10th Science Byjus Solutions

NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations
In-text questions set 1 Page number – 6
1. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?

Solution:
Magnesium rubber should be cleaned before burning in air because Magnesium metal reacts with the
atmospheric oxygen and forms Magnesium Oxide (MgO) layer which is a very stable compound. In
order to prevent further reactions with Oxygen, it is therefore necessary to clean the ribbon by to remove
the layer of MgO.
2. Write a balanced equations for the following chemical reactions.

i) Hydrogen + Chloride —-> Hydrogen chloride
ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate —-> Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride
iii) Sodium + Water —-> Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Solution:
i) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
ii) 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
iii) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2
3. Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions
i) Solutions of Barium chloride and Sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble Barium
sulphate and solution of Sodium chloride.
ii) Sodium hydroxide solution in water reacts with hydrochloric acid solution to produce Sodium
chloride solution and water.
Solution:
i) BaCl2 + Na2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl
ii) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Intext questions set 2 Page number - 10
1. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for whitewashing.

(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula.
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ named in (i) above with water.
Solution:
i)The substance ‘X’ which is used in whitewashing is quick lime or Calcium Oxide and its formula is
CaO.
ii)
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
2. Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes in Activity 1.7 double of the amount
collected in the other? Name this gas
Solution:
In activity 1.7, gas collected in one of the test tubes is double of the amount collected in the other
because water gets hydrolysed to release H2 and O2 gas. Here, after electrolysis two molecules of
Hydrogen and one molecule of oxygen gas is released, hence the amount of Hydrogen collected would
be double than that of oxygen.
In-text questions set 3 Page number – 13
1. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Solution:
When an iron nail dipped in the copper sulphate solution, iron displaces copper from the copper sulphate
because iron is more reactive than copper. Therefore the colour of the copper sulphate solution changes.
The reaction is:
Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu
2. Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in Activity 1.10.
Solution:
Reaction Between silver nitrate (AgNO3) and Sodium chloride (NaCl) is an example of double
displacement reaction. Here Silver donates its ion to Sodium chloride ion and pick up nitare ion to form
silver chloride and sodium Nitrate
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
3. Identify the substances that are oxidized and that are reduced in the following equation.
i) 4Na(s) + O2(g) → 2Na2O(s)
ii) CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l)
Solution:
The Sodium (Na) in the first equation is getting oxidized with the addition of Oxygen (O2) and the
Copper (Cu) in the second equation is reduced due to the addition of Hydrogen (H2)
Exercise Questions Page number - 14-16
1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?

2PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced
(b) Carbon Dioxide is getting oxidised
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all
Solution:
(i) (a) and (b)
Explanation: (a) because Oxygen is being removed and (b) because the removed oxygen from Lead is
added to the elemental Carbon.
2. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe

The above reaction is an example of a
1. Combination reaction.
2. Double displacement reaction.
3. Decomposition reaction.
4. Displacement reaction.
Solution:
Answer is 4. Displacement reaction.
Explanation: The Oxygen from the Ferrous oxide is getting displaced to the Aluminium metal to form
Aluminium Oxide. In this reaction Aluminum is more reactive metal than Fe. Therefore Al will displace
Fe from its oxide. This type of chemical reactions in which one of the elements displace another is
called displacement reaction. Here less reactive metal is displaced by more reactive metal. Since one-
time displacement is occurring, therefore, it is called a single displacement reaction.
3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron fillings? Tick the correct answer.
1. Hydrogen gas and Iron chloride are produced.
2. Chlorine gas and Iron hydroxide are produced.
3. No reaction takes place.
4. Iron salt and water are produced.
Solution:
1. Hydrogen gas and Iron chloride are produced.
Explanation: The Chlorine from Hydrogen chloride is displaced by the Iron fillings to undergo the
following reaction.
2HCl + Fe → FeCl2 + H2
4. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should a chemical equation be balanced?

Solution:
A balanced equation is the one in which number of different atoms on both the reactant and product
sides are equal. Balancing chemical equation is necessary for the reaction should obey The Law of
Conservation of energy. Balancing the chemical equation has no defined method and is purely a trial and
error attempt.
5. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and balance them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give Aluminium chloride and a precipitate
of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and Hydrogen gas.
Solution:
(a) Unbalanced: H2 + N2 → NH3
Balanced: 3H2 + N2 → 2NH3
(b) Unbalanced: H2S + O2 → H2O + SO2

Balanced: 2H2S + 3O2 → 2H2O + 2SO2
(c) Unbalanced:
BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → AlCl3 + BaSO4
Balanced: 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
(d) Unbalanced: K + H2O → KOH + H2

Balanced: 2K + 2H2O → 2KOH + H2
6. Balance the following chemical equations.

(a) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
(b) NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + HCl
Solution:
(a) 2HNO3 + 2Ca(OH)2 → 2Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O
(b) 6NaOH + 3H2SO4 → H2SO4 + 6H2O
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
7. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reactions.
Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide —-> Calcium carbonate + Water
Zinc + Silver nitrate —-> Zinc nitrate + Silver
Aluminium + Copper chloride —-> Aluminium chloride + Copper
Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate —-> Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride
Solution:
2Ca(OH)2 + 2CO2 → 2CaCO3 + 2H2O
Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag
2Al + 3CuCl3 → 2AlCl3 + 3Cu
BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl
8) Write a balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of reaction of each
case
KBr + BaI2 → KI + BaBr2
ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
H2 + Cl → HCl
Mg + HCl → MgCl2 + H2
Solution:
2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2 (Double Displacement Reaction)
ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2 (Decomposition Reaction)
H2 + Cl → 2HCl (Combination Reaction)
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2 (Displacement Reaction)
9) What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.

Solution:
An endothermic reaction occurs when energy is absorbed from the surroundings in the form of
heat.(Example: Photosynthesis, melting of ice, evaporation). Conversely, an exothermic reaction is one
in which energy is released from the system into the surroundings. (Example: Explosions, concrete
setting, nuclear fission and fusion).
10. Why is respiration considered to be an exothermic reaction?

Solution:
For the survival of life, we require energy. We obtain this energy from the food we eat. The food
molecules, through the process of digestion, is broken down into a simpler molecule like glucose. These
substances come in contact with the Oxygen present in our body cells to form Carbon dioxide and water
along with a certain amount of energy (Respiration process). Since the energy is in the form of heat (that
maintains our body temperature) the respiration is considered to be an exothermic reaction. The reaction
taking place is:
C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
11. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of Combination reactions? Write
equations for decomposition reactions.
Solution:
Combination reaction is said to be the reaction between two or more molecules to form a larger
molecule; whereas the decomposition reaction is defined as the splitting of larger molecules into two or
more smaller molecules. This essentially explains that the decomposition reaction is the opposite of the
combination reaction.
In most of the cases the decomposition reaction is endothermic since heat from the surrounding or
induced heat is used to break the bonds of the larger molecule. Few examples of decomposition
reactions are:
ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
CaCO3 + Energy → CaO + CO2
2HgO → 2Hg + O2
12. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions in which energy is supplied in the form of
heat, light or electricity.
Solution:
(a) Thermal decomposition reaction (Thermolysis)
Decomposition of potassium chlorate: When heated strongly, potassium chlorate decomposes into
potassium chloride and oxygen. This reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen.
2KClO3 + Heat → 2KCl + 3O2
(b) Electrolytic decomposition reaction (Electrolysis)

Decomposition of sodium chloride: On passing electricity through molten sodium chloride, it
decomposes into sodium and chlorine.
(c) Photodecomposition reaction (Photolysis)

Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide: In the presence of light, hydrogen peroxide decomposes into
water and oxygen.
13. What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write
relevant equations for the above.
Solution:
A displacement reaction is the one when a more reactive substance displaces a less reactive one from its
salt solution whereas a double displacement reaction is the one where a mutual exchange of ions
happens between two compounds.
In a displacement reaction, only a single displacement takes place whereas in the double displacement
reaction, as the name suggests two displacement takes place between the molecules.
Example:
Displacement reaction
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
Double displacement reaction
2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2
Q13) What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write
relevant equations for the above.
Solution:
A displacement reaction is the one when a more reactive substance displaces a less reactive one from its
salt solution whereas a double displacement reaction is the one where a mutual exchange of ions
happens between two compounds.
In a displacement reaction, only a single displacement takes place whereas in the double displacement
reaction, as the name suggests two displacement takes place between the molecules.
Example:
Displacement reaction
Mg+2HCl→MgCl2+H2
Double displacement reaction

2KBr + BaI2 → 2KI + BaBr2
14. In the refining of Silver, the recovery of silver from Silver nitrate solution involves
displacement reaction by Copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Solution:
Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
15. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.

Solution:
When two solutions containing soluble salts are combined, a double displacement reaction takes place in
which the ions are exchanged between the compounds. When one of such compounds formed is in solid
form (that is insoluble in aqua) then it settles down at the bottom of the container. This solid is known as
the precipitate and the respective reaction is termed as the precipitation reaction. Few examples of
precipitation reactions are:
CdSO4(aq) + K2S(aq) → CdS(s) + K2SO4(aq)

2NaOH(aq) + MgCl2(aq) → 2NaCl(aq) + Mg(OH)2(s)
16. Explain the following in terms of gain of oxygen with two examples each.
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
Solution:
(a) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is added to the element to form its respective oxide it is the
element being oxidised. Example:
4Na(s) + O2(g) → 2Na2O(s)
H2S + O2 → H2O + SO2
(b) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is being removed from the compound then it is said to be
reduced. Example:
CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l)
2HgO → 2Hg + O2
17. A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in the air becomes black in colour. Name the
element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Solution:
The shiny brown coloured element is the Copper metal (Cu). When the metal is heated in air, it reacts
with atmospheric oxygen to form copper oxide. Hence the black coloured compound is the copper
oxide.
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s)
18) Why do we apply paint on iron articles?

Solution:
Iron articles are painted to prevent them from rusting. When left unpainted, the metal surface comes in
contact with the atmospheric oxygen and in the presence of moisture it from Iron(III) oxide. But if
painted the surface does not come in contact with moisture and air thus preventing Rusting.
19) Oil and Fat containing food items are flushed with Nitrogen. Why?
Solution:
The main purpose of flushing Nitrogen into food packets that contain oil and fat items is to prevent
Rancidity which occurs when the oil or fat reacts with the oxygen letting out an unpleasant smell and
taste. Therefore by flushing Nitrogen, an unreactive surrounding is created thus preventing rancidity.
20) Explain the following terms with one example each.

(a) Corrosion
(b) Rancidity
Solution:
(a) Corrosion is a process where a refined metal is oxidised by atmospheric oxygen to form a more
stable compound such as oxides. The metal gradually degrades during the corrosion process. Rusting of
iron is a good example of corrosion where the iron is converted to Iron oxide. Millions of dollars are
spent annually in preventing rusting from bridges and other monuments.
(b) The condition produced by the aerial oxidation of the oil and fat present in the food material that
produces an unpleasant taste and smell. The rancidity is retarded when the food is kept inside the
refrigerator since the low temperature does not promote the oxidation reaction.
NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts
In-text questions set 1

Page number – 18
1. You are given three test tubes. The three test tubes contain distilled water,
acidic solution and the basic solution respectively. There is only red litmus paper
available in order to identify what is there in each test tube. How will you find out
what is in each of the test tubes?
Solution: We can identify the content in each of the test tubes using red litmus paper. This
can be done by noticing the colour change of the red litmus paper.
• If the red litmus paper changes to blue colour the solution is a basic solution.
• If the red litmus paper experience no change in acidic solution.
• If the red litmus paper changes to purple colour the solution is distilled water.

Page number – 22
1. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Solution: Curd and sour food substances contain acids; these acidic substances combine with
metal. This reaction turns food to poison which damage people’s health.
2. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with
an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Solution: When an acid reacts with any metal, salt and hydrogen gas are formed.
Metal + Acid → Salt + Hydrogen gas
3. Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce
effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced
chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium
chloride.
Solution: As metal compound released is Calcium Chloride the gas evolved here is CO2.
Hence metal A should be Calcium Carbonate. Hence the reaction between Calcium Carbonate
and HCl is
CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (Aq) → CaCl2( Aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
in text questions set 3

Page number – 25
1. Why do HCl, HNO3, etc., show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while
solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Solution: Release of H+ ion in water will make a compound acidic or non-acidic. Acids are the
substance which upon dissociating with water results in production of Hydrogen ions. Some
compounds show acidic character as they dissociate in the aqueous solution which results in
the production of hydrogen ions (acids like HCl, HNO3).
Compounds similar to glucose or alcohol do contain hydrogen element but they do not show
signs of acidic nature. The fact that the hydrogen in them will not separate as like the hydrogen
in the acids. They will not separate to become hydrogen ions, on dissolving in the water.
2. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?
Solution: Charged particles are responsible for the conductance of electricity in an acid. These
charged particles called as ions are the reason behind conductance of electricity in acid.
3. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
Solution: HCl does not give out Hydrogen ions, therefore HCl does not show any acidic
behaviour and colour of the litmus paper remain the same on reacting with HCl gas.
4. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to
water and not water to the acid?
Solution: While diluting an acid, it is recommended that the acid should be added to water
and not water to the acid because if water is added to concentrated acid, it release huge amount
of heat which may result in explosion and can cause acid burns on face, clothes and body parts.
Hence it is safe to add acid to water but not water to acid.
5. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of

an acid is diluted?
Solution: When acid is added to water there will be a fixed amount of hydronium present in
the fixed volume of solution. If we dilute the solution hydronium ion per volume of solution
decrease, this in-turn decreases Hydronium concentration in the solution.
6. How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) affected when excess base is
dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Solution: When base is dissolved in sodium hydroxide solution its hydroxide ions increase
but it will reach saturation at some point. After saturation point hydroxide ion concentration is
not affected even after adding base further.

Page number – 33
1. You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B

is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic
and which one is basic?
Solution: In order to find the hydrogen ion concentration, we can use the rule that states,
“The pH of any solution is inversely proportional to the hydrogen ion concentration”.
Therefore, it means that the solution that has a lower pH number will have a higher hydrogen
ion concentration. Hence, solution A will have a higher hydrogen ion concentration. In
addition, solution B will be basic and A will be acidic.
2. What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have on the nature of the
solution?
Solution: Hydrogen ion concentration decides the nature of the solution. If Hydrogen ion
concentration increase then solution turn acidic and similarly if Hydrogen ion concentration
decreases then solution turn basic.
3. Do basic solutions also have H+(aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
Solution: Basic solutions has H+ ions, but hydroxide ions present in basic solution are more
in basic solution. Hence Hydroxide ions turn solution to basic.
4. Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his
fields with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk
(calcium carbonate)?
Solution: If the soil is acidic in nature (PH below 7) then such field should be treated with
quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate).
In text questions set 5

Page number – 34-35
1. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?

Solution: Common name of CaOCl2 is bleaching powder.
2. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder
Solution: The substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder is Calcium
hydroxide.
3. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Solution: Sodium carbonate is the compound which is used for softening hard water.
4. What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the

equation of the reaction involved.
Solution: Heating sodium hydrocarbonate yields sodium carbonate and carbon dioxide gas is
liberated in the process.
5. Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.
Solution: The chemical equation for the reaction of Plaster of Paris and water is
CaSO4.1/2H2O + 3/2H2O → CaSO4.2H2O
Exercise questions Page number – 33
1. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be

(a)1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10
Solution: Answer is 10 because litmus paper turns blue when reacts with basic solution (PH
more than 7). Hence 10 is the answer.
2. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water
milky. The solution contains
(a)NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl

Solution: Answer is HCl.
Egg shells contains calcium carbonate, which on reaction with HCl liberates CO2 gas which
turn lime water to milky.
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
3. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a

given solution of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount
HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be
(a) 4 mL (b) 8 mL (c) 12 mL (d) 16 mL
Solution: Since 10 ml of NaOH requires 8 mL of HCL, 20 ml of NaOH require 8 x 2 = 16mL of

HCl Hence the answer id option d 16mL.
4. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic (c) Antacid (d) Antiseptic
Solution: Indigestion is due to excess production of acid in the stomach. Medicines used to
treat indigestion is called as Antacid.
5. Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reaction taking
place when
(a) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(c) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(d) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
Solution:
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules:

=> dilute sulphuric acid + zinc → Zinc Sulphate + Hydrogen Gas
=> H2SO4(aq) + Zn → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.

=> dilute Hydrochloric + Magnesium → Magnesium Chloride + Hydrogen Gas
=> 2HCl(aq) + Mg → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.

=> dilute Sulphuric Acid + Aluminium → Aluminium Sulphate + Hydrogen Gas
=> 3H2SO4(aq) + 2Al(s) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)
(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.

=> dilute Hydrochloric Acid + Iron → Ferrous Chloride + Hydrogen Gas
=> 6HCl(aq) + 3Fe(s) → 3FeCl2(aq) + 3H2(g)
6. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not
categorised as acids. Describe an Activity to prove it
Solution: Insert two nails on the wooden or rubber cork and place them on a beaker as shown
in figure. Connect iron nail to a bulb, 6 volt battery and a wire connected to switch. Pour some
alcohol or glucose so as to dip the nails in glucose or alcohol. Turn the switch on and you the
see the bulb not glowing despite of connection to switch. Now empty the beaker and add HCL
solution. This time bulb glows. This proves acid can conduct electricity but alcohol and glucose
does not conduct electricity.
7. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rain water does?
Solution:
• Distilled water does not contain any ionic compounds in it.

• Whereas rainwater has a lot, more compounds.
• Rainwater has dissolved acidic gas such as carbon dioxide from the air and that forms
carbonic acid. This means that it has hydrogen ions and carbonate ions. Therefore, with
the presence of acids, rainwater can conduct electricity.
8. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Solution: The acidic behaviour from acids is because of the presence of hydrogen ions.
Hydrogen ions can only be produced in the presence of water and therefore water is definitely
needed if acids are to show their acidic behaviour.
9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH

as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9, respectively. Which solution is
(a) neutral?
(b) Strongly alkaline?
(c) Strongly acidic?
(d) Weakly acidic?
(e) Weakly alkaline?
Solution: In increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration:

pH 11(B) -> pH 9(E) -> pH 7(A) -> pH 4(D) -> pH 1 (B)
PH11 - Strongly alkaline
pH9 - weakly alkaline
PH7 - Neutral
pH4 - Weakly acidic
pH1 - Strongly acidic
10. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B.
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is
added to test tube B. Amount and concentration taken for both the acids are
same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Solution: HCl is a strong acid whereas acetic is a weaker acid. Fizzing occurs because of the
production of the hydrogen gas obtained due to reaction of the acid on the magnesium ribbon.
Since HCl is a very strong acid there is a lot of liberation of hydrogen gas from test tube A.
therefore, more fizzing take place in test tube A.
11. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into
curd? Explain your answer.
Solution: Fresh milk is turned to curd due to production of lactic acid. Lactic acid reduces the
pH of the milk.
12. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Solution: (a) He shifted the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline to prevent milk
from getting sour due to production of lactic acid.
(b) This milk takes long time to set into curd because the lactic acid produced here first
neutralises the pH then the pH is reduced to turn milk to curd.
13. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?
Solution: Plaster of Paris should be stored in moisture-proof container because moisture can
affect plaster of Paris by slowing down the setting of the plaster because of hydration. This will
turn plaster useless.
14. What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.

Solution: The reaction of the acid + base gives a product of salt + water, which is considered
as neutralization reaction.
Examples:
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Mg(OH)2 + H2CO3 → MgCO3 + 2H2O
15. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Solution:
Washing soda Baking soda
1. It can be used to test the garden soil for

1. It is used as an electrolyte acidity. If bubbles are developed then the soil
Is too acidic
2. If used on washing car then it will

2. It can be used domestically as water
remove dead bug bodies without damaging
softener for laundry.
the colour or the paint on the car.
NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

Page number 40
1. Give an example of a metal which

(i) Is a liquid at room temperature?
(ii) Can be easily cut with a knife?
(iii) Is the best conductor of heat?
(iv) Is a poor conductor of heat?
Solution:
(i) Mercury is the metal which is liquid at room temperature
(ii) Sodium and potassium are the metals which can be cut with a knife
(iii) Silver is the best conductor of heat
(iv) Mercury is poor conductor of heat.
2. Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile.
Solution:
i. Metals which can be beaten to sheets are said to be malleable

ii. Metals which can be drawn into thin wires are said to be ductile

Page number 46
1. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?

