Security in Computing

Unit 1

1. is one of the most important assets a company possesses.

a) Employees
b) Resources
c) Information
d) Money

Ans: Information

2. Confidential information is available to external audiences only for business-related purposes and only after entering
a or equivalent obligation of confidentiality.

a) Nondemocratic Agreement (NDA)

b) Nondisclosure Agreement (NDA)
c) National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
d) Nondisclosure Alliance (NDA)

Ans: Nondisclosure Agreement (NDA)

3. Originally, the academic security model was and the government security model was .

a) closed and locked, wide open

b) wide locked, open and closed
c) wide and open, wide and closed
d) wide open, closed and locked

Ans: wide open, closed and locked

4. A approach doesn’t work when you need to allow thousands or millions of people to have access to
the services on your network.

a) closed-door
b) open-door
c) wide-door
d) locked-door

Ans: closed door

5. An approach doesn’t work when you need to protect the privacy of each individual who interacts with
the services on your network.

a) closed-door
b) open-door
c) wide-door
d) locked-door

Ans: open-door

6. As more companies started doing business on the Internet, concepts such as were developed
to provide business services over the Internet.

a) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
b) Virtual private networks (VPNs)
c) Personally identifiable information (PII)
d) Storage as a Service (SaaS)

Ans: Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)

7. What can result in service outages during which customers cannot make purchases and the company cannot transact
business?

a) virus outbreak
b) web site outage
c) denial of service (DoS) attack
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

Ans: All of the above

8. means that software and data can be used on multiple platforms or can be transferred/transmitted
within an organization, to a customer, or to a business partner.

a) Portability
b) Accessibility
c) Authority
d) Sharing

Ans: Portability

9. is concerned with protecting information in all its forms, whether written, spoken, electronic,
graphical, or using other methods of communication.

a) Software Security
b) Information Security
c) Network Security
d) Storage Security

Ans: Information security

10. is concerned with protecting data, hardware, and software on a computer network.

a) Software Security
b) Information Security
c) Network Security
d) Storage Security

Ans: Network security

11. The three Ds of security stand for:

a) Defense, dedication, and deterrence

b) Defense, detection, and discipline
c) Defense, detection, and deterrence
d) Defense, detection, and diligence

Ans: defense, detection, and deterrence

12. Without adequate a security breach may go unnoticed for hours, days, or even forever.

a) Detection
b) Deterrence
c) Defense
d) All of the above

Ans: Detection

13. The 3 aspects of Security are:

a) Defense, dedication, and deterrence

b) Defense, detection, and discipline
c) Defense, detection, and deterrence
d) Defense, detection, and diligence

Ans: defense, detection, and deterrence

14. provides a defensible approach to building the program.

a) Security program
b) Security framework
c) Planning
d) Security initiatives

Ans: Security framework

15. A security program defines the purpose, scope, and responsibilities of the security organization and
gives formal authority for the program.

a) Charter
b) Memo
c) Document
d) File

Ans: Charter

16. The provides a framework for the security effort.

a) Security program
b) Security framework
c) Security policy
d) Security initiatives

Ans: Security framework

17. change with each version of software and hardware, as features are added and functionality changes,
and they are different for each manufacturer.

a) Standards
b) Rules
c) Application
d) Files

Ans: Standards

18. Guidelines for the use of software, computer systems, and networks should be clearly documented for the sake of
the people who use these technologies.

a) Standards
b) Rules
c) Guidelines
d) Security

Ans: Guidelines

19. provides a perspective on current risks to the organization’s assets.

a) Risk Analysis
b) Planning
c) Guidelines
d) Security

Ans: Risk Analysis

20. compares the desired state of the security program with the actual current state and identifies the
differences.

a) Risk Analysis
b) Security Analysis
c) Comparison Analysis
d) Gap Analysis

Ans: Gap Analysis

21. is a plan of action for how to implement the security remediation plans.

a) Charter
b) Outline
c) Roadmap
d) Layout

Ans: Roadmap

22. The documents how security technologies are implemented, at a relatively high level.

a) Charter
b) Security architecture
c) Roadmap
d) Layout

Ans: security architecture

23. The actions that should be taken when a security event occurs are defined in? the incident response plan.

a) Charter
b) Security architecture
c) Roadmap
d) Incident response plan

Ans: Incident response plan

24. is the process of defense, is the process of insurance, and is deciding that the risk
does not require any action.

a) Planning, transference, acceptance

b) Planning, mitigation, acceptance
c) Transference, mitigation, acceptance
d) Mitigation, transference, acceptance

Ans: Mitigation, transference, acceptance

25. is a term used to describe where a threat originates and the path it takes to reach a target.

a) Threat vector
b) Origin vector
c) Target vector
d) Trojan vector
Ans: Threat vector

26. refers to a Trojan program planted by an unsuspecting employee who runs a program provided by a
trusted friend from a storage device like a disk or USB stick, that plants a back door inside the network.

a) Threat exploit
b) Friend exploit
c) Girlfriend exploit
d) Trusted exploit

Ans: Girlfriend exploit

27. Which are the generally recognized variants of malicious mobile code?

a) Viruses
b) Worms
c) Trojans
d) a and b
e) a, b and c

Ans: a, b and c

28. is a self-replicating program that uses other host files or code to replicate.

a) Virus
b) Worm
c) Trojan
d) None of the above

Ans: Virus

29. If the virus executes, does its damage, and terminates until the next time it is executed, it is known as?

a) Temporary virus
b) Resident virus
c) Nonresident virus
d) Stealth virus

Ans: Nonresident virus

30. If the virus stays in memory after it is executed, it is called?

a) Permanent virus
b) Memory-resident virus
c) Memory Nonresident virus
d) None of the above

Ans: Memory-resident virus

31. Which viruses insert themselves as part of the operating system or application and can manipulate any file that is
executed, copied, moved, or listed?

a) Permanent viruses
b) Memory-resident viruses
c) Memory Nonresident viruses
d) None of the above
Ans: Memory-resident virus

32. If the virus overwrites the host code with its own code, effectively destroying much of the original contents, it is
called?

