistake.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 54 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. tasty B. wastage C. nasty D. hasten
Question 2: A. preface B. prepare C. preparation D. prejudice
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. ordinary B. emphasis C. decompose D. calendar
Question 4: A. comfortable B. necessary C. community D. memorable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following question.
Question 5: The school was closed for a month because of a serious _________ of fever.
A. outbreak B. outburst C. outset D. outcome
Question 6: Many plant and animal species are now on the _________ of extinction.
A. danger B. border C. verge D. margin
Question 7: There you are: the _________ person I was looking for.
A. utter B. correct C. ever D. very
Question 8: First our team should identify ________ specific need in the community and then carry out a
project to address that need.
A. an B. Ø C. a D. the
Question 9: My wallet _________ at the station while I _________ for the train.
A. must have been stolen/was waiting B. should have stolen/had been waiting
C. will be stolen/am waiting D. had to steal/would be waiting
Question 10: The new manager _________ very strict rules as soon as he had _________ the position.
A. laid down/taken over B. put down/taken over
C. lay down/taken up D. wrote down/come over
Question 11: “I can’t remember us ever _________ ”, replied the stranger.
A. to meet B. to have met C. being met D. having met
Question 12: All work is better than ________ at all.
A. no one B. none C. no D. not
Question 13: The sick child must stay away from others because he has a _________ disease.
A. communicate B. communicable C. communicator D. communication
Question 14: Although the conditions weren’t ideal for a walk, we decided to _________ a go of it.
A. make B. do C. run D. carry
Question 15: Who was the first person _________ the South pole?
A. reaching B. who reaches C. to reach D. reached
Question 16: She clearly joined the firm with a (an) _________ to improving herself professionally.
A. view B. aim C. plan D. ambition

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Question 17: Owing to the fog, his flight to Tokyo was _________.
A. belated B. unscheduled C. overdue D. unpunctual
Question 18: Where have you been? You were _________ to be here half an hour ago.
A. allowed B. had C. supposed D. thought
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example,
rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them
to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance.
After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an
allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show
up so many different ways.
Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains
mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs,
seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if
these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk
also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine,
monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses,
sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental
and prepared foods (read the labels!).
Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins,
particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives,
especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green
peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book
“Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is
effective.
Question 19: The topic of this passage is _________.
A. reactions to foods B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies D. a good diet
Question 20: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to _________.

A. the vast number of different foods we eat


B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 21: The phrase “set off” in lines 12 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. relieved B. identified C. avoided D. triggered
Question 22: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 23: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has
to do with the infant's _________.
A. lack of teeth B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods

18
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Question 24: The word "these" in line 18 refers to _________.


A. food additives B. food colorings
C. innutritious foods D. foods high in silicates
Question 25: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
Question 26: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT _________.
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States, and
television viewing is the number one activity leisure.
A. an everyday B. most households C. television viewing D. activity leisure
Question 28: Migrant workers live in substandard unsanitary, and dilapidated housing and often are lacking
medical care.
A. Migrant workers B. substandard C. unsanitary D. are lacking
Question 29: Because the expense of traditional fuels and the concern that they may mn out, many countries
have been investigating alternative sources of power.
A. Because B. traditional fuels C. concern D. been investigating
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
How men first leamt to invent words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a
(30)_________. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, somehow invented certain sounds to
express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that
later they agreed (31) _________ certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those
sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, (32) _________ spoken or written in letters, are
called words. Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in
words that appeal powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we
call literacy type. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can (33) _________ his meanings in
words which sing like music, and which by their position and association can move men to tears. We should
therefore, leam to choose our words carefully, (34)_______ they will make our speech silly and vulgar.
Question 30: A. story B. secret C. mystery D. legend
Question 31: A. at B. upon C. with D. to
Question 32: A. if B. however C. whether D. though
Question 33: A. carry B. convey C. transfer D. transmit
Question 34: A. or B. so C. although D. because
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35: If it’s raining tomorrow, we’ll have to postpone the match till Sunday.
A. put off B. cancel C. play D. put away
Question 36: We should find ways to improve our products in terms of quality and packaging.
A. for considering aspects B. in spite of
C. with a view to D. in regard to

19
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 37: The government is encouraging everyone to save water by not washing their cars.
A. conserve B. waste C. avoid D. collect
Question 38: Be careful not to drop it; it’s very fragile.
A. strong B. breakable C. angry D. pissed off
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological
advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This
has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them.
Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable
objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic,
which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects
sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two
and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years. The team
of divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands
of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were
searching for.
Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck's treasure does
not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in
nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is lost.
Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more
treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying
their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To counter their
efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their
historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.
Question 39: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
D. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.
Question 40: The word "sunken" in line 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. broken B. underwater C. ancient D. hollow
Question 41: Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?
A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar.
C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
D. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.
Question 42: The author uses the phrase "mint condition" in line 14 to describe _________.
A. something perfect B. something significant
C. something tolerant D. something magical
Question 43 From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to _________.
A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers B. be a diver
C. put treasures in a museum D. do archaeological research
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
20
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Question 44: A patient is talking to a receptionist at a medical clinic.


Patient: "Can I make an appointment to see the doctor, please?"
Receptionist: “ _________ ”
A. Not at the moment. He can't be disturbed. B. OK, you will need to check my diary.
C. OK, let me just check the diary. D. Have a seat and I'll be with you in an hour.
Question 45: Meggy is complimenting Marie on her new dress.
Meggy: “Wow! What a nice dress you are wearing!”
Marie: “ _________ ”
A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that.
C. Yes, of course. It’s expensive. D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Had he had money, he would have joined multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoe Minh
Uy.
A. Having money helped him join multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoc Minh Uy.
B. He didn’t have money and he didn’t join multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoc Minh Uy.
C. Having money, he would have joined multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoc Minh Uy.
D. He would have joined multi-level marketing network of Thien Ngoc Minh Uy without his amount of
money.
Question 47: You should have taught your children how to cook some simple dishes.
A. It was viatal to teach your children how to cook some simple dishes but you didn’t.
B. You should teach your children how to cook some simple dishes.
C. You taught your children how to cook some simple dishes but they refused to learn.
D. You didn’t teach your children how to cook some simple dishes because of your laziness.
Question 48: Scarcely had we opened the door when we realized we shouldn’t have left the dog home
alone.
A. We used to leave the dog by herself in the house only rarely, and even then would regret it upon our
return home.
B. Every time we have to go out, we wonder whether leaving the dog in the house by herself would be a
good idea.
C. The moment we opened the door, it became obvious that the dog had not really been alone in the
house.
D. We knew leaving the dog at the house by herself had been a bad idea as soon as we opened the door.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn't be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 50: "Cigarette?", he said. "No, thanks.", I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.

21
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 55 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Despite fats and oil are nutritionally important as energy sources, medical research indicates
that saturated fats may contribute to hardening of the arteries.
A. Despite B. nutritionally C. as D. indicates
Question 2: Searching for alternate forms of energy does not necessary mean the abandonment of fossil
fuels as an energy source.
A. alternate B. necessary C. the abandonment D. source
Question 3: Cool temperature, shade, moist and the presence of dead organic material provide the ideal
living conditions for mushrooms.
A. moist B. dead C. provide D. conditions
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Quite apart from the economic similarity between present-day automation and the mechanization,
(4)_________ has been proceeding for centuries, it must also be stressed that even in the United States,
automation is by no means the only factor displace people from existing jobs. The increasing number of
unneeded workers in recent years has been the result of much more simple and old-fashioned influences:
farm laborers have been (5) _________ out of work by bigger tractors, miners by the cheapness of oil, and
railway-men by better roads. It is quite wrong, therefore, to think of automation as some new monster whose
arrival threatens the existence of employment in the same way that the arrival of myxomatosis threatened the
existence of the rabbit. Automation is one aspect of technological changes (changes in tastes, changes in
social patterns, changes in organization) which (6) _________ in certain jobs disappearing and certain skills
ceasing to be required. And even in America, which has a level of technology and output per (7) _________
much in advance of Britain’s, there is no evidence that the pace of change is actually speeding up.
Nevertheless changes in the amount of labor needed to produce a certain output are proceeding fairly rapidly
in America - and in (8) _________ countries - and may proceed more rapidly in future. Indeed it is one of
the main objects of economic policy.
Question 4: A. that B. who C. which D. when
Question 5: A. put B. fit C. set D. dismissed
Question 6: A. result B. reside C. end D. prospect
Question 7: A. human B. head C. unit D. piece
Question 8: A. another B. others C. other D. each
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. historian B. architecture C. biography D. thermometer
Question 10: A. magnificent B. miraculous C. superior D. electronic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 11: A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
Question 12: A. eliminate B. equality C. educator D. encourage
22
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Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body
takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in the nineteenth
century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time that food
contained constituents that were essential for human function and that different foods provided different
amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid weight
loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate dietary
protein associated with certain foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called “the
vitamin period.” Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were described. As
vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to
suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might be
responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in
having their curricula integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this
education was on the recognition of deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what ultimately
turned from ignorance to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were made
for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy began to fall
into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It
was just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing and
were quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature extolling the
virtue of supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of
vitamins in disease control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are
much less effective when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of
under nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.
Question 13: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of vitamins on the human body.
B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present.
C. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study.
D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century.
Question 14: It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during
the first era in the history of nutrition?
A. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet.
B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.
C. Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.
D. Certain foods were found to be harmful to good health.
Question 15: The word “them” in line 16 refers to _________.
A. therapies B. claims C. effects D. vitamins
Question 16: The word “skyrocketing” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. internationally popular B. increasing rapidly
C. acceptable D. surprising
Question 17: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses?
A. The fourth era of nutrition history. B. Problems associated with undemutrition.
C. How drug companies became successful. D. Why nutrition education lost its appeal.

23
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 18: A student is talking to the school librarian.
Student: "I would like to join the library." Librarian: “ _________ ”
A. OK. Would you like to fill in this form? B. OK. This is the form that requires us.
C. OK. I would like to fill in this form. D. OK. See if you can join.
Question 19: Susie is talking to Kimy after hearing the announcement.
A: “ _________.” B: “Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I have been chosen B. I have made up my mind
C. I couldn’t concentrate on work D. I didn’t get the scholarship
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 20: The murderer was _________ to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. sentenced B. convicted C. accused D. prosecuted
Question 21: After so many years, it is great to see him _________ his ambitions.
A. realise B. get C. possess D. deserve
Question 22: We still meet up for a drink and a chat once _________.
A. in a blue moon B. in a while C. at a time D. in a black mood
Question 23: _________ in the diet is especially important for vegetarians.
A. Enough protein is obtained B. Obtaining enough protein
C. They obtain enough protein D. By obtaining enough protein
Question 24: _________ weather in the southern states is very hot during summer.
A. some B. The C. A D. Ø
Question 25: I hope that by the time our rivals _________ out about this deal, we _________ all the
contracts.
A. found/had been signed B. will fìnd/are signing
C. have found/will sign D. find/will have signed
Question 26: Never say that again, _________?
A. won’t you B. will you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 27: “I’d like to visit Beijing.” - “Me too, but I’d prefer to see Bangkok ________ Beijing.”
A. more even than B. even more than C. more than even D. even than
Question 28: _________ my ex would be there, I wouldn’t have agreed to come.
A. If I knew B. Had known I C. Had I known D. I had known
Question 29: I made sure I had all the facts _________ my fingertips before attending the meeting.
A. with B. at C. by D. for
Question 30: _________ in 1937, the Golden Bridge spans the channel at the entrance to San Francisco
Bay.
A. Completed B. Completing C. being completed D. to be completed
Question 31: Rows and silences are _________ and parcel of any marriage.
A. package B. stamps C. packet D. part
Question 32: The Browns had gone out for dinner when I arrived, I supposed they _____ I was coming.
A. must have forgotten B. should have forgotten
C. would have forgotten D. need have forgotten
Question 33: Don't worry! Our new product will keep your bathroom clean and _________.
A. odourless B. odour C. odourful D. odourlessly
24
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Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Sharks have gained an unfair reputation for being fierce predators of large sea animals. Humanity's
unfounded fear and hatred of these ancient creatures is leading to a worldwide slaughter that may result in
the extinction of many coastal shark species. The shark is the victim of a warped attitude of wildlife
protection; we strive only to protect the beautiful, non-threatening parts of our environment. And, in our
efforts to restore only non-threatening parts of our earth, we ignore other important parts.
A perfect illustration of this attitude is the contrasting attitude toward another large sea animal, the
dolphin. During the 1980s, environmentalists in the United States protested the use of driftnets for tuna
fishing in the Pacific Ocean since these nets also caught dolphins. The environmentalists generated enough
political and economic pressure to prevent tuna companies from buying tuna that had been caught in
driftnets. In contrast to this effort on behalf of the dolphins, these same environmentalists have done very
little to help save the Pacific Ocean sharks whose population has decreased nearly to the point of extinction.
Sharks are among the oldest creatures on earth, having survived in the seas for more than 350 million
years. They are extremely efficient animals, feeding on wounded or dying animals, thus performing an
important role in nature of weeding out the weaker animals in a species. Just the fact that species such as the
Great White Shark have managed to live in the oceans for so many millions of years is enough proof of their
efficiency and adaptability to changing environments. It is time for US humans, who may not survive
another 1,000 years at the rate we are damaging the planet, to cast away our fears and begin considering the
protection of sharks as an important part of a program for protection of all our natural environment.
Question 34: With which of the following topics is this passage primarily concerned?
A. Sharks are efficient creatures with bad reputations.
B. Sharks are some of the oldest creatures on earth.
C. Sharks illustrate a problem in wildlife protection.
D. The campaign to save dolphins was not extended to save sharks.
Question 35: The word "protested" is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. prescribed B. objected to C. protected D. reflected on
Question 36: How did environmentalists manage to protect dolphins?
A. They prevented fishermen from selling them for meat.
B. They pressured fishermen into protecting dolphins by law.
C. They brought political pressure against tuna companies.
D. They created sanctuaries where dolphin fishing was not allowed.
Question 37: About how long have sharks lived on the planet?
A. 25 million years B. 150 million years C. 350 million years D. 500 million years
Question 38: The phrase “to cast away” means most nearly .
A. to throw off B. to bring in C. to see through D. to set apart
Question 39: What is the author's tone in this passage?
A. explanatory B. accusatory C. gentle D. proud
Question 40: Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. order of importance B. cause and effect
C. statement and example D. chronological order
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. We are only protecting the beautiful and non-threatening parts of our environment.
B. Worldwide slaughter of sharks may lead to the extinction of these animals.
C. Environmentalists didn't approve of using driftnets to catch tuna because they also caught dolphins.
D. Tuna fishing is one of the causes that lead to the decrease in the number of tuna in the Pacific Ocean.

25
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D onyour answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 42: A brief outline of the course and bibliography were handed out to the students at the first
meeting.
A. dispensed B. dispersed C. distributed D. contributed
Question 43: As tourism is more developed, people worry about the damage to the flora and fauna of the
island.
A. fruits and vegetables B. flowers and trees
C. plants and animals D. mountains and forests
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: Our knowledge of malaria has advanced considerably over recent years.
A. held at B. held back C. held to D. held by
Question 45: The jury concluded from the evidence that the defendant was innocent and released him at
once.
A. benevolent B. innovative C. naive D. guilty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
Question 47: What has happened? You look as if you have been in the wars.
A. You look like an old soldier.
B. You are wearing many medals.
C. You look as though something unpleasant has happened to you.
D. You look as though you have been fighting.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 48: No sooner had he entered the house than the police arrested him.
A. He had just entered the house when the pollice arrested him.
B. Hardly that he had entered the house when the police arrested him.
C. Immediately had he entered the house when the police arrested him.
D. The police immediately arrested him as soon as he’s just entered the house.
Question 49: "Why don't you put an advertisement in the local paper?" they told me.
A. They suggested my putting an advertisement in the local paper.
B. They suggested me to put an advertisement in the local paper.
C. They suggested that I must put an advertisement in the local paper.
D. They suggested me should put an advertisement in the local paper.
Question 50: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.
A. I failed to get the job because of my poor English.
B. Despite my poor English, I was successful in the job.
C. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well.
D. I would have spoken English well if I could get that job.

26
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 56 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: This cheese isn’t fit for eating. It’s _________ all over after lying in the bin for so long.
A. spoiled B. mouldy C. sour D. rusty
Question 2: _________ , the whole family slept soundly.
A. Hot though the night air was B. Hot though was the night air
C. Hot although the night air was D. Hot although was the night air
Question 3: He behaves as though he ______ the place.
A. to own B. had owned C. has owned D. owned
Question 4: The new office block _________ well with its surroundings.
A. blends in B. stands out C. shapes up D. sets off
Question 5:The headmaster has decided that three lecture halls ______ in our school next semester.
A. will be building B. will build C. are being built D. will be built
Question 6: Please don’t tell me what happens in the end because I _________ the book yet.
A. haven’t been reading B. don’t read C. haven’t read D. haven’t been read
Question 7: We are proud of our _________ staff, who are always friendly and courteous.
A. well-paid B. well-educated C. well-done D. well-trained
Question 8: Without my parent’s support. I _________ my oversea study.
A. will not complete B. did not complete
C. had not completed D. would not have completed
Question 9: When I got my case back, it had been damaged _________ repair.
A. over B. further C. above D. beyond
Question 10: The process of _________ in plants involves a complex series of _________ reactions.
A. respiration/ chemistry B. respire/ chemical
C. respiration/ chemical D. respiration/ chemist
Question 11: Not only _________ a good physician but also a talented violist.
A. she is famous as B. she appears to be C. is she known as D. appears as she is
Question 12: Her family has gone to Edinburgh to pay their last _________ to uncle Bob who died last
week.
A. sympathy B. love C. respects D. honors
Question 13: It’s not easy to make Janet furious. The girl is very gentle by _________.
A. herself B. nature C. personality D. reaction
Question 14: Someone left the messages, _________?
A. didn’t they B. did they C. did he D. didn’t he
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein.
His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity.
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Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a practical
application of Einstein's work. In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In
1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers.
The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic
particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In
it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some
of the properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the "special
theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is
constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the universe.
The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein
presented his famous formula, E = mc2, known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein published
his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time
continuum, created by the presence of mass. Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting
of one nation above all others. He opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to
establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas.
He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the
uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklin D.Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge
could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic
bomb research.
Question 15: Einstein's primary work was in the area of _________.
A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. engineering
Question 16: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of
Einstein's discoveries?
A. Radio B. Automobiles C. Computers D. Television
Question 17: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except _________.
A. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine B. nationalism
C. atomic bomb research in the United States D. the defeat of the Nazis
Question 18: What did Einstein propose in the theory of light?
A. Time and motion are relative to the observer. B. E = mc2
C. Light is composed of separate packets of energy. D. Gravity is not a force.
Question 19: What is “Brownian movement”?
A. The zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension.
B. The emission of electrons from solids when struck by light.
C. The motion of photons in light.
D. The basis of the theory of relativity.
Question 20: According to Einstein's special theory of relativity, _________.
A. all properties of matter and energy can be explained in a single mathematical formula
B. light is composed of separate packets of energy
C. time and motion are relative to the observer
D. some solids emit electrons when struck by light
Question 21: In line 15, the word “exalting” most nearly means _________.
A. elevation B. criticism C. support D. elimination
Question 22: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called _________.
A. electrons B. photoelectrons C. quanta D. gamma rays

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. indigenous B. significant C. scientific D. peculiar
Question 24: A. habitat B. balcony C. bachelor D. gorilla
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 25: A. download B. growth C. blow D. shadow
Question 26: A. heard B. search C. learn D. beard
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Instructors at American colleges and universities use many different teaching methods. Some
instructors give assignments everyday. They grade homework. Students in their classes have to take many
quizzes, a midterm exam, and a final test. Other instructors give only writing assignments. Some teachers
always follow a course outline and usually use the text book. Others send students to the library for
assignments.
The atmosphere in some classrooms is very formal. Students call their instructors “Professor Smith,”
“Mrs Jones,” and so on. Some teachers wear business clothes and give lectures. Other classrooms have an
informal atmosphere. Students and teachers discuss their ideas. Instructors dress informally, and students
call them by their first names. American teachers are not alike in their teaching styles.
At most American colleges and universities, facilities for learning and recreation are available to
students. Students can often use type-writers, tape recorders, video machines, and computers at libraries and
learning centres. They can buy books, notebooks, and other things at campus stores. They can get advice on
their problems from counselors and individual help with their classes from tutors. Students can relax and
have fun on campus, too. Some schools have swimming pools and tennis courts. Most have snack bars and
cafeterias.
Question 27: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Ways of using the textbook. B. Ways of giving assignments.
C. Ways of teaching. D. Ways of taking an exam.
Question 28: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. American teachers do not dress informally.
B. The atmosphere in American classrooms is always formal.
C. The atmosphere in American classrooms is always relaxed and friendly.
D. American students can call their teachers by their first names.
Question 29: What does the phrase “business clothes” in paragraph 2 mean?
A. clothes that only business people wear. B. trendy clothes.
C. casual clothes. D. formal clothes.
Question 30: What can’t students do at most American colleges and universities?
A. buy anything at campus stores.
B. ask their counselors and tutors for advice.
C. use the computers that are linked to libraries.
D. have tutors and counselors solved their problems.
Question 31: Which of the following statements is NOT true about schools in America?
A. They are well-equipped.
B. They have stores on campus.
C. They have no recreation facilities.
D. They offer sports and leisure facilities for students.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 32: Linda and Suka are talking about Thomas.
Linda: "Thomas thinks he knows everything about dinosaurs.”
Suka: “ _________.”
A. He’s such a know-all B. He knew a lot about dinosaurs
C. He knows enough D. Everything he knows is all about dinosaurs
Question 33: A wife is cooking and talking to her husband.
Wife: "The cupboard in our kitchen is broken."
Husband: “ _________.”
A. But it’s big B. We have to pay extra money
C. But it’s small D. We’ll get it fixed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 34: If she attended the lesson yesterday, she could understand it now.
A. If B. yesterday C. could D. now
Question 35: Originated in Ethiopia, coffee was drunk in the Arab world before it came to Europe in the
17th century.
A. Originated B. was drunk C. before D. 17th century
Question 36: In a hot sunny climate, man acclimatizes by eating less, drinking more liquids, wearing lighter
clothing and experience a darkening of the skin.
A. In B. less C. more liquids D. experience
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
When I was a little girl growing up in the 1940, we didn’t have much in the way of material things.
The Great Depression had hit just about everyone, and we were just climbing out (37) _________ it. My dad
had a job in a factory, and mom stayed at home with the kids. I got a new outfit (38) _________ a year, and
that was only because mom was pretty good at the sewing machine. Good thing, too, because when World
War II came, mom got a job sewing uniforms for the soldiers. The extra money helped, and by the time I
was in my teens in the late 1950s we had enough to get one of those fancy new TV.
I decided around that time I didn’t want to work in a factory or sew like my mom had. I wanted to go
to the college. I wanted to be a lawyer. Though others scoffed, my parents told me that they would support
me in any way they could. Fortunately, I worked hard at school and got a scholarship. It wasn’t easy, but a
few years later I was a lawyer. In the late ‘60s I knew I could use my education and spirit to help our nation.
I took a job working against discrimination. (39) _________ is where I met your grandpa. He was not only
handsome but believed in the same things I did. When your mom came along, I took a year (40)_________
but when back to work, we were able to (41) _________ a color TV, and like me, your mom was a glued to
it.
Question 37: A. of B. from C. into D. for
Question 38: A. much B. X C. once D. many times
Question 39: A. That B. Which C. There D. Here
Question 40: A. in B. on C. off D. down
Question 41: A. afford B. build C. borrow D. lend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 42: I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.
A. encourage B. congratulate C. respect D. welcome
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Question 43: After a great deal of questioning, he decided to come clean and tell the truth.
A. admit B. confess C. agree D. deny
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: I didn’t think his comments were very appropriate at the time.
A. correct B. right C. proper D. unsuitable
Question 45: If you book in advance you will certainly have a better table at our restaurant.
A. beforehand B. afterward C. immediately D. now
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46: I did not arrive in time. I was not able to attend her bridal shower.
A. She had left to take a shower because I was not on time.
B. I arrived very late to attend her bridal shower.
C. I did not go there, so I could not attend her bridal shower.
D. I was not early enough to attend her bridal shower.
Question 47: Extreme weather may be a cause of poverty in many countries. War may be a cause of poverty
in many countries.
A. Extreme weather and war are caused by poverty in many countries.
B. Both extreme weather and war result from poverty in many countries.
C. Not only extreme weather but also war may lead to poverty in many countries.
D. Apart from war, extreme weather also contributes to poverty in many countries.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions
Question 48: “Can I see your ticket please?”
A. The inspector asked to see my ticket. B. The inspector offered to see my ticket.
C. The inspector expected to see my ticket. D. The inspector asked for my ticket.
Question 49: Only customers with coupons may use the service
A. The service is availablse for coupons only
B. The service is restricted to customers in possession of coupons
C. Only rich customers can use the service with coupons
D. Only customers with coupons are serviced here
Question 50: People believe Phở is the most typical food in Vietnam.
A. It is believed that Phở has been the most typical food in Vietnam.
B. A more typical food than Phở is believed in Vietnam.
C. Phở is believed to be the most typical food in Vietnam.
D. No food in Vietnam is less typical than Phở.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 57 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 1: The streets are crowded with a population when have no interest in learning.
A. are B. with C. when D. no interest
Question 2: The price of crude oil used to be a great deal lower than now, wasn’t it?
A. price B. great C. lower D. wasn’t it
Question 3: The duties of the secretary are to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence, and calling the
members before the meetings.
A. are B. to take C. mailing D. meetings
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. overwhelming B. incredible C. optimistic D. intellectual
Question 5: A. justice B. diverse C. series D. current
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. retake B. rewrite C. recollect D. rearrange
Question 7: A. postcard B. custard C. standard D. drunkard
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Speech is one of the most important ways of communicating. It consists of far more than just making
noises. To talk and also be understood by other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we have to
usecombinations of sounds (8) _________ everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or idea.
Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language
properly is very (9) _________. The basic grammar of English is not very large, and not only about 2,000
words are needed to speak it quite well. But the more idea you can (10)_______ the more precise you can be
(11) _________ their exact meaning. Words are the main thing we use in communicating what we want to
say. The way we say the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and
(12) _________ whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
Question 8: A. who B. whose C. that D. when
Question 9: A. easy B. important C. simple D. expensive
Question 10: A. need B. grow C. express D. pass
Question 11: A. for B. about C. towards D. on
Question 12: A. show B. ask C. understand D. know
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 13: _________ after the World War II, the United Nations has been actively carrying out its
convention to stop wars and bring peace to nations worldwide.
A. Established B. Found C. To be establised D. Having been found

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Question 14: Many citizens say that they are _________ of the political policies of the candidates in a local
election.
A. ignorant B. ignoring C. ignorantly D. ignorance
Question 15: Are there any interesting _________ in the paper?
A. news B. pieces of news C. piece of news D. new
Question 16: We’ve decided to interview only ten _________ for the job.
A. applicants B. applicable C. appliances D. applications
Question 17: I didn't mean to leave her name off the list; it was an ________.
A. overchange B. overtone C. oversight D. overtime
Question 18: But for the timely arrival of the police, the suspect _________ by the angry crowd.
A. will be lynched B. was lynched C. was being lynched D. would have been lynched
Question 19: She has the determination that her brother _________.
A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants
Question 20: Not much happened yet, _________?
A. did they B. didn’t it C. did it D. didn’t they
Question 21: “Which of the two boys is a boy scout?” - “ _________ of them is.”
A. All B. None C. Neither D. Both
Question 22: His _________ of the school regulations really can’t be ignored any longer.
A. carelessness B. inattention C. unfamiliarity D. disregard
Question 23: You will find their house ________ you take a good street map with you.
A. as long as B. even if C. if only D. otherwise
Question 24: I think you should stay _________.
A. calm B. tranquil C. peaceful D. quiet
Question 25: None of us has ever _________ of cheating in class.
A. declared B. persisted C. approved D. concluded
Question 26: Tom had a lucky escape. He _________ killed when a car crashed into the front of his house.
A. could have been B. must have been C. should have been D. would have been
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The ocean bottom- a region nearly 2.5 times greater than total land area of the Earth- is a vast frontier
that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was
completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and
subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth’s surface, deep-ocean bottom is a
hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the
first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of
the National Science Foundation’s Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for
the offshore oil gas industry, the Dad’s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady
position on the ocean’s surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from
the ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November
1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed
sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger’s core samples have
allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to
calculate what it will look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence

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gathered during the Glomar Challenger’s voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate
tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to
understanding the world’s past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back
hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense
chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record
has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change-information that may be
used to predict future climates
Question 27: The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it _________.
A. attracts courageous explorers B. is not a popular area for scientific research
C. contains a wide variety of life forms D. is an unknown territory
Question 28: The author mention outer space in the first paragraph because _________.
A. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment
B. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration
C. the Earth’s climate millions of years ago was similar to condition in outer space
D. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor
Question 29: Which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine. B. It has gone on over 100 voyages.
C. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968. D. It is an ongoing project.
Question 30: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _________.
A. sediments B. cores C. climates D. years
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea
Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth’s appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen
D. Information was revealed about the Earth’s past climatic changes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 32: Handy and Hobby are talking when they see each other in a supermarket.
Handy: “ _________ ”
Hobby: “You know, I have lost my purse somewhere.”
A. What do you want? B. How can I help you?
C. Where should we go? D. Why do you look upset?
Question 33: A customer is talking to the waiter right after his dish is served.
Customer: “I don’t want to make a scene but there’s a fly in my dish.”
Waiter: “ _________ ”
A. I am sorry for saying so B. I am terribly sorry!
C. I’m afraid of fly D. You can say that
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
In the United States, it is important to be on time, or punctual, for an appointment, a class, a meeting,
ect... This may not be true in some other countries, however. An American professor discovered this
difference while teaching a class in a Brazilian university. The two-hour class was scheduled to begin at 10
A.m., and end at 12 A.m. On the first day, when the professor arrived on time, no one was in the classroom.