Solution: Sodium is a reactive metals, if kept open it will react with oxygen to explore and
catch fire. Sodium metal is kept immersed in kerosene to prevent their reaction with oxygen,
moisture and carbon dioxide of air.
2. Write equations for the reactions of

(i) iron with steam

(ii) calcium and potassium with water
Solution: (i) Iron reacts with steam to form a magnetic oxide of Fe with the liberation of H2.
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
(ii) Calcium reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen.
Ca(s) + 2H2O(I) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)
Potassium reacts with cold water violently immediately with evolution of H2 which catches
fire.
2K(s) + 2H2O(I) → 2KOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
3. Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following
solution one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows
Metal Iron(II) Copper(II) Zinc Silver Nitrate
sulphate sulphate sulphate
A No reaction Displacement - -
B Displacement - - -
C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement
D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction
Use the Table above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D.
(i) Which is the most reactive metal?

(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of Copper (II)
sulphate?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.
Solution:
(i) Metal B is the most reactive as it gives displacement reaction with iron (II) sulphate.
(ii) When metal B is added to copper (II) sulphate solution, a displacement reaction will take
place because of which the blue colour of copper (II) sulphate solution will fade and a red-
brown deposit of copper will be formed on metal B.
(iii)Metal B is the most reactive because it displaces iron from its salt solution. Metal A is less
reactive because it displaces copper from its salt solution. Metal C is still less reactive because it
can displace only silver from its salt solution and metal D is the least reactive because it cannot
displace any metal from its salt solution. Hence, the decreasing order of reactivity of the metals
is B > A > C > D.
4. Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive

metal? Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
Solution: Hydrogen gas is liberated when dilute HCl is added to a reactive metal.
Fe(s) + H2SO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + H2(g)
5. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate?
Write the chemical reaction that takes place.
Solution: Zinc is more reactive (more electro positive) than iron. Therefore Zinc displaces
Iron from its salt solution. The colour of ferrous sulphate is pale green, which turns colourless.
FeSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Fe(s)

Light green Zinc sulphate(Colourless)
In-text questions set 3 Page number 49
1. (i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium and oxygen.
(ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(iii)What are the ions present in these compounds?
Solution: (i) Sodium:

Oxygen:
Oxygen:
(ii) Formation of Magnesium oxide:
When magnesium reacts with oxygen, the magnesium atom transfers its two outermost
electrons to an oxygen atom. By losing two electrons, the magnesium atoms form a magnesium
ion (Mg2+) and by gaining two electrons, the oxygen atom forms an oxide ion (O2-).
Mg: + → MgO
Formation of Sodium oxide:
Two sodium atoms transfer their 2 outermost electrons to an oxygen atom. By losing two
electrons, the two sodium atoms form sodium ions (2Na+). And by gaining two electrons,
the oxygen atom forms an oxide ion (O2-).
(iii) The ions present in sodium oxide compound (Na2O) are sodium ions (2Na+) and oxide
ions (O2-).
The ions present in Magnesium oxide compound (MgO) are magnesium ions Mg2+ and oxide
ions (O2-).
2. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?

Solution: Ionic compounds are the ones which has both positive and negative charges. Hence
there will be strong force of attraction between them. This make expenditure of lot of heat to
break this force of attraction hence ionic compounds have high melting points.

Page number 53
1. Define the following terms.
(i) Mineral
(ii) Ore
(iii) Gangue
Solution:
(i) Minerals are compounds (also known as elements) which are found naturally in the
earth’s crust. E.g. Alums, K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O, etc.
(ii) Ores are minerals from which metal can be extracted Ex: Bauxite Al2O3.2H2O is the ore
of Al, copper pyrite CuFeS2.All minerals are not considered as ores but all ores are also
minerals.
(iii) Ores mined from the earth are naturally contaminated with sand, rocky materials. There
are impurities present in the ore which are known as gangue.
2. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state
Solution: Gold and platinum are the two metals found in Free State in nature.
3. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
Reduction method is used to obtain metal from its oxide. Ex: Zinc oxide is reduced to metallic
zinc by Heating with carbon.
ZnO + C → Zn + CO
Ex: Lead oxide is reduced to lead by heating with carbon

PbO +C → Pb + CO

Page number 55
1. Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were heated with the following
metals.
Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc Oxide
Magnesium
Oxide
Copper Oxide
Solution:
A more reactive metal can displace a less reactive metal from its oxide. Among Zinc,
Magnesium, and Copper metals, magnesium is the most reactive, copper is the least reactive
metal and zinc is less reactive .The displacement reaction will take place in the following cases
Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc Oxide - Displacement -
Magnesium Oxide - - -
Copper Oxide Displacement Displacement -
2. Which metals do not corrode easily?
Solution: Gold and platinum are the metals which do not corrode easily
3. What are alloys?

Solution: An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-
metal.
Exercise questions
Page number 56-57
1. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal

(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal
(d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal
Solution: Option d i.e AgNO3 solution and copper is correct answer. Copper displace the
silver cations (reducing them to the elemental metal), in the process copper itself being
oxidised to Copper II cations (Cu2+) and going into solution. So silver metal precipitating out
and a copper II nitrate solution will be remaining.
Cu(s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)
2. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan
from rusting?
a) Applying grease
b) Applying paint
c) Applying a coating of zinc
d) All of the above
Solution: Answer is (c) Applying a coat of Zinc
Though applying grease and applying paint prevents iron from rusting but we cannot apply
these methods on frying pan hence applying a coat of Zinc is most appropriate method to
prevent an iron pan from rusting.
3. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point.
This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be
(a) Calcium
(b) Carbon
(c) Silicon
(d) Iron
Solution: Correct answer is option (a) i.e Calcium.

Calcium reacts with oxygen to give calcium oxide. Calcium oxide is soluble in water to give
Calcium Hydroxide.
Carbon forms carbon-oxide with oxygen which is gas hence option B is wrong
Silicon reacts with oxygen and forms silicon dioxide. This is insoluble in water. So option C is
not correct.
Iron reacts with oxygen and forms Iron dioxide. This is insoluble in water. So option D is not
correct.
4. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
(a) Zinc is costlier than tin.

(b) Zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
(c) Zinc is more reactive than tin.
(d) Zinc is less reactive than tin.
Solution: Answer is c. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because Zinc is more
reactive that is electro positive than tin.
5. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a switch.
(a) How could you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-
metals?
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non-
metals.
Solution:
(a) Metals are malleable and can be easily drown into sheets by hitting with hammer. On
the other hand if we beat non-metals they break down and they cannot be drawn into
sheets as they are non-malleable. Metals of good conductors of electricity hence they
make bulb when you connect metals with a battery, wire and bulb. Similarly If non-
metals are bad conductors of electricity chance they fail to lit up the bulb on connecting
with wire and battery.
(b) These experiments can be helpful to demonstrate the malleability and electric
conductivity of the metals and non-metals
6. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of amphoteric oxides
Solution: Oxides that react with both acids and bases to form salt and water are known as
amphoteric oxides. Examples: PbO and Al2O3.
Amphoteric oxides are the one which reacts with both acids and bases to form salt and water.
Examples: Lead oxide - PbO and Aluminium oxide - Al2O3.
7. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids, and two
metals which will not.
Solution: Zinc (Zn) and Magnesium (Mg) are the two metals which will displace Hydrogen
from dilute acids as they are very reactive metals. Gold (Au) and Silver (Ag) are the metals
which will not replace Hydrogen from dilute acids as these metals are less reactive.
8. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you take as the anode, the
cathode and the electrolyte?
Solution: In the process of electrolytic refining of metal called ‘M’, An impure and thick block
of metal M. is considered as anode, Thin strip or wire of pure metal M is taken as anode A
suitable salt solution of metal M is considered as the electrolyte.
9. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas
evolved by inverting a test tube over it, as shown in figure below.
(a) What will be the action of gas on
(i) dry litmus paper?
(ii) moist litmus paper?

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.
Solution: a) When sulphur powder is burnt in the air sulphur-di-oxide is formed.

(i) Sulphur-di-oxide does not have any effect on dry litmus paper.
(ii) Sulphur-di-oxide turn the moist litmus paper from blue to red as contact of SO2 with water
turns to sulfurous acid.
(b) S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g)

SO2(g) + H2O →H2SO3
10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.

Solution:
1. Iron can be prevented from rusting by coating the surface of the iron with rust proof
paints
2. By applying Oil/grease on the surface of iron objects as it will prevent the iron
surface to get in contact with air consisting of moisture.
11. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
Solution: When non-metals combine with oxygen it forms either acidic or neutral oxides. Ex:
N2O5 or N2O3 is an acidic oxide; CO is a neutral oxide.
12. Give reasons
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
(c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for
cooking.
(d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the
process of extraction
Solution:
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery for these metals are very less
reactive hence they are not affected by air, water or most chemicals. These metals have a
lot of lustre and they are malleable and ductile in nature.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium readily reacts with water to produce a lot of heat. As a
result Hydrogen evolved in the reaction results in fire. On exposure to water they react
with moisture (water droplets) present in the atmosphere, In order to prevent contact
with water hence these metals are stored under oil.
13. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or
tamarind juice. Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the
vessels.
Solution: Tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind because these sour
substance contains acids which dissolve the coating of copper oxide or basic copper carbonate
present on the surface or tarnished copper vessels. This makes them shining red-brown again.
Hence they are very effective in cleaning tarnished copper vessels.
14. Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the basis of their chemical
properties.
Solution:
Metals Non-metals
When metals are heated with oxygen, they When non-Metals are heated with oxygen,
form ionic oxides which are basic in nature they form covalent oxides which are acidic
and form bases on dissolving with water. in nature which form acid on dissolving with
This turn red litmus paper to blue. water. This turn blue litmus paper to red.
They are electro positive, lose electrons They are electro negative, gain electrons and
readily and become a positive ion. become negative ions.
Non-metals are non-lustrous; graphite is the

Metals are lustrous.
exception
Reducing agents. Good oxidizing agents.
Non-metals are non-conductors of

Metals are the good conductors of electricity
electricity and heat; graphite is the
and heat.
exception
Non-metals are in solid-liquid and gaseous

All metals are solids except mercury.
states
15. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the
glitter of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold
bangles to him which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like
new but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but after a futile
argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find out the
nature of the solution he had used?
Solution: Goldsmith used the solution called Aqua regia which is called as royal water in
Latin. It is the mixture of concentrated Hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the
ratio of 3:1. Aqua regia is capable of dissolving noble metals like gold and platinum. When
upper-layer of dull gold ornament is dissolved they lose their weight.
16. Give reasons why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an
alloy of iron).
Solution: Copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron) because
copper does not reacts with either water or steam whereas iron reacts with steams to corrode
the tank.
NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds
1. What would be the electron dot structure of carbon dioxide which has the
formula CO2?
Solution:
2. What would be the electron dot structure of a molecule of Sulphur which is

made up of eight atoms of Sulphur? (Hint – The eight atoms of Sulphur are joined
together in the form of a ring).
Solution:
1. How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?
Solution: Structural isomer of pentane are

n-pentane
2-methylbutane
2, 2-dimethylpropane
2. What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of
carbon compounds we see around us?
Solution: Two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds
we see around us are
• Carbon has six valence electrons which are actually a high number of valency.
• Covalent bonding happens easily with carbon atoms and numerous others such as
oxygen, chlorine, nitrogen, Sulphur, hydrogen and etc.
3. What will be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane?
Solution:
4. Draw the structures for the following compounds.

(i) Ethanoic acid
(ii) Bromopentane*
(iii) Butanone
(iv) Hexanal
Solution: i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
5. How would you name the following compounds?

(i) CH3—CH2—Br
(ii)
(iii)
Solution:
(i) Bromoethane
(ii) Methanal or Formaldehyde
(iii) 1 - Hexyne
1. Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid an oxidation reaction?
Solution:
Conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid involves the removal of Hydrogen atom and addition of
oxygen it is an oxidation reaction. In first step a H2 molecule is removed from ethanol to form
ethanal. As loss of Hydrogen is oxidation so, the reaction is an oxidation reaction. Similarly
Oxygen atom is added to form ethanoic acid from ethanal. As, gain of Oxygen is called
oxidation so, the reaction is an oxidation reaction.
2. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can you tell why a
mixture of ethyne and air is not used?
Solution: A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding instead of mixture of ethyne
and air because the production of heat is very important for welding metals. When oxygen and
ethyne are burnt, it burns completely and produces a higher temperature than air and ethyne.
Oxygen and ethyne produce very hot blue flame but the mixture of air and ethyne gives out a
sooty flame which means that there are unburnt particles resulting in lesser heat.
In text questions set 4 Page number 74
1. How would you distinguish experimentally between an alcohol and a carboxylic

acid?
Solution: On reaction with Sodium Carbonate, Carboxylic acids produces carbon dioxide gas
which turns lime water milky whereas alcohols do not give this reaction. This experiment can
be used to distinguish an alcohol and carboxylic acid.
Reaction of Carboxylic acid with sodium carbonate:

2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → 2CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
2. What are oxidising agents?

Solution: Oxidising agents are those compounds which either removes Hydrogen or adds
oxygen to a compound. Ex: halogens, potassium nitrate, and nitric acid.
In text questions set 5 Page number 76
1. Would you be able to check if water is hard by using a detergent?
Solution: It is not possible to check if water is hard by using a detergent because detergents
are salts of ammonium or sulphonates of long chain carboxylic acids. Unlike soaps they do not
react with calcium and magnesium to distinguish nature of water.
2. People use a variety of methods to wash clothes. Usually after adding the soap,
they ‘beat’ the clothes on a stone, or beat it with a paddle, scrub with a brush or
the mixture is agitated in a washing machine. Why is agitation necessary to get
clean clothes?
Solution: Agitation is necessary to get clean clothes as agitation aid soap micelles to trap the
oil, grease or any other impurities that have to be removed. When they are being beaten or
agitated, the particles are removed from the clothes’ surfaces and go into the water, thus
cleaning the clothes.
Exercise questions Page number 77-78
1. Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has

(a) 6 covalent bonds.
(b) 7 covalent bonds.
(c) 8 covalent bonds.
(d) 9 covalent bonds
Solution: Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has 7 covalent bonds
2. Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group

(a) carboxylic acid
(b) aldehyde
(c) ketone
(d) alcohol
Solution: Answer is option C i.e Ketone.
3. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it
means that
(a) the food is not cooked completely.
(b) the fuel is not burning completely.
(c) the fuel is wet.
(d) the fuel is burning completely.
Solution: Answer is option b. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened
on the outside indicates that the fuel is not burning completely.
4. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation in CH3Cl
Solution: Carbon can neither lose 4 electrons nor do gain four electrons as these process
make the system unstable due to requirement of extra energy. Therefore CH3Cl completes its
octet configuration by sharing its 4 electrons with carbon atoms or with atoms of other
elements. Hence the bonding that exists in CH3Cl is a covalent bonding.
Here, carbon requires 4 electrons to complete its octet, while each hydrogen atom requires one
electron to complete its duplet. Also, chlorine requires an electron to complete the octet.
Therefore, all of these share the electrons and as a result, carbon forms 3 bonds with hydrogen
and one with chlorine.
5. Draw the electron dot structures for

(a) ethanoic acid
(b) H2 S
(c) propanone
(d) F2
Solution:
a)
b)
c)
d)
6. What is a homologous series? Explain with an example.

A homologous series is a series of compounds, which has the same functional group. This also
contains similar general formula and chemical properties. Since there is a change in the
physical properties, we can say that there would be an increase in the molecular size and mass.
For example, methane, ethane, propane, butane, etc. are all part of the alkane homologous
series. The general formula of this series is CnH2n+2. Methane CH4 Ethane CH3CH3 Propane
CH3CH2CH3 Butane CH3CH2CH2CH3. It can be noticed that there is a difference of −CH2 unit
between each successive compound.
7. How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be differentiated on the basis of their
physical and chemical properties?
Solution:
Ethanol Ethanoic acid
Does not react with sodium hydrogen Bubbles and fizzes with sodium hydrogen
carbonate carbonate
A good smell Smells like vinegar
No action in litmus paper Blue litmus paper to red
Burning taste Sour taste
8. Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Will a
micelle be formed in other solvents such as ethanol also?
Solution: Micelle formation takes place because of the dirt particles in water and clean water.
There are two mediums that are involved: one is pure water and the other being dirt (also
called as impurities). The soap also has two mediums:
(i) organic tail and

(ii) ionic head
So the organic tail mixes and dissolves with the dirt whereas the oil or grease and ionic head
dissolves and mixes with the water. Therefore, when the material to be cleaned is removed
from the water, the dirt is taken off by the soap molecules in the water. Hence, the soap cleans
by forming closed structures by the mutual repulsion of the micelles (positively charged heads).
9. Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most applications?
Solution: Carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most applications for they have high
calorific values and give out a lot of energy. Most of the carbon compounds give a lot of heat
and light when burnt in air.
10. Explain the formation of scum when hard water is treated with soap?
Solution: Scrum is produced from reaction of hard water with soap. Calcium and magnesium
present in the hard water form an insoluble precipitate that stick as a white which is also called
as scrum.
11. What change will you observe if you test soap with litmus paper (red and
blue)?
Solution: When we test soap with litmus paper color of litmus paper turns blue from red. As
soap is a base it turn red litmus paper into blue.
12. What is hydrogenation? What is its industrial application?
Solution: Hydrogenation is a process or a chemical reaction between hydrogen and other

compounds. It is usually done in the presence of catalysts: for example nickel, palladium or
platinum. Hydrogenation is used mainly to saturate organic compounds.
13. Which of the following hydrocarbons undergo addition reactions: C2H6, C3H8,
C3H6, C2H2 and CH4.
Solution: Unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition reactions. C3H6 and C2H2 are
unsaturated hydrocarbons which undergo addition reactions.
14. Give a test that can be used to differentiate between saturated and
unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Solution: Bromine water test - is used to differentiate between the unsaturated compounds
(like alkenes and alkynes) and the saturated compounds. For this purpose, bromine is used in
the form of bromine water. A solution of bromine in water is called bromine water. Bromine
water has a red-brown color due to the presence of bromine in it. When bromine water is
added to an unsaturated compound, then bromine gets added to the unsaturated compound
and the red-brown color of bromine water is discharged. So, if an organic compound
decolorizes bromine water, then it will be an unsaturated hydrocarbon (containing a double
bond or a triple bond), but saturated hydrocarbon (alkanes) do not decolorize bromine water.
Bromine water test is perform to differentiate between the unsaturated compounds (like
alkenes and alkynes) and the saturated compounds. Bromine water is added to an un-saturated
hydrocarbon red brown color of bromine solution is discharged. Si if there is dis-coloration
then the compound will be an unsaturated Hydrocarbon.
15. Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps.
Solution: There are so many impurities and dirt mixed in water, and most of all the dirt do
not dissolve in the water. Soap molecules are a combination of salts such as sodium or
potassium. The molecules are of a long chain of carboxylic acids. So, when the carbon chain is
dissolved in oil and the ionic end is dissolved in the water, the soap starts cleansing and
trapping the dirt. When this happens, the soap molecules form structures that are called
micelles are used for capturing the oil droplets and then the other end being the ionic faces.
This will then form an emulsion in water and help in dissolving the dirt or impurities when the
clothes are washed.
The soap molecules have different properties at different ends. The first end being the
hydrophilic end which dissolves in the water and is attracted towards the water and the second
one being the hydrophobic end is dissolved in the hydrocarbons and is repulsive to water. The
hydrophobic tail aligns itself along the surface of the water because it is not soluble in the
water.
NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 -
Periodic Classification of Elements
Questions Page number 81

1. Did Döbereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of Newlands’ Octaves? Compare
and find out.
Solution:
Döbereiner’s triads did exist in the columns of Newlands’ Octaves; For example, the
elements
Lithium (Li), Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) constitute a Dobereiner’s Triad but are also
found in the second column of Newland’s Octaves.
2. What were the limitations of Döbereiner’s classification?

Solution:
(i) They were not applicable for very low mass or very high mass elements.
(ii) All the elements couldn’t fit into Dobereiner’s triads.
(iii) As the methods to calculate atomic mass improved, Dobereiner’s triads validity
began to decrease. For example, in the triad of F, Cl and Br, the arithmetic mean of
atomic masses of F and Br are not equal to the atomic mass of CI.
3. What were the limitations of Newlands’ Law of Octaves?

Solution:
 Limitations of Newlands’ Law of Octaves are as follows

 Newlands’ Law of Octaves applicable to elements up to Calcium
 Newland assumed there are 56 elements in the nature and no more elements would
be discovered in the future.
 To fit elements into table Newland put two elements into one slot. Newland
introduced unlike elements with different properties into one column.
 Iron (Fe) was placed away from elements that resembles in properties. Ex: Nickel
and cobalt

1. Use Mendeleev’s Periodic Table to predict the formulae for the oxides of the
following elements: K, C, AI, Si, Ba.
Solution:
K- K2O
C-C2O4 or CO2
Al- Al2O3
Si-Si2O4 or SiO2
Ba2O2 or BaO
Oxygen is a member of group VI A in Mendeleev's periodic table. Its valency is 2.