a) Overwriting virus
b) Stealth virus
c) Nonresident virus
d) Parasitic virus

Ans: Overwriting virus

33. If the virus inserts itself into the host code, moving the original code around so the host programming still remains
and is executed after the virus code, the virus is called?

a) Overwriting virus
b) Stealth virus
c) Prepending virus
d) Parasitic virus

Ans: Parasitic virus

34. Viruses that copy themselves to the beginning of the file are called? prepending viruses

a) Overwriting virus
b) Appending virus
c) Prepending virus
d) Parasitic virus

Ans: Prepending virus

35. Viruses placing themselves at the end of a file are called?

a) Overwriting virus
b) Appending virus
c) Prepending virus
d) Parasitic virus

Ans: Appending virus

36. Viruses appearing in the middle of a host file are labeled? mid-infecting viruses.

a) Mid-infecting viruses
b) Appending viruses
c) Prepending viruses
d) Parasitic viruses

Ans: Mid-infecting viruses

37. Who works by posing as legitimate programs that are activated by an unsuspecting user?

a) Virus
b) Worm
c) Trojan
d) None of the above

Ans: Trojan
38. Which type of Trojans infect a host and wait for their originating attacker’s commands telling them
to attack other hosts.

a) Directed Action Trojans

b) Zombie Trojans
c) Remote Access Trojans
d) None of the above

Ans: Zombie Trojans

39. CIA stands for?

a) Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

b) Confidentiality, Integrity, and Accessibility
c) Confirmity, Integrity, and Accessibility
d) Confidentiality, Integrity, and Authority

Ans: Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

40. refers to the restriction of access to data only to those who are authorized to use it.

a) Confidentiality
b) Authority
c) Accessibility
d) None of the above

Ans: Confidentiality

41.Onion model is also known as:

a) Perimeter Security
b) Defense in depth
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

Ans: Defense in depth

 Security in Computing MCQs
Unit I
1. Which of the following is not a layer of security?
a. Physical Security
b. Intermediate Security
c. Operations Security
d. Network Security
2. VPN stands for ______
a. Visual Private Network
b. Visual Private Networking
c. Virtual Private Network
d. Virtual Private Networking
3. Which of the following is not a benefit of Security Program?
a. Business Agility
b. Cost Reduction
c. Portability
d. Frees RAM
4. Firewalls, network access control, spam and malware filtering are ______ types
of controls
a. Defensive
b. Detective
c. Deterrent
d. Managerial
5. Which of the following is not a type of detective control?
a. Surveillance camera
b. Web content filtering
c. Motion sensors
d. Car alarm systems
6. A ______ analysis compares the desired state of the security program with the
current state and identifies the differences
a. risk
b. security
 c. remedy
d. gap

7. A ________ is a plan of action for how to implement the security remediation

plans.
a. Incident plan
b. Response plan
c. Roadmap
d. Risk plan
8. The actions that should be taken when security event occurs are defined in
the_________
a. Project Plan
b. Remedy Plan
c. Incident response plan
d. Policy plan
9. “The job of the attacker is difficult than the job of the defender”
a. False
b. True
10. What is transitive Security?
a. All security controls need not complement each other and each should be
equally as strong as the others
b. All security controls need not complement each other and should be unequal
c. All security controls should complement each other and each should be
equally as strong as the others
d. All security controls should complement each other and should be unequal
11. PBX stands for _________
a. Public Branch Exchange
b. Private Branch Exchange
c. Public Branch Environment
d. Private Branch Environment
12. What is difference between strategy and tactic?
 a. Strategy are done in small time frame whereas tactic is small time goal
b. Strategy are smaller steps whereas tactic are large concrete steps
c. Strategy are small-term goals whereas tactic are large concrete steps
d. Strategy are long-term goals whereas tactic are small concrete steps
13. Content attacks, Buffer overflows and Password cracking are attacks of which
layer?
a. Transport
b. Physical
c. Application
d. Network

14. _______ occurs when an unauthorized third party captures network packets
destined for computers other than their own.
a. Tracking
b. SQL Injection
c. Sniffing
d. Traffic replay
15. NIC stands for ___________
a. Network Interface Card
b. Network Intermediate Card
c. Network Interface Configuration
d. Network Intermediate Configuration
16. _____ refers to the restriction of access to data only to those who are authorized
to use it
a. Integrity
b. Confidentiality
c. Availability
d. Privacy
17. Perimeter model is like ___________
a. Onion
b. layer
c. lollipop
d. sponge
18. What is the threat from “Windows Shell Command File”?
a. It can execute malicious code
b. It can contain malicious code
c. It can install malicious code
d. It can change security settings
19. A self-replicating program that uses other host file or code to replicate is called
_____
a. Worms
b. Virus
c. Trojan
d. Ransomware
20. How can we defend network from ARP poisoning?
a. Firewall
b. Use Encryption
c. Secure P2P Services
d. Configure Port Rate Limiting
 Security in Computing MCQs
Unit II
1.Which mechanism is used for securing access to a given system based on one category of
identification?

a) Multi Factor Authentication

b) Two Factor Authentication

c) Single Factor Authentication

d) None of the above

Ans. Single Factor Authentication

2.Symmetric key cryptography is used for _________.

a) Encryption

b) Decryption

c) Encryption and Decryption

d) None of the above

Ans. Encryption and Decryption

3.What are the modes of block ciphers?

a) Output Feedback

b) Electronic Codebook

c) Cipher Feedback

d) A and C

e) All of the above

Ans. All of the above

4.______ key is used for decrypting the data in public key cryptography.

a) Public

b) Symmetric

c) Private

d) Authorization
Ans. Private

5.______ is a system for storing and maintaining encryption keys.

a) Digital Certificate

b) Public Key Infrastructure

c) Certificate Authority

d) Registration Authority

Ans. Public Key Infrastructure

6.__________ are used to provide certificate to users, computers and other services.

a) Intermediate CA

b) Root CA

c) Digital Certificate

d) Issuing CA

Ans. Issuing CA

7. The newest form of portable storage is the _________.

a) Portable Hard Drive

b) Solid State Drive (SSD)

c) Flash Drive

d) USB

Ans. Solid State Drive (SSD)

