Aptitude Assessment

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 ASSESMENT TYPE 1:
NUMERICAL APPTITUDE
A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
Question 6 Which share had the largest difference between highest and lowest price
over the last 12 months?

(A) Huver Co.

(B) Drebs Ltd
(C) Fevs Plc
(D) Fauvers
(E) Steapars

The information that we need is shown in the table Share Prices.

Step 1 - Calculate the difference between the maximum and the minimum prices.
Huver Co. = 1,360 – 860 = 500
Drebs Ltd = 22 – 11 = 11
Fevs Plc = 1,955 – 1,242 = 713
Fauvers = 724 – 464 = 260
Steapars = 2,630 – 2,216 = 414

Tip: Notice the wording of the question is asking for the share with the largest absolute
change in price, NOT the largest percentage change, which would have been Drebs Ltd. If the
question had wanted the percentage change it would have used the word percentage.

Thus the correct answer is (C) Fevs Plc

Q7 What was yesterday’s cost difference between 50 shares in Fevs plc and 100
shares in Steapars?

(A) €164,726
(B) €251,163
(C) €172,577
(D) €164,045
(E) None of these

The information that we need is shown in the table Share prices.

Step 1 - Calculate yesterday’s share price for each share:

Fevs plc = 1,586 ÷ 0.91 = 1,742.86
Steapars = 2,537 ÷ 1.01 = 2,511.88

Step 2 - Calculate the cost difference between 50 Fevs and 100 Steapars shares yesterday:
50 x 1,742.86 = 87,143
100 x 2,511.88 = 251,188
Difference = 251,188 - 87,143 = 164,045

Tip: Percentage increases and decreases catch out a lot of people. For this question, think
about what’s happening. The percentage change from yesterday to today in the case of
Fevs is a 9% decrease. So that means (today’s price) ÷ (yesterday’s price) = 0.91 (a 9%
decrease). Using algebra we can recast this as yesterday’s price = today’s price ÷ 0.91.

Thus the correct answer is (D) €164,045

Q8 Today’s Drebs Ltd share price represents a 40% increase on the price one
month ago. What was the Drebs Ltd share price a month ago?

(A) €22
(B) €25.20
(C) €12.68
(D) €12.90
(E) €12.86

The information that we need is shown in the table Share prices.

Step 1 - Drebs Ltd’s share price is shown as 18 Euros at today’s prices.

This is a 40% increase and so represents 1.40 (140%) of the price one month ago.

Step 2 - The price one month ago is calculated as follows:

18 ÷ 1.40 = 12.86.

Thus the correct answer is (E) €12.86

Q9 If a driver travels an average of 4,250 miles per month driving only along
motorways in an Xtam car, what is the predicted annual consumption of fuel
(in gallons)?

(A) Cannot say

(B) 1,500
(C) 125
(D) 150
(E) 1,250

The information that we need is shown in the graph Car Consumption.

Step 1 - The Xtam’s fuel consumption is shown as 34 miles to the gallon for motorway
driving.
So, 4,250 miles ÷ 34 = 125 gallons per month.

Step 2 - Annual petrol consumption = 125 x 12 = 1,500 gallons.

Thus the correct answer is (B) 1,500

Q10 A car dealership has £600,000 to spend and wants to buy equal numbers of
the Taber and Ursa cars. What is the largest number of each type of car that
can be ordered?

(A) 27
(B) 48
(C) 19
(D) 21
(E) 22

The information that we need is shown in the table.

Step 1 - The cost of the Taber and Ursa cars are £12,500 and £15,250 respectively.

Step 2 - Since the numbers of each car purchased must be equal, calculate the combined
cost as follows: £12,500 + £15,250 = £27,750.

Step 3 - £600,000 ÷ £27,750 = 21.6.

Thus the correct answer is (D) 21

Q11 What is the ratio of the cost of a Taber: Velvo: Xtam?

(A) 2:4:5
(B) 1:4:6
(C) 1:3:5
(D) 2:3:5
(E) 1:2:3

The information that we need is shown in the table.

Step 1 - Taber: Velvo: Xtam costs = 12,500 : 37,500 : 62,500

Notice the common denominator here is 12,500. So the ratio can be simplified to the
following. 12,500/12,500 : 37,500/12,500: 62,500/12,500 = 1:3:5.

Thus the correct answer is (C) 1:3:5

Q12 Legal sector spending on IT hardware, IT software and IT consulting are all
set to increase by the same amounts in Year 6 as they did from Year 4 to
Year 5. Assuming this is the case, what is the total legal sector spend in Year
6 on these three IT areas combined?

(A) £75 million

(B) £85 million
(C) £95 million
(D) £105 million
(E) £110 million

The information that we need is shown in the graph IT spending by the legal sector.

Step 1 - Calculate the increases in each IT spending category

IT hardware = 45 (increase of £5 million from Year 4)
IT software = 30 (increase of £5 million from Year 4)
IT consulting = 20 (increase of £5 million from Year 4)

Step 2 - Calculate the total for the year after the projected year 5. Since there is an even
increase the same increase of £5 million will occur in IT hardware, software and consulting.
Total = 45 + 30 + 20 + (3 x 5) = £110 million

Thus the correct answer is (E) £110 million

Q13 For years 1 to 3 inclusive, by how much did Make Fit Ltd’s income from
consultancy services differ from those of Pure Gap plc?

(A) £110 more

(B) £110,000 less
(C) £1,100,000 more
(D) £110 less
(E) £1,100,000 less

The information that we need is shown in the graph Income for IT consultancy services.

Step 1 - Total the income for each company across the three years 1, 2 and 3.
Make Fit Ltd = 290 + 180 + 260 = 730
Pure Gap plc = 230 + 310 + 300 = 840
730 – 840 = -110 (£10,000’s)

Thus the correct answer is (E) £1,100,000 less

Q14 Which of the following statements is false regarding legal sector spending
between Year 4 and projected Year 5?

(A) IT consulting will increase by £5million.

(B) IT consulting will match that of year 2.
(C) IT software will exceed IT consulting.
(D) Spending on IT hardware will decline.
(E) None of these.

The information that we need is shown in the graph IT spending by the legal sector.

Step 1 - Check in turn whether each statement is true or false:

a) The projected spend on IT consulting is projected to increase by £5million. Option A is

true.
b) The projected spend on IT consulting is £5million, which matches year 2. Option B is true.
c) The projected spend on IT software is £30million and for IT consulting it’s £20million.
Option C is true.
d) There are increases projected for IT hardware, for IT software and for consulting. The
option for D is false.
e) We see that option D is false, so E cannot be the correct answer.

Thus the correct answer is (D) Spending on IT hardware, software and consulting is
projected to decline.
Q15 In which year(s) did Make Fit Ltd and Pure Gap plc’s combined IT
consultancy income exceed £6million?

(A) Year 1 and Year 4

(B) Only Year 4
(C) Year 1 and Year 3
(D) Only Year 3
(E) Year 3 and Year 4

The information that we need is shown in the graph Income for IT consultancy services.

Step 1 - Find the total for each of the years shown and see which years exceed £6million.

Make Fit Ltd and Pure Gap plc’s

combined IT consulting income
Year 1 290 + 230 (£10,000s) = £5.2 million
Year 2 180 + 310 (£10,000s) = £4.9 million
Year 3 260 + 300 (£10,000s) = £5.6 million
Year 4 320 + 290 (£10,000s) = £6.1 million

Thus the correct answer is (B) Only Year 4

Q16 If actual labour costs rise so as to halve their difference from the target, what
will be the change in actual Gross Profit?

(A) Falls by £4,500

(B) Rises by £4,500
(C) No overall effect
(D) Rises by £9,000
(E) Falls by £9,000

Step 1 - Halve the labour costs discrepancy against target

(target labour costs - actual labour costs)/2 = (175,000 – 166,000)/2 = £4,500.

Step 2 - Calculate effect on Gross Profit

If labour costs rise by £4,500, then profit falls by £4,500.

Thus the correct answer is (A) Falls by £4,500

Q17 IKE Computers aim to grow monthly gross profit by 1.5%. If all costs remain
constant, what will the sales turnover need to be in February to hit the target?

(A) £242,099
(B) £277,987
(C) £38,555
(D) £274,299
(E) 288,000

Step 1 - Calculate the required gross profit increase. 36,521 x 1.5% = £547.82.
Given that costs are constant, this means the Net Turnover needs to increase
By £547.8 too. So the Net Turnover needs to be £547.8 + £238,521 = £239,068.8.

Step 2 - We have worked out the Net Turnover, but the question asks for Sales Turnover
(i.e. before the sales tax of 14.0% is deducted). So Sales Turnover = 239,068.8 ÷ 86.0% =
£277,986.98.

Thus the correct answer is (B) £277,987

Q18 If IKE Computers employed eighty permanent employees in January who
were on the same salary, what would have been the effect on labour costs if
they had replaced twenty permanent employees with interim staff each on
monthly salaries of £3,000?

