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pottery
Room 3C, 3rd Floor, Central Mktg. Bldg., Quezon 14. If a drawing has an equal measure, what does it
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(064) 288-5990 / 09499336764 / 09233593564 refers to?
a. isometric drawing
TLE Exam Drills b. perspective drawing
c. mechanical drawing
d. oblique drawing
(Drafting) 15. When parts that are not seen are represented by
1. Horizontal lines are best drawn using this series of light dash lines then this line is classified as
instrument. _________.
a. triangles c. meter stick a. reference line c. section line
b. noo d. t-square b. visible line d. invisible line
2. To color odescribe a cone, sphere, and rectangular 16. What kind of drawing has one surface that is
pyramid, how many views are needed? parallel to the picture plane?
a. two c. three a. oblique drawing
b. One d. six b. isometric drawing
3. What line is projected as a shorter line in a c. perspective drawing
drawing? Hahahahaha iiijnohkohjtyuiuuu d. orthographic drawing
a. vertical line c. curve line 17. This pictorial view is normally seen by the
b. inclined line d. horizontal line observer’s eyes. Which one is it?
4. Geometrical solids are usually drawn in how many a. isometric drawing
views? b. oblique drawing
a. two views c. six viewpoints c. perspective drawing
b. four views d. eight views d. orthographic drawing
5. If all the information needed to complete 18. A drawing instrument that serves as guide in
construction of a product is shown, then what do drawing vertical and diagonal lines as in triangles. It
you call this type of mechanical drawing? is generally used in drawing horizontal lines. Which
a. working drawing one it?
b. schematic drawing a. t-square c. triangle
c. orthographic drawing b. extension line d. lettering guide
d. pictorial drawing 19. What is that fine line used to show clearly the
6. One of the best practices of a good draftsman is to dimension limits?
NEVER letter without __________. a. center line c. dimension line
a. guidelines c. lettering pens b. extension line d. phantom line
b. pencil d. ink 20. A type of section used to emphasize the interior
7. In dimensioning an object, which view shows most construction of an object without destroying the
clearly the shape of the object? continuity of the exterior view.
a. Top view c. Right side view a. Phantom section or hidden section
b. Front view d. Bottom view b. Removed or detailed section
8. Central horizontal strokes of some letters placed at c. Revolved section
mid-height appear to be below center due to optical d. Full section
illusion. Which letters are they? 21. Where should you place the name of the top view
a. b, e, f & h c. a, k, t & y for labeling?
b. r, s, g & p d. b, p, g & f a. below the view
9. Letters that are composed of uniform width b. above the view
elements are classified as _________. c. beside the view
a. Italic letters c. Gothic letters d. inside the view
b. Text letters d. Roman Letters 22. The lightest or finest line that represents the axis or
10. Boxing method is the most widely used method of center of objects with symmetrical shapes is known
drawing a _________. as _________.
a. isometric view c. mechanical view a. extension line c. visible line
b. pictorial view d. perspective view b. center line d. cutting plane line
11. What is the horizontal guide line used to determine 23. These are considered as the heaviest or darkest
the general height of lower case letters? lines that surround a drawing and are usually
a. Cap line c. Base line rectangular in shape.
b. Waist line d. Drop line a. border lines c. dimension lines
12. These are lines to indicate the measurement of b. visible lines d. cutting plane lines
objects and are represented by fine dark solid lines. 24. If a drawing is generally made without the aid of
a. dimension lines c. leader lines drawing instruments and straight edges then it is
b. extension lines d. center lines classified as __________.
13. Drafting is considered as the universal language of a. orthographic drawing
__________. b. isometric drawing
a. artistry c. industry c. freehand drawing
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 d. axonometric drawing (Carpentry / Woodworking)
25. This view is generally drawn directly above the front 1. Which part of the wood is consisting of substances
view in an orthographic drawing. Which one is it? that are insusceptible to attacks by insects and has
a. bottom view c. side view high level of durability?
b. rear view d. top view a. Heartwood c. Cambium layer
26. Which of the following drawing instruments will you b. Sap wood d. Late wood
use if you are to create distances into equal parts, 2. Wood changes its shape during the drying process.
transfer measurement and spacing points or lines? What should be the approximate moisture content
a. dividers c. compass or drying percentage of hardwood for home
b. French curves d. templates furniture?
27. These lines are used to indicate the measurement a. 5 – 10% c. 20%
of objects and are represented by fine dark solid b. 6 – 12% d. 25%
lines. 3. Fiber direction of wood should be taken into
a. dimension lines c. leader lines consideration when designing a product. Which
b. extension lines d. center lines direction of fiber reaches the highest level of
28. When solidity of an object is shown by gradual bending strength?
darkening of its particular portion or portions, what a. Parallel to fiber direction
process is involved? b. Across the fiber direction
a. darkening c. shadowing c. Diagonal with the load
b. shading d. lighting d. Along the fiber direction
29. When parts that are not seen are represented by 4. What process is used in making bent wood products
series of light dash lines then this line is classified as to easily distort the shape of the wood without
_________. reverting to its original state?
a. visible line c. section line a. Cold water treatment
b. invisible line d. reference line b. Sun drying
30. One of the following is NOT included in the c. Heat treatment by hot stream
participles of an orthographic drawing. Which one is d. High pressure treatment
it? 5. What tool is used to adjust the “kerf” or teeth of
a. vertical line is drawn from top to bottom the saw in order to reduce friction between the
b. no line or edge of the object can be projected saw blade and wood, and to discharge the saw dust
longer than each true length easily?
c. the width of the top view is equal to the width a. Triangular file c. Saw horse
of the side views b. Pliers d. Saw set
d. the side views are horizontally in line with the 6. In sawing soft and thin wood, what is the
front view recommended angle of the saw to the wood?
31. Miley is asked to draw an art project without the aid a. 30 – 45 degrees c. 10 – 20 degrees
of drawing instruments and straight edges. Which b. 15 – 30 degrees d. 40 – 50 degrees
of the following will she apply to perform the task? 7. Aside from having a sharp blade, how should you
a. freehand drawing run a hand plane in a wood to get a good result?
b. orthographic drawing a. Run the hand plane parallel to the fiber
c. isometric drawing direction of the wood
d. axonometric drawing b. Run the hand plane against the fiber direction
32. If you are to present the pictorial drawing that is of the wood
most pleasing to the eyes of the viewer then one of c. Run the hand plane across the fiber direction of
the following methods should be used. the wood
a. isometric drawing d. Run the hand plane diagonally with fiber
b. oblique drawing direction of the wood
c. perspective drawing 8. What type of wood joint should be used in
d. orthographic drawing constructing chairs and tables to obtain strength
33. What is that kind of oblique drawing which is drawn and durability?
with the side reduced to one half of the a. Miter joint c. Lap joint
corresponding dimension in the orthographic b. Butt joint d. Mortise and tennon joint
drawing? 9. When you intend to disassemble the product later
a. cabinet drawing c. oblique drawing or need to obtain a strong joint, what construction
b. cavalier drawing d. isometric drawing hardware is appropriate to use?
34. if you are to draw an isometric drawing, how many a. Screws c. Hinges
axes will you use to perform the job? b. Nails d. Dowel
a. two c. four 10. What finishing material may be used to obtain a
b. five d. three suitable wood color before applying a transparent
35. A kind of perspective drawing with one vanishing finishing material?
point is known as _________. a. Paint c. Stain
a. parallel perspective c. cabinet drawing b. Base coat d. Filter
b. cavalier drawing d. angular perspective
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11. One of the following is the operation performed in 25. With the numerous classifications of paints the one
the preparation of wood for commercial purposes. with flat finish used only to paint wood is called
Which one is it? __________.
a. sawing c. lumbering a. flat wall enamel paint
b. logging d. seasoning b. cedar paint
12. Lumber is as good as its preparation. When it is c. trim paint
dried the process involved is ____________. d. shake paint
a. seasoning c. lumbering 26. It is a substance that makes paint less heavy. Which
b. staining d. logging one is it?
13. What is the conversion equivalent of one inch to a. pigment c. vehicle
centimeters? b. drier d. thinner
a. 25.4 b. 2.54 c. 0.254 d. 0.0254 27. Chisels are only effective if they are driven. Which
of the following hand tool is used to drive them?