8. _________ can be accessed by most computers and other devices on the network

a) Network-attached storage (NAS)

b) Storage area networks (SANs)

c) Hard Drive

d) Server

Ans. Network-attached storage (NAS)

9. A __________ is the mechanism an array uses to present its storage to a host operating system

a) Virtual LANS (VLAN’S)

b) Logical Unit Number (LUN)

c) Zoning

d) None of the above

Ans. Logical Unit Number (LUN)

10. __________ are associated with vulnerabilities and threats pertaining to the privacy and control
of information.

a) Forwarding

b) Availability risks

c) Confidentiality risks

d) None of the above

Ans. Confidentiality risks

11.A _______ is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users

a) Data Tampering

b) Accidental Modification

c) Data Deletion

d) Denial of service (DoS) attack

Ans. Denial of service (DoS) attack

12.________ statement retrieves information from database.

a) Insert

b) Select

c) Delete

d) Update

Ans. Select

13.________ removes any current permissions settings for the specified users or roles.

a) Deny

b) Grant

c) Revoke

d) Delete
Ans. Revoke

14. ________ are designed to automatically be “fired” whenever specification actions take place
within a database.

a) Triggers

b) Stored Procedures

c) Views

d) None of the above

Ans. Triggers

15.What are the factors that can affect the implementation of backup processes?

a) Storage Space

b) Processing time

c) Network Bandwidth

d) All of the above

Ans. All of the above

16._________ backup consists of copying all of the data that has changed since the last backup.

a) Differential backups

b) Transaction log backups

c) Full Backup

d) None of the above

Ans. Differential backups

17._________ is the process by which people prove they are who they say they are

a) Authorization

b) Declaration

c) Authentication

d) Authority

Ans. Authentication
18._________ is a network authentication system based on the use of tickets.

a) MSCHAP

b) Kerberos

c) Central Storage

d) CHAP

Ans. Kerberos

19. CHAP stands for?

a) Challenge Handshake authentication protocol
b) Challenge Hardware authentication protocol
c) Circuit Hardware authentication protocol
d) Circuit Handshake authentication protocol

Ans. Challenge Handshake authentication protocol

20.The information that gets transformed in encryption is ____________.

a) Plain text
b) Parallel text
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text

Ans. Encrypted text

21._________ use hardware- or software-based authenticators that generate a random seed based
on the current time of day

a) Sequential Keys

b) Clock Keys

c) Time-based keys

d) None of the above

Ans. Time-based keys

22._________ is a certificate-based system that is used to provide authentication of secure web

servers and clients and to share encryption keys between servers and clients.

a) Certificate Authority

b) Secure Sockets Layer

c) Digital Certificate

d) Transport Layer Security

Ans. Secure Sockets Layer

23.__________ are used for a granular selection of permissions.

a) Read

b) Modify

c) Special Permission

d) None of the above

Ans. Special Permission

24. An algorithm in encryption is called _____________

a) Algorithm
b) Procedure
c) Cipher
d) Module

Ans. Cipher

25. SP 800-63 in NIST is for __________ .

a) Recommendation for Block Cipher Modes of Operation: The CMAC Mode for Authentication

b) Electronic Authentication Guideline

c) Federal Agency Use of Public Key Technology for Digital Signatures and Authentication

d) Recommendation for EAP Methods Used in Wireless Network Access Authentication

Ans. Electronic Authentication Guideline

26.__________ key is kept secret.

a) Symmetric

b) Private

c) Public

d) Single

Ans. Private
27.PKI stands for __________.

a) Private Key Infrastructure

b) Public Key Infrastructure

c) Public Kinetic Infrastructure

d) Proxy Key Infrastructure

Ans. Public Key Infrastructure

28. Which of the following is true about Public Key Infrastructure?

a) PKI is a combination of digital certificates, public-key cryptography, and certificate authorities that
provide enterprise wide security.
b) PKI uses two-way symmetric key encryption with digital certificates, and Certificate Authority.
c) PKI uses private and public keys but does not use digital certificates.
d) PKI uses CHAP authentication.
Ans. PKI is a combination of digital certificates, public-key cryptography, and certificate authorities
that provide enterprise wide security.

29. Windows Server 2008 R2 introduced version ____ templates, which add support for the newer
Microsoft Crypto-API, giving administrators the ability to produce certificates using the more
advanced and secure elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) cryptography service providers (CSPs).

a) 2

b) 1

c) 4

d) 3

Ans. 3

30.Specific CA roles are ________.

a) CA Manager

b) CA Controller

c) CA Administrator

d) A and C

Ans. A and C

31.Storage infrastructure consists of ________.

a) Storage networks

b) Arrays

c) Servers

d) All of the Above

Ans. All of the above

32. Reproduction of traffic and data that was previously sent on a network is called ________.

a) Packet replay

b) Packet Sniffing

c) Espionage

d) None of the Above

Ans. Packet Replay

33. Full form of OLTP is ________.

a) Online Transaction Processing

b) Online Transaction Program

c) Oracle Transaction Processing

d) Online Terminal Processing

Ans. Online Transaction Processing

34. What are the recovery requirements of data?

a) Cost of downtime

b) Value of the data

c) Amount of acceptable data loss

d) All of the above

Ans. All of the above

35. What are the types of backups?

a) Full backups

b) Half backups

c) Transaction log backups

d) A and B

Ans. A and B

36. An _________ is any unexpected downtime or unreachability of a computer system or network.

a) Downtime

b) Outage

c) Breakdown

d) Modification

Ans. Outage

37. Types of risks to database?

a) Data Leakage

b) Fraud

c) Inappropriate Administrator Access

d) All of the above

Ans. All of the above

38. Full form of NAS is _____________

a) New Area Storage

b) Network Around Storage

c) Network Area Storage

d) New Around Storage

Ans. Network Area Storage

39. A _________ issues, catalogs, renews, and revokes certificates under the management of a
policy and administrative control

a) Certificate authority (CA)

b) Digital Certificate

c) CA Manager

d) Root CA

Ans. Certificate authority (CA)