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Many students came after 11 A.m. Although all of the students greeted the professor as they arrived, few
apologised for their lateness. Were these students being rude? He decided to study the students’ behavior.
In American university, students are expected to arrive at the appointed hour. On the other hand, in
Brazil, neither the teacher nor the students always arrive at the appointed hour. Classes not only begin at the
scheduled time in the United States, but they also end at the scheduled time. In the Brazilian class, only a
few students left the class at noon, many remained past 12:30 to discuss the class and ask more questions.
While arriving late may not be important in Brazil, neither is staying late.
The explanation for these differences is complicated. People from Brazilian and North American
cultures have different feelings about lateness. In Brazil, the students believe that a person who usually
arrives late is probably more successful than a person who is always on time. In fact, Brazilians expect a
person with status or prestige to arrive late, while in the United States, lateness is usually considered to be
disrespectful and unacceptable. Consequently, if a Brazilian is late for an appointment with a North
America, the American may misinterpret the reason for the lateness and become angry.
As a result for his study, the professor learned that the Brazilian students were not being disrespectful
to him. Instead, they were simply behaving the appropriate way for a Brazilian student in Brazil. Eventually,
the professor was able to adapt his own behavior to feel comfortable in the new culture.
Question 34: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. It is not important to be on time in Brazil.
B. People learn the importance of time when they are children.
C. It is important to be on time for class in the United States.
D. The importance of being on time differs among different countries.
Question 35: All of these following sentences are true for the first day of the professor in Brazil EXCEPT
_________.
A. Many students came after 11 A.m.
B. He was late for the class.
C. The class was scheduled to begin at 10 A.m and end at 12 A.m.
D. All of the students greeted him when they arrived.
Question 36: Why did the professor study the Brazilian students’ behaviour?
A. None of the students apologized for their lateness.
B. He wanted to understand why the students came late.
C. He wanted to make the students come to class on time.
D. The students seemed very rude to him.
Question 37: The word “rude” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. respectful B. polite C. noisy D. impolite
Question 38: In general, what did the Brazilian students think about people who are late?
A. They are disrespectful people. B. they are rude people.
C. They are successful people. D. They are important people.
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that _________.
A. Most American students arrive after the class has begun.
B. Most Brazilian students leave immediately when the class is finished.
C. Brazilian students often come late and leave early.
D. For most Americans, being late is unacceptable.
Question 40: What did the professor learn from the study?
A. It’s normal to arrive late for class in Brazil.
B. Brazilian students are disrespectful to him.
C. Brazilian students never apologize for their behavior.
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D. Brazilian students are very rude.


Question 41: The word "misinterpret" is closest in meaning to .
A. mismanage B. misread C. misunderstand D. misreport
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 42: The film is not worth seeing. The plot is too dull.
A. simple B. complicated C. boring D. slow
Question 43: In contrast to her husband, she is a very down-to-earth sort of person who manages to control
his wild ideas.
A. cynical B. boring C. critical D. practical
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44: Whatever the activity level, all types of hobbies can require high level of expertise.
A. disablity B. incompetence C. inexperience D. abnormality
Question 45: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 46: The critics undervalued his new book.
A. The critics rejected his new book. B. The critics were fed up with his new book.
C. The critics had a low opinion of his new book. D. The critics turned down his new book.
Question 47: “Shall I make you a coffee?” the girl said to the lady.
A. The girl wanted to make a coffee for the lady.
B. The girl offered to make a coffee for the lady.
C. The girl refused to make a coffee for the lady.
D. The girl promised to make a coffee for the lady.
Question 48: You should have studied electrical engineering, as it would have made it much easier for you to find a job.
A. It is very easy for qualified engineers to find jobs, so keep this in mind when choosing your career.
B. If I were you, I would study electrical engineering since there are plenty of jobs for people in that profession
C. If you choose to study electrical engineering, you wouldn’t have many troubles in finding job.
D. Had you studied electrical engineering, you would not have had nearly so many troubles finding a job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The football match was so exciting. The spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through it.
A. Despite the exciting football match, not all the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through it.
B. The spectators at the stadium cheered wildly to make the match exciting all through it.
C. When the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly, the football match became exciting all through it.
D. The football match was so exciting that the spectators at the stadium cheered wildly all through it.
Question 50: The fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames. The building burned down
completely.
A. Since the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames, the building burned down completely.
B. Had it not been for the fire-fighters’ every effort, the building would have burned down completely.
C. Making every effort to put off the flames, the fire-fighters completely burned down the building.
D. The building burned down completely though the fire-fighters made every effort to put off the flames

36
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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 58 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. forward B. preface C. index D. mature
Question 2: A. elaborately B. mysteriously C. originally D. necessarily
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. cost B. post C. roast D. toast
Question 4: A. thankful B. therefore C. everything D. lengthy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The boy next door fell off his bike yesterday but he was all right. He _________ himself badly.
A. should have hurt B. would hurt C. could have hurt D. must hurt
Question 6: We walked in the streets where the noise of the traffic was rather _________.
A. deafened B. deaf C. deafening D. deafness
Question 7: Mr. Henry was given a medal in _________ of his service to his country.
A. response B. gratitude C. recognition D. knowledge
Question 8: “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly _________ from the back”, the teacher said.
A. eligible B. audible C. edible D. visible
Question 9: If he is in trouble, it is his own fault; I personally wouldn’t _________ a finger to help him.
A. bend B. turn C. rise D. lift
Question 10: So far everything ________ all right.
A. are B. is C. has been D. have been
Question 11: Forget all and try your best next time. Lightning never _________ twice in the same place.
A. strikes B. beats C. hits D. attacks
Question 12: He managed to finish his thesis under the _________ of his tutor.
A. assistance B. help C. guidance D. aid
Question 13: Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _________ any solutions.
A. looked into B. come up with C. thought over D. got round to
Question 14: There had been a recommendation that Hilary Clinton _________ the president of the country.
A. would be elected B. be elected C. were elected D. was elected
Question 15: Many _________ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. habitual B. traditional C. customary D. ordinary
Question 16: I know you think she is weak-willed but I’ve always found her quite _________.
A. quick-witted B. strong-minded C. self-centered D. hard-hearted
Question 17: Located behind ________ the two lachrymal glands.
A. each eyelid are B. is each eyelid C. each eyelid D. each eyelid whith
Question 18: Now, don’t tell anyone else what I’ve just told you. Remember, it is _________.
A. confidence B. confident C. confidential D. confidentially
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. On reflection B. For this time only
C. After discussing with my wife D. For the second time
Question 20: I’d rather stay in a hotel with all the amenities than camp in the woods.
A. expenses B. friends C. sports D. conveniences
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Retailers are replenishing stocks after one of the strongest holiday sales seasons in recent
years.
A. remaking B. emptying C. refilling D. repeating
Question 22: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.
A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions 23 to 27.
For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an
empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have
something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children”. They are
children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has become a subject
of concern.
Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “We had a school rule against
wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was constantly telling
them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my mind what they meant.”
Slowly, she learned that they were house keys.
She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect working
couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear was the biggest problem faced by children at
home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened. Many had
nightmares and were worried about their own safety
The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide in a shower
stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to get statistics
on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they leave their children
alone.
Question 23: The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means _________.
A. a house with too much space B. a house with no furniture
C. a house with no people inside D. a house with nothing inside
Question 24: One thing that the children in the passage share is that _________.
A. they all wear jewelry B. they spend part of each day alone
C. they all watch TV D. they are from single-parent families
Question 25: The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who _________.
A. look after themselves while their parents are not at home
B. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves
C. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere
D. are locked inside houses with latches and keys
Question 26: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A. Why kids hate going home B. Children’s activities at home

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C. Bad condition of latchkey children D. How kids spend free time


Question 27: Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by _________.
A. visiting their homes B. talking to them
C. delivering questionaires D. interviewing their parents
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 28: A passenger is asking the policeman for direction.
Passenger: “ _________ ”
Policeman: “Yeah, down this street, on the left”
A. Is there a station near here? B. How often does the train come?
C. Is this a train station? D. Would you like to go by train?
Question 29: Lumia is expressing her apology for breaking Oppo’s bowl.
Lumia: “I am sorry. I broke the bowl.”
Oppo: “ _________.”
A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, certainly
C. Don’t worry. Things break D. I’d rather not
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 37.
The Roman alphabet took thousands of years to develop, from the picture writing of the ancient
Egyptians through modifications by Phoenicians, Greek, Romans, and others. Yet in just a dozen years, one
man, Sequoyah, invented an alphabet for the Cherokee people. Bom in eastern Tennessee, Sequoyah was a
hunter and a silversmith in his youth, as well as an able interpreter who knew Spanish, French and English.
Sequoyah wanted his people to have the secret of the “talking leaves” as he called his books of white
people, and so he set out to design a written form of Cherokee. His chief aim was to record his people’s
ancient tribal customs. He began by designing pictographs for every word in the Cherokee vocabulary.
Reputedly his wife, angry with him for his neglect of garden and house, burned his notes, and he had to start
over. This time, having concluded that picture-writing was cumbersome, he made symbols for the sounds of
Cherokee language. Eventually he refined his system to eighty-five characters, which he borrowed from the
Roman, Greek, and Hebrew alphabets. He presented this system to the Cherokee General Council in 1821,
and it was wholeheartedly approved. The response was phenomenal. Cherokees who had stmggled for
months to leam English lettering school picked up the new system in days. Several books were printed in
Cherokee, and in 1828, a newspaper, the Cherokee Phoenix, was first published in the new alphabet.
Sequoyah was acclaimed by his people.
In his later life, Sequoyah dedicated himself to the general advancement of his people. He went to
Washington, D.C, as a representative of the Western tribes. He helped settled bitter differences among
Cherokee after their forced movement by the federal government to the Oklahoma territory in the 1930s. He
died in Mexico in 1843 while searching for groups of lost Cherokee. A statue of Sequoyah represents
Oklahoma in the Statuary Hall in the Capitol building of Washington, DC. However, he is probably chiefly
remembered today because Sequoias, the giant redwood trees of California, are named of him.
Question 30: The passage is mainly concerned with _________.
A. Sequoyah’s experiences in Mexico. B. the development of the Roman alphabet
C. the pictographic system of writing D. the accomplishments of Sequoyah
Question 31: According to the passage, a memorial statue of Sequoyah is located in _________.
A. Tennessee B. Oklahoma C. Mexico D. Washington, DC
Question 32: According to the passage, how long did it take to develop the Cherokee’s alphabet?
A. twelve years B. eighty-five years C. twenty years D. thousands of years

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Question 33: In the final version of the Cherokee alphabet system, each of the characters represents a
A. picture B. sound C. word D. thought
Question 34: Why does author mention the giant redwood trees of California in the passage?
A. The trees inspired Sequoyah to write a book.
B. Sequoyah was bom in the vicinity of the redwood forest.
C. The trees were named in Sequoyah’s honor.
D. Sequoyah took his name from those trees.
Question 35: According to the passage, Sequoyah used the phrase “talking leaves” to refer to _________.
A. redwood trees B. newspaper C. books D. symbols for sounds
Question 36: The word “cumbersome” is closest in meaning to _________.
A. radical B. awkward C. unfamiliar D. simplistic
Question 37: All of the following were mentioned in the passage as alphabet systems that Squoyah
borrowed from EXCEPT _________.
A. Egyptian B. Hebrew C. Roman D. Greek
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 38 to 42.
There are many superstitions in Britain, but one of the most (38) _________ held is that it is unlucky
to walk under a ladder even if it means (39) _________ the pavement into a busy street! If you must pass
under a ladder, you can avoid bad luck by crossing your fingers and keeping them crossed until you have
seen a dog. Alternatively, you may lick your finger and make a cross on the toe of your shoe, and not look
again at the shoe until the mark has dried.
Another common superstition is that it is unlucky to open an umbrella in the house - it will either bring
misfortune to the person who opened it or to the whole (40) _________. Anyone opening an umbrella in the
fine weather is unpopular, as it inevitably brings rain!
The number 13 is said to be unlucky for some, and when the 13th day of the month (41)_________ on
a Friday, anyone wishing to avoid a bad event had better stay indoors. The worst misfortune that can happen
to a person is caused by breaking a mirror, as it brings seven years of bad luck! The superstition is supposed
to be originated in ancient times, when mirrors were considered to be tools of the gods.
Black cats are generally considered lucky in Britain, even though they are associated with witchcraft.
It is especially lucky if a black cat crosses your path - although in America the exact opposite belief prevails.
Finally, a commonly held superstition is that of touching wood (42) _________ luck. This measure is
most often taken if you think you have said something that is tempting fate, such as “My car has never
broken down, touch wood?”
Question 38: A. broadly B. widely C. quickly D. speedily
Question 39: A. jumping off B. keeping from C. stepping off D. running from
Question 40: A. house B. household C. home D. member
Question 41: A. happens B. arrives C. falls D. drops
Question 42: A. as B. in C. for D. of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Prince Harry and Ms. Meghan Markle have asked that the people chosen to their Wedding
Day are from a broad range of backgrounds and ages, including young people who have shown strong
leadership, and those which have served their communities.
A. chosen B. are C. including D. which
Question 44: Their big day requires a lot of preparation, such as designing costumes, choose guests and
reinforcing security.
A. requires B. preparation C. costumes D. choose
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Question 45: What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading
easily among the population.
A. What we know about B. are
C. from spreading D. among
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job. Success comes to those who
have enough courage and will.
A. Unless success comes to those who have enough courage and will, gender differences cannot prevent a
person from pursuing a job.
B. Gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job unless success comes to those who
have enough courage and will.
C. Gender differences cannot prevent a person from pursuing a job because success comes to those who
have enough courage and will.
D. Gender differences can prevent a person from pursuing a job because success comes to those who
have enough courage and will.
Question 47: They couldn’t climb up mountain because of the storm.
A. The storm made it not capable of climbing up the mountain.
B. Their climbing up the mountain was unable due to the storm.
C. The storm made them impossible to climb up the mountain.
D. The storm discouraged them from climbing up the mountain.
Question 48: In order to avoid leaving their fingerprints as evidence, the robbers wore gloves.
A. The robbers wore gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken as evidence.
B. His fingerprints would not be left as evidence unless the robbers wore gloves.
C. In order to leave some fingerprints as evidence the robbers took off his gloves.
D. The robbers wore gloves so that he would not leave any fingerprints as evidence.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: “I am sorry, Jean. I broke your vase” said John
A. John apologized Jean for breaking her vase.
B. John apologized Jean for having broken her vase
C. John apologized to Jean to have broken her vase.
D. John apologized to Jean for haing broken her vase.
Question 50: She wasn’t driving slowly. She was injured.
A. If she hadn’t been driving slowly, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had been driving slowly, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been driving slowly, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been driving slowly, she wouldn’t have been injured.

41
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 59 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position ofprimary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. advent B. unique C. unite D. command
Question 2: A. exhibit B. exhibition C. example D. existence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. flourish B. nourishment C. arousal D. encourage
Question 4: A. one B. octopus C. orange D. office
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several _________.
A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates
Question 6: Paul is a very _________ character; he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-confident B. self-conscious C. self-satisifed D. selfish
Question 7: “John should have warned you about that”. “Yes, but _________. He’s still my good friend”.
A. moreover B. despite that C. although D. on the contrary
Question 8: Once used up, _________.
A. these can never be replaced B. we can never replace these minerals
C. but these minerals can never be replaced D. can these minerals be never replaced.
Question 9: The children _________ “thank you” to you when you gave them the gifts.
A. must have said B. would have said C. might have said D. should have said
Question 10: My boss expects the report _______ on time.
A. to be completed B. to complete C. completing D. being completed
Question 11: I do not believe that this preposterous scheme is _________ of our seirous consideration.
A. worthy B. worth C. worthwhile D. worthless
Question 12: Governments decided to take _________ measures to deal with terrorism.
A. profound B. enormous C. tough D. threshing
Question 13: Stop making that noise! You are getting on my _________ !
A. brain B. muscles C. nerves D. blood
Question 14: What a nice surprise, ___________?
A. is it B. isn’t it C. is that D. isn’t that
Question 15: If Penny _________ a place at Oxford University, she _________ philosophy and politics.
A. get; is going to study B. gets; studies
C. will get; is going and politics D. is getting; will study
Question 16: What chemical is this? It’s _________ a horrible smell.
A. giving over B. giving off C. giving down D. giving up
Question 17: The trouble with Jean is that she is _________ with sport!
A. obsessed B. packed C. matched D. dealt
42
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Question 18: The committee found it very difficult _________ a decision.


A. reaching B. to reach C. reached D. reaching
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the question.
Most people start smoking when they are in their teens and are addicted by the time they reach
adulthood. Some have tried to quit but have returned to cigarettes because smoking is such a strong
addiction. It is a habit that is very difficult to break. There are many different reasons why people smoke.
Three of the main reasons that young people smoke are to look mature, to be like their friends, and to
experiment. Since teens see older people all around them smoking, especially their parents and relatives,
they smoke to act older. If their friends or peers smoke, they may feel pressured into doing the same to be
accepted. The last reason is the excitement of experimenting with something that is forbidden. In
Massachusetts it is against the law for anyone under 18 years old to smoke. Usually parents do not allow
their under age teens to smoke. Therefore, smoking becomes very attractive. It is exciting to get cigarettes
and sneak away to smoke without being caught.
Adults smoke for other reasons. They may have a lot of stress and pressures because of economic and
personal problems. They may be unemployed or working but not making enough money to take care of
themselves and their families. They may be homeless, or they may be dealing with alcohol or cocaine/heroin
addictions. Some may be in bad marriages or relationships in which there is physical and/or verbal abuse.
All these people may smoke to feel relaxed or to give them energy while going through a hard time.
Whether young or old, some people smoke to control their weight. Smokers, on the average, weigh
seven pounds less than non-smokers. Smoking reduces a person's appetite. It lessens his/her sense of taste
and smell. This could be why ex-smokers gain weight after quitting cigarettes. Food tastes and smells so
much better.
Finally, there are people who say they love to smoke. Smoking gives them pleasure. It just makes
them feel good.
Question 19: What is the purpose of the whole passage?
A. To contrast young and old smokers.
B. To explain why people start smoking.
C. To demonstrate the attraction of cigarettes among the young.
D. To show the similarities between young and old smokers.
Question 20: The word “peers” in paragraph 2 means .
A. members of the aristocracy B. mentors
C. peeping Toms D. persons of a similar age
Question 21: Adults smoke for all of the following reasons EXCEPT _________.
A. to deal with stress
B. to cope with financial difficulties
C. to deal with relationship problems
D. to appear more mature
Question 22: The word “abuse” in paragraph 3 means _________.
A. excessive use B. inappropriate use C. mistreatment D. argument
Question 23: The main purpose of paragraph 4 is _________.
A. to contrast the reasons why young and old people take up smoking
B. to show a common cause for smoking among people of all ages
C. to describe the possible effects of smoking
D. to warn smokers of the dangers of smoking

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Suzie is shopping in Diamond Plaza.
Sales clerk: “Can I help you?”
Suzie: “ _________ ”.
A. No, thanks. I’m just looking B. Yes, I’m watching
C. No, I’m seeing D. Yes, I’m thinking.
Question 25: - Ken: “Where is your studying group going to meet next weekend?”
- Tom: “__________”
A. We are too busy on weekdays. B. The library could be best.
C. Why don’t you look at the atlas? D. Studying in a group is great fun!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: He inherited a lucrative business from his father.
A. lucid B. losing C. wealthy D. profitable
Question 27: He seems to make the same mistake over and over again
A. for good B. by the way C. repeatedly D. in vain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 28: This tapestry has a very complicated pattern.
A. obsolete B. intricate C. simple D. ultimate
Question 29: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within few weeks.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 30 to 34.
Good press photographer must have an ‘eye’ for news, just as journalists must have a nose for a good
story. They must be able to interpret a story and decide rapidly how they can take advantage (30)_________
the best opportunities to take picture. The most difficult part of a press photographer’s job is that he or she
has to be able to (31) _________ a complicated situation with just one photograph. They rarely have second
chances and must be able to take the required shot very quickly. Indeed, speed is essential- if the
photographs are not ready for the printing deadline, they are very unlikely to be of any use.
Most press photographers begin work with a local newspaper. There, the demand is mostly for
material of regional interest. Photographers may be expected to photograph a lot of unexciting events but to
(32)_________ the enthusiasm to put ‘something special’ into every picture.
There is (33) _________ competition among those (34) _________ want to move from local to
national newspapers. Here, the work is much more centered on news. The photographer must work under
greater pressure and take more responsibility. Only highly reliable, talented and resourceful photographers
make this difficult move. The work is tough and can be dangerous. On an overseas assignment,
photographers may have to cope with unfamiliar food and accommodation, physical and mental stress, and
extreme difficulty in transporting the pictures from an isolated area to get to the newspaper on time. They
also have to beat the competition from other publications.
Question 30: A. about B.on C. of D. for
Question 31: A. draw up B. put out C. sum up D. turn out
Question 32: A. hold on B. keep up C. carry on D. stay up
Question 33: A. firm B. forceful C. strict D. strong
Question 34: A. which B. who C. whom D. how

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer to each of the
following questions.
MEMORY
"Memorize these words". "Learn this spelling rule". "Don't forget about the quiz tomorrow". You remember
things every day, but how do you do it?
When you want to call a store or an office that you don't call often, you look in the telephone book for the
number. You dial the number, and then you forget it! You use your short-term memory to remember the
number. Your short-term memory lasts about 30 seconds, or half a minute. However, you don't need to look
in the telephone book for your best friend’s number because you already know it. This information is in your
long-term memory. Your long-term memory has everything that you remember through the years. Why do
you forget things sometimes? Is there a reason? Yes, there are several. The major reason for forgetting
something is that you did not learn it well in the beginning. For example, you meet some new people, and
right away, you forget their names. You hear the names but you do not learn them, so you forget them.
You can help yourself remember better. Here are some ideas:
1. Move information from your short-term memory to your long-term memory. You can do this if you
practice the new information. Say it to yourself out loud. Think about it.
2. After you learn something, study it again and again. Learn it more than you need to. This process is
called overlearning. For example, when you learn new words, practice using them in sentences. Don't try to
memorize words from a list only.
3. Make sure that you understand new information. It is very difficult to remember something that you
don't understand. Ask questions when you learn something new to be certain that you understand.
4. Do not listen to music or watch TV when you study. You will remember better if you concentrate
on one thing at a time.
5. Try to connect new information with something that you already know. For example, when you
learn the name of a new kind of food, think of a similar kind of food that you already know.
6. Divide new information into several parts (about five or six). Learn one part at time and stop for few
minutes. Don't sit down and try to learn a very large amount of new information all at once.
7. Try to make a picture in your mind. For example, if you hear or see a new word, make a picture of
how it looks to you in your mind. This “mental” picture will help you remember that word the next time you
see or hear it.
8. Think of word clues to help you remember information. One very helpful kind of word clue is an
acronym. An acronym is a word formed from the first letter of a group of words. For example, many
American schoolchildren learn the names of the Great Lakes in the North America by remembering the
word homes. Homes is an acronym that comes from the names of the Great Lakes: Huron, Ontario,
Michigan, Erie, Superior.
9. Relax when you study! Try to enjoy yourself. You are learning new things every minute. You will
remember better if you are happy and relaxed.
Question 35: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. People have short-term and long-term memories and how they can learn to improve their memory
B. How acronyms help people remember better
C. What you should do when you forget a phone number
D. The main reasons for forgetting things
Question 36: New information is easier to remember if you _________.
A. keep it on a list B. understand it
C. tell it to your friends D. draw a picture to describe it
Question 37: The following things should help you remember things better when you study, EXCEPT
A. asking questions when you don’t understand something

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B. connecting new information with something you already know


C. trying to learn a large amount of new information all at once
D. overlearning them
Question 38: Acronyms should help you remember _________.
A. dates B. telephone numbers C. chemical formulas D. names
Question 39: You move information from your short-term memory to your long-term memory when you
_________.
A. call a friend over and over again B. practice it by saying it to yourself out loud
C. relax in front of the TV set D. write it out on a piece of paper
Question 40: Which of the following may not be in your long-term memory?
A. The telephone number of a person you don’t call very often.
B. Your way home.
C. Your date of birth.
D. Your address.
Question 41: All of these things would be useless for remembering new words EXCEPT _________.
A. making a list of them and memorizing them B. writing them down in your notebook
C. putting them in alphabetical order D. practicing using them in sentences
Question 42: The names of the Great Lakes in North America are easier to remember _________.
A. thanks to the useful acronym homes
B. when they are connected with the mental picture of your home
C. if they are near your home
D. because they remind you of your home
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It was not until the late 1970s when these country people could enjoy the benefits of
electricity.
A. was not until B. when C. country D. benefits
Question 44: Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that soe families have been forced to
alter their eating habits.
A. raised B. in C. been forced D. habits
Question 45: Those who had already purchased tickets were instructed to go to gate first immediately.
A. Those B. had already purchased C. instructed to D. go to gate first
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Califonia attracted people from many countries when gold was discovered in 1848.
A. Discovered in 1848, gold was attractive to people in California.
B. Discovered in California in 1848, gold attracted many people from different countries.
C. Gold in California was discovered in 1848 after many people came here.
D. When people were attracted to California, they discovered gold in 1848.
Question 47: You’ll have no hope of growing crops here unless you find a way to irrigate this land.
A. Without discovering how to water this land, there is no chance that you can grow crops here.
B. Even if you find a method of watering this land, there is no hope that any crops will grow on it.
C. Because there is no way you can irrigate this land, you had batter give up trying to grow crops on it.
D. You’ll have to try growing crops elsewhere if you prove unable to irrigate this land here.