(A) Cannot tell

(B) Decrease of £130,000
(C) Decrease of £20,750
(D) Increase of £2,075
(E) Increase of £18,500

Step 1 – Calculate the monthly cost of each full-time employee in January

166,000 / 80 = 2,075.

Step 2 – Calculate the difference in monthly labour costs

3,000 – 2,075 = 925.

Step 3 – Calculate the difference of replacing 20 full time employees with interims
925 x 20 = £18,500.

Thus the correct answer is (E) Increase of £18,500

Q19 Which sector represents approximately 19% of the profits from the five
sectors shown?

(A) Leisure
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Retail
(D) Government
(E) Utilities

The series of calculations is best shown in a table.

Step 1 – calculate sum Step 2 - Total Step 3 - % of total

Leisure 5.2 + 7.4 + 4.6 = 17.2 17.2 22%
Manufacturing 5 + 7.2 + 6.3 = 18.5 18.5 24%
Retail 4.4 + 5.8 + 3.8 = 14 14 18%
Government 4.5 + 5.9 + 3.6 + 14 14 18%
3.5 + 5.1 + 6.2 =
Utilities 14.8 14.8 19%
TOTAL = 78.5

Thus the correct answer is (E) Utilities

Q20 If the ratio of profit to turnover for Pacific Rim contracts was 2:15, what was
the Government turnover in the Pacific Rim (in £100,000s)?

(A) 36
(B) 27
(C) 270
(D) 360
(E) 540

Step 1 - Contracts ratio of profit (£3.6million) to turnover = 2:15

Turnover = £3.6 million x 15/2 = £27 million = 270 (in £100,000s)

Thus the correct answer is (C) 270

Q21 Reyes Heslop had a target for Leisure profits to be a quarter of their total
profits. Assuming profits in other areas remain the same, by how much did
the Leisure profits miss this target?

(A) £1.8 million

(B) £2.4 million
(C) £2.7 million
(D) £3.2 million
(E) £3.4 million

Step 1 - Calculate the total Reyes Heslop profits across all areas other than Leisure.
(6.3 + 7.2 +5.0) + (3.8 + 5.8 + 4.4) + (3.6 + 5.9 + 4.5) + (6.2 +5.1 + 3.5) = 61.3million.

Step 2 - This needs to be ¾ of all profits for the condition to be met. Therefore all profits,
across all sectors, would be 61.3 ÷ 75% = 81.7333million.

Step 3 - Now we look at the difference between actual and target Leisure profits.
Actual = (4.6 + 7.4 + 5.2) = 17.2
Target = (81.7333 – 61.3) = 20.4333
Shortfall = 3.2333 (millions)

Thus the correct answer is (D) £3.2million

Note: the INCORRECT way of doing this question would be to:

Sum profits across all areas, calculate ¼, then see the difference between that figure and
17.2 million. This method would calculate ¼ of the profits including the reduced figure from
Leisure. To see this, use the figure you arrive at using this method for Leisure (19.625) and
the total profits become 80.93. Which is not 4x 19.625.
Q22 A competitor wants to takeover Reyes Heslop and offers a price of 8 times
current profits. Reyes Heslop shareholders reject this offer and suggest a
price that is 20% higher, what is this suggested price?

(A) £79 million

(B) £63 million
(C) £628 million
(D) £754 million
(E) £502 million

Step 1 - Calculate the current profits total across all sectors.

4.6 + 7.4 + 5.2 + 6.3 + 7.2 + 5.0 + 3.8 + 5.8 + 4.4 + 3.6 + 5.9 + 4.5 + 6.2 + 5.1 +3.5 = £78.5
million.

Step 2 - Takeover offer price = (£78.5 million x 8) = £628 million.

Suggested offer price = £628 x 120% = £753.6 million

Thus the correct answer is (D) £754 million

Q23 What is the difference between direct sales and telesales across the five
teams combined?

(A) £10 million

(B) £11 million
(C) £12 million
(D) £13 million
(E) £14 million

Step 1 - Calculate the total direct sales and telesales across the five teams

Direct Sales Telesales

Team A 17 16
Team B 13 17
Team C 16 18
Team D 15 17
Team E 14 18
TOTAL 75 86

Step 2 - Calculate the difference

86 – 75 = £11 million

Thus the correct answer is (B) £11 million

Q24 If there are 50 direct sales and 65 telesales employees assigned to each of
the Eastern region’s teams A-E, what are the average sales per sales
employee for the lowest performing team in terms of overall sales (to the
nearest £10,000)?

(A) Cannot tell from the data

(B) £200,000 (direct); £340,000 (telesales)
(C) £260,000 (direct); £260,000 (telesales)
(D) £340,000 (telesales); £200,000 (direct)
(E) £20,000 (direct sales); £30,000 (telesales)

Step 1 - Obtain the lowest performing team from calculating the overall sales (direct sales
and telesales combined)
Team A total = 33
Team B total = 30
Team C total = 34
Team D total = 32
Team E total = 32
So, Team B is the lowest performing team overall.

Step 2 - Calculate the average sales per direct sales employee

13/50 = 0.26 million

Step 3 – calculate the average sales per telesales sales employee

17/65 = 0.26 million

Thus the correct answer is (C) £260,000 (direct sales); £260,000 (telesales)
Q25 If the Eastern Region’s total sales represent 26% of the total for all regions,
what are the total sales across all regions (to the nearest £million)?

(A) £124 million

(B) £142 million
(C) £161 million
(D) £619 million
(E) £620 million

Step 1 - Calculate the total sales

86 (for telesales) + 75 (for direct sales) = £161 million

Step 2 - Calculate the total sales across all regions

£161 million = 26%
100% = 161 x 100/26 = £619.23 million

Thus the correct answer is (D) £619 million

Q26 What are the total sales targets for next year across all five teams if the
target is set as a 20% and 10% increase in this year’s Direct Sales and
Telesales respectively?

(A) Direct (£75 million); Telesales (£86 million)

(B) Direct Sales (£104 million); Telesales (£82 million)
(C) Direct (£82 million); Telesales (£104 million)
(D) Direct (£95 million); Telesales (£90 million)
(E) Direct (£90 million); Telesales (£94.6 million)

Step 1 - Calculate the increase in the direct sales and telesales totals, as follows:

Direct Sales Telesales

17 16
13 17
16 18
15 17
14 18
Total 75 86
75 x 120% = 90 86 x 110% = 94.6

Thus the correct answer is (E) Direct Sales (£90 million); Telesales (£94.6 million)
ASSESMENT TYPE 2: ABSTRACT
LOGIC APPTITUDE
1- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below continues the sequence:

Explanation

All triangles “move” slightly counter-clockwise and outside. A good solving tip would be to try and
disassemble the complete figure to its elements (triangles) and to focus each time on one of the
elements.

The answer is -
2- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below continues the sequence:

Explanation

The logic: An X shape is dotted with black and white dots. Both sets of dots are independent and
follow a similar pattern. In each frame, a black dot is added counter-clockwise in the angles of the X
shape, until all the angles are occupied. Then a dot is reduced, also counter-clockwise. The same
pattern occurs with the white dots, only in a clockwise manner.

Examining the changes before and after, the “question mark” figure should look the same as in
frame 2, only with an additional black dot (making all four black dots present) and an additional
white dot in the upper right corner, as determined by the pattern.

The answer is -
3- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below continues the sequence:

Explanation
The logic: The next frame after each step portrays a mirror image of the previous frame. In addition,
every two steps a shape is added to the frame. Answer choice 3 is a mirrored version of frame 5 and
is therefore the correct answer.

The answer is -
4- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below continues the sequence:

Explanation
The sketch is built stage by stage and in each step an additional line is added. This guideline
eliminates answer choices 1, 2 and 4. Notice also that the new line never touches the last line
added, which eliminates answer choice 5.

The answer is -
5- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below continues the sequence:

Explanation
1) Each step, 45 degrees of the black circle is painted in white, counter clockwise.

2) Each step, a line drawn from the centre of the circle to the edge of the frame turns 45 degrees
clockwise.

The answer is -
Question 6

A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
Question 7

A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
Question 8

A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
Question 9

A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
Question 10

A) ☐ B) ☐
C) ☐ D) ☐
11- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below replaces the missing box above?

Explanation

Each object in the series consists of 3 shapes. The logic of the sequence is defined by the relations
between theses shapes.

The external shape appears as the middle shape in the next frame; the middle shape disappears in
the next frame; the inner shape determines the external shape two steps forward, e.g. the inner
pentagon in the first frame appeared as the external shape in the third frame.

The answer is -
12- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below replaces the missing box above?

Explanation

Each square contains 3 shapes. The black circle is the only shape that constantly appears. It
“travels” along the column up and down, one step at a time. The other shapes appear in two
consecutive squares, and then do not appear in the next square. The shape that remains in the
frame (in regards to the last step from the left) maintains its relative position to the other shape (not
the circle).

The answer is -
13- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below replaces the missing box above?