 Unit II

1. One-time password, Biometrics are types of ____________

a. Authorization
b. Authentication
c. Encryption
d. None of the above
2. ____________ authentication requires user to authenticate with more than one
authentication factor
a. Mobile Authentication
b. Continuous Authentication
c. Multifactor Authentication
d. Three-Factor Authentication
3. Which of the following is incorrect about OAuth Authentication?
a. It is an open standard for token-based authentication and authorization on
internet
b. It allows user’s account information to be used by third party services without
exposing user’s password
c. OAuth acts as an intermediary on behalf of user
d. OAuth stands for Onion-route Authorization
4. Which of the following is not a synonym of crypt?
a. light
b. vault
c. chamber
d. hidden
5. Confidentiality, Integrity, Non-repudiation and Authentication are objectives of
______
a. Risk Management
b. Cryptography
c. Authorization
d. Administration
6. From below which of the following is not a property of “Public key encryption
Scheme”-
i. Different keys are used for encryption and decryption
 ii. Receiver needs to publish an encryption key referred to as his private key
iii. Each sender possesses a unique decryption key generally known as public
key
a. i. and ii.
b. i. and iii.
c. ii. only
d. ii. and iii.
7. NAS can be accessed by most of the computers and other devices on the network,
while SAN is typically used by servers.
a. False
b. True

8. ___________ is an attempt to trick the victim into disclosing personal information

a. Hijacking
b. Theft
c. Phishing
d. Packet sniffing
9. The HTTP cookies used to maintain a session on a website is stolen by attacker
and now attacker is using it to gain access to privileged information posing as a
genuine user.
What type of attack is this?
a. Hijacking
b. Theft
c. Phishing
d. Packet sniffing
10. A _____ type of attack is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to
its intended users.
a. Application failure
b. Outage
c. Denial of Service
d. Backup failure
11. _____ is any unexpected downtime or unreachability of a computer system or
network
a. Application failure
 b. Outage
c. Denial of Service
d. Backup failure
12. __________improves security through control of the connections between hosts
and storage array
a. Server
b. Offsite Data Storage
c. Arrays
d. Post-based Zoning
13. How many layers are there in Database Security?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 5
d. 8
14. Once a legitimate user has connected to the server, the user will be given only
permissions that are granted to that login. This process is generally known as
___________
a. Authentication
b. Protection
c. Authorization
d. None of the above
15. Which of the following are application level threats to Database?
a. XSS attack
b. Phishing
c. Cookie Poisoning
d. Theft
16. Which of the following are type of Database backups?
a. Half Backup
b. Full Backup
c. Transaction log backup
d. Semi Backup
17. Which of the following are Database Monitoring software?
a. DB2
b. Oracle Database 12c
 c. Windows performance toolkit
d. SolarWinds Database Performance Analyser
18. What are two major concerns while using application level security in DB?
a. Any defects or vulnerabilities in the application will compromise DB’s security
b. Difficult to handle
c. Implementing is very tough
d. It does not provide any type of protection for users that can bypass the
application
19. When the response time of a computer or network is considered unacceptably
slow, its availability is affected. This is known as _______
a. High Availability Failure
b. Slowness
c. DOS
d. Response Failure
20. In ____ encryption each computer has a secret key that it can use to encrypt a
packet of information before it is sent over the network to another computer
a. Private Key
b. Public Key
c. Asymmetric-Key
d. Symmetric-Key
 Security in Computing MCQs
Unit III
1) What control can be used to help mitigate identified risks to acceptable levels?
a. Authentication b. Authorization c. Decryption d. Management

Ans: Authentication

2) Which one is the key network design strategy?

a. Performance b. Cost of Security c. Routing d. Encryption

Ans: Cost of Security

3) Which technologies may be considered by the design team to prevent one application from
consuming too much of bandwidth?

a. Electronic Security Perimeter(ESP)

b. Software-as-a-Service(SaaS)

c. Public Switched Telephone Network(PSTN)

d. Quality of Service(QoS)

Ans: Quality of Service

4) How many layers does Cisco Internetworking model has?

a. Three b. Four c. Two d. One

Ans: Three

5) What is Core layer’s primary focus?

a. Filtering b. Encryption c. Performance d. Compressing

Ans: Performance

6) __________ layer is composed of the user networking connections.

a. Access layer b. Core layer c. Distribution layer d. Firewall

Ans: Access layer

7) Which architecturing approach offers higher performance and lower cost but also brings
special security considerations into play.

a. Single-tier b. Three-tier c. Multi-tier d. collapsed two-tier

Ans: collapsed two-tier

 8) What helps us to understand how to use routers and switches to increase the security of the
network?

a. Security Network Design

b. Wireless Network Security

c. Network Device Security

d. Firewalls

Ans: Security Network Design

9) The dominant internetworking protocol in use today is known as ______.

a. TCP/IP b. HTTPS c. FTP d. UTM

Ans: TCP/IP

10) MAC addresses are ____ bit hexadecimal numbers that are uniquely assigned to each
hardware network interface by the manufacturer.

a. 8 b. 24 c. 48 d. 64

Ans: 48

11) IPv4 addresses are ___ bits.

a. 8 b. 32 c. 64 d. 128

Ans: 32

12) IPv6 addresses are ____ bits.

a. 128 b. 32 c. 24 d. 64

Ans: 128

13) The host uses the ________ , which functions by sending a broadcast message to the
network that basically says, “ Who has 192.168.2.10, tell 192.168.2.15”.

a. Network Interface Card(NIC)

b. Domain Name Server(DNS)

c. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

d. Open System Connection (OSI)

Ans: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

14) How many layers does OSI model contain?

a. Five b. Six c. Four d. Seven

 Ans: seven

15) ______ an OSI-model layer is used to convert application data into acceptable and
compatible formats for transmission. At this layer, data is encrypted and encoded and encrypted.

a. Presentation b. Application c. Transport d. Network

Ans: Presentation

16) Which is most well-known application-layer protocols in use today?

a. TCP/IP b. UDP c. HTTP d. FTP

Ans: HTTP

17) Which layer provides mechanism for two host to maintain network connections .

a. Data-link layer b. Session layer c. Physical layer d. Transport layer

Ans: Session layer

18) Which layer provides unique address to every host on the network .

a. Application layer b. Physical layer c. Transport layer d. Network layer

Ans: Network layer

19) _____ layer is composed of two sub layers : Media Access Control (MAC) and Logical Link
Control (LLC).

a. Data-link b. Transport c. Application d. Physical

Ans: Data-link

20) As the size of the network increases, the distance and time a packet is in transmit over the
network also ________ , making collision more likely.

a. Increases b. Decreases c. All of the above d. None of the above

Ans: Increases

21) Routers and switches operate at layers ___ and ___ respectively.

a. Two and three b. Three and Two c. One and Two d. Three and Four.