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Question 48: As we were heading out of the door of the café, we bumped into our plumber, who we still
owned money to.
A. When we met our plumber in the cafe as we were about to leave, we realized that we hadn’t yet paid
him all the money we owed him.
B. Our plumber, whom we hadn’t paid back yet, was the person we encountered by chance at the moment
we were exiting the cafe.
C. Not wanting to see the plumber to whom we still owed a debt, we quickly headed out the door of the
cafe when we saw him coming in.
D. Our plumber, when we ran into him as he was entering the cafe that we were leaving, didn’t bring up
our debt to him.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The painting displayed in the museum has been stolen. They are rumouring about that.
A. There is a rumour that the painting displayed in the museum has been stolen.
B. The displayed painting is rumoured to be stolen.
C. Displaying in the museum, the painting was rumour to be stolen.
D. As being displayed and rumoured, the painting has been stolen.
Question 50: “I will let you know the result by the end of this week” Tom said to Jane
A. Tom suggested giving Jane the result by the end of that week.
B. Tom promised to give Jane the result by the end of that week
C. Tom insisted on letting Jane know the result by the end of that week.
D. Tom offered to give Jane the result by the end of that week.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 60 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated
Question 2: A. century B. culture C. secure D. applicant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. offer B. canoe C. country D. standard
Question 4: A. pollution B. computer C. currency D. allowance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Measles are a very contagious disease that can spread through contact with infected mucus and
saliva.
A. Measles are B. contagious C. contact with D. and
Question 6: I always forget closing the door before going out.
A. always B. closing C. the D. going out
Question 7: For such a demanding job, you will need qualifications, soft skills and having full commitment.
A. such B. will need
C. qualifications D. having full commitment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: The last half of the nineteeth century _________ a steady improvement in the means of travel.
A. has witnessed B. witnessed C. was witnessed D. is witnessed
Question 9: George finally succeeded in swimming across the lake at his fourth _________.
A. attempt B. process C. effort D. instance
Question 10: He was very lucky when he fell off the ladder. He _________ himself.
A. could have hurt B. must have hurt
C. should have hurt D. would have hurt
Question 11: _________ her supervisor’s approval, she shouldn’t begin the project.
A. Unless Susan doesn’t get B. Were Susan to get
C. If Susan gets D. Unless Susan gets
Question 12: Modem computer science and artificial intelligence _________ in the pre-war work of
Goedel, Turing, and Zuse.
A. say to root B. say to have rooted
C. are said to root D. are said to have rooted
Question 13: Students are _________ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.
A. under B. above C. upon D. out of
Question 14: Tom is getting ever keener on doing research on _________.
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A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically


Question 15: The most _________ mineral derived from the sea is sodium chloride or common salt.
A. insufficient B. sufficient C. generous D. plentiful
Question 16: A number of young teachers nowadays _________ themselves to teaching disadvantaged
children.
A. offer B. stick C. give D. devote
Question 17: Cutting in lines at the grocery store, for example, or being habitually late for meetings is
considered _________ behavior.
A. suitable B. unnecessary C. appropriate D. rude
Question 18: Sorry for being late. I was _________ in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 19: She was tired and couldn’t keep _________ the group.
A. up with B. up against C. on to D. out of
Question 20: That’s the sort of thing you would do, ______?
A. is that B. isn’t that C. isn’t it. D. is it
Question 21: I usually go to school by ______ bike.
A. a B. an C. Ø D. the
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Students are expected to always adhere to school regulations.
A. question B. violate C. disregard D. follow
Question 23: A number of programs have been initiated to provide food and shelter for the
underprivileged in the remote areas of the country.
A. rich citizens B. active members C. poor inhabitants D. enthusiastic people
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Drivers are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on
the highway.
A. easy to find B. difficult to access C. unlikely to happen D. impossible to reach
Question 25: A relaxed and convivial group of around 45 Slow Food members and friends is sharing a
simple BBQ lunch.
A. lively B. large C. old D. unsociable
Question 26: I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed to get the scholarship.
Question 27: “You had better see a doctor if the sore throat does not clear up”, she said to me.
A. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up.
D. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
Question 28: Without her teacher’s advice, she would never have written such a good essay.
A. Her teacher advised him and she didn’t write a good essay.
B. Her teacher didn’t advise her and she didn’t write a good essay.

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C. She wrote a good essay as her teacher gave her some advice.
D. If her teacher didn’t advise her, she wouldn’t write such a good essay.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.
Question 30: We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY
A good memory is often seen as something that comes naturally, and a bad memory as something that
cannot be changed, but actually there is a lot that you can do to improve your memory. We all remember the
things we are interested in and forget the ones that bore US. This no doubt explains the reason (31)
_________ schoolboys remember football results effortlessly but struggle (32) _________ dates from their
history lessons! Take an active interest in what you want to remember, and focus on it (33) _________.One
way to make yourself more interested is to ask questions — the more the better!
Physical exercise is also important for your memory, because it increases your heart (34)_________
and sends more oxygen to your brain, and that makes your memory work better. Exercise also reducesstress,
which is very bad for the memory.
The old saying that —eating fish makes you brainyl may be true after all. Scientists have discovered
that the fats (35) _________ in fish like tuna, sardines and salmon — as well as in olive oil - help to improve
the memory. Vitamin-rich fruits such as oranges, strawberries and red grapes are all good - brain food, too.
(Source: —New Cutting Edge, Cunningham, S. & Moor. 2010. Harlow: Longman)
Question 31: A. why B. what C. how D. which
Question 32: A. about B. for C. over D. towards
Question 33: A. hardly B. slightly C. consciously D. easily
Question 34: A. degree B. level C. rate D. grade
Question 35: A. made B. existed C. founded D. found
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 40.
Martin Luther King, Jf, is well- known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches,
among which is his moving “I have a dream” speech. But fewer people know much about King’s childhood.
M.L., as he was called, was bom in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather.
M.L.’s grandfather purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L was bom.
His grandfather allowed the house to be used as a meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to
the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in the atmosphere, with his home being used
as a community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.
M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventfully. His father was a minister and his mother was a
musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all black schools in a black neighborhood.
The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was an area of banks, insurance companies,
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builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other businesses and services. Even in the face of Atlanta’s
segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child, nor did
he forget the racial prejudice that was a huge barrier keeping black Atlantans from mingling with whites.
Question 36. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The prejudice that existed in Atlanta. B. M.L.’s grandfather
C. Martin Luther King’s childhood. D. The neighborhood King grew up in
Question 37. What is Martin Luthur King well- known for?
A. His publications. B. His neighborhood.
C. His childhood. D. His work in civil rights.
Question 39. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Auburn was a commercial areas.
B. M.L.’s grandfather built their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909.
C. M. L. grew up in a rich, black neighborhood.
D. M.L.’s childhood was uneventful.
Question 40. From the passage we can infer that _________.
A. M.L.’s father was a church member.
B. people gathered at M.L.’s to perform religious rituals.
C. M.L.’s father purchased their home on Auburn Avenue.
D. M.L. had a bitter childhood.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of
the following exchanges.
Question 41: Two friends, Diana and Anne, are talking about Anne’s new blouse.
Diana: “That blouse suits you perfectly, Anne.”
Anne: “ _________.”
A. Never mind B. Don’t mention it C. Thank you D. You’re welcome
Question 42: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.
Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”
Mary: “ _________ ”
A. Not a chance. B. That’s very kind of you.
C. I can’t agree more. D. What a pity!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic natural material; it has been used
successfully in archeology to determine the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as well as in a variety of other
fields. The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that carbon is a part of all living things on Earth.
Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14 has a known half-life, the amount of carbon-14 remaining
in an object can be used to date that object.
Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that number of years, half of the
carbon- 14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14. It is the ratio of carbon-14 in that substance that indicates
the age of the substance. If, for example, in a particular sample the amount of carbon-14 is roughly
equivalent to the amount of nitrogen-14, this indicates that around half of the carbon-14 has decayed into
nitrogen-14, and the sample is approximately 5,570 years old.
Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are older than 80,000 years. When
objects are that old, much of the carbon-14 has already decayed into nitrogen-14, and the miniscule amount
that is left doesn’t provide a reliable measurement of age. In the case of older objects, other age- dating
methods are available, methods which use radioactive atoms with longer half-lives than carbon has.

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Question 43: This passage is mainly about _________.


A. archeology and the study of ancient artifacts
B. one method of dating old objects
C. various uses for carbon
D. the differences between carbon-14 and nitrogen-14
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about carbon-14?
A. It and nitrogen always exist in equal amounts in any substance.
B. Its half-life is more than 5,000 years.
C. It can decay into nitrogen-14.
D. It is radioactive.
Question 45: The word “it” in paragraph I refers to _________.
A. carbon dating B. the age
C. any organic natural material D. archeology
Question 46: The word “underlying” in paragraph I could best be replaced by _________.
A. below B. requiring
C. serving as a basis for D. being studied through
Question 47: The word “roughly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. precisely B. harshly C. approximately D. coarsely
Question 48: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses _________.
A. what substances are part of all living things B. how carbon-14 decay intonitrogen-14
C. why carbon-14 has such a long half-life D. various other age-dating methods
Question 49: It is implied in the passage that _________.
A. carbon dating has no known uses outside of archeology
B. fossils cannot be age-dated using carbon-14
C. carbon dating could not be used on an item containing nitrogen
D. carbon-14 does not have the longest known half-life
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that if an item contains more carbon-14 than nitrogen- 14,
then the item is _________.
A. not as much as 5,570 years old B. too old to be age-dated with carbon-14
C. too radioactive to be used by archeologists D. more than 5.570 years old

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 51 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 61 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wither B. thesis C. thoughtful D. breath
Question 2. A. traffic B. configuration C. cinema D. camouflage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. report B. conclude C. deter D. sanction
Question 4. A. advertise B. definite C. composite D. communicate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Tim and his friends have founded___________voluntary organisation which helps disabled
people with their transport needs.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 6. Dana finally admitted___________by what her father had said the day before.
A. hurt B. hurting C. being hurt D. hurted
Question 7. The man was very brave. He___________, but he chose to stay and fight.
A. must have escaped B. escaped C. had escaped D. could have escaped
Question 8. Air pollution is getting___________serious in big cities such as Hanoi and Beijing.
A. the more and the more B. more and more
C. most and most D. the most and the most
Question 9. The company has made an announcement that any application___________ in after 30th April
shall not be considered.
A. sends B. is sent C. being sent D. sent
Question 10. Only after the teacher had explained the procedure clearly___________to go ahead with the
experiment.
A. the students were allowed B. were the students allowed
C. the students allowed D. did the students allow
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Question 11. Her parents are really strict. They rarely let her stay out late, ___________ ?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t she
Question 12. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by___________ rocking chair.
A. an old wooden European beautiful B. a beautiful old European wooden
C. an old beautiful wooden European D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 13. Many astronomers never get back to the Earth because of___________accidents.
A. tragedy B. tragic C. tragically D. tragedies
Question 14. After years of training hard, the athlete finally could___________ her ambition of winning an
Olympic gold medal.
A. reject B. exacerbate C. recognise D. realise
Question 15. The commission estimates that at least seven companies took___________ of the program.
A. advantage B. use C. benefit D. dominance
Question 16. The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930 s and 1940’s, but it is still an
important___________of entertainment.
A. status B. source C. origin D. prospect
Question 17. After years of derision from the world, the Hindi film industry is achieving its ___________ in
the Sun.
A. position B. image C. shade D. place
Question 18. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I___________this photograph of
my parents’ wedding.
A. took after B. made up C. turned down D. came across

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Of more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.
A. only B. classify C. volcanoes D. active
Question 20. In spite of the Indian lacked animals, they had the ability to cultivate plants suitable for daily
use.
A. suitable B. lacked animals C. in spite of D. had the ability
Question 21. A professor of economy and history at our university has developed a new theory of the
relationship between historical events and financial crises.
A. financial crises B. relationship C. historical D. economy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 22. John no longer drinks a lot.
A. John rarely drank a lot. B. John used to drink a lot.
C. John didn’t use to drink a lot. D. John now drinks a lot.
Question 23. “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
B. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
C. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
Question 24. People think that increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases will
inevitably lead to global warming.

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A. Global warming is thought to result in increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
B. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is thought to be responsible for global
warming.
C. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases is attributed to global warming.
D. Global warming is blamed for increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. He was very tired. He agreed to help me with my homework.
A. As tired as was he, he agreed to help me with my homework.
B. Despite being very tired, but he agreed to help me with my homework
C. Tired though he was, but he agreed to help me with my homework.
D. Tired as he was, he agreed to help me with my homework.
Question 26. Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday. She didn’t want to answer his phone call
this morning.
A. Mary’s refusal to answer the phone leads to her argument with her boyfriend yesterday.
B. Much as Mary quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call this morning.
C. Having quarreled with her boyfriend yesterday, Mary refused to answer his phone call this morning.
D. Before Mary quarrelled with her boyfriend yesterday, she answered his phone call.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Sam and David are talking about what to do after work.
- “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - “___________”
A. Not at all. Go ahead. B. I’m sorry. I don’t know that.
C. That would be nice. D. Not so bad. And you?
Question 28. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
A. Of course not, it’s not costly. B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. I think so. D. No problem.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. When the Titanic crashed into the iceberg, the crew quickly sent out distress signals to alert
nearby ships of the disaster and request their help.
A. amusing B. strange C. bold D. help
Question 30. I’m all in favour of ambition but I think when he says he’ll be a millionaire by the time he’s
25, he’s simply crying for the moon.
A. longing for what is beyond the reach B. asking for what is attainable
C. doing something with vigor or intensity D. crying a lot and for a long time

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. I prefer secure j obs because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the time.
A. challenging B. demanding C. stable D. safe
Question 32. When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on air.

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A. extremely happy B. extremely light


C. feeling extremely unhappy D. feeling extremely airy

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Most adults struggle to recall events from their first few years of life and now scientists have identified
exactly when these childhood memories are lost forever. A new study into childhood amnesia has found that
it tends to take (33)___________around the age of seven.
The rapid decline of memories persisting while children are five and six is owing to the change in the way
memories are formed.
Before the age of seven, children tend to have an (34) ___________form of recall with no sense of time and
place in their memories. In older children, however, the early recollected events tend to be more adult like in
their content and the way they are formed. Faster rate of forgetting in children and higher turnover of
memories means early memories are less likely to survive. (35) ___________ , memories of younger
children tend to lack autobiographical narrative leading to a process known as “retrieval induced forgetting”
(36) ___________the action of remembering causes other information to be forgotten. Consequently, if
childhood memories can survive into the ninth or tenth year of life, they may stay a chance of (37)
___________it into adulthood.
Question 33. A. affect B. effective C. effect D. effectively
Question 34. A. unbalanced B. immature C. insufficient D. irrational
Question 35. A. Besides B. However C. Therefore D. Otherwise
Question 36. A. whom B. which C. when D. where
Question 37. A. turning B. making C. transferring D. getting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Being repeatedly late may just be accidental - or could it show a deeply rooted psychological desire to
express your own superiority? when I worked in an office, meetings would often start late, usually because
of a certain individual. Then they would overrun and the whole day lost its shape. But the individual was
high-ranking and self-important: nobody challenged. So, what are the ethics of lateness?
There’s a psychotherapist called Irvin Yalom who argues that all behaviour reflects psychology. Just as
people who like to be on time are motivated by certain deep-seated beliefs, so those who make others wait
are acting out an inner agenda, often based on an acute sense of power. There’s famous footage in which
Silvio Berlusconi kept Angela Merkel waiting while he made a call on his mobile. It speaks volumes.
But that is when all lateness is in one’s control, what about when your train is cancelled or your flight is
delayed or you had to wait longer for the plumber to arrive? In such cases, there’s not a lot of psychology
involved. Or is there? Some people will genuinely worry about the impact it will have on those left waiting,
while others might secretly enjoy the power of their absence.
The essential fact is that lateness means breaking a convention - you can only be late in respect of a time
agreed with other people. Regardless of psychology, it has a social value. And when we treat other people’s
time as less valuable than our own, we treat them as inferior.
Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Lateness indicates superiority of important individuals.
B. Social values of individuals are fostered through lateness.
C. Being late can reveal a lot about people’s psychology.
D. People with high sense of power have a tendency to be late.

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Question 39. What is the “speaks volumes” in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to?
A. tells a lot B. makes sounds C. holds power D. talks loudly
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. The way our minds work is responsible for the way we behave.
B. Some people control a situation for their benefit through lateness.
C. Lateness can have an impact on other people who are made to wait.
D. Most people react the same when lateness is out of their control.
Question 41. It can be inferred from the reading passage that___________.
A. Berlusconi made Merkel wait as he wanted to show his importance.
B. it is fashionable to be late to meetings because nobody challenges.
C. the writer’s daily schedule was unaffected by his colleague’s lateness.
D. nothing can be said about one’s psychology if lateness is out of control.
Question 42. What does the word “it” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fact B. lateness C. convention D. psychology

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions front 43 to 50.
Homeopathy, the alternative therapy created in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann, and now widely used all over
the world, is based on the belief that the body can be stimulated to heal itself. A central principle of the
“treatment” is that “like cures like”, meaning a substance that causes certain symptoms can also help to
remove those symptoms. Medicines used in homeopathy are created by heavily diluting in water the
substance in question and subsequently shaking the liquid vigorously. They can then be made into tablets
and pills. Practitioners believe that the more a substance is diluted in this way, the greater its power to treat
symptoms.
However, in a new study, a working committee of medical experts at Australia’s National Health and
Medical Research Council (NHMRC) has claimed that homeopathic medicines are only as effective as
placebos at treating illness. Their research, involving the analysis of numerous reports from homeopathy
interest groups and the public, concluded that there is no reliable evidence that homeopathy works.
Moreover, researchers uncovered no fewer than 68 ailments that homeopathic remedies had failed to treat,
including asthma, sleep disturbances, cold and flu, and arthritis.
As a result of the findings, the NHMRC is urging health workers to inform their patients to be wary of
anecdotal evidence that appears to support the effectiveness of homeopathic medicine. “It isn’t possible to
tell whether a health treatment is effective or not simply by considering the experience of one individual or
the beliefs of a health practitioner” says the report. Experts believe that most illnesses said to have been
cured by homeopathy would be cured by the body on its own without taking the medicine. Apparently,
many illnesses are short-lived by their very nature which often leads to people believing that it is the
homeopathy that cures them.
A more serious matter is highlighted by Professor John Dwyer of the University of New South Wales. As
an immunologist, he is concerned about homeopathic vaccinations on offer for diseases such as HIV,
tuberculosis, and malaria, none of which he considers effective. According to Professor John Dwyer, the
concept that homeopathic vaccinations are just as good as traditional vaccinations is delusion, and those
who believe it are failing to protect themselves and their children.
Question 43. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. “Homeopathy kills” say scientists B. “Avoid homeopathy” say scientists
C. Homeopathy worth trying once D. Unknown effects of homeopathy

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Question 44. According to the reading passage, homeopathic medicines are___________ .


A. prepared similarly for different diseases
B. made up of a variety of ingredients
C. suitable for a wide range of symptoms
D. available only in the liquid form
Question 45. What does the word “their” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. committee B. NHMRC C. medicines D. placebos
Question 46. The Australian study reveals that homeopathy is___________.
A. increasingly popular with the public B. helpful in the case of respiratory infections
C. ineffective in treating many diseases D. of great interest to a certain group of people
Question 47. What is the word “wary” in paragraph 3 closest in meaning to?
A. apprehensive B. reluctant C. cautious D. observant
Question 48. People tend to believe in homeopathy because of___________.
A. advertisements displayed in health center
B. positive feedback from a small number of people
C. reliable proof from recent medical reports
D. results of research into some alternatives therapies
Question 49. What is the word “delusion” in paragraph 4 closest in meaning to?
A. legend B. falsehood C. imagination D. hallucination
Question 50. In Professor John Dwyer’s view, homeopathic vaccinations__________.
A. may bring about bad consequences B. do harm to people’s health
C. might be ridiculously expensive D. are better than nothing at all

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 62 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. general B. generous C. generation D. guillotine
Question 2. A. changes B. increases C. suffocates D. compromises

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. deploy B. maintain C. border D. attain
Question 4. A. referee B. kangaroo C. cigarette D. technique

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. After so___________consideration, we have finally arrived at a decision.
A. a lot of B. lots of C. many D. much
Question 6. The author did not intend anybody___________his paintings until they were finished.
A. seeing B. to seeing C. to see D. to be seen
Question 7. Every day, Peters mother drives him to school. However, today, he ___________to school by
his father.
A. was taken B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 8. Linda, along with hundreds of others, ___________unemployed when the factory closes next
month.
A. becomes B. become C. is becoming D. are becoming
Question 9. The customs officers stopped the suspected man and ordered him to show___________.
A. what was he carrying in his bag. B. what he was carrying in his bag
C. what he carries in his bag D. what does he carry in his bag
Question 10. It was an English student, not a French one, ___________was the captain of our school
team.
A. which B. what C. whom D. who
Question 11. The man standing next to our father is a persuasive speaker with a natural talent
___________ leadership.
A. for B. at C. in D. of
Question 12. The report form is available on the two___________discs in my drawer.
A. small green round B. round small green
C. green small round D. small round green
Question 13. The drug under examination has shown some___________results when given to volunteers
in some countries.
A. impressed B. impresses C. impressive D. impression

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Question 14. During rush hours, the traffic is usually___________and cars are closing up behind each
other.
A. light B. heavy C. substantial D. enormous
Question 15. After suffering severe wounds in the attack, the secret agent decided to
his resignation to the commander.
A. give B. apply C. propose D. offer
Question 16. Her father was really a___________of strength to her when her marriage broke up.
A. source B. sculpture C. figure D. tower
Question 17. When travelling in Europe, we tried to ___________at least an hour in a medieval town to
explore it.
A. stop off B. stop out C. stop up D. stop in
Question 18. Last week, an earthquake which___________6.1 on the Richter scale struck southern
California.
A. read B. measured C. calculated D. estimated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Just pulling out of the station the train was that we were supposed to catch.
A. the B. the train was C. were supposed D. pulling out
Question 20. Alice Thornton’s autobiography provides a fascinate account of family life in seventeenth-
century England.
A. a fascinate account B. life C. seventeenth-century D. autobiography
Question 21. The meeting would have finished earlier if there had not been for their interruptions.
A. interruptions B. would have finished
C. had not been for D. earlier
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 22. ‘T have never been to Russia. I think I shall go there next year.” said Bill.
A. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thought he would go there the next year.
B. Bill said that he would have never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.
C. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thinks he will go there the next year.
D. Bill said that he has never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.
Question 23. People believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
A. Jane is believed to have retired because of her poor health.
B. Jane was believed to retire because of her poor health.
C. It is believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.
D. Jane retired because of her poor health was believed.
Question 24. Charles would have won the essay contest if he had typed his paper.
A. Charles won the essay contest in spite of not typing his paper.
B. Charles did not win the essay contest because he did not type his paper
C. Typing his paper made Charles win the essay contest.
D. Charles did not win the essay contest even though he typed his paper.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.