Similarly. The valencies of all the elements listed can be predicted from their respective
groups. This will help in writing the formulae of their oxides.
(i) Potassium (K) is a member of group IA. Its valency is 1. Therefore, the formula of it is
K2O.
(ii) Carbon (C) is a member of group IV A. Its valency is 4. Therefore, the formula of it is
C2O4 or CO2.
(iii) Aluminium (Al) belongs to groups III A and its valency is 3. The formula of its oxide
is Al2O3.
(iv) Silicon (Si) is present in group IV A after carbon. Its valency is also 4. The formula
oxide is Si2O4 or SiO2.
(v) Barium (Ba) belongs to group II A and the valency of the element is 2. The formula
of oxide of the element is Ba2O2 or BaO.
2. Besides gallium, which other elements have since been discovered that were left
by Mendeleev in his Periodic Table? (Any two)
Solution:
Germanium and Scandium are the element that are left by Mendeleev in his Periodic
Table since its discovery.
3. What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?
Solution:
Mendeleev concentrated on various compounds formed by the elements with Hydrogen

and
Oxygen. Among physical properties, he observed the relationship between the atomic
masses
of various elements while creating his periodic table.
4. Why do you think the noble gases are placed in a separate group?
Solution:
Noble gases are placed in a separate group because of their inert nature and low
concentration in our atmosphere. They are kept in a separate group called Zero group so
that they don’t disturb the existing order.

1. How could the Modern Periodic Table remove various anomalies of Mendeleev’s
Periodic Table?
Solution:
(a) In the Modern Periodic table elements are arranged in the increasing order of their
atomic number. This removes the anomaly regarding certain pairs of elements in
Mendeleev’s periodic table.
(b) Atomic number of cobalt is 27 and nickel is 28. Hence cobalt will come before nickel
even though its atomic mass is greater.
c) All isotopes of the same elements have different atomic masses, but same atomic
number; therefore they are placed in the same position in the modern periodic table.
2. Name two elements you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to
magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?
Solution:
Calcium and Beryllium are similar to Magnesium because all the three elements belong
to the same group and have 2 valence electrons in their outer shell.
3. Name
(a) Three elements that have a single electron in their outermost shells.
(b) Two elements that have two electrons in their outermost shells.
(c) Three elements with filled outermost shells
Solution:
(a) Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na) and potassium (k) have a single electron in their
outermost shells.
(b) Magnesium (Mg) and Calcium (Ca) have two electrons in their outermost shells
(c) Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar and Xenon (Xe) filled outermost shells
4. a) Lithium, sodium, potassium are all metals that react with water to liberate
hydrogen gas. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements?
(b) Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What,
if anything, do their atoms have in common?
Solution:
They’ve one valence electron in their outermost shells and as a result of this, they are
very unstable. So, they readily react with water to liberate hydrogen. They are also called
alkali metals.
Their outermost shells are full leading to high stability. They react only in extreme
circumstances and hence are called noble gases.
5. In the Modern Periodic Table, which are the metals among the first ten elements?
Solution:
Lithium and Beryllium are the metals among the first ten elements in Modern Periodic
Table.
6. By considering their position in the Periodic Table, which one of the following
elements would you expect to have maximum metallic characteristic? Ga Ge As Se
Be
Solution:
Among the elements listed in the question. Be and Ga are expected to be most
metallic. Out of Be and Ga, Ga is bigger in size and hence has greater tendency to
lose electrons than Be. Therefore, Ga is more metallic than Be.
Exercise questions Page number 91-92

1. Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends
when going from left to right across the periods of periodic Table.
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(d) The oxides become more acidic
Solution:
Correct answer is c .The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
The atoms lose their electrons more easily is a wrong statement because as we move from
left to right across the periods of the periodic table, the non-metallic character increases.
Therefore tendency to lose an electron decreases.
2. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with a high
melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as (a)
Na (b) Mg (c) AI (d) Si
Solution:
Answer is Magnesium because Mg has the valency 2 which is same as the group (a) Na
(b) Mg (c) AI (d) Si
Also Mg when combines chloride forms MgCl2.
3. Which element has?

(a) Two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?
(b) The electronic configuration 2, 8, 2?
(c) A total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?
(d) A total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell?
(e) twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell?
Solution:
a) Neon has two shells which are completely filled.

b) Silicon has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2
c) Carbon has a total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell
d) Boron a total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell
e) Magnesium has twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell
4. (a) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as
boron have in common?
(b) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as
fluorine have in common?
Solution:
(a)All the elements which lie in me same column as that of boron belong to group 13.
Therefore, they have three electrons in their respective valence shells. Except, boron
which is a non-metal, all other elements (i.e., aluminum, gallium, indium and thallium) in
this group are metals.
(b) All elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as fluorine have in common
three electrons in their valence shell and they all are belong to group thirteen.
5. An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7.

(a) What is the atomic number of this element?
(b) To which of the following elements would it be chemically similar? (Atomic
numbers are given in parentheses.) N(7), F(9), P(15), Ar(18)
Solution:
(a)The element with electronic configuration (2+8+7) 17 is chlorine.

The no. of atomic number = no. of electrons
Therefore, atomic number is 17.
(b) An atom with electronic configuration 2, 8, 7 would be chemically similar to F (9)
6. The position of three elements A, B and C in the Periodic Table are shown below–
Group 16 Group 17
- -
- A
- -
B C
(a) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.
(b) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive than A.
(c) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B?
(d) Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by element A?
Solution:
(a) Element A is a non-metal

(b) Element C is less reactive than Element A
(c) C is smaller in size than B
(d) A will form anion
7. Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic number 15) belong to group
15 of the Periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of these two elements.
Which of these will be more electronegative? Why?
Solution:
Atomic number of Nitrogen is 7 hence Electronic configuration of Nitrogen is 1s2 2s2 2p3
Atomic number of Nitrogen is 15 hence Electronic configuration of Phosphorous is 1s2
2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
On moving down a group in the periodic table, the number of shell increases. Because of
which valence electrons move away from the electrons and the effective nuclear charge
decreases. This causes the decrease in the tendency to attract electron and hence electro
negativity decreases. Because of all these reasons Nitrogen is more electronegative than
phosphorus.
8. How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the
Modern Periodic Table?
Solution:
The number of valence electrons decides an atom’s position in the periodic table while
the electronic configuration decides the number of valence electrons.
9. In the Modern Periodic Table, calcium (atomic number 20) is surrounded by

elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical and
chemical properties resembling calcium?
Solution:
Calcium has an atomic number of 20, and thus has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 8,
2. Thus, calcium has 2 valence electrons. The electronic configuration of the element
having atomic number 12 is 2, 8.2. Thus, this element with 2 valence electrons resemble
calcium the most.
10. Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeleev’s Periodic

Table and the Modern Periodic Table.
Solution:
Mendeleev’s Periodic Table Modern Periodic Table
Elements are arranged in the increasing Elements are arranged in the increasing
order of their atomic masses. order of their atomic numbers.
There are 8 groups There are 18 groups
Each groups are subdivided into sub group Groups are not subdivided into sub-
'a' and 'b' groups.
Groups for Noble gas was not present as A separate group is meant for noble
noble gases were not discovered by that gases.
time
There was no place for isotopes. This problem has been rectified as slots
are determined according to atomic
number.
Life Processes

1. Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular
organisms like humans?
Solution:
Multi-cellular organism’s like humans have very big body and require a lot of oxygen to
diffuse into body quickly in order to meet the oxygen requirement. Diffusion is a slow
process which will take a lot of time to circulate oxygen to all the body cells. Because of
its slow nature diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular
organisms like humans.
2. What criteria do we use to decide whether something is alive?

Solution:
Walking, breathing, growth and other visible changes can be used to determine whether
something is alive or dead. However some living things will have changes that are not
visible to our eye; Hence, presence of life process is a fundamental criteria to decide
whether something is alive.
3. What are outside raw materials used for by an organism?

Solution:
Outside raw material is used by organism for food and oxygen. Raw materials
requirement varies on the complexity of the organism and the environment it is living.
4. What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life?

Solution:
Life processes such as respiration, digestion, excretion, circulation and transportation are
essential for maintain life.
Life Processes

1. What are the differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic
nutrition?
Solution:
Autotrophic Nutrition Heterotrophic Nutrition

Organism prepare its own food and is not Organism does not prepare its own food
dependent on any other organism. and dependent on other organism for food.
Food is prepared from co2, water, sunlight. Food cannot be prepared from co2, water,
sunlight.
Chlorophyll is required for food Chlorophyll is not required for food
preparation preparation
Green plants and certain bacteria have All the animals and fungi, most bacteria
autotrophic mode of nutrition. have heterotrophic mode of nutrition
2. Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis?
Solution:
Plants required the following raw material for photosynthesis
1. CO2 is obtained from atmosphere through stomata

2. Water is absorbed by plant roots from the soil.
3. Sunlight is an essential raw material for photosynthesis
4. Nutrients are obtained by soil by plant roots
3. What is the role of the acid in our stomach?

Solution:
HCL present in the stomach dissolves food particles and creates an acidic medium. In
acidic environment protein digesting enzymes pepsinogen is converted into pepsin. HCL
in the stomach also acts as protective barrier against many disease causing pathogens.
4. What is the function of digestive enzymes?

Solution:
Digestive enzymes breaks the complex food molecules into simpler ones. This will make
the food absorption process easy and effective. Absorbed food is transported to all parts
Life Processes
of the body by blood.
5. How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested food?

Solution:
Small intestine has small projections called as micro villi which increases the surface
volume which make absorption more effective. Within the villi there are numerous blood
vessels that absorb digested food and carry it to blood stream. Blood transports food to
each part of our body.
Life Processes

1. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with
regard to obtaining oxygen for respiration?
Solution:
Terrestrial organisms breathe by using atmospheric oxygen whereas aquatic organism

take oxygen dissolved in water. Oxygen level is high in atmosphere when compared to
oxygen in water. Hence terrestrial organism need not breathe fast to obtain organism
whereas aquatic organisms need to breathe faster to get required oxygen.
2. What are the different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in
various organisms?
Solution:
In cytoplasm Glucose is first broken down into two 3 carbon compounds called as
pyruvate by the process known as Glycolysis. Further breakdown takes place in different
organism by different processes.
3. How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings?

Solution:
Oxygen and Carbon-di-oxide is transported in human being via blood stream. Oxygen is
carried to the cells whereas carbon-di-oxide is carried away from the cells. Exchange of
gases takes place between the alveoli of lungs and the surrounding blood capillaries.
Life Processes
Oxygen is absorbed by the blood capillaries from the lungs alveoli by diffusion while
carbon-dioxide is absorbed by the lungs alveoli from blood capillaries by diffusion.
4. How are the lungs designed in human beings to maximize the area for exchange of
gases?
Solution:
 The lungs is an important part of the body. The passage inside the lungs divides
into smaller and smaller tubes, which finally terminate in balloon-like structures,
called as alveoli.
 The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The
walls of the alveoli usually contains an extensive network of blood vessels. We
know that, when we breathe in, we lift our ribs, flatten our diaphragm and chest
cavity becomes larger.
 Because of this action, air is sucked into the lungs and fills the expanded alveoli.
 The blood brings the essential carbon dioxide from rest of the body and supply it to
alveoli; the oxygen in the alveolar air is taken up by the blood in the alveolar blood
vessels to be transported to the all other cells of the body. During the normal
breathing cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a residual
volume of air so that there is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and carbon
dioxide to be released.
Life Processes

1. What are the components of the transport system in human beings? What are the
functions of these components?
Solution:
Heart, blood and blood vessels are the main components of transport system in human
beings.
Functions of these components

Heart
Heart pumps oxygenated blood throughout the body. It receives deoxygenated blood
from the various body parts and sends this impure blood to the lungs for oxygenation.
Blood
Blood transports oxygen, nutrients, CO2, and nitrogenous wastes.
Blood vessels
Blood vessels, arteries and veins carry blood to all parts of body.
2. Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals

and birds?
Solution:
Mammals and birds are warm blooded animals which keep their body temperature
constant irrespective of the environment they leave. This process require lot of oxygen
for more cellular respiration so that warm blooded animals produce more energy to
balance their body temperature. Hence it is very important for warm blooded animals to
separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to keep their circulatory system efficient.
3. What are the components of the transport system in highly organized plants?
Solution:
There are two types of conducting tissues in highly organized plants that carry out
transport system 1) Xylem 2) phloem. Xylem conduct water and minerals from roots to
rest of the plant parts. Similarly Phloem transports food materials from leaf to other parts
of the plant.
Life Processes
4. How are water and minerals transported in plants?

Solution:
Xylems parts tracheids and vessels of roots, stems and leaves are interconnected to form
a continuous system of water-conducting channels that reaches all parts of the plant.
Transpiration creates a suction pressure which forces water into xylem cells of roots.
After this, there will be a steady movement of water from the root xylem to all parts of
the plant connected through conducting interconnected water-conducting channels.
5. How is food transported in plants?

Solution:
Food is transported in plants by a special organ called as phloem. Phloem transports food
materials from leaf to different parts of a plant. Transportation of food in phloem is
achieved by the expenditure of ATP9 energy). This increases osmotic pressure in the
tissue causing water to move. This pressure moves material in the Phloem to the tissues
with less pressure. This is helping in transportation of food material as per the needs. Ex:
Sucrose
Life Processes

1. Describe the structure and functioning of nephrons
Solution:
Nephrons are the filtration units of the kidney which are large in numbers. Some
substances in the initial filtrate, such as glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount of
water, are selectively re-absorbed as the urine flows along the tube.
Main components of Nephrons are
Glomerulus
Bowman’s capsule
Long renal Tube
Structure of Nephron
Life Processes
Functioning of Nephron
 The blood enters the kidney through the renal artery, which branches into many
capillaries associated with glomerulus.
 The water and solute are transferred to the nephron at Bowman's capsule.
 In the proximal tubule, some substances such as amino acids, glucose, and salts are
selectively reabsorbed and unwanted molecules are added in the urine.
 The filtrate then moves down into the loop of Henle, where more water is
absorbed. From here, the filtrate moves upwards into the distal tubule and finally to
the collecting duct. Collecting duct collects urine from many nephrons.
 The urine formed in each kidney enters a long tube called ureter. From ureter, it
gets transported to the urinary bladder and then into the urethra.
2. What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
Solution:
Plants can get rid of excess water by transpiration.
For other wastes, plants use the fact that many of their tissues consist of dead cells, and
that they can even lose some parts such as leaves. Many plant waste products are stored
in cellular vacuoles. Waste products may be stored in leaves that fall off.
Other waste products are stored as resins and gums, especially in old xylem. Plants also
excrete some waste substances into the soil around them.
3. How is the amount of urine produced regulated?

Solution:
Amount of urine produced depends on the amount of excess water and dissolved waste
present in the body. Other factors may be environment and ADH hormone which
regulates the production of urine.
Life Processes

1. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for
(a) nutrition
(b) respiration.
(c) excretion.
(d) transportation
Solution:
Answer is (c) excretion
The excretory system of human beings (Fig. 6.13) includes a pair of kidneys, a pair of
ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra. Kidneys are located in the abdomen, one on
either side of the backbone. Urine produced in the kidneys passes through the ureters into
the urinary bladder where it is stored until it is released through the urethra.
2. The xylem in plants are responsible for

(a) transport of water .
(b) transport of food.
(c) transport of amino acids.
(d) transport of oxygen.
Solution:
In plants Xylem is responsible for transport of water hence the answer is a)
3. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires

(a) carbon dioxide and water.
(b) chlorophyll.
(c) sunlight.
(d) all of the above.
Solution:
Autotrophic mode of nutrition requires carob-di-oxide, water, chlorophyll and sunlight

from the preparation of food hence the answer is d) all of the above.
4. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place
in
(a) cytoplasm.
Life Processes
(b) mitochondria.
(c) chloroplast.
(d) nucleus
Solution:
The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in
mitochondria. Hence the answer is (b) mitochondria
5. How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
Solution:
 The small intestine is the place for complete digestion of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins. It receives the secretions of the liver and pancreas for this purpose.
 The food coming from the stomach is usually acidic in nature and it has to be made
alkaline so that pancreatic enzymes can act on it. Bile juice produced in the liver
accomplish this process.
 Fats are usually present in the intestine in the form of larger globules, which makes
it difficult for enzymes to act on them. The bile salts helps in breaking down larger
globules into smaller globules. The pancreas helps in secreting pancreatic juice,
which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins and lipase for breaking
down emulsified fats.
 The walls of the small intestine contains glands, which secretes intestinal juice.
The enzymes present in it finally converts the proteins to amino acids, complex
carbohydrates into glucose and finally fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
6. What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food?

Solution:
Food we intake is complex in nature, if it is to be absorbed from the alimentary
canal then it has to be broken into smaller molecules. This process is mainly done
with the help of biological catalysts called enzymes. The saliva contains an enzyme
called salivary amylase that breaks down starch, which is a complex molecule to
give sugar. The food is mixed thoroughly with saliva and moved around the mouth
while chewing the muscular tongue. Hence saliva plays a pivotal in digestion and
absorption of food.
Life Processes
7. What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its
byproducts?
Solution:
 The energy and carbon requirements of the autotrophic organism is obtained by the
process of photosynthesis.
 It is defined as the process by which autotrophs take in substances from the outside
surroundings and convert them into stored forms of energy.
 This substance is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and water, which is
converted into carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
 The main purpose of carbohydrates is to provide energy to the plant. The
carbohydrates are not utilized immediately; but they are stored in the form of
starch, which serves as an internal energy reserve.
 The stored energy can be used as and when required by the plant.
8. What are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some
organisms that use the anaerobic mode of respiration?
Solution:
Aerobic respiration
 The process takes place in the presence of free oxygen

 The products of aerobic respiration are CO 2, water and energy.
 The first step of aerobic respiration (glycolysis) takes place in cytoplasm while the
next step takes place in mitochondria.
 The process of aerobic respiration takes place in all higher organisms.
 In this process complete oxidation of glucose takes place.
Anaerobic respiration
 The process takes place in the absence of the free oxygen.

 The products of anaerobic respiration are ethyl alcohol, CO 2 and a little energy.
 Even in anaerobic respiration, the first step takes place in cytoplasm while the next
step takes place in mitochondria.
 In this process the glucose molecules is incompletely broken down.
Life Processes
 The process of anaerobic respiration takes place in lower organism like yeast, some
species of bacteria and parasites like tapeworm.
9. How are the alveoli designed to maximize the exchange of gases?

Solution:
 The lung is an important part of the body. The passage inside the lungs divides into
smaller and smaller tubes, which finally terminate in balloon-like structures, called
as alveoli.
 The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The
walls of the alveoli usually contains an extensive network of blood vessels. We
know that, when we breathe in, we lift our ribs, flatten our diaphragm and chest
cavity becomes larger.
 Because of this action, air is sucked into the lungs and fills the expanded alveoli.
 The blood brings the essential carbon dioxide from rest of the body and supply it to
alveoli; the oxygen in the alveolar air is taken up by the blood in the alveolar blood
vessels to be transported to the all other cells of the body. During normal breathing
cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a residual volume
of air so that there is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and carbon dioxide
to be released.
10. What would be the consequences of a deficiency of hemoglobin in our bodies?

Solution:
Hemoglobin is a protein responsible for transportation of oxygen to the body cells for
cellular respiration. Deficiency of Hemoglobin can affect the oxygen carrying capacity of
RBC’S. This lead to lack of oxygen in our body cells. Hemoglobin deficiency leads to a
disease called as anemia.
11. Describe double circulation of blood in human beings. Why is it necessary?

Solution:
Double circulation means, in a single cycle blood goes twice in the heart. The process
helps in separating oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to maintain a constant body
temperature.
Life Processes
The double circulatory system of blood includes
 Pulmonary circulation
 Systemic circulation.
Pulmonary circulation:
The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the lungs where it is oxygenated. The
oxygenated blood is brought back to the left atrium, from there it is pumped into the left
ventricle and finally blood goes into the aorta for systemic circulation.
Systemic circulation:
The oxygenated blood is pumped to various parts of the body from the left ventricle. The
deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body passes through vena cava to reach
right atrium. The right atrium transfers the blood into right ventricle.
12. What are the differences between the transport of materials in xylem and
phloem?
Solution:
Transport of materials in Xylem Transport of materials in phloem
Xylem tissue helps in the transport of water Phloem tissue helps in the transport of food
and minerals.
Water is transported upwards from roots to Food is transported in both upward and
all other plant parts. downward directions.
13. Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephrons in the kidneys
with respect to their structure and functioning.
Solution:
Alveoli Nephrons
Structure Structure
(i) Alveoli are tiny balloon-like structures (i) Nephrons are tubular structures present
present inside the lungs. inside the kidneys.
(ii) The walls of the alveoli are one cell (ii) Nephrons are made of glomerulus,
thick and it contains an extensive Bowman’s capsule, and a long renal tube.
Life Processes
network of blood capillaries.