Explanation
Each diagram can be seen as a series of triangles around a horizontal axis. At each step, the right
hand triangle relocates to the beginning of the sequence causing a shift to the right.

The answer is -
14- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below replaces the missing box above?

Explanation
The logic: Pairs of columns are reflections of one another, (The 1st and the 3rd, the 2nd and the 4th).

The answer is -
15- Choose the odd one out:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Explanation
All frames besides frame 5 are symmetrical, which means that they can be crossed somewhere by a
straight line that will divide them into two similar parts (mirrored). There is no such option in frame 5.

The correct answer is 5.

16- Choose the odd one out:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Explanation
The logic: In each square, two hearts are located on both sides of an arrow. It is insignificant whether
the hearts are located near the head of the arrow or near its tail. In all of the options except for option
2, the white heart is always to the right of the arrow, unrelated to the relative location of the arrow.
Option 2 breaks this pattern.

The correct answer is 2.

17- Choose the image that completes the pattern:

Which of the shapes below continues the sequence:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Explanation

The logic: The 3-dimensional figure can be seen in two possible orientations. In all cases, it has a
light-blue dot in its centre.

A common behaviour shared by images 2-5 is the angle between the two pale-yellow dots. Usually,
the dot in the body of the figure is located 120 degrees clockwise in comparison to the dot on the
arrow head. In shape 1, the dot is located 120 degrees counter-clockwise.

The correct answer is 1.

 ASSESMENT TYPE 3:
CRITICAL REASONING APPTITUDE
Section 1: Inferences
Instructions:

An inference is a conclusion drawn from observed or supposed facts. For example, if someone
presses a light switch but the light does not turn on, they might infer that the filament has burnt out.
However inferences may or may not be correct. For example in this case, the bulb could be missing,
or a fuse could be blown.

The questions in this section of the test will begin with a statement of facts that must be regarded as
true. After each statement you will be presented with possible inferences which might be drawn
from facts in the statement. Analyse each inference separately and decide on its degree of truth.

For each inference you will be provided with 5 possible answers: TRUE, PROBABLY TRUE, MORE
INFORMATION REQUIRED, PROBABLY FALSE, and FALSE.

Select TRUE if you believe the inference is definitely true, i.e. it correctly follows beyond a
reasonable doubt.

PROBABLY TRUE if, based on the facts at hand, you think the inference is PROBABLY TRUE; that it is
more likely to be true than false, but not TRUE beyond a reasonable doubt.

MORE INFORMATION REQUIRED, if you decide that there is not enough data to make a decision
based on the provided facts (or lack of facts).

PROBABLY FALSE if, based on the facts presented, you think the inference is PROBABLY FALSE; i.e. it
is more likely to be false than true, but there is not enough evidence to suggest that it is definitely
false

FALSE if you think the inference is definitely FALSE; i.e. it must be incorrect because it misrepresents
the facts provided or contradicts the facts provided in the statement.
 Although it is agreed that China is rapidly modernising its army, there is some
doubt surrounding the exact amount it is spending. The research institute ‘PIPPI’,
submits that the annual Chinese defence spending has risen from almost $31
billion in 2000 to over $120 billion in 2010. This figure is almost double the official
figure published by the Chinese government, who fail to include other areas such
as research and development in the official figure each year. In 2010, the United
States government spent around $400 billion on military defence. Based on the
current level of military growth, statistics suggest that China’s defence spending
could overtake America’s by 2030. In addition to military spending, China’s army
continues to enjoy the largest number of people within the ranks of its army than
any other country.

Statement One:

Inference 1: The official figures published by the Chinese government in relation to their military
spending are thought to be misleading.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: True

Explanation: The passage notes that the Chinese government leave certain areas out of their
calculations when creating their official figures for military spending. This suggests that their official
figure is misleading. In this way the inference is true.
 Inference 2: It is known that the Chinese government leave areas such as ‘research’ and
‘development’ from their official figures, however, this would also suggest that other areas of
spending are also omitted from the official figure.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False
Correct Answer: Probably True

Explanation: The passage notes that “other areas such as research” are omitted from the official
figure. This suggests that other areas may also be omitted. However, we cannot be certain of this.
We can infer from the passage that it is slightly more likely to be true than false. Therefore this
inference is ‘probably true’ as we cannot know for certain.

Inference 3: The Chinese government omits several key areas from its official spending figures, in
areas such as military spending, agriculture, human rights and law.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: More Information Required

Explanation: The passage provides information on the official figures for military spending. We
cannot infer, based on this information that official figures for other areas of government spending
are also incorrect. This would require more information.

Inference 4: If there are any anomalies between the published figures on military spending and the
actual figure spent, this is merely a clerical error.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: Probably False

Explanation: The passage notes that the official figure for military spending omits entire areas, such
as research and development on a regular basis, rather than on one occasion. This is unlikely to be a
clerical error as it happens more than once. However, we cannot be certain that a clerical error has
not occurred. Therefore the correct answer is ‘probably false’.
 Inference 5: In 2010 the United States of America spent less on its military defences than the
Chinese government.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: False

Explanation: This inference is false. The passage states that the United States government spent
$400 billion in 2010 and (based on PIPPI’s research) the Chinese spent over $120 billion. The official
Chinese figures are given as less than half this figure. Whilst the passage envisages that, in the
future, China may spend more on defence than the USA, in 2010 this was not the case. For this
reason, this inference is false.
 Turkey is a surprising addition to the list of rapidly developing economies; with a
GDP increase of 8.5% in the year 2011 alone. However, such rapid growth leaves
worries regarding possible side-effects. For instance, in 2011 Turkey’s rate of
inflation was well above that of its peers. Secondly, there is increasing concern
regarding Turkey’s growing dependency on foreign capital. A large portion of the
Turkish banking system is part-owned by banks within the Eurozone. As the single
currency falters, such a dependency raises questions about the stability of Turkish
growth.

Statement Two:

Inference 1: There are concerns that Turkey’s development is at risk of faltering in the years after
2011.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: True

Explanation: This inference is true. The passage states that Turkey is a ‘surprising’ addition to the list
of countries whose economy is rapidly developing. This suggests that it is performing above
expectations. The passage then goes on to note that there are worries regarding the possible side
effects of such growth. This suggests that there are concerns such growth will be short lived.

Inference 2: As Turkish banks are part-owned by those in the Eurozone, they may suffer if the
European banks face financial difficulty.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: True

Explanation: The inference is true. The passage states that one of the concerns facing the Turkish
economy is that they are part owned by banks in the Eurozone. The passage does not speculate over
whether the Eurozone banks are likely to face financial instability, but by the fact that they are
stated as linked, if Eurozone banks do face difficulty, the part-owned Turkish banks are also likely to
suffer.
 Inference 3: The Turkish banks are part-owned by European banks as this provides greater
variation to the market and extra finance to the economy.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: More Information Required

Explanation: The passage fails to mention why the Turkish banks are part owned by European banks.
We therefor require further information on this point before making this inference.

Inference 4: Turkish banks are part owned by European banks as this provides greater economic
links with the Eurozone, helping their ascension into the European Union.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: More information required

Explanation: The passage fails to mention why the Turkish banks are part owned by European banks.
We would therefore require more information before making this inference.

Inference 5: The Turkish economy was surprisingly stagnant in 2011.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: False

Explanation: This statement is false. The passage notes that the Turkish economy was performing
better than expected during 2011. This suggests it is far from stagnant.
 Some people think that prospective employees should include a photograph
with their application form. Such practice has traditionally been criticised for
allowing more attractive individuals to get ahead in their career over ‘plain’
colleagues. However, one study demonstrates that this is, in fact, untrue. Ruffle,
the creator of this study, attributes his findings to the ‘dumb-blonde hypothesis’-
that beautiful women are thought to be unintelligent. Ruffle submits that
companies would be better advised adopting the selection model employed by
the Belgian public sector, where CVs are anonymous and candidate names,
gender and photographs are not allowed to be included on CVs. Such a model
allows the candidate to be selected on factors relevant to the role applied for.

Statement Three:

Inference 1: The ‘dumb-blonde hypothesis’ says that more attractive women are less capable of
being intelligent.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: False

Explanation: The passage states that the ‘dumb-blonde hypothesis’ is that people think beautiful
women are ‘thought’ to be unintelligent. So based on the passage alone we are told that the theory
describes how people perceive beautiful women to be unintelligent, yet does not state that they are
actually less intelligent.
 Inference 2: The model of selecting future employees adopted by the Belgian public sector aims to
reduce discrimination based on appearance and gender.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: Probably True.

Explanation: This inference is probably true. The passage fails to state why the Belgian public sector
has chosen to implement this method of selection; however, we can infer, based on the nature of
the information in the passage and the topic discussed, that this is a likely reason behind the method
chosen. As we cannot be certain of this, the correct answer is ‘probably true’.

Inference 3: The method of selecting future employees adopted by the Belgian public sector has
helped to eliminate discrimination in the Belgian public sector.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: More Information Required.