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Question 25. The government knows the extent of the problem. The government needs to take action
soon.
A. The government knows the extent of the problem whereas it needs to take action soon.
B. The government knows the extent of the problem so that it needs to take action soon.
C. Knowing the extent of the problem, the government needs to take action soon.
D. The government knows the extent of the problem, or else it needs to take action soon.
Question 26. The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.
A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.
B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.
D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Dick is thanking Michelle for giving him the gift on his birthday.
Dick: “Thanks for the nice gift you brought to me!”
Michelle: “___________”
A. Welcome! I’m glad you like it
B. Not at all
C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it
D. All right! Do you know how much it costs?
Question 28. Ben: “___________.”
Jane: “Never mind.”
A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned.
B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
C. Thank you for being honest with me.
D. Congratulations! How wonderful!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The first time I met my friend’s parents, I was walking on eggshells because I knew their
political views were very different from mine.
A. was talking nervously B. had a lot of pressure
C. was given many eggs D. had to be very cautious
Question 30. Albert Einstein is lauded as one of the greatest theoretical physicists of all time.
A. acclaimed B. dictated C. described D. ordained

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. His lawyer thought Jack had a good chance of being acquitted at the trial, if no further
evidence was found.
A. found guilty B. declared innocent
C. charged of being faulty D. advised of appealing

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Question 32. Recycling and disposal of wastes require sizable expenditure, in such situations, industries
preferred to export their wastes to other countries.
A. minimum B. considerable C. plentiful D. trivial
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
The United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF), originally known (33) ___________the United Nations’
International Children's Emergency Fund, was created by the United Nations General Assembly on 11
December 1946, to provide emergency food and healthcare to children and mothers in countries that had
been devastated by World War II. The Polish physician Ludwik Rajchman is widely regarded as the (34)
___________of UNICEF and served as its first chairman from 1946 to 1950, when he had to flee the United
States in the wake of McCarthyism. Rajchman is to this day the only person that served as UNICEF's
Chairman for longer than 2 years. On Rajchman's suggestion, the American Maurice Pate was appointed its
first executive director, serving from 1947 until his death in 1965. In 1950, UNICEF's mandate was
extended to address the long-term needs of children and women in developing countries everywhere. In
1953 it (35) ___________a permanent part of the United Nations System, and the words "international" and
"emergency" were dropped from the organization's name, though it retained the original acronym,
"UNICEF".
UNICEF (36) ___________on contributions from governments and private donors. UNICEF's total income
for 2015 was US$5,009,557,471. Governments contribute two-thirds of the organization's resources. Private
groups and individuals contribute the rest through national committees. It is estimated that 92 per cent of
UNICEF revenue is distributed to program services. UNICEF's programs emphasize developing community-
level services to (37)___________the health and well-being of children. UNICEF was awarded the Nobel
Peace Prize in 1965 and the Prince of Asturias Award of Concord in 2006.
Question 33. A. for B. as C. such as D. like
Question 34. A. ancestor B. descendant C. pioneer D. founder
Question 35. A. became B. becomes C. becoming D. had become
Question 36. A. focuses B. stands C. concentrates D. relies
Question 37. A. promote B. provide C. widen D. increase

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Birds have evolved many physical attributes that contribute to their flying ability. Wings are important, but
adjustable tails, large hearts and light bones play critical roles
To fly, birds, like airplanes, move air across their wings. Wings are designed so that air above the wings is
forced to move faster than air below the wing. This creates higher pressure under the wings, called lift,
which pushes the bird up. Different wing types evolved for different ways of flying. Prolonged flight
requires long wings and an ability to soar. Other birds need superior maneuverability. Finches and
sparrows have short, broad wings. Faster birds, like hawks have built - in spoilers that reduce turbulence
while flying. This allows a steeper angle of attack without stalling.
Tails have evolved for specialized use. The tail acts like a rudder helping birds steer. Birds brake by
spreading out their tails as they land. This adaptation allows them to make sudden, controlled stops in
essential skill, since most birds need to land on individual branches or on prey.
Flight takes muscle strength. If body builders had wings, they still could not flap hard enough to leave the
ground. Birds have large, specialized hearts that beat much faster than the human heart and provide the
necessary oxygen to the muscles. The breast muscle accounts for 15 percent of the bird’s body weight. On
pigeons, it accounts for a third of their total body weight. Birds carry no excess baggage, they have hollow
feathers and hollow bones with struts inside to maintain strength, like cross beams in a bridge. Birds fly to
find a prey, escape predators, and attract mates-in other words, to survive.

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Question 38. what is the main idea of the passage?


A. Wings are the most important physical attribute of birds.
B. Different wing styles evolved for different types of flight.
C. Birds have many specialized features that aid in their survival.
D. Birds fly for many reasons.
Question 39. According to the passage, what causes birds to rise when they start flying?
A. Long wings with hollow feathers B. Higher air pressure below than above the wings
C. Spreading out their tails D. Superior muscle strength
Question 40. The phrase “finches and sparrows” refers to___________.
A. wings B. maneuvers C. ways of flying D. birds
Question 41. According to the passage, what benefit comes from having built-in spoilers?
A. an ability to fly faster B. a steeper angle of diving for prey
C. prolonged flight D. superior maneuverability when climbing
Question 42. What does the author imply about the body builders having wings?
A. If they flapped their wings, they could fly a little.
B. If they had wings, their muscles would be strong enough for flight.
C. If they had wings, their hearts would still not be large for flight.
D. Their wings would total 15 percent of their body weight.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was signed into law in 1990. This law extends civil rights
protection to persons with disabilities in private sector employment, all public services, and in public
accommodations, transportation, and telecommunications. A person with disability is defined as someone
with a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits him or her in a major life activity, such as
walking, talking, working, or self-care. A person with a
disability may also be someone with a past record of such an impairment, for example, someone who no
longer has heart disease but discriminated against because of that history.
The ADA states that employers with fifteen or more employees may not refuse to hire or promote a person
because of a disability if that person is qualified to perform the job. Also, the employer must make
reasonable accommodations that will allow a person with a disability to perform essential functions of the
job. All new vehicles purchased by public transit authorities must be accessible to people with disabilities.
All rail stations must be made accessible, and at least one car per train in existing rail systems must be made
accessible.
It is illegal for public accommodations to exclude or refuse persons with disabilities. Public
accommodations are businesses and services such as restaurants, hotels, grocery stores, and parks. All new
buildings must be made accessible, and existing facilities must remove barriers if the removal can be
accomplished without much difficulty or expense.
The ADA also stipulates that companies offering telephone service to the general public must offer relay
services to individuals who use telecommunications devices for the deaf, twenty- four hours a day, seven
days a week.
Question 43. what is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe discrimination against persons with disabilities.

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B. To explain the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act.


C. To make suggestions for hiring persons with disabilities.
D. To discuss telecommunications devices for the deaf.
Question 44. According to the passage, all of the followings are affected by the Americans with
Disabilities Act EXCEPT___________.
A. someone who has difficulty walking
B. a public transit authority
C. an employer with fewer than fifteen employees
D. a person with a past record of an impairment

Question 45. The word “impairment” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. disability B. violation C. aptitude D. danger
Question 46. The author mentions grocery stores as an example of___________.
A. public transit B. barriers
C. private sector employment D. public accommodation
Question 47. The word “facilities” in bold in paragraph 3 refers to___________ .
A. barriers B. buildings C. rail stations D. disabilities
Question 48. The author implies all of the followings EXCEPT___________.
A. the ADA requires people with disabilities to pay for special accommodations
B. the ADA is designed to protect the civil rights of many people
C. public transportation must accommodate the needs of people with disabilities
D. the ADA protects the rights of people with mental impairments
Question 49. The word “stipulates” in bold in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. supposes B. admits C. states D. requests
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that___________ .
A. restaurants can refuse service to people with disabilities
B. every car of a train must be accessible to persons with disabilities
C. the ADA is not well-liked by employers
D. large companies may not discriminate against workers with disabilities

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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 63 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. detachable B. denounce C. education D. admittance
Question 2. A. enunciate B. pronounce C. uncle D. nocturnal

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. preserve B. bubble C. safeguard D. tabloid
Question 4. A. uneducated B. insignificant
C. irrelevance D. unquestionable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 5. Before the man could say anything more, Peter___________off towards the station.
A. rushed B. was rushing C. had rushed D. had been rushing
Question 6. For the engine to work properly, the green lever___________be in the up position.
A. can B. may C. will D. must
Question 7. ___________the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics.
A. Received B. Having received C. Being received D. Receive
Question 8. The divorce rate in Vietnam is now higher___________half a century ago.
A. than it is B. than it does C. than it was D. than it did
Question 9. Would that the council___________in detail the issue of mercury pollution in the city during
the conference last week.
A. discussed B. were discussing C. had discussed D. was discussing
Question 10. The waiter enquired whether___________near the window.
A. we would like to sit B. we like to sit
C. do we like to sit D. would we like to sit
Question 11. ___________, those students really prefer cold weather.
A. Strange though does it seem B. Strange though it may seem
C. Strange though may it seem D. Strange though it seem
Question 12. Brain’s attitude___________his work has always been very positive.
A. with B. into C. at D. towards
Question 13. There might be a___________to cheat if students sit too close together in exam rooms.
A. tempting B. temptation C. tempted D. tempt
Question 14. If something electricity and heat, it allows electricity or heat to___________travel along
and through it.
A. carries B. transfers C. conducts D. exchanges
Question 15. We really regret to___________you that the course you are interested in is now full.
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A. advise B. consult C. pledge D. explain


Question 16. The newspaper article which includes a gruesome description of the murder
has___________a lot of attention from the public.
A. paid B. confined C. drawn D. attracted
Question 17. Last year, the company went___________up after the one of its senior executives offered
his resignation.
A. straight B. belly C. stomach D. cloud
Question 18. Our mother was not happy with our work and made us___________.
A. start back B. start over C. start on D. start on at

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. She grew more and more fascinated by the subject as times went by.
A. fascinated B. grew C. times D. the subject
Question 20. I pretended not seeing her and carried on walking down the main street leading to the
downtown.
A. not seeing B. the main street C. carried on walking D. downtown
Question 21. Like many rich kids, Georgie was raised by a successor of underpaid nannies.
A. raised B. like C. underpaid nannies D. a successor

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one.
A. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.
B. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.
C. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.
D. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.
Question 23. Most of the river ferries have been cancelled today due to the lack of visibility caused
by the fog.
A. A few of the ferries need to be rescheduled because of the fog that is causing poor visibility on the
river.
B. Since todays fog is obstructing visibility, the majority of the river ferries will not be running.
C. Because of the fog, it will be difficult for most of the ferries to cross the river safely today.
D. Whenever visibility is poor owing to the fog, nearly all of the river ferries are cancelled during th e
day.
Question 24. Wouldn’t it better to let them know about the alterations to the plan?
A. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
C. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks.
A. If you don t change all the locks, the burglar could come back.

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B. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks.
C. Youd better change all the locks or the burglar will come back.
D. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar will come back.
Question 26. My personal opinion doesn’t really matter. You need to decide for the good of
everyone.
A. Though my personal opinion really matters, we need to decide for the good for everyone.
B. Deciding for the good of everyone makes our personal opinion not really matter at all.
C. We need to decide for the good of everyone, so my personal opinion doesn’t really matter.
D. If my personal opinion doesn’t really matter, we need to decide for the good of everyone.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. “Would you bother if I had a look at your paper?” - “____________.”
A. Well, actually I’d rather you didn’t B. oh, I didn’t realize it
C. You’re welcome D. That’s a good idea
Question 28. Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.”
Christ: “____________. Another will come here in ten minutes.”
A. I hope so B. Don’t mention it C. Don’t worry D. Thank you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Being a single mother no longer carries the social stigma that it used to.
A. difficulty B. holiness C. stain D. trial
Question 30. The members of the orchestra have arrived an hour prior to the performance for a short
rehearsal.
A. when B. before C. after D. while

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Earthworms help to aerate the soil.
A. suffocate B. destroy C. argue D. adjust
Question 32. He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies.
A. disowned B. declared C. betrayed D. concealed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking someone in
the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (33) ____________to look directly at people
when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying
and is thought to carry a (34) ____________of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid
long periods of eye contact. It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The
Lebanese, (35) ____________, stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action
shows sincerity and gives people a better sense of what their counterparts want. Given such differe nces
with even the most common expressions, people (36) ____________ travel or work abroad have
a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware of the messages they are
sending to others. So, it is (37) ____________to consider your own body language before dealing with

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people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients, and colleagues can be
very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
Question 33. A. encouraged B. assisted C. forbidden D. opposed
Question 34. A. sense B. taste C. sound D. touch
Question 35. A. therefore B. in addition C. in contrast D. moreover
Question 36. A. who B. where C. which D. whose
Question 37. A. usefulness B. useful C. useless D. used

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in the
United States before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in American
homes had improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period, homes were lit
with tallow candles or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome - a dish of fish oil or other animal or
vegetable oil in which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some people used lard, but they had to heat charcoal
underneath to keep it soft and burnable. The sperm whale provided superior burning oil, but this was
expensive. In 1830 a new substance called “camphene” was patented, and it proved to be an excellent
illuminant. But while camphene gave a bright light it too remained expensive, had an unpleasant odor, and
also was dangerously explosive.
Between 1830 and 1850, it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United States was the
wider use of gas. In the 1840s, American gas manufacturers adopted improved British techniques for
producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer remained so high
that until the mid-nineteenth century gas lighting was feasible only in urban areas, and only for public
buildings for the wealthy. In 1854, a Canadian doctor, Abraham Gesner, patented a process for distill ing a
pitch like mineral found in New Brunswick and Nova Scotia that produced illuminating gas and an oil that
he called “kerosene” (from “keros”, the Greek word for wax, and “ene” because it resembled camphene).
Kerosene, though cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and Gesner never made his fortune
from it. But Gesner had aroused a new hope for making illuminating oil from a product coming out of
North American mines.
Question 38. which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had become
necessary by the mid-nineteenth century?
A. increases in the number of new factories B. growth of cities
C. development of railroads D. demand for better medical facilities
Question 39. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. oil B. charcoal C. lard D. wick
Question 40. What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the passage?
A. It had an unpleasant smell.
B. It was not allowed in public buildings.
C. It was not widely available until mid-nineteenth century.
D. It was first developed in the United States.
Question 41. The word “resembled” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. cost the same as B. was made from C. sounded like D. was similar to
Question 42. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. a description of events in chronological order
B. a comparison of two years
C. an analysis of scientific findings
D. the statement of a theory and possible explanations
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Dark matter in the universe is believed by some scientists to be a substance that is not readily observable
because it does not directly refract light or energy. Its existence can only be deduced because of the effect
that it has on surrounding matter. In fact, some members of the scientific community have argued that
dark matter does not actually exist. Others, however, believe in its existence, in part because the scientific
community does not have a complete understanding of gravity science. On the other hand, some would
argue that it is the understanding of gravitational science that leads most scientists to believe in the
existence of dark matter, because without dark matter, there are many cosmological phenomena that are
difficult to explain.
For example, dark matter in the universe may have a peculiar effect on the Milky Way galaxy. Some
scientists believe that the interaction between dark matter and other smaller, nearby galaxies is causing the
Milky Way galaxy to take on a warped profile. It has been asserted that not only does dark matter exist, it
may also be responsible for the Milky Way’s unusual shape. The interaction referenced involves two
smaller galaxies near the Milky Way, called Magellanic clouds, moving through an enormous amount of
dark matter, which, in effect, enhances the gravitational pull that the two Magellanic clo uds could have on
the Milky Way and other surrounding bodies. Without the existence of the dark matter, the Magellanic
clouds would not have sufficient mass to have such a strong effect on the bend of the Milky Way galaxy.
The strongest evidence for the validity of this hypothesis rests in Newtonian physics, and the hypothesis
that anything with mass will exert a gravitational pull. The Milky Way and other galaxies with peculiar
warped shapes are being molded by a gravitational force. However, there is nothing readily observable
with sufficient mass that could cause such a high level of distortion via gravitational pull in the vicinity of
the Milky Way. Therefore, something that is not easily observed must be exerting the necessary force to
create the warped shape of the galaxy.
Aaron Romanowsky and several colleagues have questioned the effect that dark matter might have on
galaxies. They point to the existence of several elliptical galaxies surrounded by very
little dark matter as evidence that dark matter is not, in fact, the cause of the warped galaxies. While
they do not claim that their findings should be interpreted to conclude that dark matter does not exist, they
apparently believe that the results of their studies cast doubt on some of the conventional theories of
galaxy formation and manipulation.
Several models constructed by researchers from the University of California at Berkeley, however, point
to the idea that dark matter is the most likely explanation for the distorted shape of the Milky Way and
other galaxies. Using computer models, they have mapped the likely interactions between certain galaxies
and the surrounding dark matter, and those models have shown not only the possibility that dark matter is
responsible for the warped shape of the Milky Way, but that the relationship between the dark matter and
the Magellanic clouds is dynamic; the movement of the clouds through the dark matter seems to create a
wake that enhances their gravitational influence on the Milky Way.
Question 43. The passage states that some members of the scientific community are reluctant to
believe in the existence of dark matter because___________.
A. no one understands how to apply gravitational science.
B. dark matter has little effect on surrounding matter.
C. dark matter cannot be directly observed.
D. there is absolutely no evidence for the existence of dark matter.
Question 44. As it is used in paragraph 1, the term “phenomena” most nearly means___________.
A. surprises B. problems C. occurrences D. attitudes
Question 45. What does the passage offer as evidence for the existence of dark matter?
A. A photograph taken with the aid of a refracting telescope.

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B. The enormous mass of Magellanic clouds.


C. The shape of the Milky Way galaxy.
D. A complete understanding of gravitational science.
Question 46. According to the passage, what is Aaron Romanowsky’s theory regarding dark
matter?
A. Dark matter has no effect at all on the shape of a galaxy.
B. It cannot be conclusively proven that dark matter affects the shape and formation of galaxies.
C. Computer models suggest that dark matter is responsible for warped galaxies.
D. The discovery of certain galaxies disproves the theory that dark matter exists in the universe.
Question 47. The last paragraph supports the general hypothesis provided earlier in the passage
that___________.
A. computer models are necessary for an understanding of gravitational science.
B. dark matter has little to no effect on the formation of certain cosmological phenomena
C. the effect of Magellanic clouds on galaxies is enhanced by dark matter.
D. the shape of the Milky Way galaxy can be deduced by observing the matter surrounding it
Question 48. The word “conventional” in paragraph 4 most nearly means___________.
A. formally disputed B. strictly interpreted
C. easily understood D. generally accepted
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to___________.
A. models B. researchers C. interactions D. galaxies
Question 50. The passage supports which of the following statements about dark matter?
A. Its presence is readily observable to researchers who completely understand how to apply
gravitational science.
B. If it does not exist, the universe is largely empty.
C. Its existence is inferred by some researchers based on observations of cosmological bodies composed
of ordinary matter.
D. Its existence has been conclusively proven by computer models.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 64 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. divisible B. design C. disease D. excursion
Question 2. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached D. complained

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. garbage B. dissolve C. bottle D. fishing
Question 4. A. beautiful B. happiness C. unhealthy D. neigh borhood

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. She looked active in___________.
A. a jean B. a jeans C. jean D. jeans
Question 6. We___________by a loud noise during the night.
A. woke up B. are woken up C. were woken up D. were waking up
Question 7. why___________she___________to be studying abroad?
A. does/ consider B. is/ considered C. is/ considering D. has/ considered
Question 8. Tom has the___________stamps in the collectors club.
A. most B. less C. more D. least
Question 9. Our boss would rather___________during the working hours.
A. us not chatting B. we didn’t chat C. us not chat D. we don’t chat
Question 10. ___________my car broke down, I came home late yesterday.
A. Since B. while C. For D. With
Question 11. ___________I first met my girlfriend.
A. It was in London that B. It was in London where
C. It was London that D. It was London which
Question 12. Last weekend, my family went to the cinema together. We chose a(an) ___________to see.
A. new interesting film B. film interesting new
C. interesting film new D. interesting new film
Question 13. He has been very interested in doing research on___________since he was at high school.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
Question 14. The match will be televised___________ on VTV 3 tonight.
A. live B. lived C. lively D. living
Question 15. The students are conducting a major___________.
A. exam B. experiment C. test D. experience
Question 16. “The suitcase isn’t too heavy, is it?” “No, it’s as light as___________.”
A. dust B. lightning C. a feather D. a fish
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Question 17. “Have you heard about the Welshman, the Irishman and a pig?” “Yes, we have. That joke’s
as old as___________.”
A. Solomon B. the hills C. a dinosaur D. Jupiter
Question 18. I applied for the job but was___________.
A. taken away B. got over C. turned down D. turned off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. If anyone drops by while I am away, please take a message from him
A. drops B. while C. take D. him
Question 20. The fire began in the tenth floor of the block of flat, but it soon spread to other floors.
A. in B. tenth C. of D. soon spread
Question 21. The strong progress in poverty reduction and sharing prosperity that took place over the first
decade of the 2000s is at risk because of the global slowdown in growth.
A. reduction B. sharing C. the first D. at risk

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “Shall I make you a cup of milk?” the mother said to the son.
A. The mother wanted to make a cup of milk for the son.
B. The mother was asked to make a cup of milk for the son.
C. The mother promised to make a cup of milk for the son.
D. The mother offered to make a cup of milk for the son.
Question 23. The only student who failed the exam was Finet.
A. Together with other students, Finet failed the exam.
B. Everyone passed the exam.
C. Everyone, apart from Finet, failed the exam.
D. With the exception of Finet, everyone passed the exam.
Question 24. She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back.
A. Hardly she puts the phone down when her boss rang back.
B. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.
C. Hardly did she put the phone down than her boss rang back.
D. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back.

Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Her explanation was clear. I didn’t understand it.
A. Despite of her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
B. Despite her clear explanation, I didn’t understand it.
C. Despite the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear.
D. In spite of the fact that I didn’t understand it, her explanation was clear
Question 26. Dan is able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people. It is because his
Vietnamese wife helps him.
A. If only Dan were able to make English instruction videos for Vietnamese people.

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B. If it weren’t for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t make English instruction videos for
Vietnamese people.
C. Without his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for
Vietnamese people.
D. But for his Vietnamese wife’s help, Dan couldn’t have made English instruction videos for
Vietnamese people.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Two students are discussing their previous English class.
- Student 1. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises.”
- Student 2. “___________”
A. Yes, let’s B. Ok
C. That’s rubbish D. That’s what I was thinking
Question 28. Eden and Edward are chatting after work. Eden suggests eating out.
- Eden. “Shall we eat out tonight?”
- Edward. ___________!”
A. That’s all right B. That’s a great idea
C. It is very kind of you. D. You are very welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. People are not aware of the problem of overpopulation.
A. incident B. issue C. trouble D. case
Question 30. He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking.
A. frightens me B. cheers me C. irritates me D. surprises me

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. In this world, emotion has become suspect- the accepted style is smooth, antiseptic and
passionless.
A. soft B. agitated C. silky D. easy
Question 32. Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. free from C. relaxed about D. interested in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Is it worth reading books, (33) ___________ nowadays there are so many other forms of entertainment ?
Some people say that even paperback books are expensive, and not everyone can borrow books from a
library. They might add that television is more exciting and that viewers can relax as they watch their
favourite (34) ___________. All that may be true, but books are still very popular. They encourage the
reader to use his or her imagination for a start. You can read a chapter of a book, or just a few pages, and
then stop. Of course, it may be so (35) ___________that you can't stop! There are many different kinds of
books, so you can choose a crime novel or an autobiography, or a book (36) ___________gives you
interesting information. If you find it hard to choose, you can read reviews, or ask friends for ideas.
Personally, I can't do without books, but I can (37) ___________up television easily enough. You can't
watch television at bus stops!

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Question 33. A. in B. or C. why D. since


Question 34. A. ones B. programmes C. episodes D. cereals
Question 35. A. current B. imagined C. interest D. gripping
Question 36. A. whose B. which C. what D. when
Question 37. A. pick B. look C. give D. turn

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the worlds universities, came from very
inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at
Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more
than 100 graduates of England's prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities
graduates in the New World were determined that their sons would have the same educational
opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this support in the colony for an institution of
higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of
1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area
called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the
present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestown, died
from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of
the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the
minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large,
particularly by today's standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it necessary to
appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in addition
to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four students.
Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff
consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
Question 38. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities
B. What is today a great university started out small
C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts

Question 39. The pronoun "they" in the second paragraph refers to___________
A. Oxford and Cambridge universities B. university graduates
C. the Puritan sons D. educational opportunities
Question 40. The word "somewhat" in the last paragraph could best be replaced by___________
A. to and fro B. back and forth C. side by side D. more or less
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A. What he died of B. where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Question 42. The passage implies that___________
A. Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
B. someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
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C. Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D. the position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early years

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Psychologists who study information processing have identified and described several memory structu res
that clarify how our memory works. They include the sensory register, short-term memory, and long-term
memory. Each structure varies as to how much information it can hold and for how long.
A description of how human process information typically begins with environmental stimuli. Our sense
receptors are constantly stimulated by visual, auditory, tactile, olfactory, and gustatory stimuli. These
experiences are initially recorded in the sensory register, so named because information is thought to be
encoded there in the same form in which it was perceived. The purpose of the sensory register is to hold
information one to three seconds. Information not recognized or otherwise selected by us disappears from
the system. The sensory register can hold about twelve items of information at a time. Typists make
extensive use of the sensory register in order to remember words just long enough to get them typed. If no
further processing takes place, a typist’s ability to recall that information later is minimal. Similarly, most
of us have had the experience of reading an entire page of text, only to discover when we got to the
bottom of the page, we couldn’t say anything about it except that we had indeed “read” every word.
Once information has been recognized as meaningful, it is sent to short-term memory. In this case, short-
term is approximately 20 seconds, while this may seem surprising, it can be easily demonstrated. If you
were asked to dial an unfamiliar phone number, received a busy signal, and were then distr acted by
something or someone else for 15 to 20 seconds, chances are you would have forgotten the number at that
point. Short-term memory is often referred to as “working” memory.
Most cognitive psychologists believe that the storage capacity of long-term memory is unlimited and
contains a permanent record of everything an individual has learned and experienced. Information is
encoded there to enhance its meaningfulness and organization so that it can be easily retrieved when
necessary.
Question 43. what is the purpose of the passage?
A. to explain how our memory processes information.
B. to describe the sensory register.
C. to explain why we sometimes forget information.
D. to compare short-term and long-term memory.
Question 44. The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to___________.
A. psychologists B. information C. memory structures D. environmental stimuli
Question 45. The word “stimuli” in lines 4 and 5 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. objects or events that activate our memory
B. objects we consider attractive
C. things that help us to later recall what happened
D. situations in which we experience emotions
Question 46. According to the passage, typists are unable to recall information they type
if___________.
A. they are tired
B. they are distracted by something or someone
C. they have too much work to be able to process it all
D. they do not recognize it as meaningful enough to remember
Question 47. The word “minimal” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to___________.
A. very big B. very good C. very pretty D. very small
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Question 48. According to the passage, which type of information is sent to short-term memory?
A. Information we need for three seconds or less.
B. Information that surprises us.
C. Information that is relevant to us.
D. Environmental stimuli we do not perceive.
Question 49. It can be inferred that short-term memory is called “working” memory
because___________.
A. we use it extensively when we are working
B. it holds information we are working on at a given moment
C. it is very difficult to use effectively
D. we must work hard to retrieve information from it.
Question 50. which of the following would we most easily retrieve from long-term memory?
A. A wrong telephone number we dialed.
B. The face of a stranger on the street.
C. The birth date of our children
D. Voices from the television in the background.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 65 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. grows B. tends C. roars D. sweeps
Question 2. A. performed B. finished C. interviewed D. delivered

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. justice B. struggle C. neglect D. wildlife
Question 4. A. eradicate B. unexpected C. accompany D. commitment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. We___________in silence when he suddenly___________me to help him.
A. walked - was asking B. were walking - asked
C. were walking - was asking D. walked - asked
Question 6. I don’t know why John always refuses___________me in person.
A. to meet B. meeting C. met D. to meeting
Question 7. It___________Sue that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.
A. should have been B. must have been C. can’t have been D. needn’t have been
Question 8. At one time the entire world___________by dinosaurs.
A. has ruled B. was ruled C. will be ruled D. was ruling
Question 9. I asked Martha___________to enter law school.
A. are you planning B. is she planning C. was she planning D. if she was planning
Question 10. Extinction means a situation___________a plan, an animal or a way of life etc ...stops
existing.
A. to which B. in which C. on which D. for which
Question 11. ___________he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had

Question 12. Let’s begin our discussion now, ___________?