Function Function
(i) The exchange of O2 and CO2 takes (i) The blood enters the kidneys through the
place between the blood of the capillaries renal artery. The blood is entered here and the
that surround the alveoli and the gases nitrogenous waste in the form of urine is
present in the alveoli. collected by collecting duct.
(ii) Alveoli are the site of gaseous
(ii) Nephrons are the basic filtration unit.
exchange.
Control and coordination

1. What is the difference between a reflex action and walking?
Solution:
Reflex action are the involuntary actions that occur in response to stimuli. They occur
without involvement of conscious areas of brain. All the reflex actions are unconscious
actions. Reflex action occurs brain and spinal cord of central nervous systems.
On the other hand voluntary actions are those which occur under the control of
cerebellum of the brain Walking is learnt as we grow. Walking is controlled by brain as is
used when required.
2. What happens at the synapse between two neurons?

Solution:
Between the synapse between two neurons electric signals are converted into chemicals
that can easily cross over the gap and pass on the chemical messenger to next neuron
where it is converted back to electrical signal.
3. Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body?
Solution:
Cerebellum which is a part of the brain is responsible for Controls the motor
functioning hence it is the part reengaged in the maintenance of posture and equilibrium
of the body.
4. How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti (incense stick)?

Solution:
Smell of an agarbatti is detected by Nose, olfactory receptors present in the nose sends
electrical signal to the fore brain. Fore brain interprets this signal as the incense stick to
be detected as smell.
5. What is the role of the brain in reflex action?

Solution:
Reflex actions are formed instantaneously in response to the stimulus that has no time to
think. For instance the sensory nerves that detect the heat are connected to the nerves that
move the muscles of the hand. Such a connection of detecting the signal from the nerves
(input) and responding to it quickly (output) is known as reflex arc.
Reflex action are generated in spinal cord and the information also reaches brain. This
helps the brain to record this event and remember it for future use. Brain helps the
person to get awareness of the stimulus and prevent himself from that situation again.

1. What are plant hormones?
Solution:
Plant hormones are the organic substances produces at certain sites of the plant and are
translocated to other parts based on the requirement. Plant hormones help to coordinate
growth, development and responses to the environment. Ex: Auxin’s Gibberlin’s,
cytokines, abscisic acid and ethylene.
2. How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement
of a shoot towards light?
Solution:
Sl. Movement of leaves of the sensitive plant Movement of a shoot

no towards light
1 It does not depend on the direction of stimulus Depends on the direction of
applied. stimulus applied.
2 Called as Nastic movement Called as tropic movement
3 Touch is the stimulus Light is the stimulus
4 Caused by the sudden loss of water from the Caused by the unequal
swellings at the base of leaves growth on the two sides of
the shoot.
5 Not a growth movement Growth movement
6 Occurs very fast Occurs slowly
3. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes growth

Solution:
Auxins and Gibberlins are the hormone responsible for the growth of plant.
Auxins are responsible for the cell elongation in shoot and also regulates growth.
Gibberlin is responsible for stem elongation and germination.
4. How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support?

Solution:
Auxins are the plant hormones produces at the tip of a shoot and root. Auxins are present
at the tip of tendrils. When tendrils are attached around any support their growth is
slowed down as auxins are sensitive to touch. This make them move to the other side of
the tip to get support this makes the other side grow faster than the side of tendril in
contact with the support and the tendril bends towards the support.
5. Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.

Solution:
To demonstrate hydrotropism in plants.

Procedure :
i. Plant a seedling in a vessel containing soil.
ii. Adjacent to the seedling put a porous pot containing water.
iii. Leave the set up for few days.
Observation :
iv. On examining the roots it is observed that the roots bend towards the source of
water and do not grow straight.
result :
It confirms that plant shows hydrotropism as the roots bend towards the porous pot of
water. As hydrotropism is a plant growth response in which the direction of growth is
determined by a stimulus of gradient in water concentration.

1. How does chemical coordination take place in animals?
Solution:
Chemical coordination takes place in animals with the help of chemical messengers
called as Hormones. Hormones are the chemic fluids that are secreted by specific glands
of the endocrine gland. Hormones regulate the growth, development and homeostasis of
the animals.
2. Why is the use of iodized salt advisable?

Solution:
Usage of Iodized salt is advisable to avoid the deficiency of Iodine. If the intake of iodine
is low, the release of thyroxine from the thyroid gland will be decreased. This affects fat,
carbohydrate and protein metabolism
Thus a person may have goitre problem in case if the intake of iodine is lowered.
3. How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood?
Solution:
4. Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?

Solution:
Diabetes is a condition where insulin hormone is produced less or stopped by pancreatic

cells of a person. Insulin regulates blood glucose by converting extra glucose to
glycogen. When insulin is not produced adequately person blood glucose level which
leads to adverse effects. In order to maintain the insulin and blood glucose level diabetes
patients are treated with injections of insulin.
Exercise Questions Page number 126
1. Which of the following is a plant hormone?

(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinin
Solution:
Answer is d) cytokinin.
Cytokinin is a plant hormone whereas Insulin, Thyroxin, Oestrogen are the hormones
produced by animals.
2. The gap between two neurons is called a

(a) Dendrite.
(b) Synapse.
(c) Axon.
(d) Impulse.
Solution:
Answer is (b) Synapse
Dendrite is a short branched extension of a nerve cell, along which impulses received
from other cells at synapses are transmitted to the cell body.
An axon or nerve fiber is a long, slender projection of a nerve cell or neuron in

vertebrates that typically conducts electrical impulses known as action potentials away
from the nerve cell body. The function of the axon is to transmit information to different
neurons, muscles, and glands.
Impulse an electrical signal that travels along axon.
3. The brain is responsible for

(a) Thinking.
(b) Regulating the heartbeat.
(c) Balancing the body.
(d) all of the above.
Solution:
Answer is (d) all the above

Brain is responsible for thinking, brain regulates the heartbeat, and it balance the body.
4. What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situations where

receptors do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Solution:
Receptors are present throughout our body mainly sense organs. Receptors collect the
information about changes that happen around us and send the signal to information to
brain which render effector mechanism against the change. When receptors do not work
properly, the environmental stimuli are not able to create nerve impulses and body does
not respond.
5. Draw the structure of a neuron and explain its function.

Solution:
Neurons are nerve cells which are functional units of the nervous system. Three main
parts of neurons are Dendrites, Axons and cell body.
Dendrite: Detects information and sends it to cell body

Cell Body: Maintains growth of the cell
Axon: Conducts messages away from cell body and signal to next neuron.
6. How does phototropism occur in plants?

Solution:
Directional movement and growth of plant in response to light is called as phototropism.

Phototropism occurs due to increased auxin on the dark side and decreased auxin on the
illuminated side. Because of presence of more auxin, leaf in the darker side grows faster
causing it to bend towards the source of light.
7. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?

Solution:
In case of a spinal cord injury, signals coming from the nerves as well as the signals
coming to the receptors will be disrupted. Both these signals meet in a bundle in the
spinal cord. Hence, both these signals get disrupted.
8. How does chemical coordination occur in plants?

Solution:
Plant growth, development and responses to the environment is controlled and

coordinated by a special class of chemical substances known as hormones. Hormones are
produced in one part of the plant and are transported to all the needy parts of the plant.
The five major types of phytohormone are auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid,
and ethylene. These phytohormones are either growth promoters (such as auxins,
gibberellins, cytokinins, and ethylene) or growth inhibitors such as abscisic acid.
9. What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism?

Solution:
There are various organs in an organism. These organs must be carefully controlled and
coordinated for the survival of an organisms. In the body of an organism various fluids
are secreted from the glands of the endocrine system. These hormones are responsible for
the overall growth and development of an organism. All others daily decision that
includes voluntary and involuntary action are controlled by central nervous system
(CNS).
Coordination is needed for all human activities we perform. Our nervous system receives
information from surroundings which is processed and response is ilicited. The endocrine
system (hormonal system) helps in integrating various metabolic activities like
reproduction, development, and all reflex actions (cope up with various give up
situations).
The hormonal system in plants helps in process of photosynthesis; they need carbon
dioxide, water and sunlight. The stomatal opening in leaves opens up to allow in carbon
dioxide gas, the roots bend towards water and the stem grows towards sunlight, the
tendrils in climbing pants are supported by the hormonal system of the plant body.
Thus, we have need of control and coordination system in an organisms.
10. How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other?
Solution:
Reflex actions Involuntary actions

1. Rapid automatic responses to a stimulus 1. Occurs without the consciousness of
without the conscious involvement of the an organism
brain
2. Controlled by spinal cord 2. Controlled by mid brain or medulla
oblongata
3. Very quick and instantaneous 3. Relatively slower
4. May involve any muscle or a gland 4. Involves only smooth muscles
5. Can be conditioned 5. Cannot be influenced by external
conditioning
Examples: Blinking of eyes, salivation Examples: Beating of heart, blood
circulation
11. Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and
coordination in animals.
Solution:
Nervous control Hormonal Control

1 It is consist of nerve impulses 1 It consists of endocrine system which
between PNS, CNS and Brain. secretes hormones directly into
blood.
2 Here response time is very short. 2 Here response time is very long.
3 Nerve impulses are not specific in 3 Each hormone has specific actions.
their action.
4 The flow of information is rapid. 4 The flow of information is very slow.
12. What is the difference between the manner in which movement takes place in a
sensitive plant and the movement in our legs?
Solution:
Sl. Movement in sensitive plants Movement in our legs

no
1 The movement in a sensitive plant 1 Movement in our legs is a
is a response to stimulus (touch) voluntary action.
which is an involuntary action.
A complete system CNS and PNS
2 No special tissue is there for the 2 is there for the information
transfer of information exchange.
3 3 Animal cells have specialized
Plant cells do not have specialized protein which help muscles to
protein for movements. contract.
NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 –
How Do Organisms Reproduce?
Questions Page no: 128

1. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?
Solution:
DNA – Deoxyribonucleic acid is the genetic material that is present in the cells of all
organisms. DNA carries genetic information from one generation to the other and this
helps in producing organisms of its own types. DNA copying is must for inheriting the
traits from the parents. Any variations in DNA copying will give rise to origin of new
species.
2. Why is the variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the
individual?
Solution:
The reason why the variation is beneficial to the species than individuals is because
sometimes the climatic changes have a drastic effect on the species which makes their
survival difficult. For examples, if the temperature of the water body increases, then are
might be certain species of microorganisms which might die. This may result in
disturbance in the environment. So, variation is beneficial to species and not for the
individuals.
Questions Page no: 128

1. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Solution:
When a single cell divides into two equal halves, it is known as binary fission. Bacteria
and amoeba are the examples of binary fission.
When a single cell divides into multiple daughter cells at the same time, it is
known as multiple fission. Algae and sporozoans are the examples of multiple
fission.
2. How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores?

Solution:
Following are the ways through which an organism will be benefited if it reproduces
through spores:
 Number of spores produced in one sporangium would be large.
 In order to avoid competition at one place, spores can be distributed to faraway
places with the help of air.
 In order to prevent dehydration under unfavorable conditions, the spores are
covered by thick walls.
3. Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new
individuals through regeneration?
Solution:
Organisms at higher complex levels cannot give rise to new individuals through
regeneration because they have organization of their organs system at different levels. All
these organ systems are interconnected and work in full coordination. They can
regenerate few of their lost body parts like skin, blood, muscles, etc. but can’t give rise to
new individuals.
4. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some types of plants?

Solution:
Following are the advantages of practicing vegetative propagation for growing some
types of plants:
 Crops like orange, banana, pineapple do not have viable seeds, so

vegetative propagation can be used.
 It is a rapid, cheap and easier method to grow crops.
 It can be used in places where seed germination fails.
 A good quality of variety can be preserved.
5. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?

Solution:
DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction because it carries the
genetic information from the parents to offspring. A copy of DNA is produced through
some chemical reactions resulting in two copies of DNA. Along with the additional
cellular structure, DNA copying also takes place which is then followed by cell division
into two cells.
Questions Page No: 140

1. How is the process of pollination different from fertilization?
Solution:
Pollination is defined as the process of transfer of pollens from anther to stigma. The
process takes place with the help of pollinators like air, water and some insects.
Fertilization is defined as the fusion of male and female gametes. It takes place in the
ovule and leads to the formation of zygote.
2. What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland?
Solution:
Lubrication of sperms and providing of a fluid medium for the easy transportation of
sperms takes place with the help of secretions from the seminal vesicles and the prostate
gland. These secretions also provide nutrients in the form of fructose, calcium and some
enzymes.
3. What are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty?

Solution:
Following are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty:

 In genital area, hair growth appears.
 Hair growth in other areas like underarms, face, hands and legs.
 The size of uterus and ovary increases.
 The size of the breast increases followed by darkening of the nipple skin that
are present at the tip of the breast.
 Beginning of menstrual cycle.
 Appearance of pimples, as the oil secretion is more from the skin.
4. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body?
Solution:
The lining of the uterus thickens after fertilization. The blood flow is good so as to
nourish the growing embryo. Placenta is a special tissue which is embedded in the uterine
wall and helps the embryo get the nourishment from the mother’s tissue. Placenta has
villi on the embryo side and blood space on the mother’s side. This spacing provides a
large area between the mother and the embryo and also for the waste removal.
5. If a woman is using a Copper-T, will it help in protecting her from sexually

transmitted diseases?
Solution:
No, because usage of copper-T cannot stop the contact of body fluids. Hence, it cannot
protect her from getting sexually transmitted diseases.
Exercises Page no: 141

1. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
(a) Amoeba
(b) Yeast
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Leishmania
Solution:
(b) Yeast
Yeast is an example for asexual reproduction taking place through budding. A small
protuberance is produced on the parent cell that grows in full size forming a bud. In the
parent cell, the daughter nucleus splits and migrates to the daughter cell. By forming a
constriction, the bud detaches from the mother’s body at the base. This process of
budding continues to form a chain of bud cells. The mother cell is smaller than the
daughter cell.
2. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human
beings?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Fallopian tube
Solution:
(c) Vas deferens

Vas deferens is a part of male reproductive system. It is a long, muscular tube travelling
from the epididymis into the pelvic cavity. It is behind the bladder. Its function is to
transport the mature sperm to the urethra. It also carries urine to the outside of the body.
3. The anther contains

(a) Sepals
(b) Ovules
(c) Pistil
(d) Pollen grains
Solution:
(d) Pollen grains.

Pollen grains are the microscopic particles that occurs in the pollen giving rise to male
gametophyte of a seed plant.
4. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

Solution:
Following are the advantages of sexual reproduction:

 The offspring has the characters of both the parent.
 The survival of the species is ensured as there are more variations.
 The offspring can easily adapt to environmental changes.
 It also improves the health of humans.
5. What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings?

Solution:
Following are the functions performed by the testis in human beings:

 Apart from the production of sperms, it also produces the male hormone
known as androgens.
 They also produce hormone called testosterone, which is responsible for
secondary sexual characters in boys.
6. Why does menstruation occurs?

Solution:
Menstruation is the normal bleeding of the vaginal line which starts between puberty and
lasts till menopause. During this period, the body prepares itself for the pregnancy.
Every month an egg is released from one of the ovaries at the same time where the uterus
prepares itself for fertilized egg. The inner lining of the uterus gets thickened and is
supplied with sufficient amount of blood for the embryo. Since there is no interaction
between the egg and the sperms, the fertilization of egg doesn’t takes place. So when the
egg doesn’t fertilized, the uterus lining breaks down slowly resulting in menstruation.
7. Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.

Solution:
8. What are the different methods of contraception?

Solution:
Following are the different methods of contraception:

 Natural method: In this method, the main focus is to avoid the meeting of
sperms and ovum. This can be achieved by avoiding the mating from 10 th to
17th day of the menstrual cycle. During this period, there are high chances of
fertilization as the ovulation is expected.
 Barrier method: In this method, the meeting of sperms and ovum is avoided
by using a barrier. These barriers are available for males as well as for
females. Condoms for both male and female, diaphragms for female,
cervical cap and contraceptive sponge for females.
 Oral contraceptives: In this methods, pills are taken orally. These pills
contain small portion of hormones that block the eggs so that the fertilization
doesn’t takes place.
 Implants and surgical method: In this method, contraceptive devices like
copper-T or a loop can be used to block the meeting of sperms and ovum. In
surgical method, the fallopian tubes are blocked in females to strop flow of
eggs and vas deference is blocked in men to stop the flow sperms.
9. How are the modes for reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular
organisms?
Solution:
The different modes of reproduction in unicellular organisms are fission, budding etc.
Here, the cell divides into two daughter cells and this process of cell division continues.
Whereas, in multicellular organisms there is a different organ system for reproduction.

The different modes of reproduction in multicellular organisms are vegetative
propagation, spore formation, etc.
In more complex organisms like humans and animals, the reproduction is through sexual
reproduction.
10. How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations of species?

Solution:
Reproduction is the process of producing the same kind of species by the existing
species. This is done so as to maintain the population of that species and also to take
forward their species to next generations. Stability is maintained by keep a check of rate
of births and rate of deaths.
11. What could be the reason for adopting contraceptive methods?

Solution:
Following are the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods:

 To control population
 To avoid unplanned pregnancy
 To avoid transfer of sexually transmitted diseases
NCERT Solution for Class 10 Science - Chapter 9
Heredity and Evolution
Exercise-9.1 Page: 143

1. If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists in 60%
of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier?
Solution:
Trait B is more probable to arise early as this trait has already been existing and replicating in a larger percentage
of the population as compared to trait A
2. How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?

Solution:
Genetic variations enable the species to better adapt to changes in its environment. Moreover, it is an
important force in evolution as it allows the frequency of alleles to increase or decrease through natural
selection. These variations will determine the difference between extinction or continuation of the
species.

1. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive?
Solution:
Mendel showed that the traits can either be dominant or recessive through his experiments that focused on mono-
hybrid cross. The experiment involved him crossing tall (TT) pea plants with dwarf (tt) pea plants. The resultant
plants which formed after fertilization represented the F1 (or filial) generation. All the F1 plants were tall. Mendel
then proceeded to self-pollinate the filial generation plants and the result was that 1/4th of the plants obtained in
the F2 generation were dwarfs. From this experiment, Mendel concluded that the F1 tall plants were not true-
breeding, instead they carried the traits for both tall and dwarf heights. A portion of the plants were tall due to the
fact that the traits for tallness were dominant over the traits for dwarfness. This cements the notion that traits can
either be dominant or recessive.
2. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?

Solution:
Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently through his dihybrid cross experiment. The
experiment involved him using two traits - namely, seed shape and seed colour. The colour yellow (YY) is
dominant over green (yy), while the round shape (RR) is dominant over the wrinkled shape (rr). The F2 progeny
of the dihybrid cross resulted in a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1; therefore, 9 plants with round yellow (RRYY)
seeds, 3 plants with round green (RRyy) seeds and 3 plants with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds and one with
wrinkled green seeds (rryy). He further observed that the wrinkled greens and the round yellow are parental
combinations while the round green and wrinkled yellow are new. A dihybrid cross between two seeds with
dominant traits (RRYY) and non-dominant traits (rryy) resulted in the production of 4 types of gametes (RY, Ry,
rY and ry). This means each of the gametes segregate independently of the other; and each with a frequency of
25% of the total gametes produced.
3. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group O and their daughter has blood group O.
Is this information enough to tell you which of the traits – blood group A or O – is dominant? Why or why
not?
Solution:
Given information is not enough to tell us which characteristics are dominant –blood group A or O. Blood type A
is always dominant in ABO blood and blood type O is always recessive. Here, the father's blood group may be
genotypically AA (homozygous) or AO (heterozygous), whereas that of mother can be OA or OO.
4. How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?

Solution:
Sex of child in humans is determined by the males. Males have XX chromosomes while females have
XY chromosomes. Hence, if:-
● The male’s X chromosomes combines the female’s X chromosomes, the mother gives birth to a
girl
● The male’s Y chromosome combines with the female’s X chromosome, the mother gives birth to
a boy

1. What are the different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a population?
Solution:
An individual attribute could increase in a population within the following 2 ways:-
(a) Natural selection: if an attribute is useful to a population, it'll increase naturally.
For example – mosquitoes which are resilient against a particular pesticide will pass on its genes, so that
future generations become resistant as well. The mosquitoes which are affected by the pesticide die out .
(b) Genetic drift: if a species faces a catastrophic event where most of the population is wiped out, the
surviving population can pass on their traits to the following generations. This may result in a rise of the
attribute within the population.
2. Why are traits acquired during the life-time of an individual not inherited?
Solution:
Traits acquired during a life-time cannot be inherited for successive generations as the changes do not reflect in
the DNA of the germ cells. For instance, a football player cannot pass on his skills to his offspring as they are
limited to non-reproductive cells only.
3. Why are the small numbers of surviving tigers a cause of worry from the point of view of genetics?
Solution:
As the size of the tiger population decreases, the genetic pool of the species decreases too. This results in a
limitation on the variations which will be introduced within the genetic makeup of the tigers. This lack of
variation will result in serious implications. For example, if an illness spreads within the tiger population, it can
potentially wipe out the whole population, possibly causing their extinction.