Explanation: The passage fails to provide information on the success rate of this selection method; it
simply outlines the method. Therefore we cannot say whether this model has been successful. For
this reason we require further information before we can make this inference.
 Inference 4: The method of selecting future employees adopted by the Belgian public sector has
had the effect of increasing discrimination based on appearance within the Belgian public sector.

True
Probably True
More Information Required
Probably False
False

Correct Answer: Probably False

Explanation: This inference is probably false. While the passage fails to provide information on the
success rate of this model of employee selection, it states that under this model, future employees
cannot provide pictures of themselves with their application. This would suggest that discrimination
would be reduced, rather than increased. However based on the information provided, we cannot
say this for certain. For example, increased visual discrimination may in fact take place in the
interview. For this reason, the correct answer is probably false.
Section 2: Assumptions
Instructions:

An assumption is something which is presupposed or taken for granted. When a person says “I will
see you tomorrow”, it is taken for granted that they will be around tomorrow, and that they will not
have last-minute plans which prevent them from seeing you tomorrow.

In this section you will be provided with a number of statements. Each statement will be followed by
a series of proposed assumptions. You must decide which assumptions are logically justified based
on the evidence in the statement. If you think that the assumption is taken for granted in the
statement, and is therefore logically justified, select “Assumption Made”. If you think that the
assumption is not taken for granted in the statement, and is not therefore logically justified, select
“Assumption Not Made”. Remember to judge each question individually and base your responses
on the statements provided.
 Monarchic nations, i.e. those with royal families, differ from republican nations in
several ways. An example of this difference is that citizens of monarchic nations
pay more tax than citizens of republican nations.

Statement One:

Assumption 1: The governments of monarchic nations are responsible for setting tax rates on their
citizens.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Not Made.

Explanation: The statement does not rely on the fact (or assumption) that governments set tax rates
for their citizens. The statement doesn’t attempt to explain what causes the difference in tax
payments, merely that there is a difference.

Assumption 2: Republican nations do not have a royal family.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Made.

Explanation: The statement says that monarchic nations are those with a royal family. The statement
is assuming that this is one aspect which differentiates monarchic nations from republican nations.

Assumption 3: The only types of nation are monarchic and republican.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Not Made.

Explanation: The statement is just talking about the differences between two types of nation; it does
not imply that these are the only two nor does the statement rely on there being just two types.
 Assumption 4: A monarchic nation cannot be a republican nation.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Made.

Explanation: The statement relies on the two types of nation being different in order to describe
their differences. The statement also talks about the tax rate paid by citizens of a monarchic nation
with the implication that citizens of republican nations pay different tax.
 In 2008, the President of the USA promised to prevent the country entering
economic depression, but he failed because at the beginning of 2012, over 12
million USA citizens were unemployed.

Statement Two:

Assumption 1: Unemployment is an indicator of economic depression

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Made.

Explanation: The statement says that the promise of not entering economic depression was not met
due to unemployment figures. So the statement has made an assumption that unemployment is
indicative of economic depression.

Assumption 2: The number of USA citizens out of work ought to be less than 12 million.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Made.

Explanation: The statement uses the level of unemployment as a justification for declaring that the
promise of avoiding economic depression had not been met. Regardless of whether unemployment
is or isn’t a fair measure of economic depression, the statement is assuming that this level of
unemployment is worse than what would be considered acceptable.

Assumption 3: Presidents should stick to their promises.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Not Made.

Explanation: The statement does not assume that the President of the USA should or should not
stick to his promises; it merely claims that the promise was not met on this occasion. The statement
doesn’t imply that breaking of promises is right or wrong, and so does not make the assumption that
presidents should stick to their promises.
 Chilean students were right in 2012 to stage protests demanding that university
education in Chile should be made free.

Statement Three:

Assumption 1: Some Universities outside of Chile are free.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Not Made.

Explanation: The statement does not make reference to what universities in other countries are
charging, or that Chile should adopt practices of other countries. The assumption that there are free
universities in other countries is not a prerequisite for this statement to be made.

Assumption 2: Staging protests will influence the costs of Chilean university education.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Not Made.

Explanation: This is a subtle one. The statement says that students were right to stage protests, but
it does not assume that the outcome will be influenced by the protests. The statement might be
supporting protests despite the possible effect it will have, for example the statement could simply
be sympathetic towards the protests and be saying that it is understandable the students staged
protests.

Assumption 3: Chilean students cannot afford to pay fees for university education.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Not Made.

Explanation: The statement makes no reference to what the students can or cannot afford. The
statement is not using the affordability of university education as the justification for protests.
 Assumption 4: Chilean students want to attend university.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Not Made.

Explanation: The passage does not suggest that the students protested because they want to attend
university and their actions of protest might help this outcome. The statement is simply that
students were right to protest. In supporting the students’ protests the statement is not assuming
the students want to attend university.
 Charities don’t have to charge VAT to customers, which means charity bookshops
can charge lower prices than those charged by second-hand bookshops which
are not registered as a charity.

Statement Four:

Assumption 1: Charities pay less tax than non-charities.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Not Made.

Explanation: The statement claims that non-charities have to pay VAT, whereas charities do not. This
is one type of tax, but the statement is not saying that charities enjoy an overall more favourable tax
regime; it refers to just VAT. The statement is not coming from the angle that overall the level of tax
paid by charities is less than that paid by non-charities; it has not made this assumption.

Assumption 2: Customers prefer to pay lower prices.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Not Made.

Explanation: The passage says that charities can charge lower prices, but it does not talk about
customers preferring one or the other. The statement has not assumed that customers prefer to pay
lower prices.

Assumption 3: VAT increases the price customers pay for things.

Assumption Made
Assumption Not Made

Correct answer: Assumption Made.

Explanation: The statement says that because VAT has to be charged by non-charities, the prices
they charge customers have to be higher. The statement assumes that the charging of VAT
increases the cost to customers.

Section 3: Deductions
Instructions:

In this section, a statement will be provided followed by a series of suggested conclusions. Here, you
must take the statement to be true. After reading each conclusion underneath the statement, you
must decide whether you think it follows from the statement provided. If you agree that the
conclusion follows the statement, choose CONCLUSION FOLLOWS. However if you do not consider
the conclusion to follow, then choose CONCLUSION DOES NOT FOLLOW. You must select your
answer based only on the information presented; not using general knowledge. Similarly you are
advised not to let your own opinions or prejudices influence your decisions; stick to the statements
and base your judgements solely on the facts presented.
 In an attempt to cut expenses, an organisation disbanded its IT department and
outsourced its IT function to a business process outsourcing company. In doing so
the company has managed to save 20% on its IT function expenditure.

Statement One:

Conclusion One: Outsourcing functions to business process outsourcing companies will cut
expenses

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: Although this company saved money on their IT function, it does not state that other
companies will also save money, or that other functions if outsourced would save companies money.

Conclusion Two: The aim of this company’s outsourcing was to make the organisation more
profitable.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement does not say that the organisation is a for-profit organisation, and does
not mention profitability in the statement, the aim of the outsourcing was to cut expenses. Who is
to say what their aim was regarding income.

Conclusion Three: The outsourced IT function has saved the organisation 1/5th on their IT function
expenditure compared to the in-house IT function.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: The statement notes that by outsourcing its IT function the company has cut its IT
expenses by 20%, suggesting that the previous function was 1/5th (20%) more expensive, and
therefore outsourcing has saved 1/5th of the IT expenditure.
 Sarah owns a new company. New companies are more likely to fail than well-
established companies. Therefore:

Statement Two:

Conclusion One: Sarah’s company will fail.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement notes that new companies are more likely to fail. This does not mean
that all new companies will fail. The correct answer is, therefore, conclusion does not follow.

Conclusion Two: Sarah’s company is more likely to fail than a well-established company.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: The statement notes that new companies are more likely to fail. As a new company,
Sarah’s company is therefore more likely to fail. The correct answer is therefore conclusion follows.

Conclusion Three: Well-established companies are more likely to succeed than new companies.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: The statement notes that new companies are more likely to fail than well-established
companies. Well-established companies are therefore more likely to succeed, by comparison to new
companies. The correct answer is therefore conclusion follows.
 Statistics have shown that companies selling baked goods, such as cakes and
pastries, are more likely to be successful if they are advertised as French or
Belgian. Therefore:

Statement Three:

Conclusion One: French and Belgian products are more expensive.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: There are other reasons why such companies may be more successful. For example the
goods may be of a better quality, or the type of goods may have a particularly popular taste, or they
may be perceived better value. Therefore, we cannot say that these companies are more successful
because their goods are more expensive.

Conclusion Two: French and Belgian baked goods must taste better.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: There are many reasons why such companies may be more successful, taste is only one
option. Therefore we cannot make this deduction without further information.

