Ready To Pass NCLEX
Ready To Pass NCLEX
Ready To Pass NCLEX
Disclosure Statement
• Ready To Pass Inc. emphasizes the importance of consistent study habits to promote and improve your
chance of success.
• It is advised that you review all class content and answer all practice test questions. Allow 1 – 1.5 minutes.
per question
• It is recommended that you take the NCLEX® Exam within one (1) month of completing this review class.
• Students will be allowed to make up a maximum of two (2) missed class sessions during the next available
class, if space permits. There will be no refunds after the first day of class. A credit will be issued which is
valid for one (1) year from the date of registration.
• Although you will be provided with essential information to provide accurate and safe entry level care,
Ready To Pass, Inc. cannot guarantee that you will pass the NCLEX®. We will not be held liable for
unfavorable outcomes.
• If you have not successfully passed NCLEX®, you will be eligible to repeat the class once within six (6)
months of your original class date. In order to qualify for the $50 rate, you must provide proof of failure
prior to registration. You will be required to pay the registration fee of $50 and any other applicable fees
(optional new manual $75) 10 days prior to the start of the next class. If you have not taken the NCLEX®
after completing this review class, you are not eligible to repeat the class unless you pay the full
tuition amount.
• Ready To Pass Inc. prohibits taping of any class sessions. We reserve the right to inspect for any taping
equipment.
• Students attending the Review for the first time are entitled to a copy of our NCLEX® Review Study Guide.
Students who are repeating the class at the discounted rate may purchase the guide for $20 on site or
$24.95 online.
Signature:_________________________________
Date: ____/_____/______
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Methodology
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About NCLEX
The NCLEX® is designed to determine whether you meet the minimal standard to practice as a nurse.
NCLEX® is an integrated exam, which means the subjects are all mixed together.
The test follows the April 2016 NCLEX® RN/April 2017 LPN plan. Questions are drawn from four categories
including but not limited to the topics listed below. The following test plan structure is copyright of the
National Council of State Boards of Nursing, Inc. All Rights Reserved.
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• Abuse/Neglect • Psychopathology
• Behavioral Interventions • Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health
• Chemical & Other Dependencies • Sensory/Perceptual Alterations
• Coping Mechanisms • Situational Role Changes
• Crisis Intervention • Stress Management
• Cultural Diversity/Cultural Influences on • Substance Use Disorders
Health/Cultural Awareness • Support Systems
• End of Life Care and Concepts • Suicide/Violence Precautions
• Family Dynamics • Therapeutic Communications
• Grief and Loss • Therapeutic Environment
• Mental Health Concepts • Unexpected Body Image Changes
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ABOUT THE EXAM
• The test is computer based; you will be required to use a mouse to select the correct answer.
• There is an on screen calculator available to calculate medication dosages.
• Once a question is answered you will not be allowed to change it.
• NCLEX® is a computer adaptive test which means it adjusts based on the answers you provide
to previous questions. For example you will receive more difficult questions if you answer
correctly but easier questions if you do not. It is very important that you do not guess. It is better
to take more time to answer correctly than to choose answers randomly. At times, content
tested may be similar to a previously answered item, you should not assume that the first
item was answered incorrectly. The concepts may address different phases of the nursing
process. Always select the answer believed to be correct. Exams vary in length in order to
• Six hours are allotted for the RN exam to complete a minimum of 75 to a maximum of 265
questions. Of these items, 15 are pretest items that are not scored. The LPN exam allots
5 hours and has 85 to 205 questions. There are 25 pretest items on the NCLEX PN exam.
However you should stick to the rule of allowing 1 minute per question. The analysis level
questions may require more than one minute in order to synthesize all of the information given.
The length of an exam is not an indication of a pass or fail result. The computer will stop when
it has been determined with 95% certainty that the candidate’s ability is above or below the
passing standard or the candidate has run out of time. When you run out of time before reaching the
maximum amount of items, the computer has not been able to decide whether you passed or failed with 95% certainty and has
to use an alternate rule. If you have not answered the minimum amount of items, you fail.
• If you have at least answered the minimum amount of items, the computer reviews your last 60 ability estimates:
• If your last 60 ability estimates were above the passing standard, you pass.
• If your ability dropped below the passing standard, even once, during your last 60 items, you fail.
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ESSENTIAL TEST-TAKING
TECHNIQUES
Critical Thinking Is the Key
To Successfully Answering NCLEX® Questions!
Determine the relevance of the facts about the client. For example, the client may not be the person with the
3: health problem – it may be the spouse, a relative, or a member of the health care team.
7: Focus on the last line of the question, as invariably what the question is asking will be found there.
Look carefully for facts about the client, for example, age, gender, medical history, medications, psychological
8: status. These will provide clues as to what the question is really asking.
Do not answer questions based on your personal experiences. Critical thinking requires that you think purposefully
9: with outcome directed goals. Your thinking must be aimed at making judgments based on scientific evidence
rather than tradition or guessing. NCLEX® is based on textbook knowledge not individual varied experiences.
Questions on delegation should be answered with great care. Never delegate the assessment portion of the
10: nursing process or tasks that involve complex procedures.
Don’t be too hasty to choose “Notify the health care provider” as the answer. Is there some action, some part of
11: the nursing process that you can perform before calling the physician?
Read every word in the question and each of the answer choices, looking for key words. Key words in the
stem of the question will provide clues as to the type of response you are seeking. Please study the following
12: key words and look for these in the question stem. Then rephrase the question to find out what it is really
asking.
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Remember PAIN
PRIORITY/ FIRST: This indicates that you must determine the most essential response.
ANTICIPATE: or most appropriate, correct, expected, should, include, instruct, will reinforce. These all
indicate you are looking for a correct or expected response.
INTERVENE: or requires follow-up, needs or requires additional teaching, avoid, needs reinforcement,
ineffective, notify the health care provider, all indicate that you are looking for an incorrect or unexpected
response.
NEXT: may imply you are currently in one phase of the nursing process and must proceed to the next one.
Remember ADPIE (Assessment, Diagnosis, Plan, Intervention, Evaluation).
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SAMPLE QUESTION
The nurse is reviewing the lab results of several clients. It would be a priority for the nurse to suggest follow-up
for the client who has a:
The phrase “follow-up” indicates that you are looking for an incorrect response. Although three of the lab
values are abnormal and need follow up, which of the previous choices would take priority? Knowledge of
normal lab values will help you to select the most appropriate response.
Note: The correct answer is (b). High ammonia levels will lead to hepatic encepholapathy and brain
damage. This client would take priority.
SAMPLE QUESTION
The nurse is teaching a client about crutch walking. Which of the following statements, if made by the client,
indicates an understanding of teaching?
The phrase “understanding of teaching” indicates you are looking for a correct statement, that is, one choice
is true, while the other three are incorrect. Knowledge of ambulation with crutches will allow you to select
the correct or true statement. Eliminate all the false or incorrect choices first!
Note: (c) is true, and the other three are false. Therefore, (c) is correct.
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ESSENTIAL
TOOLS
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TOOL # 2
ERIKSON’S THEORY OF DEVELOPMENT
Erikson believed that 8 major conflicts must be encountered during a lifetime, and that there are 8
developmental stages, each with a task that is to be achieved, that characterize a person’s struggle with
each of these conflicts. Either a person successfully resolves the crisis and masters the task at hand, or
does not.
On the NCLEX exam, questions giving a person’s age suggest that the corresponding developmental stage
should be considered in order to select the correct response.
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TOOL # 3
THE NURSING PROCESS This process consists of the following, in this order:
TOOL #4 TOOL # 8
REMEMBER THE ABC’s THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION:
A. Remember to establish a patent airway 1. Remember to utilize therapeutic
for your client. communication: choose the response that
B. Be sure your client is breathing. allows the client to express his needs,
C. Check to see if your client has good fears or concerns.
circulation.
2. BUT, mental health questions may be handled
Do not wait until there is a crisis to assess differently. For example, if an RN suspects
for ABC’s!! suicide is an issue for her/his client, then direct
questioning is required (e.g., “Do you feel like
you want to hurt yourself?”)
TOOL #5 3. In mental health cases, reality orientation may
also be called for.
EXPECTED / UNEXPECTED
1. Determine what the stem of the question
is asking.
2. If 3 of the 4 choices given are correct, or TOOL # 9
are expected findings, then you should
OREM’S THEORY OF NURSING
choose the unexpected finding.
The nurse must be concerned with the
3. If 3 of the 4 choices given are incorrect, or
are unexpected findings, then you should following
choose the expected finding. UNIVERSAL HEALTH CARE NEEDS:
*Distinguish between chronic conditions 1. AIR: oxygen, airway, temperature.
vs acute conditions! 2. WATER: dehydration, fluid volume excess.
3. FOOD: malnutrition, feeding concerns.
TOOL #6 4. ELIMINATION: proper evacuation of bladder
and bowel.
TIME
The client most recently admitted is not 5. REST: sleep, comfort and freedom from
always seen first! pain (not always a low priority).
6. SOCIALIZATION: the right balance of
solitude and social interaction must be
TOOL # 7 struck.
7. HAZARDS: safety must be provided for.
REMEMBER SAFETY:
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TOOL # 10
DISASTER NURSING / TRIAGE:
In the event of a disaster, the nurse may be required to discharge clients to make room for incoming victims:
- first discharge clients that are ambulatory who need minimal care.
- clients requiring assistance are next. Arrangements should be made for continuity of care at home or extended
care facility.
- DO NOT discharge clients who are unstable or require nursing care unless they are in imminent danger.
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ESSENTIAL
FACTS
WORDS OF WISDOM..........
A wise person would not attempt a job without tools and the proper
equipment.
Why should you?
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TYPES OF LEADERS:
Laissez-faire: Offers little if any guidance.
Autocratic / Authoritarian: Strict. Makes all of the decisions. Uses punishment and coercion.
Democratic: Consults with staff. Promotes participation and majority rule.
PROFESSIONAL ISSUES:
• Chain of command
• Delegation to UAP’s
• Taking verbal orders
• Effective communication - use SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation)
• Documentation - should be done upon completion of care
1. The RN should never delegate the assessment portion of the nursing process.
2. The RN or LPN should never delegate the teaching or evaluation phase of patient care.
3. The RN is ultimately responsible for all tasks delegated to UAP’s.
4. Be aware of the competence and job description of those to whom you delegate.
5. Communicate effectively.
6. The nurse must be sure to follow up on all tasks that were delegated.
7. If criticism is necessary, provide privacy.
8. Document unsafe practices and procedures.
9. Manage your time effectively.
RIGHTS OF DELEGATION
TASK CAN YOU DELEGATE THIS TASK?
CIRCUMSTANCE HOW COMPLEX IS THE PATIENT? WHAT IS THE
SKILL LEVEL OF THE STAFF MEMBER?
PERSON IS THIS PERSON COMPETENT?
COMMUNICATION DID YOU GIVE CLEAR DIRECTIONS?
SUPERVISION/ FEEDBACK DID YOU MONITOR, EVALUATE, AND PROVIDE
FEEDBACK?
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LEGAL CONSIDERATIONS:
The nurse client relationship is a legal status that occurs whenever a nurse renders care to another person.
Once this relationship occurs, the law automatically imposes certain legal responsibilities upon the nurse.
The nurse should never carry out a provider’s prescription which directs her/him to commit an act which they
know, or should know is unlawful.
TERMS TO KNOW:
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2. INCIDENT REPORTING:
Reports unusual occurrences and deviation from care standards. Facilities use the document to evaluate
care, determine potential risks or discover system problems that might have contributed to the error.
5. EMANCIPATED MINOR:
A child is freed from parental custody and can become an “adult” in many ways. When a minor marries or
joins the armed forces (with parental consent and permission from the courts), she/he becomes
emancipated from her/his parents.
7. ORGAN DONATION:
• Health care provider determines if organ is suitable before approaching family.
• Organs should be removed within one hour of the client’s death.
• Each hospital has its own protocol regarding organ donation.
• Donor must be kept on life support until the organs are removed.
• Next-of-kin/closest living relative makes decisions when client cannot.
8. UTILIZATION REVIEW:
Determines effectiveness of services in a health care facility, which is related to clients’ length of stay. The
process compares requests for medical services to treatment guidelines that are deemed appropriate for such
services.
9. AUDIT REVIEW:
Review of charts along with direct assesment to determine causes of hospital acquired infections or deviations
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HINDUISM • Priest ties thread around neck or wrist of deceased and pours
water in the mouth
Autopsy: Permitted • Only family and friends touch the body
• Value silence
• Touching is unacceptable with the opposite sex
ASIAN AMERICANS • Head is considered sacred-do not touch the head
Autopsy: Permitted • Believe in yin (dark, cold) & yang (bright, hot); do not mix hot and
cold
• They prefer warm—considered good for wellness
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• Thorazine (chlorpromazine)
• Retin A (retinoic acid)
• Bactrim (trimethoprim)
• Griseofulvin (grifulvin)
• Exopthalmus (bulging eyes)
• Saint John’s Wort
• Lupus
• Duragesic Patch (fentanyl) - fold and flush to dispose
• Cipro (ciprofloxacin)
• Viagra (sildenafil citrate)
• Glucotrol (glipizide)
• Pacerone (amiodarone): discolors the skin blue-gray
• Benadryl (dipenhydramine)
• Tetracycline: do not give to pregnant women or children under eight as it stains the teeth
• Don Quai: treats menstrual cramps, menses, as muscle relaxant; blood purifier, manages
HTN (avoid with bleeding & clotting disorders)
• Diuretics (Loops & thiazides)
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MEDICATION CALCULATIONS
REMEMBER:
Microdrip = 60 gtts/ml Standard IV Set = 15 gtts/ml Blood Administration = 10 gtts/ml
Volume Weight
1 tsp 5 ml 1 mg 1,000 mcg
1 cup 240 ml 1 gr 60 mg
1 tbsp 15 ml
1gm 1,000 mg = 1ml
1 pint 473 ml
1 oz. 30 ml 1 kg 2.2 Ibs
1 quart 946 ml 1L 1 kg = 1,000 ml
15 –16 gtts 15-16 minims = 1 ml
Sample Question: If a child weighs 35 lbs., how much do they weigh in kg?
Answer: 2.2 lbs = 35 lbs 2.2 x = 35 x = 15.9 kg
1 kg x kg
SAMPLE QUESTION
ANSWER:
Convert 286 lbs to kg 286 ÷ 2.2 = 130kg
Multiply 130kg X 4mg = 520mg
Use formula D X V 520 X 50 = 260ml/dose
H 100
Body Mass Index (BMI): Measures body fat based on height and weight.
Body Surface Area (BSA): The surface area of the body expressed in square meters.
4. A nurse is preparing to give oxycodone hydrochloride 0.03 gm po every 8hr. The amount
available is 15mg/tab. How many tab(s) should the nurse administer per dose? ______tabs
5. A nurse is teaching a client on correct use of Azithromycin. The prescription reads, give one
dose 500 mg orally. The drug available is 250 mg / tab. How many tablets should be given?
_____tab(s)
8. A client’s total 24 hour intake should not exceed 3000 mL. The peripheral IV is running at 75
mL/hr. The client is also receiving Cefazolin 500 mg IVPB in 50 mL D5W q6h and Azithromyin
500 mg in 200 ml D5W IVPB daily. How much PO fluid may the client have? _______mL
9. Sarah drinks 3 cups of water, 180 ml of broth, 1 cup of pureed chicken, and 6 oz of tea. Her
total oral intake is _________ml
10. A nurse is to administer Keppra (levitiracetam) po. The maximum dose is 1.5 gm per day
to be given in 3 equally divided doses every 8 hours. The amount available is 500mg/tab.
How many tab(s) should the nurse administer? ______tab(s)
11. A nurse is preparing to administer Theophylline 160 mg PO q6h. The medication available is
Theophylline 80 mg / 15 ml. How many mL/dose? _______mL
12. A prescription is written to infuse 300 ml Dextrose IV over 10 hours. The drop Factor is
10 gtt/ml The nurse would be correct to set the flow rate to _____ gtt / min. Round to a whole
number
13. A prescription of 200 ml RL to infuse at 100 ml / hour is ordered. The drop factor is10 gtt / ml.
The flow rate should be calculated at ______ gtt / min. Round to a whole number
14. The nurse is preparing a prescription of Regular Insulin 10 units/hr IV. The bag available
contains Insulin 25 Units in 100ml NS. How many ml/hr will the client receive? _______ml
URINALYSIS
Normal Color Yellow - Straw Child
Specific Gravity 1.005 - 1.030 1.000-1.030
pH 5.0 - 8.0
CHEMISTRY: ADULT
Sodium 135 - 145 mmol/L
Chloride 95 - 110 mmol/L
Glucose 60 - 120 mg/dL
Potassium 3.5 - 5.5 mEq/L
BUN 8.0 - 25 mg/dL Increased in dehydration and renal dysfunction
Creatinine 0.6 - 1.5 mg/dL
Carbon Dioxide 22 - 34 mmol/dL
Calcium 9.31 - 10.9 mg/dL
Amylase 53 - 123 U/L Increased in pancreatitis
Lipase 7.0 - 60 U/L Increased in pancreatitis
Magnesium 1.3 - 2.1 mg/dL
Ammonia 35 - 65 mg/dL
Uric Acid 3.5 - 7.8 mg/dL
Albumin 3.1 - 5.0 g/dL Decreased with kidney & liver disorders & decreased protein
Alkaline Phosphatase 4.5 - 13 K-A-U/dL
ALT 5 - 35 IU/L
AST 0 - 35 IU/L
Bilirubin Totals 0.1 - 1.0 mg/dL (Adult Normal) 1.2 mg/dL (Adult Critical)
1.0 - 12 mg/dL (Newborn Normal) 15 mg/dL (Newborn Critical)
**Requires treatment usually phototherapy**
HgbA1c 4% - 6% Levels > 8% indicate poor diabetic control with need for education
regarding adherence to regimen or changes in therapy**
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CHEMISTRY: CHILD
Glucose 40 - 125 mg/dL
Calcium 8.0 - 10 mg/dL
Billirubin 0.2 - 1.4 mg/dL
Platelets 150,000 - 450,000/μL
BLOOD CULTURE
• 2 bottles collected (anaerobic / aerobic) blood drawn from 2 seperate sites; must be venipuncture
• Do not draw from IV lines
• Clean skin
• Collect sample before starting antibiotics
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Compensation occurs when the body’s processes counterbalance to bring the pH within normal limits!
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COAGULATION PROFILE:
PT 10 - 14 seconds
aPTT 30 - 40 seconds
PTT 25 - 35 seconds
INR The therapeutic range is 2-3 only when the client is on anticoagulant therapy.
The PT/PTT range should be 1.5 times - 2.5 times the control when on medication.
MEDICATION THERAPEUTIC LEVELS:
Acetaminophen 10 - 20 mg/L Use with caution with liver disease. Maximum Dose 3 gm/day
Toxicity S/S: N/V, blurred vision, drowsiness, slurred speech, arrthymias, renal
toxicity
(phenytoin) Toxicity S/S: rapid eye movements, slurred speech, coordination problems
Theophylline 10 – 20 mcg /mL Side effects include tachycardia and palpitations.
Toxicity S/S: N/V/D, anorexia, blurred vision, halos around the light
Vital Signs
Vital signs must be assessed:
1. on admission
2. as per M.D. order
3. with any change of health status
4. with chest pain or any abnormal sensation
5. before and after administration of preoperative medications; after surgery or invasive
diagnostic procedures
6. before and after administration of blood and blood products or medications that affect
cardiovascular or respiratory function
7. before and after any nursing intervention that affects the cardiovascular or respiratory
system
Vital signs include temperature (T), heart rate (HR), respiratory rate (RR), blood pressure (BP),
and pain assessment, SaO2 is done as indicated.
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REMEMBER!!!
Subjective Data:
What the client tells you; history of current illness, pain, aggravating / relieving factors.
Objective Data:
Things that can be assessed by the examiner: name, age, gender, vital signs, diet, activity level,
medications (prescribed or illicit), alcohol intake, cigarettes smoked.
PAIN ASSESSMENT
4. Assess PQRST:
P: What provokes the pain?
Q: What is the quality of the pain? (e.g., sharp, dull, stabbing).
R: Does the pain radiate? (does it move around)
S: What is the severity of the pain?
(e.g., scale from 1 -10, associated signs & symptoms, such as diaphoresis,
tachycardia, SOB)
T: What was the time of onset (constant, intermittent?)
5. Nursing implications:
Pain Relief:
• Reposition patient
• Rest and relaxation techniques
• Analgesics as per health care provider prescription
• Offer reassurance: allow client to express fears and concerns
• Distraction techniques: deep breathing, imagery, massage, eliminate stimuli, music
therapy, biofeedback (non pharmacological comfort measures)
*Rember to notify the Health Care Provider if there are significant changes in clinical findings i.e. fever,
change in B/P, limb pain or swelling.
TIP *Emphasize prioritization of care on systemic client concerns i.e. sepsis vs. localized concerns.
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NEUROLOGICAL ASSESSMENT
1. The Glascow Coma Scale is use to measure a client’s baseline data in three areas:
Eye opening
Motor response
Verbal response
Frontal lobe
Voluntary muscle movements, motor areas for control of speech, controls personality, behavioral functions,
intellectual functions i.e. memory, judgment and problem solving, autonomic functions and cardiac and
emotional responses. Damage to the frontal lobe could lead to Broca’s aphasia (expressive aphasia).