1. What factors could lead to the rise of a new species?
Solution:
Factors that would result in a new species are as follows:
(a) Mutation.
(b) Genetic drift.
(c) Natural selection.
(d) Geographical isolation.
(e) Generative isolation for prolonged periods
(f) Environmental factors on the isolated populations.
(g) Quantum of genetic variant transmissible from one generation to the following generation.
2. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species? Why or
why not?
Solution:
In a pollination of plant species, geographical isolation is usually not a major factor as no new trait will become
part of the genetic makeup in a self-pollinating plant species. However, there are some possibilities of some
environmental changes which could result in some variations.
3. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of an organism that reproduces asexually?
Why or why not?
Solution:
In the case of asexually reproducing organisms, geographical isolation can't be considered a factor. This
is due to the fact that meiosis does not occur during asexual modes of reproduction.

1. Give an example of characteristics being used to determine how close two species are in evolutionary
terms.
Solution:
Let us take the instance of humans and chimpanzees. chimpanzees are able to express a wide range of emotions -
such as busting out in laughter or smiling - this trait was once thought to be a feature exclusive to humans. The
smile can be linked to the activation of the brain’s limbic system - where the orbicularis oculi muscle
involuntarily contracts and raises the cheeks, forming wrinkles around the eyes. This implies that the smile is a
true and genuine smile. Interestingly, this type of reflex has a name - the Duchenne smile. Moreover, research has
shown that chimpanzees share 98.6% of our DNA - This means that humans and chimpanzees shared a common
ancestor eons ago. It is important to also note that chimpanzees are the closest living relatives to humans.
2. Can the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat be considered homologous organs? Why or why not?
Solution:
The wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat cannot be considered homologous organs as they do not share a
common ancestor. Even though both structures aid in flying, they have evolved separately. To prove this, the
wings of a butterfly are composed of two chitinous membranes, whereas wings of a bat are composed of bony
skeleton, complete with blood vessels. Hence, these aren't homologous organs but rather analogous organs.
3. What are fossils? What do they tell us about the process of evolution?
Solution:
Fossils are the preserved remains of animals or plants or other organisms that died out millions of years ago.
These fossils tell us about a lot of extinct animals and also give insights into how evolution might have occurred.
Fossils can be used to understand how an organism would have lived and what it may have looked like. More
importantly, we can correlate with fossils as well as extant organisms to understand their relationships. For
instance, scientists were able to recover protein sequences from a dinosaur called the T-rex, which confirmed its
avian lineage. This means birds are the extant relatives of (avian) dinosaurs. Moreover, the pattern of fossil
distribution gives us an idea of the time in history when various species were formed or become extinct.

1. Why are human beings who look so different from each other in terms of size, color and looks said to
belong to the same species?
Solution:
While human beings do vary in color and general appearance, their genetic makeup is identical to any other
human. One of the speculations put forth for our drastic changes is due to evolutionary pressure - where the need
to be easily recognized pushed us towards having widely different faces.
2. In evolutionary terms, can we say which among bacteria, spiders, fish and chimpanzees have a ‘better’
body design? Why or why not?
Solution:
Body designs are the result of environmental needs and pressure. Hence, we can't conclude that one organism has
a better body compared to another. For instance, fish have evolved a streamlined design as it is best suited for an
aquatic environment. On the other hand, a spider or a chimpanzee might be ill-equipped to survive in such aquatic
environments.
Exercises Page: 159

1. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea plants
bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them were short. This
suggests that the genetic make-up of the tall parent can be depicted as
(a) TTWW
(b) TTww
(c) TtWW
(d) TtWw
Solution:
Correct answer – (c)
TtWW might be the genetic makeup of the tall parent. Since half the progenies are short, this implies
that the parent plant also will have a collection of short genes; all progenies bore violet flowers, further
suggesting that violet color is dominant over white.
2. An example of homologous organs is

(a) Our arm and a dog’s fore-leg.
(b) Our teeth and an elephant’s tusks.
(c) Potato and runners of grass.
(d) All of the above.
Solution:
Correct answer – (d)
Homologous organs have the same origin as each of the above organs, but different functions. Homologous
organs can be defined as the organs of various animals having similar basic structure but different functions. For
example, a whale's flippers, a frog's forelimbs, and man have the same basic structures but perform different
functions, which is why they are called homologous organs.
3. In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with

(a) A Chinese school-boy.
(b) A chimpanzee.
(c) A spider.
(d) A bacterium.
Solution:
Correct answer – (a)
Humans and chimpanzees are related since they belong to the identical order (Primates) and same family,
(Hominidae). However, a school-boy, regardless of the ethnicity is still a Homo sapien
4. A study found that children with light-colored eyes are likely to have parents with light-colored eyes. On
this basis, can we say anything about whether the light eye color trait is dominant or recessive? Why or
why not?
Solution:
Knowledge of at least 3 generations is required for finding if an attribute is dominant or recessive. Hence, it is not
possible to identify if the given trait is dominant or recessive.
5. How are the areas of study – evolution and classification – interlinked?

Solution:
Classification and evolution are two related fields of biology. Evolution pertains to how organisms evolve and
classification deals with finding out how two species are related to each other. For example, evolution and fossil
evidence point to the fact that Australopithecus afarensis is considered one of our earliest ancestors. And
classification tells us that Australopithecus afarensis belongs to the genus Homo, which is also the same genus as
modern humans.
6. Explain the terms analogous and homologous organs with examples.

Solution:
Homologous organs are those organs that have the basic structural design as well as origin, however, serve
different functions. For example: The forelimbs of humans and the wings of bats are anatomically similar.
Analogous organs are those organs that have a different structural design as well as origin, however perform
similar functions. For example: The wings of birds and insects.
7. Outline a project which aims to find the dominant coat color in dogs.
Solution:
Dogs have a certain set of genes that govern coat color. There are a minimum of eleven known sequence series
(A, B, C, D, E, F, G, M, P, S, T) that influence the colour of a dog. A dog inherits one copy from each of its
parents. As an example, within the B series, a dog is genetically black or brown. Assume that one parent is
homozygous black (BB), whereas the other parent is homozygous brown (bb).
In this case, all the offsprings are going to be heterozygous (Bb).

Since black (B) is dominant, all the offsprings are going to be black. However, they are going to have each B and
b alleles. If such heterozygous pups are crossed, they are going to produce 25 homozygous blacks (BB), 15
heterozygous black (Bb), and 25 homozygous brown (bb) offsprings.
8. Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary relationships.

Solution:
Fossils give evidence about:
(a) The organism and their paleobiology
(b) Even behavior of an organism can be deduced to some extent (for example, paleontologists) had unearthed a
site with more than 10,000 skeletons of a dinosaur called Hadrosaurus. This implies that the dinosaur lived in
herds.
© Fossils also provide insight into the evolutionary history of animals and plants (for instance, paleontologists
have discovered that whales had evolved from goat-sized land dwelling animal called Pakicetus)
9. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter?
Solution:
The evidence on the origin of life from inanimate matter was provided by Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey's
experiment, which was conducted in 1953. They created an artificial environment which was reminiscent of the
early earth’s atmosphere - it contained ammonia, hydrogen and other gases which were thought to have existed
during primordial earth.
This concoction of gases was kept at a temperature slightly below 100 ° C. Additionally, sparks were generated to
simulate lightning, which was also thought to be common during that period. At the end of the experiment, he was
able to create 11 out of the 20 amino acids which is required for life.
10. Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual reproduction. How
does this affect the evolution of those organisms that reproduce sexually?
Solution:
Sexual reproduction causes a lot of viable variations because of the following reasons:
(a) Error in copying of DNA (though it was rare)
(b) Random segregation of paternal and maternal chromosome at the time of sex cell formation.
(c) Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during the formation of gametes.
(d) Accumulation of variations occurred because of reproduction over generation after generation and choice
naturally created wide diversity.
(e) In case of asexual reproduction, variation is severely limited as there is only one parent involved. Hence, the
offspring is genetically similar to the parent
11. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny?
Solution:
Equal genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in progeny through the inheritance of equal
numbers of chromosomes from both parents. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes but not all is paired. The 22 pairs
are called autosomes while the remaining 1 pair is called the sex chromosomes (represented as X and Y.)
Females have two sets of X-chromosomes while males have 1 X-chromosome and 1 Y-chromosome.
During the process of reproduction, fertilization takes place, where the male gamete fuses with the female gamete
and it results in the formation of a diploid zygote. Furthermore, the zygote receives an equal contribution of
genetic material from both parents. The male contributes 22 autosomes plus, 1 X or Y chromosomes. The female
contributes 22 autosomes, plus 1 X-chromosome.
12. Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a population. Do you
agree with this statement? Why or why not?
Solution:
The statement holds true - only variations provide an advantage to individual organisms that will survive in a
population. For example, variations that lead to the increase in heat-resistance in bacteria is very useful for
survival if it finds itself in an environment where there is a sudden increase in ambient temperature. This will
determine the difference between life and death for the bacteria.
Light - Reflection and Refraction
Questions Page: 168

1. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.
Answer-
Light rays that are parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror converge at a specific point on its principal
axis after reflecting from the mirror. This point is called the principal focus of the concave mirror.
2. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What is its focal length?
Answer-
Radius of curvature (R) = 20 cm

Radius of curvature of the spherical mirror = 2 × Focal length (f)
R = 2f
f= R/2 = 20 / 2 = 10
Therefore, the focal length of the spherical mirror is 10 cm.
3. Name the mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object.
Answer-
The mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object is Concave Mirror.
4. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?

Answer-
Convex mirror is preferred as a rear-view mirror in cars and vehicles as it gives a wider field of view, which
helps the driver to see most of the traffic behind him. Convex mirrors always form an erect, virtual, and
diminished image of the objects placed in front of it.
Page No: 171

1. Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.
Answer-

Radius of curvature = 2 × Focal length (f)
R= 2f ⇒f = R/2 = 32/2 = 16
Therefore, the focal length of the given convex mirror is 16 cm.
2. A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of object placed at 10 cm
in front of it. Where is the image located?
Answer-
Magnification produced by a spherical mirror:
Object distance (u) = - 10 cm

v = 3 × (- 10) = - 30 cm
Therefore, the negative sign indicates that an inverted image is formed in front of the given concave mirror at a
distance of 30 cm.
Page No: 176

1. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bends towards the normal
or away from the normal? Why?
Answer-
The light ray bends towards the normal. When a light ray enters from an optically rarer medium (which has low
refractive index) to an optically denser medium (which has a high refractive index), its speed slows down and
bends towards the normal. As water is optically denser than air, a ray of light entering from air into water will
bend towards the normal.
2. Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light in the glass? The
speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 ms-1.
Answer-
Refractive index of a medium (nm) = Speed of light in vacuum/Speed of light in the medium
Speed of light in vacuum (c) = 3 × 108 m/s
Refractive index of glass (ng) = 1.50
Speed of light in the glass (v) = Speed of light in vacuum/ Refractive index of glass
= c/ng
=3 × 108/1.50 = 2x 108 ms-1.
3. Find out, from Table, the medium having highest optical density. Also find the medium with lowest
optical density.
Material Refractive index Material medium Refractive

medium index
Air 1.0003 Canada 1.53

Balsam
Ice 1.31 - -
Water 1.33 Rock salt 1.54
Alcohol 1.36 - -
Kerosene 1.44 Carbon 1.63

disulphide
Fused 1.46 Dense 1.65

quartz flint glass
Turpentine oil 1.47 Ruby 1.71
Benzene 1.50 Sapphire 1.77
Crown 1.52 Diamond 2.42

glass
Answer-
Lowest optical density = Air

Highest optical density = Diamond
The optical density of a medium is directly related with its refractive index. A medium with the highest refractive
index will have the highest optical density and vice-versa.
It can be observed from the table that air and diamond respectively have the lowest and highest refractive index.
Hence, air has the lowest optical density and diamond has the highest optical density.
4. You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of these does the light travel fastest? Use the
information given in Table.
Material Refractive index Material medium Refractive

medium index
Air 1.0003 Canada 1.53

Balsam
Ice 1.31 - -
Water 1.33 Rock salt 1.54
Alcohol 1.36 - -
Kerosene 1.44 Carbon 1.63

disulphide
Fused 1.46 Dense 1.65

quartz flint glass
Turpentine oil 1.47 Ruby 1.71
Benzene 1.50 Sapphire 1.77
Crown 1.52 Diamond 2.42

glass
Answer-
Light travel faster in water as compared to kerosene & turpentine as the refractive index of water is lower than
that of kerosene and turpentine. The speed of light is inversely proportional to the refractive index.
5. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement?
Answer-
Diamond has a refractive index of 2.42 which means that the speed of light in diamond will reduce by a factor of
2.42 as compared to its speed in the air.
In other words, the speed of light in diamond is 1/2.42 times the speed of light in vacuum.
Page No: 184

1. Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.
Answer-
Dioptre is the SI unit of power of lens is denoted by the letter D. 1 dioptre can be defined as the power of a lens of
focal length 1 metre.
2. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle at a distance of 50 cm from it. Where is the
needle placed in front of the convex lens if the image is equal to the size of the object? Also, find the power
of the lens.
Answer-
The position of image should be at 2F, since the image is real and same size.
It is given that the image of the needle is formed at a distance of 50 cm from the convex lens. Therefore, the
needle is placed in front of the lens at a distance of 50 cm.

Image distance, (v) = 50 cm
Focal length = f
According to the lens formula,
3. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2 m.

Answer-
Focal length of concave lens (f) = 2 m

Power of lens (P) = 1/f = 1/ (-2) = -0.5D
Page No: 185

Exercise
1. Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?

(a) Water
(b) Glass
(c) Plastic
(d) Clay
Answer -
(d) Clay cannot be used to make a lens because if the lens is made up of clay the light rays cannot pass through it
2. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where
should be the position of the object?
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
(b) At the centre of curvature
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
Answer-
(d) The position of the object should be between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
3. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
(a) At the principal focus of the lens
(b) At twice the focal length
(c) At infinity
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus.
Answer -
(b) The object should be placed at twice the focal length
4. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens has a focal length of -15 cm. The mirror and the lens are
likely to be
(a) both concave
(b) both convex
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave
Answer -
(a) Both are likely to be concave.

Page No: 186

5. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
(a) plane
(b) concave
(c) convex
(d) either plane or convex
Answer -
(d) The mirrors are likely to be either plane or convex
6. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
Answer -
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm can be used while reading small letters found in a dictionary
7. We wish to obtain an erect image of an object, using a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What
should be the range of distance of the object from the mirror? What is the nature of the image? Is the
image larger or smaller than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer-
Range of the distance of the object = 0 to 15 cm from the pole of the mirror.
Nature of the image = virtual, erect, and larger than the object.
8. Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.

(a) Headlights of a car
(b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle
(c) Solar furnace
Support your answer with reason.
Answer-
(a) Concave Mirror: Because concave mirrors can produce powerful parallel beam of light when light source is
placed at their principal focus.
(b) Convex Mirror: Because of its largest field of view.
(c) Concave Mirror: Because it concentrates the parallel rays of sun at principal focus.
9. One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Will this lens produce a complete image of the
object? Verify your answer experimentally. Explain your observations.
Answer-
Yes, it will produce a complete image of the object, as shown in figure. This can be verified experimentally by
observing the image of a distance object like tree on a screen, when lower half of the lens is covered with a black
paper. However, the intensity or brightness of image will reduce.
10. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw the ray
diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the image formed.
Answer-
Height of the Object, h0 = 5 cm

Distance of the object from converging lens, u = -25 cm
Focal length of converging lens, f = 10 cm
Using lens formula,
Thus, the image is inverted and formed at a distance of 16.7 cm behind the lens and measures 3.3 cm. The ray
diagram is shown below.
11. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How far is the object placed
from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.
Answer-
Focal length of concave lens (OF1), f = - 15 cm

Image distance, v= - 10 cm
According to the lens formula,
The negative value of u indicates that the object is placed 30 cm in front of the lens. This is shown in the
following ray diagram.
12. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the position
and nature of the image.
Answer-
Focal length of convex mirror (f) = +15 cm

According to the mirror formula,
The image is located at a distance of 6 cm from the mirror on the other side of the mirror.
The positive and a value less than 1 of magnification indicates that the image formed is virtual and erect and
diminished.
13. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What does this mean?
Answer-
The positive sign means image formed by a plane mirror is virtual and erect. Since the magnification is 1 it means
that the size of the image is equal to the size of the object.
14. An object 5 cm is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm.
Find the position, nature and size of the image.
Answer-

Object height (h) = 5 cm
Radius of curvature = 2 × Focal length
R = 2f
f = 15 cm
The positive value of image height indicates that the image formed is erect.
Hence, the image formed is erect, virtual, and smaller in size.
15. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 18 cm. At what
distance from the mirror should a screen be placed, so that a sharp focused image can be obtained? Find
the size and the nature of the image.
Answer-

Object height (h) = 7 cm
Focal length (f) = - 18 cm
The negative value of image height indicates that the image formed is inverted.
16. Find the focal length of a lens of power -2.0 D. What type of lens is this?
Answer-
Power of lens (P) = 1/f

P = -2D
f = -1/2 = -0.5 m
A concave lens has a negative focal length. Therefore, it is a concave lens.
17. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power +1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the
prescribed lens diverging or converging?
Answer-
Power of lens (P) = 1/f

P = 1.5D
f = 1/1.5 = 10/15 = 0.66 m
A convex lens has a positive focal length. Therefore, it is a convex lens or a converging lens.
NCERT Exemplar for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 The Human
Eye and The Colourful World
Multiple Choice Questions

1. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of
power
(a) + 0.5 D
(b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D
(d) – 0.2 D
Soln:
Answer is (b) – 0.5 D
Explanation:
The person is Myopic and he need a concave mirror hence the power would be in negative.
1 1
P= = = 0.5 D
𝑓 2𝑚
2. A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the blackboard but is not able to read
the letters written in his text book. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away
(b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him
(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him
(d) The far point of his eyes has receded away
Soln:
Answer is (a) The near point of his eyes has receded away
Explanation:
Near point of eye move away for 25 cm in hypermetropia. Hence person should keep the book 25 cm apart to read
properly.
3. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light is
incident on the prism as shown in Figure 11.1. In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the third
colour from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky? The Human Eye and the Colourful World
CHAPTER11 Fig.11.1
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
Soln:
Answer is (b) (ii)
Explanation:
Band of color show violet at the bottom if prism is kept with BC in the bottom. if prism is kept with BC in the top,
then violet will be in the top followed by indigo and blue.
4. At noon the sun appears white as

(a) light is least scattered
(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most
(d) red colour is scattered the most
Soln:
Answer is (b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
Explanation:
This is due to dispersion of light by the atmosphere.

5. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
Soln:
Answer is (c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
Explanation:
Dispersion of light leads to scattering of white light into different color to an angle to cause internal reflection.rs.
Refraction bends incident light leading to the formation of rainbow.
6. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds
Soln:
Answer is (b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
Explanation:
Refraction of light keeps the position of source of light change. This will make the stars sparkle.
7. The clear sky appears blue because

(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere
Soln:
Answer is (c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colors by the atmosphere .
8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of
white light in air?
(a) Red light moves fastest
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light
(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light
Soln:
Answer is (c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
9. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a
distance because among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(d) moves fastest in air
Soln:
Answer is (b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
Explanation:
Wavelength of red color is the largest thus it can easily be seen from a distance. It is the color which is least
scattered by the smoke or smog.
10.Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at
sunrise or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) Reflection of light from the earth
Soln:
Answer is (b) Scattering of light
Explanation:
Because red color scatters the least it travels long distance. During sunset or sunrise light has to travel long
distance to reach the earth. Hence light will be red when it reaches us.
11. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to

(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b) reflection of sky in water
(c) scattering of light
(d) absorption of light by the sea
Soln:
Answer is (b) reflection of sky in water
Explanation:
Water is colorless water attains the color it is reflected by. Hence sea appears blue.
12. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the
(a) crystalline lens
(b) outer surface of the cornea
(c) iris
(d) pupil
Soln:
Answer is (b) outer surface of the cornea
Explanation:
Cornea is a thin membrane through which light is entered. The incident light rays are bent due to cornea and are
converged which results in image formation at retina. So, most of the refraction occurs at the iris of the eye.
13. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles
(a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(b) contract and lens becomes thicker
(c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(d) contract and lens becomes thinner
Soln:
Answer is (a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
14. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly
Soln:
Answer is (c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
Explanation:
Myopia is a condition where a person cannot see the distant objects clears and he can see nearer objects clearly.
Hypermetropia is a condition in which a person cannot see the nearer object clearly but he can see the distant
objects clearly.
Short Answer Questions
15. Draw ray diagrams each showing (i) myopic eye and (ii) hypermetropic eye.
Soln:
16. A student sitting at the back of the classroom cannot read clearly the letters written on the blackboard.
What advice will a doctor give to her? Draw ray diagram for the correction of this defect.
Soln:
If student cannot see the blackboard distant to her she is suffering from Myopia. Hence doctor advices concave
lens of suitable focal length.
17. How are we able to see nearby and also the distant objects clearly?
Soln:
Our eyes can focus on the images from varied distance by changing its focal length of lens. Action of Ciliary
muscle helps changing focal length of the lens.
18. A person needs a lens of power –4.5 D for correction of her vision.
(a) What kind of defect in vision is she suffering from?
(b) What is the focal length of the corrective lens?
(c) What is the nature of the corrective lens?
Soln:
a) Answer is Myopia
1 1 1
b) P= f= = = 0.22 m
𝑓 𝑝 4.5 𝐷
c) Negative sign shows that it is a concave lens.
19. How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism
emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw the diagram.
Soln:
By placing two identical prism inverted with respect to the other we get a narrow beam of white light incident on
one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light.
20. Draw a ray diagram showing the dispersion through a prism when a narrow beam of white light is
incident on one of its refracting surfaces. Also indicate the order of the colours of the spectrum obtained.
Soln:
21. Is the position of a star as seen by us its true position? Justify your answer.
Soln:
Star light undergo continuous refraction on entering earth’s atmosphere. Refraction occurs in a medium of
gradually changing refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent
position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. The star appears slightly higher (above) than its
actual position.
22. Why do we see a rainbow in the sky only after rainfall?
Soln:
Rainbow is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. A rainbow is
always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun. The water droplets act like small prisms. They refract
and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the
raindrop.
23. Why is the colour of the clear sky blue?
Soln:
Blue is the colour in visible spectrum which is having maximum scattering. This makes the blue colour to reach
us and the sky appears blue.
24. What is the difference in colours of the Sun observed during sunrise/sunset and noon? Give explanation
for each.
Soln:
Sun appears red at sunrise and sunset : At sinrise and sunset, sun is closer to the horizon. The sunlight passes
through denser layer of air and covers larger distance before reaching our eyes. Most of the blue light gets
scattered. And red color reaches us which make the sun appears red at sunrise.
At noon, the sun is overhead. The sunlight passes through layers of air and covers shorter distance before reaching
our eye. So, almost all colours of light are scattered equally. Hence the sun appears white.
Long Answer Questions
25. Explain the structure and functioning of Human eye. How are we able to see nearby as well as distant
objects?
Soln:
The human eye is one of the most valuable and sensitive sense organs. It enables us to see the wonderful world
and the colours around us. On closing the eyes, we can identify objects to some extent by their smell, taste, sound
they make or by touch. It is, however, impossible to identify colours while closing the eyes. Thus, of all the sense
organs, the human eye is the most significant one as it enables us to see the beautiful, colourful world around us.
The human eye is like a camera. Its lens system forms an image on a light-sensitive screen called the retina. Light
enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. It forms the transparent bulge on the front surface of the
eyeball as shown in Fig. The eyeball is approximately spherical in shape with a diameter of about 2.3 cm. Most of
the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea. The crystalline lens
merely provides the finer adjustment of focal length required to focus objects at different distances on the retina.
We find a structure called iris behind the cornea. Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the
pupil. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye. The eye lens forms an inverted real
image of the object on the retina. The retina is a delicate membrane having enormous number of light-sensitive
cells. The light-sensitive cells get activated upon illumination and generate electrical signals. These signals are
sent to the brain via the optic nerves. The brain interprets these signals, and finally, processes the information so
that we perceive objects as they are.
Our eyes can focus on the images from varied distance by changing its focal length of lens. Action of Ciliary
muscle helps changing focal length of the lens.
26. When do we consider a person to be myopic or hypermetropic? Explain using diagrams how the defects
associated with myopic and hypermetropic eye can be corrected?
Soln:
When a person cannot see the distant objects clearly he is said to be myopic. Myopia is a condition where image
is formed in front of retina.
When a person cannot see the nearer objects clearly he is said to be hypermetropic. Hypermetropia is a condition
where image is formed behind the retina.
Correction of Myopia
Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable power. A concave lens of suitable power will bring
the image back on to the retina and thus the defect is corrected.
Hypermetropia can be corrected by using a convex lens of suitable power. Eye-glasses with converging lenses
provide the additional focussing power required for forming the image on the retina.
27. Explain the refraction of light through a triangular glass prism using a labelled ray diagram. Hence
define the angle of deviation.
Soln:
The refraction of light through a triangular glass prism is shown below. A ray of light PE is entering from air to
glass at the first surface AB. The light ray EF on refraction has bent towards the normal. At the second surface
AC, the light ray FS has entered from glass to air and bent away from normal. The angle made by extending
incident ray with the emergent ray is called angle of deviation.
28. How can we explain the reddish appearance of sun at sunrise or sunset? Why does it not appear red at
noon?
Soln:
Sun appears red at sunrise and sunset : At sunrise and sunset, sun is closer to the horizon. The sunlight passes
through denser layer of air and covers larger distance before reaching our eyes. Most of the blue light gets
scattered. And red color reaches us which make the sun appears red at sunrise.
During noon sunlight has to travel less distance to reach us. Because most of the colors get scattered we see sun
white in color during noon.
29. Explain the phenomenon of dispersion of white light through a glass prism, using suitable ray diagram.
Soln:
When ray of light enters a prism, it bends because of refraction of light. When the ray of light finally emerges out
of the prism. it deviates drastically from its original path. This happens because of unique shape of prism.
Different colours in the visible spectrum have different speeds. Due to this, different colours bend at different
angles of deviation. As a result, the emergent light appears as a band of seven colours: the colours which are the
components of white light. These colours are Violet. Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red.
Segregation of white light into its different components is called dispersion of light.
Electricity
In text 12.1 Page: 200

1. What does an electric circuit mean?
Solution:
A continuous closed path made of electric components through which an electric current flows is known as an
electric circuit. A simple circuit consists of the following components:
(a) Conductors
(b) Cell
(c) Switch
(d) Load
2. Define the unit of current.

Solution:
The unit of current is ampere. Ampere is defined by the flow of one coulomb of charge per second.
3. Calculate the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge.

Solution:
The value of the charge of an electron is 1.6 × 10-19 C.
According to charge quantization,
Q = nqe, where n is the number of electrons and qe is the charge of an electron.
Substituting the values in the above equation, the number of electrons in a coulomb of charge can be calculated as
follows:
Therefore, the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge is 25 × 1018.

Electricity

1. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
Solution:
Battery consisting of one or more electric cells is one of the devices that help to maintain a potential difference
across a conductor.
2. What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1 V?
Solution:
When 1 J of work is done to move a charge of 1 C from one point to another, it is said that the potential difference
between two points is 1 V.
3. How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery?
Solution:
We know that the potential difference between two points is given by the equation,
V = W/Q, where,
W is the work done in moving the charge from one point to another
Q is the charge
From the above equation, we can find the energy given to each coulomb as follows:
W=V×Q
Substituting the values in the equation, we get
W = 6V × 1C = 6 J
Hence, 6 J of energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V of battery.
Electricity

1. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend?
Solution:
The resistance of the conductor depends on the following factors:
a. Temperature of the conductor
b. Cross-sectional area of the conductor
c. Length of the conductor
d. Nature of the material of the conductor
2. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same material, when connected to
the same source? Why?
Solution:
Resistance is given by the equation,
R = ρ l/A
where,
ρ is the resistivity of the material of the wire,
l is the length of the wire
A is the area of the cross-section of the wire.
From the equation, it is evident that the area of the cross-section of wire is inversely proportional to the resistance.
Therefore, thinner the wire, more the resistance and vice versa. Hence, current flows more easily through a thick
wire than a thin wire.
3. Let the resistance of an electrical component remain constant while the potential difference across the
two ends of the component decreases to half of its former value. What change will occur in the current
through it?
Solution:
The change in the current flowing through the electrical component can be determined by Ohm’s Law.
According to Ohm’s Law, the current is given by
I = V/R
Now, the potential difference is reduced to half keeping the resistance constant,
Let the new voltage be V’ = V/2
Let the new resistance be R’ = R and the new amount of current be I’.
The change in the current can be determined using Ohm’s law as follows:
Therefore, the current flowing the electrical component is reduced by half.
4. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Solution:
The melting point of an alloy is much higher than a pure metal because of its high resistivity. At high temperatures,
alloys do not melt readily. Therefore, alloys are used in heating appliances such as electric toasters and electric
irons.
5. Use the data in the table given below and answer the following questions.
Electricity
Material Resistivity
Silver 1.60 × 10–8
Copper 1.62 × 10–8
Aluminium 2.63 × 10–8
Tungsten 5.20 × 10–8
Conductors Nickel 6.84 × 10–8
Iron 10.0 × 10–8
Chromium 12.9 × 10–8
Mercury 94.0 × 10–8
Manganese 1.84 × 10–6
Constantan 49 × 10–6
Alloys Manganin 44 × 10–6
Nichrome 100 × 10–6
Glass 1010 – 1014
Hard rubber 1013 – 1016
Insulators Ebonite 1015 – 1017
Diamond 1012 - 1013
Paper (dry) 1012
a. Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor?

b. Which material is the best conductor?
Solution:
a. Iron is a better conductor than mercury because the resistivity of mercury is more than the resistivity of iron.
b. Among all the materials listed in the table, silver is the best conductor because the resistivity of silver is lowest
among all, i.e., 1.60 × 10–8.
Electricity

1. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V each, a 5 Ω resistor, an
8 Ω resistor, and a 12 Ω resistor, and a plug key, all connected in series.
Solution:
A battery of three cells of 2 V each equals to battery of potential 6 V. The circuit diagram below shows three
resistors of resistance 12 Ω, 8 Ω and 5 Ω connected in series along with a battery of potential 6 V.
2. Redraw the circuit of Question 1, putting in an ammeter to measure the current through the resistors
and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across the 12 Ω resistor. What would be the readings in
the ammeter and the voltmeter?
Solution:
An ammeter should always be connected in series with resistors while the voltmeter should be connected in parallel
to the resistor to measure the potential difference as shown in the figure below.
Using Ohm’s Law, we can obtain the reading of the ammeter and the voltmeter.
The total resistance of the circuit is 5 Ω + 8 Ω +12 Ω = 25 Ω.
We know that the potential difference of the circuit is 6 V, hence the current flowing through the circuit or the
resistors can be calculated as follows:
I = V/R = 6/25 = 0.24A
Let the potential difference across the 12 Ω resistor be V1.

From the obtained current V1 can be calculated as follows:
V1 = 0.24A × 12 Ω = 2.88 V
Therefore, the ammeter reading will be 0.24 A and the voltmeter reading be 2.88 V.
Electricity
In text 12.6.2 Page: 216

1. Judge the equivalent resistance when the following are connected in parallel – (a) 1 Ω and 106 Ω, (b) 1 Ω,
103 Ω, and 106 Ω.
Solution:
(a) When 1 Ω and 106 are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is given by
Therefore, the equivalent resistance is 1 Ω.
(b) When 1 Ω, 103 Ω, and 106 Ω are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is given by
Therefore, the equivalent resistance is 0.999 Ω.
2. An electric lamp of 100 Ω, a toaster of resistance 50 Ω, and a water filter of resistance 500 Ω are
connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron connected to the same
source that takes as much current as all three appliances, and what is the current through it?
Solution:
The electric lamp, the toaster and the water filter connected in parallel to a 220 V source can be shown as using a
circuit diagram as follows:
The equivalent resistance of the resistors can be calculated as follows:

Electricity
The resistance of the electric iron box is 31.25 Ω.
3. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery instead of
connecting them in series?
Solution:
When the electrical devices are connected in parallel there is no division of voltage among the appliances. The
potential difference across the devices is equal to supply voltage. Parallel connection of devices also reduces the
effective resistance of the circuit.
4. How can three resistors of resistances 2 Ω, 3 Ω, and 6 Ω be connected to give a total resistance of (a) 4 Ω,
(b) 1 Ω?
Solution:
(a) The circuit diagram below shows the connection of three resistors
From the circuit above, it is understood that 3 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel. Hence, their equivalent
resistance is given by
Electricity
The equivalent resistor 2 Ω is in series with the 2 Ω resistor. Now the equivalent resistance can be calculated as
follows:
Req= 2 Ω +2 Ω = 4 Ω
Hence, the total resistance of the circuit is 4 Ω.
(b) The circuit diagram below, shows the connection of three resistors.
From the circuit, it is understood that all the resistors are connected in parallel. Therefore, their equivalent
resistance can be calculated as follows:
The total resistance of the circuit is 1 Ω.
5. What is (a) the highest, (b) the lowest total resistance that can be secured by combinations of four coils of
resistance 4 Ω, 8 Ω, 12 Ω, 24 Ω?
Solution:
(a) If the four resistors are connected in series, their total resistance will be the sum of their individual resistances
and it will be the highest. The total equivalent resistance of the resistors connected in series will be 4 Ω + 8 Ω +
12 Ω + 24 Ω = 48 Ω.
(b) If the resistors are connected in parallel, then their equivalent resistances will be the lowest.
Their equivalent resistance connected in parallel is
Hence, the lowest total resistance is 2 Ω.

Electricity

1. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element does?
Solution:
The heating element of an electric heater is made of an alloy which has a high resistance. When the current flows
through the heating element, the heating element becomes too hot and glows red. The cord is usually made of
copper or aluminum which has low resistance. Hence the cord doesn’t glow.
2. Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in one hour through a potential
difference of 50 V.
Solution:
The heat generated can be computed by Joule’s law as follows:
H = VIt
where,
V is the voltage, V = 50 V
I is the current
t is the time in seconds, 1 hour = 3600 seconds
The amount of current can be calculated as follows:
2. An electric iron of resistance 20 Ω takes a current of 5 A. Calculate the heat developed in 30 s.

Solution:
The amount of heat generated can be calculated using the Joule’s law of heating, which is given by the equation
H = VIt
Substituting the values in the above equation, we get,
H = 100 × 5 × 30 = 1.5 × 104 J
The amount of heat developed by the electric iron in 30 s is 1.5 × 104 J.
Electricity

1. What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current?
Solution:
Electric power is the rate of consumption of electrical energy by electric appliances. Hence, the rate at which
energy is delivered by a current is the power of the appliance.
2. An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine the power of the motor and the energy
consumed in 2 h.
Solution:
The power of the motor can be calculated by the equation,
P = VI
Substituting the values in the above equation, we get
P = 220 V × 5 A = 1100 W
The energy consumed by the motor can be calculated using the equation,
E=P×T
Substituting the values in the above equation, we get
P = 1100 W × 7200 = 7.92 × 106 J
The power of the motor is 1100 W and the energy consumed by the motor in 2 hours is 7.92 × 10 6 J.
Electricity
Exercises Page: 221

1. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If
the equivalent resistance of this combination is R′, then the ratio R/R′ is _____.
(a) 1/25
(b) 1/5
(c) 5
(d) 25
Solution:
Answer: d) 25
Explanation:
The resistance is cut into five equal parts, which means that the resistance of each part is R/5.
We know that each part is connected to each other in parallel, hence the equivalent resistance can be calculated as
follows:
The ratio of R/R′ is 25.
2. Which of the following does not represent electrical power in a circuit?

(a) I2R
(b) IR2
(c) VI
(d) V2/R
Solution:
Answer: b) IR2
Explanation:
Electrical power is given by the expression P = VI. (1)
According to Ohm’s law,
V = IR
Substituting the value of V in (1), we get
P = (IR) × I
P = I2R
Similarly, from Ohm’s law,
I = V/R
Substituting the value of I in (1), we get
P = V × V/R = V2/R
From this, it is clear that the equation IR2 does not represent electrical power in a circuit.
3. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be
_____.
(a) 100 W
(b) 75 W
(c) 50 W
(d) 25 W
Solution:
Answer: 25 W
Electricity
Explanation:
The energy consumed by the appliance is given by the expression
P = VI = V2/R
The resistance of the light bulb can be calculated as follows:
R = V2/P
Substituting the values, we get
R = (220)2/100 = 484 Ω
Even if the supply voltage is reduced, the resistance remains the same. Hence, the power consumed can be
calculated as follows:
P = V2/R
Substituting the value, we get
P = (110)2 V/484 Ω = 25 W
Therefore, the power consumed when the electric bulb operates at 110 V is 25 W.
4. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first connected
in series and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in
series and parallel combinations would be _____.
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
Solution:
Let Rs and Rp be the equivalent resistance of the wires when connected in series and parallel respectively.
For the same potential difference V, the ratio of the heat produced in the circuit is given by
Hence, the ratio of the heat produced is 1:4.
5. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference between two points?
Solution:
To measure the voltage between any two points, the voltmeter should be connected in parallel between the two
points.
6. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6 × 10–8 Ω m. What will be the length of this wire
to make its resistance 10 Ω? How much does the resistance change if the diameter is doubled?
Solution:
The resistance of the copper wire of length in meters and area of cross-section m2 is given by the formula
Electricity
The length of the wire is 122.72 m and the new resistance is 2.5 Ω.
7. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference V
across the resistor are given below –
I (Ampere) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
V (Volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor.
Solution:
The plot between voltage and current is known as IV characteristic. The current is plotted in the y-axis while the
voltage is plotted in the x-axis. The different values of current for different values of voltage are given in the
table. The I V characteristics for the given resistor is shown below.
The slope of the line gives the value of resistance.

The slope can be calculated as follows:
Slope = 1/R = BC/AC = 2/6.8
To calculate R,
Electricity
R = 6.8/2 = 3.4 Ω
The resistance of the resistor is 3.4 Ω.
8. When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current of 2.5 mA in the circuit.
Find the value of the resistance of the resistor
Solution:
The value of the resistor can be calculated using Ohm’s Law as follows:
9. A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 Ω, 0.3 Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω and 12 Ω, respectively.
How much current would flow through the 12 Ω resistor?
Solution:
In series connection, there is no division of current. The current flowing across all the resistors is the same.
To calculate the amount of current flowing across the resistors, we use Ohm’s law.
But first, let us find out the equivalent resistance as follows:
R = 0.2 Ω + 0.3 Ω + 0.4 Ω + 0.5 Ω + 12 Ω = 13.4 Ω
Now, using Ohm’s law,
The current flowing across the 12 Ω is 0.671 A.
10. How many 176 Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
Solution:
Let us consider the number of resistors required as ‘x.’
The equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of resistor R is given by
The number of resistors required is 4.
11. Show how you would connect three resistors, each of resistance 6 Ω, so that the combination has a
resistance of (i) 9 Ω, (ii) 4 Ω.
Solution:
If we connect all the three resistors in series, their equivalent resistor would 6 Ω + 6 Ω + 6 Ω =18 Ω, which is not
the desired value. Similarly, if we connect all the three resistors in parallel, their equivalent resistor would be
Electricity
which is again not the desired value.

We can obtain the desired value by connecting any two of the resistors in either series or parallel.
Case (i)
If two resistors are connected in parallel, then their equivalent resistance is
The third resistor is in series, hence the equivalent resistance is calculated as follows:
R=6Ω+3Ω=9Ω
Case (ii)
When two resistors are connected in series, their equivalent resistance is given by
R = 6 Ω + 6 Ω = 12 Ω
The third resistor is connected in parallel with 12 Ω. Hence the equivalent resistance is calculated as follows:
12. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply line, are rated 10 W. How many
lamps can be connected in parallel with each other across the two wires of 220 V line if the maximum
allowable current is 5 A?
Solution:
The resistance of the bulb can be calculated using the expression
P1 = V2/R1
R1 = V2/P1
Hence, 110 lamps can be connected in parallel.

Electricity
13. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to

a 220 V line has two resistance coils A and B, each of 24 Ω resistance, which may be used separately, in
series, or in parallel. What are the currents in the three cases?
Solution:
Case (i) When coils are used separately
Using Ohm’s law, we can find the current flowing through each coil as follows:
9.166 A of current flows through each resistor when they are used separately.
Case (ii) When coils connected in series

The total resistance in the series circuit is 24 Ω + 24 Ω = 48 Ω
The current flowing through the series circuit is calculated as follows:
Therefore, a current of 4.58 A flows through the series circuit.
Case (iii) When coils connected in parallel

When the coils are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is calculated as follows:
The current in the parallel circuit is 18.33 A.
14. Compare the power used in the 2 Ω resistor in each of the following circuits: (i) a 6 V battery in series
with 1 Ω and 2 Ω resistors, and (ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 Ω and 2 Ω resistors.
Solution:
(i) The potential difference is 6 V and the resistors 1 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in series, hence their equivalent
resistance is given by 1 Ω + 2 Ω = 3 Ω. The current in the circuit can be calculated using the Ohm’s law as
follows:
Therefore, the power consumed by the 2 Ω is 8 W.
(ii) When 12 Ω and 2 Ω resistors are connected in parallel, the voltage across the resistors remains the same.
Knowing that the voltage across 2 Ω resistor is 4 V, we can calculate the power consumed by the resistor as
follows:
The power consumed by the 2 Ω resistor is 8 W.