14. There are numerous kinds of saw. Which one is a. chipping hammer c. wooden mallet
used for sawing along the grain of wood? b. ball peen hammer d. claw hammer
a. back saw c. cross cut saw 28. A level compact wood surface is a must in wood
b. rip saw d. turning saw works. Open grain and minor wood defects are
15. A surfaced lumber where four of its side are smooth filled in by one of the following materials.
or planed is called _________. a. wood filler c. nail
a. S4S b. S2S c. Rough d. S3S b. saw dust d. shellac
29. Drills and bits are friendly tools that facilitates
16. Which of the following is used for the cutting and project making. Which of the following are used for
for making delicate wood joint? boring holes on wood?
a. turning saw c. compass saw a. nail set c. auger bit
b. keyhole saw d. back saw b. drill bit d. saw set
17. A kind of caliper used for measuring the inside 30. Buildings are necessarily constructed to be strong
diameter of a cylinder is ____________. and safe. What do you call the lowest support on
a. vernier caliper c. inside caliper which it rests?
b. outside caliper d. adjustable caliper a. foundation c. post
18. Removing or paring away some part of the wood b. floor d. ceiling
requires the use of this hand tool. 31. You are given a stock for measurement. Which of
a. chisel c. spoke shave the following rules will you use to appropriately
b. plane d. file measure length, thickness, and width?
19. Nails are essential material in putting in place pieces a. tape rule c. steel rule
of wood. To drive or pull a nail the right tool for the b. folding rule d. push-pull rule
job is ____________. 32. The smallest division of the metric scale that you
a. cross peen hammer can find in the steel rule is _________.
b. claw hammer a. millimeter c. decimeter
c. ball peen hammer b. centimeter d. meter
d. mallet 33. Time frame, costs and specifications of materials,
20. Sawing irregular shapes on thin pieces of wood is steps and procedures and evaluation scale are
done with the use of _________. distinctive features of a __________.
a. key hole saw c. rip saw a. project plan c. business plan
b. back saw d. coping saw b. electrical plan d. mechanical plan
21. This fastening material holds better, look better, 34. Which of the following tools is used in checking the
and can be removed easily without damaging the squareness of the corners and flatness of a surface?
wood. It is commonly known as __________. a. Trammel point c. Sliding T-bevel
a. screw b. bolt c. spike d. nail set b. Steel Square d. Try square
22. A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles 35. Find the total number of board feet of five pieces of
used to distribute loads and stiffen the structure of lumber with a dimension of 2” x 4” x 12”.
the roof. a. 8 bd. ft c. 40 bd. ft
a. Girt b. Rafter c. Truss d. Purlins b. 96 bd. ft d. 480 bd. ft

23. Cabinets and doors are common parts of a house. (Basic Masonry and Concrete)
They require swinging shutters for appropriate 1. The most widely used masonry materials for
attachment with the use of _________. construction works.
a. hinges c. bolts a. Concrete hollow blocks
b. screws d. handles b. Bricks
24. The finishing material has pigment, thinner, and c. Rubbles stone
drier. Which one is it? d. Ashlar
a. stain c. varnish 2. It is the masonry material manufactured from clay
b. paint d. shellac and other materials.
a. Stones c. Bricks
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 b. Adobe d. Course rubbles 13. What is the type of hydraulic cement is widely used
3. What is the tool used to guide the vertical position in small and large construction including roads and
in laying bricks? highways?
a. Plumb bob c. Spirit level a. Hydraulic cement c. Pozzolan cement
b. Water hose d. String or chord b. Portland cement d. Lime
4. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to 14. What material or ingredient in cement is added to
consider in proportioning concrete mixture? concrete before or during mixing to improve its
a. Economy c. Strength workability and consistency to fill all the voids of
b. Workability d. Flexibility aggregates inside the form?
5. Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded a. Water c. Admixture
or deformed without segregation. This b. Sand d. Gravel
characteristic is known as _________. 15. The inert material that is bound together into a
a. Consistency c. Mobility conglomerate mass by Portland cement and water
b. Plasticity d. Workability is known as __________.
6. Which of the following classes of mixture produces a. Aggregate c. Admixture
a hard or tough concrete? b. Concrete d. Mortar
a. Class AA c. Class B 16. In a total mass of concrete, how many percent
b. Class A d. Class C comprises aggregate components?
7. A good concrete can be produced also by hand a. 50% c. 80%
mixing. Which of the following is a good concrete b. 75% d. 100%
mix proportion for hand mixing? 17. Which of the following are known as coarse
a. ½ kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + aggregates in a concrete mixture?
2.5 to 3 kg of gravel a. Sand c. Concrete
b. 2 kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + 2.5 b. Soil d. Stones
to 3 kg of gravel 18. What do you call the artificial stone that is a result
c. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + from mixing cement, fine aggregates, coarse
2.5 to 3 kg of gravel aggregates and water?
d. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 3 kg sand + a. Mortar c. Concrete
2.5 to 3 kg of gravel b. Plaster d. Bricks
8. Which of the following should be avoided in placing 19. A conglomeration of cement, fine aggregates,
concrete to its final form? coarse aggregates water and reinforced by steel
a. Segregation of particles bars is called __________?
b. Displacement of form and displacement of a. Reinforced concrete
reinforcement in the form b. Plain concrete
c. Poor bond between successive layers of c. Natural concrete
concrete d. Concrete with bars
d. All of the above should be avoided 20. How many cubic feet of sand and gravel should be
9. Gravel tends to settle, lighter materials and water to mixed with one 40 kg bag of cement to form a Class
rise inside a container when displayed in the B mixture of concrete?
delivery to the form. What do you call this a. 3 cu. ft. and 6 cu ft. gravel
tendency? b. 2 cu. ft. and 4 cu ft. gravel
a. Displacement c. 2 cu. ft. and 5 cu ft. gravel
b. Segregation of Particles d. 1 cu. ft. and 3 cu ft. gravel
c. Consistency 21. To produce a Class AA mixture of concrete, how
d. Mobility of particles many cubic feet of gravel is added?
10. Which factor/s regulates the strength of concrete? a. 3 cu. ft. c. 5 cu. ft.
a. Correct proportion of the ingredients b. 4cu. ft. d. 6 cu. ft.
b. Proper method of mixing 22. What is the ration of cement, sand, and gravel to
c. Adequate protection of concrete during the produce a Class C mixture of concrete?
process of curing a. 1 : 1 : 3 c. 1 : 2 : 5
d. All of the abovementioned factors b. 1 : 2 : 4 d. 1 : 3 : 6
11. What do you call the mixture of cement, sand and 23. Following are factors that regulate the strength of
water that used to bind stones, bricks or concrete concrete except one. Which is it?
hollow blocks? a. Correct portion of ingredient
a. Mortar c. Concrete b. Proper method of mixing
b. Plaster d. Cement c. Adequate protection of concrete during curing
12. A mixture of cement, sand and water applied wet to d. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation
an interior wall or ceiling and hardening to a 24. What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag
smooth surface is called _________. cement, 2 cu. ft. of sand and 4 cu. ft of gravel or
a. Mortar c. Concrete 1:2:4?
b. Plaster d. Cement a. Class AA c. Class B
b. Class A d. Class C

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25. Which among the following is a surface finishing 1. A person who install pipes, fixtures and other
tool for concrete? apparatus to convey and supply water in buildings
a. Crandal c. Float to dispose and discharge waste water.
b. Bolster d. Spade a. Carpenter c. Mason
26. Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to b. Plumber d. Mechanic
view. This arrangement is called __________. 2. What must be installed to prevent siphonage or
a. Header c. Bond backflow of the water seal in the drainage system?
b. Stretcher d. Ashlar a. Vent Pipe c. Soil Pipe
27. In setting up concrete pavers, what material is used b. Drain Pipe d. Cleanout
to prevent erosion from drainage? 3. Which of the following is NOT required by the
a. Filter fabric c. Compacted gravel National Plumbing Code?
b. Jute sack d. Bed of sand a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a
28. What do you call the process of hardening of downward gravity flow of water.
concrete? b. Drainage pipe should be provided with
a. Curing c. Hardening adequate cleanout.
b. Setting d. Molding c. No ventilation pipe is needed.