A. shall we B. will we C. don’t we D. won’t we
Question 13. The more___________and positive you look, the better you will feel.
A. confidence B. confident C. confide D. confidently
Question 14. Mr. Pike is certainly a___________writer; he has written quite a few books this year.
A. prolific B. fruitful C. fertile D. successful
Question 15. The 1st week of classes at university is a little___________because so many students get
lost, change classes or go to the wrong place.
A. uncontrolled B. arranged C. chaotic D. notorious

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Question 16. Due to the computer malfunction, all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to begin all
the calculations from___________.
A. onset B. source C. original D. scratch
Question 17. The players’ protests___________no difference to the referees decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 18. Although he is my friend, I___________find it hard to his selfishness.
A. put up with B. catch up with C. keep up with D. come down with

Mark A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 19. A number of wild horses on Assateague is increasing, resulting in overgrazed marsh and
dune grasses.
A. A B. is C. resulting D. grasses
Question 20. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected changing their
reservations and proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching B. are C. changing D. proceed
Question 21. Although the Red cross accepts blood from most donors, the nurse will not let you to give
blood if you have just had cold.
A. accepts B. let C. to give D. have just had cold.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder,” said the captain to John.
A. John was reminded to train harder so as not to be dropped from the team.
B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.
C. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to be dropped from the team.
D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trained harder.
Question 23. It’s possible that Joanna didn’t receive my message.
A. Joanna shouldn’t have received my message.
B. Joanna needn’t have received my message.
C. Joanna mightn’t have received my message.
D. Joanna can’t have received my message.
Question 24. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
C. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.
A. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.
B. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.
C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.
D. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.

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Question 26. Seth informed us of his retirement from the company. He did it when arriving at the
meeting.
A. Only after his retiring from the company did Seth tell us about his arrival at the meeting.
B. Not until Seth said to us that he would leave the company did he turn up at the meeting
C. Hardly had Seth notified us of his retiring from the company when he arrived at the meeting.
D. No sooner had Seth arrived at the meeting than we were told about his leaving the company.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. A mother is complaining to her son that his room gets dusty.
- Mother: “Haven’t you tidied up your room yet?”
- Son: “___________”
A. I will, after I do all the exercises in my textbook.
B. I am tired with my tidying.
C. The more I tidy, the worse it gets.
D. Why don’t you give me a hand with cleaning?
Question 28. Linda and Janet are talking about family living under one roof.
Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They can help one
another.”
Janet: “___________. Many old-aged parents like to lead independent life in a nursing home.”
A. It’s nice to hear that B. Me, too.
C. I agree with you completely D. That’s not true

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaaningto the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all long day B. day after day C. all day long D. the long day
Question 30.1 just want to stay at home and watch TV and take it easy.
A. relax B. sit down C. sleep D. eat

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. In a study, more Asian students than American students hold a belief that a husband is
obliged to tell his wife his whereabouts if he comes home late.
A. urged B. free C. required D. suggested
Question 32. Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management
system, he just made light of it.
A. completely ignored B. treated as important
C. disagreed with D. discovered by chance

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
CYBERFASHION
Most of us own modern gadgets such as mobile phones, or digital cameras. We may carry them round in
our pockets, or attach them to our bodies. But not for much longer! So far designers have succeeded in
(33) ___________tiny bits of technology directly into our clothing.
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In actual fact “cyberfashion” is the latest trend! One example, the Musical Jacket, is already in the shops
and stores. This jacket is silk. It is (34) ___________by a keyboard, also manufactured from fabric, which
is connected to a tiny device (35) ___________plays music.
At present, you have to touch a shoulder pad to hear the music. But in the future, you will be able to
operate the device just by turning your wrist or walking! For many athletes, scientists have invented a
smart shirt which measures your heart rate, body temperature and respiration rate! (36) ___________, the
most romantic piece of cyberfashion must be the Heartthrob Brooch.
This item of jewellery, made from diamonds and rubies, has two miniature transmitters. They make the
brooch glow in time to the beating of its wearers heart. If you meet someone (37) ___________, your
heart will beat faster - and your brooch will let everyone know how you feel!
Question 33. A. dividing B. associate C. combining D. integrating
Question 34. A. monitored B. examined C. controlled D. managed
Question 35. A. that B. what C. who D. when
Question 36. A. Although B. However C. Moreover D. While
Question 37. A. gorge B. gorgeously C. gorgeousness D. gorgeous

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions
Imagine the busy streets of New York City, an enormous place with millions of people. Everyday, the
streets are congested with people going about their daily lives. Now imagine a small robot in the middle
of all of those people rolling down a busy sidewalk. Most people would not even notice the ten -inch
smiling robot, called a Tweenbot, rolling along the street. This strange machine may interest some people,
while others would ignore it completely. A researcher interested in studying how helpful people really are
uses such robots in her experiments that take place on the streets of New York.
The Tweenbots experiment is the idea and creation of Kacie Kinzer. Kinzer s idea was to make a robot
that could navigate the city and reach its destination only if it was aided by pedestrians. Tweenbots rely on
the kindnessof warm-hearted strangers. Made simply of cardboard, wheels, and a device to turn the
wheels, the Tweenbots face many dangers on the city streets. They could be run over by cars or smashed
by careless kids. Kinzer thought her little robots might even be seen as some kind of terrorist device. The
only real protection a Tweenbot has is its friendly smile. In addition to that, each of Kinzer’s robots is
fitted with a flag that displays instructions for the robot’s destination. The only way these robots will
reach their final point is if someone lends them a hand. Tweenbots are essentially a social exp eriment
aimed at providing people a chance to show how caring they are.
On a daily basis, people in New York City are often in a hurry to get around. However, the Tweenbots,
through their inability to look after themselves, took people out of their normal routines. The people who
noticed the helpless little robots were actually interested in helping the Tweenbots find their way home.
Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line. If one was to get stuck, or was
going in the wrong direction, it would be up to strangers to free it or turn it in the right direction.
Surprisingly, no Tweenbot was lost or damaged, and each one arrived at its target in good condition. In
fact, most people treated the robot in a gentle manner, and some even treated it as though it were a small
living being. Even if you were in a rush to go somewhere, would you stop and help a Tweenbot
successfully reach its destination?
Question 38. what is this reading about?
A. A place to buy robots B. A new kind of toy
C. An experiment D. An interesting idea for the future
Question 39. what is a Tweenbot?
A. A person from New York City B. A ten-inch smiling robot
C. A pedestrian D. A terrorist device
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Question 40. The word “congested” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________


A. flocked B. secluded C. stuffed D. crowded
Question 41. How did a Tweenbot get to its final destination?
A. With the help of other Tweenbots.
B. With the help of kind pedestrians on the street
C. With the help of Kacie Kinzer.
D. With the help of other robots in New York City.
Question 42. which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Most Tweenbots arrived at their destination damaged or broken.
B. Most people treated the Tweenbots in a gentle manner.
C. Tweenbots could not navigate the city on their own.
D. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Being aware of one's own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen - is at the
very heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not only moods but also thoughts
about those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise are less likely to be ruled
by them and are thus better able to manage their emotions. Managing emotions does not mean suppressing
them; nor does it mean giving free rein to every feeling. Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several
authors who have popularized the notion of Emotional Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and
that every feeling has value and significance. As Goleman said, "A life without passion would be a dull
wasteland of neutrality, cut off and isolated from the richness of life itself." Thus, we manage our
emotions by expressing them in an appropriate manner. Emotions can also be managed by engaging in
activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts, or reassure us when we feel anxious.
Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you might think that
individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be less able to manage
them. However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability to assign meaning to them -
to know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or mood. Psychologists have found that, among
individuals who experience intense emotions, individual differences in the ability to assign meaning to
those feelings predict differences in the ability to manage them. In other words, if two individuals are
intensely angry, the one who is better able to understand why he or she is angry will also be better able to
manage the anger. Self-motivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which enables a person to get
moving and pursue worthy goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the temptation to act on
impulse. Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, "the root of all emotional self-control."
Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and to
persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success - whether one is
trying to build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet. One researcher examined whether
this trait can predict a child's success in school. The study showed that 4-year-old children who can delay
instant gratification in order to advance toward some future goal will be "far superior as students" when
they graduate from high school than will 4-year-old who are not able to resist the impulse to satisfy their
immediate wishes.
Question 43. which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?
A. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.
B. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.
C. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be able to manage them.
D. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better.

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Question 44. The word "encompasses" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ___________
A. maintains B. includes C. entertains D. divides
Question 45. The word "soothe" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by___________.
A. reduce B. weaken C. worsen D. relieve
Question 46. From paragraph 2, we can see that Daniel Goleman___________
A. trained people to increase their Emotional Intelligence
B. treated patients who had emotional problems
C. wrote about Emotional Intelligence
D. studied how people manage their emotions
Question 47. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions
EXCEPT___________.
A. every feeling is important B. we can manage our emotions
C. emotions are part of a satisfying life D. we should ignore some feelings
Question 48. The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. psychologists B. individuals
C. individual differences D. intense emotions
Question 49. In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of emotions
by___________.
A. describing how people learn to control their emotions
B. giving an example of why people get angry
C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion
D. explaining why some people are not aware of their emotions
Question 50. According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can resist
impulses because they can ___________.
A. easily understand new information
B. be more popular with their teachers
C. have more friends at school
D. focus on their work and not get distracted.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 66 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. heritage B. package C. passage D. teenage
Question 2. A. clothes B. bosses C. boxes D. couches

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. desert B. dessert C. centre D. circle
Question 4. A. medieval B. managerial C. mediocre D. magnificent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Due to the economic unrest, people___________happy lately.
A. hadn’t been B. aren’t C. weren’t D. haven’t been
Question 6. Television can make things memorable for the reason that it presents
information___________an effective way.
A. over B. with C. in D. on
Question 7. ___________how confident you are, it is almost impossible not to be a little nervous
before an important exam.
A. No matter B. Eventhough C. Not only D. whereas
Question 8. The Principal usually has his pupils___________waste paper for their mini-project.
A. collect B. having collected C. collected D. to collect
Question 9. Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ___________?
A. didn’t they B. does they C. did they D. doesn’t they
Question 10. Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle with .
A. another B. the other C. other D. others
Question 11. ___________that Columbus discovered America.
A. It was in 1492 B. There was in 1492
C. In 1492 D. That was in 1492
Question 12. ___________be needed, the river basin would need to be dammed.
A. Hydroelectric power should B. When hydroelectric power
C. Hydroelectric power D. Should hydroelectric power
Question 13. Most office furniture is bought more on the basis of___________than comfort.
A. afford B. affording C. afforded D. affordability
Question 14. Although our opinions on many things___________, we still maintain a good relationship
with each other.
A. differ B. receive C. maintain D. separate

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Question 15. The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and
seriously___________.
A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged
Question 16. He enjoyed the dessert so much that he accepted the second___________when it was
offered.
A. sharing B. helping C. pile D. load
Question 17. I’ve just been offered a new job! Things are___________.
A. clearing up B. making up C. looking up D. turning up
Question 18. Ihe children had to___________in the principal’s office after they took part in a fight.
A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush
C. play second fiddle D. face the music

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Mobility is one of the characteristics often demanded of executives, and they must accustom
themselves to move quite regularly.
A. Mobility B. characteristics C. of D. to move
Question 20. Every city in the United States has traffic problems because the amount of cars on American
streets and highways is increasing every year.
A. in the United States B. traffic
C. amount D. on American streets
Question 21. Parents’ choices for their children’s names is based on names of their relatives or ancestors.
A. choice B. their C. is based D. relatives

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.
A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.
B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.
C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.
D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.
Question 23. The problem was so complicated that the students couldn’t understand it.
A. It was such complicated problem that the students couldn’t understand.
B. The problem wasn’t simple enough for the students to understand it.
C. The problem was too complicated for the students to understand.
D. It was so complicated problems that the students couldn’t understand
Question 24. My American friend finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks.
A. My American friend doesn’t feel like picking up food with chopsticks.
B. My American friend can’t find chopsticks to pick up food.
C. My American friend didn’t used to pick up food with chopsticks.
D. My American friend is not used to picking up food with chopsticks.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.

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A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.


B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Question 26. She fell over in the last minutes. She didn't win the race.
A. If she didn't fall over in the last minutes, she would win the race.
B. She didn't win the race even though she fell over in the last minutes
C. Not having won the race, she fell over in the last minutes
D. She could have won the race if she hadn't fallen over in the last minutes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following questions.
Question 27. Jenny: “Wow! what a nice coat you are wearing!”
Peter: “___________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
C. I like you to say that. D. Yes, of course. It’s expensive.
Question 28. Stranger. “Excuse me! Can you show me the way to Main Street, please?”
Man. “___________”
A. Continue. B. It’s easy to do it.
C. Um, I am sorry I have no idea. D. Am I going right?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. By being thrifty and shopping wisely, housewives in the city can feed an entire family on as
little as 500.000 VND a week.
A. luxurious B. economical C. sensible D. miserable
Question 30. Gerry didn’t go on the expedition - he made up that part of the story.
A. invented B. narrated C. unfolded D. recounted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like
the starfish and crabs, live in the ocean.
A. with backbones B. with ribs C. without ribs D. without backbones
Question 32. If you say bad things about the person who give a job you bite the hand that feeds you.
A. be unfriendly B. be ungrateful C. be thankful D. be devoted

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
(33) ___________in technology have made a lot of changes to our everyday lifestyles, but one of the
biggest has got to be how we read books. Since the invention of the e-book, there has been a significant
change to our reading habits. Given the choice between taking a couple of heavy paperbacks on holiday or
an e-book device like a Kindle, most of us, including our parents and grandparents, would unsurprisingly
opt (34) ___________the Kindle.
But what would our lives be like with no books at all? It’s a (35) ___________question. Some educational
specialists are making predictions that in the future we wont even see books in classrooms - everything
will be done online! (36) ___________of the idea of getting rid of books say that there will always be a
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need for paper-based versions of materials. However, to be realistic, we have to accept that there is a (37)
___________chance that in a decade’s time schools and classrooms will be book-free! what do you think
of that?
Question 33. A. Progression B. Successes C. Increases D. Advances
Question 34. A. of B. on C. for D. at
Question 35. A. special B. naughty C. funny D. tricky
Question 36. A. Alternatives B. Contestants C. Opponents D. Enemies
Question 37. A. remote B. far C. long D. distant

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Bitcoins are a form of virtual currency. In other words, they are a type of money that does not exist in the
actual world. However, they can be used to purchase actual products and services from real companies.
The bitcoin system was created in 2009 by an enigmatic person named Satoshi Nakamoto. In fact, no one
is sure if Satoshi Nakamoto is an actual person or a group of people. Bitcoins are designed to serve as an
alternative to national currencies, such as dollars and euros. They can be used to pay for things instead of
cash or credit cards, when bitcoins are transferred from a buyer to a seller, the transaction is rec orded in a
public database.
Governments are concerned that bitcoins can easily be stolen by hackers. It has dawned on them that they
might be used for illegal purposes. For example, stolen goods could be purchased without the
government’s knowledge. Although more and more companies are beginning to accept bitcoins, the
percentage of purchases made using bitcoins is minuscule compared to other online payment methods,
such as credit cards. Instead, many bitcoin owners simply keep them as an investment since m ore valuable
in the future. This may or may not be a wise approach. Currently, the value of bitcoins is fluctuating
wildly, especially when compared to highly stable national currencies, Bitcoin Investors are gambling on
the hope that as this high-tech money becomes more widely accepted, its value will soar.
(Adaptedfrom, https.//www.digitalcommerce360.com/)
Question 38. What is the passage mainly about?
A. A new kind of currency in the virtual world
B. A way of doing business in the virtual world
C. An alternative to bitcoins created by Nakamoto
D. The future of bitcoins in the real world.
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to___________
A. dollars B. euros C. things D. bitcoins
Question 40. The word “minuscule” is closest in meaning to___________
A. considerable B. small C. minimal D. increasing
Question 41. why are bitcoins of great concern to governments?
A. Because the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly.
B. Because bitcoins will eventually replace national currencies.
C. Because bitcoins may be used in illegal transactions.
D. Because most of bitcoin owners are hackers.
Question 42. Which of the following is defined in the passage?
A. Bitcoins B. Transactions C. Credit cards D. Public Database
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
WHY DON’T YOU GET A PROPER JOB?

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She wants to be a singer; you think she should go for a long-term career with job security and eventually
retire with a good pension. But a new report suggests that in fact she’s the practical one. Why do parents
make terrible careers advisers?
Today’s 14 and 15-year-olds are ambitious. They are optimistic about their prospects, but their career
ideas are rather vague. Although 80% of them have no intention of following in their parents’ footsteps,
69% still turn to their parents for advice. They look at their working future in a different w ay to their
parents.
A job for life is not in their vocabulary; neither is a dead-end but secure job that is boring but pays the
bills. Almost half the boys surveyed expected that their hobbies would lead them into the right sort of job,
while most girls seemed determined to avoid traditionally female careers such as nursing.
In the past, this might have counted as bad news. Certainly when I was 15, my guidance counsellors were
horrified at my plans to become a writer. I’m glad I didn’t change my plans to suit them. Even so, their
faith in rigid career paths was well-founded. In those days, that was the way to get ahead.
But the world has changed. The global economy is not kind to yesterday’s diligent and dependable
worker. The future belongs to quick-thinking people who are resourceful, ambitious and can take the
initiative. This means that a 14-year-old who sees her working future as a kind of adventure, to be made
up as she goes along is not necessarily being unrealistic.
However, she has to have the training and guidance to help her develop the right skills for today’s market;
not the rigid preparation for a workplace that disappeared twenty years ago.
Many young people are very aware of the pitfalls of the flexible workplace; they understand that
redundancy, downsizing and freelancing are all part of modern working life, but no one is telling them
how they might be able to turn the new rules of the employment game to their advantage. This is what
they need to know if they are to make a life for themselves.
So what is to be done? A good first step would be to change the way in which schools prepare young
people for adult life. The education system is becoming less flexible and more obsessed with traditional
skills at just the time that the employment market is going in the opposite direction.
Accurate, up-to-date information on new jobs and qualifications can help guidance counsellors to help
their students. Young people need solid information on the sort of training they need to pursue the career
of their dreams. Also, a little bit of encouragement can go a long way. If nothing else, a bit of optimism
from an adult can serve as an antidote to the constant criticism of teenagers in the press.
What, then, can we as parents do to help them? The best thing is to forget all the advice that your parents
gave you, and step into your teenagers shoes. Once you’ve done that, it’s easier to see how important it is
that they learn how to be independent, resourceful and resilient. Give them the courage to follow their
dreams -however odd they might sound right now. In a world that offers economic security to almost no
one, imagination is a terrible thing to waste.
Question 43. What is the writer’s attitude to the changing job market?
A. It is a challenge that must be faced.
B. It had made too many people unemployed.
C. It is something that young people are afraid of.
D. It has had a negative effect on education.
Question 44. How does the writer think the global economy has affected the employment market?
A. Workers have to be willing to change jobs.
B. Workers are unlikely to receive a pension.
C. It has made workers less dependable.
D. It has made work more adventurous.
Question 45. The writer uses the phrase “aware of the pitfalls” to show that young
people___________
A. feel that modern jobs are too flexible B. know about the problems of modern jobs
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C. don’t think they get enough training D. accept that they will be made redundant
Question 46. What kind of employment would teenagers like to have?
A. A job similar to their parents. B. A job that gives them fulfillment.
C. A job that can also be a hobby. D. A job with economic security.
Question 47. The writer feels that most parents___________
A. give their children good career advice
B. do not tend to be particularly ambitious
C. have very traditional views about work
D. have realistic goals for their children
Question 48. How can parents help their children?
A. By trying to think the way they do B. By learning to be courageous
C. By ignoring advice given by others D. By becoming more independent
Question 49. what does the writer believe about her guidance counsellors?
A. That they should have treated her better. B. That the advice they gave was wrong
C. That they were in some ways right. D. That they had tried to ruin her career.
Question 50. What does the writer feel will happen if the education system does not change?
A. Young people will be discouraged from working.
B. Young people will receive mover criticism in the press,
C. Young people will be unable to fulfill their potential.
D. Young people will not be optimistic about their future.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 67 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. scholarship B. architect C. cherish D. chorus
Question 2. A. honest B. honor C. vehicle D. height

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. private B. protect C. reform D. regard
Question 4. A. policeman B. eyewitness C. copyright D. dressmaker

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Our line of designer clothing is more expensive than____________ of our competitor.
A. this B. those C. that D. their
Question 6. The boat was sailing north when a terrible storm____________.
A. was breaking B. would break C. had broken D. broke
Question 7. It____________that neither the passengers nor the driver was injured in the crash
A. was announced B. is announcing C. is announced D. was announcing
Question 8. After____________goodbye to her friends, she got onto the bus.
A. to be said B. being said C. having said D. said
Question 9. It’s high time we____________these mice.
A. are getting rid of B. are going to get rid of
C. get rid of D. got rid of
Question 10. The lady____________design had been chosen stepped to the platform to receive
the award.
A. whom B. whose C. that D. which

Question 11. Professor Smith explained the lecture slowly____________.


A. as soon as his students understood it clearly
B. so that his students can understand it clearly
C. unless his students fail to understand it clearly
D. so that his students could understand it clearly
Question 12. Put all the toys away____________someone slips and falls on them.
A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. so long as
Question 13. The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority were____________of teachers.
A. support B. supportive C. supporter D. supporting
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Question 14. Some____________animals become tame if they get used to people.


A. wild B. domestic C. endangered D. rare
Question 15. She made a big____________about not having a window seat on the plane.
A. fuss B. complaint C. interest D. excitement
Question 16. After the robbery of the bank, the police____________of the robbers and arrested
the whole band.
A. kept pace B. took notice C. made use D. kept track
Question 17. After a good nights sleep he woke up feeling as fresh as____________and eager to
start work again.
A. fruit B. a daisy C. a kitten D. a maiden
Question 18. Bill seems unhappy about his job because he doesn’t get____________ his boss.
A. up to B. on for C. on well with D. in with

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. If I wasn’t been wearing the seatbelt, I’d have been seriously injured.
A. wasn’t B. wearing C. I’d D. seriously injured
Question 20. The receptionist said I must fill in that form before I attended the interview.
A. The B. I must C. that form D. attended
Question 21. They had a discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them some
challenges.
A. about B. training not only C. giving D. some changes

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Mary exclaimed that the singer’s voice was so sweet.
A. “How sweet is the singer’s voice?” said Mary.
B. “What a sweet voice the singer has” said Mary.
C. “How sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
D. “What a sweet voice the singer is” said Mary.
Question 23. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
A. But for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
B. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
C. Had it not been for skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
D. He wouldn’t have survived the operation if it hadn’t been for skillful surgery.
Question 24. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
A. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.
B. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.
D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.

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Question 25. Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her
performance
A. However much Laura practiced playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
B. As soon as Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better
C . Had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
D. Hardly had Laura practiced playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
Question 26. The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are operating
on him.
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of
firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Bill and Jerry are in a coffee shop.
- Bill: “Can I get you another drink.”
- Jerry: “____________”
A. No, it isn’t B. Not just now C. No, I’ll think it over D. Forget it
Question 28. Mary and her son are in the kitchen.
- Mary: “Watch out or you’ll hurt yourself!”
- Son: “____________”
A. Yes, I won’t do that again B. That’s a good idea
C. Thank you! D. I totally agree with you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The game of life is a lot like football. You have to tackle your problems, block your fears,
and score your points when you get the opportunity.
A. have B. take C. gain D. fulfill
Question 30. Because of a piece of paper in the soup bowl, the old lady raised a ballyhoo about it at the
restaurant.
A. made a fuss B. appeased C. applauded D. complained

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot
of prizes.
A. advantage B. obstacle C. barrier D. disadvantage
Question 32. She told him she’d spent all her savings but he didn’t bat an eyelid.
A. didn’t tell anything B. showed surprise
C. didn’t care D. refused to listen

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Tattooing is an old art. Tattooing is an old art. In ancient Greece, people who had tattoos were (33)
____________as members of the upper classes. On the other hand, tattooing was banned in Europe by the
early Christians, (34) thought that it was a sinful thing to do. It was not (35) ____________ the late
18th century, when Captain Cook saw South Sea Islander decorating their bodies with tatt oos that
attitudes began to change. Sailors came back from these islands with pictures of Christ on their backs and
from then on, tattooing gained (36) ____________popularity. A survey by the French army in 1881
showed that among the 387 men questioned there were 1,333 designs.
Nowadays, not everybody finds tattoos acceptable. Some people thing that getting one is silly because
tattoos are more or less permanent. There is also some (37) ____________about catching a blood disease
from unsterilized needles. Even for those who do want a tattoo, the process of getting one is not painless,
but the final result, in their eyes, is worth the pain.
Question 33. A. supposed B. realised C. held D. regarded
Question 34. A. who B. that C. they D. whose
Question 35. A. by far B. since C. because D. until
Question 36. A. at B. on C. in D. of
Question 37. A. danger B. trouble C. concern D. threat
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well
placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets apart
from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter’s less than 10-hour rotation
period gives it the shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal planets are concerned. There
are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only
just over 3°-less than that for any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and
color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it
may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of
Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past century
the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very close to -
22°. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter’s outer
gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a
phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well due to its exceptional size, but there are signs
that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen
occasionally but have not lasted.
Question 38. According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars
Question 39. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ____________
A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color
Question 40. The word "exceptional" in paragraph 2 mostly means____________
A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent

Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all other planet in the solar system

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B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long


C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become other Great
Red Spots.
Question 42. The passage was probably taken from____________
A. an art journal B. a geology magazine
C. a high school textbook D. an archaeology book

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York Yankees
in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally in 1951 to his last year in 1968,
baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many people, Mantle symbolized the hope,
prosperity, and confidence of America at that time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-handed and left-handed.
He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his team. He was a wonderful
athlete, but this alone cannot explain Americas fascination with him. Perhaps it was because he was a
handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead
mines of the West to the heights of success and fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or
perhaps it was because America always loves a “natural”: a person who wins without seeming to try,
whose talent appears to come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems. He played without
complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and drank to forget
his father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the liver and
accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from his old life and
warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not be stopped. Despite a
liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a recovery, Mickey
Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63.
Question 43. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mickey Mantle’s success and his private life full of problems
B. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
C. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball
D. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
Question 44. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Mantle____________
A. introduced baseball into the US
B. earned a lot of money from baseball
C. had to try hard to be a professional player
D. played for New York Yankees all his life
Question 45. The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Mantles being fascinated by many people
B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete
C. Mantles being a “switch-hitter”
D. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player
Question 46. The word “fulfill” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to____________.
A. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected

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B. do something in the way that you have been told


C. do what you have promised or agreed to do
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
Question 47. which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s
body?
A. His way of life B. His loneliness
C. His own dream D. His liver transplant operation
Question 48. The word “cirrhosis” in paragraph 5 probably means____________
A. a danger B. an operation C. the destruction D. a serious disease
Question 49. All of the following are true about Mantle EXCEPT____________ .
A. He was born into a poor family but later achieved fame and success
B. He was so severely addicted to alcohol that he couldn’t give it up to the last days of his life
C. He could hit with the bat on either side of his body
D. His father’s early death exerted a negative influence on him.
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans____________.
A. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
B. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success
C. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
D. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 68 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. whispered B. wandered C. sympathized D. sentenced
Question 2. A. compile B. facile C. facsimile D. textile

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. carpet B. country C. idea D. volume
Question 4. A. familiar B. uncertainty C. impatient D. arrogantly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I demand to know how this vase_____________, and no one is leaving till I find out.
A. got broken B. was breaking C. has broken D. is broke
Question 6. The more you practice speaking in public, _____________.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 7. It is said the Robinhood robbed_____________rich and gave the money to poor.
A. a/ a B. a/ the C. the/ the D. the/ a
Question 8. Not only_____________among the largest animals that ever lived, but they are also among
the most intelligent.
A. some whales B. they are whales C. whales D. are whales
Question 9. _____________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. Intelligent as was the boy B. As intelligent the boy was
C. As the boy was intelligent D. Intelligent as the boy was
Question 10. There is no excuse for your late submission! You_____________the report by last Monday.
A. should have finished B. mightn’t have finished
C. needn’t have finished D. must have finished
Question 11. My parents lent me the money. _____________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. Only if D. However
Question 12. The biologists have found more than one thousand types of butterflies in the forest,
_____________its special characteristics.
A. each one has B. which has C. each having D. having
Question 13. John is feeling_____________because he hasn’t had enough sleep recently.
A. irritate B. irritation C. irritably D. irritable
Question 14. Jenny has an_____________command of Japanese cuisine.
A. intensive B. utter C. impressive D. extreme
Question 15. why are you always so jealous_____________other people?
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A. in B. of C. below D. on
Question 16. The head teacher has asked me to take the new boy under my_____________and look
after him.
A. sleeves B. arm C. wing D. cloak
Question 17. The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly_____________with young people after
being released in 2013.
A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up
Question 18. Just think! Next month you’ll be_____________and it seems like only yesterday you
were a baby.
A. in your teens B. in your teenage C. teenager D. at your teens

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The children are extremely excited about the visit to the town where their grandparents were
born in.
A. about B. were C. where D. the town
Question 20. Chandler was shocked when his entire class seemed to come down with the same
imaginative disease.
A. was shocked B. entire class C. come down with D. imaginative disease
Question 21. Transgender people are denied the ability to join the armed forces due to discriminating
policies implemented by the government.
A. Transgender B. are denied C. armed forces D. discriminating

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “Please, let my child go!” she begged the kidnapper.
A. She begged the kidnapper to let her child to go.
B. She pleaded with the kidnapper to release her child.
C. She solemnly ordered the kidnapper to set her child free.
D. She pleaded the kidnapper to let her child go.
Question 23. Sometimes having professional assistance with your CV can increase your chance of
finding a job.
A. Having your CV professionally prepared determines whether you'll get the job or not.
B. The prospects for finding employment can possibly be enhanced by a professionally produced CV.
C. Having a professional help you with your CV is a sure way to find a job.
D. Without a professional CV, it is impossible to find a job
Question 24. It seems to me that we’ve taken the wrong train.
A. The trained turned out to be not the one we were supposed to have taken.
B. There is no chance that we’ll catch the train that we’re supposed to.
C. I have a feeling that this train is not the one we should be on.
D. I wish we had been more careful and taken the right train from the station.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.