Electricity
15. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the other 60 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric
mains supply. What current is drawn from the line if the supply voltage is 220 V?
Solution:
Since both the bulbs are connected in parallel, the voltage across each of them will be the same.
Current drawn by the bulb of rating 100 W can be calculated as follows:
P=V×I
I = P/V
I = 100 W/220 V = 100/220 A
Similarly, the current drawn by the bulb of rating 60 W can be calculated as follows:
I = 60 W/220 V = 60/220 A
Therefore, the current drawn from the line is
16. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr, or a 1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
Solution:
The energy consumed by electrical appliances is given by the equation
H = Pt, where P is the power of the appliance and t is the time
Using this formula, the energy consumed by a TV of power ration 250 W, can be calculated as follows:
H = 250 W × 3600 seconds = 9 × 105 J
Similarly, the energy consumed by a toaster of power rating 1200 W is
H = 1200 W × 600 s = 7.2 × 105 J
From the calculations, it can be said that the energy consumed by the TV is greater than the toaster.
17. An electric heater of resistance 8 Ω draws 15 A from the service mains 2 hours. Calculate the rate at
which heat is developed in the heater.
Solution:
The rate at which the heat develops in the heater can be calculated using the following formula
P = I2 R
P = (15A) 2 × 8 Ω = 1800 J/s
The electric heater produces heat at the rate of 1800 J/s
18. Explain the following.

a. Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
b. Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and electric irons, made of an
alloy rather than a pure metal?
c. Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
d. How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?
e. Why copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission?
Solution:
a. The resistivity and melting point of tungsten is very high. Due to this property, it doesn’t burn readily when
heated. Electric lamps operate at high temperature. Hence, tungsten is a choice of metal for the filament of electric
lamps.
b. The conductors of electric heating devices are alloys because of their high resistivity. Due to its high resistivity
it produces large amount of heat.
c. The voltage is divided in series circuit as result each component in the circuit receives a small voltage because
of which the amount of current decreases and the device gets hot and does not work properly. This is the reason
why series circuits are not used in domestic circuits.
Electricity
d. Resistance is inversely proportional to the area of cross section. When the area of cross section increases the
resistance decreases and vice versa.
e. Copper and aluminium are good conductors of electricity and have low resistivity because of which they are
usually employed for electricity transmission.
NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science
Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
In text 13.1 Page:224

1. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
Solution:
The compass needle is a small magnet. When the compass needle is brought close to a bar magnet, the
magnetic field lines of the compass needle interact with the magnetic field lines of bar magnet which causes
the compass needle to deflect.
In text 13.2.2 Page:228

1. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
Solution:
Magnetic field lines of a bar magnet emerge from the North Pole and terminate at the South Pole as
shown in the figure below.
2. List the properties of magnetic field lines.

Solution:
The properties of magnetic field lines are as follows:
 Magnetic field lines do not intersect with each other.
 They emerge from the North Pole and terminate at the South Pole.
 Inside the magnet, the direction of the field lines is from South Pole to North Pole.
3. Why don’t two magnetic field lines intersect each other?

Solution:
If two magnetic field lines intersect then at the point of intersection the compass needle shows two different
direction which is not possible hence they do not intersect with each other.
In text 13.2.4 Page:229

1. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass through the loop
clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic field inside and outside
the loop.
Solution:
For the downward direction of the current, the direction of the magnetic field will be as if emerging from
the table outside the loop and merging the table inside the loop. Similarly, for current flowing in the
upward direction, the direction of the magnetic field will as if they are emerging from the table outside
the loop and merging to the table inside the loop as shown in the figure.
2. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent it.
Solution:
3. Choose the correct option.

The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current
a. is zero.
b. decreases as we move towards its end.
c. increases as we move towards its end.
d. is the same at all points.
Solution:
d. is the same at all points
The magnetic field inside a long straight current carrying solenoid is uniform therefore it is same at all
points.

1. Which of the following property of a proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic field?
(There may be more than one correct answer.)
a. Mass
b. Speed
c. Velocity
d. Momentum
Solution:
(c) and (d)
When a proton enters the region of magnetic field, it experiences magnetic force. Due to which the path of
the proton becomes circular. As a result, the velocity and the momentum change.
2. In Activity 13.7, how do we think the displacement of rod AB will be affected if (i) current in rod AB
is increased; (ii) a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used; and (iii) length of the rod AB is increased?
Solution:
A current carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic field experiences force. The magnitude of this
force will increase with the increase in the amount of current, length of conductor and the strength of the
magnetic field. Hence, the strength of the magnetic force exerted on the rod AB and its displacement will
increase if
(i) The current in rod AB is increased
(ii) Stronger horse shoe magnet is used
(iii) When the length of the rod AB increases
3. A positively-charged particle (alpha-particle) projected towards west is deflected towards north by a

magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is
a. towards south
b. towards east
c. downward
d. upward
Solution:
The direction of the magnetic field can be determined using the Fleming’s Left hand rule. According to
the rule, if we arrange our thumb, forefinger and the middle finger of the left hand right perpendicular to
each other, then the thumb points towards the direction of the magnetic force, the middle finger the
direction of current and the forefinger the direction of magnetic field. Since the direction of positively
charged particle is towards west, the direction of the current will also be towards the west. The direction
of the magnetic force is towards the north hence the direction of magnetic field will be upward according
to Fleming’s Left hand rule.

1. State Fleming’s left-hand rule.
Solution:
Fleming’s Left hand rule states that if we arrange our thumb, forefinger and middle finger of the left hand
right angles to each other, then the thumb points towards the direction of the magnetic force, the forefinger
points towards the direction of magnetic field and the middle finger points towards the direction of current.
2. What is the principle of an electric motor?

Solution:
The working principle of electric motor is based on the magnetic effect of current. A current carrying
conductor when placed in a magnetic field experiences force and rotates. The direction of the rotation of
the conductor can be determined by Fleming’s Left hand rule.
3. What is the role of split ring in an electric motor?

Solution:
Split ring plays the role of commutator in an electric motor. The commutator reverses the direction of the
current flowing through the coil after each half rotation of the coil. Due to this reversal of current, the coil
continues to rotate in the same direction.
1. Explain different ways to induce current in a coil.
Solution:
Following are the different ways to induce current in a coil:
 If the coil is moved rapidly between the two poles of horse shoe magnet, electric current is induced
in the coil.
 When a magnet is moved relative to the coil, an electric current is induced in the coil.

1. State the principle of an electric generator.
Solution:
Electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. In a generator, electricity is
generated by rotating a coil in the magnetic field.
2. Name some sources of direct current.

Solution:
DC generator and cell are some sources of direct current.
3. Which sources produce alternating current?

Solution:
Power plants and AC generators are some of the sources that produce alternating current.
4. Choose the correct option.

A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the induced current
changes once in each
a. two revolutions
b. one revolution
c. half revolution
d. one-fourth revolution
Solution:
c. half revolution
When a rectangular coil is rotated in magnetic field, the direction of the induced current changes once in
half revolution. As result, the direction of the current in the coil remains the same.

1. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits and appliances.
Solution:
The safety measured commonly used in electric circuits are as follows:
(i) Fuse
Each circuit should be connected to a fuse because a fuse prevents the flow of excessive current
through the circuit. When the current in the circuit exceeds the maximum limit of the fuse
element, the fuse melts to stop the flow of current protecting the appliance connected to circuit.
(ii) Earthing
Earthing protects the user from electric shocks. Any leakage of current in an appliance is
transferred to ground by earthing and the people using the appliance is prevented from getting
electrocuted.
2. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220 V) that has a
current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect? Explain.
Solution:
The current drawn by the electric oven can be calculated using the formula
P=V×I
I = P/V
I = 2000 W/220 V = 9.09 A
The current drawn by the electric oven is 9.09 A which exceeds the safe limit of the circuit. This causes
the fuse to melt and break the circuit.
3. What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits?
Solution:
A few of the precautions to be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits are as follows:
 Connecting too many devices to a single socket should be avoided
 Using too many appliances at the same time should be avoided
 Faulty appliances should not be connected to the circuit
Exercises Page:240
1. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?
a. The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
b. The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
c. The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
d. The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Solution:
d. The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
The magnetic field near a long straight wire are concentric circles. Their centers lie on the wire.
2. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is

a. the process of charging a body.
b. the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
c. producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
d. the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
Solution:
c. producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
The phenomenon of inducing current in a coil due to the relative motion between the coil and the magnet
Is known as electromagnetic induction.
3. The device used for producing electric current is called a

a. generator
b. galvanometer
c. ammeter
d. motor
Solution:
a. generator
The device used for producing electric current is known as generator. Generator converts mechanical
energy to electric energy.
4. The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that

a. AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet.
b. DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
c. AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
d. AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
Solution:
d. AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
AC generators have two rings known as the slip rings while DC generators have two half rings known as
the commutator. This is main difference between AC generator and DC generator.
5. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit

a. reduces substantially.
b. does not change.
c. increases heavily.
d. vary continuously.
Solution:
c. increases heavily
When two naked wires in the circuit come in contact with each other, the amount of current flowing in the
circuit increase abruptly resulting in short circuit.
6. State whether the following statements are true or false.

a. An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
b. An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
c. The field at the center of a long circular coil carrying current will be parallel straight lines.
d. A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an electric supply.
Solution:
a. False
An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
b. True
An electric generator is a device that generates electricity by rotating a coil in a magnetic field.
c. True
A long circular coil is a solenoid. The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are parallel straight lines.
d. False
Live wires have red insulation cover while the earth wire has green insulation.
7. List two methods of producing magnetic fields.

Solution:
Following are the methods of producing magnetic fields:
 By using a permanent magnet we can produce magnetic field and it can be visualized by
spreading iron fillings on a white paper and keeping a magnet beneath the paper.
 A current carrying straight conductor produces magnetic field.
 Different types of conductors such as solenoid and circular loop can be used to see the presence
of magnetic field.
8. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you determine the north and south poles of a
current–carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.
Solution:
A solenoid is a long coil of circular loops of insulated copper wire. The magnetic field produced around
the solenoid when the current is passed through it is similar to the magnetic field produced around the bar
magnet when current is passed through it. The figure shown below shows the arrangement of magnetic
fields produced around the solenoid when current is passed through it.
When the north pole of the bar magnet is brought close to the end connected to the negative terminal of
the battery, the solenoid repels the battery. As like poles repel each other, we can infer that the end
connected to the negative terminal behaves as a north pole while the end connected to the positive
terminal behaves as a south pole.
9. When is the force experienced by a current–carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
Solution:
When the direction of the current is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field is when the force
experienced is the largest.
10. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall. An electron beam, moving
horizontally from back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a strong magnetic field to your right
side. What is the direction of magnetic field?
Solution:
The direction of the magnetic field can be determined using the Fleming’s Left hand rule. The direction of
the magnetic field will be perpendicular to the direction of current and the direction of deflection, i.e.,
either upward or downward. The direction of the current is from the front wall to the back wall because
negatively charged electrons move from the back wall to the front wall. The directed of the magnetic
force is rightward. Hence, using Fleming’s left hand rule it can be concluded that the direction of the
magnetic field inside the chamber is downward.
11. Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working. What is the
function of a split ring in an electric motor?
Solution:
An electric motor is a device that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy. It works on the
principle of magnetic effect of current. The figure listed below shows a simple electric motor.
When current is made to flow through the coil MNST by closing the switch, the coil starts to rotate in the
anticlockwise direction. This is due to the downward force acting on the length MN and simultaneously
an upward force acting along the length ST. As a result of which the coil rotates in the anticlockwise
direction. Current in the length MN flows from M to N and the magnetic fields act from left to right
normal to the length MN. According to Fleming’s Left Hand rule, a downward force acts along the length
MN. Similarly, the current along the length ST flows from S to T and the magnetic field acts from left to
right. Therefore, an upward force acts along the length ST. These two forces together cause the coil to
rotate anti-clockwise. After half a rotation, the position of MN and ST interchange. The half ring C come
in contact with brush B and the half ring D comes in contact with rush C. Hence the direction of current in
the coil MNST gets reversed.
12. Name some devices in which electric motors are used.

Solution:
A few devices in which electric motors are used are:
 Electric fans
 Water pumps
 Mixers
 Washing machines
13. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is
(i) pushed into the coil, (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil, (iii) held stationary inside the coil?
Solution:
(i) When a bar magnet is pushed into the coil, current is induced in the coil momentarily as a result the
galvanometer deflects in a particular direction momentarily.
(ii) When the bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil, current is induced momentarily but in the
opposite direction and the galvanometer deflects in the opposite direction momentarily.
(iii) When the bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, no current will be induced as a result there
will be no deflection in the galvanometer.
14. Two circular coils A and B are placed closed to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed,
will some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.
Solution:
When the current in coil A changes, the magnetic field associated with it also changes. As a result the
magnetic field around coil B undergoes change. The change in the magnetic field of coil B induces
current in it.
15. State the rule to determine the direction of a (i) magnetic field produced around a straight
conductor-carrying current, (ii) force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a
magnetic field which is perpendicular to it, and (iii) current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a
magnetic field.
Solution:
(i) The rule used to determine the direction of the magnetic field produced around a straight conductor-
carrying current is the Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule.
(ii) The rule used to determine the force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a
magnetic field which is perpendicular to it is the Fleming’s left hand rule.
(iii) The rule used to determine the current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field is the
Fleming’s right-hand rule.
16. Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator by drawing a labelled
diagram. What is the function of brushes?
Solution:
The electric generator coverts the mechanical energy into the electrical energy. The working principle of
the electric generator is the electromagnetic induction. It generates electricity by rotating a coil in the
magnetic field. The figure below shows the construction of a simple AC generator.
In the diagram,
A and B are brushes,
C and D are slip rings
X is the axle
G is the galvanometer
When the axle X is rotated clockwise, MN moves upwards while ST moves downward. The movement of
MN and ST in the magnetic field results in the production of electric current due to electromagnetic
induction. MN moves upwards and the magnetic fields act from left to right. Therefore, according to
Fleming’s right hand rule, the direction of the induced current will be from M to N along the length MN.
Similarly, the direction of the induced current will be from S to T along the length ST. The direction of
the current in the coil is MNST. Hence, galvanometer shows a deflection in a particular direction.
After half a rotation, length MN starts moving downwards while the length ST starts moving upwards.
Now, the direction of the induced current reverses to TSNM. Since the direction of the induced current
reverses every half rotation, the current induced is known as alternating current.
Function of Brushes
Brushes are kept pressed on to two slip rings separately. Outer ends of brushes are connected to the
galvanometer. Thus, brushes help in transferring current from coil to the external circuit.
17. When does an electric short circuit occur?

Solution:
Listed below are two instances of when a short-circuit can occur:
1) When too many appliances are connected to a single socket or when high power rating appliances are
connected to a light circuit, the resistance of the circuit becomes low as a result the current flowing
through the circuit becomes very high. This condition results in a short-circuit.
2) When live wires whose insulation have worn off come in contact with each other, the current flowing in
the circuit increases abruptly which results in a short circuit.
18. What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it necessary to earth metallic appliances?
Solution:
The metallic body of electric appliances is earthed by means of earth wire. Any leakage of electric wire is
transferred to the ground by means of earth wire. This prevents the user of the electric appliance from
getting electric shocks. This is the reason why it is important for the metallic appliances to be earthed.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
Chapter 14 Sources of Energy
Questions Page: 243

1. What is a good source of energy?
Solution:
A good source of energy has the following properties:
 Be economical
 Easy storage and transportation
 Easy availability
 Work done per unit volume or mass should be large.
2. What is a good fuel?

Solution:
A fuel is said to be good when it is easily available and when it produces a large amount of heat energy when
burnt.
3. If you could use any source of energy for heating your food, which one would you use and why?
Solution:
For heating and cooking, natural gas can be used for the below given reasons:
 It is easy for using
 It is easily available
 Easy transportation
 It does not produce huge amount of smoke when burnt
 It is highly inflammable.
Questions Page: 248

1. What are the disadvantages of fossil fuels?
Solution:
Following are the disadvantages of fossil fuels:
 Fossil fuels like coal and petroleum results in air pollution as there is release of huge amount of
pollutants.
 Gases such as carbon dioxide is released when a fossil fuel is burnt which causes global warming.
 Soil fertility and potable water is affected by the oxides of carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, etc. that are
released from fossil fuels.
2. Why are we looking at alternate sources of energy?

Solution:
The reason why we are looking at alternate sources of energy is because the fossil fuels are non-renewable
source of energy i.e. they are not available in large quantities and it cannot be replenished. Fossil fuels will get
exhausted if their consumption is not controlled. Therefore, it is better to switch to alternate source of energy.
3. How has the traditional use of wind and water energy been modified for our convenience?
Solution:
In olden days, wind energy was trapped used windmills to do mechanical works like lifting or drawing water
from a well. But these days, windmills are used to generate electricity. The kinetic energy of wind is trapped
and converted into electricity with the help of rotatory motion of the blades which turns the turbine of the
electric generator to produce electricity.
Similarly, waterfalls were the source of potential energy in olden days. But these days as the number of
waterfalls as reduced, water dams are constructed and are used as a source to trap the potential energy. Here,
the water falls from a certain height on the turbine producing electricity.
Questions Page: 253

14.3 ALTERNATE OR NON-CONVENTIONAL SOURCE OF ENERGY
1. What kind of mirror – concave, convex or plain would be best suited for use in a solar cooker? Why?
Solution:
For a solar cooker the heat source is sunlight for heating and cooking. The reason why a mirror is used is to
reflect and focus the sunlight at one point. So a concave mirror can be used in a solar cooker, as it focuses all
the sunlight at one point resulting in increase in temperature, thereby heating and cooking the food.
2. What are the limitations of the energy that can be obtained from the ocean?
Solution:
The different forms of energy that can be obtained from the ocean are tidal energy, wave energy and ocean
thermal energy. Following are the limitations of the energy obtained from ocean:
 The relative positioning of the earth, the sun and the moon as an impact on the tidal energy.
 For the conversion of tidal energy into electricity, high dams are required.
 To obtain electricity from wave energy, very strong waves are required.
 For trapping the ocean thermal energy, there should be a temperature difference of more than 20°C
between hot surface water and the cold water at a depth.
3. What is geothermal energy?

Solution:
Geothermal energy cab be defined as the energy that is obtained from the earth. The energy can be obtained
from the hot spots that are formed when the molten rocks at the core of the earth are pushed to the earth’s crust.
Hot springs are used for the production of electricity in the geothermal power plants.
4. What are the advantages of nuclear energy?

Solution:
Following are the advantages of nuclear energy:
 Amount of energy produced per unit mass is large
 As it does not produce any pollutants, it is clean
 Fission of 1 atom of uranium produces 10 million times the energy that is obtained by burning 1 atom
of carbon
14.4. ENVIRONMENTAL CONSEQUENCES
1. Can any source of energy be pollution-free? Why or why not?