29. In laying out concrete walls and fences, what d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly
concrete material is commonly used? connected.
a. CHB or Concrete hollow blocks 4. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture
b. Bricks other than from the water closet.
c. Tiles a. Waste pipe c. Vent pipe
d. Boulders and stones b. Soil Pipe d. Drain pipe
30. Seventy percent (70%) of concrete strength is 5. It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to
reached at the end of first week and thirty percent prevent the back passage of air.
(30%) could be lost by premature drying of a. Trap c. Sewer
concrete. What must be done within the curing b. Fixture d. Loop
period to prevent premature drying? 6. The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal
a. Moisten the concrete at all times within the fittings like unions and other metal fittings.
curing period a. Pipe vise c. Wrenches
b. Submerge in water within the curing period b. Pliers d. Threader
c. Flood with water within the curing period 7. It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic
d. Expose it to heavy rains during the curing waste discharged from the house sewer.
period a. Septic tank c. Water tank
31. To prevent undue evaporation of moisture in the b. Man hole d. Waste tank
concrete that may affect its strength, what should 8. The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the
be avoided? bottom of the septic tank.
a. Continuous sprinkling of water a. Scum c. Sludge
b. Early removal of forms b. Sediment d. Silt
c. Cover surface with wet burlap 9. What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste
d. Cover with wet sand pipe as recommended by the National Plumbing
32. According to the building code of the Philippines, Code?
for how many days shall concrete be maintained a. 2% slope c. 4% slope
above 10 °C temperature and in a moist condition? b. 3% slope d. 0% slope or level position
a. 3 days c. 7 days 10. For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage
b. 5 days d. 10 days of flow, what must be installed in the pipe system?
33. What tool or instrument is used to set-up the lateral a. Vent pipe c. Drain
level of a concrete fence? b. Cleanout d. Tee fitting
a. Water hose level c. Plumb bob 11. An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage
b. Spirit level d. Straight edge and waste matter from a home or town is called
34. To obtain a fine textured concrete plaster, a mason ___________.
may use this very useful material. What is that a. Sewer c. Sewerage
material? b. Fixture d. Drainage system
a. Rubber or plastic foam 12. The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and
b. Plastic or nylon string fixtures is a __________.
c. Aligning stick a. Union Fitting c. Wye fitting
d. Cotton cloth b. Tee fitting d. Reducer
35. What material may be used by a mason in guiding, 13. A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water
or making horizontal line particularly in bricks, tiles pump to prevent backflow of water.
and concrete blocks laying? a. Check valve c. Suction valve
a. Aligning stick c. Plastic or nylon string b. Inlet valve d. Gate valve
b. Meter stick d. Thin GI wire 14. It is a device installed in water lines that can be
closed or opened to allow installation or
(Basic Plumbing) troubleshooting of fixtures.
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 a. Check valve c. Gate valve 26. For a vertical to horizontal directions or horizontal
b. Inlet valve d. Float valve to horizontal change of pipes, what should NOT be
15. A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller used?
pipe from a larger pipe. a. Short radius fittings c. 45 ° fittings
a. Reducer c. Nipple b. Long sweep fittings d. Wye fittings
b. Bushing d. Coupling 27. The ideal position of horizontal waste pipes were
16. What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to those installed at 2 0/0 slopes. Given a pipe
avoid leakage? installed with an inclined ratio of two (2)
a. Masking tape c. Scotch tape centimeters per meter length, a three (3) meters
b. Teflon tape d. Adhesive tape pipe installed as a waste line will have an inclination
17. Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture of how many centimeters?
installation nowadays. Which of the following is a. 6 cm b. 4 cm c. 10 cm d. 15 cm
preferred? 28. The National Plumbing Code on soil pipe provides
a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) that, at least one of the vertical stacks in the
b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC) plumbing system must extend full size to the roof.
c. Unplasticized PVC (uPVC) What is its purpose?
d. Styrene rubber plastic (SR) a. To ventilate and dispose off the sewer gas
18. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of a above the roof
drainage system? b. To prevent siphoning of the water trap seal by
a. All pipe joints are well-fitted and tightly force of suction
connected with each other. c. To prevent the possibility of back pressure
b. The drainage pipe should be leveled which may force the water seal off the fixture
horizontally towards the main sewer line. trap
c. The drainage system must be provided with a d. All of the above purposes
ventilation pipe. 29. Which pipe layout is susceptible to stoppage or
d. Each fixture should be provided with a suitable retarded flow?
trap that will prevent backflow. a. Pipe with 2 % inclination
19. Showers, lavatories and bath tubs are fixed b. Pipe with less than 2 % inclination
plumbing items in a household called _________. c. Pipe with more than 2 % inclination
a. Fixtures c. Sewers d. Pipe with 3 % inclination
b. Traps d. Accessories 30. In installing a water closet, what is the ideal
20. What do you call the piece of apparatus, equipment diameter of the pipe to be used as soil pipe?
or furnishing used for pipe installation? a. At least 3 inches or 75 mm diameter
a. Fixtures c. Traps b. Less than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter
b. Fittings d. Elbows c. Not more than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter
21. What part of the plumbing fixtures does a P-trap is d. At least 4 inches or more than 75 mm diameter
connected? 31. Among the processes that take place inside a septic
a. Floor drain c. Sinks and lavatories tank, which of them refers to the decomposition of
b. Bath tubs d. Ventilation pipe the accumulated sludge at the bottom of the tank?
22. Organic waste discharged from the home sewer is a. Sedimentation
collected in a receptacle or vault called _________. b. Digestion
a. Sewerage c. Container vault c. Anaerobic decomposition
b. Septic tank d. Plumbing vault d. Decomposition
23. The process of decomposition in the upper portion 32. The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that
of the septic tank is called _________. there must be no more than two closets that shall
a. Sedimentation discharge into a _________ pipe diameter?
b. Anaerobic decomposition a. 3 inches or 75 mm c. less than 75 mm
c. Digestion b. 80 mm d. 70 mm
d. Accumulation 33. What should be provided in the house drain to
24. Sinks, lavatories, urinals and bath tubs are prevent breaking of the floor case of drain
connected to a pipe in a drainage installation to stoppage?
convey its discharges to the house drain. What do a. Cleanout c. Drain flow
you call that pipe? b. Trap d. Fitting
a. Drainage pipe c. Waste pipe 34. What is the interval distance of a cleanout in a pipe
b. Sewer pipe d. fixture pipe layout as provided by the National Plumbing Code?
25. Which among the following are general conditions a. One (1) cleanout for every ten (10) meters pipe
for a good waste pipe installation? layout
a. Right slope or grade of the pipeline b. One (1) cleanout for every twenty (20) meters
b. Right location of the cleanout pipe layout
c. Correct manner of joining the pipes c. One (1) cleanout for every fifteen (15) meters
d. All of the conditions above pipe layout
d. One (1) cleanout for every twenty-five (25)
meters pipe layout
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35. What is the most common plumbing tool used to many more bulbs will light if one of the bulbs is
tighten or loosen metal pipe fittings and open?
connections? a. two b. one c. all d. none
a. Pipe wrench 13. An electrical component used to control electrical
b. Mechanical wrench circuit in two different locations.
c. Adjustable wrench a. Four-way switch
d. Expansion wrench b. Three-way switch
(Basic Electricity) c. Push-button switch
1. Circuit breakers are used to protect household d. Remote controlled switch
electrical circuits. What is the capacity rating 14. In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of
breaker used for convenience outlets or general the source is connected to __________.
purpose circuits? a. Terminal 1 of the load
a. 20 amperes c. 15 amperes b. Terminal 2 of the load
b. 30 amperes d. 60 amperes c. Terminal 1 of the switch
2. A form of electricity where the flow of current is d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
always in the same direction _________. 15. Which of the following electrical symbols means
a. power c. alternating current that there are three wires running in a line?
b. direct current d. voltage a. --/--/--/------ c. ---------------
3. The force which opposes and reduces the flow of b. --/--/--/--/--- d. S3W
electrical current is recognized as ________. 16. To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be
a. resistance c. electromagnetic force used in lighting fixtures?
b. power d. frequency a. Incandescent lamp
4. A part of an electrical circuit, consist of batteries, b. Mercury lamp
generator or a main electrical power which supplies c. Compact fluorescent lamp
electricity. d. Neon lamp
a. load c. control 17. The size of electrical wire recommended for
b. source d. voltage installing lighting fixtures.