Temporal lobe
Controls taste, hearing, smell
and the interpretation of spoken
language.
Parietal lobe
Coordinates and interprets sensory
Information from the opposite side
of the body.
Occipital lobe
Interprets visual stimuli.
Temporal arteritis: inflammation and damage to the blood vessels that supply the head area.
Signs and Symptoms: headache, thrombosis, excessive sweating, fever, malaise, jaw pain with chewing
and muscle aches.
RX: Corticosteroids
LEFT-BRAIN / RIGHT-BRAIN
When cells in a part of the brain loose their blood supply, a corresponding side of the body is affected.
Remember!
Damage to one side of the brain will exhibit deficits on the opposite side (contralateral) of the body.
IV. TROCHLEAR Eye movements inward, downward Note any eye deviation
Trigeminal Neuralgia
This disease causes a specific type of facial pain • 5th cranial nerve
which occurs in sudden, intense, paroxysmal • frequent eye care
episodes. Affect is unilateral and confined to • good oral hygiene
the area innervated by the trigeminal nerve • frequent dental visits
(5th cranial nerve). • avoid hot & cold liquids
• wear glasses outdoors to protect
Priority nursing diagnosis: Pain eye from dust & particles
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LUNG ASSESSMENT
Inspection – Respiratory rate, rhythm, symmetrical rise and fall of chest wall, respiratory effort, use
of accessory muscles, nasal flaring, sternal/substernal retractions, obvious injury or contusion, rash or
erythema.
Percussion – Dullness (indicates possible hemothorax, pneumonia or effusion), tympany (air filled as in
pneumothorax), resonance (normal lung sounds), hyperresonance (indicates possible pneumothorax, or
emphysema)
Auscultation – assesses for normal lung sounds----should be clear and even, mostly vesicular, louder
on inspiration. Start at the top of lung field (apex), work down towards base of lungs; alternating from left
to right, anterior to posterior.
Crackles (rales): heard on inspiration in the lower bases, it cannot be relieved by coughing.
Ronchi: Coarse, gurgling sound. Heard on expiration over trachea and bronchi, it can be relieved by
coughing.
Wheezes: High pitched squeaky sound. Heard throughout lung fields usually
on expiration. Cannot be relieved by coughing.
Stridor: high pitched sound heard on inhalation and exhalation. Indicates narrowing of upper airway or
obstruction. ***THIS SOUND REQUIRES IMMEDIATE INTERVENTION***
ABDOMINAL ASSESSMENT
Inspection: Skin, distention, presence of scars, obesity, herniations.
Auscultatation: Bowel sounds hyper: every 3 sec., Normal: every 15- 20 sec., hypo: every minute.
Percussion: Dullness: over solid organs - liver Tympany: over air filled organs, bowels
Resonance: over lungs Flatness: over muscle or bone
NOTE 1:
Always work from area of least pain towards area of most pain.
A pulsatile abdominal mass may indicate an ABDOMINAL AORTIC ANURESYM.
NOTE 2:
Board like abdomen indicates bleeding into abdomen - i.e. placenta abruption or placenta previa, peritonitis.
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EXTREMITY ASSESSMENT
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Dorsiflex the foot for presence of calf pain, note presence of pain, venous
SKIN ASSESSMENT
Stage III: Full thickness crater involving damage &/or necrosis down to, but not penetrating the fascia
Stage IV: Full thickness crater, similar to stage III, but penetrating the fascia,
with involvement of muscle, bone, tendon, joint
Negative pressure wound dressing – removes fluid from the area and helps wounds to heal faster by
pulling the edges together and allows filling from the bottom up with granulation tissue. Foam is applied
to the wound. A wound drain is attached and covered with a trasparent dressing. The pump is attached to
the wound drain. Once the pump is turned on, it causes a vacuum effect which provides a seal to promote
healing. (50 - 200 mm Hg as prescribed).
Surgical wounds are changed daily. Chronic wounds are changed three times per week.
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Subcutaneous injections:
average size client 45°
obese client 90° angle 41
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Type II (NIDDM) - Most common in obese adults older than 40 years of age. There is a partial
decrease of insulin production and or cell resistance to insulin.
Insulin is required for transport of glucose across cell membrane. Decreased insulin results in
hyperglycemia.
Random glucose > 200 + S/S or Fasting glucose > 126 x 2 = DM
Gestational DM GTT > 135
Hyperglycemic
Clinical Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Hypoglycemia Hyperosmolar Nonketonic
Manifestations (DKA)
Coma (HHNK)
Type I Type I Type II
Too much insulin or too little Absence or deficiency of Uncontrolled DM or oral
Cause
food insulin hypoglycemic drugs
Onset Rapid (within minutes) Slow (about 8 hours) Slow (hours to days)
Appearance Symptoms of fainting Appears ill Appears ill
Rapid and deep Rapid and deep
Respirations Normal Shortness of breath Shortness of breath
Kussmaul Absence of Kussmaul
Breath odor Normal Fruity due to acetone Normal
Pulse Tachycardia Tachycardia Tachycardia
Blood Pressure No Effect Decreased Blood Pressure Decreased Blood Pressure
Anorexia
Hunger Hunger Hunger
Metabolic Acidosis
Increased
Thirst None Increased
Dehydration
Vomiting Nausea, vomiting rare Likely Likely
Eyes Staring, Double Vision Appear sunken Visual loss
Headache Common Occasionally Occasionally
Pallor
Hot Hot
Skin Perspiration
Dry Dry
Chilling sensation
Twitching common
Muscle action Twitching absent Twitching absent
Unsteady gait
Pain in abdomen None Common Common
Confusion Malaise
Confused
Erratic Drowsy
Mental status Dull
Change in mood Confusion
Coma
Unable to concentrate Coma
Administer glucose Administer IV fluids and or Administer IV fluids and or
Treatment
PO, IV, sub q, IM insulin insulin
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Insulin Chart
TimeCourse Agent Onset Peak Duration Indications
Rapid-acting Lispro (Humalog) 10-15 min 1h 3h Used for rapid
Aspart (Novolog) 10-15 min 40-50 min 4-6h reduction of
Apidra (insulin glulisine) 5 -15 min 1-2h 3-5h glucose level, to
treat postprandial
hyperglycemia and
**DO NOT MIX to prevent nocturnal
hypoglycemia
Short acting Regular ½ -1h 2-3h 4-6h Usually administered
Humalog R before a meal. May
Novolin R be taken alone or
Iletin II Regular in combination with
longer acting insulin.
Intermediate- NPH (neutral protamine Hagedorn) 2-4h 6-12h 16-20h Usually taken after
acting Humulin N 3-4h 6-12h 16-20h food
Iletin II Lente
Iletin II NPH
Novolin L (Lente)
Novolin N (NPH)
Long acting Ultralente (“UL”) 6-8h 12-16h 20-30h Used primarily to
control glucose level
Very long acting Lantus (glargine) 1h Continuous 24h Used for basal dose
**DO NOT MIX Levimir (insulin detimir) (no peak) QD at bedtime
*Discard open refrigerated vials of Insulin after 28 days. *Insulin detemir lasts 42 days
Somogyi phenomenon:
Manifests as glucose peaks and valleys. Caused by increased insulin resulting in hypoglycemia; usually
occurs at night. Symptoms: • nightmares • sweating
• headache • ketonuria
Treatment: check blood glucose 1–2 times/ night, adjustment of insulin dosage & time, & or a bedtime snack.
Dawn phenomenon: Hyperglycemia in the morning, usually between 2:00 am and 8:00 am.
Treatment: Increase insulin and avoid a bedtime snack.
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THE AGENTS
Hold for 24 hours before and 48 hours after contrast dye
Glucophage (metformin) May cause lactic acidosis
Contraindicated with kidney disease
Glucotrol (glipizide) Give 30 minutes before meals; teach avoid sunlight
Take with meals, contraindicated in pregnancy.
Diabeta (glyburide)
Side Effects: photosensitivity, aplastic anemia.
Take with meals.
Amaryl (glimepiride) Side Effects: dizziness or weakness, blurred vision, headache, nausea and
vomiting, dark urine
Avandia (rosiglitazone)
Monitor liver enzymes; contraindicated with CHF & MI
Actos (pioglitazone)
Starlix (nateglinide)
May cause cough, SOB, seizures
Prandin (repaglinide)
Precose (acarbose) Abdominal pain, diarrhea, increased LFT’s
Onglyza (saxagliptin) URI, UTI, headache, pancreatitis, abdominal pain, drowsiness, weakness.
Januvia (sitagliptin) Administered once a day
Injectable – to treat type II DM; helps the pancreas to produce insulin more
efficiently. Administer 2 times daily 60 minutes before meals- it must be taken
Byetta (exenatide) on an empty stomach.
Side Effects: pancreatitis, hypoglycemia, renal impairment, nausea, vomiting,
diarrhea
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Standard Precautions–are used for the care of all clients – to prevent direct contact with all body fluids.
Standard precautions routinely practiced by health care providers include:
Wash Hands and Don Gloves: When in contact with all body fluids.
Be sure to wash hands after removing gloves.
Don Gowns: To protect skin and clothing during procedures that may involve splashing.
TRANSMISSION BASED PRECAUTION PROCEDURES
Airborne Precautions Droplet Precautions Contact Precautions
Surgical mask within 3 feet of the
N-95 Particulate Respirator Mask Gloves and gown
patient
Negative pressure
Private room Private room Private room
Keep door closed
Patient wears surgical mask during Patient wears surgical mask during Remove gloves and gown before
transport transport leaving room
Limit transport Limit transport
WHICH DISEASES / WHICH PRECAUTIONS???
AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS DROPLET PRECAUTIONS CONTACT PRECAUTIONS
Used for clients with suspected or Used for clients with suspected or
Used for clients with suspected or
confirmed infections transmitted confirmed infections transmitted by
confirmed infections transmitted
by airborne droplets with nuclei < by large particle droplets. direct or indirect contact.
5 microns. • Meningitis • Clostridium Difficile
• Measles (Rubeola) • Bacterial Pneumonia (PNA) • Herpes Simplex Virus
• Varicella (Chicken Pox) • Epiglottitis • Klebsiella Pneumonia
• Tuberculosis • Pertussis • RSV for 24 hrs• MRSA
• SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory • Mumps • Ebola • VRE
Syndrome) • Rubella (German Measles) • RSV
• Smallpox • HIB • Rotavirus
• H1N1 • Ebola (Haemophilus influenza type B)
• Herpes Zoster (shingles)
• Herpes Zoster (shingles) - • Group A Strep (Scarlet & • Infected pressure ulcers
Disseminated disease in any Rheumatic fever) • Major skin wound/burn infection
patient. Localized disease in • Diptheria (Pharyngeal) • SARS
immunocompromised • Adeno Virus • Fifth’s Disease • Vaccinia (cow pox)
Skin Infections:
NOTE* Infection control should be notified every time a patient • Impetigo (Group A strep)
• Pediculosis
with a communicable disease is seen and not admitted. • Scabies
• Varicella
*Also, Do not cohort post-op patients with anyone • Diptheria (cutaneous)
experiencing nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, open wounds, Viral Hemorrhagic Infections:
chest drainage or infections. • Ebola
• Viral conjunctivitis
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MORE ABOUT INFECTION CONTROL....
A. STANDARD PRECAUTIONS:
USED FOR ALL CLIENTS regardless of diagnosis
when in contact with blood, body fluid, secretions,
excretion, non intact skin and mucous membranes.
Hand washing and personal protective equipment
are essential.
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3. Surgical Asepsis Sterile technique, free from all pathogens and their spores
Handling Hazardous Wastes: nurses should be familiar with the material safety data
sheet (MSDS) for the facility. It contains data on each substance in the facility that is
considered hazardous. It includes information on safe handling of spills, first aid
interventions, and protective equipment for the management of hazards.
Read labels: use all materials solely for their intended purpose; always use required PPE;
contact biohazard department when appropriate.
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BURNS
A burn is damage to the body’s tissues caused by heat, chemicals, electricity, sunlight or radiation. It results
in a hyper metabolic state causing protein and lipid breakdown which affects wound healing. The client’s
caloric intake will need to be increased 1 1⁄2 to 2 times the BMR (basal metabolic rate), with 1.5 – 2 gm/kg
of body weight of protein daily. High metabolic rates increase the rate of infection.
DEPTH OF BURNS
• Superficial – cause slight epidermal damage resulting in redness and pain.
• Deep partial thickness – cause necrosis of epidermal and dermal layers.
• Full thickness – necrosis through all the skin layers with destruction of nerve fibers.
• Eschar (hard-leather like tissue) develops. These patients do not feel pain.
TYPES OF BURNS
• Thermal – hot objects, frostbite (rewarm area as rapidly as possible)
• Electrical – electrical current
• Chemical – acid, alkaline liquids
• Radiation – sunburn, external radiation beams
BURN ASSESSMENT
Rule of the Palm: This method uses the patient’s hand size to estimate the percent of BSA of
small burns (15% or less). The surface area of the patient’s palm equals approximately 1%.
Rule of Nines: This method divides the TBSA into segments that are multiples of 9%.
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GOALS OF CARE FOR A BURN PATIENT *No pain relief until V/S are stable
• Maintain nutritional status – high calorie, high protein diet, TPN; calorie count, I&O
• Prevent other complications – Curling’s Ulcer – stress ulcer associated with severe burns
Treatment: H2 Blockers (Pepcid - famotidine) and or PPI’s (proton pump inhibitors - Prevacid -
lansoprazole)
• Restore function as much as possible – Rehab (occupational therapy, physical therapy, and
speech therapy)- interdisciplinary approach
*** Burns from the waist up, airway is the priority; from the waist down, fluid and electrolyte
management is the priority. ***
MEDICATIONS
• Morphine Sulfate to control pain; NSAID’s sometimes used
• Silvadene (silver sulfadiazene)
• Sulfamylon (mafenide acetate) no dressing with this med
• Silver Nitrate - keratolytic agent (breaks down keratin) May cause hypokalemia, hyponatremia,
hypochloremia
• Garamycin (gentamicin sulfate) oto, neuro and nephrotoxic – monitor BUN & Creatinine
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PHYSIOLOGICAL
INTEGRITY
TIP: When prioritizing patient care remember to select life saving measures over preserving a limb!
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PHYSIOLOGICAL INTEGRITY
I. Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
A. PREVENTION
Primary prevention: Prevents disease i.e. immunizations, protective devices - car seats, helmets,
needle exchange programs.
Secondary prevention: Early detection, screening & diagnostic tests i.e. self breast exam,
mammogram, colonoscopy, testicular self exam
Tertiary prevention: Palliative care, rehab, comfort, hospice
B. SCREENING TESTS
Angiography (cerebral, pulmonary, renal, coronary)
• X-ray of the blood vessels using contrast dye
• assess for allergy to iodine, shellfish or dye; assess kidney function; hold metformin
• increase fluids after test
Bronchoscopy
• visualization of the bronchus
• before exam – provide oral hygiene, postural drainage, NPO for 6 to 8 hours
• after exam – check for gag reflex, ice collar for swelling, observe for subcutaneous emphysema
(Crepitus): indicates air leakage/ perforation; frequent swallowing indicates bleeding.
X- ray
• no metals or jewelry
• instruct client to keep still
• assess females for pregnancy
Fasting Glucose Level
• >126 two times used to diagnose DM (Diabetes Mellitus)
• should be <70; > 135 = Gestational Diabetes
Intra-venous pyelogram (IVP)
• dye injected to assess for blockage in kidneys, ureters, and bladder
• NPO 4 - 8 hours before test
• after test increase fluids
Bladder Scan
• ultrasound to assess condition of the bladder and for presence of residual urine
• painless; 1 - 2 minutes in length
24 Hour Urine Collection
• 1st urine should be discarded
• refrigerate specimen / place on ice
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Amniocentesis
• assess fetal heart tone during and after the test (normal 120 -160). 20 - 30 mL removed
• can indicate gender, congenital abnormalities, neural tube defects, gestational age
• Rh factor, L/S ratio for lung maturity - should be 2:1 ratio
Thoracentesis
• removal of fluid or air from pleural space
• needle inserted on exhalation
• place client in orthopenic position to perform procedure
• if patient can not sit on their own, place on unaffected side
• after test assess for respiratory distress–shock, pallor, diaphoresis
• maximum fluid withdrawal 2 - 3 L
Paracentesis
• before procedure client must void first
• check weight
• check abdominal girth BID
• increase HOB 45 – 60 degrees to allow fluid to pool; position supine with HOB slightly elevated-
for withdrawal
• post – monitor I&0, abdominal girth; priority follow up – blood in urine
• maximum fluid withdrawal 4–5 L
Barium enema
• before procedure give enemas/laxatives until colon is clear of stool
• clear liquid diet the night before the procedure
• NPO 8 hours before the test
• after the procedure administer fluids, laxatives or suppositories to expel barium
• Teach: expect constipation & clay colored stools
C. NUTRITION
• Foods high in Sodium (Na+): celery, processed foods, condiments, canned foods, smoked
meats, tomato juice, pickles, butter.
Increase salty snacks in clients with Burns, Lithium therapy, Addison’s disease, and
Cystic Fibrosis (BLAC)
• Foods high in calcium (Ca+): dairy products, green leafy vegetables, kale, broccoli, fish (canned
with bones- sardines), white beans, oranges, raisins, nuts, sesame seeds. Take with Vitamin
D to increase absorption (sunlight, cod liver oil, eggs, milk, fatty fish - salmon, sardines, tuna,
oatmeal, mushrooms).
• Foods high in potassium (K+): apricots, melons, citrus fruits, potato, spinach, raisins (dried
fruits), raw vegetables, nuts, bananas, grains, kiwi, figs, avocado, pumpkin, peas, cranberries
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Foods high in Iron: green leafy vegetables, organ meats, tofu, poultry and fish
Take with Vitamin C to increase absorption
Lacto-ovo + + -
Lacto-vegetarian + - -
Ovo-vegan - + -
Pesco-vegetarian + - Only Fish
Partial/semi vegetarian
+ + Avoid selected meats
*Vegans- eliminate all animal products & dairy
Nutrition
Normal Values
CHO: 4 kcal/gm Protein: 4 kcal/gm Fat: 9 kcal/gm
Example: The client had a 24 hour dietary intake of 200 gm CHO, 100 gm protein and
50 gm of fat.
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Diet Modifications
Progression • Clear liquid – full liquid – soft – regular
Bland Diet • Helps to heal gastric mucosa
• Decrease spices
Low Residue • Used after bowel surgery, prior to bowel exam, for internal radiation
• Avoid nuts, seeds (strawberries), milk, foods high fiber (grains)
• Crohn’s disease
Tube Feedings
• Place the client in the semi fowlers position
• Measure from the tip of the nose, to the tip of the earlobe to the zyphoid process
• Assess for placement every four hours: withdraw fluid to check pH - 4 or less indicates gastric contents.
Values greater than 6 indicates intestinal contents (fluid must be replaced). Insertion of air while listening
for air over the stomach is not a reliable method to assess placement.
• Residuals greater than 150 ml should be reported
• X-ray **most definitive** method to determine placement
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• Ulcers are distal to the loss of blood supply • Affects medial and lateral aspect of the malleolus
Metabolic Syndrome X - a group of risk factors that increase the risk for heart disease and other health
problems such as diabetes and stroke. People with metabolic syndrome are twice as likely to develop heart
disease and five times as likely to develop Diabetes Mellitus.
• Increased B/P 135/85 or higher
• Increased fat around the waist (over 35 inches female, over 40 inches male)
• Increased glucose level
• High triglyceride level
• Decreased HDL or Increased LDL
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Treatment:
• Vasodilators
• Analgesics
• Anticoagulants
• Anticholesterol Agents
• Smoking cessation
• Keep extremities warm
• Trental (pentoxifylline) decreases viscosity of blood - used to improve blood flow in clients with
circulatory problems to reduce aching, cramping & tiredness in the hands and feet
Side Effects: drowsiness, dizziness, headache.Take with meals.
2. Raynaud’s disease:
Arterial spasms of the fingers commonly in females between teen years and age 40
Tasks that involve repetitive finger movements increase the risks. (butcher, pianist, typist)
4. Aneurysm:
Sac formed by dilation of an artery. Males 50 - 70 are at highest risk
Dx: X-ray, aortagraphy, sonography Treatment: surgery or beta blockers if the aneurysm is small
Venous Disorders - elevate extremities
1. Thrombophlebitis: Inflammation of the vessel wall with formation of a clot.
Treatment- anticoagulant therapy, warm packs, surgery
2. Varicose veins:
Dilated veins.
Risk factors: obesity, pregnancy, heart disease, thrombophlebitis, excessive sitting or standing.