Ans: Three and Two

22) In which two ways routers learn the locations of various networks ?

a. Dynamically and Statically

b. Dynamically and Manually

c. All of the above

 d. None of the above

Ans: Dynamically and Manually

23) What are the two main types of layer three (Routing) protocols?

a. Dynamic and static

b. Distance-vector and Link-state

c. Manual and Static

d. None of the above

Ans: Distance-vector and Link-state

24) Which one of the following is a network hardening method?

a. Remote Access Considerations

b. Network Modelling

c. The cost of Security

d. Patching

Ans: Patching

25) What can be configured to permit or deny TCP, UDP, or other types of traffic based on the
source or the destination address.

a. Disabling Unused Services

b. Access Control Lists

c. Patching

d. Switch Security Practices

Ans: Access Control List

26) Which one of the following comes under Disabling Unused Services?

a. Access Control Lists

b. Administrative Practises
 c. Proxy ARP

d. Patching

Ans: Proxy ARP

27) _______ provides a mechanism for reporting TCP/IP communication problems, as well as
utilities for testing IP layer connectivity.

a. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

b. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

c. Centralizing Account Management (AAA)

d. Remote Command Line

Ans: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

28) Whose function is to screen network traffic for the purpose of preventing unauthorized access
between computer networks?

a. Firewalls

b. Network Analysis

c. Documentation

d. None of the above

Ans: Firewalls

29) Different types of software administrators are concerned about that could violate security
policies.

a. Peer-to-peer file sharing

b. Web mail

c. Remote access

d. All of the above

Ans: All of the above

30) Which one of the following is not a Must-have Firewall feature?

a. Remote Access

b. Application Awareness

c. Granular Application Control

d. Bandwidth Management (QoS)

Ans: Remote Access

31) Which one is not the core function of a firewall?

a. Network Address Translation

b. Auditing and Logging

c. a & b both

d. None of the above

Ans: None of the above

32) What is the mask for IP address 192.168.0.0 as per Private Addresses specified in RFC1918?

a. 255.0.0.0

b. 255.240.0.0

c. 255.255.0.0

d. None of the above

Ans: 255.255.0.0

33) In which of the following way Modern Firewalls assist other areas of network quality and
performance?

a. Enhance Network Performance

b. Intrusion detection and Intrusion Prevention

c. a & b both

d. None of the above

Ans: Intrusion detection and Intrusion Prevention

34) Which of the following is true

a. Firewalls are used to restrict access specific services.

b. Firewall cannot enforce security policies that are absent or undefined.

c. Firewalls can alert appropriate people of specified events.

d. All of the above

Ans: All of the above

35) Which layer holds the protocols for Telecommunicaton ?

a. Network layer

b. Physical layer

c. Data- link layer

d. Transport layer

Ans: Transport layer

36) Which of the following is a flaw of Data-link layer?

a. Battery operated

b. War driving

c. Evil Twin

d. Rogue Access Point

Ans: Battery operated

37) The threats to data link layer.

a. War chalking

b. WEP cracking

c. both a&b

d. None of the above

Ans: both a&b

 38) Select the mitigation technique from the following.

a. Disabling unused services

b. Switch Security practices

c. Policies and procedures

d. All of the above

Ans: Policies and procedures

39) In which of the following way(s) wireless network security can be enhanced

a. Use a strong password

b. Enable your router firewall

c. Turn off Guest networking

d. All of the above

Ans: All of the above

40) Which of the following is/are fundamental component(s) of Wireless Intrusion Prevention
System.

a. Sensors

b. Management Servers

c. Database server

d. All of the above.

Ans: All of the above

Unit III
1. Network analysis, architecture and design are processes used to produce designs
that are _____
a. logical
b. reproducible
c. available
d. attacking
2. Following statements are right about Acceptable risks
a. It is management’s responsibility to set their company’s level of risk
b. It is security professional’s responsibility to set their company’s level of risk
c. Acceptable risk is derived from legal and regulatory compliance responsibilities
etc.
d. Not all companies have acceptable risk
3. ___________ and ___________ systems are used to control traffic of the network
a. Authentication
b. Authorization
c. Firewall
d. Network Traffic control
4. _________ is a network not available to outside world, only those who are granted
can access network for sharing and viewing purpose
a. Extranet
b. Intranet
c. Internet
d. PBX
5. In DMZ configuration the____ layer consists web server that interacts with end
users whereas the _____ layer contains logic necessary for processing those queries
and extracting the data that is stored in DB.
a. Presentation, session
b. Session, presentation
c. Application, presentation
d. Presentation, application
6. Media Access Control (MAC) is also known as _____, _______
a. Internet Address
b. Hardware Address
c. Physical Address
d. Network Address
7. _______________ is one of the most effective and hard-to-defend attack technique.
a. Hijacking
b. Packet Sniffing
c. ARP Poisoning
d. Data Theft
8. Select two protocols of Application layer
a. IMAP
b. POPS
c. UDP
d. TCP
9. Select two protocols of Transport layer
a. IMAP
b. POPS
c. UDP
d. TCP
10. Which of the following two services uses TCP protocol?
a. SNMP Traps
b. DNS(queries)
c. Telnet
d. FTP
11. Which of the following are routing Protocol?
a. ICMP
b. RIP
c. OSPF
d. HTTP
12. Which 2 protocols are required by access devices to perform device-level AAA
communication?
a. RADIUS
b. SNMP
c. TACACS
d. UDP
13. Echo request, replies are more commonly known as ____
a. Reiteration
b. Reverberation
c. Resounding
d. Ping
14. ____________ is a type of attack in which the attacker sends ICMP traffic to the
broadcast address of a number of large network, inserting the source address of
the victim
 a. Data Theft
b. Smurf
c. Broadcast Attack
d. MITM Attack
15. Firewall can be implemented as __________
a. Software only
b. Hardware only
c. Hardware and Software both
d. Combination of hardware and Software
16. ______ message occurs when a host sends a datagram to its(destination) gateway,
which in turn forwards the same datagram to the next gateway and this second
gateway is on the same network host
a. Fail
b. Redirect
c. Forwarded
d. Rejected
17. Which of the following are advanced capabilities of firewalls?
a. Block Traffic
b. Granular Application Control
c. Application Awareness
d. None of the above
18. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the Firewall?
a. Firewall cannot alert appropriate people of specific events
b. Firewalls can stop social engineering attacks
c. It can install malicious code
d. It can change security settings