5. What is the voltage required by an automatic a. No. 12 AWG c. No. 18 AWG
pressure cooker having a resistance of 30 ohms b. No. 14 AWG d. No. 10 AWG
when the current flowing is 8 amperes? 18. In calculating electrical usage, what is the
a. 480 volts c. 120 volts equivalent value per square foot of a living space as
b. 160 volts d. 240 volts established by the National Electric Code?
6. A law that states that current is directly a. 10 watts per square foot
proportional to voltage and inversely proportional b. 5 watts per square foot
to resistance is known as _________. c. 4 watts per square foot
a. kirchoff’s law c. ohm’s law d. 3 watts per square foot
b. law of resistivity d. PEC 19. What is the normal value for a power used for each
7. What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent 20-amp small-appliance circuit that is used for
lamp draw from a 220 volts power source? calculating electrical usage?
a. 18 amperes c. 25.5 amperes a. 1,000 watts c. 2,000 watts
b. 55.5 amperes d. 50.5 amperes b. 1,500 watts d. 2,500 watts
8. There are several factors involved in electrical 20. What type of category of lighting is used to
wiring installation but the foremost consideration is illuminate the area \where a visual activity – such as
________. reading, sewing or preparing food – occurs?
a. cost b. labor c. safety d. function a. Ambient or general lighting
9. What is the standard number or diameter of wire b. Accent lighting
for receptacles or convenience outlet layout? c. Task lighting
a. No. 14 AWG c. No. 18 AWG d. Decorative lighting
b. No. 12 AWG ` d. No. 10 AWG 21. How do you classify that conduit made of PVC
10. To comply with the requirements of the Philippine plastic which is used to protect individual
Electrical Code the appropriate fuse rating for conductors from moisture and physical harm and
lighting outlet should be _________. often allowed for interior installation?
a. 20 amperes c. 60 amperes a. Rigid nonmetallic conduit
b. 30 amperes d. 15 amperes b. Thin wall metal conduit
11. Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is c. Armored cable conduit
being done in order to __________. d. Flexible hose
a. provide efficient and effective wiring system of 22. Which of the following has the largest diameter of
the building wire according to the American Wire Gauge (AWG)?
b. maintain quality workmanship a. No. 10 AWG c. No. 14 AWG
c. avoid overloaded circuit b. No. 12 AWG d. No. 16 AWG
d. protect the circuit from high current 23. Which of the following test instrument is used to
12. In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt determine the presence or absence of current
incandescent bulbs are connected in parallel. How flowing in a receptacle for a small-appliance circuit?
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 a. Ohm meter c. Test lamp 3. An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations.
b. Ammeter d. Oscilloscope The electronic component responsible for this
24. What unit is used to express the number of function is the _________.
complete cycles performed in one second in an a. Oscillator coil c. IF transformer
alternating current? b. Tuning capacitor d. detector diode
a. frequency c. resistance 4. Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band
b. power d. hertz covering ____________.
25. What condition of a circuit refers to a huge amount a. 535 – 1,605 kHz
of current flow caused by the line 1 of a live circuit b. 88 – 108 MHz
directly touching line 2 without passing through a c. 16 Hz – 20 kHz
load? d. 76 – 90 MHZ
a. short circuit c. open circuit 5. Volt Ohm Millimeter or VOM is a measuring
b. grounded circuit d. parallel circuit instrument. Which of the following VOM functions
26. A type of circuit in which the current flows in two or uses its internal battery?
more paths is known as _________. a. DC milliameter c. DC voltmeter
a. series circuit c. open circuit b. Ohmmeter d. AC voltmeter
b. parallel circuit d. grounded circuit 6. The condition of a loud speaker is tested more
27. This condition exists when there is a break in the accurately using one of the ranges listed below.
flow of electrons in some part of the circuit. a. R x 1 b. R x 10 c. R x 1K d. R x 10K
a. short circuit c. series circuit 7. There are various types of diodes. The diode that
b. shunt circuit d. open circuit acts as a regulator is the _________.
28. Following Ohm’s Law, what formula is used to find a. Silicon diode c. Light emitting diode
the unknown voltage in the circuit? b. Tunnel diode d. Zener diode
a. E = 1 X R c. I = E / R 8. The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound
b. E = I / R d. E = R / I of a transistor radio is a defective _________.
29. It is a close conducting path by which a current can a. Volume control c. Antenna
transfer electric energy from a source to a load. b. Amplifier d. Tuner
a. electric current c. load 9. An appliance with 110 Volts AC supply is
b. resistance d. electric circuit accidentally plugged to a 220 Volts AC outlet. What
30. In the illustration below the total voltage across A component is usually destroyed?
and B _________. a. Switch c. Line fuse
a. 3 volts c. 45 volts b. AC plug d. Power transformer
b. 1.5 volts d. zero volts 10. What happens to a transistor radio when batteries
31. A series connected dry cells will result to are connected in reverse polarity?
_________. a. It will operate normally.
a. increase in the amount of current b. It will operate for a while and eventually stops.
b. increase in the amount of voltage c. It will erratically operate.
c. increase total resistance d. It will not operate.
d. more powerful supply of electricity 11. When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it
32. When a coil of wire passes through the rotating means the diode is __________.
magnetic field electricity is generated. This a. Shorted c. Leaky
phenomenon is associated with ___________. b. Open d. Good
a. magnetism c. generating 12. If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing
b. relativism d. fluidity inward , it tells us that the transistor is:
33. Electrical symbols can be represented with a. NPN c. Bipolar
graphical symbols commonly known as b. PNP d. Injunction
____________. 13. One of the following is a non-polarized electronic
a. symbols and lines c. graphs and chart component.
b. schematic diagram d. pictorial diagram a. Resistor c. Diode
34. The meaning of each symbol in an electrical plan is b. Transistor d. Electrolytic capacitor
indicated in the __________. 14. A schematic diagram shows the components of an
a. legend c. nameplate electronic circuit by means of __________.
b. schedule of load d. riser diagram a. Linear appearance
b. Construction
(Basic Electronics) c. Physical Appearance
1. In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the d. Symbol
electrode with an arrow is the _________. 15. The voltage rating found in as capacitor is called
a. Emitter c. Collector __________.
b. Base d. Cathode a. Blow-up voltage c. Working voltage
2. You will find an electrode nearest the white band b. Peak-reverse voltage d. Breakdown voltage
on a rectifier. What is it? 16. The type of current whose amplitude drops to zero
a. Gate c. Cathode periodically and is produced in rectifier is known as
b. Anode d. Main terminal ________________.
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 a. Pulsating Direct Current 29. The common defect of a carbon resistor is
b. Damped Alternating Current ___________.
c. Varying Direct Current a. Change in value with respect to its tolerance
d. Saw tooth wave b. Shorted resistor
17. A resistor is color coded with Yellow-Violet-Black- c. Open resistor
Gold. Which of the following is the value and d. Broken resistor
tolerance of the capacitor? 30. Frequencies are essentials elements in the
a. 47 ohms, 5% c. 4 ohms, 5% operation of radio works. The basic unit frequency
b. 47 ohm, 5% d. 470 ohms, 5% is __________.
18. A diode is an electronic part that all times is a. Hertz c. Siemens
expected to do one of the following functions. b. Farad d. Henry
Which one is it? 31. Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the
a. allow current to flow in both directions tip of a soldering iron refers to:
b. multiply voltage a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper
c. allow current to flow in one direction only b. Applying flux to the tip
19. There are varied sources of electrical power. The c. Cutting the tip
220 volts power source from MERALCO is classified d. Making the tip pointed
as ____________. 32. What is the rate or speed of the horizontal scanning
a. Pulsating Direct Current or horizontal retrace in the screen of a television
b. Alternating current system?
c. Pure Direct current a. 15,750 hertz c. 60 hertz
d. Varying Direct current b. 100 megahertz d. 60 kilohertz
20. It is a type of metal used as a heat sink for power 33. What do you call the design drawn on the foil side
transistor in the audio amplifier. Which one is it? of the printed circuit board?
a. Aluminum c. Copper a. foil pattern
b. Zinc d. Silver b. schematic diagram
21. When you are asked to amplify you are expected to c. magnetic board
do this: d. parts placement guide
a. Filter c. Control 34. In a schematic diagram of a radio, symbols of part
b. Decrease d. Increase or components are indicated. Which of the
22. A device used to change sound waves to audio following symbols represents a transistor?
signals is called ___________. a. R1 b. C1 c. T1 d. Q1
a. Microphone c. Loudspeaker 35. What solution or chemical is used in etching copper
b. Transistor d. Diode clad in a period circuit board?