Treatment- vein ligation or sclerotherapy
Post-op care: elastic bandages – remove every 8 hours for short periods; Coumadin (warfarin)
decrease foods high in vitamin K (green vegetables, organ meat) while on this medication
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E. Hypertension: “ The silent Killer ”
Risk factors:
• Age
• Race (African Americans at highest risk)
• Family history
• Diabetes mellitus
• Cigarette smoking/ ETOH
• ↑ cholesterol
Primary hypertension: no known cause
Secondary hypertension: caused by another
condition i.e pheochromoytoma (hypersecretion
of the adrenal medulla)
Categories of Blood Pressure
Symptoms: Normal Less than 120/80
• Early morning headaches Pre-hypertension 120-139/80 - 89
• Nosebleeds
Stage 1 hypertension 140-159/ 90-99
• Fatigue
Stage 2 hypertension 160 & above/100
• SOB on exertion
Stage 3 hypertension 180/110
Recommended Life Style Changes: Treatment:
• Avoid smoking and alcohol • Beta Blockers
• Decrease sodium • Calcium Channel Blockers
• ACE inhibitors
• Increase exercise
• Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers
• Reduce stress • Diuretics
• Alpha Blockers
• Vasodilators
• Lipid Lowering Agents
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Answer Key
1, 0.12 - 0. 2 seconds or 3-5 boxes
2. less than 0.12 seconds or 3 boxes
3. less than 0.42 seconds or 10-11 boxes
4. 0.04 seconds
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A. Diagnostic Tests
CK- MB:
• Rises 2-5 hours after an MI
• Peaks in 24 hours
• Troponin rises in 3-12 hours and may be elevated for 2 weeks (best indicator of an MI)
Cardiac Catheterization:
• NPO 6 to 8 hours prior to test
• Assess for allergy to latex, dye, shellfish or iodine
• Post procedure: monitor for bleeding (hematoma), decreased pulses (check the 6P’s)
• Keep leg extended 4 to 6 hours after test
Muga Scan :
• Ejection fraction study
• Radioactive tags injected
• Camera takes pictures of tagged RBC’s
• Avoid with pregnancy
Holter Monitor:
• Painless 24hr EKG
• Teach: do not get wet
• Keep a diary of activities
ANGINA
Inadequate oxygenation to the heart causing pain
(relieved with rest and or nitroglycerin sublingual 1 tab
every 5 minutes for 3 doses)
PULMONARY EDEMA
Fluid within the lungs-signs include: restlessness,
tachypnea, dyspnea, crackles
Treatment: Oxygen, diuretics, narcotics, vasodilators
PERICARDITIS
Inflammation of the pericardium usually following an infection. May accompany HIV, Rheumatic Fever, TB.
May also be caused by MI or radiation therapy to the chest. Common in men 20 to 50 years old.
Signs and Symptoms: chest pain, sharp stabbing back pain, fever, chills, pericardial friction rub, distant muffled
heart sounds, crackles.
DX: chest x-ray, echocardiogram, CT scan, heart MRI Labs: troponin, ANA, C-reactive protein, ESR, TB screen,
rheumatoid factor
Treatment: NSAID’s, colchicine, antibiotics, steroids, diuretics, pericardiocentesis
CARDIAC TAMPONADE
Compression of the heart caused by blood or fluid accumulation in the space between the myocardium and the
pericardium. May be caused by pericarditis.
Signs and Symptoms: shortness of breath, feeling faint or light headed, anxiety, coughing related to pressure
on the trachea, distended neck veins, distant muffled heart sounds, pericardial friction rub
Treatment – pericardiocentesis
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D. Related pharmacology
Antiarrhythmics:
Used for the prevention and treatment of cardiac arrythmias. The major goal is to restore NSR
Cardizem (diltiazem): Tx. of HTN, angina, tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, PVC’s
Side effects: peripheral edema, blurred vision, hypotension, palpitations, hyperglycemia
Adenocard (adenosine): Tx. of supraventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia
Side effects: shortness of breath, hypotension, palpitations, dizziness
Sclerodoma: affects connective tissue throughout the body. Symptoms include: tight skin, dysphagia,
edema of the extremities, joint contractures and brittle nails.
Teach client to sit up after eating. Treatment is supportive (tertiary).
Lyme disease:
• Caused by the bite of a deer tick, common in MA, CT, NJ & RI
• The first sign is erythema
• Skin lesions start 2 - 30 days after the bite
• Begins as a bump (macule or papule), then the lesion expands with a
ribbed border and a clear center (bull’s eye rash - erythema migrans)
• Lab tests include: complete blood count (CBC), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)- normal,
cerebrospinal fluid test (CSF), and Lyme serology
• Treatment - Vibramycin (doxycycline) or Amoxil (amoxicillin) if diagnosed early - within 3 days of
the bite; Long term treatment – Rocephin (ceftriaxone) - side effect is a furry tongue
D. Diagnostic tests
F. Latex allergy: clients with a latex allergy should avoid: kiwi, chestnut, pineapple, strawberries,
grapes, papaya, peaches, tomato, avocado, rye, wheat, melon, hazelnut, plums, cherry, banana,
figs, potato
Hospital products include: blood pressure cuff, tourniquets, cardiac catherization tubing, catheters
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B. Disorders
Sickle Cell Anemia:
Priorities in sickle cell crisis include oxygenation, hydration and pain relief (Morphine).
Patients should avoid high altitudes. Client is at risk for priapism (prolonged erection of the penis).
Teach to drink 4-6 Liters/day , 8-10 Liters in crisis.
Pernicious Anemia:
Lack of intrinsic factor, VIT B12 injections IM monthly for life.
Diagnosed using the Schilling Test
S/P gastrectomy clients also require vitamin B12 replacement.
• Aplastic Anemia: malfunctioning bone marrow
• Hypochromic Anemia: iron or vitamin deficiency
• Hemolytic Anemia: excessive RBC destruction
• Clotting Disorders: Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura, Hemophilia, DIC (Disseminated
Intravascular Coagulation): implement bleeding precautions
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Implement with:
• Anticoagulants
• Liver disease
• Decreased platelets
• Thrombolytics
• Bleeding disorders
Thalassemia:
• Goal is to maintain normal hgb level, bone marrow transplant may be necessary
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Post procedure
• Vital signs monitored until stable
• NPO until gag reflex returns
• Semi-fowlers position
• Monitor respiratory status/ bronchospasms
• Difficulty breathing – notify MD
• Crepitus: SQ Emphysema (bubbling under the skin): indicates perforation of bronchus
• Monitor patient for bleeding: frequent swallowing = bleeding
• Teach to expect blood streaks but not copious amounts of blood
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Pulmonary Angiography
• Diagram of pulmonary tree
• Informed consent
• Check allergy to dye/shellfish
• NPO 8 hours prior
• Teach not to cough during test
• Emergency equipment at bedside
Post procedure
• Vital signs
• Do not do B/P on the extremity used
• Monitor neurovascular status (6 P’s)
• Increase fluids
• Assess for edema at injection site
• Check insertion site for bleeding and hematoma
Post procedure
• Vital signs
• Monitor respiratory status
• Apply pressure dressing to puncture site
• Check for bleeding at insertion site
• Check for crepitus
• Assess for signs of pneumothorax, air embolism, respiratory distress
Lung Biopsy- analyzes tissue; cytologic exam i.e. cancer/ sarcoidosis
• Identifies pulmonary lesions– TB, pleural effusion
• Informed consent
• NPO
Post procedure
• Vital signs
• Pressure dressing
• Monitor drainage/blood
• Signs of respiratory distress, pneumothorax, air embolus
• Chest X-ray
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ABG
• Determine acid/base balance
• Prior to ABG check Allen test - arteries are occluded to test blood supply to the hand. If test
is positive (delayed blood return to the hand) arterial puncture should not be attempted.
• Avoid suctioning prior to doing ABG – after drawing ABG place on ice
• Pressure to puncture site 5 -10 minutes (artery), longer if on anticoagulant therapy
Pulse oximetry
• 95% - 100% normal: lead placed on finger, toe, forehead, or earlobe
• Inaccurate reading could be due to poor perfusion – nail polish, temperature, hypothermia:
warm up the extremity
Oxygen Therapy
• Given as supplement when blood O2 is decreased
• Requires a prescription–considered medication
• 2L without HCP prescription as immediate intervention
• Can be harmful too much can cause blindness – baby
• Delivered via nasal cannula, mask, or tent. (Mask delivers higher concentation of O2 than
cannula)
Complication:
• Knocks out respiratory drive in patient with COPD (NEVER GIVE HIGH FLOW O2)
• Prevent drying of mucous membranes; drying can cause bleeding: use a humidifier
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SUCTIONING
May be necessary for removing secretions, clients with an ineffective cough reflex, or signs of
hypoxia. Limit suctioning to less than 15 seconds to avoid hypoxia. Suction pressure should be set
to 80 -120mm Hg.
• Oropharyngeal: aseptic technique is acceptable. A Yankauer catheter is usually used. Use
surgical asepsis for all other suctioning.
• Nasopharygeal: a flexible catheter is used, the size is selected based on the size of the client’s
nares and the viscosity of secretions.
• Endotracheal: performed through a tracheostomy or endotracheal tube.
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If open wound – sucking sound heard from chest; mediastinal shift towards unaffected side
Chest Tube Returns negative pressure to the lung space (pleural), removes
fluid/air, promotes re-expansion of the lung.
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D. Disorders
Related pharmacology
• Atrovent (ipratropium bromide), Spiriva (titropium inhaled)
• Ventolin (albuterol) – short acting; rescue inhaler
• Serevent (salmeterol) long acting. Teach–take BID
• Symbicort (budesonide/formoterol) (long acting B2/corticosteroid), not used with acute episodes
• Steroids: oral, inhaled, IV – Deltasone (prednisone), Beclovent (beclomethasone), Solumedrol
(methylprednisolone)
Side effects: poor wound healing (Cushing’s Syndrome),decreased immune response, increase fluid
retention, hyperglycemia, mood swings, weight gain, oral thrush
• Antibiotics (prophylactic)
TIP: When selecting answers, choose the client with an acute condition over chronic!
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Pneumonia
• Inflammation/ infection of lung
Causes: • Aspiration • Mycoplasma • Fungal
• Bacterial • Viral • Protozoan infections
Bacterial pneumonia requires isolation until 24 hours after starting
antibiotics – viral does not need isolation
Common organisms: Staphylococcus aureus, staphylococcus pneumoniae, HIV – PCP.
Signs & Symptoms: • Fever • Tachypnea
• Chills • Night sweats
• Dyspnea • Increased WBC’s
• Pleural pain • Diaphoresis
• Productive cough (with rust colored, blood tinged or greenish sputum)
Diagnosis: • Chest X-ray • CBC
• ABG • Pulse oximetry
• Sputum culture (before starting antibiotics)
Treatment: • Antibiotics as prescribed • O2 as prescribed
• Chest PT • Increase fluids
• Antipyretic
Legionnaire’s Disease: spread through contaminated water
Risk factors: COPD & immunosuppression
Treatment: Erythromycin, Tetracycline, Quinolones, Zithromax (azithromycin) or Rifampin
Asthma
• Chronic inflammatory disease with bronchoconstriction
• Mucosal edema with increased mucous production
Signs & Symptoms: • Tachycardia • Apprehension/restlessness
• Tachypnea • Wheezing and night time cough
Diagnosis: • History and physical • ABG
• Pulmonary function tests • Allergy testing
Nursing intervention/ teaching:
• Avoid known triggers • Bronchodilators
• High fowler’s position • Increase fluid intake, eliminate milk
• NOAH – Nebulizer, Oxygen, Antibiotic, Hydrocortisone
• Prophalytic medication: Albuterol (B2 agonist
that opens airway) should be kept with them at all
times for rescue.
• Monitor peak flow: measures how well air moves out of lungs
• Teach zone management:
Green: PEF is 80 -100% of normal – asthma is well controlled
Yellow: PEF is 50 - 80% of personal best – asthma is flaring up
Red: PEF is < 50% of personal best – asthma is severe; emergency care needed
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Medications
• Beclovent (beclomethasone) - steroid inhalers – rinse mouth after use can cause oral thrush;
Flovent (flucitasone)
Flonase (flucitasone propionate) – used in allergic rhinitis; Azmacort (triamcinolone)
• Prednisone (p.o.) Solumedrol (methylprednisolone) (IV)
• Advair – (flucitasone/salmeterol) long acting B2/corticosteroid – do not use during exacerbation
• Symbicort –(budesonide/formoterol) – not used with acute episodes
• Brethine (terbutaline)– also used in labor (premature contractions)
• Intal (cromlyn Na+) – long acting – prevents histamine release from the mast cells
• Singular (montelukast) – daily, usually at night
• Accolate (zafirlukast) – 20 mg BID; Take on an empty stomach
Pulmonary Embolism
• Thrombus – stationary • Life threatening
• Embolus - mobile • Result of thrombophlebitis/ DVT
Signs & Symptoms: • Dyspnea • Anxious
• Pleuritic chest pain • Cough
• Tachycardia • Restlessness
• Tachypnea • Hemoptysis
Risks • Prolonged bedrest • Pregnancy
• Surgery • Obesity
• Long plane rides • CHF
Diagnosis: • Chest X-ray
• VQ scan: looks at lungs when breathing in (measures if lungs are
being perfused)
• CBC (thrombocytosis), blood test for D-dimer – if negative, it rules
out the diagnosis
• PT & PTT
• EKG
• ABG
• Assess for Homan’s sign
Nursing Intervention: • Bedrest
• O2
• Fowler’s position
• Heparin or Coumadin (warfarin)
• Thrombolitic drugs (streptokinase)
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TB (Tuberculosis)
• Mycobacterium - acid fast bacillus
• Spread by droplet nuclei
• Lodges high in lungs (highly O2 concentrated)
Pleural Effusion
• Accumulation of fluid in pleural space • Dry nonproductive cough
• Pain on inspiration - pleuritic chest pain • Mediastinal shift away from fluid
• Dyspnea on exertion
Sleep Apnea
• Characterized by episodic upper airway obstruction that occurs at night
Risks: • Obesity • Sleeping pills
• ETOH • Men affected more than women
Signs & Symptoms: • Loud snoring
• Daytime drowsiness with delayed reaction time
Diagnosis: • Sleep Study
Treatment: • CPAP (continuous positive airway pressure)
• Dental appliances
• Anatomical surgery
• Weight loss may be helpful
• Children – tonsillectomy
Complication: • Cor Pulmonale
Bronchodilators
1. Adrenergic Bronchodilators: relaxes and opens the airway
A. Epinephrine: fast onset within 5 minutes lasts up to 4 hours given sub q. in an emergency. Drug may
be repeated 20 minutes after initial dose.
Epi pen: autoinjection system can be administered by self-injection into the middle aspect of the thigh.
Common causes of anaphylaxis include: foods (peanuts, eggs, milk, wheat, shellfish), medications
(penicillin, sulfa drugs, anesthetics), and insect stings.
Dosage 0.3mg or Epipen Jr. 0.15mg.
C. Proventil,Ventolin (albuterol): given via MDI or nebulizer. Teach client use as rescue medication in
acute bronchospasm. Use with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease and MAO inhibitors.
S.E. tachycardia, palpitations, headache
D. Serevent (salmeterol): long acting, given daily BID even if not symptomatic, do not use in acute
bronchospasm - onset 5 -20 minutes
E. Brethine (terbutaline): long acting agent
S/E. nervousness, tremors, also used to inhibit premature uterine contractions (pre-term labor)
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2. Xanthine Bronchodilators
A. Theophylline: prevention and treatment of bronchospasm.
• Aminophylline - I.V.
• Theo-Dur (theophylline) P.O.
Side effects: nausea, vomiting, tremors, insomnia, tachycardia, palpitations, nervousness
Teach: take on empty stomach, increase fluid intake (unless contraindicated), and do not crush or
chew. Avoid caffeine – may increase side effects
Nursing: Monitor ABG’s (acid base balance) and fluid and electrolyte balance
* Not indicated for the initial treatment of acute episodes of bronchospasm
3. Leukotriene Inhibitors
• Singular (montelukast sodium): give at night
• Accolate (zafrilucast) : BID
Client Assessment
1. Vital signs, note respiratory rate, depth, and character, skin, color, s/s of hypoxia (restlessness is an
early sign, also called thrashing), ABG, auscultate lungs noting adventitious breath sounds.
2. Assess precipitating and relieving factors of bronchospasm, note frequency and severity of attacks,
what is patient’s baseline respiratory status between attacks.
3. Assess for respiratory distress (nasal flaring, use of accessory muscles, tripoding), hypoxia, cough,
sputum, exercise intolerance, medications, drug therapy.
B. Nursing Interventions
1. Accurate administration of medication – 10 rights (see page 121).
2. Observe for therapeutic effects (relief of symptoms).
3. Observe for adverse effects
• Cardiac: arrhythmias, palpitations, tachycardia,
• CNS: agitation, insomnia, headache, restlessness, seizures, tremors
• GI: anorexia, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting
• Respiratory: cough
4. Encourage oral intake of fluids (unless contraindicated).
5. Encourage deep breathing and coughing, postural drainage, chest PT (as ordered).
6. Teach client to avoid known triggers of bronchospasm.
7. Teach importance of smoking cessation and avoidance of caffeine.
8. Use caution while driving or operating machinery until effects of medication is known.
**Do not give beta blockers to asthmatics ie. Inderal (propanolol), Corgard (nadolol).
Beta Blockers cause hypotension and bradycardia which increases oxygen consumption.
ASA, NSAID’s, and Ace Inhibitors should also be avoided with asthma.
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Peripheral lines: device used to access veins, the tip is distal to a central vein.
• Peripheral venous access device used for an adult - 18, 20 or 22 gauge.
• Midline - best for clients with limited peripheral veins that need an extended period of access (2-4
weeks).
• Midclavicular catheters - can be used 2 to 3 months, best suited for administering IV fluids and IV
medication short-term.
Central Venous Access Devices- placed by MD into jugular or subclavian vein above the heart.
• Implanted port (Port-A-Cath)
• PICC- peripherally insered central catheter - Do not take B/P or draw blood on the limb with the line.
• May be used for IVF & blood, TPN, monitoring CVP, administering medications & chemotherapy,
obtaining blood samples, hemodialysis or for long term use when peripheral veins are inaccessible.
Complications
• Infiltration - fluid infusion outside of the vein Treatment: warm or cold compresses, elevate the limb.
• Phlebitis - inflammation of the vein Treatment: warm, moist compresses, antibiotics, eliminate cause.
• Extravasation - infiltration of a vesicant drug (i.e chemotherapy agents, antibiotics, electrolytes,
antiemetics or vasopressors) - can lead to necrosis, disfigurement and loss of function.
Treatment: stop the infusion, use syringe to aspirate remaining drug in the line, inject antidote into
s.c. tissue if appropriatee, remove the catheter (as ordered), notify MD, elevate arm, ice or warm
compress (most require ice for 20 minutes 4 - 6 times per day for 24 - 48 hours).
• Air embolism - air entry into line. Position client on the left side in trendelenburg position. Give O2. 80
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Wilson’s Disease - is a rear inherited disorder that causes too much copper to accumulate in the
liver, brain and other vital organs.
S/S: fatigue, jaundice, easy bruising, edema of the legs, ascites, problems with speech, swallowing or
physical coordination
Treatment: Chelating agents - Penicillamine - side effects: bone marrow suppression - monitor CBC
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A. Pathophysiology of pain
Most pain caused by damage to nerves or tissue. Nerve signal travels up the spinal cord to
the brain.
C. Assessment of pain
• assess the P.Q.R.S.T of pain (provoke, quality, radiation, severity, time)
• perception and cultural influence
• anxiety level
D. Pharmacological approaches
• Nonnarcotic analgesics used for mild to moderate pain, temperature reduction and treat-
ment of inflammatory disorders
1. Salicylates:
• Aspirin
• Dolobid (diflunisal)
Side effects: GI bleeding – take with food or milk.
Toxicity: tinnitus, hyperventilation, vomiting, double vision
2. Acetaminophen
• Tylenol - may be administered p.o., IV or suppository. Maximum daily dose 3000 mg
• • • Antidote• • Mucomyst (acetylcysteine)
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• Narcotic analgesics: used for moderate to severe pain (acute or chronic) and sedation
• Roxanol (morphine) • Demerol (meperidine) • Dilaudid (hydromorphone)
• Duragesic (fentanyl) - dispose of patches by folding sticky edges together then
flush them down the toilet. • Dolophine (methadone)
Side effect: CNS depression
• Antidote: Naloxone
• Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA): allows the patient to control their own narcotic
analgesic.
Drug of choice: Morphine
• Goal is to achieve more steady state of analgesia compared to prn medications.
• Nursing Management:
• Monitor patient’s level of consciousness, vital signs and pain level frequently.
• Peripheral Nerve Catheter: is used to relieve pain at the site of surgery. Catheter is placed
under the skin near the nerves to cause numbness at the surgical site. It provides
continuous local anesthesia. It could last for up to 3 days after the procedure.