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Question 25. She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the
country.
A. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
Question 26. They are my two sisters. They aren’t teachers like me.
A. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren’t teachers.
B. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.
C. They are my two sisters, neither of whom is teacher like me.
D. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Tony and Bob are talking in their classroom.
Tony: “We are buying Lily a graduation present.” - Bob: “_____________”
A. She’s out of my league. B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I’m raking in money now. D. Could I chip in?
Question 28. Mai and Joey are talking about their favorite pastimes.
Joey: “What sort of things do you like doing in your free time?” - Mai: “_____________”
A. I love checking out the shops for new clothes.
B. None. Been starved since 9 yesterday.
C. I hate shopping.
D. Nothing special. Just some photos I took on the trip to Nepal.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Some operations may have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.
A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse
Question 30. The natives were angry when foreigners came to their country and took over their land.
A. migrants B. tourists C. members D. locals

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. Later a wine reception will be followed by a concert before guests tuck into a banquet.
A. a formal party B. a formal conference
C. an informal party D. an enormous breakfast
Question 32. The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become
known prematurely.
A. dangerously B. safely C. privately D. publicly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (33) _____________up about 10 percent of the population
- but, frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right -handed gadgets,

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awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand, what (3 4)
_____________someone to become a lefthand? Scientists aren’t exactly sure, but research points to a
complex (35) _____________between genes and environment.
While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their left hands do
have more left-handed family members. And researchers have found different brain wirings in righties vs.
lefties. But no matter (36) _____________it is that drives someone to use their antipodal paw, science has
also uncovered a particular set of personality traits that lefthanded people tend to have. So for all of you
lefties, leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out there - it’s time to brush up on your left-handed
knowledge and help (37) _____________an end to leftie discrimination once and for all.
Question 33. A. consist B. account C. hold D. make
Question 34. A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 35. A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D. collaborated
Question 36. A. which B. who C. what D. that
Question 37. A. put B. bring C. make D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Trees are useful to man in three very important ways: they provide him with wood and other products, they
give him shade, and they help to prevent drought and floods.
Unfortunately, in many parts of the world man has not realized that the third of these services is the most
important. In his eagerness to draw quick profit from the trees, he has cut them down in large numbers, only
to find that without them he has lost the best friends he had.
Two thousand years ago a rich and powerful country cut down its trees to build warships, with which to gain
itself an empire. It gained the empire but, without its trees, its soil became hard and poor. When the empire
fell to pieces, the country found itself faced by floods and starvation.
Even though a government realizes the importance of a plentiful supply of trees, it is difficult for it to
persuade the villager to see this. The villager wants wood to cook his food
with, and he can earn money by making charcoal or selling wood to the townsman. He is usually too lazy or
too careless to plant and look after trees. So unless the government has a good system of control, or can
educate the people, the forests will slowly disappear.
This does not only mean that there will be fewer trees. The results are even more serious. For where there
are trees their roots break the soil up, allowing the rain to sink in and also bind the soil, thus preventing it
being washed away easily, but where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor. The rain falls on
hard ground and flows away on the surface, causing floods and carrying away with it the rich topsoil, in
which crops grow so well, when all the topsoil is gone, nothing remains but a worthless desert.
Question 38. In the writer's opinion, _____________, or the forests slowly disappear.
A. people shouldn't draw benefit from the tree
B. measures must be taken
C. government must realize the serious results
D. unless trees never be cut down
Question 39. The word “bind ” in the passage probably means___________
A. to make wet B. to wash away C. to make stay together D. to improve
Question 40. In the last two paragraphs the writer wanted to make it clear that____________
A. where there are no trees, the soil becomes hard and poor
B. where there are no trees, the land might become desert slowly
C. where there are many trees, there are fewer floods
D. floods will make the land become desert
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Question 41. It’s a great pity that in many places____________


A. man is not eager to make profits from trees
B. man hasn’t found out that he has lost all trees
C. man hasn’t realised the importance of trees to him
D. man is only interested in building empire
Question 42. Trees are useful to man mainly in three ways, the most important of which is that they
can ____________
A. keep him from the hot sunshine B. make him draw quick profit from them
C. enable him to build warships D. protecthim from drought and floods

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
PERCEPTIONS OF ANIMALS ACROSS CULTURES
When living and working in another country, there are numerous things to consider apart from the more
obvious ones of climate, language, religion, currency, etc. Some important considerations are less obvious.
For example, do you have a pet or do you enjoy a hobby such as horse riding? Your animal or hobby may be
perceived in a completely different light in another culture so it’s important to consider the significance
given to specific animals in different parts of the world and general perceptions towards them.
One example which is often mentioned in popular press is the case of dogs. In some cultures,
like the US or UK, dogs are loved and considered a great pet to have at home and with the family. In other
cultures, such as those where Islam is the majority religion, dogs may be perceived as dirty or dangerous.
Muslims treatment of dogs is still a matter of debate amongst Islamic scholars, while these animals are
widely considered by many Western cultures to be “mans best friend”, the Koran describes them as
“unhygienic”. Muslims will therefore avoid touching a dog unless he can wash his hands immediately
afterwards, and they will almost never keep a dog in their home.
In Iran, for instance, a cleric once denounced “the moral depravity” of dog owners and even demanded their
arrest. If you are an international assignee living and working in Saudi Arabia or another Arabic country,
you should remember this when inviting Arab counterparts to your house in case you have a dog as a pet.
This is just one example of how Islam and other cultural beliefs can impact on aspects of everyday life that
someone else may not even question. A Middle Eastern man might be very surprised when going to Japan,
for instance, and seeing dogs being dressed and pampered like humans and carried around in baby prams!
Dogs are not the only animals which are perceived quite differently from one culture to another. In India, for
example, cows are sacred and are treated with the utmost respect. Conversely in Argentina, beef is a symbol
of national pride because of its tradition and the high quality of its cuts. An Indian working in Argentina
who has not done his research or participated in a cross cultural training programme such as Doing Business
in Argentina may be surprised at his first welcome dinner with his Argentinean counterparts where a main
dish of beef would be served.
It is therefore crucial to be aware of the specific values assigned to objects or animals in different cultures to
avoid faux-pas or cultural misunderstandings, particularly when living and working in another culture.
Learning how people value animals and other symbols around the world is one of the numerous cultural
examples discussed in Communicaid’s intercultural training courses. Understanding how your international
colleagues may perceive certain animals can help you ensure you aren’t insensitive and it may even provide
you with a good topic for conversation.
(Source: https. //www.communicaid.com)
Question 43. What does the author suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Talking about different perceptions with others will help you overcome insensitivity.
B. To avoid cultural shocks, people should not live or work in another culture.
C. It’s important to value the objects or animals in different countries before going there.
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D. Understanding different perceptions of animals will help you avoid faux-pas in another nation.
Question 44. According to paragraph 2, which sentence is INCORRECT?
A. The dog is a typical example of different views in the world about animals.
B. Dogs are well-treated and loved in the US and UK.
C. Muslims are those considering dogs as their best pets at home.
D. People whose religion is Islam don’t like having dogs in their home.
Question 45. The word “unhygienic” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to____________
A. unhealthy B. undependable C. unreliable D. unacceptable
Question 46. What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. you are an international assignee
B. you are having a dog as pet
C. a cleric once denounced the moral depravity of dog owners and even demanded their arrest
D. you are living and working in Saudi Arabia or another Arabic country
Question 47. The author mentioned cows in paragraph 4 as an example of______________
A. the animals that are differently perceived in numerous cultures
B. sacred animals in Argentina
C. a symbol of a nation for its high quality of nutrients
D. which may cause surprise for Argentinian people at dinner
Question 48. which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Perceptions of animals across cultures
B. What should be learnt before going to another country
C. Dogs and different beliefs in the world
D. Muslims and their opinions about animals
Question 49. The word “pampered” in the third paragraph could be best replaced by____________
A. indulged B. taken care of C. made up D. respected
Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that______________
A. people will change their perceptions of animals when living in another culture
B. you should not be surprised if other counterparts consider your sacred animals as food
C. there are many things to research before going to live and work in another country
D. respecting other cultures is a good way to have a successful life abroad.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 69 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. chemistry B. Christmas C. machine D. headache
Question 2. A. honest B. honey C. hour D. heir
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. digest B. cactus C. camel D. human
Question 4. A. compliment B. heartbroken C. labour-saving D. short-sighted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I have bought a present for my brother, and now I need some____________.
A. paper wrapper B. wrap paper C. wrapped paper D. wrapping paper
Question 6. You____________by my secretary next week.
A. will notify B. would notify C. will be notified D. is going to be notified
Question 7. Her boy friend is said____________in the army two years ago.
A. to have served B. to serve C. serving D. have served
Question 8. Nothing is____________easy as it looks.
A. so B. such C. as D. that
Question 9. The local council recommended that John____________to the head of the apartment.
A. is appointed B. was appointed C. be appointed D. could be appointed.
Question 10. ____________they've already made their decision, there's nothing much we can do.
A. Seeing that B. On grounds that C. Assuming that D. For reason that
Question 11. It was under the tree____________he found the wallet he had lost before.
A. that B. whom C. who D. where
Question 12. Can I help you, sir?” - “I’m looking for a____________ table”
A. wooden round fashionable B. round wooden fashionable
C. wooden fashionable round D. fashionable round wooden
Question 13. The architects have made____________use of glass and transparent plastic.
A. imaginative B. imagine C. imagination D. imaginatively
Question 14. I only tell my secrets to my____________ friend as she never reveals them to anyone.
A. creative B. enthusiastic C. trustworthy D. unrealizable
Question 15. Paul is a very____________character, he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-conscious B. self-satisfied C. self-directed D. self-confident
Question 16. I haven’t read any medical books or articles on the subject for a long time, so I’m
____________with recent developments.
A. out of reach B. out of condition C. out of touch D. out of the question
Question 17. He was wearing very shabby, dirty clothes and looked very____________.
A. easy- going B. down to earth C. out of shape D. down at heel
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Question 18. Attempts must be made to____________the barriers of fear and hostility which divide the
two communities.
A. break down B. set up C. get off D. pass over
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A. inappropriate B. it C. because D. the
Question 20. For its establishment, ASEAN Tourism Association has played an important role in
promoting and developing ASEAN Tourism services.
A. Tourism Association B. played
C. in promoting and developing D. For its
Question 21. Sleeping, resting and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.
A. juice B. best ways C. Sleeping D. to drink
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. “I agree that I am narrow-minded,” said the manager.
A. The manager denied being narrow-minded.
B. The manager admitted being narrow-minded.
C. The manager refused to be narrow-minded.
D. The manager promised to be narrow-minded.
Question 23. A supermarket is more convenient than a shopping centre.
A. A shopping centre is not as convenient as a supermarket.
B. A shopping centre is more convenient than a supermarket.
C. A supermarket is not as convenient as a shopping centre.
D. A supermarket is as inconvenient as a shopping centre.
Question 24. It was a mistake for Tony to buy that house.
A. Tony couldn’t have bought that house.
B. Tony can’t have bought that house.
C. Tony needn’t have bought that house.
D. Tony shouldn’t have bought that house.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 26. Their team performed excellently at the elimination tournament. They didn’t win the
trophy.
A. Subsequent to their performance at the elimination tournament, they were afraid to win the trophy
excellently.
B. Were it not for their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they wouldn’t have won
the trophy.
C. Despite their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they didn’t win the trophy.

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D. Because they didn’t win the trophy, their performance at the elimination tournament was however
excellent.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following questions.
Question 27. Sue and Anne are talking about their future plans.
Sue: “I am not interested in the idea of taking a gap year and going backpacking in Nepal.” Anne: “
Well,_____________.”
A. I am B. help yourself C. neither do I D. that’s life
Question 28. Two students are chatting in the corridor after class.
Tim: “ We should make a slide show for our history presentation next week.”
Laura: “_____________”
A. Sorry, I have to check my diary. B. That’s exactly what I was going to say.
C. I’d love to but I just can’t now. D. That’s true. I understand how you feel.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.
A. essential B. informative C. invented D. exciting
Question 30. Please stop making that noise! It really gets on my nerves.
A. cheers me up B. wakes me up C. annoys me D. amuses me
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. One is supposed to expend far more energy in marathon run than expected.
A. exhaust B. spend C. consume D. reserve
Question 32. The information you have got is actually off the record, so be careful if you intend to use it
for publication.
A. private B. official C. confidential D. important
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Amy Tan was born on February 19th , 1952 in Oakland, California. Tan grew up in Northern California,
(33)____________when her father and older brother both died from brain tumors in 1966, she moved with
her mother and younger brother to Europe, where she attended high school in Montreux, Switzerland. She
returned to the United States for college. After college, Tan worked as a language development consultant
and as a corporate freelance writer. In 1985, she wrote the story "Rules of the Game" for a writing
workshop, which laid the early (34) ____________for her first novel The Joy Luck Club. Published in
1989, the book explored the (35) ____________between Chinese women and their Chinese-American
daughters, and became the longest-running New York Times bestseller for that year. The Joy Luck Club
received numerous awards, including the Los Angeles Times Book Award. It has been translated into 25
languages, including Chinese, and was made into a major motion picture for (36) ____________Tan co -
wrote the screenplay. Tan's other works have also been (37) ____________into several different forms of
media.
Question 33. A. however B. moreover C. so D. but
Question 34. A. preparation B. base C. source D. foundation
Question 35. A. relate B. relative C. relationship D. relatively
Question 36. A. whom B. that C. what D. which
Question 37. A. adjoined B. adapted C. adjusted D. adopted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
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The first thing to do when you have a trip abroad is to check that your passport is valid. Holders of out -of-
date passports are not allowed to travel overseas. Then you can prepare for your trip. If you don't know the
language, you can have all kinds of problems communicating with local people. Buying a pocket
dictionary can make a difference. You'll be able to order food, buy things in shops and ask for directions.
It's worth getting one. Also there's nothing worse than arriving at your destination to find there are no
hotels available. The obvious way to avoid this is to book in advance. This can save you money too.
Another frustrating thing that can happen is to go somewhere and not know about important sightseeing
places. Get a guide book before you leave and make the most of your trip. It's a must.
Then, when you are ready to pack your clothes, make sure they are the right kind. It's no good packing
sweaters and coats for a hot country or T-shirts and shorts for a cold one. Check the local climate before
you leave.
Also, be careful how much you pack in your bags. It's easy to take too many clothes and then not have
enough space for souvenirs. But make sure you pack essentials, what about money? Well, it's a good idea
to take some local currency with you but not too much. There are conveniently located cash machines
(ATMs) in most big cities, and it's usually cheaper to use them than change your cash in banks. Then
you'll have more money to spend. When you are at your destination, other travellers often have great
information they are happy to share. Find out what they have to say. It could enhance your travelling
experience.
(Adapted from Pearson Test of English General Skills)
Question 38. what is the passage mainly about?
A. Things to avoid when you go abroad B. Tips for Travellers Overseas
C. The benefits of travelling D. How to find ATMs in big cities
Question 39. According to the passage, you should do all of the following before leaving
EXCEPT____________.
A. taking money from an ATM B. making sure of the validity of your passport
C. preparing suitable clothes D. getting a guide book
Question 40. The word "This" in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. finding are no hotels to stay at B. saving money
C. booking in advance D. asking for directions
Question 41. According to the passage, holders of out-of-date passports____________.
A. have to show an ID instead when they travel
B. cannot travel to other countries
C. should ask for help from local people
D. may have their passports renewed in any country.
Question 42. The word “essentials” in paragraph 4 mostly means____________.
A. everything B. valuables C. necessities D. food
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43-50.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a
career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time
and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating an d
rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work
influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just
a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by
assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and
surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do

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you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or co-operative work?” There are no right
or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require,
which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance
to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day.
If not, there are diversity occupations - building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent - that involve a
great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in
some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities.
On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all
regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages.
Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially
increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative
associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not.
Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are
less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be
as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to
develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today
need not be your final one.
Question 43. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to____________
A. emphasize that each persons answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 44. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
Question 45. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____________.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 46. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person
who does not want to live in a big city?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
Question 47. Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job
EXCEPT____________
A.Your likes and your dislikes B. The atmosphere at work
C. Geographical location D. Your strengths and weaknesses
Question 48. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ____________
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 49. The word “grueling” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by____________.
A. tiring and hard B. relaxing C. painful D. enjoyable
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
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ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 70 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. wisdom B. minor C. lively D. wildness
Question 2. A. hatred B. naked C. knocked D. sacred

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. ignite B. igloo C. dogsled D. asset
Question 4. A. domestic B. dormitory C. dogmatic D. deliberate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. “When is your math exam?” “Well, this time tomorrow I___________for it”.
A. will be sitting B. will sit C. will have been sitting D. sit
Question 6. The President mentioned pension reform and went on___________that he would reduce
unemployment figures.
A. adding B. add C. to be adding D. to add
Question 7. ___________you to be offered that job, would you have to move to another city?
A. Provided that B. Should C. Were D. Had
Question 8. I agree___________one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km.
A. in B. of C. on D. for
Question 9. Up___________when it saw its master.
A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump C. the dog jump D. does the dog jump
Question 10. ___________will be carried in the next space payload has not yet been announced to
the public.
A. It B. What C. When D. That
Question 11. ___________extremely bad weather in the mountains, we’re no longer considering
our skiing trip.
A. Due to B. Because C. Since D. Due to the fact that
Question 12. Having been selected to represent the Association of American Engineers at the
International Convention, ___________.
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. the members congratulated him D. he gave a short acceptance speech
Question 13. The authorities have shown no signs of ___________to the kidnappers’ demands.
A. standing up B. bringing about C. getting down D. giving in
Question 14. My main___________to the new motorway is that it will spoil the countryside.
A. objection B. object C. objective D. objecting
Question 15. Sue would suffer obesity if she couldn’t control her___________ overeating.
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A. compulsive B. disastrous C. exhaustive D. unbearable


Question 16. After a six-year relation, Martha and Billy have decided to___________.
A. break the bank B. tie the knot C. turn the page D. make ends meet
Question 17. Most of the in this workshop do not work very seriously or productively.
A. tooth and nail B. rank and file C. eager beavers D. old hand
Question 18. A penalty shot is___________when a major foul is committed inside the 5-meter line.
A. prevented B. awarded C. committed D. ranged

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The train to Ho chi Minh city left at precisely 7 o’clock as usually, but the train to Ha Noi
capital left at half past six o’clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.
A. exactly B. as usually C. which D. precisely
Question 20. Sam found it hard to concentrate on his work because the noise.
A. it B. concentrate C. work D. because
Question 21. Peacocks are among the most exotic birds in nature; its long tail feathers fan out to reveal a
profusion of vivid colors.
A. fan out B. its C. most exotic D. among

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting 18 years old that she is allowed to get married
legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
C. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
D. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
Question 23. “I would be grateful if you could send me further information about the job.”, Lee said
to me.
A. Lee thanked me for sending him further information about the job.
B. Lee felt great because further information about the job had been sent to him.
C. Lee politely asked me to send him further information about the job.
D. Lee flattered me because I sent him further information about the job.
Question 24. The workers only complain because of their unfair treatment.
A. Were the workers fairly treated, they wouldn’t complain.
B. The workers complain because their employees are unfair.
C. If the workers are treated fairly, they will not complain.
D. Are the workers treated fairly, they will not complain.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that a best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. He was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.
A. It was because his overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.
B. He was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.
C. That he was overconfidence ruined our plan completely.

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D. It was his overconfidence ruined our plan completely.


Question 26. He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain
D. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following questions.
Question 27. - “Excuse me. where's the parking lot?” - “___________”
A. You missed the turn. It's back that way.
B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You are going the wrong way. It's not here
D. Why do you ask me? I don't know.
Question 28. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
- Hoa: "Why aren't you taking part in our activities?” “__________”
- Hai: "Yes, I can. Certainly!"
A. Shall I take your hat off?
B. Can you help me with this decoration?
C. Can I help you?
D. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. I think we should tell Peter that the location of the picnic has been changed. Let’s put him
in the picture.
A. show him B. take his photo C. explain to him D. inform him
Question 30. Mike pretended to be sick, but I saw through his deception at once.
A. was used to B. got angry with C. got bored with D. was aware of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 31. You’re 25 years old, but you still haven’t cut the apron strings.
A. become independent B. bought a new house
C. relied on others D. started doing well
Question 32. Though built almost five hundred years ago, the church remained practically intact.
A. in perfection B. in completion C. in chaos D. in ruins

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
MODERN SCIENCE
It seems entirely natural to US that there are teams of scientists in universities and (33)
___________institutions around the world, attempting to discover the way the world works. (34)
___________, it hasn’t always been that way. Although the scientific method is now four or five hundred
years old, the ancient Greeks, for example, believed that they could (35) ___________the cause of natural
events just by the power of thought.

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During the 17th century, more and more people began to realize that they could test their scientific ideas
by designing a relevant experiment and seeing what happened. A lot of (36) ___________was made in
this way by individual scientists. These men and women often worked alone, carrying out research into
many different areas of science, and they often received very little (37) ___________for their hard work.
At the start of the 20th century, though, it became clear that science was becoming more complicated and
more expensive. The individual scientists disappeared, to be replaced by highly qualified teams of experts.
Modern science was born.
Question 33. A. every B. whole C. other D. another
Question 34. A. However B. Accordingly C. Thus D. Besides
Question 35. A. solve out B. work out C. come out D. give out
Question 36. A. evolution B. progress C. movement D. development
Question 37. A. reward B. present C. gift D. prize

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Accidents do not occur at random. People eighty-five years of age and older are twenty-two times likely to
die accidentally than are children five to nine years old. The risk for native Americans is four times that
for Asian-Americans and twice that for white Americans or African-Americans. Males suffer accidents at
more than twice the rate of females, in part because they are more prone to risky behavior. Alaskans are
more than three times as likely as Rhode Islanders to die in an accident. Texans are twenty- one times
more likely than New Jerseyites to die in a natural disaster. Among the one hundred most populous
counties, Kern County, California (Bakersfield), has an accident fatality rate three times greater than
Summit County, Ohio (Akron).
Accidents happens more often to poor people. Those living in poverty receive inferior medical care, are
more apt to reside in houses with faulty heating and electrical systems, drive older cars with fewer safety
features, and are less likely to use safety belts. People in rural areas have more accidents than city or
suburban dwellers because farming is much riskier than working in a factory or office and because
emergency medical services are less readily available. These two factors - low income and rural residence
- may explain why the south has a higher accident rate than the north.
(Source: Proficiency Reading)
Question 38. which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Children aged five to nine face the greatest accident risk.
B. All people face an equal risk of having an accident.
C. One in every 22 people aged 85 and over will die in an accident.
D. The risk of having an accident is greater among certain groups of people.

Question 39. The word “inferior” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________.
A. modern B. low-quality C. well-equipped D. unsafe
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following groups of people in America face the
highest risk of having an accident?
A. Native Americans B. Asian-Americans
C. White Americans D. African-Americans
Question 41. What does the word “that” in the passage refer to___________?
A. males B. native Americans
C. the risk D. African-Americans
Question 42. which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for a higher accident rate among
the poor?
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A. Little knowledge about safety.