Conclusion Three: It is a sound business model to advertise baked goods as “French” or “Belgian”
as this is more likely to result in successful sales.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: The statement notes that companies selling these types of goods are more successful.
Therefore, we can state that it is a good business model to advertise items on this basis.
 May 2012 had the highest level of rainfall on record for the preceding fifty
years. Predictions of rainfall are rarely accurate. Therefore:

Statement Four:

Conclusion One: It rained more than expected in May 2012.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The information in the statement does not offer a prediction to the amount of rainfall;
it only states that predictions of rainfall are rarely accurate. We cannot deduce what the prediction
was based on the statement, therefore the conclusion does not follow.

Conclusion Two: The rainfall in May 2012 was greater than in May 2011.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Follows.

The rainfall in May 2012 was the highest on record for the past 50 years; therefore it must have
been higher than the May 2011 levels.

Conclusion Three: May is usually dry.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Correct Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement refers to the rainfall in May 2012 being higher than usual. The statement
makes no reference to May being usually dry. Based on the information in the statement alone, the
correct answer is conclusion does not follow.
 Facebook was launched on the American stock market in May 2012. However,
statistics suggest that several previously high-performing companies, such as
Pandora, Groupon and LinkedIn fell in value after they were launched on the
American stock market. Therefore:

Statement Five:

Conclusion One: It is possible that Facebook will also drop in value after May 2012.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: Based on the information provided about similarly high performing companies, we are
able to make the conclusion that it is possible that Facebook may meet a similar fate after May 2012.
The key word here is ‘possible’, as we are unable to say for certain, based on the information
provided that this will definitely happen. Based on the information in the statement and the use of
the word ‘possible’ in the conclusion, the correct answer is conclusion follows.

Conclusion Two: Social networking sites perform badly once they become publicly listed on the
stock market.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The passage does not state that social networking sights perform badly once they
become publicly listed. We cannot deduce this from the passage, and therefore the conclusion does
not follow.

Conclusion Three: All companies decrease in value when first launched on the American stock
market.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: Based on the information in the above statement we are unable to say that all
companies drop in value. The statement notes three companies that have decreased in value,
 There are currently three problems facing the financial sector. Firstly, bankers are no
longer seen as reliable or trustworthy. Secondly, executives of financial institutions are
seen by the general public as being overpaid. Finally, it is difficult to regulate the
financial sector. Therefore:

however we cannot apply this to all companies. The correct answer is therefore “Conclusion Does
Not Follow”.

Statement Six:

Conclusion One: Banks have never been trusted by the general public.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: Based on the information contained in the statement, we are also told that bankers are
“no longer” seen as reliable or trustworthy. For this reason, we are unable to say that banks have
never been trusted. For this reason, the correct answer is “Conclusion Does Not Follow”.

Conclusion Two: Reliability is no longer an issue when considering the failings of the financial
sector.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement notes that ‘reliability’ is one of the key problems facing the financial
sector. For this reason, we are unable to conclude that ‘reliability’ is no longer an issue. The correct
answer is therefore “Conclusion Does Not Follow”.
 Conclusion Three: Overpaying financial executives may contribute to problems facing the financial
sector.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: The passage states that one of the problems facing the financial sector is that
executives are seen as overpaid. Overpaying executives will contribute to the public’s perception of
them being overpaid, indeed it will vindicate their perception. This conclusion therefore follows.
 Coley is a company that produces scented candles, using only natural products. Coley is
against testing on animals and does not use pesticides in any of its products. Therefore:

Statement Seven:

Conclusion One: The scent from Coley’s candles is made from fruits and berries.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: Although the ingredients are said to be natural, it does not specifically state what those
ingredients are, and therefore we cannot deduce that fruits and berries are the ingredients,
therefore the conclusion does not follow.

Conclusion Two: Coley’s products are unlikely to contain man-made setting agents.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: Based on the description of the products made by Coley’s and the ingredients they use,
we can conclude that these products are unlikely to include manmade setting agents as this would
not be a “natural product”. For this reason, the correct answer is “Conclusion Follows”.

Conclusion Three: Coley’s products are likely to be more expensive.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement fails to make reference to the price of these items. Therefore, we are
unable to conclude that they are more expensive. For this reason the correct answer is “Conclusion
Does Not Follow”.
Section 4: Interpreting Information
Instructions:

The following questions will consist of a passage of information, followed by a series of conclusions.
You are instructed to assume all information in the passage is true. The task is to judge whether or
not each of the proposed conclusions logically flows beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the paragraph.

If you think that a conclusion follows beyond a reasonable doubt (but perhaps not absolutely), select
“Conclusion Follows”. If you think the conclusion does not follow beyond a reasonable doubt based
on the facts given, select “Conclusion Does Not Follow”. Do not use general knowledge when
answering, only use the information provided in the passage. Remember to judge each conclusion
individually.
 The Tapoloa Club is a Hawaiian-themed night club in central London. Its most
popular drink is the Volcano, which emits sparks and flames. The Tapoloa Club
also offers a range of cocktails in perverse containers such as pineapples and
coconuts, such as the ‘Coconut Express’ and the ‘Pineapple Pick-Up’
respectively. Therefore:

Statement One:

Conclusion One: The ‘Coconut Express’ is the second most popular drink sold by the Tapoloa Club.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement does not state the popularity of the “Coconut Express”, it just mentions
its name, so we cannot therefore make a conclusion of its popularity, and therefore the conclusion
does not follow.

Conclusion Two: All themed clubs in London sell unusual drinks.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: Based on the information in the statement alone, we are unable to say whether or not
all themed clubs in London sell unusual drinks. The statement is based on one club alone and does
not mention others. For this reason, we are unable to deduce this conclusion. The correct answer is
therefore, “Conclusion Does Not Follow”.

Conclusion Three: The “Coconut Express” is contained in a pineapple, and the “Pineapple Pick-Up”
is contained in a coconut.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: The passage states “cocktails in containers such as Pineapples and coconuts, such as
the ‘coconut express’ and the ‘pineapple pick-up’ respectively” informing us that pineapples are the
container for the coconut express, and coconuts are the container for the pineapple pick up, so
 The British National Library has the largest collection of publicly-owned books in the
United Kingdom. Therefore:

therefore the conclusion follows. It would be an incorrect conclusion to assume because the fruit
was mentioned in the drink’s name, that the container would be of the same fruit.

Statement Two:

Conclusion One: There might be a larger collection of books in the United Kingdom.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: The statement notes that the British National Library is the largest collection of publicly
owned books. However, it is possible that there are larger collections of privately owned books. For
this reason the correct answer is “Conclusion Follows”.

Conclusion Two: There might be a larger collection of publicly-owned books in the United Kingdom.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement notes that the British National Library is the largest collection of publicly
owned books. For this reason, it is not possible for there to be a larger publicly owned collection in
the UK. The correct answer is therefore “Conclusion Does Not Follow”.

Conclusion Three: The British National Library is in the United Kingdom

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: The statement notes that the British National Library has the largest collection of
publicly owned books in the United Kingdom. For this reason we can deduce that the British National
Library is itself within the United Kingdom. The correct answer therefore is “Conclusion Follows”.
 People with a master’s degree in business administration (MBA) earn an income on
average 70% higher than people with just an undergraduate degree. MBA students
from top business schools earn an income on average 50% higher than the average
income of people with MBAs.

Statement Three:

Conclusion One: If a person obtains an MBA, their income will increase.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement does not say that obtaining an MBA is the cause for the increase in
income, and therefore it is fallacious to conclude that obtaining an MBA will increase your income
based purely on the statement above. Just because average incomes for an MBA graduate are higher
does not imply that these are the cause of the increase, and therefore it is no guarantee to increase
income.

Conclusion Two: If a person obtains an MBA from a top business school, their income will be higher
than that of the average MBA graduate.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement does not say that obtaining a top MBA is the cause of the increase in
income between top and average MBA recipient incomes. Because correlation does not imply
causation, we cannot conclude that the achievement of a top school MBA is the cause of this income
difference, based on the information provided.
 Conclusion Three: The average income of an MBA graduate from a top business school is over
double that of the average income of a person holding only an undergraduate degree.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: Because the income of an average MBA students is 70% larger than that of an
undergraduate, and a top MBA graduate’s income is 50% greater than the average MBA income. We
can therefore conclude that the average income of a top MBA graduate is more than double the
average person holding only an undergraduate degree.
 Hannah has been a solicitor for three years. She works for a law firm in central
London and has hopes of being promoted. To be promoted in Hannah’s firm,
employees must have at least four years’ experience practising as a solicitor.
Therefore:

Statement Four:

Conclusion One: Hannah cannot be promoted because she doesn’t have enough experience.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Follows.

Explanation: The statement notes that to be promoted, members of staff must have at least four
years’ experience practising as a solicitor. We are also aware that Hannah only has three years of
experience practising as a solicitor. Therefore, she does not meet the required number of years’
experience. For this reason, the correct answer is “Conclusion Follows”.