• TENS (transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation): battery operated unit that sends a
mild electrical current along the skin, blocking pain sensation
Nursing: • Do not place electrodes over incision site, broken skin, or eyes
• Contraindicated in client with a pacemaker
• Provide skin care daily—wash skin with soap and water daily, air dry
• Exercise
A. Physiology of cancer
• Cancer occurs when cells become abnormal and grow without control
20 - 40 Every 3 years
Breast Physical Exam Female
Over 40 Yearly
35 - 40 One baseline mammogram
Mammogram Female
40 - 50 Every 1-2 years
Stool guaiac slide test Male & Female Over 50 Yearly
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E. Diet/nutritional considerations
ANTI CANCER DIET HIGH ANTIOXIDANTS
Diet
• Low fat • Berries
Some evidence suggests that the development • Apricots
• High fiber
of colorectal cancer may be associated with a • Prunes
• Whole grains
diet that is high in fat and calories. • Cereals
• Raw fruits
• High calcium • Vegetables
• Nuts
• Raw vegetables
F. Common types • Seeds
• Clove
LEUKEMIA • Oregano
• ALL (Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia) • Cinnamon
• Most common form of childhood cancer
• Results in anemia (decreased RBC’s)
• Increased risk of infection (increased immature
WBC’s)
• Increased risk for bleeding (decreased platelets)
Risk Factors:
Smoking, viruses, chemicals, radiation
Signs/Symptoms:
Fever, bruise easily, generalized weakness, bone pain
Treatment :
Chemotherapy, radiation therapy
HODGKIN’S DISEASE
Malignant neoplasm of lymphoid with a proliferation of
lymphocytes
Cause: unknown – prevalent in adolescents (males)
Risk Factors:
Epstein Barr virus, HIV, chemicals, radiation
* There is no link for Hodgkins to smoking, ETOH, diet or exercise
Major symptom: enlarged nodes in lower cervical region; fever, pruritis, night sweats
Diagnosis: presence of Reed Sternberg cells in the blood
WILM’S TUMOR
Malignant tumor of the Kidney; occurs in childhood and older white men
Signs/ symptoms: blood in urine, parent reports presence of abdominal mass
Teach: Never palpate mass- palpation may cause rupture
Treatment: nephrectomy; chemotherapy and radiation
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BREAST CANCER
Risk factors:
• Family history • Early menarche
• ETOH use • Advanced age
• Nulliparity • Late menopause
• Obesity
• Personal history of breast cancer
• Use of estrogen & progesterone
• First child late in life
• High socioeconomic status
Treatment:
• Chemotherapy and Radiation
• Surgery
• Tamoxifen may be prescribed for 5 - 10 years
(avoid Coumadin - (warfarin) may increase effect.
Monitor PT/INR. Separate antacids by 2 hours)
• Megace (megestrol) - treats breast and endometrial cancer
(also used to prevent loss of appetite and severe weight loss with AIDS patients)
LUNG CANCER
Primary risk factors:
• Cigarette smoking
• Exposure to asbestos or other carcinogens
Signs & Symptoms:
• Chronic cough
• SOB
• Hemoptysis
• Weight loss
Diagnosis: Biopsy, sputum cytology, PET scan
Treatment:
• Chemotherapy, radiation, surgery
BLADDER CANCER
Risk factors:
• Smoking
• Diet (high fat, fried meats)
• Exposure to rubber
• Gender (older white males)
• Living in urban areas
Signs/Symptoms:
• Low back pain
• Dysuria
• Polyuria
• Hematuria
Treatment:
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COLON CANCER
Common in 50 - 60 year olds
Risk Factors
• Risk increases with age • Race - african american • Inflammatory bowel disease
• Smoking • ETOH • Low fiber, high fat diet • Diabetes • Obesity
Signs & Symptoms:
• Bowel changes, abdominal pain • Weight loss
• Pallor • Assess stool for occult blood
Diagnosis: barium enema, colonoscopy - done under conscious sedation; place in left lateral position
during procedure.
Treatment: chemotherapy, radiation, surgery
SKIN CANCER
The most common form of cancer in the U.S.
Risk Factors:
• Sun exposure • Fair skin
• Heredity • Age over 50
Teach:
• Change in color, size, itching
• Suspicious skin or Nevi (mole) changes need further evaluation
• Avoid the sun and tanning salons
• Mole assessment: Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution
Treatment: chemotherapy, radiation, surgery
MULTIPLE MYELOMA
• Malignant overgrowth of plasma cells and malignant tumor growth in bone
• Interferes with RBC, WBC, and platelet production
• Common in older men
Subjective: • bone pain • low back pain • progressive weakness
Objective:
• anemia, platelet deficiency, weight loss, cachexia, idiopathic bone fractures
• positive Bence Jones protein in blood & urine
• precipitation of protein, calcium, and uric acid in the urine
Nursing Diagnoses: Pain, risk for injury
Implementation:
• Pain control
• Increase fluids to prevent renal damage
• High nutrient dense foods (boost, nutriment)
• Immune stimulant nutrients (selenium, vitamin A, C, E, protein)
Treatment: chemotherapy, radiation, steriods, stem cell transplantation
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G. Therapeutic techniques:
• Bone marrow transplant: restores the bone marrow’s ability to produce healthy cells; major risk of infection
• Surgery
• Internal radiation: also referred to as brachy therapy
Females: • Flex and extend legs to promote circulation • Absolute bed rest
• Deep breathing and coughing exercises • Head of bed 15 degrees
• Low residue diet (decrease bowel movements) • Elastic stockings
• Catheter (keep bladder empty) • Avoid pericare
• Report nausea, vomiting, elevated temperature • Report profuse discharge
• Opioids, muscle relaxants, sedatives may be used • Keep items in easy reach
Males: • If being treated for prostate CA, 80 - 100 seeds are implanted
• Client returns home after procedure
• Avoid contact with pregnant women and infants for 2 months
• Strain urine for seeds
• Instruct on condom use with sexual intercourse for 2 weeks after implantation to
catch seeds that may pass through urethra
• External radiation: High energy beams to affected area; also referred to as tele therapy
• Avoid pressure, trauma or infection to site
• Wash affected area with plain water and pat dry
• Teach to avoid exposure to heat, cold & sunlight
• Chemotherapy: Drugs used to kill cancer cells, normal cells may be damaged
• Side effects in every body system
• Nadir: lowest point
• Pancytopenia: occurs 8 -14 days after starting chemotherapy
• Mucositis- ulceration of the mouth- secondary to chemotherapy. Rinse mouth with water, salt,
baking soda or peroxide.
• If IV infiltrates, the treatment may be to administer an antidote
Tumor lysis syndrome:
Complication of cancer treatment, metabolic disturbances caused by the breakdown products of dying cancer cells
Results in • Hyperkalemia
• Hyperphosphatemia,
• Increased uric acid in blood and urine,
• Hypocalcemia – leads to acute uric acid nephropathy and acute renal failure
• Treatment: Allopurinol, IV fluids, monitor electrolytes
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B. Disorders
1. Pituitary Gland Disorders
Anterior Pituitary
a. Growth hormone excess: • Acromegaly (adult) • Gigantism (child)
Diagnosis: • ↑ serum HCG • Xray • CT scan • MRI
Treatment: • Hypophysectomy: monitor ICP & CSF drainage
• Complication: increased ICP, Bleeding, meningitis
• Patient will need glucocorticoid replacement for life
Posterior Pituitary
c. Anti Diuretic Hormone (ADH): secreted by posterior pituitary
• SIADH: ADH Excess
(Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone)
Signs/ Symptoms: • Headache • Fatigue • Hyponatremia
• Decreased urine output
• Increased specific gravity
RX: Hypertonic solution D5NS, diuretics, Demeclocycline - antibiotic used to increase water in the urine
surgery
d. Diabetes Insipidus (DI - ADH Deficit)
Signs/ Symptoms: • Polydipsia • Polyuria • Decreased specific gravity
RX: Replace ADH: • Vasopressin (petressin) • Desmopressin (DDAVP) - intranasally
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HYPOTHYROIDISM HYPERTHYROIDISM
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a. Hyperparathyroidism
• Von Recklinghausen’s Disease: hypersecretion of the parathyroid gland
• Hypercalcemia
Signs/ Symptoms: • GI disturbance • Constipation • Bone pain • Renal stones • Joint pain
Rx: Observation, IV Fluids or surgery
b. Hypoparathyroidism:
• Hyposecretion of the parathyroid gland • Hypocalcemia
4. Adrenal disorders
a. Pheochromocytoma tumor of adrenal medulla (inner portion) causes hypersecretion
• Severe hypertension
• Headache
• Hyperglycemia
• Hyperhydrosis
• Hypermetabolism
Treatment: • Regitime (phentolamine) at bedside for blood pressure management
• Nipride (nitroprusside)
• Surgical removal of tumor or gland
• Avoid caffeine
• Promote rest
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RELATED PHARMACOLOGY
Steroids: used to suppress inflammation
Adverse effects: Insufficiency (Addison’s)
Excess (Cushing’s)
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Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate response based on information related to
common Endocrine Disorders:
ACTH excess_________________________________
Hypothyroidism in an infant______________________
Treatment for hypothyroidism_____________________
ADH Excess___________________________________
ACTH Deficit___________________________________
Hypersecretion of the adrenal medulla__________________
Constipation, cold, bradycardia_______________________
Increased TSH, decreased T3, T4______________________
Hunger, confusion, perspiration _______________________
Hyposecretion of the pancreas___________________________
5 H’s ______________, ______________, _________________, _______________________,
_________________
Decreased sodium, weight loss, increased potassium, bronze skin color ___________________
Test for diabetic control over a 4 - 6 week period. 4% - 6% indicates good control
__________________________________________________________
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1. Radiological exams
2. Barium enema: • Give a laxative or enema post procedure
• Expect clay colored stool for up to 72 hours
3. Endoscopic studies: NPO 6 - 8 hours before the procedure
NPO until gag reflex returns
4. Sigmoidoscopy: administer an enema before the procedure
5. ERCP (Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)
• Fluroscopy & X• ray used to diagnose problems in the liver,
gallbladder, bile ducts, and pancreas
• NPO 6-8 hours pre procedure, check for allergies to iodine &
shellfish; multiple position changes required during procedure
Post procedure: monitor for CNS depression - sedation given
D. Disorders
1. Hiatal hernia: client may complain of dysphagia and heartburn
Nursing Interventions: small frequent meals, antacids, elevate the
HOB. Remain in upright position for 2 hours after meals
2. Stomatitis: inflammation of the mouth
3. Gastritis: inflammation of the stomach
4. GERD: gastroesophageal reflux disease
Rx: PPI’s (proton pump inhibitors), H2 antagonists
Teach: avoid ETOH, tomatoes, coffee, spicy or fatty foods, carbonated beverages, chocolate, peppermint
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7. Regional enteritis (Crohn’s Disease): affects the ileum and right side/ascending colon
• 3 - 4 semi- soft stools per day
• Disorder is common in 20 - 60 year olds, both sexes
Teach: • Diet: high calorie, high protein, high CHO, high vitamin, milk free, low fat
Possible treatment for ulcerative colitis and regional enteritis :
• TPN
• Colostomy (partial or total)
• Ileostomy
• Oral or rectal medications: • Antiinflammatory drugs: Humira (adalimumab), Asacol, Pentasa
(mesalamine) or Remicaide (infliximab)
• Steroids: Prednisone
• Immune suppressors: 6 mercaptopurine
• Antibiotics: Ampicillin, cephalosporins and or Flagyl (metronidazole)
• Antidiarrheals: Immodium (loperamide), Codeine
8. Hepatitis:
Hepatitis A: transmitted by fecal/ oral route - good hand washing is imperative. Contact precautions if diapered
or incontinent.
Hepatitis B: transmitted via blood/body fluids
• First immunization at birth (check for yeast allergy before administering)
TX: acute Hepatitis B - no treatment, manage symptoms; chronic - antivirals or peg-interferon
Hepatitis C: transmitted by IV drug use/ blood transfusions, multiple sex partners - flu like symptoms; can lead
to cirrhosis and liver cancer. Chronic infection leads to need for transplant.
TX: Interferon (boosts the immune system) and Reebetrol (ribavarin) -antiviral medication
Hepatitis D and Hepatitis G: Follows Hepatitis B
Hepatitis E: transmitted by fecally contaminated water in under developed areas
Risk factors: IVDA, hemodialysis, transfusions, health care workers, mutiple sex partners, tatoos and body
piercings
Teach: Use of condoms, do not share needles, do not donate blood, avoid Tylenol (acetaminophen)
10. Cirrhosis: (scarring of the liver) Caused by many forms of liver disease.
• Laënnec’s: Caused by alcoholism
• Can lead to Portal hypertension (high blood pressure in the portal vein)
Nursing Interventions:
• Observe for asterixis (flapping hand tremors associated with hepatic encephalopathy)
• Administer Lactulose as prescribed - may cause hyperglycemia and diarrhea
•*Increase vitamin B1(thiamine) in the diet - give daily
• Encourage rest
• Restrict fluids
• Daily weights
• Monitor intake and output
• Diet: High calorie, low sodium, low fat, low protein diet (helps to control ammonia level)
• Monitor for bleeding
• TX for portal HTN = Betablockers & Nitrates
11. Appendicitis: Positive Mc Burney’s sign/ RLQ rebound tenderness Rx: Surgery
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15. Ostomy: surgical opening made through the abdomen with a portion of the ileum or colon brought though
the opening to allow temporary or permanent excretion of wastes
Indications: bowel obstruction, cancer, inflammatory bowel disease, abdominal trauma
Post op: assess stoma, it should be red – pink, with edema immediately post op
Enterostomal therapist: nurse with specialized training in ostomy care
Ileostomy Colostomy
Small bowel, Liquid stool; No control Large bowel
Brooke: conventional ileostomy Semi- formed to formed stool
Kock pouch: continent ileal reservoir ↓’s problem Client may gain control by diet and irrigation
of skin care; risk for peritonitis
Irrigation: irrigate 1 hour after meals, same time everyday, to enhance effectiveness have client change
position, ambulate, massage abdomen lightly, drink warm fluids.
16. Pancreatitis: Causes severe upper abdominal pain that may radiate to the back with N/V & fever.
Treatment: Pain relief: Demerol (meperidine), NPO in acute phase, NGT for decompression
Teach: Avoid ETOH. Diet: small meals, no dairy or coffee, decrease redmeat; increase vitamin B, iron, berries;
6 -8 glasses of water per day.
17. Cholecystitis: Inflammation of the gallbladder: Risk Factors: (5 F’s) Fair, Fat, Female, Forty, Fertile.
Caused by obstruction of bilary ducts by gallstones
Signs and Symptoms: • Pain in the right upper quadrant
• Increased pain with a deep breath in (Murphy’s Sign)
• Nausea • vomiting • abdominal distention • fat intolerance
Treatment: • Low fat diet
• Cholecystectomy (T- tube may be placed)
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A. Terminology
Azotemia: increased BUN and Creatinine, suggests renal impairment -asymtomatic
Uremia: full blown signs and symptoms of renal failure, decreased calcium, increased potassium
B. Pathophysiology
E. Disorders
5. Chronic glomerulonephritis:
• Increased potassium • Increased phosphorus • Decreased calcium
• Metabolic acidosis • Hypertension • Increased BUN
• Increased creatinine • Nocturia • Increased magnesium
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10. Cancer of the bladder: common in smokers, living in urban areas – exposure to nitrates, dye, and rubber
Treatment: surgery – cystectomy & ileal conduit placement
11. Cancer of the kidney: in children commonly - Wilm’s Tumor, 50-70 year olds
Prevention: • Bladder exercises (kegels) • Avoid caffeine & ETOH • Bladder training
Medications: • Detrol (tolterdine) - for treatment of over active bladder & urge incontinence
Side effects: dry mouth, headache, dizziness, constipation
• Ditropan (oxybutynin chloride) - used for over active bladder
Side effects: constipation, dry mouth, headache, blurred vision, dizziness
• Bethanecol (urecholine) stimulates the bladder to empty
Side effects: stomach upset, vomiting, dizziness, sweating or flushing; take on an
empty stomach
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14. Chronic renal failure: Most common causes are hypertesion and diabetes mellitus
• Stage I: Normal BUN and creatinine, asymptomatic
• Stage II: Increasing BUN and creatinine, polyuria, nocturia, polydipsia
• Stage III: Azotemia, hypertension, oliguria, metabolic acidosis, nausea, headaches
anemia, edema
• Stage IV: Uremia, uremic frost, electrolyte imbalances (hyperkalemia, hypernatremia,
hyperphosphatemia, hypermagnesemia, hypocalcemia)
Treatment: Diet
• Moderate protein • High carbohydrate • Restrict-sodium • Increase calcium
• Low potassium, magnesium, phosphate
• Fluid restriction - Intake = output + 500 ml’s
Medications: Epoetin (epogen), Kayexalate (sodium polystyrene sulfonate), Amphogel (aluminum
hydroxide), antihypertensives, diuretics, iron supplements, calcium carbonate, vitamin D
F. Therapeutic regimen
1. Dialysis:
Hemo - Restrict the limb; hold antihypertensives and anticoagulants before dialysis (3 - 4 times per
week up to 4 hours each session). Monitor for cramping which occurs if fluid is removed too quickly.
Peritoneal – Dwell time 4-6 hrs, 3-4 times/day. Risks: peritonitis (cloudy diasylate), leakage.
Bloody diasylate = Infection. Protein may be lost in diasylate
2. Port - a -cath - used for hemodialysis or hematology/oncology patients - small appliance installed
beneath the skin. Catheter connects the port to a vein.
3. Ileal Conduit - urinary diversion created after bladder removal. Ureters are attached to the ileum, stoma
brought to the abdomen and collection bag attached.
4. Lithotripsy – use of shock waves to disintegrate stones - side effects: internal bleeding, pain, infection
3. Comparison of female cancers risk factors for cervical, ovarian and uterine cancer
Cervical Cancer Uterine Cancer Ovarian Cancer
Early: • No symptoms *Frequent urination, Difficult or • Vague Gl disturbance
• Irregular bleeding painful urinating • Pelvic pressure
• Metrorrhagia
• Irregular bleeding • Bloating
(bleeding between periods)
• Pelvic pain or pressure • Increased abdominal girth
Late: Watery discharge after intercourse
Advanced: • Leg pain • Vaginal discharge • Leg pain
• Dysuria • Pelvic pain
• Rectal bleeding
Diagnosis Diagnosis Diagnosis
• Biopsy • CA 125 blood test • Biopsy
• Pap smear • Median age 61 • 55-59 year olds, peak age 80
Risks Risks Risks
• Multiple sex partners • Obesity • Obesity • History of DM • Nulliparity
• Sex under age 20 • Multiparas (increased estriol level) • Infertility
• Oral Contraceptives • Family hx • Estrogen without • Increased fat in the diet
• Early childbearing
progesterone • Talc in perineum
•*Smoking
• Trunkal obesity • Breast Cancer
• Low socioeconomic status
• HPV • Breast cancer- Tamoxifen use • Obesity
• HIV infection • Gallbladder disease • Estrogen without progesterone
• Nutritional deficiencies • Nulliparity • Infertility • Family history of breast cancer,
(folate,beta carotene, Vitamin C) • Late menopause after age 52 ovarian cancer or Colorectal cancer
• Internal radiation: Absolute bed rest head of bed elevated15 degrees
• Deep breathing and coughing exercises: • Flex and extend legs to promote circulation • Elastic stockings
• Low residue diet (decrease bowel movements) • Report profuse discharge
• Indwelling catheter (keep urinary bladder empty) • Avoid pericare
• Report nausea, vomiting, elevated temperature
• Medications: Opoids, muscle relaxants, sedatives may be used
• Teach: small amount of vaginal bleeding may be expected for 1 – 3 months following internal radiation
K. Nursing management
L. Inflammation and infection of the male reproductive system
M. Disorders
1. Testicular cancer (common in young men). Risk factors: cryptorchidism, white men, family history, HIV
2. Tumors
Surgical interventions:
• Nursing implications: TURP- hematuria expected for 3 days;
• CBI (continuous bladder irrigation) used post-op - expect output greater than intake
• Bladder spasms are normal; decreased urinary output is an abnormal finding
• Distended abdomen = fluid retention
4. Prostate cancer: African American males at highest risk. Pain in the back, & lower leg, painful
ejaculation
TX: • Chemotherapy, Radiation, Surgery or Hormone therapy
Lupron Depot may be prescribed. Side effects: bone pain, hot flashes, impotence, injection site
pain.
5. Impotence: may be caused by medications, alcohol or drug use
• Treatment: Viagra (sildenafil) take 30 min - 4 hours before intercourse, on an empty stomach
Cialis (tadalafil) take up to 36 hours before intercourse, after a meal
Levitra (vardenafil) take 30 min - 4 hours before intercourse, with full glass of water
• Avoid with nitrates • report sudden vision loss • report erections lasting > 4 hours
Teach correct application of condoms: Place the condom on the tip of the penis so it will unroll correctly (the condom
should unroll outwards). Lightly squeeze the tip of the condom (to remove air) as the condom is applied to the head
of the penis. Unroll the condom all the way down to the base of the penis. There should be at least 1.5 cm reservoir
between the condom and the head of the penis
7. Penile implant: semi rigid rod (permanent semi erection), inflatable (natural erection)
8. Orchitis: inflammation of the testes. Signs and Symptoms: pain, swelling, ejaculation of blood, hematuria
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1. Lumbar puncture: lay flat 2-3 hours -supine or prone, increase fluids; check site for bleeding & CSF
leakage complication - headache. Teach: avoid lifting
2. EEG: before procedure: wash hair; no metals in hair; avoid caffeine. Client may need to sleep during the
test - may be asked to decrease sleep the night before.
6. Cerebral angiography
TIP: Safety is the minimization of risk factors that can cause injury or harm. When
prioritizing care, patient safety should be considered if the physiological integrity is
intact.