Solution:
No source of energy can be pollution-free. But solar cells are considered to be pollution-free. But their
manufacturing may cause environmental damage. In case of nuclear energy, the waste produced after fusion is
zero. But the wastes that are produced during fission are hazardous. Hence, no source of energy is pollution-
free.
2. Hydrogen has been used as a rocket fuel. Would you consider it a cleaner fuel than CNG? Why or why
not?
Solution:
Hydrogen gas is cleaner than CNG as CNG contains hydrocarbons. Carbon is a form of pollutant in CNG.
On the other hand, hydrogen is waste-free and the fusion of hydrogen does not produce any waste. Hence,
hydrogen as a rocket fuel is cleaner than the CNG.
Questions Page: 254

1. Name two energy sources that you would consider to be renewable. Give reasons for your choices.
Solution:
Following are the two sources of energy that are renewable:
(i) Wind: Wind energy is obtained from the air which is blowing at a high speed. Wind energy is trapped
using windmills so as to generate electricity. Blowing of air is dependent on uneven heating of the earth.
Since the heating of the earth is forever, wind availability will also be forever.
(ii) Sun: The energy obtained from the sun is known as solar energy. It is produced by the fusion of
hydrogen into helium, fusion of helium into other heavy metals and it continues. A large amount of
hydrogen and helium is available in sun which will never be exhausted. Hence solar energy is renewable
source of energy.
2. Give the names of two energy sources that you would consider to be exhaustible. Give reasons for
your choices.
Solution:
Following are the two sources of energy that are exhaustible:
(i) Wood: The source of wood are forests. Due to deforestation the number of forests are reducing. We
know that it takes years to grow forest. If the rate of deforestation increases, the availability of wood will
decrease. Hence, wood is an exhaustible source of energy.
(ii) Coal: The source of coal is from the dead remains of the plants and animals that remained buried for
years. Industrialization has increased the demand for coal and it cannot be replenished. Hence, coal is also
an exhaustible source of energy.
Exercises Page: 254

1. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on
a) A sunny day
b) A cloudy day
c) A hot day
d) A windy day
Solution:
b) A sunny day
A solar water heater uses solar energy to heat water. On a cloudy day, the sunlight won’t be intense and
bright enough and it gets reflected back in the sky from the clouds. This holds the sunlight from reaching
the ground. Therefore, solar energy won’t available for the solar water heater to heat the water.
2. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?

a) Wood
b) Gobar-gas
c) Nuclear energy
d) Coal
Solution:
c) Nuclear energy
Bio-mass is obtained from the dead plants and animal wastes. In these dead plants and animals there
is a chemical change as they react with water and sunlight. But nuclear energy is obtained by fusion
and fission of atoms resulting in tremendous release of energy. Both nuclear fusion and fission can be
carried out in the absence of the sunlight.
Wood is a part of plant, gobar-gas is obtained from the animal dung and coal is obtained by the dead
remains of the plants and animals. Therefore, they are all bio-mass energy products.
3. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not
ultimately derived from the sun’s energy?
a) Geothermal energy
b) Wind energy
c) Nuclear energy
d) Bio-mass
Solution:
c) Nuclear energy
Nuclear energy is produced by nuclear fusion and nuclear fission. In nuclear fission, uranium atoms are
bombarded with low energy neutrons resulting in splitting of the atom into two relatively lighter nuclei. In
nuclear fusion, lighter nuclei are fused together to form a relatively heavier nuclei. The energy produced
in nuclear reaction is tremendous and can be carried out in the absence of sunlight.
Geothermal energy is obtained from the deep stored energy in the form heat in the earth’s crust. The
uneven heating of the earth’s surface results in wind movement and bio-mass is obtained from the dead
remains of the plants and the animals.
4. Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the sun as direct sources of energy.
Solution:
Fossil fuels are obtained from the earth’s crust as they are the remains of the dead plants and animals.
They are similar to coal and petroleum and readily available for the use. These are non-renewable source
of energy and cannot be replenished.
Whereas solar energy is abundant in nature and can be replenished.
5. Compare and contrast bio-mass and hydroelectricity as sources of energy.

Solution:
Bio-mass is obtained from the dead plants and animals. It renewable source of energy. Examples of bio-
mass sources of energies are wood, gobar-gas.
Hydroelectricity is obtained from the potential energy of the stored water at a certain height. Water from a
certain height is made to fall on the turbines of the generator resulting in electricity. Dams and reservoirs
are used in hydroelectricity.
Both bio-mass and hydroelectricity are renewable sources of energies.
6. What are the limitations of extracting energy from:

a) The wind?
b) Waves?
c) Tides?
Solution:
a) The wind: Wind energy is trapped using windmills. One of the limitations of the wind energy is that
the windmills requires a speed more than 15 km/h to generate electricity. And the number of windmills
will be more to cover a huge area.
b) Waves: In order to extract energy from the waves, very strong ocean waves are needed.
c) Tides: In order to extract energy from the tides, the sun, the moon and the earth should be in a straight
alignment and the tides should be very strong.
7. On what basis would you classify energy sources as:

a) Renewable and non-renewable?
b) Exhaustible and inexhaustible?
Are the options given in (a) and (b) the same?
Solution:
(a) Renewable and non-renewable:
Renewable energy sources are those which replenish on their own and are easily available in nature.
Like solar energy, tidal energy, wind energy, bio-mass.
Non-renewable energy sources are those which do not replenish on their own and have limited in
availability in nature. Like fossil fuels which includes petroleum, coal and natural gas.
(b) Exhaustible and inexhaustible:

Exhaustible source of energy are those which deplete after few hundred years. Like coal and
petroleum.
Inexhaustible source of energy are those which do not deplete and are available in abundant quantity.
Like solar and wind energy.
8. What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy?

Solution:
Following are the qualities of an ideal source of energy:
 It should be economical
 It should be easily available
 Pollution free
 Easy transportation and storage
 The amount of energy produced when burnt should be huge.
9. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a solar cooker? Are there places where solar
cookers would have limited utility?
Solution:
Advantages:
The heat source for a solar cooker is sunlight. It is a clean renewable and inexhaustible source of energy.
As its availability is unlimited, it will be pocket-friendly.
Disadvantages:
It doesn’t work on a cloudy day.
10. What are the environmental consequences of the increasing demand for energy? What steps would
you suggest to reduce energy consumption?
Solution:
Industrialization demands for more energy and to fulfil these demands fossil fuels are used as they are
readily available. Due to their harsh usage, it has an impact on the environment. Too much exploitation of
fossil fuels has led to greenhouse effect resulting in global warming.
But there are few possibilities of reducing this by reducing the usage of fossil fuels and opting for
alternate sources of energy. Reducing the unnecessary usage of electricity and water. Opting for public
transportation and reducing using own vehicles. These are few small steps that can be implemented for
reducing the energy consumption.
Chapter 15 Our Environment
Questions Page: 260

1. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the different trophic levels in it.
Solution:
In food chain, the transfer food or energy takes place at the various levels and these levels are known as trophic
levels.
Example:
Grass → Goat → Man
In food chain,
 Grass represents the first trophic level
 Goat represents the second trophic level
 Man represents the third trophic level
2. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?

Solution:
Following is the role of a decomposer in the ecosystem:
 They act as a cleansing agents of the environment by decomposing the dead plants and animals
 They help in recycling the nutrients
 They provide space for new being in the biosphere by decomposing the dead
 They help in putting back the various elements into water, soil and air for the reuse of producers like
crop plants.
Questions Page: 262

1. Why are some substances biodegradable and some non-biodegradable?
Solution:
The reason why some substances are biodegradable and some non-biodegradable is because the microorganisms
like bacteria and decomposers like saprophytes have a specific role to play. They can breakdown only natural
products like paper, wood etc. but they cannot breakdown man-made products like plastics. Based on this some
substances are biodegradable and some non-biodegradable.
2. Give any two ways in which biodegradable substance would affect the environment.
Solution:
Following are the ways in which biodegradable substance would affect the environment:
 They keep the environment clean as they are easily decomposed.
 They can easily go through the geo-chemical cycle with the help of decomposers.
3. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable substance would affect the environment.
Solution:
Following are the ways in which non-biodegradable substance would affect the environment:
 They cause air, soil and water pollution.
 They may cause bio-magnification in the food chain resulting in end of human.
Questions Page: 264

1. What is ozone and how does it affect the ecosystem?
Solution:
Ozone is a molecule formed by the three atoms of oxygen and is known as an isotope of oxygen. The main
function of ozone layer is to provide protection to the earth’s surface from the harmful UV rays of the sun.
These rays are harmful to living organisms and may result in skin cancer.
2. How can you help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Give any two methods.
Solution:
Following are the ways to reduce the problem of waste disposal:
(a) 3 R’s: By following the 3 R’s one can reduce the problem of waste disposal. The 3 R’s are reduce, recycle
and reuse. Reducing the usage of own vehicles and opting for public transport can reduce the air pollution.
Recycling and reusing of plastics is also a way to reduce the waste disposal.
(b) Preparation of compost: All the biodegradable wastes like kitchen waste, can be dumped in the compost.
Questions Page: 264

1. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items?
a) Grass, flowers and leather
b) Grass, wood and plastic
c) Fruit peels, cake and lime juice
d) Cake, wood and grass
Solution:
a) Grass, flowers and leather c) Fruit peels, cake and lime juice d) Cake, wood and grass
Above all are the groups that contain only biodegradable items. Since plastic is not a biodegradable
substance, that group cannot be considered as a biodegradable.
2. Which of the following constitute a food-chain?

a) Grass, wheat and mango
b) Grass, goat and human
c) Goat, cow and elephant
d) Grass, fish and goat
Solution:
b) Grass, goat and human
Here, grass is the producer, goat is the primary consumer and human is the secondary consumer.
3. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices?

a) Carrying cloth bags to put purchases in while shopping
b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans
c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her
scooter
d) All of the above
Solution:
All of the above
4. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Solution:
If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the food supply to the next level will strop resulting in
imbalance of the ecosystem. As a result animals in the higher levels will die making the growth of animals
in lower trophic level increase in an enormous way. All of this will affect the overall balance in the
ecosystem.
5. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in trophic level be different for different trophic levels?
Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing any damage to the ecosystem?
Solution:
Yes, the impact of removing all the organisms in a tropic level will be different for different trophic levels.
For example, if all the producers are removed, there is a chance of death or migration of the primary
consumers which will upset the trophic levels. This is same for all the levels. Therefore, removal of
organisms at any level would upset the whole ecosystem as the food chain is disturbed. The survival of the
higher level animals is completely dependent on the animals at the lower levels.
6. What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different at different levels of
the ecosystem?
Solution:
Biological magnification can be defined as the progressive increase in the concentration of non-
biodegradable wastes in the food chain. As there is an increase in the magnification at the primary level of
the ecosystems, all the other levels do get affected and the concentration may vary when compared to first
level.
7. What are the problems caused by the non-biodegradable wastes that we generate?
Solution:
Following are the problems caused by the non-biodegradable wastes:
 These substances cannot be decomposed by the microorganisms.
 As the quantity increases, dumping becomes a problem.
 Non-biodegradable wastes like heavy metals may enter the food chain in the upper trophic levels.
 They may escape to the ground water which causes soil infertility and disturbance in pH of the soil.
8. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this have no impact on the environment?
Solution:
Biodegradable wastes are decomposed by the microorganisms into simpler substances which can be used
by the producers as a raw material. But following are the effects of too much of biodegradable wastes:
- As the decomposition of the biodegradable wastes are slow, they produce awful smell and when inhaled
by humans it can be harmful.
- The dumping areas can be a place where harmful organisms may start to breed which can be harmful to
humans as well as plants and animals.
- Increase in the number of aquatic organisms may result in depletion of oxygen.
9. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern? What steps are being taken to limit this damage?
Solution:
Ozone layer is a protective cover for the earth. It prevents harmful UV rays from entering the earth as these
rays harmful and can result in skin cancer. But the air pollutants like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the
main reason for the depletion of the ozone layer. Too much of UV rays are harmful for plants as they affect
the photosynthesis, destroy planktons and decomposers. These are the reasons why damage of ozone layer
a cause of concern.
Steps taken to limit is many developing and developed countries have signed and are obeying the directions
of TINEP (United Nations Environment Programme) to freeze or limit the production and usage of CFCs.
Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources
Intext Questions – 1 Page: 271

1. What changes can you make in your habits to become more environment-friendly?
Solution:
In order to become more environment-friendly, the following practices can be incorporated in our day-to-day
lives:
• Turning off any electrical appliance (such as TV’s, water heaters, lights, fans, and air conditioners) when
they are not in use.
• Avoiding the wastage of water by fixing any leaking taps or pipes as soon as possible. Also, the amount of
water consumed must be controlled. For example, the tap should not be left running while brushing teeth.
• Disposing of plastic and glass wastes in recycling bins (many plastics take a long time to decompose and
can have adverse effects on the environment).
• Using recyclable and eco-friendly products instead of the convenient plastic products. For example, using
paper or cloth bags instead of polythene bags is an environment-friendly habit.
2. What would be the advantages of exploiting resources with short-term aims?

Solution:
Overconsumption of resources with short-term interests in mind will give a boost to the economy. However, the
increased growth of the economy will be short-lived since the exploitation of resources is not sustainable.
Exploiting resources for the sake of short-term goals will be beneficial to the present generations but not for
future generations.
3. How would these advantages differ from the advantages of using a long-term perspective in managing
our resources?
Solution:
The long-term model of resource consumption enables the conservation of the resources for them to be used by
future generations. This will enable the economy to grow over a longer timeframe. It also provides more time for
technology to advance and discover new, sustainable energy sources (such as nuclear fusion and fuel cells). All in
all, the long-term perspective in managing of resources has significantly greater advantages when compared to the
short-term perspective.
4. Why do you think that there should be an equitable distribution of resources? What forces would be
working against an equitable distribution of our resources?
Solution:
Equitable distribution of resources enables every human to receive their share of the resources and makes sure
that everyone has the basic requirements for life (such as food, water, shelter, etc.). The forces that work against
equitable distribution include:
 The regional distribution of resources (such as soil and minerals).
 Corruption and greed of some humans
 Uneven distribution of resources between the rich and the poor.

1. Why should we conserve forests and wildlife?
Solution:
The conservation of forests is very important for the stability of the environment. Forests serve as a home to a
huge variety of life-forms. Destruction of these forests can disturb the food chain and lead to the extinction of
many important species. Also, forests protect the soil from erosion and play a vital role in the water cycle. The
loss of forests can severely affect the day-to-day lives of humans.
2. Suggest some approaches towards the conservation of forests.

Solution:
Some steps that can be taken to conserve forests include:
Planting of trees to combat deforestation.
Placement of security forces in forests to prevent the poaching and smuggling of forest resources.
Incorporating steps to protect the forest dwellers without disturbing their lifestyles.
Avoiding the conversion of forest land into roads, buildings, and dams.

1. Find out about the traditional systems of water harvesting/ management in your region.
Solution:
In populated metropolitan cities, the primary sources of water include groundwater and lakes. Groundwater is
harvested with the help of bore wells whereas pipes harvest water directly from the lakes. The harvested water is
then stored in water tankers placed at strategic locations throughout the city.
2. Compare the above system with the probable systems in hilly/ mountainous areas or plains or plateau
regions.
Solution:
In hilly regions, rainwater is often collected and channelled with the help of a stream. The stream is diverted to
different areas with the help of canals for the purpose of irrigation. In mountainous regions, water is commonly
obtained from the rivers that flow from the glaciers.
In the plains, water is obtained from many natural sources such as lakes and rivers. Groundwater is also harvested
with the help of bore wells for irrigation and human consumption.
3. Find out the source of water in your region/locality. Is water from this source available to all people
living in that area?
Solution:
In metropolitan cities, the primary source of water is groundwater. This water is made available to all people in
the city. However, poor infrastructure in some localities makes it difficult for some people to obtain the water.
Exercises Page: 280

1. What changes would you suggest in your home in order to be environment-friendly?
Solution:
Some important changes that can help make homes more environment-friendly include:
 Segregation of the garbage into biodegradable waste (food waste) and non-biodegradable waste (plastics).
 Use of eco-friendly products such as cloth shopping bags and paper cups instead of plastics.
 Avoiding the wastage of electricity by switching off the electrical appliances that are not in use.
 Avoiding the wastage of water by quickly fix leaking taps and incorporating practices that reduce water
wastage (such as closing the taps while brushing and using water judiciously while bathing).
2. Can you suggest some changes in your school which would make it environment-friendly?
Solution:
Some important changes that can help make schools more environment-friendly include:
• Providing a platform for students and teachers to report any leaking taps so that they can be quickly repaired
by the school plumber.
• Students and teachers must make sure all the lights and fans are switched off when the classes end for the
day.
• Setting up waste segregation bins for biodegradable waste and non-biodegradable waste throughout the
school.
• Promoting the use of transport methods such as bicycles and school buses.
3. We saw in this chapter that there are four main stakeholders when it comes to forests and wildlife.
Which among these should have the authority to decide the management of forest produce? Why do you
think so?
Solution:
The government’s forest department should have the authority because they are a branch of the government which
is elected by the people. However, these forest authorities must not be corrupt and must not accept bribes from
poachers/smugglers. The forest authorities can use the resources of the government to effectively protect and
preserve the forest areas.
4. How can you as an individual contribute or make a difference to the management of (a) forests and
wildlife, (b) water resources and (c) coal and petroleum?
Solution:
(a) An individual can contribute to the management of forest and wildlife resources by:
• Organizing and participating in rallies that protest against deforestation and wildlife poaching.
• Volunteering for many non-government organizations (NGOs) that work towards the protection of forests
and wildlife.
• Organizing and participating in group activities that involve the planting of new trees in forest areas.
(b) An individual can contribute towards the management of water resources by:
• Avoiding the wastage of water in their daily lives by using water judiciously.
• Spreading awareness about the importance of water management by participating in rallies/ activities.
• Promoting practices such as rainwater harvesting and discouraging the discharge of wastewater and sewage
into lakes and rivers.
(c) An individual can contribute towards the management of non-renewable energy sources such as coal and
petrol by:
• Using fuel-efficient transportation methods such as carpooling, use of public transport, and use of bicycles.
• Using energy-efficient light sources such as CFLs and LEDs instead of ordinary bulbs.
• Using solar water heaters instead of electric heaters for heating water.
5. What can you as an individual do to reduce your consumption of the various natural resources?
Solution:
Some practices that can be followed by individuals in order to reduce their consumption of natural resources
include:
 Use of fuel-efficient transport options such as carpooling, bicycles, and public transport.
 Judicious use of water and avoidance of its wastage.
 Use of recycled products such as recycled paper and bottles to reduce the demand for natural resources.
 Promoting the use of renewable resources by using solar water heaters instead of electric heaters.
6. List five things you have done over the last week to (a) conserve our natural resources. (b) increase the
pressure on our natural resources.
Solution:
Practices for the conservation of natural resources include:
 Use of bicycles and public transport while traveling to reduce fuel consumption.
 Use of recycled paper and other recycled products.
 Segregation of garbage into biodegradable and non-biodegradable bins.
 Avoiding the wastage of water by using it judiciously and fixing any leaking taps/pipes.
Practices that deplete natural resources include:

 Wastage of electrical energy by leaving electrical appliances on after use.
 Wastage of water by ignoring any leaking pipes/taps and leaving the tap on while brushing.
 Excessive use of plastic products such as polythene bags.
7. On the basis of the issues raised in this chapter, what changes would you incorporate in your lifestyle in a
move towards the sustainable usage of our resources?
Solution:
The following changes can be incorporated into the lifestyles of individuals in order to move towards a
sustainable usage of natural resources:
• Segregate the waste generated in homes into biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.
• Avoid the wastage of electricity by switching of lights, fans, and other electrical appliances when not in use.
• Use water judiciously and avoid its wastage by quickly repairing any leaking taps/pipes.
• Avoid the wastage of water by regulating the quantity of water consumed for bathing, washing clothes,
brushing, etc.
• Practicing environment-friendly methods such as rainwater harvesting and planting of trees.
• Usage of recycled products such as recycled paper and bottles.
• Usage of eco-friendly products such as cloth shopping bags and paper cups instead of non-biodegradable
polythene bags and disposable plastic cups.

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NCERT Solution for class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

In-text questions set 1 Page number – 6

1. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?

2. Write a balanced equations for the following chemical reactions.

Intext questions set 2 Page number - 10

1. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for whitewashing.

In-text questions set 3 Page number – 13

Exercise Questions Page number - 14-16

1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?

added to the elemental Carbon.

2. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe

4. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should a chemical equation be balanced?

(b) Unbalanced: H2S + O2 → H2O + SO2

(d) Unbalanced: K + H2O → KOH + H2

6. Balance the following chemical equations.

9) What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.

10. Why is respiration considered to be an exothermic reaction?

(b) Electrolytic decomposition reaction (Electrolysis)

(c) Photodecomposition reaction (Photolysis)

water and oxygen.

Double displacement reaction

15. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.

CdSO4(aq) + K2S(aq) → CdS(s) + K2SO4(aq)

18) Why do we apply paint on iron articles?

20) Explain the following terms with one example each.

In-text questions set 1

In-text questions set 2

in text questions set 3

2. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?

5. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of

In-text questions set 4

1. You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B

In text questions set 5

1. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?

4. What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the

Exercise questions Page number – 33

1. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be

(a)NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl

3. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a

Solution: Since 10 ml of NaOH requires 8 mL of HCL, 20 ml of NaOH require 8 x 2 = 16mL of

(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules:

(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.

(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.

=> 3H2SO4(aq) + 2Al(s) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)

(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.

• Distilled water does not contain any ionic compounds in it.

8. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?

9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH

(b) Strongly alkaline?

(c) Strongly acidic?

(d) Weakly acidic?

(e) Weakly alkaline?

Solution: In increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration:

13. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?

14. What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.

Washing soda Baking soda

1. It can be used to test the garden soil for

2. If used on washing car then it will

In-text questions set 1

1. Give an example of a metal which