23. It is important for a radio mechanic to differentiate a. Muriatic acid
an AM signal from an FM signal. AM means b. Hydrogen peroxide solution
__________. c. Ferric chloride
a. Audio Modulation d. Sulfuric acid solution
b. Amplitude Modulation
c. Altitude Modulation (Foods)
d. Auxiliary Modulation 1. Mila has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are
24. The antenna bar of an AM radio receiver is made of some brown bits left on the bottom of the pan.
this material While the pan is still on the stove, she added some
a. Ferrite c. Plastic white wine and scrapped the bottom of the pan.
b. Iron d. Ceramic What do you call the technique she just used?
25. An insulator that separates the two plates of a a. Cleaning c. Caramelizing
capacitor is known as __________. b. Deglazing d. Flambé
a. Vacuum c. Air 2. If a recipe calls for you to “beat” something, what
b. Dielectric d. Ceramic are you being asked to do?
26. If the components or instruments below are a. Harass it.
connected in a circuit, which one would the polarity b. Roll it with a rolling pin.
be important? c. Agitate the mixture until it is smooth.
a. Switch c. Bulb d. Cut it into smaller pieces.
b. DC ammeter d. Resistor 3. Energy value is expressed in terms of calories which
27. The voltage rating found in as capacitor is called represents the chemical energy that is released as
__________. heat when food is oxidized. Which nutrient has
a. Working voltage c. Blow-up voltage more than twice the calorie per gram?
b. Peak-reverse voltage d. Breakdown voltage a. Carbohydrate c. Fat
28. There are various types of diodes. The diode that b. Protein d. Mineral
acts as a regulator is the __________. 4. Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients
a. Silicon diode c. Light emitting diode it needs. Which of the following nutrients is needed
b. Tunnel diode d. Zener diode as the main structural component of the body?
a. Carbohydrates c. Fat
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 9
 b. Protein d. Fiber d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg
5. Fresh produce contains chemical compounds called whites for a shiny glazed finish
enzymes which cause the loss of color, loss of 15. The boiling point of water is a very important
nutrients, flavor changes, and color changes in reference point in cooking. When boiling water
frozen fruits and vegetables. These enzymes must what does adding salt do?
be inactivated to prevent such reactions from taking a. Make the water softer
place. What kind of vegetables needs pre-cooking b. Makes the water boil more quickly
before packing? c. Makes the water boil at higher temperature
a. Non-acidic c. Neutral d. Makes the water boil at a lower temperature
b. Acidic d. Basic 16. Food safety is the most important factor in cooking.
6. Which cooking method is the LEAST healthy? It doesn’t matter how delicious or complicated the
a. Grilling c. Frying recipe is: if the food makes people sick because of
b. Baking d. Broiling improper cooking or handling, all the efforts will be
7. Frostings are products that are closely associated wasted. How long does it take for bacteria to
with sugar. What kind of sugar used primarily in the double their numbers at warm temperatures?
preparation of flat icings and butter creams? a. half an hour c. 4 hours
a. Brown sugar c. Granulated sugar b. 2 hours d. 1 day
b. Refined sugar d. Confectioner sugar 17. What is the final cooking temperature for raw
8. While Rachel is reading a magazine, she comes chicken?
across a simple cake recipe. But the recipe calls for a. 140 °F b. 165 °F c. 155 °F d. 140 °F
one cup of buttermilk, which she don’t have. What 18. Several ingredients act as leaveners in baking.
could she use instead of buttermilk? Which ingredient for bread hurts the leavening
a. regular milk and vinegar (rising) ability?
b. coffee creamer a. sugar b. flour c. salt d. water
c. vinegar and butter 19. Meats are considered rich in proteins, what kind of
d. regular milk and butter protein is found in connective tissue of meat that
9. Martha, a busy mother is on a limited food budget. converts to gelatin when it is cooked?
Which of the dishes below is a good choice for her a. Elastin c. Marbling
to prepare the viands that will still give her family b. Gluten d. Collagen
their nutrient requirements? 20. How do you know if you are “simmering”
a. Ampalaya con karne c. Pork adobo something?
b. Relienong talong d. Chicken tinola a. If there is cooking oil involved
10. Which ingredient practically used in all native b. If the liquid you are dealing with has reached a
delicacies? rolling boil
a. Sugar c. Butter c. If you are maintaining the temperature of the
b. Coconut milk d. Rice flour liquid just below boiling point
11. Water is a remarkable substance for it occurs and d. If the liquid has reached more than the boiling
used in various ways. When water boils at 212 point
degrees, what does “rolling boil” means? 21. Always serve beverage on _________ side of the
a. the bubbles are rolling non-stop guest using the right hand.
b. the bubbles are forming rapidly and cannot be a. right c. center
stopped when stirred b. left d. left or right
c. the bubbles are forming slowly and can be 22. One of the objectives of good food preparation is to
stopped when stirred conserve the nutritive value of the food. What is the
d. the bubbles are spilling out of a container best way to prepare vegetables to retain the most
12. A cake just wouldn’t be a cake without frosting for it antioxidant activity?
adds visual appeal and flavor. What is the a. Serve raw c. Boil
classification of fudge frosting? b. Steam lightly d. Microwave
a. Soft c. Thick 23. Salads usually use brightly colored fruits, vegetables
b. Uncooked d. Cooked and greens. What’s the best way to help oil-based
13. Meat is cooked to improve its palatability, increase salad dressings adhere to the greens?
tenderness and quality. To minimize meat shrinkage a. Used only expensive lettuce
and retain much of its nutritive value, the best b. salt salad before tossing
cooking temperature is:] c. Add a drop of sugar to dressing
a. moist heat c. high heat d. Make sure greens are completely dry before
b. low to moderate heat d. dry heat applying dressing
14. What does ‘proofing’ means? 24. Nutrients are substances that enrich the body.
a. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are Which of these nutrients is needed for a healthy
the same size immune and strong connective tissue?
b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon a. Fiber c. Vitamin C
dioxide b. Vitamin K d. Fluoride
c. Testing cakes for doneness 25. Iron is absorbed the best from the diet comes from
which sources?
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 10
 a. meat a. Batter c. Dough
b. milk and milk product b. Butter d. Egg wash
c. spinach, pechay, other green leafy vegetables 38. Family Sebastiano is experiencing a hard time
d. enriched whole grains financially. Which of the following shows a very
26. Healthy diets are: appropriate economic practice?
a. adequate and balanced a. Reduced quantity of food prepared
b. do not include sugars b. Recycle leftovers
c. controlled c. use substitutes
d. low in potassium d. reduced quality of food prepared 30
27. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about water in 39. What is the process that changes the flavor, breaks
the human body? down the cellulose and reduces the water content
a. helps regulate body temperature of vegetables?
b. will relieve fatigue, migraines, and high blood a. Cutting c. Washing
pressures b. Preparation d. Cooking
c. the largest component of the adult human body
weight (Cosmetology)
d. provides a medium for chemical reactions 1. A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment.
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of She has some obvious abrasions on her scalp.
stages in the breading procedure? Which treatment should be acceptable?
a. Flour, egg wash, flour a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with
b. Flour, egg wash, bread crumbs minimum massage.
c. Flour, water, bread crumbs b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap.
d. Egg wash, flour, bread crumbs c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and
29. Vera is planning to have a party of more than 50 reschedule her appointment.
guests. What type of table service would you d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with
recommend to her? manipulations.
a. Blue plate service c. Formal service 2. During an analysis procedure, cleansing milk is
b. French service d. Buffet service applied to the skin using:
30. A kind of cloth plays vital role in setting the mood of a. downward circular motion
the dining table. What do you call that long narrow b. rounded strong movements
strips of cloth used on bare tables? c. upward circular movements
a. Silence cloth c. Top cloth d. outward movements
b. Table cloth d. Table runner 3. If a powder foundation is being used for a facial
31. When testing the doneness of the cake, a cake make-up application, a concealer is applied:
tester is inserted at what part of the cake? a. after eye color application
a. Bottom side c. side b. after lipstick application
b. Center d. Upper side c. after foundation application
32. Chef Roy is preparing a chocolate frosting? What d. before foundation
cooking technique would you recommend to her? 4. For which one of the following are oil manicures
a. Cook chocolate in a double boiler recommended?
b. Cook chocolate over high degree a. Leconychia c. Brittle nails
c. Cook chocolate over low flame b. Split nails d. Free edge
d. Cook chocolate using steam 5. When does the manicurist wash her hands for a
33. Ka Rosa is preparing a native rice cake (biko). She manicure service?
ran out of panocha, a local sweetener, what could a. Before and after each manicure service.
be the best substitute for panocha? b. Before each manicure service.
a. Brown sugar c. Washed sugar c. After each manicure service.
b. Powdered sugar d. White sugar d. During each manicure service.