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Parkinson’s Disease
Pathophysiology: • Cause unknown
• May be linked to environment, head trauma, chronic antipsychotic use
• Decreased dopamine
Who is affected? • Men affected more than women • 50’s
Symptoms: • Gradual onset, tremors at rest, rigidity, bradykinesia, shuffling gait, pill rolling
Diagnosis: • Patient history: 2 out of 3 common symptoms
Treatment: • Control symptoms; Safety is the priority
• Levodopa (sinemet) Use cautiously with glaucoma, avoid B6
• Symmetrel (amantidine)
• Eldepryl (seligiline)
• Comtan (entacapone): extends the effect of each dose of Sinemet (levodopa)
Alzheimer’s Disease
Pathophysiology: • Cause unknown
• Decreased acetylcholine
• Microscopic plaque found in brain tissue
Who is affected? • 65 -85 y.o. affects males and females equally
• Prevent injury
Symptoms: • Gradual loss of cognitive function, apraxia- cannot perform purposeful
movement, forgetfulness
Diagnosis: • Health history • Family history • EEG • MRI • CT Scan
Treatment: • Tacrine (cognex) • ↑ Acetylcholine
• Hepatotoxic • Aricept (donepezil)
• Exelon (rivastigmine) • Namenda (memantine)
• Razadyne (galantamine) • Supportive care
Myasthenia Gravis
Pathophysiology: • Autoimmune -affects myoneural junction
• Lack of acetylcholine
Who is affected? • Women 20 - 40 year olds more frequently than men
• Men 60 - 70 year olds
Symptoms: • Voluntary muscle weakness, increases with activity (eye muscles are affected
first), avoid crowds & constipation
• Initial: diplopia
• Myasthenic Crisis - life threatening if breathing muscles are involved
Diagnosis: • Positive tensilon test confirms diagnosis
• EMG
Treatment: • Anticholinesterase agents - Mestinon (pyridostigmine)
• Prostigmin (neostigmine): improves communication between the nerves and
the muscles S/E: abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea
• Plasmapheresis
• IVIG: intravenous immunoglobulin G
• Surgery - Thymectomy
Huntington’s Disease
Pathophysiology: • Degeneration of neurons in certain areas of the brain
Who is affected? • Child of Huntington’s Disease parent
• Autosomal dominant
• Gene 50/50 chance
Symptoms: • Personality changes, ↓ cognitive ability, depression, balance problems &
involuntary facial movements
• Late: sudden jerky movements - Chorea
Diagnosis: • CT
• MRI
• Blood test for the gene
Treatment: • No cure: control symptoms, Klonopin (clonazepam), Haldol (haloperidol),
• Clozaril (clozapine), Prozac (fluoxetine)
• Speech therapy
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1. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP): can result from or cause brain injury - an early sign is change in
LOC. Normal ICP range 1-20 mm Hg. Intraventricular catheter used to monitor ICP or drain fluid
• Monitor for Dilation of the pupil in one eye
• Increase in systolic blood pressure, bradycardia, wide pulse pressure (Cushings Triad)
11. Spinal cord injury: Disrupts signal transmission to & from the brain. Log roll to stabilize the spine.
Increased risk for Autonomic Dysreflexia: results in increased B/P leading to stroke and death. Injuries at
levels of T6 or higher at risk. Avoid stimulating the bladder, the bowels, or the skin.
Signs of autonomic dysreflexia include: pounding headache, nausea, decreased pulse, profuse
diaphoresis, severe hypertension
Treatment: elevate HOB, eliminate the cause, notify MD
Neck movement, possible partial Can propel electric W/C. may be able to feed
C 5:
strength of shoulder & biceps self with powered devices
Trunk and pelvis muscle function W/C not essential; may use crutches or canes
T 11 and below:
intact for ambulation
J. Common disorders
1. Cataracts:
Opacity of the lens, leads to loss of sight. Client reports a glare. Most effective treatment is surgery.
• Pre-op medications include mydriatics (atropine) and cyclopegics.
• Post-op:
• Increase the head of the bed 30-45 degrees
• Teach to wear dark glasses while outdoors.
• Significant swelling or bruising is abnormal
2. Glaucoma:
Increased intraocular pressure (normal 15-21), obstruction of the flow of the aqueous humor (slow and
insidious) loss of peripheral vision. Visual field test done to access for glaucoma.
• Acute (closed angle): sudden onset - usually unilateral pain in and around the eye, blurred vision,
nausea, vomiting and halos. Increased intraocular pressure must be relieved as soon as possible-
maintain supine position. Treatment: Diamox (acetazolamide), Timoptic (timolol), Prednisolone
• Chronic (open angle): tired feeling in the eye, “halos” around the lights
• Treatment includes: myotics (Pilocar), Diamox (acetazolamide), Mannitol, Isordil (isosorbide
dinitrate), Alphagan (brimonidine). Quiet, dark environment.
3. Retinal detachment: client reports visual gaps may report seeing flashing lights
• Pre op: place an eye patch.
• Post op: lie on operative side
4. Strabismus: both eyes unable to focus in the same direction; patch the good eye
K. Therapeutic regimen
Related pharmacology
Miotics- constrict the pupil; pilocarpine (pilocar), Diamox (acetazolamide)
Mydriatics- dilate the pupil; Isopto Atropine (atropine)
Surgical intervention
P. Common disorders
1. Hearing impairment
a. Presbycusis: hearing loss associated with aging
Hearing Aid: when not in use store in a clean, dry place, clean with a toothpick or pipe cleaner
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3. MRI – no metals – assess for pregnancy, implantable clips, pacemaker, ability to remain in one
position 45 – 60 minutes. Remove NTG, nicoderm or birth control patches before procedure.
4. Arthroscopy- apply ice, swelling ok; elevate the part post procedure
F. Disorders
1. Fractures- ORIF (open reduction internal fixation) - surgery done to stabilize a fracture using nails or
screws.
2. Major complications
• Fat embolism: usually occurs within 48 hours but can take up to 14 days after a break in a flat or
long bone
Signs and Symptoms: petechiae, increased pain, and swelling. Assess the 6p’s.
Arixtra (fondaparinux): anticoagulant given s/p hip fracture, hip or knee replacement
• Compartment syndrome: due to lack of circulation - pressure must be relieved in 4-6 hours or
permanent neurological damage may occur
• The most common fracture in children are greenstick
• A fracture of the femur will result in the leg being shortened, adducted, and externally rotated
3. Carpal tunnel syndrome: compression of the nerve caused by repetitive movement of the hand(s)
Treatment: NSAID’s, splint (remove several times per day to perform daily, gentle range-of-motion
exercises
4. Osteoporosis: deterioration of bone tissue that causes low bone mass, leads to fractures of
vertebrae and femur.
Risk factors: • Heredity 60-80% • Low body weight, less than 127 pound
• Decreased physical activity • Low calcium diet
• Smoking/ alcohol • Prolonged pre-menopausal
amenorrhea
Findings: • Back pain (increases with activity and decreases with rest)
• Pathological fractures
• Decreased bone mass
Diagnosis: • Bone density studies
Interventions: • Estrogen replacement, Fosamax (aldendronate), Actonel (risendronate) or
Boniva (ibandronate), take with a full glass of water, on an empty stomach,
patient must remain upright for 30 minutes after dose
Evista (raloxifene) SE- water and sodium retention; monitor weight & B/P
frequently, monitor LFT’s
• High protein, high calcium + vitamin D diet; limit caffeine and alcohol
• Brace for spine - (Corset, Philadelphia, Taylor) Encourage weight bearing
exercises like dancing, walking, bicycling or swimming
5. Paget’s Disease: excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissue; symptoms include constant
aching deep bone pain, swelling or joint stiffness, enlarged bones may cause nerve compression.
↑Alkaline phosphatase
Rx: NSAID’s, Calcitonin (calcimar), heat or massage
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6. Bone tumors - may replace healthy tissue with abnormal tissue, resulting in fractures. Bone may be
primary site of cancer or as a result of metastasis. TX: Chemotherapy, radiation or surgery
Ollier Disease - benign intraosseous cartilaginous tumors called enchondromas - prone to fractures &
shortened limb on the affected side. Treatment: Surgery to preserve the function of the limb.
7. Amputation
Care of the patient after amputation
• Assess stump, monitor for drainage color and amount
• Position patient with no flexion at hip or knee to avoid contractures
• Elevate stump for the first 24 hours only; place rolled blanket along outer aspect to prevent outward
rotation. Manage pain – Phantom limb pain is real
Stump care
• Inspect for redness, blister, and abrasions
• Wash stump with mild soap, rinse with water, pat dry
• Avoid use of alcohol, oils and creams
• Change bandages two or more times per day, avoid circular turns (acts as a turniquet)
8. Osteomyelitis: bone infection caused by bacteria or fungi – may be spread from infected skin or
infection from another part of the body. S/S – bone pain, fever, swelling, redness & warmth
Rx: IV antibiotics
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8. Arthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis Osteoarthritis
• 20-55 years of age • Over 40 years of age
• Systemic • Degenerative joint disease
• Obesity, genetic predisposition
• Unknown cause with exacerbations and remissions
• Herberden’s Nodes
• Inflammation of small joints of hands wrists & feet (nodes around distal interpharyngeal joints)
• Morning stiffness • Bouchard’s nodes (node of proximal joints)
• Pain decreases with activity • weight bearing joints
• Pain increases with activity
Treatment Treatment
• ASA • NSAID’s
• NSAID’s • muscle relaxants
• Steroids • immobilization
• Humira (adalimumab) • cold packs
• Plaquenil (hydroxychloroquine) • weight loss
• Rheumatex, Trexall (methotrexate)
• Enbrel (etanercept) side effects - injection site pain,
URI, headache
*Humira (adalimumab) & Enbrel (etanercept) can cause new infections or worsening of existing conditions
G. Therapeutic regimen
1. Traction: used to reduce and immobilize fractures, decrease spasms, and correct deformities.
Nursing interventions: • maintain counter traction, the weights must hang free
• 6 P’s, observe for signs of thrombophlebitis
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B. Skin disorders
2. Herpes zoster-Shingles: nerve infection caused by the chicken pox Virus- the rash clears in a few
weeks. Rx: Zovirax (acyclovir) and analgesia. Disseminated disease - airborne & contact precautions
until lesions crust over. Localized infection - immunocompromised - airborne & contact, otherwise
standard
3. Acne: Retin A- retinoic acid- avoid the sun, do not use during pregnancy; expect redness and flaking
when this medication is in use; salycillic acid may be prescribed.
4. Psoriasis: due to over production of skin cells characterized by thickening of skin with silvery plaques.
• Exacerbated by stress or change in climate
• Treatment: Treatment: Plaquenil (hydroxychloroquine), Humira (adalimumab), Enbrel
(etanercept), steroid ointments and sunlight
5. Terry’s nails: finger nails or toe nails appear white with a “ground glass” appearance. Occurs with liver
failure, cirrhosis, DM, CHF, hyperthyroidism and or malnutrition.
6. Skin cancer: teach client to avoid the sun and tanning salons
7. Botox – (botulinum toxin A) – blocks the chemical signals that cause the muscles to contract. Results
in skin that appear smoother or less wrinkled SE: pain & bruising at injection site, redness, headache, flu
like symptoms, facial weakness or drooping.
• Teach: stop ASA, Warfarin & Heparin before procedure
Myobloc - (rimabotulinum toxin B) - treats severe cervical muscle dystonia (torticollis)
Side Effects: weakness, difficulty speaking, swallowing or breathing, double vision, blurred vision
8. Steven Johnson Syndrome: severe form of erythema multiforme – an immune complex disorder
characterized initially by conjunctival burning and itching, fever, cough, malaise. (Flu like s/s)
• SJS typically involves the skin and the mucous membranes.
• Minor presentations may occur, significant involvement of oral, nasal, eye, vaginal, urethral, GI, and
lower respiratory tract mucous membranes may develop in the course of the illness.
• GI and respiratory involvement may progress to necrosis.
• Lesions (painful, red, purple rash; blisters) may occur anywhere, the palms, soles, dorsum of hands, and
extensor surfaces are most commonly affected.
• The rash may be confined to any one area of the body, most often the trunk. SJS is a serious systemic
disorder with the potential for severe morbidity and even death.
• Linked to the use of Albuterol syrup in children, NSAID’s, Dilantin (phenytoin), sulfa antibiotics, macrolides
• Treatment is systemic. Treat rash like burns.
A. Cause: HIV is a retrovirus that integrates itself into the genetic material of the cell and changes the DNA.
Primary host cell is the CD4 - lymphocyte. Incubation period is 2 weeks to 6 months. Decreased immune
system is evidenced by a decrease in CD4 count. Viral load tests and CD4 counts are done every three to
four months.
The viral load test measures the amount of HIV virus in the blood.
Low = 40 – 500 copies/ml High = 5,000 – 10,000 copies/ml
Untreated/uncontrolled = 1 million or more copies
MD begins medications when CD4 is at 350 or less; disease classified as AIDS when CD4 goes below
200 and opportunistic infections occur.
• Elisa test is done first. Western blot confirms Elisa.
• PCR (polymerase chain reaction test) can be done to test viral load. Used on
infants.
• Methods to prevent infection – hand washing, avoid crowds,
neutropenic precautions etc.
• Pancytopenia occurs
B. HIV / AIDS medications: HAART – “Highly active antiretroviral treatment”. Decreases the amount
of active virus in the blood stream
Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors - Stop HIV production and prevents the
conversion of RNA to DNA
Viramune (nevirapine),Sustiva or Stocrin (efavirenz), Rescriptor (delavirdine),
Intelence (etravirene)
monitor CBC & chemistry - renal and hepato-toxic, dizziness – take at night
Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTI’s) – inhibits DNA synthesis
AZT, Retrovir – (zidovudine) – anemia, monitor CBC,
Epivir – (lamivudine, 3TC) - avoid fatty foods
DDC– (zalcitabine) –causes hepatotoxicity
d4T- (stavudine) Zerit –peripheral neuropathy
Ziagen (abacavir) - fever, rash, N/V, malaise
Videx- (didanosine) - may cause pancreatitis, hepatotoxic, give on an empty stomach; liver
damage
• Antivirals: Foscavir- (foscarnet) Treatment of CMV retinitis in HIV patients resistant to Acyclovir
Atripla – (efavirenz (sustiva 600mg) + tenofovir (viread 300mg) + emtricitabine (Emtriva 200mg)
contains one non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) and two nucleoside reverse
transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) – Take once daily on an empty stomach
Side Effects: freckles, liver dysfunction
Diet for HIV & AIDS patient: high protein, high calorie; liquids before meals, decrease residue
C. Opportunistic infections
1. Bacterial: Mycobacterium complex
2. Fungal infection: candida albicans; yeast overgrowth – oral thrush, yeast vaginitis
Rx: Diflucan (fluconazole)
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OVERVIEW OF PHARMACOLOGY
1. Chemical name: description of drug using chemistry composition
• All medications can potentially alter more than one body function.
• Dosing may need to be adjusted based on the patient’s age, disease process, kidney or liver
function or route of administration.
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• The nurse must be aware of the purpose, dosage range, common side effects and specific
precautions or assessment needed before giving the medication i.e. Vasotec (enalapril)-check
B/P
• Confirm patient identity using two identifiers (name & ID number is acceptable. An alert patient
• Assess patient’s condition before administration for signs to hold the dose and after dosing to
• Determine compatibility of prescribed medications; monitor for use of home or herbal remedies
• In case of a medication error, report to MD, assess the patient for the effects of the medication
• Teaching: instruct the patient and or family regarding safe use of medications, dietary
restrictions and assessments (i.e. b/p, pulse) for each medication prior to discharge so that they
will be prepared for self administration. Also teach regarding safe disposal of medications.
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Zestril Palpitations
• Lisinopril Taste changes
Prinivil
Orthostatic Hypotension
Altace • Ramipril
Potassium increase
Capoten • Captopril Renal impairment
Impotence
Monopril • Fosinopril
Leukocytosis
Accupril • Quinapril Nausea, vomiting, dry mouth
Headache, Dizziness
Lotensin • Benazepril
Angioedema, Steven Johnson’s Syndrome
Monitor blood pressure, BUN & creatinine, electrolytes and WBC
Nursing Implications:
Contraindicated in pregnancy, avoid NSAID’s
REMEMBER: ACE Inhibitor side effects = CAPTOPRIL
Diuretics
Excrete Sodium & Fluid
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Loop Diuretics: Potassium Depleting
Bumex • Bumetanide
Hypotension Hyponatremia
Edecrin • Ethacrynic acid Hypokalemia Constipation
Lasix • Furosemide Tinnitus Increased BUN
Photosensitivity Hyperglycemia
Demadex • Torsemide
Thiazide Diuretics: Potassium Depleting
Hydrodiuril • Hydrochlorothiazide Hypotension Hyponatremia
Zaroxolyn • Metolazone Hypokalemia Headache
Diuril • Chlorothiazide Photosensitivity Hyperglycemia
Nursing Implications: Monitor BUN, K+ & glucose levels. Monitor intake and output
Teach: increase potassium in diet
Potassium Sparing Diuretics
Aldactone • Spironolactone Hyperkalemia Headache
Constipation Dizziness
Dyrenium • Triamterene Menstrual irregularities Muscle cramps
Nursing Implications: Monitor electrolytes; Decrease potassium in the diet
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Vasodilators
Relax the smooth muscles in the blood vessel
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Alpha Agonists
Decreases the effect of Dopamine on blood pressure
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Catapres • Clonidine Postural hypotension Drowsiness
Aldomet • Methyldopa Impotence Dry mouth
Diovan • Valsartan
Hypotension Cough
Cozaar • Losartan Hyperkalemia Renal Dysfunction
Angioedema
Atacand • Candesartan
Nursing Implications: Monitor BUN/ Creatinine and electrolytes. Cozaar prescribed P.O.
Cardiac Glycosides
Treat atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter and CHF
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Fatigue Bradycardia
• Digoxin Anorexia Nausea & vomiting
Lanoxin
• Digitoxin Headache Diarrhea
Visual changes
Monitor apical pulse for 1 full minute
Do not give if pulse is: less than 60 in an adult
less than 90 in a child
Nursing Implications:
less than 70 in an older child
Monitor electrolytes – hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia & hypercalcemia
increase risk of toxicity
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Anticoagulants
Prevent blood clotting
Heparin (injectable only) prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Heparin Bleeding (remember other words & signs that indicate
bleeding)
Lovenox • Enoxaparin
Thrombocytopenia Increased LFT’s
Fragmin • Dalteparin Nausea Diarrhea
Antiplatelets
Prevent clot formation by blocking platelet aggregation
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Plavix • Clopidogrel Bleeding
Ticlid • Ticlopidine (remember other words & signs that indicate bleeding)
Nausea Upset stomach
Aggrastat • Tirofiban
Stomach pain Diarrhea
Persantine • Dipyridamole Rash and itching Headache
Hemostatics
Used to control bleeding when blood clots are broken down too quickly
Prescribed for acute life threatening hemorrhage due to hyperfibrinolysis
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Amicar • Aminocaporic Acid Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, cardiomyopathy
Nursing Implications: Taken once an hour for about 8 hours or until the bleeding is controlled
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Antibiotics
Used to treat infection
Category Drug Name Common Side Effects
Penicillin Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea,
Penicillin’s Amoxil (Amoxicillin)
Omnipen (Ampicillin) super infection (candidiasis)
Keflex (Cephalexin)
Rocephin (Ceftriaxone)
Cephalosporins Zinacef/Ceftin (Cefuroxime) Diarrhea, furry tongue, anemia, ↑ LFT’s
Vantin (Cefadoxime)
Fortaz (Ceftazidine)
Tobramycin
Amikacin
Aminoglycosides
Neomycin Oto, neuro & nephro toxicity
(Mycin’s) Gentamicin
Streptomycin
Tetracycline
Tetracyclines Photosensitivity, tinnitus
Vibramycin (Doxycycline)
INH (Isoniazid) Peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity,
Anti-tubercular
Rifadin (Rifampin) discolors the urine & contact lenses, visual
Agents Ethambutol disturbances, precipitation of gout
Tendonitis & tendon rupture, nausea, vomiting,
Cipro (Ciprofloxacin) diarrhea, rash, ↑ LFT’s, headache, photosensitivity
Avelox (Moxifloxacin) Increase effect: avoid with theophylline,
Fluoroquinolones Coumadin, glyburide, dilantin, caffeine, steroids,
Levaquin (Levofloxacin) diuretics, cardiac meds (quinidine, amiodarone,
Floxin (Ofloxacin) betapace, bretylluim)
Decrease effect: antacids, multivitamins, iron
Dark, red-brown urine, metallic taste,
Flagyl (Metronidazole) candidiasis, peripheral neuropathy, ↑ effect of
coumadin
Macrobid (nitrofurantoin)
Macrodantin, Furadantin
CHRONIC PULMONARY REACTIONS,
Tx for: UTI
GI upset, c-difficile, dizziness, pruritis, fever,
Gantrisin
Antibacterial jaundice, angioedema, Steven Johnson’s
(acetyl sulfisoxazole)
syndrome
(pediatric suspension) Tx for:
acute, recurrent or chronic UTI
Zyvox (linezolid)
Tx for: VRE, PNA or complicated Pancytopenia, N/V/D, fever, URI,headache
skin infections
Zithromax (Azithromycin)
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, thrombocytopenia,
Biaxin (Clarithromycin)
Macrolides abdominal pain, taste changes, super infection,
E’mycin (Erythromycin)
Steven Johnson’s syndrome
Cleocin (Clindamycin)
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Iron preparations
Treats anemias
PO - use a straw to prevent staining the teeth. Common Side Effects
Increase vitamin C- helps with absorption.