B. Inadequate medical services.
C. Poor housing and working conditions.
D. Use of cars which incorporate fewer safety features.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
The concept of being environmentally conscious, or “green”, has become more prevalent in twenty first-
century U.S culture. It has begun to affect the manufacturing of everything from non- toxic household
cleaning products to motor vehicles powered by alternative sources of energy. However, one way of being
“green” that is perhaps not as apparent to the viewer but of equal importance in being environmentally
conscious, is the construction of buildings that are considered “sustainable”. Sustainable buildings are
those that do not impose on the environment or rely on the over-utilization of energy or natural resources.
There are four main principles of sustainability, which includes consideration of the health and stability of
all living things and their environmental diversity, as well as the economic opportunities of humanity.
Sustainable architecture consists of environmentally conscious design techniques. In the past, the
demolition of an old building meant that all or most of the debris of the building would end up in a landfill
or a waste disposal site. Today, architects can plan and design a building that uses recycled materials, such
as wood, concrete, stone, or metal. These materials are salvaged from the demolition of an older building
and can be appropriately incorporated into a new construction. Architects and construction supervisors
may also choose to recycle more organic parts of demolished buildings, such as wooden doors, windows
and other glass, ceramics, paper, and textiles.
A problem that has often arisen has been with how a site crew-whether it is demolition or
construction crew determines and sorts what is “waste” and what is recyclable. Architects and
environmental scientists have to decide whether or not a material is appropriate for use in new
construction and how it will impact the environment. They must evaluate the materials from the
demolition and determine what those materials contain, and if they meet the standards set by the U.S,
government’s Environmental Protection Agency (the EPA). If the debris from the demolition contains
hazardous materials that are harmful to the environment or to the consumer, such as asbestos, then the
material is not salvageable. Use of the asbestos for insulation and as a form of fire retardation in buildings
and fabrics was common in the nineteenth century. Asbestos was once used in shingles on the sides of
buildings, as well as in the insulation in the interior walls of homes or other construction. In new “green”
construction, insulation that once asbestos- based can be replaced with recycled denim or constructed with
cellulose-a fibrous material found in paper products. The same-assessment applies to wood or wallboard
painted with toxic lead-based paints. In addition, gas-flow regulators and meters on both water and gas
heating systems constructed prior to 1961 must be carefully evaluated to determine that they do not
contain dangerous substances such as mercury. Mercury can be harmful to humans and the environment if
it is spilled during the removal of these devices.
Question 43. The word “prevalent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. rare B. unusual C. widespread D. valuable
Question 44. In paragraph 1, the author implies that___________.
A. some companies manufacture vehicles that are not powered by gasoline
B. the concept of being green has not influenced manufacture
C. uses of alternative energy are apparent to the consumer
D. all buildings impose on the environment
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true?
A. All construction follows the concept of sustainable architecture.
B. Sustainable buildings do not overuse electricity, oil, or gas.
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C. Todays cleaning products and appliances harm the environment.


D. Construction of “green” buildings is an old idea.
Question 46. In paragraph 2, the word “salvaged” is closest in meaning to___________.
A. lost B. destroyed C. buried D. saved
Question 47. According to paragraph 2, environmentally conscious design
incorporates___________.
A. safe, organic, recycled materials B. new wood, stone, or concrete
C. debris from a demolished building D. materials from a landfill
Question 48. In paragraph 3, the author mention both demolition and construction crews in order
to___________
A. give an example of how choosing materials is not easily determined on a site
B. illustrate the types of crews that sort waste and recyclables
C. demonstrate that choosing recyclable materials is challenging for both crews
D. contrast the work of the two types of crews on a site
Question 49. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to___________.
A. the EPA
B. the site crew
C. architects and environmental scientists
D. the materials from the demolition
Question 50. In paragraph 3, the author mentions all of the following hazardous materials found in
a debris from a demolition site EXCEPT___________.
A. cellulose B. mercury C. asbestos D. lead

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 71 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. climate B. examine C. invitation D. interview
Question 2. A. society B. geography C. dry D. sandy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. dismiss B. destroy C. display D. district
Question 4. A. entertain B. candidate C. referee D. afternoon
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. When Bill got home, his children_____________in the yard.
A. will be playing B. were playing C. are playing D. played
Question 6. Did you manage_____________the book you were looking for?
A. to find B. found C. finding D. find
Question 7. That cannot be a true story. He_____________it up.
A. must have made B. should have made
C. would have made D. can have made
Question 8. Beethovens Fifth Symphony_____________next weekend.
A. is going to be performed B. has been performed
C. will be performing D. will have performed
Question 9. She said that when she_____________to school, she saw an accident
A. had been walking B. has walked C. was walking D. has been walking
Question 10. She wanted Tom, _____________she liked, as a partner, but she got Jack, she didn’t like.
A. whom/ whose B. whose/ whom C. whose/ whose D. whom/ whom
Question 11. Scarcely_____________out of bed when_____________
A. had I got/ did the doorbell ring B. had I got/ the doorbell rang
C. I had got/ did the doorbell ring D. I had got/ the doorbell rang
Question 12. I think he will join us, _____________?
A. won’t he B. don’t I C. will not he D. do not I
Question 13. For more than 10 years, we have seen the significant_____________in the economy
of our country.
A. develop B. developments C. developers D. developed
Question 14. The_____________load for this car is one ton.
A. top B. max C. peak D. height
Question 15. Most modern office_____________includes facsimile machines, photocopiers and telephone systems.
A. device B. tool C. equipment D. instrument
Question 16. I just took it_____________that he’d always be on time.
A. into consideration B. easy C. into account D. for granted
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Question 17. That’s exactly what I mean, Tom. You’ve_____________!


A. put your foot in it B. killed two birds with one stone
C. put two and two together D. hit the nail on the head
Question 18. My car is getting unreliable. I think I’ll trade it_____________for a new one.
A. off B. away C. in D. up
Mark the letter A, B, C, orD on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. I visited Mexico and United States last year.
A. visited B. Mexico C. United States D. last year
Question 20. Yesterday he said he regretted not to have gone to the exhibition last week.
A. yesterday B. said C. regretted D. not to have gone
Question 21. Minh’s mother would sooner not to meet her friend in person than phone her.
A. sooner B. not to meet C. in person D. than
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 22. Friendly though he may seem, he’s not to he trusted.
A. He’s too friendly to be trusted.
B. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted.
D. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
Question 23. The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 24. Calling Odyse is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It’s worth not calling Odyse since his phone is out of order.
B. It’s no use to call Odyse since his phone is out of order.
C. It’s useless call Odyse as his phone is out of order.
D. There is no point in calling odyse as his phone is out of order.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Randy doesn’t play rugby. Neither does Lucy
A. Neither Randy nor Lucy doesn’t play rugby.
B. Neither Randy nor Lucy play rugby.
C. Neither Randy nor Lucy plays rugby.
D. Either Randy or Lucy plays rugby.
Question 26. Nguyen Huu Kim Son broke the SEA Games record in the men’s 400-metre individual
medley event. He is very proud of it.
A. He is very proud of what he broke the SEA Games record.
B. He takes pride in breaking the SEA Games record.
C. He is interested in the SEA Games record.
D. He is very proud of he broke the SEA Games record.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. This situation happened in a restaurant
- Customer: “Excuse me!”
- Waiter: “Yes, sir. How can I help you?”
- Customer: “I don’t want to make a scene but there’s a fly in my soup.”
- Waiter: “_____________”
A. I’m so sorry! I will get you another one. B. What can I do to help?
C. You are right. I will get you another one. D. You could be right but I don’t think it is a fly.
Question 28. Alice and Mary have just finished watching a movie.
- Alice: “Endgame is such a wonderful movie”
- Mary: “_____________”
A. I couldn’t agree more. B. I don’t like your saying.
C. I didn’t say anything. D. I’m a huge fan of Marvel.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. One of the biggest issues that many victims of negligent behavior encounter is difficulty in
determining whether or not an action had foreseeable consequences.
A. predictable B. unpredictable C. ascertainable D. computable
Question 30. We’re really close friends but we just cannot see eye to eye on politics.
A. not see well B. not share the same views about
C. not understand D. not care for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. inaccuracy B. exactness C. insecurity D. flexibility
Question 32. Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of the time just
before the check-in counter closed.
A. in a terrible condition B. with all out luggage
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps
foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus
teaching people how to (33) _____________their way through different systems. It therefore brings people
into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to
others that say a teacher or agriculturalist or nurse would have, (34) _____________they do have many
skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be
harnessed for the benefit of their fellow human beings, and ultimately themselves. From (35)
_____________this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved is (36)
_____________.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (37) _____________have shown an ability to work as
part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be desirable
qualities in any employee.

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Question 33. A. give B. work C. put D. take


Question 34. A. so B. but C. or D. for
Question 35. A. all B. none C.above D. both
Question 36. A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. impassible
Question 37. A. which B. whose C. who D. what

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Insects’ lives are very short and they have many enemies, but they must survive long enough to breed and
perpetuate their kind. The less insect-like they look, the better their chance of survival. To look "inedible"
by imitating plants is a way frequently used by insects to survive. Mammals rarely imitate plants, but
many fish and invertebrates do.
The stick caterpillar is well named. It is hardly distinguishable from a brown or green twig. This
caterpillar is quite common and can be found almost anywhere in North America. It is also called
"measuring worm" or "inchworm." It walks by arching its body, then stretching out and grasping the
branch with its front feet then looping its body again to bring the hind fed forward, when danger threatens,
the stick caterpillar stretches its body away from the branch at an angle and remains rigid and still, like a
twig, until the danger has passed.
Walking sticks, or stick insects, do not have to assume a rigid, twig-like pose to find protection: they look
like inedible twigs in any position. There are many kinds of walking sticks, ranging in size from the few
inches of the North American variety to some tropical species that may be over a foot long, when at rest
their front legs are stretched out, heightening their camouflage. Some of the tropical species are adorned
with spines or ridges, imitating the thorny bushes or trees in which they live.
Leaves also seem to be a favorite object for insects to imitate. Many butterflies can suddenly disappear
from view by folding their wings and sitting quietly among the plants that they resemble.
Question 38. what is the main idea of the passage?
A. Caterpillars that live in trees
B. The feeding habits of insects
C. How some insects imitate plants to survive
D. Insects that are threatened with extinction
Question 39. which of the following does the word “enemies” in line 1 refer to?
A. plants looking like insects B. extreme weather conditions
C. creatures that eat insects D. insects looking like plants
Question 40. According to the passage, how does a stick caterpillar make itself look like a twig?
A. By holding its body stiff and motionless
B. By looping itself around a stick
C. By changing the colour of its skin
D. By laying its body flat against a branch
Question 41. Which of the following is the antonym of the word “inedible” in paragraph 3?
A. eatable B. colourful C. beautiful D. moving
Question 42. How can butterflies make themselves invisible?
A. By hiding under the leaves
B. By disappearing from the view
C. By folding wings and sitting still among the leaves with similar colours
D. By flying among colourful flowers

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
There are two basic types of glaciers, those that flow outward in all directions with little regard for any
underlying terrain and those that are confined by terrain to a particular path.
The first category of glaciers includes those massive blankets that cover whole continents, appropriately
called ice sheets. There must be over 50,000 square kilometers of land covered with ice for the glacier to
qualify as an ice sheet, when portions of an ice sheet spread out over the ocean, they form ice shelves.
About 20,000 years ago the Cordilleran Ice sheet covered nearly all the mountains in southern Alaska,
western Canada, and the western United States. It was about 3 kilometers deep at its thickest point in
northern Alberta. Now there are only two sheets left on Earth, those covering Greenland and Antarctica.
Any domelike body of ice that also flows out in all directions but covers less than 50,000 square
kilometers is called an ice cap. Although ice caps are rare nowadays, there are a number in northeastern
Canada, on Baffin Island, and on the Queen Elizabeth Islands.
The second category of glaciers includes those of a variety of shapes and sizes generally called mountain
or alpine glaciers. Mountain glaciers are typically identified by the landform that controls th eir flow. One
form of mountain glacier that resembles an ice cap in that it flows outward in several directions is called
an ice field. The difference between an ice field and an ice cap is subtle. Essentially, the flow of an ice
field is somewhat controlled by surrounding terrain and thus does not have the domelike shape of a cap.
There are several ice fields in the Wrangell. St. Elias, and Chugach mountains of Alaska and northern
British Columbia.
Less spectacular than large ice fields are the most common types of mountain glaciers: the cirque and
valley glaciers. Cirque glaciers are found in depressions in the surface of the land and have a characteristic
circular shape. The ice of valley glaciers, bound by terrain, flows down valleys, curves around their
corners, and falls over cliffs.
Question 43. what does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Where major glaciers are located
B. How glaciers shape the land
C. The different kinds of glaciers
D. How glaciers are formed
Question 44. The word “terrain” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by____________.
A. the seabed B. area of land C. countryside D. prairie
Question 45. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ice sheets are so named because____________
A. they are thicker in some areas than the others
B. they are identified by the landform that controls their flow
C. they cover large areas of land
D. they are confined to cirque glaciers
Question 46. According to the passage, where was the Cordilleran Ice Sheet thickest?
A. Alaska B. Antarctica C. Greenland D. Alberta
Question 47. According to paragraph 5, ice fields resemble ice caps in which of the following ways?
A. Their flow B. Their texture C. Their location D. Their shape
Question 48. The word “subtle” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by____________.
A. slight B. substantial C. regional D. obvious
Question 49. The word “their” in last paragraph refers to____________.
A. ice fields B. cirque glaciers C. valley glaciers D. valleys
Question 50. All of the following are alpine glaciers EXCEPT____________.
A. cirque glaciers B. ice caps C. ice fields D. Valley glaciers

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 72 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. theatre B. thunder C. therefore D. throughout
Question 2. A. apologises B. invites C. roofs D. certificates
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. sector B. lawyer C. workforce D. prefer
Question 4. A. diversity B. biography C. biology D. fundamental
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. I don’t know much about computer, so I asked the assistant for____________advice.
A. a little B. many C. a few D. a lot
Question 6. You should know that everyone in this office____________busy planning the dance for a week.
A. is B. has been C. are D. have been
Question 7. The children were made____________up the mess they had left before they could watch TV.
A. clear B. to clear C. clearing D. cleared
Question 8. Most headaches____________with aspirin unless they are too severe.
A. can treat B. can be treating C. can be treated D. can treats
Question 9. I wish I____________able to accept that role, but I was preparing for another play at the time.
A. were B. was C. had been D. have been
Question 10. Everyone thought she would accept the offer. ____________, she turned it down immediately.
A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. Hitherto
Question 11. I would have cooked something special if I____________you were coming.
A. knew B. know C. have known D. had known
Question 12. Women have proved repeatedly that they are equal and often superior____________men in
almost every field.
A. to B. than C. as D. over
Question 13. There is still widespread____________against older people in the job market.
A. discriminate B. discriminatory C. discrimination D. discriminating
Question 14. The arrested man is suspected of____________government funds for himself.
A.robbing B. appropriating C. appreciating D. confiscating
Question 15. It was hard to____________the temptation to watch the late-night show even though I was
so tired then.
A. defy B. resist C. refuse D. oppose
Question 16. The company managed to beat the ____________on delivering its new system.
A. team B. other C. time D. clock
Question 17. Even though she had been studying hard, she had only a____________chance of passing the exam.
A. slim B. narrow C. thin D. light
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Question 18. I ran in a marathon last week, but I was not fit enough. I____________after 15 kilometres.
A. dropped out B. moved in C. showed off D. closed down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Keith had so interesting and creative plans that everyone wanted to work on his committee.
A. wanted B. plans C. so interesting D. on
Question 20. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial
world.
A. in our large B. with C. many D. are
Question 21. A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same idea.
A. sentences B. consists of C. to D. A paragraph
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Greater use of public transport would cut the amount of pollution from cars.
A. Were more people to use public transport, cars would stop releasing exhaust into the atmosphere.
B. If more people use public transport, it will cut the amount of pollution from cars.
C. If public transport was widely used, people would no longer suffer from pollution from cars.
D. If more people used public transport, there would be less pollution from cars.
Question 23. Mark delayed writing the book until he had done a lot of research.
A. Mark did a lot of research after he finished writing the book.
B. It was only when Mark had written the book that he did a lot of research.
C. Mark delayed writing the book as he had already done any research.
D. Only after Mark had done a lot of research did he begin to write the book.
Question 24. “Would you like to come out to dinner with me tonight, Jenny?” Paul said.
A. Paul suggested that Jenny go out to dinner with him that night.
B. Paul insisted on Jenny going out to dinner with him that night.
C. Paul invited Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night.
D. Pau offered Jenny to go out to dinner with him that night
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. Lee gave up her job. She planned to continue her education.
A. Lee’s education was interrupted since she wanted to find a job.
B. Lee gave up her job with the aim at continuing her education.
C. Lee gave up her job in case she continued her education.
D. Lee gave up her job with a view to continuing her education.
Question 26. This is a rare opportunity. You should take advantage of it to get a better job.
A. You should take advantage of this rare opportunity, for which is to get a better job.
B. This is a rare opportunity what you should take advantage of to get a better job.
C. You should take advantage of this opportunity, that is rare to get a better job.
D. This is a rare opportunity that you should take advantage of to get a better job.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Mark and Anne are talking after the class.
Mark: “Guess what? I’ve been recruited to be a member of Green Dream Volunteer Group.”
Anne: “____________”
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A. Good luck next time! B. That’s great! Congratulations!


C. That’s the least thing I could do for you. D. It doesn’t make sense to me.
Question 28. Amy and Jacob are talking about the two-day excursion at the end of the school year. Amy:
“You look so sad. ____________”
Jacob: “I couldn’t get my parents’ permission to stay the night away from home.”
A. Can you help me? B. How do you deal with it?
C. What should I do? D. what’s the problem?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. It was late at night, the wind was howling and when she heard the knock on the door, she
almost jumped out of her skin.
A. was surprised B. was asleep C. was terrified D. was delighted
Question 30. Wild animals use various methods to ward off predators and their natural enemies.
A. rebel B. befriend C. deter D. attack
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. We should grow more trees so that they can absorb more carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere.
A. take in B. emit C. consume D. cut off
Question 32. We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic growth,
stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution (33) ____________is as complicated as it is serious.
It is complicated because much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. (34) ____________,
exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the automobile provides
transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge much of the material that pollutes the air and
water but factories give (35) ____________to a large number of people.
Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (36) ____________using
many things that benefit them. Most people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution can be
gradually reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the amount of
pollution that such things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws (37)
____________require businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
Question 33. A. event B. accident C. work D. problem
Question 34. A. As a result B. However C. Therefore D. For example
Question 35. A. employed B. employment C. unemployed D. unemployment
Question 36. A. start B. stop C. enjoy D. continue
Question 37. A. whom B. that C. whose D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
By adopting a few simple techniques, parents who read to their children can considerably increase their
children's language development. It is surprising, but true. How parents talk to their children makes a big
difference in the children's language development. If a parent encourages the child to actively respond to
what the parent is reading, the child's language skills increase.
A study was done with two or three-year-old children and their parents. Half of the thirty children
participants were in the experimental study; the other half acted as the control group. In the experimental
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group, the parents were given a two-hour training session in which they were taught to ask open-ended
questions rather than yes-no questions. For example, the parent should ask, "What is the doggy doing?"
rather than, "Is the doggy running away?" Experimental parents were also instructed how to expand on
their children's answer, how to suggest alternative possibilities, and how to praise correct answers.
At the beginning of the study, the children did not differ on levels of language development, but at the end
of one month, the children in the experimental group were 5.5 months ahead of the control group on a test
of verbal expression and vocabulary. Nine months later, the children in the experimental group still
showed an advance of 6 months over the children in the control group.
Question 38. Parents can give great help to their children's language development by ____________
them.
A. responding to B. reading to C. adopting D. experimenting
Question 39. what does the word "they" in the second paragraph refer to?
A. Participants B. Children C. Questions D. Parents
Question 40. During the training session, experimental parents were taught to____________.
A. use yes-no questions B. study many experiments
C. ask open-ended questions D. give correct answers
Question 41. what was the major difference between the control group and the experimental one in
the study?
A. The number of participants. B. The books that were read.
C. The age of the children. D. The training that parents received.
Question 42. What conclusion can be drawn from this passage?
A. Children who read actively always act six months earlier than those who don't.
B. The more children read, the more intelligent they become.
C. Two or three-year-old children can be taught to read actively.
D. Children's language skills increase when they are required to respond actively.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The elements other than hydrogen and helium exist in such small quantities that it is accurate to say that
the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium by weight and somewhat less than 75 percent
hydrogen.
Astronomers have measured the abundance of helium throughout our galaxy and in other galaxies as well.
Helium has been found in old stars, in relatively young ones, in interstellar gas, and in the distant objects
known as quasars. Helium nuclei have also been found to be constituents of cosmic rays that fall on the
earth (cosmic rays are not really a form of radiation; they consist of rapidly moving particles of numerous
different kinds). It doesn’t seem to make very much difference where the helium is found. Its relative
abundance never seems to vary much. In some places, there may be slightly more of it; in others, slightly
less, but the ratio of helium to hydrogen nuclei always remains about the same.
Helium is created in stars. In fact, nuclear reactions that convert hydrogen to helium are respo nsible for
most of the energy that stars produce. However, the amount of helium that could have been produced in
this manner can be calculated, and it turns out to be no more than a few percent. The universe has not
existed long enough for this figure to be significantly greater. Consequently, if the universe is somewhat
more than 25 percent helium now, then it must have been about 25 percent helium at a time near the
beginning.
However, when the universe was less than one minute old, no helium could have existed. Calculations
indicate that before this time temperatures were too high and particles of matter were moving around
much too rapidly. It was only after the one- minute point that helium could exist. By this time, the

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universe had cooled so sufficiently that neutrons and protons could stick together. But the nuclear
reactions that led to the formations of helium went on for only relatively short time. By the time the
universe was a few minutes old, helium production had effectively ceased
Question 43. What does the passage mainly explain?
A. Why hydrogen is abundant.
B. How stars produce energy.
C. When most of the helium in the universe was formed.
D. The difference between helium and hydrogen.
Question 44. According to the passage, helium is____________.
A. difficult to detect.
B. the oldest element in the universe.
C. the second-most abundant element in the universe.
D. the most prevalent element in quasars.
Question 45. The word “constituents” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. causes B. relatives C. components D. targets
Question 46. Why does the author mention “cosmic rays”?
A. To explain how the universe began.
B. As an example of an unsolved astronomical puzzle.
C. To explain the abundance of hydrogen in the universe.
D. As part of a list of things containing helium.
Question 47. The word “they” refers to____________ .
A. radiation B. constituents C. cosmic rays D. particles
Question 48. The word “vary” is closest in meaning to____________.
A. include B. mean C. stretch D. change
Question 49. The creation of helium within stars____________.
A. cannot be measured
B. produces hydrogen as a by-product
C. produces energy
D. causes helium to be much more abundant in old stars than in young stars
Question 50. Most of the helium in the universe was formed____________ .
A. in a very short time
B. in interstellar space
C. before most of the hydrogen
D. during the first minute of the universes existence

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 73 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. stone B. zone C. phone D. none
Question 2. A. university B. unique C. unit D. undo
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. release B. offer C. amaze D. believe
Question 4. A. classify B. flexible C. sensitive D. tomato
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. The examination was not very difficult, but it was_____________ long.
A. so much B. too much C. very much D. much too
Question 6. Our industrial output_____________from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.
A. rises B. has risen C. was rising D. rose
Question 7. We had a lot of fun_____________at the picnic.
A. to play B. playing C. played D. plays
Question 8. We_____________to take a taxi. Otherwise we’ll be late for the meeting.
A. would rather B. had better C. must have D. will have
Question 9. Some film stars_____________difficult to work with.
A. are said be B. are said to be C. say to be D. said to be
Question 10. the long jumper_____________the pole-vaulter win the prize.
A. Both-and B. Neither-nor C. Either-or D. Not only-but also
Question 11. _____________restaurant you pick is fine with me.
A. Whichever B. Whenever C. whoever D. wherever
Question 12. Now the manager is no longer as indifferent_____________criticism as he used to be.
A. against B. to C. towards D. with
Question 13. Does Mr. Mike bring his farm_____________to the local market every day?
A. productively B. productive C. product D. produce
Question 14. In population growth Latin America_____________first, Africa second, and Asia third.
A. places B. ranks C. numbers D. stands
Question 15. The referee_____________the coin to decide which team would kick the ball first.
A. caught B. threw C. cast D. tossed
Question 16. Sorry for being late. I was_____________in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 17. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a_____________day.
A. windy B. rainy C. foggy D. snow

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Question 18. “What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly_____________and most certainly not for
publication” said the government to the reporter.
A. off the record B. for the time being
C. by the way D. on record
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The Canadian Shield is a huge, rocky region who curves around Hudson Bay like a giant
horseshoe.
A. a huge B. who C. around D. like
Question 20. Almost all of the people appeared on television wear makeup.
A. Almost B. of C. appeared D. wear
Question 21. The original World Cup trophy was given permanent to Brazil to honour that country’s
record third world cup title in Mexico in 1970.
A. The original World Cup trophy B. permanent
C. that country’s record D. in Mexico
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Studying all night is good for neither your grades nor your health.
A. Studying all night is good for your grades. B. Studying all night does not help at all.
C. Studying all night is good for your health D. Studying all night is helpful to you
Question 23. You should not keep bad company under any circumstances.
A. In no circumstances should you be friends with bad people.
B. Under no circumstances should you not keep bad company.
C. Under any circumstances shouldn’t you make friends with bad people.
D. In no circumstances should you keep your company because it is bad.
Question 24. Although he was disabled, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this sport.
A. Though a disabled boy, he was quite confident the first time he practiced this sport.
B. Though he was unable to walk, but the first time he practiced this sport, he was quite confident
C. In spite of being quite confident the first time he practiced this sport, he was disabled
D. He was quite confident when practicing this sport for the first time despite of a disabled boy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. My grandmother is very old. She can’t do the chores herself.
A. My grandmother is very old that she cant do the chores herself.
B. My grandmother is too old to do the chores herself.
C. My grandmother is such old that she cant do the chores herself.
D. My grandmother is too old to not do the chores herself.
Question 26. She turned the radio on at 7.30. She was still listening to it when her mother came
home at 9.30.
A. She had been listening to the radio at 7.30
B. She had been listening to the radio since 7.30
C. She had been listening to the radio after 7.30
D. She had been listening to the radio by 7.30

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Hana and Rina are talking about Lucy.
- Hanna: “Lucy has lost her purse somewhere this morning!”
- Rina: “_____________”
A. Tough luck B. Congratulations!
C. Never mind. D. I will take it for her
Question 28. Lucia wants to borrow his friends bike.
- Lucia: “Would you mind if I used your bike?”
- Friend: “_____________”
A. I don’t want to use your bike. B. Sure, go ahead.
C. Sorry, no, I wont do it. D. Please accept it with my best wishes.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. We had never experienced such discourtesy towards the elderly as it occurred at this center
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Question 30. Just by coincidence, I met my old classmate after 20 years.
A. sight B. surprise C. chance D. luck
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 31. His thoughtless comments made her very angry.
A. kind B. honest C. thoughtful D. pleasant
Question 32. I could not see what she was doing. It was so dark there.
A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
The story of gold is an adventure involving kings, queens, pirates, explorers, conquerors, and
the native people they conquered. Throughout history, gold has (33) _____________a magic spell over
those it touched. Gold is beautiful and rare; a soft shiny metal that can be moulded into many shapes. It
has been used for money, jewelry, and to decorate special buildings such as palaces and places of worship.
(34) _____________the precious metal was discovered, prospectors rushed to mine it, starting new cities
and countries as they went. Gold and the people who love it have helped shape the world we live in today.
Gold is one of many elements, or substances that cannot be changed by normal chemical means, that are
found in the Earth's crust. Gold has a warm, sunny colour and (35) _____________it does not react with
air, water, and most chemicals, its shine never fades. In its natural (36) _____________, gold is soft and
easily shaped, when heated to 1,062 Celsius it melts and can be poured (37) _____________moulds to
form coins, gold bars, and other objects. Stories have been told, movies made and legends born about the
discovery of the world's great gold deposits. It is a saga of dreams, greed, ambition and exploration.
Question 33. A. knitted B.folded C. woven D. sewn
Question 34. A. Whoever B. However C. Wherever D. Whatever
Question 35. A. despite B. because C. yet D. so
Question 36. A. position B. size C. condition D.shape
Question 37. A. into B. forward C. with D. at
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.