Conclusion Two: We cannot know whether Hannah can be promoted or not.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: The statement notes that to be promoted, members of staff must have at least four
years’ experience practising as a solicitor. We are told that Hannah only has three years of
experience practising as a solicitor. Therefore, she does not meet the required number of years of
experience. With this in mind, we are able to say that she cannot be promoted. For this reason, the
correct answer is “Conclusion Does Not Follow”.
 Conclusion Three: In 3 years’ time, assuming that Hannah has not been promoted, she will be over
qualified for her current position.

Conclusion Follows
Conclusion Does Not Follow

Answer: Conclusion Does Not Follow.

Explanation: the passage does not refer to over qualification; therefore we cannot conclude that she
will be over qualified. The passage states that 4 years is the minimum requirement for promotion,
but does not state that she will be guaranteed a promotion, or that her current role will be
unsuitable to her after her four years as a solicitor.
Section 5: Analysing arguments
Instructions:

When making important decisions, it is useful to be able to distinguish between a strong argument
and a weak argument. A strong argument is both important and directly related to the question. A
weak argument is not directly related to the question, or is of minor importance. A weak argument
may also be related to a trivial aspect of the question, or confuses correlation with causation
(incorrectly assuming that because two things are related, they cause each other to happen).

In this series of questions, each question is followed by a series of arguments. For this section you
must regard each argument as true, regardless of whether it is weak or strong.

If you consider an argument to be strong, select “Strong Argument”, or if you consider an argument
to be weak, select “Weak Argument”. Judge each question and argument individually. Try not to
take into account individual opinion or general knowledge since each argument is considered to be
true.
 Should companies downsize their workforces to decrease expenses and maximise
profits?

Statement One:

Argument One: Yes, downsizing will protect the company from bankruptcy in hard economic times.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: Accepting the argument as true, avoiding bankruptcy is an essential motive for an
organisation, however the statement does not discuss bankruptcy and it is discussing profits and
expenses. Protection against bankruptcy is not the topic and is straying from the point, and is
therefore a weak argument.

Argument Two: Yes, companies have no obligation to employ more people than it can handle.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: Although the point is taken to be true, it does not provide evidence for the benefits of
its position, it merely states an irrelevant fact, making this a weak argument.

Argument Three: No, downsizing leads to demoralisation of the workforce and causes a drop in
employee productivity

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument addresses the initial statement directly, providing a clear disadvantage of
the statement, making this a strong argument.
 Argument Four: Yes, companies which have no control over the size of their workforce will be
highly vulnerable to economic climates and market changes.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: The initial question does not discuss taking away the company’s right to control its own
size, only one aspect of it. Therefore the point is arguing a separate question, rather than the initial
one, presenting a weak argument.
 Should university-level education be free to all students?

Statement Two:

Argument One: No. Too much education can lead to over-qualification, and therefore
unemployment.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: The argument only addresses too much education and over qualification, and the
statement does not discuss these issues, as a result the argument does not fully address the
statement. Therefore it is a weak argument.

Argument Two: Yes, having a highly qualified workforce ensures high levels of employee
productivity in organisations.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: If the argument is to be taken as true, then this provides a very clear and relevant
benefit to free university education, presenting a strong argument.

Argument Three: No, research has shown that students that are not required to pay tuition fees;
tend to slack off more and learn less during their degree.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument presents direct evidence for the point it presents, and addresses a
serious disadvantage of the initial statement. The statement addresses the initial point directly and
is therefore a strong argument.
 Should employers allow all staff the option of flexi-time working hours?

Statement Three:

Argument One: Yes, giving staff greater flexibility will improve their work-life balance, and
therefore their productivity.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument provides a clear and direct benefit of the initial statement, and directly
addresses the statement, making this a strong argument.

Argument Two: Yes, organisations that value their staff are on average more productive and show
lower staff turnover.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: The argument does not specifically address flexi-time; it argues a separate point
regarding valuing staff, which is not directly relevant to the statement and is therefore a weak
argument.

Argument Three: No, flexi time leads to employees working fewer hours. Working fewer hours will
decrease an employee’s exposure to the workplace, making career progression harder and leading
to a less experienced workforce.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument provides two relevant arguments for its position, and both offer clear
disadvantages which directly relate to the initial statement, making this a strong argument.
 Should governments implement a minimum wage, outlining a minimum amount an
employee is to be paid per hour?

Statement Four:

Argument One: Yes, the existence of minimum wages is a key part of a civilised society.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: The argument does not present any advantages of a minimum wage; it only presents a
statement about a minimum wage, not defending its position, thus making this a weak argument.

Argument Two: Yes, countries that do not have a minimum wage are often impoverished and
dysfunctional.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: The argument does not state that the absence of a minimum wage is the cause of
poverty and dysfunction, it just states that these two things coincide, not addressing the point of the
argument and therefore presenting a weak argument.

Argument Three: No, minimum wage leads to under-employment by forcing companies to take on
staff part time, as they cannot afford to hire them on a full time basis.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument presents a clear disadvantage of the initial statement, outlining the result
and how the result would occur, presenting a strong argument.
 Should banks and financial institutions be obligated to engage in socially-
responsible investing?

Statement Five:

Argument One: Yes, engaging in socially responsible investing leads to a happier and more fulfilled
workforce compared to banks which do not engage in socially-responsible investing.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument addresses the question directly, and offers two clear advantages of the
premise described in the statement, directly addressing the question and presenting a strong
argument.

Argument Two: No, banks are for-profit institutions and have no obligation to social issues

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: The argument does not provide any benefits of its position or advantageous outcomes;
it merely describes its position. This is a weak argument as it does not provide a strong basis for its
point, only providing an explanation of its point.

Argument Three: No, focusing on social responsibility detracts from the aim of making money,
which is the most important endeavour for banks, and leads to a decrease in revenue and profit.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument presents a clear disadvantage of the premise in the statement, directly
addressing the question and providing evidence for its claim. This is therefore a strong argument.
 Argument Four: No, over-regulation in the financial sector leads to decreased opportunities and
therefore lower profits.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: The initial question does not discuss regulation of the financial services sector, so the
argument is not addressing the initial point, making it a weak argument.
 Should all members of the European Union join the Eurozone and adopt the euro?

Statement Six:

Argument One: No, countries may find it difficult to adapt to a new currency.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: The passage does not provide any evidence for its claim by describing the outcome of
its position, and it only states that countries “may” find it difficult, suggesting there is no guarantee,
making this a weak argument.

Argument Two: Yes, the function of the European Union is to form a single currency union.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: The argument does not provide evidence for an advantage of a currency union; it
merely states the function of the European Union, which does not support its claim. This is therefore
a weak argument.

Argument Three: Yes, greater economic unity between countries improves foreign relations
between those member countries, which in turn make each country stronger.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument directly answers the question in the initial statement, provides an
explanation for its opinion and describes a positive outcome of its premise. This is therefore a strong
argument.
 Argument Four: No, instability of one Eurozone country could cause the whole Eurozone to
become unstable, disrupting the economies of all countries that use the euro.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument presents a serious problem with the Eurozone concept, and is directly
related to the initial question. The argument explains its point and states the outcome, presenting a
strong argument.
 Should governments be engaging in space exploration research?

Statement Seven:

Argument One: No, the money spent on these programs could be used to increase funding for
education and healthcare, which would lead to increasing the quality of life for a country’s people.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument addresses the initial question, provides an explanation of its point and
provides the outcome of its stated point. This suggests that this is a strong argument.

Argument Two: No, countries have collectively spent trillions of dollars on space exploration
research already.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: This argument does not provide an explanation for why space exploration should not
be funded, it simply states that trillions of dollars have already been spent, not explaining its
position, making it a weak argument.

Argument Three: Yes, space exploration has led to numerous discoveries and ushered in the space
age.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Weak Argument.

Explanation: Although the agreement states that discoveries have been made, it does not go into
detail about the benefits of those discoveries, and the reference to the space age does not imply a
benefit. Therefore this is a weak argument.
 Argument Four: Yes, the findings of these space exploration research and development
programmes have been successfully applied to industry, boosting the economies of the host
country.

Strong Argument
Weak Argument

Correct answer: Strong Argument.

Explanation: The argument directly addresses the initial question, and provides a detailed practical
benefit of the initial premise, making this a strong argument.

-- END OF TEST --
 ASSESMENT TYPE 4:
ANALYTICAL/DEDUCTIVE
REASONING APPTITUDE
 SECTION 1: Visual Analytical Questions

Question 1

In the below questions your analytical reasoning is tested by showing you various shapes and then asking you to
interpret those shapes and finding for example how many triangles there are in the picture. These questions will in
other words test your visual aptitude.

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Question 2

A. 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 19

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Question 3

A. 22
B. 24
C. 26
D. 28

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Question 4

A. 12
B. 18
C. 22
D. 26

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
 SECTION 2: TABLE DATA INTERPRETAION

Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.
Expenditures of a Company (in Pesetas) per Annum Over the given Years.

Question 1

What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to
pay during this period?