34. What is that kitchen tool appropriate in applying 6. If the hair is cut partially wet and partially dry, the
egg wash to pies and pastries? results will be _________.
a. Rubber scraper c. Tong a. even c. perfect
b. Spatula d. Pastry Brush b. uneven d. curly
35. Which of the following mixing technique is 7. The angle or degree at which a subsection of hair is
described when a baker mixes the dough with a held, or elevated, from the head with cutting is
pressing motion accompanied by folding and called _________.
pressing? a. sectioning c. angling
a. Beat b. Cream c. Knead d. Fold b. elevation d. graduation
36. What type of cakes contains butter or other fats? 8. Following a haircut, when is texturing most
a. Batter cakes c. Chiffon cakes effective?
b. Butter cakes d. Sponge cake a. When performed on dry hair styled the way it
37. The recipe calls to pour the mixture of flour and will typically be worn.
liquid to the pan. What flour mixture is being b. When performed at the shampoo bowl after
described? the conditioner is applied.
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 11
 c. When performed on soaking wet hair that has 18. A section of hair that is molded in a circular
been brushed. movement in preparation for the formulation of
d. When performed on moderately damp hair curls is:
prior to styling. a. shaping b. parting c. base d. section
9. What kind of cosmetic is used to set the foundation, 19. By parting the hair at the parietal ridge and
giving a matte finish, and also to conceal small flaws continuing all the way around the head, you can
or blemishes? locate the:
a. powder c. eyeliner a. crown b. sides c. front d. top
b. lipstick d. blush 20. Blunt or straight lines are cut in the hair with:
10. For corrective make-up application, how is a a. hair cutting shears c. a clipper
highlight produced? b. a straight razor d. thinning shears
a. A highlight is produced when a darker 21. The relationship between hair, face and body type
foundation than the original one is applied to a is called ___________.
particular part of the face. a. emphasis c. symmetry
b. A highlight is produced when a lighter shade b. proportion d. contrasting lines
than the original one is applied to a particular 22. For corrective make-up application, a darker shade
part of the face. of eye color makes the natural color of the eye
c. A highlight is produced when a medium shade appear
similar to the original one is applied to a a. lighter c. smaller
particular part of the face. b. darker d. deeper
d. A shadow subdues or minimizes prominent 23. The condition of the hair and scalp is most
features. influenced by the shampoo products.
11. What kind of cosmetic is used to smooth out the a. color c. thickness
face and cover spots or uneven skin coloration? b. acidity or alkalinity d. lathering ability
a. lipstick c. eyeliner 24. For nail polish application, the functions of top coat
b. blush d. foundation include to :
12. When cutting curly hair, keep in mind that: a. prevent staining of the nail
a. curly naturally layers itself b. protect the enamel from chipping
b. curly hair expands less than straight hair c. fill in ridges
c. straight hair shrinks more than curly hair d. prevent the nail from breaking
d. curly hair expands more than straight hair 25. What type of nail products is a cuticle cream?
13. “Removing bulk” and “removing weight” are more a. emulsion c. exfoliant
modern term for: b. astringent d. emollient
a. thinning the hair 26. What is the effect of highlighter above the
b. Straightening the hair cheekbones?
c. shortening the hair a. To emphasize good bone structure
d. graduating the hair b. To diminish cheekbones
14. During manicure service, do not shake the bottle to c. To attract attention to the eyes
mix nail polis, as this causes: d. To attract attention to the nose
a. separation of ingredients 27. During the nail application, when do excess nail
b. air bubbles polish is best removed?
c. foaming a. after all fingers are done
d. sprayed brush bristles b. with the use of a pusher
15. The classic barbering comb is used with clippers c. when it is necessary
when: d. right after each application
a. cutting longer lengths 28. In manicuring, softening the cuticle with cuticle oil is
b. detailing is not required good treatment for:
c. cutting thicker lengths a. white spots on nails
d. cutting the hair close to the head b. hang nails
16. The amount of elevation from head form is: c. cut or bleeding cuticle
a. dictated by parting size d. redness or swelling around the nail
b. equal to the subsection size 29. Dead cuticle tissue is usually removed:
c. measured in degrees a. just before the base coat is applied to nail
d. measured in inches b. as the last step of manicuring procedure
17. What is the skin type that has medium pores, a c. after loosing the cuticle by the pusher
smooth and even texture, good circulation, healthy d. right after the soaking period
color, may tend toward dryness on the cheeks while 30. the section of the pin curl between the base and the
being oily in the t-zone? first arch is the:
a. oily skin a. stem b. curl c. circle d. wave
b. sensitive skin 31. During the haircutting procedure, the fine teeth or
c. combination/normal skin the styling comb are used to:
d. dry skin a. detangle wet hair
b. holds the hair at high elevations
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 c. comb and part the hair d. All of the above should be considered.
d. comb the subsection before cutting 3. To be able to steer your business in the first difficult
32. During a shampoo service, manipulating the scalp months, you need a good _________.
immediately follows: a. Marketing Plan c. Production Plan
a. squeezing excess water from hair b. Financial Plan d. Out-sourcing Plan
b. applying shampoo 4. For the business to have a legal personality, a
c. adjusting water volume business man has to __________.
d. comfortably seating the client a. Organize it.
33. When preparing to shampoo a client, it’s important b. Register it in proper institution / agency.
to: c. Hire lawyers for the business.
a. apply an infrared lamp d. Hire an accountant for the business.
b. apply a scalp steamer 5. Which of the following implies that the
c. brush the hair for 15 minutes entrepreneur has a “word of honor”?
d. examine the client’s hair and scalp a. When he pays suppliers on due date.
34. Moisturizers contain an ingredient that helps the b. Give employees salaries and benefits agreed on.
skin retain: c. Deliver on the day his customer ask him to do.
a. Oil b. water c. vitamins d. collagen d. All opinions above are correct.
35. Madeleine requests for a scalp treatment service 6. In the business plan essentials, which part
because her hair is dry. Which of the following encapsulates entire business plan?
products would you recommend? a. The mission statement
a. alcoholic lotion b. The executive summary
b. mineral or sulfonated oil c. The management team
c. Baby shampoo d. The marketing plan
d. moisturizers or emollients 7. What type of entrepreneurial business actually
36. How often would you advice a person for a facial produces the products they sell?
with normal skin? a. Manufacturing c. Retailing
a. about once a week c. daily b. Wholesaling d. Service
b. about a month d. about twice a month 8. A (n) __________ captures the reader’s attention,
37. How can ingrown toe nails be prevented in should explain the business status, provide
pedicuring? objectives, and describe products or services.