19. What are flaws of Data-Link Layer?

a. Unlimited in Distance
b. Vulnerable to Interference
 c. At risk of network hijacking
d. Battery operated
20. Which of the following are techniques of network hardening?
a. Turn on guest networking
b. Disable MAC address filtering
c. Hide your wireless network SSID name
d. Enable network encryption
 Security in Computing MCQs
Unit IV
1) A network IDS is referred to as _____ .
a. HIDS b. NIDS c. SIDS d. HIPS

Ans: NIDS

2) Which of the following is/are Intrusion Detection (ID) system when it checks files and disks
for known malware?
a. Firewalls b. Antivirus c. Both a & b d. None of the above

Ans: Both a&b

3) Which one of the following cannot be considered as an attack?

a. Buffer Overflows
b. Denial of Services
c. Password cracking
d. Patching

Ans: Patching

4) _____ is an independent platform that identifies intrusions by examining network traffic and
monitors multiple hosts.
a. Stack-Based Intrusion Detection System (SIDS)
b. Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)
c. Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (SIDS)
d. None of the above

Ans: Network Intrusion Detection System

5) ______ identifies intrusion by analyzing system calls, application logs, file-system

modifications and other host activities.
a. Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)
b. Stack-Based Intrusion Detection System (SIDS)
c. Network Intrusion Decision System (NIDS)
d. All of the above
Ans: Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)

6) What kind of an activity the attacks are considered to be?

a. All of the below
b. Denial Of Service
c. Unauthorized Access
d. Buffer overflow

Ans: All of the below

7) Which of the following mean “False Positive”?

a. Incorrect ignorance of important events
b. Incorrect escalation of unimportant events
 c. Correct ignorance of unimportant events
d. None of the above

Ans: Incorrect escalation of unimportant events

8) Which type of system is an evolution of HIDS ?

a. Stack-Based Intrusion Detection System
b. Network Intrusion Decision System
c. Passive System
d. Rective System

Ans: Stack-Based Intrusion Detection System

9) Which systems comes under Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?

a. Reactive Systems
b. Active Systems
c. Passive Systems
d. All of the above

Ans: Reactive System

10) Which of the following is true for Intrusion Detection System (IPS)?
a. They are placed in-line
b. They are able to actively block intrusions that are detected
c. Takes actions such as sending an alarm, dropping the malicious packets, etc.
d. All of the above

Ans: All of the above

11) _____ is an approach to security management that combines SIM (Security Information
Management) and SEM (Security Event Management).
a. SIEM
b. SOAR
c. UEBA
d. None of the above

Ans: SIEM

12) Which of the following is the most important feature to review when evaluating SIEM
products?
a. Testing
b. Threat Intelligence feeds
c. Aggregation
d. All of the above

Ans: Threat Intelligence feeds

13) Which protocol is used for VoIP?

a. Skype protocol
b. Media Gateway Control Protocol
c. Session Initiation Protocol
d. All of the above
Ans: All of the above

14) Which main function is performed by Media Server?

a. Provisioning of Media connection
b. Voicemail functionality
c. Managing Digital Signal Processing (DSP)
d. Free phone service

Ans: Voicemail functionality

15) Which main function is performed by Application server?

a. Support of customized private dialing plans.
b. Support of bandwidth policing mechanism
c. Support of MGCP and MEGACO
d. None of the above

Ans: Support of customized private dialing plans

16) _____ switches calls between enterprises users on local lines while allowing all users to
share certain number of external phone lines.
a. POT
b. PBX
c. TEM
d. All of the above

Ans: PBX

17) Which one of the following is considered to be in Computer Security classification?

a. Type A
b. Type D
c. Both a&b
d. None of the above

Ans: Both a&b

18) Which of the following defines Microsoft’s Trust worthy computing technique?
a. Memory curtaining
b. Remote attestation
c. Sealed storage
d. All of the above

Ans: All of the above

19) Which of the following is a hardware attacking vector?

a. BIOS
b. PBX
c. POT
d. None of the above

Ans: BIOS

20) Which of the following does not define Jericho Security Model?
a. Integration
b. Simplifies use of public networks
c. It has a real open security framework
d. Aimed for open solution building blocks