A. 32.43
B. 33.72
C. 34.18
D. 36.66

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Average amount of interest paid by the Company during the

given period
Question 2

The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is
approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this
period?

A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1.0%
D. 1.25%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Required percentage
Question 3
Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what
percent of the total expenditure in 2002?

A. 62%
B. 66%
C. 69%
D. 71%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Required percentage

Question 4

The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000
is?

A. 544.44
B. 501.11
C. 446.46
D. 478.87

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Total expenditure of the Company during 2000 = (324 + 101 +
3.84 + 41.6 + 74) = 544.44
Question 5

The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the
total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is
approximately?

A. 4:7
B. 10:13
C. 15:18
D. 5:8

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Required ratio
Question 6

Study the following table and answer the questions. Number of Candidates
Appeared and Qualified in a Competitive Examination from Different States Over
the Years.

Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1997 is
approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates qualified
from all the states together in 1998?

A. 72%
B. 77%
C. 80%
D. 83%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Required percentage
Question 7

What is the average candidates who appeared from State Q during the given
years?

A. 8700
B. 8760
C. 8990
D. 8920

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Required average
Question 8

In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State P
has maximum percentage of qualified candidates?

A. 1997
B. 1998
C. 1999
D. 2001

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Question 9

What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State N for all the years
together, over the candidates appeared from State N during all the years
together?

A. 12.36%
B. 12.16%
C. 11.47%
D. 11.15%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Required percentage
Question 10

The percentage of total number of qualified candidates to the total number

of appeared candidates among all the five states in 1999 is?

A. 11.49%
B. 11.84%
C. 12.21%
D. 12.57%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option B
Explanation: Required percentage

Question 11

Combining the states P and Q together in 1998, what is the percentage of

the candidates qualified to that of the candidate appeared?

A. 10.87%
B. 11.49%
C. 12.35%
D. 12.54%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Required percentage
 SECTION 3: BAR CHART DATA INTERPRETAION

The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in thousand number)
from six branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years
2000 and 2001.

Question 1

What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total
sales of branch B4 for both years?

A. 2:3
B. 3:5
C. 4:5
D. 7:9

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Question 2

Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales
of branches B3 for both the years?

A. 68.54%
B. 71.11%
C. 73.17%
D. 75.55%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Question 3

What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the
average sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?

A. 75%
B. 77.5%
C. 82.5%
D. 87.5%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000
Question 4

What is the average sales of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the
year 2000?

A. 73
B. 80
C. 83
D. 88

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Average sales of all the six branches (in thousand numbers) for the year
2000
= 1/6 x [80 + 75 + 95 + 85 + 75 + 70]
= 80.

Question 5

Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in
thousand numbers) is?

A. 250
B. 310
C. 435
D. 560

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Total sales of branches B1, b2 and B5 for both the years (in thousand
numbers)
= (80 + 105) + (95 + 110) + (75 + 95)
= 560.
 Section 4: PIE CHART DATA INTRPRETAION

Question 1

The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure

incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the
questions based on it.

If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as
printing cost, then what will be amount of royalty to be paid for these
books?

A. Rs. 19,450
B. Rs. 21,200
C. Rs. 22,950
D. Rs. 26,150

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Let the amount of Royalty to be paid for these books be Rs. r.
Then, 20 : 15 = 30600 : r => r = Rs. (30600x15)/20
= Rs. 22,950.
Question 2

What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure

incurred on Royalty?

A. 15�
B. 24�
C. 54�
D. 48�

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Central angle corresponding to Royalty = (15% of 360)�
= (15/100)x360�
= 54�.

Question 3:

The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of
the book is Rs. 180, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy
of the book?

A. Rs. 36
B. Rs. 37.50
C. Rs. 42
D. Rs. 44.25

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Clearly, marked price of the book = 120% of C.P.
Also, cost of paper = 25% of C.P
Let the cost of paper for a single book be Rs. n.
Then, 120 : 25 = 180 : n => n = Rs. (25x180)/120
= Rs. 37.50 .
Question 4

If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to
Rs. 82500, then what should be the selling price of the book so that the
publisher can earn a profit of 25%?

A. Rs. 187.50
B. Rs. 191.50
C. Rs. 175
D. Rs. 180

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
For the publisher to earn a profit of 25%, S.P. = 125% of C.P.
Also Transportation Cost = 10% of C.P.
Let the S.P. of 5500 books be Rs. x.
Then, 10 : 125 = 82500 : x => x = Rs.(125x82500)/10= Rs. 1031250.
Therefore S.P. of one book = Rs. 1031250/5500= Rs. 187.50 .
Question 5

Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by:

A. 5%
B. 33 1/5%
C. 20%
D. 25%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
 Section 5: LINE CHART DATA INTEPRETAION

Study the following line graph and answer the questions.

Exports from Three Companies Over the Years

Question 1

For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three
Companies together are equal?

A. 1995 and 1998

B. 1996 and 1998
C. 1997 and 1998
D. 1995 and 1996

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z together, during various
years are:
In 1993 = (30 + 80 + 60) = 170
In 1994 = (60 + 40 + 90) = 190
In 1995 = (40 + 60 + 120) = 220
In 1996 = (70 + 60 + 90) = 220
In 1997 = (100 + 80 + 60) = 240
In 1998 = (50 + 100 + 80) = 230
In 1999 = (120 + 140 + 100) = 360
Clearly, the total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z together are
same during the years 1995 and 1996.
Question 2

Average annual exports during the given period for Company Y is

approximately what percent of the average annual exports for Company Z?

A. 87.12%
B. 89.64%
C. 91.21%
D. 93.33%

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Analysis of the graph: From the graph it is clear that
1. The amount of exports of Company X (in Pesetas) in the years 1993,
1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 30, 60, 40, 70, 100, 50 and
120 respectively.
2. The amount of exports of Company Y (in Pesetas.) in the years 1993,
1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 80, 40, 60, 60, 80, 100 and
140 respectively.
3. The amount of exports of Company Z (in Pesetas) in the years 1993,
1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 60, 90,, 120, 90, 60, 80 and
100 respectively.
Average annual exports (in Pesetas) of Company Y during the given period
= 1/7 x (80 + 40 + 60 + 60 + 80 + 100 + 140) = 560/7= 80.
Average annual exports (in Pesetas) of Company Z during the given period
= 1/7 x (60 + 90 + 120 + 90 + 60 + 80 + 100) = (600/7 ) .
Therefore Required percentage =
Question 3

In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X and
Y the minimum?

A. 1994
B. 1995
C. 1996
D. 1997

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The difference between the exports from the Companies X and Y during the
various years are:
In 1993 = (80 - 30) = 50
In 1994 = (60 - 40) = 20
In 1995 = (60 - 40) = 20
In 1996 = (70 - 60) = 10
In 1997 = (100 - 80) = 20
In 1998 = (100 - 50) = 50
In 1999 = (140 - 120) = 20
Clearly, the difference is minimum in the year 1996.
Question 4

What was the difference between the average exports of the three
Companies in 1993 and the average exports in 1998?

A. 15.33
B. 18.67
C. 20
D. 22.17

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Average exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z in 1993
= [ 1/3 x (30 + 80 + 60) ] = ( 170/3)
Average exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z in 1998
= [1/3 x (50 + 100 + 80) ] = (230/3)
Difference [ ( 230/3) - ( 170/3) ]
= ( 60/3) = 20
Question 5

In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company Z more
than the average annual exports over the given years?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Average annual exports of Company Z during the given period
= 1/7 x (60 + 90 + 120 + 90 + 60 + 80 + 100)
= ( 600/7) = 85.71
From the analysis of graph the exports of Company Z are more than the
average annual exports of Company Z (i.e., 85.71) during the years 1994,
1995, 1996 and 1999, i.e., during 4 of the given years.
Analytical - Deductive Reasoning
 The Large Silver Clock states the time as 15:50.
The Small Silver Clock displays the same time as the Gold Clock.
The Bronze Clock is small in size.
The Gold Clock is ten minutes behind the Large Silver Clock.
The Bronze Clock is five minutes after of the Small Silver Clock.

Q1 The Small Silver Clock displays the time as 16:00.

a. True
b. False
c. Insufficient Information

Answer: False

Explanation:

a. Line 2 states the small silver clock is the same time as the gold clock.

b. Line 4 states that the gold clock is ten minutes behind the large silver clock.

c. Line 1 states that the large silver clock says the time is 15:50. Therefore, the small silver
clock should display 15:40, not 16:00. Thus, this statement is false.
 The Large Silver Clock states the time as 15:50.
The Small Silver Clock displays the same time as the Gold Clock.
The Bronze Clock is small in size.
The Gold Clock is ten minutes behind the Large Silver Glock.
The Bronze Clock is five minutes after of the Small Silver Clock.