a. File or clip corners of nail. a. Executive summary c. Table of contents
b. File toe nails rounding them slightly to conform b. transmittal letter d. fact sheet
shape of toes. 9. Locations, facilities, labor and manufacturing [plans
c. Leave toe nails’ corner alone are part of:
d. Clipped dead skins near toenails’ corners. a. Financial plan
38. When conducting a client consultation, you can b. Marketing plan
begin to make decisions about the most suitable c. Implementation plan
haircut for the client by analyzing the: d. Production / Operations Plan
a. hair length c. hair color 10. Work Ethics are:
b. skin type d. face shape a. based on moral virtues of hard work
39. In haircutting, your __________ hand will generally b. based on working hard only when the manager
be your dominant hand. is looking
a. holding c. cutting c. based on looking for shortcuts
b. weak d. controlling d. based on trying to get to work on time
40. Where all manicuring cosmetic supplies should be 11. An individual who can identify the various products
kept when not being used? or services which people need and deliver these at
a. On a clean shelf. the right time and place and at the price:
b. On the manicuring table a. Entrepreneur c. Industrialist
c. In a clean manicuring kit b. Capitalist d. Contractor
d. In clean, closed containers 12. A business form which is owned by only one person
is:
(Entrepreneurship) a. Cooperative c. Partnership
1. A concept among business-minded individuals who b. Corporation d. Sole proprietorship
want to start small, but dream of becoming huge 13. The ___________ plan tells what has to be done,
financial success in the future is known as when, how and who as far as sales, advertising,
_________. policy and distribution.
a. Entrepreneurship c. Small business a. Marketing c. Pricing
b. Enterprise d. Buy and sell b. Financial d. Selection
2. You want to start your own business, what should 14. The aspect of business management that analyzes
you consider? and determines the supply and demand for the
a. Assess your entrepreneurial inclinations. product or service in the past and its competitive
b. Get to know your target market. position at present is:
c. Make a business plan. a. Financial aspect c. Production aspect
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 13
 b. Marketing aspect d. Budgeting aspect 27. Time frame, financial reserve and resources and
15. A __________ statement should be short (one/two cost are distinctive features of __________.
sentences) easy to understand and easy to a. business plan c. mechanical plan
remember. b. electrical plan d. project plan
a. Mission c. Cash flow 28. The competence to convince, use personal
b. Vision d. Pro Forma influence and develop explicit strategies to
16. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to influence people is associated with __________.
create market and produce new goods and services: a. persuasion and networking
a. Salesman c. Proprietorship b. information seeking and monitoring
b. Partnership d. Entrepreneurship c. opportunity seeking and creativity
17. The probable problems that a business and d. self confidence and skill in decision making
entrepreneur faces are: 29. Business Code of Ethics:
a. Strengths c. Weakness a. should provide a list that only new employees
b. Opportunities d. Threats must follow
18. Reviewing at any point of the business period the b. Should exempt upper management
strength and weaknesses of the venture is referred c. should change every week
to as ___________. d. should provide a framework for professional
a. Monitoring and evaluating responsibility
b. Risk taking 30. Entrepreneurs adopt risk management programs to
c. Opportunity seeking eliminate or reduce risk. Which of the following is
d. SWOT analysis an exception?
19. A business form owned by only one person is: a. Employee safety program
a. Partnership c. Corporation b. Inaccurate accounting and financial reports
b. Sole Proprietorship d. Cooperative c. Burglars alarm, security guard’s and guard dogs
20. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to d. Proper safety program
create market and produce new goods and services: 31. Whenever an entrepreneur recruits, selects a
a. Proprietorship c. Partnership person to fill a vacancy in the organizational
b. Entrepreneurship d. Salesman structure, he is performing a function of
21. Quality control refers to the firm’s evaluation of its management called:
___________. a. controlling c. planning
a. overall performance b. directing d. staffing
b. operational control 32. Which of the following items is a trait that is NOT
c. employee’s performance observed among high achievers and entrepreneurs?
d. organizational control a. Willing to forego small inconveniences.
22. If an entrepreneur acts to do things that meet or b. Persistent worker even in the face of difficulties
even exceed existing standards of excellence then and hardships.
he is considered to be __________. c. Likes to associate with the hardworking and the
a. hard worker c. committed worker knowledgeable about many things.
b. risk taker d. goal setter d. Consider is not important to attain a position or
23. Profit is a concrete indicator of how well an to come up with accomplishment in society.
entrepreneur has managed his ___________. 33. Which of the following Best explains why goal-
a. business c. affairs setting is important especially in entrepreneurship?
b. sales d. credits a. It assures you of your being able to attain your
24. If a lot of unknown and uncontrollable factors affect objectives.
the success or failure of a firm then an b. It helps make life more enjoyable and satisfying.
entrepreneur should be competent in __________. c. One is much more likely to get what he/she
a. making decisions wants and is willing to work for it.
b. seeking opportunity d. You are only one who can tell what is important
c. introducing innovation to you.
d. planning ahead 34. Which of the following basic principles in planning a
25. Environmental screening involves one of the business plan deals with the necessity of
following basic principles in planning a business. environmental scanning?
Which one is it? a. The plan must be based on simple projects.
a. the plan must respond to consumer tastes and b. The plan must respond to consumer tastes and
preferences preferences.
b. the plan must be based on simple projects c. The plan must be flexible.
c. the plan must be based on the needs of the d. The plan must be based on the needs of the
community community.
d. the plan must be flexible 35. Business planning is a continuous process until
26. A business enterprise must obtain a business permit consumer satisfaction is maximized and sustained.
from the ___________. One of the components of business planning is
a. Mayor’s office c. DOLE SWOT. What does SWOT means?
b. DTI d. SEC
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 14
 a. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and 10. Net income is:
Threats a. revenues less the cost of goods sold to
b. Strengths, Weaknesses, Operations and Threats customers and operating expenses
c. Supports, Weaknesses, Operations and Threats b. revenues less the cost of goods sold to
d. Supports, Weaknesses, Operations and Time customers, operating expenses interest expense
and taxes
c. revenues less the cost of goods sold to
customers
d. cash collected less cash paid out
(Business Mathematics) 11. Find the profit of Manny’s water refilling business
1. At a supermarket, white sugar has increased from P with revenue of P 56, 000, 000 and costs of P 42,
38 per kilo to P 46 per kilo. What is the percent 000, 000.
increase in the cost of the item? a. P 14, 000, 000 c. P 1, 400, 000
a. 10% b. 20% c. 21% d. 25% b. P 140, 000 d. P 14, 000
2. Tiger Woods shots the following scores in a recent 12. How long it would take a $ 200 bank account
golf tournament (68, 71, 66, 67). What was Tiger’s earning 8% simple interest to earn 4 40 interest?
average score for that tournament? a. 2 years c. 2.5 years
a. 70 b. 68 c. 69 d. 67 b. 1 year d. 1.5 years
3. If you are paid a certain amount of money for every 13. Nora’s food stall has costs of P 2, 900. Her total food
sale you make or a percent of the value of your sales are P 11, 600. What percent of her food sales
sales, which type of pay are you receiving? do the food costs represent?
a. commission c. piece work a. 20% b. 25% c. 27% d. 30%
b. straight time pay d. profit share 14. Jonie needs 250 cookies for a buffet. he will make
4. What is it called when you determine how many oatmeal raisin, macaroons, and chocolate chunk
units of a product must be made and sold to cover cookies. He wants 25% of the cookies to be oatmeal
production expenses? raisin and 15% of the cookies to be macaroons. How
a. quality control many chocolate chunk cookies must Jonie bake?
b. break-even analysis a. 150 b. 125 c. 140 d. 100
c. a time study analysis 15. What is the total of your cash, plus items you have
d. unit analysis purchased, plus money your customers owe you
5. Margie is buying donuts at the bakery for her called?
classmates at school. She wants to buy twice as a. inventory c. liabilities
many as students in her class. Margie has 18 b. assets d. profit
students in her class. About how many donuts 16. What does a balance sheet show?
should Margie buy? a. the financial position of your company on a
a. 20 donuts c. 40 donuts certain date
b. 50 donuts d. 60 donuts b. how much money everybody in your company
6. Mr. Calbo had 776 4/5 dozens of canned tuna makes
luncheon meat. He divided equally these dozens of c. the difference between two income statements
canned tuna luncheon meat to 8 buyers. How many d. the summary of your company’s profit
dozens of canned tuna luncheon meat did each 17. If a shirt marked down 25%, what will the purchase
buyer get? price be?
a. 90 dozens c. 98 dozens a. P 25 c. 50% off
b. 98.8 dozens d. 97 1/10 dozens b. 75% of its original price d. P 75
7. Lea’s Enterprise gives 10% profit to all items for 18. What is the difference between the cost of a
sale. What is the profit if the capital of the goods is product and its selling price called?