IM injections should be given using the Z- track GI distress, headache, N/V, constipation, peptic ulcers
method.
Avoid use with antacids, coffee, tea, dairy products,
Nursing Implications:
eggs or whole grain bread within one hour after iron
Laxatives
Induces bowel evacuation; treatment of constipation
Type Drug Names Common Side Effects
Bulk Forming Metamucil (psyllium)
Abdominal fullness; minor bloating
Agents Citrucel
Stool softeners A bitter taste or throat irritation,
Colace (docusate)
Surfactants skin rash, diarrhea or mild nausea
Lubricants Stomach pain, nausea & vomiting,
Mineral oil
Emollients abdominal pain
Citroma (magnesium citrate)
Hydrating Stomach pain Nausea
Milk of Magnesia (magnesium hydroxide)
Agents Gas Diarrhea
Epsom salt (magnesium sulfate)
Hyperosmotic Lactulose, Sorbitol
Hyperglycemia, diarrhea
Agents Glycerin Suppositories
Stimulants Dulcolax (bisacodyl) Dehydration, dizziness, severe
Irritants Ex-Lax (senna) diarrhea, abdominal cramps
Monitor for electrolyte imbalance
Metamucil (psyllium): take with 8 ounces of water
Nursing Implications: Lactulose may be used to decrease ammonia levels in clients
with hepatic encephalopathy
Teach: report rectal bleeding
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Steroids
Used to suppress inflammation – PO, IV, Inhaled, Topical
Drug Name Common Side Effects
Prednisone Hyperglycemia Growth retardation Hypokalemia
Solumedrol (methylprednisolone) Mood changes Hirsuitism Hypertension
Beclovent (beclamethasone) Increased IOP Cushing’s Disease Skin thinning
Pulmicort (budesonide)
Immune suppression Menstrual irregularities Acne
Azamacort (triamcinolone inhaled)
Kenalog (triamcinolone topical) Delayed wound healing
Administer with or after meals
Client teaching: taper dose, wear medic alert, avoid stress, report fever &
Nursing Implications: weight gain, monitor frequent weights, increase potassium & protein in diet,
monitor glucose, rinse mouth after use of inhaled steroid to avoid oral thrush
Topical agents - contact dermatitis, hypopigmentation & maceration
Antiparkinson Agents
Increase dopamine in central nervous system
Dopaminergic agent –stimulates dopamine
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Nausea, vomiting, anorexia, dry mouth,
• Levodopa
Sinemet headache, urinary retention, anxiety, blurred
• Carbidopa-Levodopa
vision, dyskinesias
Use with caution in clients with glaucoma, monitor liver function
Nursing Implications: Teach: Use caution when operating machinery
May discolor saliva, urine or sweat red, brown or black
Chemotherapeutic Agents
Used to destroy tumor cells
Category Drug Names Common Side Effects
Carboplatin
Akylating agents Bone marrow suppression
Cisplastin
Bone marrow suppression
Antimetabolites 5 FU- fluorouracil
CNS damage
Antitumor antibiotics Bleomycin Chills, confusion
Pancytopenia, immunosuppression, bone marrow
Vinblastine
Plant alkaloids suppression, N/V/D,
Vincristine
alopecia, hepatotoxicity, neuropathy
Selective estrogen Increased risk of uterine CA, blood clots
Tamoxifen
receptor blockers or stroke
Cytoxan Development of secondary Cancer
Monitor patients for potential toxic side effects during the nadir period
(Nadir – 8-14 days after chemo)
Nursing Implications:
Contraindicated in pregnancy – teach to use birth control
Handle with gloves
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Gastro-Intestinal Meds
Tagamet (cimetidine)
Zantac (ranitidine) Malaise Dizziness
H2 Receptor Blockers
Pancytopenia Diarrhea
Inhibits gastric acid production Pepcid (famotidine) Headache
Axid (nizatidine)
Zofran (ondansetron)
Headache Weakness
Kytril (granisetron)
Heartburn Constipation
used to treat N/V associated with
Diarrhea Dizziness
Antiemetics chemo or radiation therapy
Prevention and treatment of
Drowsiness Dry mouth
nausea and vomiting
Reglan (metoclopramide) Extrapyramidal reactions
Neuroleptic Malignant Sydrome
Phenergan (promethazine) Dizziness Blurred vision
Constipation
* Magic mouthwash (Benadryl & Maalox, Lidocaine may be added) - used for sore throat and mouthsores
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Antipyretics
Reduce fever
Drug Name Common Side Effects
GI upset, nausea
Severe allergic reactions (rash; hives; itching; difficulty breathing; tight-
ness in the chest; swelling of the mouth, face, lips, or tongue); black or
Aspirin
bloody stools; confusion; diarrhea; dizziness; drowsiness; hearing loss;
ringing in the ears; severe or persistent stomach pain; unusual bruising;
vomiting. Reyes syndrome in children; respiratory alkalosis with toxicity.
Monitor LFT’s
Avoid with alcohol
Nursing Implications: Antidote for acetaminophen toxicity - Mucomyst (acetylcysteine)
3 GM/ day maximum dose
Teach: take ASA with meals; report signs of bleeding
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Antihistamines
Used to block the release of histamine in allergic reactions
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Benadryl • Dipenhydramine Dry mouth, nose, and throat
Drowsiness
Claritin • Loratidine
Fatigue
Zyrtec • Cetirizine Headache
Sleepiness
Dizziness
Atarax • Hydroxyzine Nausea and vomiting
Constipation
Anticholinergics
Inhibit parasympathetic nerve impulses by blocking the action of acetylcholine
Drug Name Generic Drug Names Common Side Effects
Worsening of narrow-angle glaucoma
Mydriasis
Acute eye pain
Hypotension
Palpitations
Atrovent • Ipratropium bromide
Urinary retention
Tachycardia
Constipation
Bronchospasm
Paradoxical bronchospasm
Dry mouth
Blurred vision
Atropine
Photophobia
Tachycardia
Blurred vision
Enablex • Darifenacin
Decreased sweating leads to over
used to treat overactive bladder used in overactive bladder
heating
Teach: medications cause the mucous membranes to become dry,
take with a full glass of water
Atropine- avoid with hepatitis, glaucoma, gastrointestinal obstruction,
Nursing Implications: decreased liver or kidney function
Use caution when driving, operating machinery, or performing other
hazardous activities
Avoid use of ETOH
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Anticonvulsants/Benzodiazepines
Used to manage seizure disorders/anxiety disorders
Drug Name Generic Name Common Side Effects
Klonopin • Clonazepam
Drowsiness
Valium • Diazepam
Lethargy
CNS depression
Dalmane • Flurazepam
Gingival hyperplasia Hypoglycemia (in DM)
Mild skin rash or itching Dizziness, nervousness
Discolored urine
Over dose symptoms may include:
Twitching eye movements Slurred speech
Dilantin • Phenytoin
Loss of balance Tremors
Fainting Nausea & vomiting
Feeling light-headed
Slow or shallow breathing
Muscle stiffness or weakness
Dizziness
Drowsiness
Tegretol • Carbamazepine Dry mouth
Nausea
Aplastic anemia
Sleepiness
Weakness
Keppra • Levetiracetam
Dizziness
Infection
Rash
Lamictal • Lamotrigene Dizziness
Headache
Narcotics/analgesics
Used to relieve moderate to severe pain
Drug Name Generic Name Common Side Effects
NARCOTICS
Morphine *Risk of dependency CNS depression
NSAID’s
Motrin • Ibuprofen
Nausea Epigastric pain
Indocin • Indomethacin Heartburn Diarrhea
Headche Dizziness
Naprosyn • Naproxen sodium
Vertigo Hypertension
Celebrex • Celecoxib Oliguria Rash
Gastric or duodenal ulcer with bleeding
Feldene • Piroxicam
OPIODS
Respiratory depression Nausea
Ultram • Tramadol
Dizziness Constipation
TRIPTANS
Prescribed for migraine headaches
Imitrex • Sumatriptan Hypotension Syncope
Tinnitus Dry mouth
Zomig • Zolmitriptan Photophobia
SKELETAL MUSCLE RELAXANTS
Soma • Carisoprodol Drowsiness
Asthma attacks
Robaxin • Methocarbamol
Psychological dependence
Flexeril • Cyclobenzaprine Nausea
Narcotics: Report problems urinating, such as pain, difficulty urinating, frequent
urge to urinate, or decreased urine output, constipation, headache, diplopia,
nightmares may be sign of overdose - Antidote: Naloxone
Avoid with other meds causing CNS depression (MAOI’s, antihistamines,
muscle relaxants); Fentanyl - discard patch by folding edges & flushing
Nursing Implications: NSAID’s – Take with food, Mointor for signs of bleeding, avoid use of ASA and
anticoagulants; avoid operating machinery. Contraindicated S/P CABG
Opiods – taper dose to discontinue
Triptans: avoid with ischemic heart disease, uncontrolled HTN, stroke, TIA or
PVD
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Osteoporosis Medications
Used in the prevention & management of osteoporosis
Drug Name Generic Name Common side effects
Bisphosphonates
Slows the rate of bone thinning and increase bone density
Actonel
Bladder infection
Daily- PO for 2 days in a row • Risedronate
BPH in men
q month or q week as prescribed
Reclast
• Zoledronic acid Joint pain, fever, hypertension, headache
Yearly IV
Hormone Therapy
Calcimar
Runny or stuffy nose, back pain, nausea,
Miacalcin • Calcitonin
vomiting
Given via nasal spray, IM, or SC
During the exam, you may encounter medications that you do not recognize. Many prescribed medications
have commonalities. Knowledge of the common drug suffixes may be helpful in assisting you to choose
an answer.
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Medication Worksheet:
List the classification of drug based on common (suffix, root, or prefix), give an example for use
i.e. prazole - proton pump inhibitor- lansoprazole, reduce gastric acid production
1. Osin ______________________________________________________
2. Sartan_____________________________________________________
3. Prazole____________________________________________________
4. GL________________________________________________________
5. Setron_____________________________________________________
6. One_______________________________________________________
7. Statin______________________________________________________
8. Zepam_____________________________________________________
9. Dronate____________________________________________________
10. Done_____________________________________________________
11. Dipine_____________________________________________________
12. Olol_______________________________________________________
13. Ni_________________________________________________________
14. Pril________________________________________________________
15. Mide______________________________________________________
16. Ceph/Cef__________________________________________________
17. Floxacin___________________________________________________
18. Mycin ( TANGS)_____________________________________________
19. Tidine_____________________________________________________
20. Afil_______________________________________________________
* Remember there are always exceptions. *Some exceptions: amakacin is an aminoglycoside and ends in
acin, macrolides are a class of drug that also end in mycin, loratidine is an antihistamine and ends with tidine.
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• Respiratory medications: bronchodilators- albuterol, • AZT (zidovidine) – take on an empty stomach, check CBC
theophylline, Brethine, Intal inhaler – use even when (anemia)
symptoms are not present • Accutane, Retin A (retinoic acid)
• Accolate, Singular (montelukast)- give in the evening • *Synthroid – hold for pulse greater than 110; take in a.m.
• Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine), Ritalin-irritability • Botox
• Anticholinergics: atropine, robinol • Tessalon Perles (Benzonatate)-antitussive
• Cholinergics: neostigmine (prostigmine)– Myasthenia • Neupogen – increases WBC’s, Epogen - increases RBC’s
Gravis, Mestinon • Dopamine –braycardia and hypotension
• Antipsychotics:Thorazine (avoid sun), Seroquel, • Flexeril; Dantrolene sodium; Baclofen (muscle relaxants)
Zyprexa; Haldol, Clozaril– weekly WBC monitoring for • *Viagra- headache/avoid nitrates, take one hour before sex;
6 months Cialis, Levitra
• Aspirin: tinnitus, GI bleeding, take w/ food • *Fosamax (alendronate)- sit up or 30 minutes after taking
• NSAIDS- ibuprofen (motrin), indomethicin (indocin) med, take on an empty stomach, with a full glass of water,
naprosyn, Celebrex: may cause bleeding early AM; Actonel (risedronate)
• *All diuretics, furosemide, torosemide, Zaroxolyn • *Zocor, Questran – decreases cholesterol, mix in juice,
• Epinephrine (epi-pen) Lopid, niacin
• Buspar (antianxiety), Valium, Xanax • Mannitol
• Magnesium sulfate • Lithium, Lithonate- bipolar disorder
• *Methergine • Lithostat- for nephrolithiasis
• Gout – allopurinol, colchicine • Gabitril (tiagabine) –CNS depression
• Humira • Morphine; Darvon
• Mycin drugs (gentamycin) – oto, neuro, nephrotoxic • Citrical – (calcium) monitor calcium levels
• Bactrim – avoid sun, wear long sleeves • Antihypertensives- may cause sexual dysfunction
• **Ativan – prevent seizures • Avoid cephalosporins if allergic to PCN (ie. Keflex), Mycin
• Tegretol, Dilantin drugs ok, Rocephin
• Tamoxifen – antineoplastic – Breast Ca (+ estrogen • Artane, cogentin
receptors) • Tacrine
• Capoten – 1 hour before meals • Xalatan-decreases intra-ocular pressure
• K-dur • *Toprol- metoprolol; Propranolol, Inderal -avoid with
• *Amphogel – antacid, TUMS
asthma, check pulse before administration
• Cardizem – check BP; Verapamil; Cozaar – taken PO,
• Cipro: 2 hrs before or 6 hrs after antacids; take on an empty
felodipine - peripheral edema
stomach, Ancef
• Nitroglycerin –avoid with Viagra, avoid with glaucoma
• Keflex; Zithromax –side effects, Bi
• Heparin, *coumadin, arixtra - anticoagulant given 6-8
• Gantrinsin (Acetyl Sulfisoxazole) –peds – Rx for chronic UTI
hrs s/p hip fracture, hip or knee replacement; Lovenox
• Lipitor- contraindicated in pregnancy, Zetia. Questran
(Enoxoparin), Fragmin (Dalteparin): low molecular
• Ginger; Kava Kava; Ginko Biloba, Echinacea, Fever few, Black
weight heparin- monitor CBC
Cohosh
• Ethambutol + INH (isoniazid) – for TB, multiple drugs
• Rifampin – discolors urine
decrease resistance
• Rocephin –furry tongue
• Mylanta – H2 antagonist – wait 1-2 hours before tak-
ing other meds • Elavil, Remeron, Zoloft, Effexor, Tofranil (imipramine)(anti-
• Evista (Raloxifene) – used for osteoporosis in post depressant), MAO inhibitors, Prozac –side effects
menopausal women • Symmetrel, levodopa
• *Digoxin – patient teaching • Desmopressin (DDAVP)- intranasally
• Iron (ferrous sulfate) • Versed – used for conscious sedation
• *Tetracycline • Ditropan, Detrol , Vesicare–treat symptoms of overactive
• Metformin (glucophage) – take with meals; Glipizide; bladder
Amaryl, Prandin, Glucotrol • Zomig –migraine headache
• Insulin Regular/ NPH (Peaks), Lispro • Oxytocin
• Depo-Provera
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1. Study Tools (priority setting), Page 143 Alphabet list and mneumonics
2. Infection Control
3. Diabetes/Endocrine System
4. Cardiac System - consider reviewing You Tube video “EKG for NCLEX & Beginners” Annelisse Garrison
5. Pharmacology (a) medication calculation (b) herbal remedies
6. Diagnostic tests & Lab values
7. Respiratory System
8. Maternal Child Health, Pediatrics, Mental Health
9. Everything Else
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Resources
www.LearnersTV.com
www.nursingquality.org
www.fpnotebook.com/surgery/pharm/wnddrsng.htm
http://nursingskillsvideo.blogspot.com
www.practicalclinicalskills.com
www.easyauscultation.com
www.blausen.com
www.dosagehelp.com
www.abg.ninja
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4 W’s
6 P’s
4 C’s
5 H’s
5 F’s
3 N’s
3 C’s
5 P’s
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RICE BROW
RACE AWFERS
RAT x 2 BEEP
ANT HOP
PAN TPAL
RANDI AVA
FINDS STOP
MONA REEDA
PQRST PASS
ABCD CAP
IPPA BRAT
IAPP CAPTOPRIL
CAB PISSCAGE
COAL NOAH
CAUTION ABCDE
ABCL KNIVES
BUBBLE HE RANDI
RAMS BED
ROME OLDCART
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Maternal/Newborn Care
Presumptive, Probable and Positive Signs of Pregnancy
• Subjective signs
Presumptive Signs • Cannot be used to diagnose pregnancy
A. Exam:
• Total weight gain of 25 lbs is average
• STD/STI screen
Third Trimester • Group Beta Strep: If positive Penicillin G - administer up to 4 hours
before delivery
C. Nutritional status: • 2200 to 2300 calories per day
• 2000 ml of fluid per day
• Increase protein intake
• Increase iron to decrease anemia
• Increase folic acid to prevent neural tube defects
(3) Nagele’s Rule: 1. Add 7 days to the first day of the last normal menstrual period
2. Subtract 3 months
3. Add one year
3. July 12, 2018 2. October 11, 2018 ANSWERS 1. May 16, 2018
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(4) Routine care and follow up: • 1x per month for 7 months
• 2x per month in 8th month
• 1x per week in 9th month
(9) Complications
Placenta Previa
• Partial or complete covering of the cervical os by the placenta.
• Painless vaginal bleeding (bright red bleeding may or may not be visible) after the 7th month of
pregnancy
• Common in older mothers, multiparity - no vaginal exams; May need C-section - not emergency
Placenta Abruptio:
• Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
• Painful dark red vaginal bleeding
• Risk factors: PIH, multiparity, trauma, cocaine use
• Client will need an emergency C - Section
Gestational Diabetes:
• Extra glucose passes through the placenta and is metabolized by the fetus
• This causes excess insulin to be secreted by the fetus which acts as a growth hormone
• After birth the neonate may become hypoglycemic as there is a sudden drop in glucose (maternal)
and an increased insulin production by the fetus.
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Decelerations:
↓ FHR before the contraction ↓ FHR after the contraction Combination of early & late
• Oxygen
• IV fluids • Lateral or trendelenburg position
RX: observation • Lateral position • Oxygen
• D/C pitocin • C-section
• C-section
VEAL CHOP
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* Contractions should not occur faster than every 2 minutes and should not last longer
than 90 seconds (Stop Pitocin)
• Passenger
• Passage
1. FIVE P’s • Power
• Placenta
• Psyche of mother
• Risk for infection
2. PROM
• Avoid vaginal exams • Give Ampicillin
• Never put the cord back inside
3. Prolapsed cord • With sterile glove, lift presenting part off of the cord or
• Place mom in trendelenburg or knee chest position
6. Pharmacology/pain relief • Analgesics may be prescribed to take the edge off the pain
C. True labor
Stage 1: Dilation
• First true labor contraction until complete effacement and dilation of the cervix
• Latent: 0cm - 4cm • Active: 4cm - 8cm • Transition: 8cm - 10cm
Stage 3: Placental
• Delivery of the placenta until the mother’s condition has stabilized. Pelvic rest 4-6 weeks.
5 to 20 minutes
Primipara 8-20 hours 30 minutes to 2 hours Usually helped by oxytocics or
manual pressure
5 to 20 minutes
Multipara 3-8 hours 20 minutes to 1 1/2 hours
Usually helped by oxytocics
D. Culture and Pain perception during labor
1. Analgesia – Prescribed - just enough to take the edge off the pain. Morphine, Meperidine
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IV. Postpartum - taking in 1 -2 days, taking hold 3rd day, letting go 5th - 6th week
Assessment : BUBBLE HE
• Lochia Assessment:
• Pinkish- brown
• Bloody • May be brownish
• Serous
• Breast Feeding:
• Encourage 2700 - 2800 calories and 3000ml fluid if breast feeding
• Mastitis: Treatment: • Moist heat • Encourage breast feeding or pump the breast
• Engorgement / cracked nipples: Treatment: • Ice or open to air 10 - 20 minutes at a time
• Mother who does not want to breast feed: • Teach: wear tight fitting bra and ice
• Parlodel (bromocriptine) may be prescribed
V. Care of Newborn
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• Harmless rash that looks like little pustules on a red base on the
ERYTHEMA TOXICUM
face, trunk, legs, and arms. It disappears by 1 week.
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Newborn Care
AIRWAY • Suction mouth before nose
• Swaddle infant
• Keep infant covered at all times
• Put cap on newborn’s head to prevent heat loss
• Heat may be lost by:
WARMTH
• Convection – prevent drafts
• Radiation – do not place bed near window
• Conduction – do not place infant on cold surfaces
• Evaporation – keep infant dry
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C. Complications:
1. Fetal alcohol syndrome/ drug addiction: Symptoms manifest 12-72 hours after delivery
(Neonatal abstinence syndrome) • Shrill cry • Poor weight gain
• Yawning • Sneezing • Seizures
• Jittery – swaddle the infant
• Microcephaly and facial abnormality with
alcohol syndrome
TX: Supportive care to avoid continued exposure to additional medications. Opioids or
Phenobarbital used in severe cases.