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Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbour wave and is used as the scientific term for seismic sea
wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landside or volcanic eruption, when
the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is created similar to the concentric
waves generated by an object dropped into the water. Most tsunamis originate along the Ring of Fire, a
zone of volcanoes and seismic activity, 32,500 km long that encircles the Pacific Ocean. Since 1819,
about 40 tsunamis have struck the Hawaiian Islands.
A tsunami can have wavelengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of kilometers
across the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour. Upon entering shallow
coastal waters, the wave, which may have been only about half a metre high out at sea, suddenly grows
rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it maybe 15 m high or more. Tsunamis have tremendous energy
because of the great volume of water affected. They are capable of obliterating coastal settlements.
Tsunamis should nót be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise underneath
hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach land. Storm surges are
particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge skilled an
estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh in 1970. The tsunami which struck south and southeast Asia in
late 2004 killed over 200 thousand people.
Question 38. What does the word “concentric” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. wavy B. having many centres
C. having a common centre D. a ring
Question 39. what is the greatest speed of tsunami travelling across the deep ocean?
A. 200 kilometres an hour B. 700 kilometres an hour
C. 800 kilometres an hour D. 150,000 kilometres an hour
Question 40. How are tsunami capable of obliterating coastal settlements?
A. They have tremendous energy due to the great volume of water affected.
B. They are a metre high or more.
C. They travel hundreds of kilometres
D. They can strike the shore fifteen metres high
Question 41. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Tsunami only occurs in Asia
B. A cyclone along with storm surges happened in Asia in 1970.
C. Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones.
D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding.
Question 42. what is the passage mainly about?
A. Where tsunamis originate. B. Damage caused by tsunamis.
C. Facts about tsunamis. D. How tremendous the energy of a tsunami is.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the category of being hypotheses with a
minimum of supporting evidence. One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems become
less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system, and nervous system could all
produce characteristics that we associate with aging. Following a different vein, many current r esearchers
are looking for evidence at the cellular and sub cellular level.
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized tissue cells) grown in culture divide
only a limited number of times and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this respect). Fibroblast
cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken from an adult. Thus some researchers believe
that aging occurs at the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic makeup. Any event that disturbs the
cell's genetic machinery such as mutation, damaging chemicals in the cell's environment, or loss of genetic

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material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide and thus bring on aging. Other theories of aging
look at different processes. Chronological aging refers to the passage of time since birth and is usually
measured in years. While chronological age can be useful in estimating the average status of a large group
of people, it is a poor indicator of an individual person's status because there is a tremendo us amount of
variation from one individual to the next in regard to the rate at which biological age changes occur. For
example, on the average, aging results in people losing much of their ability to perform strenuous
activities, yet some elderly individuals are excellent marathon runners.
Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes in outward appearance with advancing
age. This includes changes in the body and changes in other aspects of a person's appearance, such as the
style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the use of a hearing aid. Like chronological aging, it
is frequently used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have occurred. However, it is an
inaccurate indicator for either purpose because of variation among individuals and because a person's
appearance is affected by many factors that are not part of aging, including illness, poor nutrition, and
exposure to sunlight
Question 43. What is the best title for this passage?
A. Different Processes of Aging
B. Outstanding Characteristics Associated with Aging
C. Theories of Aging: Well Proven Hypotheses
D. Theories of Aging: Poorly Supported Hypotheses
Question 44. The author points out that cancer cells_____________
A. seem to live forever
B. divide and then die
C . divide more in embryos than in adults
D. lose their ability to divide
Question 45. The phrase “an embryo” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. a descendant B. an infant C. a parent D. an internal organ
Question 46. The word “strenuous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. basic B. troublesome C. mental D. intense
Question 47. As explained in this passage, the theory of aging which examines the cellular level
would NOT assign which of the following as a cause of aging?
A. Mutation B. Deterioration into the body’s immune system
C. Loss of genetic material D. Chemical damage from the environment
Question 48. According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an individual’s
status regarding aging because_____________ .
A. elderly people are often athletic
B. there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
C. strenuous activities are not good measures of age
D. it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates
Question 49. In the last paragraph, the word “this” refers to_____________
A. cosmetic aging B. type of aging C. outward appearance D. advancing age
Question 50. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging EXCEPT_____________
A. It does not occur at the same rate for all people
B. It is a poor indicator of chronological age
C. Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur
D. It is described by changes in outward appearance

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 74 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. dinner B. distribute C. mine D. begin
Question 2. A. factory B. satisfy C. ability D. easy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. diverse B. desert C. sector D. willing
Question 4. A. volunteer B. Vietnamese C. expedition D. sociable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. We need_____________money to send our son to Oxford University.
A. a large sum of B. a few of C. many D. lot of
Question 6. Only after she had finished the course did she realize she_____________a wrong choice.
A. had made B. has made C. had been making D. was making
Question 7. Tom denied_____________part in the fighting at school.
A. to take B. take C. to taking D. taking
Question 8. I_____________buy that book because I didn’t bring any money with me.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. may not D. must
Question 9. Two people are said_____________in the accident two weeks ago.
A. to get hurt B. got hurt C. to have got hurt D. to have been got hurt
Question 10. John, along with twenty students, _____________a party
A. plan B. have planned C. is planning D. are planning
Question 11. _____________really surprised all of us
A. That he can speak Vietnamese very well
B. He can speak Vietnamese very well
C. It is he can speak Vietnamese very well
D. The fact is he can speak Vietnamese very well
Question 12. The students are expected to stick_____________their school’s regulation.
A. in B. at C. to D. by
Question 13. Many species of plants and animals are in_____________of extinction.
A. dangerous B. endangered C. danger D. dangerously
Question 14. The wine had made him a little_____________and couldn’t control his movement.
A. narrow-minded B. light-headed C. light-footed D. light-hearted
Question 15. Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be_____________to health.
A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive
Question 16. Thomas knows Paris like the back of his_____________. He used to be a taxi driver there
for 2 years.
A. head B. mind C. hand D. life
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Question 17. We are_____________a survey to find out what our customers think of their local bus service.
A. conducting B. researching C. corresponding D. investigating
Question 18. when the light_____________, we couldn’t see anything.
A. came off B. put out C. switched off D. went out
Mark A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 19. To everyone's surprise, it wasn't in Bristol which he made his fortune, although that’s where
he was born.
A. To B. surprise C. which D. made
Question 20. After spending two days arguing about where to go for their holidays, it was decided that
they shouldn’t go anywhere.
A. arguing B. for C. it was decided D. shouldn’t go
Question 21. Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in
the film industry.
A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following sentences.
Question 22. "Do you believe in what the boy says, Mary?" said Tom.
A. Tom asked Mary if she believed in what the boy said.
B. Tom asked Mary to believe in what the boy said.
C. Tom asked Mary whether she believes in what the boy says.
D. Tom said that Mary believed in what the boy said.
Question 23. John is fat because he eats so many chips.
A. If John didn’t eat so many chips, he would not be fat.
B. John is fat though he eats so many chips.
C. Being fat, John eats so many chips.
D. If John doesn’t eat so many chips, he will not be fat.
Question 24. Refusal to give a breath sample to the police could lead to your arrest.
A. If you refused to be arrested, you have to give a breath sample.
B. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
C. If a breath sample is not given, the police will refuse to arrest you.
D. The police could cause you to give a breath sample to decide whether to arrest you or not.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 25. People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in
the park.
A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.
B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.
D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.
Question 26. The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. A student is asking the librarian to help her to fax a report.
Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?”
Librarian: “_____________”
A. Sorry, I have no idea.
B. It’s very kind of you to say so.
C. What rubbish! I don’t think it’s helpful.
D. Certainly, what’s the fax number?
Question 28. Anne is complaining about the noise from the next - door house.
Anne: “I can’t really stand the noise from the next-door house, especially after 10 p.m.”
Mary: “_____________. You should talk to your neighbor.”
A. Calm down, Anne. B. I’m sorry. I didn’t mean that.
C. I know what you mean. D. What a silly girl.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Tet marks the beginning of spring and, for agrarian people who depend on the lunar
calendar to manage their crops, the start of the year.
A. traditional ones B. minority people C. farmers D. old people
Question 30. The government decided to pull down the old building after asking for the ideas from the
local resident.
A. renovate B. purchase C. maintain D. demolish
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 31. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot
of prizes.
A. difficulty B. barrier C. advantage D. disadvantage
Question 32. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate
more in the future.
A. express disapproval of B. voice opinions on
C. find favor with D. resolve a conflict over
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks.
Parents whose children show a special interest in a particular sport have a difficult decision to (33)
_____________about their childrens career, should they allow their children to train to become top
sportsmen and women? For many children it means starting very young and school work, going out with
friends and other interests have to take second place. It’s very difficult to explain to a young child why he
or she has to train for five hours a day, even at the weekend, when most of his or her friends are playing.
Another problem is of course money. In many countries money for training is (34) _____________f rom
the government for the very best young sportsmen and women. If this help cannot be given, it means that
it is the parents that have to find the time and the money to support their child’s (35) _____________and
sports clothes, transport to competitions, special equipment etc. can all be very expensive.
Many parents are understandably concerned that it is dangerous to start serious training in a sport at an
early age. Some doctors agree that young muscles may be damaged by training before they are properl y
developed. Professional trainers, (36) _____________, believe that it is only by starting young that you
can reach the top as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very (37) _____________people reach
the top and both parents and children should be prepared for failure even after many years of training.
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Question 33. A. do B. plan C. make D. prepare


Question 34. A. enough B. available C. possible D. enormous
Question 35. A. development B. develop C. developing D. developed
Question 36. A. furthermore B. in addition C. moreover D. however
Question 37. A. little B. many C. a few D. few

Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Paul Watson is an environmental activist. He is a man who believes that he must do something, not just
talk about doing something. Paul believes in protecting endangered animals, and he protects them in
controversial ways. Some people think that Watson is a hero and admire him very much. Other people
think that he is a criminal.
On July 16th, 1979, Paul Watson and his crew were onhis ship, which is called the Sea Shepherd. Watson
and the people who work on the Sea shepherd were hunting on the Atlantic Ocean near Portu gal.
However, they had a strange prey; instead of hunting for animals, their prey was a ship, the Sierra. The
Sea shepherd found the Sierra, ran into it and sank it. As a result, the Sierra never returned to the sea. The
Sea Shepherd, on the other hand, returned to its home in Canada. Paul Watson and his workers thought
that they had been successful.
The Sierra had been a whaling ship, which had operated illegally. The captain and crew of the Sierra did
not obey any of the international laws that restrict whaling. Instead, they killed as many whales as they
could, quickly cut off the meat, and froze it. Later, they sold the whale meat in countries where it is eaten.
Paul Watson tried to persuade the international whaling commission to stop the Sierra. However, the
commission did very little, and Paul became impatient. He decided to stop the Sierra and other whaling
ships in any way that he could. He offered to pay $25,000 to anyone who sank any illegal whaling ship,
and he sank the Sierra. He acted because he believes that the whales must be protected. Still, he acted
without the approval of the government; therefore, his actions were controversial.
Paul Watson is not the only environmental activist. Other men and women are also fighting to protect the
Earth. Like Watson, they do not always have the approval of their governments, and like Watson, they
have become impatient. Yet, because of their concern for the environment, they will act to protect it.
(Adapted from “Eco fighters” by Eric Schwartz, OMNI)
Question 38. According to the reading, an environmental activist is someone who_____________.
A. runs into whaling ship.
B. does something to protect the Earth.
C. talks about protecting endangered species.
D. is a hero, like Paul Watson.
Question 39. when something is “controversial”, _____________.
A. everyone agrees with it. B. everyone disagrees with it.
C. people have different ideas about it. D. people protect it.
Question 40. The Sea Shepherd was hunting_____________.
A. the Atlantic Ocean B. whales C. the Sierra D. Portugal
Question 41. The author implies that Paul Watson lives in_____________.
A. Portugal B. a ship on the Atlantic
C. the Sierra D. Canada
Question 42. In paragraph 3, the phrase “and froze it” refers to_____________.
A. whale meat B. the Sierra C. whales D. the Sierra crew

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Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C orD to indicate the correct answer for each
of the blanks.
The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of Earth - is a vast frontier
that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep -ocean floor was
completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light
and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earths surface, the deep -ocean
bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer
space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first
detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of
the National Science Foundations Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for
the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP’s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a
steady position on the ocean’s surface
and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor. The Glomar
Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During
this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments
and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar challenger’s core samples have allowed
geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate
what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence
gathered during the Glomar Challenger’s voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate
tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to
understanding the world’s past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back
hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the
intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates.
This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change -
information that may be used to predict future climates.
Question 43. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it_____________
A. is not a popular area for scientific research
B. contains a wide variety of life forms
C. attracts courageous explorers
D. is an unknown territory
Question 44. The word “inaccessible” is closest in meaning to_____________
A. unrecognizable B. unreachable C. unusable D. unsafe
Question 45. The author mentions “outer space” because_____________
A. the Earth’s climate millions of years ago was similar to conditions in outer space.
B. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment.
C. rock formations in outer space are similar to those found on the ocean floor.
D. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration.
Question 46. which of the following is true of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine. B. It is an ongoing project.
C. It has gone on over 100 voyages. D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.
Question 47. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was_____________
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. composed of geologists from all over the world
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

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Question 48. The word “they” refers to_____________


A. years B. climates C. sediments D. cores
Question 49. which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep
Sea Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earths appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Information was revealed about the Earth’s past climatic changes.
D. Geologists observed forms of marine life never seen before.
Question 50. How long did the Glomar Challenger conduct its research?
A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 15 years D. 16 years

132
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2022
-------------- Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 75 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
--------------------------------------
Họ, tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………………
Số báo danh: ……………………………………………………………
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. announced B. evaluated C. enunciated D. demanded
Question 2. A. queue B. quarter C. quadruple D. questionnaire
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. record B. mentor C. timber D. bother
Question 4. A. catastrophe B. millennium C. acknowledgement D. photograph
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Peter ordered a pizza and salad.__________pizza was nice but__________salad was
disgusting.
A. A/a B. The/ ∅ C. ∅/∅ D. The/the
Question 6. Since the end of the war, the Government __________over five thousand of prisoners.
A. have released B. released C. has released D. has been released
Question 7. The suspect was seen__________the building by at least a dozen witnesses.
A. enter B. to entering C. entering D. entered
Question 8. The four men are widely believed__________by their captors because their family did not
agree to pay the ransom.
A. to kill B. to have been killed C. to have killed D. to be killed
Question 9. Having counted all the students on the bus, __________
A. the vehicle started moving B. the vehicle was driven
C. they were allowed to play D. the driver started to drive
Question 10. Many exam candidates lose marks simply__________they do not read the questions properly.
A. because of B. because C. due to D. owing that
Question 11. What__________to your family if you were to die in an accident?
A. happens B. would happen C. will happen D. happened
Question 12. Those Americans are looking for a place where they can exchange their dollars __________
pounds.
A. into B. to C. for D. with
Question 13. All attempts at__________were stamped on by senior officials.
A. modernise B. modernisers C. modernisation D. modernising
Question 14. NATO has finally arrived at an important decision to__________cruise missiles in the battle.
A. employ B. deploy C. defeat D. withdraw
Question 15. The woman crying in front of the burning house has lost her most__________possession in the fire.
A. valued B. appreciated C. recognised D. prized
Question 16. The woman was confused about whether or not to__________the pregnancy.
A. stop B. terminate C. eradicate D. dismiss

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Question 17. His voice had a freshness that would make many tenors under the age of 40 go green
with__________.
A. jealousy B. hatred C. envy D. arrogance
Question 18. This band normally__________their album with an instrumental track.
A. closes off B. closes up C. closes down D. closes out
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19. what was once a great and powerful empire have effectively ceased to be.
A. to be B. have effectively C. powerful D. was once
Question 20. One of the boys kept laughing, this annoyed Jane intensely.
A. this B. one of the boys C. intensely D. laughing
Question 21. I’m trying to cut down on diary product intake and it’s difficult because I adore cheese.
A. I adore cheese B. diary product intake C. difficult D. trying to cut
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 22. This country wouldn’t have much income without tourism.
A. Tourism is developing very quickly in this country.
B. Tourism development is going up in this country.
C. This country depends on its tourism for making its income.
D. In order to develop, this country invests into tourism.
Question 23. Many people were severely critical of the proposal for the new motorway.
A. There was severe criticism of the proposal for the new motorway.
B. The proposals for the new motorway was severely criticized.
C. There was the proposal for the new motorway, but many people were criticised.
D. Many people were severely criticised by the new motorway that was proposed.
Question 24. There was no precedent for the President’s resignation in the country.
A. The President resigned in the country, which seemed strange.
B. Never before had any President resigned in the country.
C. That the President resigned becomes a scandal in the country.
D. Never before there was an event that President resigned in the country.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25. His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the
competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the competition.
C. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in the
competition.
Question 26. Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
B. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker,
C. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
D. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

134
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Date: ……/……/…… Facebook: Nguyễn Khả Thanh Tùng – greenriver16911@gmail.com

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 27. Tim: “__________”
Laura: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. When have you got this beautiful dress? B. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
C. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing! D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
Question 28. Tim: “Would you like to have dinner with me?” -
Steve: “__________.”
A. Yes, so do I B. Yes, it is C. Yes, I’d love to D. I’m very happy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Within their home country, National Red Cross and Red Crescent societies assume the duties
and responsibilities of a national relief society.
A. get off B. take on C. go about D. put in
Question 30.1 had tried to sketch an aspect of life that I had seen and known, and that was very well
indeed, and I had wrought patiently and carefully in the art of the poor little affair.
A. a nature B. a part C. a character D. an appearance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 31. She was brought up in a well-off family. She cant understand the problems we are facing.
A. broke B. wealthy C. kind D. poor
Question 32. He fell foul of me when I asked him to apologize to his teacher.
A. quarrelled with me B. made friends with me
C. attacked me D. showed appreciation for me
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
The wildlife of the Juan Fernandez Archipelago remained undisturbed until the arrival of European settlers,
who introduced their animals to the Islands. Amongst these were goats and cows to be bred for meat and
milk, but also rats and mice which had jumped ship. Cats later brought over to kill these pests also quickly
escaped into the (33) __________. Little did the settlers understand the impact this would have on local
species. The rabbits they'd brought over too, could not be held in captivity for long, and their numbers
rapidly expanded. But it was not just fauna that arrived but also (34) __________. Plants such as the
blackberry bramble flourished in the tropical climate and spread throughout the native forest.
In the past, the islands’ birds had no natural predators. Many therefore evolved to lay their eggs in ground
nests. This habit now makes them incredibly (35) __________as rats and mice destroy their eggs and cats
devour the newly hatched chicks. Meanwhile grazing goats, rabbits and cows have turned once fertile
valleys into wasteland. One now rare tree species is known as the Luma, in which firecrown hummingbirds
nests. Today the Luma is being covered over by spiky blackberry brambles, the hummingbird’s natural
habitat is disappearing and the fear is that they will soon (36) __________. Conservationists from Chile and
around the world are uniting to show the urgent need for preservation of these islands' original and unique
species. They know the best way to do this is to (37) __________the plants and animals that are alien
species.
Question 33. A. landscape B. surroundings C. scenery D. wild
Question 34. A. crops B. flora C. vegetation D. weeds
Question 35. A. susceptible B. risky C. incapable D. vulnerable
Question 36. A. wipe out B. die out C. pass away D. go through
Question 37. A. ban B. abolish C. eradicate D. demolish
135
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
TEENAGE FICTION
Teenagers have their own TV channels, websites and magazines. So, what about books? Last year one
publisher, Martins, started publishing a series called Waves. We spoke to the director Julia Smith. She
explained, “Teenage fiction has been published since the 1970s but publishers have never been particularly
successful in getting teenagers to buy and read books. Now they’re realizing that teenagers aren’t just older
children but they’re not adults either and often aren’t interested in adult fiction. For this series we’re looking
for new writers who write especially for teenagers.”
Athene Gorr’s novel was published in the series last year and is selling well. Its title is The Purple Ring, she
says, “The important thing is to persuade teenagers to pick up your book. I’m a new writer so, although I’ve
got an unusual name which people might remember, nobody knows it yet! But my book has a fantastic cover
which makes people want to look inside. Then they realize what a brilliant story it is!”
And what do teenagers themselves think about the series? We talked to Sophie Clarke, aged 15. She said,
“I’ve read a few books in the Waves series. They say they’re for 14 - 19 year-olds and I agree with that.
We’re not interested in the same things as people in their twenties and thirties. I like them and I think they
look really good too. The only thing is that because bookshops put them in the children’s section, lots of
teenagers won’t find them so they may not do very well. And it’s a shame there’s no non-fiction in the series
as I think lots of teenagers, especially boys, might buy that.”
Question 38. What is the writer trying to do?
A. give information about a new series of books
B. explain why teenager fiction is easier to write than adult fiction
C. persuade authors to write more teenager fiction
D. compare different series of teenager fiction
Question 39. Julia Smith says publishers now recognize that teenagers__________.
A. can enjoy the same kind of stories as adults
B. are more interested in reading nowadays
C. grow up more quickly nowadays
D. are neither children nor adults
Question 40. Athene Gorr thinks teenagers were attracted to her book because of__________
A. its cover B. the story C. its title D. her name
Question 41. What does Sophie Clarke say about the books in the Waves series?
A. They shouldn’t be kept with children’s books.
B. She would prefer to read adult fiction.
C. They will be bought by lots of teenagers.
D. She isn’t keen on the design.
Question 42. Which of these paragraphs could be used to advertise the Waves series?
A. “This series is for all teenagers and those who are nearly teenagers, whether you’re 10 or 19, you’ll find
something here to please you.”
B. “Choose a book from the Waves series. It includes both fiction and non-fiction and is aimed at
teenagers aged 14+.”
C. “The Waves series has been popular with teenagers since the 1970s. This year we have added 20 new
writers to our list.”
D. “If you’re aged between 14 and 19, don’t miss the Waves series which has novels by new authors.”

136
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C,or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
SPORTS COMMENTARY
One of the most interesting and distinctive of all uses of language is commentary. An oral reporting of
ongoing activity, commentary is used in such public arenas as political ceremonies, parades, funerals,
fashion shows and cooking demonstrations. The most frequently occurring type of commentary may be that
connected with sports and games. In sports there are two kinds of commentary, and both are often used for
the same sporting event. “Play-by-play” commentary narrates the sports event, while “colour -adding” or
“colour” commentary provides the audience with pre-event background, during-event interpretation, and
post¬event evaluation. Colour commentary is usually conversational in style and can be a dialogue with two
or more commentators.
Play-by-play commentary is of interest to linguists because it is unlike other kinds of narrative, which are
typically reported in past tense. Play-by-play commentary is reported in present tense. Some examples are
“he takes the lead by four” and “she’s in position.” One linguist characterizes radio play-by-play
commentary as “a monologue directed at an unknown, unseen mass audience who voluntarily choose to
listen...and provide no feedback to the speaker.” It is these characteristics that make this kind of commentary
unlike any other type of speech situation.
The chief feature of play-by-play commentary is a highly formulaic style of presentation. There is distinctive
grammar not only in the use of the present tense but also in the omission of certain elements of sentence
structure. For example, “Smith in close” eliminates the verb, as some newspaper headlines do. Another
example is inverted word order, as in “over at third is Johnson.” Play-by-play commentary is very fluent,
keeping up with the pace of the action. The rate is steady and there is little silence. The structure of the
commentary is cyclical, reflecting the way most games consist of recurring sequences of short activities---as
in tennis and baseball---or a limited number of activity options---as in the various kinds of football. In
racing, the structure is even simpler, with the commentator informing the listener of the varying order of the
competitors in a “state of play” summary, which is crucial for listeners or viewers who have just tuned in.
Question 43. The word “that” in paragraph 1 refers to?
A. commentary B. an ongoing activity
C. language D. sporting event
Question 44. Which of the following statement is true of colour commentary?
A. It narrates the action of the event in real time, using the present tense.
B. It is a monologue given to an audience that does not respond to the speaker.
C. It is steady and fluent because it must keep up with the action of the event.
D. It gives background on the event, and interprets and evaluates the event.
Question 45. How is play-by-play commentary distinct from other types of narrative?
A. It is not published in magazines. B. It involves only one reporter.
C. It is not spoken in past tense. D. It takes place after the event.
Question 46. why does the author quote a linguist in paragraph 2?
A. To give examples of play-by-play commentary.
B. To show how technical sports commentary is.
C. To describe the uniqueness of radio play-by-play.
D. To criticize past trends in sports commentary.
Question 47. The word “pace” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. speed B. score C. cause D. plan
Question 48. The word “crucial” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to?
A. fascinating B. important C. confusing D. generous

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Question 49. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely agrees with H which of
the following statements about sports commentary?
A. Sports commentators should work hard to improve their grammar,
B. Sports commentators do not need special knowledge of the sport.
C. Colour commentary is more important than play-by-play commentary.
D. Commentary enhances the excitement and enjoyment of sports.
Question 50. What mainly makes play-by-play commentary special?
A. a highly formulaic style of presentation
B. the distinctive use of present tense
C. the omission of certain sentence elements
D. the inverted word order

138

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