Q2 The Gold Clock is large in size.

a. True
b. False
c. Insufficient Information

Answer: True

Explanation:

a. Line 1 states that the large silver clock state the time as 15:50. Line 4 states
that the gold clock is ten minutes behind the large silver clock, thus 15:40.
 The Large Silver Clock states the time as 15:50.
The Small Silver Clock displays the same time as the Gold Clock.
The Bronze Clock is small in size.
The Gold Clock is ten minutes behind the Large Silver Clock.
The Bronze Clock is five minutes after of the Small Silver Glock.

Q3 The Bronze Clock is the same size as the Gold Clock.

a. True
b. False
c. Insufficient Information

Answer: Insufficient Information

Explanation:

a. Line 3 states that the bronze clock is small in size.

b. Even though line 1 talks of a large silver clock, line 2 talks of a small silver
clock. The ambiguity of the statement, referring simply to a silver clock,
means we cannot assess whether it is the large or the small one. Therefore,
this is insufficient information.
 The Large Silver Clock states the time as 15:50.
The Small Silver Clock displays the same time as the Gold Clock.
The Bronze Clock is small in size.
The Gold Clock is ten minutes behind the Large Silver Glock.
The Bronze Clock is five minutes after of the Small Silver Clock.

Q4 The Gold Clock is the same time as the Bronze Clock.

a. True
b. False
c. Insufficient Information

Answer: Insufficient Information

Explanation:

a. Line 6 states that the bronze clock is five minutes after the small silver clock.

b. Line 2 states that the small silver clock is the same time as the gold clock.

c. Line 4 states that the gold clock is ten minutes behind the large silver clock, which line
1 states is 15:50. Therefore, the gold clock is 15:40 but the bronze is 15:45. Thus, the
times are not the same and this statement is false.
 Painmr Sales
Name: Kim Ramirez
Favourite Gen re: Abstract
Pamting Author: Remix

Painting I Painting II Painting 111 Painting IV Painting V

Titl'e: Morphism Desecrate Rem�x IMtant Fugue

Genre: Abstract Classical Abstract Modern Cl.issical
Price: £10,QOO £7,000 £6,000 £4,500 £17,500

QS The paintings in the museum are to be filed, by genre, then title, in

alphabetical order. Which painting would be positioned fourth?

a. Painting I
b. Painting II
C. Painting Ill
d. Painting IV
e. Painting V

Answer: Painting V

Explanation:

a. We have three different genre types: Abstract, Classical and Modern. Each title in their
genre is then alphabetised. Therefore, the Abstract titles, Morphism and Remix are
alphabetised as such.

b. Following this, the Classical titles are alphabetised Desecrate and Fugue. Therefore,
we can note the order is as follows: Morphism, Remix, Desecrate, Fugue and Instant.
Thus, the painting in the fourth position is Painting V.
 Painmr Sales
Name: Kim Ramirez
Favourite Gen re: Abstract
Pamting Author: Remix

Painting I Painting II Painting 111 Painting IV Painting V

Titl'e: Morphism Desecrate Rem�x IMtant Fugue

Genre: Abstract Classical Abstract Modern Cl.issical
Price: £10,QOO £7,000 £6,000 £4,500 £17,500

Q6 Kim Ramirez sold her painting and then purchased the Instant painting. How
much money does she have left over?

a. £500
b. £1,000
c. £1,500
d. £2,000
e. £2,500

Answer: £1,500

Explanation:

a. We can see that Kim Ramirez's painting is Remix, priced at £6,000. Therefore, she
makes that money when sold.

b. She then purchases Instant, priced as £4,500. 6,000 - 4,500 = £1,500.

 Ailment C lasts twice as long as Ailment D
Taking Medicine A halves the duration of Ailment B
Medicine C reduces the duration of Ailment D to five days
Ailment A and Blast for eight days
Taking Medicine B halves the duration of Ailment A and C
Ailment Blasts half the duration as Ailment D

Q7 Taking Medicine B will reduce the duration of Ailment C by twelve days.

a. True
b. False
c. Insufficient Information

Answer: False

Explanation:

a. Line 1 states that Ailment C lasts twice as long as Ailment D, which line 6 states is
twice as long as Ailment B. Line 4 states that Ailment B lasts for 8 days

b. Therefore, Ailment C lasts for 8*2*2 = 32 days.

c. Line 5 states that Medicine B will half the duration of Ailment C. Thus, 32 I 2 = 16.

d. Therefore, Medicine B will reduce the ailment duration by 16 days, not 12 and as such
this statement is false.
 Ailment C lasts twice as long as Ailment D
Taking Medicine A halves the duration of Ailment B
Medicine C reduces the duration of Ailment D to five days
Ailment A and Blast for eight days
Taking Medicine Bhalves the duration of Ailment A and C
Ailment Blasts half the duration as Ailment D

Q8 Ailment D lasts for 18 days.

a. True
b. False
c. Insufficient Information

Answer: True

Explanation:

a. Line 4 states that Ailment B lasts for eight days. Line 6 states that Ailment D lasts for
twice as long as Ailment B, thus sixteen days. Therefore, this statement is false.
 Ailment C lasts twice as long as Ailment D
Taking Medicine A halves the duration of Ailment B
Medicine C reduces the duration of Ailment D to five days
Ailment A and Blast for eight days
Taking Medicine B halves the duration of Ailment A and C
Ailment Blasts half the duration as Ailment D

Q9 Taking Medicine C will reduce the duration of Ailment D to eleven days.

a. True
b. False
c. Insufficient Information

Answer: Insufficient Information

Explanation:

a. Line 4 states that Ailment B lasts for eight days. Line 6 states that Ailment D lasts for
twice as long as Ailment B, thus sixteen days.

b. Line 3 states that by taking Medicine C, the duration will be reduced to five days. Sixteen
minus five is eleven. Therefore, this statement is true.
 Ailment C lasts twice as long as Ailment D
Taking Medicine A halves the duration of Ailment B
Medicine C reduces the duration of Ailment D to five days
Ailment A and Blast for eight days
Taking Medicine Bhalves the duration of Ailment A and C
Ailment Blasts half the duration as Ailment D

Q10 Taking appropriate Medicine, Ailment D lasts longer than Ailment A.

a. True
b. False
c. Insufficient Information

Answer: True

Explanation:

a. Line 4 states that Ailment A lasts for eight days. Line 6 states that Ailment D lasts for
twice as long as Ailment B, thus sixteen days.

b. Line 3 states that by taking Medicine C, the duration will be reduced to five days. Line
5 states that Medicine B will half the duration of Ailment A; 8 / 2 = 4.
 Multilateral development banks (MDBs) are international financial
institutions established by a group of countries that provide
financial services and professional advice in order to further
economic development. MDBs generally receive donations from
developed nations, often labelled foreign aid. They lend money to
developing nations in the form of very-long term loans below the
market rate of interest and through grants.

Q11 Taking each line in the above argument as true, which statement must be
demonstrably false?

a. Developing nations will eventually pay back their loans.

b. Loans from MDBs are below the market rate of interest.
c. MDBs lend money as typically short-term loans.
d. MDBs are established as international ventures.
e. An aim of MDBs is to provide economic development.

Answer: MDBs lend money as typically short-term loans.

Explanation:

a. Line 3 states that MDBs lend money at 'very-long term loans'. Therefore, this statement
is demonstrably false.
ASSESMENT TYPE 5: DISC
DISC LEADERSHIP - PROFILES
Style 1: Dominance – High “D” Style

• Demonstrates a cool, independent, and competitive nature

• When working alone, completes tasks and projects with impressive speed
• Is swift with action and decision-making
• Takes control and gets impatient with slow action or lack thereof
• Wants the freedom to manage self and others
• Demonstrates low tolerance for people’s feelings and attitudes
• Does not readily embrace advice
• Performs extremely well in administrative tasks
Style 2: Influence – High “I” Style
• Demonstrates spontaneity and decisiveness
• Enjoys participating
• Doesn’t enjoy working alone
• Tends towards exaggeration and generalization
• Is inclined to dream and get others excited about the dream
• Easily hops from activity to activity
• Works with others with speed and excitement
• Looks for admiration and recognition
• Possesses excellent influencing skills
Style 3: Steadiness – High “S” Style
• Takes it slow when it comes to actions and decisions
• Enjoys close and deep relationships
• Is averse to workplace conflict
• Demonstrates strong listening skills and support of others
• Has great ability to counsel others
• Is not naturally strong at goal setting and giving direction
• Has a knack for gaining people’s buy-in and support
• Works with others in a slow and cohesive manner
• Looks for safety and belongingness
Style 4: Conscientious – High “C” Style
• Marked by caution in taking action and making decisions
• Enjoys organization and structure
• Does not enjoy involvement
• Asks lots of questions about task and project details
• Thrives best in a work environment that’s task-oriented, objective, and intellectually stimulating
• Does not want to be wrong and, thus, may collect too much data and overanalyze
• Works slowly, precisely, and alone
• Demonstrates excellent problem-solving skills
 SAMPLES OF DISC
QUESTIONS
DiSC
Those in RED are Negative (opposite of Dominant)
Those in Green are Dominant