2. Facial paralysis: risk increased with forcep delivery
3. Cerebral palsy: risks include maternal age, low birth weight, anoxic episode
4. Erythroblastosis fetalis (RH incompatability): Rhogam Administered:
• 28 weeks gestation
• Within 72 hours after birth
• After voluntary termination of pregnancy
• After spontaneous termination of pregnancy
5. Sepsis in the newborn: may become infected during birth or related to PROM
T Toxoplasmosis
O Other ( gonnorhea, syphillis, varicella, Hepatis B, HIV)
R Rubella
C Cytomegalovirus
H Herpes
D. Congenital anomalies:
1. Heart disease
2. Spina bifida
3. Esophageal atresia: Three C’S • Coughing • Choking • Cyanosis
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COMMON MEDICATIONS USED IN MATERNITY
Discontinue with:
Pitocin (oxytocin): Side Effects:
Sustained uterine
Labor induction Hyponatremia
contractions
Painful contractions
Postpartum hemorrhage Fetal deceleration
Contraindicated in uterine
Decreased urinary output
hypertonicity
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PEDIATRIC ESSENTIALS
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11 MONTHS 4 YEARS
Shows moods Hops on one foot
Uses index finger and thumb to grasp (pincer Recognizes colors
grasp)
Imaginary playmates
12 MONTHS
Average weight 38 lbs
Walks with one hand held or alone Average Height 40” (double the birth length)
Triples birth weight
Safety: Car booster seat:
Safety: Guard rails on stairs
Up to 12 years old or 4’ 9” in height
Turn pot handles inward
First dental visit
5 YEARS
2100 word vocabulary
15 MONTHS
Two wheel bicycle
Pull and push toys
Throws & catches ball
Scribbles on paper
Average weight 40 lbs
Crawls up stairs
Average Height 42”
18 MONTHS
SCHOOL AGE
Jumps on both feet Ties shoes
10 - 20 word vocabulary Games
Rules
Anterior fontanel closes
Period of industry:
Safety: Place poisons in locked cabinet
Likes to accomplish things
2 YEARS* Safety: Accident prevention
Bowel and bladder control 2-3 years Traffic and fire safety
2-3 word phrases ADOLESCENT
Climbs steps with both feet on each step Needs social approval of peers
Parallel play; puzzles, blocks; rocking horse, Change in body size & development
drum Safety: MVA’s
Can turn the doorknob
Sport injury prevention
Safety: Forward facing car seat up to 40 lbs Firearm accident prevention
then booster seat; Supervise near water; Drug
Avoid chunks of meat ETOH
2.5 YEARS* Sex education
Full set of 20 baby teeth High risk for suicide
Manipulative toys for muscle coordination
Crayons and paper
3 YEARS*
Rides a tricycle
Alternates feet on steps
900 word vocabulary
Puzzles, books, drawing
Puppets
Average weight 32 lbs
Average Height 3 feet
Safety: Helmets
Knee pads
Stranger safety
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Asymmetrical • Infant assumes fencer’s position: when head is turned to one side, arm on that
side is extended, and opposite arm is flexed
Tonic Neck Reflex • Present at birth, disappears at 4 months
• When infant is suddenly jarred or hears a loud noise, the body stiffens, the
Moro’s Reflex legs are drawn up, and the arms are brought up, out, and then in front in an
(Startle Reflex) embracing position
• Present at birth, disappears at 4 months
• When side of the mouth is touched, child turns to that side
Rooting
• Present at birth, disappears at 4 months
Reciprocal • Movements of newborns are jerky and usually alternate in the legs
Kicking • Evolving at birth, disappears at 9 months
Neck Righting • When the head is turned to one side, the opposite shoulder & trunk will follow
Reflex • Evolving at 4 months, involuntary movement disappears at 9 -12 months
• Extension of the great toe on stroking the sole of the foot upwards
Babinski Reflex • Present at birth, disappears after 2 years
• ٭Abnormal in an adult; indicates neurological damage
Dancing or Stepping
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Malnutrition
• Kwashiorkor: caused by a lack of protein-lead infantile cirrhosis
• Rickets: caused by a lack of vitamin D
• Scurvy: caused by a lack of vitamin C
• Infant botulism: - caused by ingestion of honey before age 1
- first sign is constipation, irritability, and weak cry
III. Hospitalization
A. Child’s reaction
• Fear separation: encourage parent participation
INFANTS & TODDLERS
• Provide consistent care giver
Birth to 2 years old
• Provide stimulation & age appropriate toys
• Fears bodily injury: give simple explanations
PRESCHOOLERS • Parental Involvement
3 to 5 years old • Encourage expression through play
• Cover wounds
• Fears pain and bodily injury
• Fears separation from peers
• Communicate honestly
SCHOOL AGE
• Encourage participation in care
6 to 12 years old
• Allow child to make choices where possible
• Encourage visitation with peers and siblings
• Provide diversional activities
• Fears loss of independence
• Fears body image disturbance
• Fears separation from peers
ADOLESCENT
• Involve adolescent in care
13 to 18 years old
• Encourage visits
• Provide telephone
• Promote privacy
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School Age • They see death as permanent, but do not think it will happen to them
C. Safety measures:
• Infants up to 20 lbs. or 2yrs old use rear facing car seat in the center rear of the
vehicle
• Then forward facing up to 40 lbs
• Booster seat up to 8 - 12 years old or 4’ 9” inches in height
• Check temperature of bath water
• Tepid water - 85° - 100°
• Keep side rails up at all times
• Teach injury prevention
D. Medication administration
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IIII. Infant
INFANT: NEUROMUSCULAR AND SKELETAL DISORDERS
• External rotation of hip • Limited abduction • Increased skin folds
• Shortening of leg • Ortolani’s click
Congenital Hip Dysplasia
• Treatment: immobilization - spica cast or pavlik harness to immobilize
hips and thighs
Club Foot • Dennis Brown Splints
Meningitis • Droplet precautions
Otitis Media • Amoxicillin drug of choice • Observe for hearing loss
Visual Disturbances • Strabismus - patch the good eye
INFANT: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
Cyanotic Defects: Poor suck, bradycardia, fainting spells
Acyanotic Defects: Tachycardia, tachypnea, delayed Growth
Congenital Heart Defects Goals: Decrease workload of the heart
Improve respiratory function
Maintain proper nutrition
Sickle Cell Anemia • Hydration, Oxygenation & Pain management (HOP)
INFANT: LYMPH, INFECTIOUS DISORDERS, IMMUNE SYSTEM
Acquired Immune
• Signs and symptoms seen at approximately 1 to 2 years of age
Deficiency syndrome
B. Immunizations
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Health Promotion: Assess client’s for the need for immunizations, required and recommended.
DTaP Vaccine
• Total of five given
Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis
Should be given at: • 2 months • 4 months
IPV Vaccine • Between 6 & 18 months
Inactivated Poliovirus • Between 4 & 6 years of age
• Total of 4 doses
This vaccine helps protect young children from developing:
PCV Vaccine
• Meningitis
Pneumococcal
• Blood infection (sepsis)
• CHECK FOR EGG ALLERGY FIRST!
• Not given to anyone younger than 6 months of age.
Influenza Vaccine • The inactivated flu vaccine (flu shot) is recommended for:
- All children 6- 23 months of age
Flu
- Children 24 months and older with certain medical
conditions such as asthma, chronic heart or lung disorders,
or an imapired immune system
• CHECK FOR EGG ALLERGY FIRST!
MMR Vaccine
• May be combined or separate
Measles, mumps, & rubella
• Teach: DO NOT GET PREGNANT WITHIN 3 MONTHS!
TD Vaccine
• Recommended for anyone over age 7
Combined tetanus & diphtheria
• 3 C’s:
Tracheal • Coughing
Esophageal Fistula • Choking
• Cyanosis
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Treatment:
Thrush
• Nystatin suspension; apply with cotton swab
• Treatment:
• Thicken feedings
• pyloromyotomy (Fedet - Ramstedt Procedure)
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INFANT: Intestinal Disorders
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IV. Toddler
TODDLER: Integumentary Disorders
• Highly contagious • Contact precautions
Impetigo • Group A Strep • Antibiotic therapy
• Child has characteristic honey crusted lesions
Burns • Rule of nines up to 12 years old
• Isolate known infected persons
Tinea Capitis (scalp) • Antifungal ointment (Lotrimin – clortrimazole)
Tinea corporis (body) • Oral Griseofulvin: • Hepatotoxic
Tinea pedis (feet) • Give with fatty meal
• Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight
TODDLER: Musculoskeletal Disorders Fractures/Traction
• Used for children under 2 years of age
Bryants • What type of restraints should be on hand? A jacket restraint to prevent
turning and twisting out of alignment
Bucks extension • Short term immobilization, or for bone deformities
(skin traction) • The body acts as a counterweight
• Padded sling under the knee
Russell
• Check position so hip flexion is maintained
(skin traction)
• Damage to nerve under knee may cause foot drop
TODDLER:Genitourinary Disorders
• Common in boys age 2 to 7 years of age
Nephrosis
• Periorbital edema first sign
• Urethral opening on ventral surface of penis
Hypospadias • Foreskin may be needed for surgical repair
• Baby should not be circumcised
• Non tender, malignant mass of kidney
• Felt in abdomen near liver
Wilm’s Tumor
• Do not palpate - the mass may rupture
• Treatment – nephrectomy and chemotherapy
TODDLER: Cardiovascular System
• Limit milk to 24 oz./day
• Treat with supplemental iron – ferrous sulfate
• Increase vitamin C to aid absorption
Iron Deficiency Anemia
• Give liquid via straw to prevent teeth discoloration
• Give deep IM using Z track
• May cause dark colored stools
TODDLER: Gastrointestinal Disorders
• Intense pruritis at night
• Strict hand washing
Pinworms • Treat all family members.
• Treatment: Vermox (mebendazole) – single dose.
• Dose may need to be repeated in 2 – 3 weeks
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Child Abuse:
• Be alert for contradiction between injury and explanation of cause.
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PRESCHOOL: Respiratory Disorders
• Frequent swallowing is a sign of bleeding
Tonsillectomy • Post op – monitor for stridor; encourage fluids and fruit ices
• NO RED liquids
• Children under 4 at high risk
Choking hazards • Objects with small removable parts
• Several foods (hotdog, popcorn, grapes, hard candy etc.)
PRESCHOOL : Gastrointestinal Disorders
• Common cause of diarrhea in young children
• Incubation period is 2 days
• Symptoms include vomiting, diarrhea, fever and abdominal pain
Rota virus • Transmission: oral – fecal route.
• Usual age of occurrence is 2 years of age
• Can be spread in day care centers
• Treatment includes: oral hydration, & hospitalization if IVF are needed
• Backward flow of urine from the bladder into the kidneys - causes
Vesicoureteral Reflux recurrent UTI
• Treatment is surgery only in severe cases
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Erythema Infectiosum
• Characteristic red rash with “slapped face” appearance
5th disease
• Look for a rash in 4 to 14 days
• Caused by human paro virus B19
• Affects children 5 to 14 years of age
• Common in winter & spring
• Droplet precautions
• Pregnant women should not be in contact or care for the
infected child
PSYCHOSOCIAL INTEGRITY
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PSYCHOSOCIAL INTEGRITY
I. Overview of Mental Health Nursing
Mental illness = inability to cope with or manage stress- any disorder that affects mood or
behavior
1. Cultural and ethical considerations
2. Legal / ethical issues
3. Therapeutic communication versus blocks to communication
EFFECTIVE INEFFECTIVE
Humor, seeking support, problem-solving Denial, self blame, verbalization of inability to cope
Relaxation, physical recreation Inability to ask for help, problem solve or meet basic
needs, insomnia, withdrawal
Adjusting expectations Reluctance to participate in treatment plan
Destructive behavior toward self and others
Inappropriate use of defense mechanisms
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C. Somatic Therapy
1. Electroconvulsive (ECT):
• Used to treat depression, schizophrenia, & bipolar mania after medications have failed
• NPO
• No metals in hair, hair should be clean
• No caffeine
• post op - monitor for seizures
• Brain damage, temporary or permanent memory loss
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2. Psychopharmacology
A. ANTIPSYCHOTICS- PHENOTHIAZINES
TYPICAL - TREATS POSITIVE SYMPTOMS ATYPICAL - TREATS POSITIVE & NEGATIVE SYMPTOMS
• Thorazine (chlorpromazine) • Zyprexa (olanzapine)
prescribed for hiccups • Clozaril (clozapine) • Seroquel (quetiapine)
• Haldol (haloperidol) • Risperdal (risperidone) • Geodon (ziprasidone)
• Mellaril (thioridazide) • Abilify (aripiprazole)
• Prolixin (fuphenazine) • Causes Agranulocytosis - Check WBC Q week X 6
months; Q 2 weeks X 6 months
B. Antidepressants:
TRICYCLICS:
• Elavil (amitriptyline) Side Effects:
• Tofranil (imipramine) • Drowsiness
• Pamelor (nortriptyline) • Nocturnal enuresis 182
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a) Bipolar (manic-depression):
• Lithium- initial dose 600 mg tid blood level of 1.0 - 1.4 is desirable
• Check level 12 hours after last dose 2 times per week- take with food
• Maintenance dose - 300 mg to maintain a level of 0.6-1.2 mEq/L check monthly
• Toxicity greater than 1.5 mEq/L - Life threating S/E: arrhythmias, renal toxicity
• Increase sodium
SIde effects: blurred vision, polyuria, lethargy, vomiting, thirst
b) Postpartum Depression
• Occurs up to 6 months after child birth & not resolving in one or two weeks
• Inability to cope with infant care needs
• Treatment: same as depression and referral to PPD support groups
c) Dysthmic Disorder
3. ANXIETY:
MILD • Associated with every day life, can be motivating
VI. Personality Disorders
Unpredictable, self destructive behaviors
Suicide risk
Frequent displays of inappropriate anger
Borderline
Impulsiveness
Recurrent acts of crisis such as wrist cutting, overdosing or self injury
Treatment: group therapy, medications for mood & depression
Poor impulse control
Antisocial
Suicide risk
VII. Somatoform Disorders
• Onset prior to age 30
• Multiple physical complaints that cannot be explained medically
Hypochondrias Physical symptoms perceived as life threatening
Physical symptoms that involve more than one part of the body, but no physical
Somatization
cause can be found
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Catatonic type:
• Stupor or extreme motor agitation
• Inappropriate or bizarre body postures (body remains in a fixed position almost wax like)
• Echolalia: Involuntary repetition of words spoken by another person
• Echopraxia: Imitation of motions made by others
Disorganized type:
• Disorganized speech and behavior, inappropriate or flat affect
Undifferentiated type:
• Disorganized behaviors, psychotic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations)
Residual type:
• Absence of prominent psychotic symptoms, inappropriate affect, social withdrawal, eccentric
behavior
*Positive symptoms = increased mental experiences (thoughts, feelings, behaviors) than a normal mental state
*Negative symptoms = a lack of feelings or behaviors that are usually present 187
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AUDITORY PROCESSING/PERCEPTUAL ALTERATIONS
Delusion A false fixed belief
Illusion Misperception of a stimulus
Hallucination Sensory perception but there is no stimulus
DEFINITIONS
Akathisia Restlessness – give Cogentin (benztropine), Artane (trihexyphenidyl), or
Benadryl (diphenhydramine) (CAB)
Dystonia Muscle spasm
Akinesia Lethargy – feeling of fatigue and muscle weakness
Neologism Inventing new words which are only meaningful to that person
Clang association Rhyming words in a sentence that make no sense
Word Salad Disconnected /disorganized thoughts, using recognizable words that do
not make sense.
Flight of ideas Rapid change from one topic to another that is unrelated
Types: Symptoms:
Early Phase:
• Alzheimer’s type • Impaired abstract thinking, judgment &
• Vascular dementia impulse control
• HIV dementia • Neglect of personal appearance & hygiene
• Dementia due to general medical conditions Late Phase:
• Substance induced dementia • Aphasia - loss of speech
• Apraxia - loss of motor function
• Inability to perform ADL’s
Alzheimer’s Disease
• Slow, progressive loss of intellectual ability
Early Stage • Forgetfulness
• Difficulty in learning new things
• Increase in memory loss
Middle Stage • Social withdrawal
• Decreased ability to perform ADL’s
• Wanders
Middle- Late Stage • Unable to perform simple tasks without repetition
• Unable to recognize familiar objects and family
• Bedridden • Difficulty swallowing
Late Stage • Profound memory loss
• Weight loss, unable to speak or ambulate
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Medications to Increase Acetylcholine
Cognex Side effects: ataxia (unsteady gait, lack of coordination) loss of appetite,
(tacrine) hepatotoxicity, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
Aricept
Side effects: nausea, diarrhea, decreased heart rate
(donepezil)
Used to treat mild to moderate dementia of Alzheimer’s or Parkison’s
Exelon disease — take with food
(rivastigmine) Side effects: stomach pain, nausea, vomiting; anorexia, black, bloody or
tarry stools
Used to treat moderate to severe Alzheimer’s
Namenda Take with full glass of water
(memantine) Contraindicated with liver disease, kidney disease, seizures, cataracts
Side effects: dizziness, confusion, constipation, chest pain, tachycardia
Terms: Apraxia: impaired motor function
Agnosia: inability to recognize familiar objects
5 A’s Amnesia: memory loss
Anomia: inability to remember names of things
Aphasia: inability to speak
Reminiscence Group - participants are encouraged to talk about
past events at least once per week. Used in dementia - helps improve
cognition and improve mood along with improved functional ability.
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PRACTICE QUESTIONS
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2. A nurse is preparing assignments for the day. Which of A. a bipolar disorder who is screaming at the nurses
the following clients should the nurse see first? station
B. congestive heart failure has bi-pedal edema
A. A client with Diabetes Mellitus drinking 8L of fluid C. a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
per day has blood tinged urine in the urinary bag
B. A client who is post-operative day 7 after a coronary D. radon seed implants is seen ambulating in hall
artery bypass graft (CABG)
C. A client diagnosed with COPD with an oxygen 7. After receiving report a nurse is planning an
saturation of 92% assignment for the day. Which of the following should
D. A client with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) the nurse see first? The client
complaining of scant urine flow
A. requesting a bedpan
3. A nurse is preparing assignments for the day. Which B. complaining of pain 2/10 on a pain scale
of the following clients should the nurse see first? A C. with report of excessive tiredness
client with D. who did not receive a breakfast tray
A. Type II DM complaining of having cold feet 8. The nurse is caring for clients who were recently
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF) with SOB after removed from a falling building. Who would the nurse
ambulating see first? The client with
C. abdominal surgery with temperature of 101°
D. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) A. first degree burns and a sprained left ankle
with a CO2 of 50 B. dilated pupils and a small laceration to the left ear
C. a fracture of the right tibia and abdominal pain
4. A nurse is doing an assessment on several clients. D. confusion and soft tissue injuries
Which one of them would need follow up?
9. A nurse is preparing assignments for the day. Which
A. A client with chronic renal failure that did not void of the following clients should the nurse see first?
for 8 hours
B. A client with Bells Palsy complaining of tingling in A. A 48 y.o ventilator dependent client who needs a
the face sputum specimen
C. A client with Alzheimer’s disease sitting at the B. A 54 y.o on Bleomycin (Blenoxane) complaining
nursing station with lap buddy of vomiting
D. A client diagnosed with COPD with a pulse C. A 65 y.o with pneumonia who needs to start IV
oximetry of 92% antibiotics
D. A 72 y.o asthmatic complaining of SOB after using
Albuterol (Ventolin)
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10. Following an accident involving two cars and a bus, a 15. The nurse is teaching a group of new nurses about
nurse arrived upon the scene. Which of the following advance directives. Which of the following statements
clients should the nurse see first? A client indicates a need for clarification by the nurse?
12. The charge nurse is making assignments for the day. 16. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to identify
Which client would you assign to an RN floated from a situation that represents an example of invasion
Maternity to a Behavioral Health unit? of privacy. Which of the following if identified by the
student indicates an understanding of a violation of
A. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder this client right?
B. A client that frequently threatens the staff
C. A quiet patient A. Performing a procedure without consent
D. A very busy patient B. Telling the client that he or she cannot leave the
hospital
13. A nurse is caring for several infants. Which newborn is C. Threatening to give the client a medication
the priority to be seen first? D. Observing care provided to the client without the
client’s permission
A. A 1-hour old with mongolian spots
B. A 2-hour old with a respiratory rate of 70 17. The community health nurse is assigned to see four
C. A 3-hour old with a blood pressure of 80/40 clients. Which of the following clients will the nurse see
D. A 4-hour old with petechiae on the trunk first?
14. A nurse working on a pediatric unit is made aware of A. A 24 year old with gastro- esophageal reflux
the following situations. Which child is the priority to be disease who does not tolerate milk
seen first? B. A 32 year old with cancer of the esophagus who
has given away his favorite shirt
A. 1 year old with Tetralogy of Fallot with bluish C. A 44 year old with Crohn’s disease who is
discoloration to the lips while crying complaining of abdominal cramps
B. 2 year old with renal failure with a potassium level D. A 55 year old with a gastrostomy tube who will
of 6.4 mEq/L begin self- feeding for the first time
C. 3 year old diagnosed with Rheumatic Fever with
an elevated ESR rate
D. 4 year old diagnosed with Rota-Virus having 5
bowel movements per 8 hour shift
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18. After receiving report from the night nurse, which of 22. The nurse received change of shift report, which
the following patients should the nurse see first? of the following clients will take the highest priority
when planning care?