Ans: It has a real open security framework

Unit IV
1. IDS stands for ________
a. Internet Detection System
b. Intrusion Detection System
c. Information Detection System
d. Intrusion Detection Service
2. SIEM stands for _______
a. Security Information and Event Management
b. Service Information Exchange Management
c. Security Intrusion Event Management
d. Security Information Exchange Management
3. ______ is a device or software application that monitors a network or system for
malicious activity or policy violation.
a. Host-based Intrusion Detection System
b. Intrusion Prevention System
c. Security Information and Event Management
d. Intrusion Detection System
4. IDS and ______ are important tools in a computer security arsenal.
a. Network-based Intrusion Detection System
b. Host-based Intrusion Detection System
c. Intrusion Prevention System
d. Security Information and Event Management
5. PSTN stands for _________
a. Private Switch Telecom Network
b. Public Switched Telephone Network
c. Public Service Telephone Network
d. Private System Telecom Network
6. VoIP stands for __________
 a. Voice on Internet Protocol
b. Voice of Internal Protocol
c. Voice on Inter Protocol
d. Voice over Internet Protocol
7. TDM stands for _____
a. Time Division Multiplexing
b. Time Divide Management
c. Time Division Management
d. Time Depend Message
8. ACL stands for ______
a. Access Control List
b. Application Control List
c. Application Complex List
d. Access Control Least
9. MCU stands for _________.
a. Multi-Call Unit
b. Multi-Conference Unit
c. Multiple Choice Unit
d. Multiple Cell Unit
10. TEM stands for ________
a. Telecom Expense Management
b. Time Exchange Management
c. Telecommunication Export Management
d. Time Export Management
11. MAC stands for __________
a. Main Access Control
b. Mandatory Access Control
c. Management Access Control
d. Mandatory Appeal Contact
12. DACL stands for _________
a. Discretionary Access Control List
b. Discrete Access Complex List
c. Direct Access Complex List
d. Discrete Access Control List
13. RABC stands for ________
a. Right Bound Access Control
b. Rule Bind Access Control
c. Rule-Based Access Control
d. Role Based Access Control
14. TCSEC stands for ________
a. Trusted Computer System Evolution Criteria
b. Time Complex System Evaluation Criteria
c. Time Correction System Evolution Criteria
d. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria
15. PP stands for ______
a. Protection Profile
b. Probability Protection
c. Protection protocol
d. Private Profile
16. ST stands for _______
a. Security Time
b. Service Time
c. Security Target
d. Security Tax
17. HIDS stands for _____
a. House-based Intrusion Detection System
b. Host-based Information Detection System
c. House-based Information Detection System
d. Host-based Intrusion Detection System
18. ______ is often known as a reversed version of Bell-LaPadula
a. Biba
b. TCSEC
c. Clark-Wilson
d. Security Target
19. ______ is computer-based switch that can be thought of as a local phone
company
a. Denial of Service
b. Private Branch Exchange
 c. Voicemail
d. Telecom Expense Management
20. _______ can be network-based or host-based
a. Intrusion Prevention System
b. Intrusion Detection System
c. Private Branch Exchange
d. Protection Profile
 SIC Unit V MCQs

1. A ____________ is a computer file, typically called an image, which behaves like an actual
computer.

a) Executable (exe)

b) Virtual Machine

c) Cloud

d) Firewall

Ans: Virtual Machine

2. ____________ provided us means by which we can access the applications as utilities over the
internet.

a) Artificial Intelligence

b) Virtual Machine

c) Cloud Computing

d) Internet of Things

Ans: Cloud Computing

3. SaaS stands for ____________.

a) System as a Service

b) Security as a Service

c) Safety as a Service

d) Software as a Service

Ans: Software as a Service

4. ____________ provides a cloud-based environment with everything required to support the
complete lifecycle of building and delivering web-based (cloud) applications - without the cost and
complexity of buying and managing the underlying hardware, software, provisioning and hosting.

a) Platform as a Service

b) Software as a Service

c) Infrastructure as a Service

d) Security as a Service

Ans: Platform as a Service

5. ____________ provides companies with computing resources including servers, networking,

storage and data center space on a pay-per-use basis.

a) Software as a Service

b) Infrastructure as a Service

c) Platform as a Service

d) Security as a Service

Ans: Infrastructure as a Service

6. The ____________ is a different way to build products; it places security front and center during
the product or application development process.

a) Secure Development Lifecycle

b) SCRUM

c) Cyber Infrastructure

d) System Development Lifecycle

Ans: Secure Development Lifecycle

7. ____________ is the first phase of Secure Development Lifecycle (SDL).

a) Implementation or coding

b) Design phase

c) Test phase

d) Requirements phase

Ans: Requirements phase

8. WAF stands for ____________.

a) Wireless Application Firewall

b) Web Application Firewall

c) Web Application Factor

d) Wired Application Firewall

Ans: Web Application Firewall

9. Web application cookies should not contain users' ____________.

a) Username

b) Email address

c) Contact Number

d) Password

Ans: Password
10. It is a beneficial to run web applications using ____________ privileges.

a) Least

b) Most

c) Medium

d) Administrative

Ans: Least

11. ____________ client applications are web-based application which can be accessed on the
internet using a browser.

a) Thick

b) Cloud

c) Computing

d) Thin

Ans: Thin

12. Thick client applications peform major processing on the ____________.

a) Server side

b) Cloud

c) Client side

d) Virtual machine

Ans: Client side

13. Thin client applications do not occupy any space on the ____________.

a) Server side

b) Client side

c) Cloud

d) Virtual machine

Ans: Client side

14. Which vulnerability among these is applicable for both thin client and thick client applications?

a) Cross Site Scripting

b) Clickjacking attacks

c) Reverse Engineering

d) Improper error handling

Ans: Improper error handling

15. Using a sysinternal tool called ____________, we can identify the files and registries used by a
particular thick client application.

a) Autologon

b) Process Monitor

c) MoveFile

d) TCPView

Ans: Process Monitor

16. ____________ is an advanced monitoring tool for Windows that shows real-time file system,
registry and process/thread activity.

a) Process Monitor

b) File Monitor

c) Wireshark

d) Service Monitor

Ans: Process Monitor

17. Which of these is not a web application attack?

a) SQL Injection

b) Cross Site Scripting

c) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) Poisoning

d) Session Hijacking

Ans: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) Poisoning

18. RDP stands for ____________.

a) Remote Data Protocol

b) Remote Desktop Protocol

c) Reliable Desktop Protocol

d) Remote Database Protocol

Ans: Remote Desktop Protocol

19. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) sessions operate over ____________ channel, preventing
anyone from viewing your session by listening on the network.

a) Broadcast

b) Unencrypted

c) Encrypted

d) Open

Ans: Encrypted

20. It is a good security measure to use ____________ to restrict access to remote desktop listening
ports.

a) Firewall

b) Antivirus

c) Encryption

d) Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Ans: Firewall

21. NLA stands for ____________.

a) Network Layer Access

b) Netware Log Analyzer

c) Network Level Authentication

d) Network Layer Authorization

Ans: Network Level Authentication

22. For preventing brute-force attack on Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), ____________ is the most
effective way.