P 50.00, P 870.00? a. the retail price c. the discount
a. P 5180.00 c. P 5, 087.00 b. the markup d. the percentage discount
b. P 5017.00 d. P 508.70 19. What is the correct accounting name given to
distributions of cash or other assets from an
8. What is 125% expressed a s a mixed number in incorporated business to its shareholders?
simplest form? a. business perks c. dividends
a. 1 ¼ c. 4/5 b. bonuses d. drawings
b. 125/100 d. 25/20 20. A customer places a special order through 480
9. An asset is considered to be a current asset if: Furniture Store. The list price in the manufacturer’s
a. It has been bought recently and was bought catalog is P 1, 600. 480 Furniture receives a 35%
new and not used. trade discount. What is the net price for the
b. It could be sold immediately by the business for furniture order?
other assets. a. P560 b. P1,535 c. P1,565 d. P1,040
c. It could be realized in cash or sold or consumed 21. Min’s Manufacturing offers discounts on most of its
in the business within one year. products. What is the trade discount rate on an
d. It is a piece of new machinery that is expected item with a list price of P 16.79 and a net price of P
to fast for at least ten years 12.42?
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 15
 a. 22% b. 26% c. 54% d. 74% (b) How many kilograms did he sell in domestic
22. Lina buys 4 scrapbook kits at P 9.99 each, 2 sets of markets?
scissors for P 9.99 each and 1 circle cutter for p a. 660.25 kg / 140.75
24.99. The sales tax rate is 5%. What is the total b. 770 kg / 120 kg
purchase price? c. 778.75 kg / 111 .25 kg
a. P 8.25 c. P 68.22 d. 667.5 kg / 222.5 kg
b. P 162.69 d. P 173.18 31. A marketing manager sold items worth P 189, 355,
23. During her vacation in the US, Carla had purchased 000. His commission as incentive is 7%. How much
a sweater from the clearance rack and gave the is his commission?
clerk $30.00. She received $4.96 in change. IF the a. P 1,325.48 c. P 1,300.45
sales tax rate was 8%, find the total selling price? b. P 13,254.85 d. P 13,250.00
a. $ 21.04 c. $ 23.19 32. Aizza bought 3 ¼ kilograms of chico, 2 ½ kilograms
b. $ 25.04 d. $ 27.22 of grapes, 4 ¾ kilograms of water melon. how many
24. To pay for his son’s tuition, Mr. Torre borrows P95, kilograms of fruits did she buy altogether?
800.00 from a lending institution with an interest a. 9 ½ kg b. 10 ½ kg c. 7 ½ kg d. 11 kg
rate of 9.5% a year. How much is his interest for one 33. What is the decimal 0.33 written as a fraction?
year? a. 1/3 b. 1/4 c. 1/8 d. 1/33
a. P 910.00 c. P 9,101.00 34. Jessa made a fruit tart using red and green grapes.
b. P 9011.00 d. P 9,111.00 Forty percent of the grapes are green. If she used a
25. Last week, Michelle bought a new computer for total of 80 grapes, how many red grapes did she
10% off the advertised price in an online store. The use?
advertised price was $ 1,800. How much did a. 36 b. 42 c. 48 d. 50
Michelle have to pay for the computer? 35. Which of the following items should not be included
a. $ 1, 800 c. $ 1, 980 in a listing of current assets?
b. $ 2, 200 d. $ 1, 620 a. marketable securities
26. Which of these is true statement? b. accounts payable
a. Payment made for the use of someone else’s c. accounts receivable
money is called interest. d. inventories
b. Payment made into an investment is called
interest.
c. Payment made for the use of someone else’s
money is called principal.
d. Payment made into a bank account is called
interest.
27. Paula always spends in full her P200 weekly
allowance. She decided to decrease her expenses
by 24% for savings. Compute for her new weekly
allowance.
a. P52 b. P142 c. P152 d. P132
28. After net income in entered on the work sheet, the
Balance Sheet debit and credit columns must:
a. be the same amount As the total amount of the
Income Statement debit and credit columns
b. equal each other
c. be the same amount as the amount in the
Adjusted Trial Balance debit and credit columns
d. not be equal to each other and need not to be
the same total amounts as any other pair of
columns on the work sheet
29. Adjusting entries:
a. need not be journalized since they appear on
the work sheet
b. need not be posted if the financial statements
are prepared from the work sheet
c. are not needed if reversing entries are prepared
d. must be journalized and posted
30. Mr. Montemayor harvested 890 kilograms of
shrimps from his fishpond. He sold 6/8 kilograms of
shrimps in international markets and 2/8 kilograms
of shrimps was sold in domestic markets. (a) How
many kilograms of shrimps did he sell in
international markets?

St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 16

 Basic Electronics
1. A 11. A 21. D 31. B
2. C 12. B 22. A 32. A
3. B 13. A 23. C 33. A
4. A 14. D 24. A 34. D
5. B 15. C 25. B 35. C
6. A 16. A 26. B
7. D 17. A 27. A
8. A 18. C 28. D
9. C 19. B 29. A
10. D 20. A 30. A
ANSWER KEYS Foods
Drafting 1. B 11. B 21. A 31. B
1. D 11. B 21. B 31. A 2. C 12. C 22. B 32. A
2. A 12. A 22. B 32. C 3. C 13. A 23. D 33. A
3. B 13. C 23. A 33. A 4. B 14. B 24. A 34. D
4. C 14. A 24. C 34. D 5. A 15. A 25. A 35. C
5. A 15. D 25. D 35. A 6. C 16. C 26. A 36. B
6. A 16. A 26. A 7. D 17. B 27. B 37. A
7. B 17. C 27. A 8. A 18. C 28. B 38. B
8. A 18. A 28. B 9. D 19. D 29. D 39. D
9. C 19. B 29. B 10. A 20. C 30. D
10. A 20. A 30. A Cosmetology
Carpentry / Woodworking 1. C 11. D 21. B 31. D
1. A 11. C 21. A 31. D 2. C 12. D 22. A 32. B
2. B 12. A 22. C 32. A 3. D 13. A 23. B 33. D
3. A 13. B 23. A 33. A 4. C 14. B 24. B 34. B
4. C 14. B 24. B 34. D 5. A 15. D 25. D 35. D
5. D 15. A 25. A 35. C 6. B 16. C 26. A 36. A
6. B 16. D 26. D 7. B 17. C 27. D 37. B
7. A 17. C 27. C 8. A 18. A 28. B 38. D
8. D 18. A 28. A 9. A 19. D 29. C 39. C
9. A 19. B 29. C 10. B 20. A 30. A 40. D
10. C 20. D 30. A Entrepreneurship
Basic Masonry and Concrete 1. A 11. A 21. B 31. D
1. A 11. A 21. A 31. B 2. D 12. C 22. D 32. A
2. C 12. B 22. D 32. C 3. A 13. A 23. B 33. A
3. A 13. B 23. D 33. A 4. B 14. B 24. A 34. D
4. D 14. C 24. B 34. A 5. D 15. B 25. C 35. A
5. B 15. A 25. C 35. C 6. B 16. D 26. A
6. A 16. B 26. B 7. A 17. C 27. A
7. A 17. C 27. A 8. A 18. A 28. A
8. D 18. C 28. A 9. D 19. B 29. D
9. B 19. A 29. A 10. A 20. B 30. B
10. D 20.C 30.A Business Mathematics
Basic Plumbing 1. C 11. A 21. B 31. B
1. B 11. A 21. C 31. C 2. B 12. C 22. D 32. B
2. A 12. A 22. B 32. A 3. A 13. B 23. C 33. A
3. C 13. A 23. A 33. A 4. B 14. A 24. C 34. C
4. A 14. C 24. C 34. B 5. C 15. B 25. D 35. B
5. A 15. A 25. D 35. A 6. D 16. A 26. B
6. C 16. B 26. A 7. C 17. B 27. C
7. A 17. A 27. A 8. A 18. B 28. B
8. C 18. B 28. D 9. C 19. C 29. D
9. A 19. A 29. B 10. B 20. D 30. D
10. B 20. B 30. A
Basic Electricity
1. A 11. A 21. A 31. B
2. B 12. A 22. A 32. A
3. A 13. B 23. C 33. D
4. B 14. A 24. D 34. A
5. D 15. A 25. A
6. C 16. C 26. B
7. A 17. B 27. D
8. C 18. D 28. A
9. B 19. B 29. D
10. D 20.C 30.B
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 17
St. Louis Review Center Kidapawan - Tel. no. (064) 288-5990 18