a) Server Log Monitoring

b) Single Factor Authentication

c) Account Lockout Policy

d) Deterrence mechanism

Ans: Account Lockout Policy

23. NAP stands for ____________, which is used with Remote Desktop (RD) gateway.

a) Network Address Protection

b) Net Access Protocol

c) New Address Protocol

d) Network Access Protection

Ans: Network Access Protection

24. ____________ is the protection of personnal, hardware, software, networks and data from
physical actions and events that could cause serious loss or damage to an enterprise, agency or
institution.

a) Cloud Security

b) Physical Security

c) Network Security

d) Application Security

Ans: Physical Security

25. Effective physical security of an asset is achieved by multi-layering the different measures, which
is commonly referred to as ____________.

a) Defense in Depth

b) Encryption

c) Disaster Recovery

d) Data Backup

Ans: Defense in Depth

26. ____________ is something useful or valuable thing to an organization.

a) Security

b) Revenue

c) Asset

d) Infrastructure

Ans: Asset

27. ____________ outline the qualities of an asset that are important to protect.

a) Security Report

b) Security Requirements

c) Security Design

d) Security Test

Ans: Security Requirements

28. C in the CIA triad stands for ____________.

a) Connection

b) Control

c) Configuration

d) Confidentiality

Ans: Confidentiality

29. RFID stands for ____________, which is used as an access mechanism for securing assets.

a) Request for Implementation Data

b) Radio Frequency Identification

c) Repeated Free Induction Decay

d) Request For Implementation Date

Ans: Radio Frequency Identification

30. ____________ is a method/technique used by an unauthorized person who enters the premises
by following the authorized person.

a) Phishing

b) Baiting

c) Tailgating

d) Smishing

Ans: Tailgating
31. CCTV stands for ____________, which are used in electronic monitoring for securing assets.

a) Closed Circuit Television

b) Capital Community Television

c) Campzone Community Television

d) Command and Control Television

Ans: Closed Circuit Television

32. ____________ is a technology for measuring and analyzing biological data of a human body such
as fingerprints, eye retinas, voice patterns, etc.

a) Motion Sensor

b) CCTV

c) Biometrics

d) RFID Reader

Ans: Biometrics

33. ____________ is a pattern recognition system where a biological pattern is analyzed, matched
and processed for further actions.

a) Discriminant Analysis

b) Biometric System

c) Signal Processing

d) Predictive Analysis

Ans: Biometric System

34. What is the first step in a Biometric system?

a) Processing

b) Analyzing

c) Enrollment

d) Recognition

Ans: Enrollment

35. In ____________ biometrics, thickness and location of veins in a person's hand are used as
features.

a) Signature

b) Hand

c) Iris

d) Vascular pattern

Ans: Vascular pattern

36. ____________ are used in data centers to alert about temperature changes, water leakeages,
humidity increases, etc.

a) Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

b) Programmable Locks

c) Motion Sensors

d) Electric fences

Ans: Motion Sensors

37. ____________ are those information-related assets that would cause a large adverse impact on
the organization if they are disclosed to unauthorized people.

a) Critical assets

b) Inventory assets

c) Operating assets

d) Non-current assets

Ans: Critical assets

38. Which is an important factor to consider when selecting a new location for security?

a) Population

b) Competition

c) Pollution

d) Environment

Ans: Competition

39. The unauthorized disclosure of ____________ type of assets can cause grievous damage to the
national security

a) Confidential

b) Top secret

c) Unclassified

d) Secret

Ans: Top secret

40. Amazon Web Services (AWS) and Microsoft Azure cloud are examples of ____________.

a) Software as a Service

b) Platform as a Service

c) System as a Service

d) Infrastructure as a Service

Ans: Infrastructure as a Service

 Unit V
1. A virtual machine is a ____________
a. Computer application
b. Computer file
c. Computer image
d. Physical computer
2. __________ is typically called an image
a. Virtual machine
b. Virtual hardware
c. Computer memory
d. Computer resources
3. Virtual machine includes _________________
a. Beta releases
b. Accessing virus-infected data
c. Creating OS backup
d. All of the above
4. Virtual machine can be run simultaneously on the same _____________
a. Physical computer
b. Operating system
c. Hardware system
d. Cloud computing
5. For a server, the multiple OS run side-by-side with a piece of software called as____________
a. Supervisor
b. Biometric
c. Hypervisor
d. Thread
6. Virtual machine provides __________________
a. Virtual hardware
b. CPU
c. Memory
d. All of the above
7. A virtual machine usually known as_______________
a. Operating system
b. Guest
c. File
d. Image
8. Virtual machine can be divided into _______________
 a. Super VM, System VM
b. Super VM, Cloud computing
c. System VM, Process VM
d. Cloud computing, System VM
9. ______________ that support the sharing of the host computers physical resources between
multiple VM
a. System VM
b. Cloud computing
c. Process VM
d. Unsupervised VM
10. Following is not the advantage of virtual machine
a. Allow multiple OS
b. Widely available and are easy to manage and maintain
c. Multiple VM run on single physical machine
d. Offers application provisioning and disaster recovery option
11. Cloud computing uses various services such as _______________
a. Software development platform
b. Server, storage
c. Business applications
d. Both a and b
12. Point the wrong statement
a. Back end application
b. User only pays for services
c. Hardware resources are distributed in an individual way
d. Services are sellable
13. _______________ is also known as cloud-based application
a. SDLC
b. SaaS
c. SAST
d. DAST
14. Following is not consider SDL phase
a. Requirement phase
b. Coding phase
c. Monitoring phase
d. Testing phase
15. Cloud computing resource are ______________
a. IaaS
 b. PaaS
c. SaaS
d. All of the above
16. Web application sort into ______________ categories
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
17. A thick client also known as _______________
a. Fat client
b. Client server
c. Thin client
d. Programmable client
18. Example of thick client are ________________
a. G-Talk, Yahoo messenger
b. Microsoft outlook, online trading portal
c. Windows application, G-Talk
d. Both a and b
19. _______________is the web-based application.
a. Thick client
b. Thin client
c. Fat client
d. Programmable client
20. Thick client application is classified into ___________ type
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

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