A. A 30- year old woman who is 38 weeks
pregnant complaining of a small amount of A. The client with (end stage renal disease) ESRD
vaginal bleeding who has not voided in ten hours
B. A 42- year old man with left sided weakness B. The client with inflammatory bowel disease
asking for assistance to the commode who has had a recent increase in restlessness
C. A 55-year old woman complaining of chills who is C. The client who is four hours post operative
scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy bladder biopsy and is experiencing hematuria
D. A 77-year old man with a nasogastric tube who D. The client who is diabetic experiencing tingling
had a gastrectomy yesterday of the toes
19. After receiving report, which of the following clients 23. The nurse arrives upon the scene of a multiple
should the nurse see first? vehicle accident with several injuries. Which of the
following client’s should the nurse evaluate first?
A. A 24-year-old with Steven Johnson Syndrome
that has a rash on the trunk A. A 16 year old female who is unresponsive with
B. A 36-year-old patient scheduled for a dilated pupils
colonoscopy who is refusing care B. A 22 year old male with deformity of the right
C. A 44-year-old client with Buerger’s disease arm who is reporting pain
complaining of tingling in the digits C. A 32 year old male with a small thigh
D. A 56-year-old in sickle cell crisis with an laceration
infiltrated IV D. A 50 year old female experiencing anxiety, and
generalized weakness
20. The nurse is caring for postpartum clients who had
vaginal deliveries within the last eight hours. The 24. The RN needs to make assignments for four
nurse should first assess the client who patients. The team consists of 3 LPN’s and 1 CNA.
Which of the following clients would be appropriately
A. has a pulse rate of 66 beats per minute assigned to the CNA (Certified Nursing Assistant)?
B. has saturated one perineal pad in two hours
C. reports swelling in her right calf A. the client who needs a simple dressing change
D. asks if her baby can sleep in the nursery of an abdominal wound
tonight B. client who needs irrigation of the colostomy
C. the client receiving parenteral feedings
21. The nurse is caring for four newborns in the nursery. D. the client requiring administration of an enema
Which of the following infants is the priority while prior to a surgical procedure
planning care? The infant who is
25. Which of the following clients is appropriate to
A. one hour old experiencing acracyanosis assign to an LPN for medication administration?
B. three hours old with nasal flaring
C. one hour old whose eyes appear crossed A. A 25 year old in sickle cell crisis who will need
D. three hours old with an edematous area on the Morphine intravenously
head B. A 36 year old post operative client who is using
a PCA pump
C. A 50 year old who will need Regular Insulin
coverage for a glucose reading of 240mg/dl
D. A 60 year old who needs Dopamine
intravenously for blood pressure management
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26. The charge nurse is making assignments for the day. 31. The nurse is making assignments for the day.
Which patient would you assign to the RN floated from Which assignment should be assigned to the
the Pediatric unit to the Emergency Department? LPN?
A. A 2 year old admitted with suspected ingestion of A. Application of wrist restraints
chlorine B. Collection of a 24 hour urine specimen
B. A 5 year old being treated for Asthma that is not C. Assisting a client to ambulate after surgery
responding to bronchodilators D. Initiation of the clients plan of care
C. A 7 year old brought to the department following a
motor vehicle accident 32. The nursing team consists of a RN/LPN and UAP.
D. A 10 year old awaiting admission following cast Which action should be appropriately assigned to
placement the LPN?
27. Which client would you assign to the new grad RN? A. Bathing a child admitted with chickenpox
B. Taking the vital signs of the recently admitted
A. The client admitted for suspected Guillian-Barre´ client
exacerbation C. Transporting a client to the chapel for noon
B. The client scheduled for transfer to the ICU time prayers
C. A client experiencing chest pain after coughing D. Insertion of an indwelling catheter for a client
D. A newly admitted client who needs the initial with urinary retention
assessment completed
33. In providing care for a client being treated for fluid
28. Which action should the nurse delegate to the UAP volume excess, which of the following interventions
when providing care for the client with CHF? would be best delegated to an experienced UAP?
Select all that apply.
A. Checking the clients weight daily
B. Teaching regarding dietary restrictions A. Monitor EKG readings
C. Monitoring the amount of pedal edema B. Obtain vital signs every 30 minutes
D. Notifying the physician about the presence of a C. Check for the presence of pedal edema
cough D. Insert IV line
E. Document hourly urine output
29. The Charge nurse is making assignments for the day. F. Measure weight
The team consists of the RN/LPN-LVN and UAP. Which
client is appropriate to assign to the UAP? 34. A mental health nurse is floated to work on the
medical surgical unit. Which client would be most
A. The client who had a stroke 4 days ago with left appropriate to assign to the nurse? A client that:
sided weakness who needs feeding
B. The client who needs assistance with oral A. is 4 hours post operative following
suctioning cholecystectomy
C. A recently admitted client who needs their vital B. has dehydration and needs IV fluids
signs taken C. has mechanical ventilation and needs to be
D. A client who requires chest physiotherapy every suctioned
shift D. is in traction for a broken femur
30. You are making assignments for the day. Which client
will you assign to the Maternal Health nurse who is
floated to the medical- surgical unit?
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10. The nurse should initiate protective precautions for the 6. A nurse is teaching a class to parents regarding
client who has appropriate toys for their infants. Which of the
following would be the most appropriate toy for a
A. Red Blood Cell Count (RBC) of 3,900/mm3 3 month-old?
B. Platelet count of 400,000μ/L
C. Hemoglobin (Hgb) 9.0 g/dl A. soft, colorful squeeze toys
D. White Blood Cell Count (WBC) 2,500/mm3 B. teething toys with small removable parts
C. soft padded books and blocks
Health Promotion and Maintenance D. low lying mobile in the crib
1. A nurse is caring for several infants, which finding is 7. A nurse is teaching a class to parents regarding
abnormal in a newborn? appropriate toys for their toddlers. Which of the
following would be the most appropriate toy for a
A. Presence of the moro reflex 2-year-old?
B. Positive babinski reflex
C. Closed posterior fontannel A. tricycle
D. Respiratory rate 38 and irregular B. rocking horse
C. puppets
2. A nurse is caring for a client experiencing late D. a ball to throw and catch
decelerations. The appropriate initial action by the
nurse is to: 8. The nurse is working in a pediatric clinic. A 2
month old baby is brought in for a well baby check
A. change the clients position up. The nurse should anticipate the following
B. notify the health care provider in charge vaccinations will be required during this visit
C. increase the Pitocin (Oxytocin) drip
D. decrease the IV fluid infusion A. Hepatitis B, Varicella, OPV
B. Hepatitis B, PCV, MMR
3. A nurse working in labor and delivery walks into the C. Hepatitis B, DTaP, HIb, IPV, PCV
room of a client that is 37- weeks- gestation and notices D. Hepatitis B, HIb, IPV, MMR, PCV
a prolapsed cord? The initial action of the nurse should
be to 9. A nurse working in a clinic is doing teaching
regarding sexually transmitted Infections. The
A. use a sterile glove to put cord back inside client cannot understand how syphillis was
B. place the client in trendelenburg position contracted because there has been no sexual
C. use a dry sterile gauze to cover the cord activity for several days. As part of teaching,
D. initiate Leopold’s Manuever to approximate the the nurse explains that the incubation period for
fetal positon syphilis is about:
4. A nurse is caring for a client experiencing mastitis. A. 1 month
Which action would be most appropriate? B. 1 week
C. 2 - 3 weeks
A. Advise the client to discontinue breast feeding D. 2 - 4 months
B. Encourage the client to express milk from the
breasts frequently 10. The nurse working in an adolescent clinic is
C. Apply ice chips every 15 minutes preparing to immunize a 14-year old female client
D. Encourage the client to wear a tight fitting bra with Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine.
Important data collection prior to administration
5. A nurse in the prenatal clinic is caring for a client. should include
The last normal menstrual period was from May 3,
2017 to May 8, 2017. Calculate the expected date of A. a history of the last Tetanus & Diphtheria (TD)
confinement (EDC). injection
B. checking for allergy to yeast
A. March 15, 2018 C. date of the last menstrual period
B. January 10, 2018 D. having the client sign a consent form
C. February 10, 2018
D. February 15, 2018
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11. The nurse is assessing a 5-month-old infant. The 4. A nurse is caring for a client who is racing around
nurse should expect the infant to the unit and wringing his hands. He is breathing
rapidly and complains of “feeling his heart racing
A. turn from abdomen to back very fast.” He said he feel like he is having a heart
B. say one syllable words attack. This anxiety can be interpreted as:
C. use index finger and thumb to grasp
D. sit without support A. Mild
B. Moderate
12. A client is admitted to Labor and Delivery at 38 weeks C. Severe
gestation. The nurse would be correct to state that D. Panic
the client is in the second stage of labor when
5. A nurse is teaching a parent of an adolescent with
A. the placenta is delivered severe depression signs of an impending suicide
B. bulging is seen in the perineum attempt. Which of the following should alert the
C. contractions are irregular parent of a high risk for suicide?
D. rubra lochia is noted
A. The adolescent sleeps most of the day
Psychosocial integrity B. The adolescent has a plan to kill herself
C. The adolescent has recently lost ten pounds
1. A nurse is caring for a client taking Thorazine D. The adolescent refuses to eat, and frequently
(Chlorpromazine). Which statement shows an forces herself to vomit
understanding of instructions regarding this
medication? The client states 6. An emergency room nurse is caring for a client with
suspected phenobarbitol use. Which of the following
A. “I will take my pills every time I hear voices” will result if the client has a barbituate addiction?
B. “I will drink extra fluid to prevent this dry mouth “
C. “ I will wear a wide brim hat up at the beach” A. Watery eyes, slow shallow breathing, frequent
D. “ I will stop my medication when I feel better” sniffing
B. Dilated pupils, shallow respirations, weak and
2. A client on an inpatient psychiatric unit believes the rapid pulse
staff is trying to poison her. The nurse should: C. Constricted pupils, respirations depressed,
nausea, vomiting
A. Explain that the staff is trust-worthy D. Sluggish pupils, increased respirations,
B. Allow the client see others eat their food decreased pulse
C. Offer factory-sealed foods and beverages
D. Taste the food in front of the client to prove it is 7. A nurse is assessing a client with major depression.
edible Which statement, if made by the nurse is most
appropriate?
3. The nurse is caring for a client with bipolar disorder
who has lithium (Lithotabs) prescribed. The nurse A. Tell me more about the voices you have been
should suggest that the client have which of the hearing
following snacks? B. You seem to be very angry, when did you last
feel happy?
A. A fresh fruit cup C. Have you had any thoughts of harming
B. Coffee and oatmeal cookies yourself?
C. Peanut butter and celery sticks D. When was the last time you had fun?
D. Raw vegetables
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8. The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a client Physiological Integrity: Basic care and
who is the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which Comfort
intervention should the nurse include in the plan of
care? 1. The nurse is teaching a class on nutrition. Which
of the following selections would be the highest in
A. Provide the client with finger foods K+?
B. Engage the client in competitive games
C. Encourage the client to avoids foods containing A. Corn, oatmeal, tomatoes
tyramine B. Carrot, broccoli, yogurt
D. Place the client on direct suicide observation C. Milk, sardines, beef
D. Potato, spinach, avocado
9. The nurse is admitting a 20-year-old client with anorexia
nervosa. The nurse should assess the client for 2. A nurse is caring for a client admitted with
Laënnec’s cirrhosis. Which vitamin supplement
A. stained enamel of the teeth may be necessary to include?
B. lanugo-type hair on body
C. persistent ringing in the ears A. Vitamin B6
D. white patches on the tongue B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B1
10. The nurse has attended a staff development conference D. Vitamin C
on cultural considerations for client’s receiving hospice
care. Which of the following statements if made by the 3. A nurse is caring for a client with Celiac disease.
nurse would require follow up? Which of the following statements shows that
teaching has been effective?
A. The family of a client of the Buddhist faith may ask
for a priest to be present at the time of death A. “I enjoy eating oatmeal for breakfast.”
B. The family of a client of the Jewish faith may B. “I dislike rice so it will be easy to avoid.”
request to have mirrors covered after the death of C. “I will have popcorn and juice while I am at
the client the movies.”
C. The family of a client of the Muslim faith may D. “I can have eggs with my rye toast.”
request that the body of the client be turned to face
the South East at the time of the client’s death 4. The nurse is observing a client with renal failure
D. The family of a client of the Hindu faith may request select foods from the lunch menu. Which of the
that the client body be bathed after the client’s following selections if made by the client would
death indicate a need for further teaching?
11. A 45 year old client who was recently diagnosed with A. Haddock and spaghetti
terminal cancer says to the nurse “If God could only B. Cereal with buttermilk
let me live long enough to put my daughter through C. Corned beef and rice
college, I wouldn’t mind dealing with this illness.” The D. Egg salad on wheat toast
nurse caring for this client recognizes this statement as
reflective of which stage of grieving? 5. Mr. Jones is being treated for uric acid stones.
While doing a dietary history, which of the
A. Denial following food choices demonstrates a need for
B. Acceptance further teaching?
C. Bargaining
D. Anger A. chicken and baked potatoes
B. asparagus and liver
C. scrambled eggs and cheese
D. pancakes and bacon
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6. A client is taking dyrenium (trimterene) and is observed 10. The nurse is attempting to collect a stool sample for
eating the following foods. Which foods should the occult blood. Which of the following foods should the
nurse instruct the client to avoid? client avoid prior to the test? Select all that apply:
A. fried chicken and rice A. Oranges
B. baked potatoes and fresh spinach B. Watermelon
C. pasta and gravy C. Bananas
D. macaroni and cheese and legumes D. Kiwi
E. Avocado
7. The nurse knows that the plan of care for a client with
severe Ulcerative Colitis would include which of the 11. A client is performing quadriceps sets to strengthen
following? the muscles used for walking. When performing
these exercises, the client contracts his quadriceps
A. Low protein, high carbohydrate diet with no change in muscle length and no joint
B. Low residue, high protein movement. What term does the nurse use to
C. High protein, high residue describe this type of exercise?
D. High carbohydrate, high protein __________________
8. While providing nutritional counseling for a client with
12. A nurse is teaching a client to ambulate with
a colostomy the client should be instructed to avoid
crutches. The crutch gait the nurse should teach a
the following foods. Select all that apply
client after a single leg amputation is the:
1. cabbage
2. corn
A. two point gait
3. strawberries
B. three point gait
4. parsley
C. four point gait
5. spinach
D. swing through gait
6. fish
7. popcorn
13. A client with left-sided weakness following a cerebral
8. turkey
vascular accident (CVA) is learning to ambulate with
a cane. The nurse should teach the client to
A. 1, 2, 5, 7, 8
B. 1, 2 ,3 ,6, 7
A. hold the cane on the left side and move the
C. 2, 3 ,5, 6, 8
cane with the right leg
D. 1, 2 ,5, 6, 7
B. hold the cane on the right side and move the
cane with the left leg
9. The nutritionist is providing counseling to several
C. hold the cane on the left side and move the
clients on the unit. They are discussing various
cane with the left leg
vitamins and minerals. Which of the following
D. hold the cane on the right side and move the
statements need to be corrected by the nurse?
cane with the right leg
A. vitamin B12 may be needed if a client has a
14. A nurse is caring for a client that recently had surgery.
gastrectomy
To promote healing of a large surgical incision, the
B. vitamin D is responsible for proper utilization of
nurse should encourage the client to increase the
calcium and phosphorous
following in the diet:
C. vitamin A can be found in squash, pumpkin, and
carrots
A. honey dew
D. vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is used to treat alcohol
B. apples
induced deficiency
C. oranges
D. banana’s
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17. A client is to receive 1500ml of ringers lactate (RL) over 22. A physician has selected a medication for a client
a period of 8 hours. The drop factor is 20gtts/ml. The with glaucoma that is to be administered one time
fluid should infuse at which of the following rates? per week. Which of the following medications is
a direct acting parasympathomimetic agent used
A. 43 gtts per minute as a miotic in the treatment of glaucoma?
B. 53 gtts per minute
C. 63 gtts per minute A. humorsol (demecarium)
D. 73 gtts per minute B. cyclogyl (cyclopentolate)
C. pilocarpine (pilocar)
18. The nurse is caring for a client with AIDS and is to D. timolol (timoptic)
administer Retrovir (AZT). Which of the following should
the nurse be aware of? 23. A client with Meniere’s disease is discharged
home from the hospital. While reviewing the
A. the drug may cause drowsiness medications prescribed which of the following
B. it is usually taken once a day in the morning statements if made by the client requires further
C. the client should avoid foods high in protein teaching?
D. the drug may cause renal and hepatic impairment
A. “The meclizine (antivert) will help with my
19. A client has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. dizziness.”
A prescription for Plaquenil (hydroxychloroquine) has B. “The diazepam (valium) will help to control
been prescribed. The nurse should inform the client: my vertigo.”
C. “The promethazine (phenergan) will help my
A. it will be necessary to have frequent opthalmological nausea.”
exams D. “The hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril) will
B. that the medication may cause diarrhea and require me to avoid food with potassium.”
hypertension
C. it is best absorbed on an empty stomach 24. The nurse is caring for a client taking the
D. fluid intake should be decreased in the first 48 medication Clozaril (Clozapine). Which of the
hours following statements if made by the client shows
that teaching has been effective?
20. A nurse is preparing to administer Cefazolin sodium
(Kefzol) IV. It is available as 500mg in 50 ml of 5% A. “I will increase my glucose intake.”
dextrose in water. It is to be administered over a 20- B. “I should include bulk and fluids in my diet”
minute period. The drop factor is 15 drops per milliliter. C. “I should expect a decrease in my risk of
How many drops per minute should the nurse regulate infection.”
the infusion to run at: D. “I must remember that hypertension is
__________________gtt/min common.”
21. A physician prescribes Ceftriaxone (rocephin) 2.5g 25. A student nurse is preparing to administer Cardura
IVBP every 8 hours for a client. The vial is labeled 5g (Doxazosin). Which of the following should be
per 10ml. The nurse would be correct to administer included in teaching? Select all that apply
_________ ml.
A. avoid driving
A. 1.25 ml B. expect increased libido
B. 2.5 ml C. double doses if one dose is missed
C. 3 ml D. continue to take cold remedies
D. 5 ml E. blurred vision may occur
F. palpitations are expected
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26. The nurse is teaching a client about the use of Amaryl 30. The nurse is teaching a client about the use of
(Glimepiride). Which of the following is a possible Cotazym (Pancrelipase). Which of the following
adverse reaction? if stated by the client shows a need for further
instruction?
A. hyperglycemia
B. thrombocytopenia A. “My capsules may be opened and sprinkled on
C. hypernatremia my food.”
D. leukocytosis B. “I will administer the medication before or with
my meals.”
27. The nurse is teaching a client about possible adverse C. “I should eat more chicken with this
reactions to the drug Thorazine (Chlorpromazine). medication.”
Which of the following should be included in client D. “My tablet can be mixed with apple sauce and
teaching? Select all that apply chewed.”
A. blurred vision may be expected 31. The nurse is collecting data from a clients chart who
B. avoid going to the beach is receiving Norvir (Ritonivir). Which of the following
C. diarrhea is common is not related to the use of this medication?
D. expect an increase in appetite
E. sugarless candy may be helpful A. cholesterol level of 250mg/dl
F. 10-25mg twice daily may be prescribed for B. calcium level of 15.0mg/dl
psychoses in an adult C. creatinine level of 5.0mg/dl
D. glucose level of 200mg/dl
28. The parent of a child taking Concerta (Methylphenidate)
calls the clinic and reports the following symptoms. 32. A nurse is doing data collection regarding commonly
The nurse knows which of the following is an expected used herbal products. Which of the following is not
side effect? true?
A. lethargy A. Black Cohash may be used for dysmenorrhea
B. increased appetite B. Don Quai should not be used while taking
C. weight gain aspirin
D. metallic taste in the mouth C. Echinachea may be used to treat Multiple
Sclerosis
29. The nurse is teaching a client about the use of D. Ephedra should not be used with coffee
the medication Prilosec (Omeprazole). Which of
the following if verbalized by the client shows an 33. A nurse is interviewing a client regarding the use
understanding? Select all that apply of several herbal remedies. Which of the following
statements if made by the client indicates a need for
A. “My tablet may be crushed and mixed with further teaching? Select all that apply
water.”
B. “I will ask my husband to drive my car.” A. “I usually take my Fever Few on an empty
C. “This medication should be taken before meals.” stomach.”
D. “Antacids will not interfere with absorption.” B. “Ginkgo Biloba helps my memory.”
E. “Dizziness is uncommon.” C. “The use of Hawthorne may contribute to my
F. “I can expect flatulence.” hypertension.”
D. “Kava Kava may contribute to my insomnia.”
E. “Valerian Root causes my insomnia.”
F. “Ginger may help with my nausea and
vomiting.”
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34. The nurse is teaching a class about diuretics. Which 39. A health care provider prescribes Digoxin
of the following diuretics require additional potassium (Lanoxin) for a client. It would be a priority for the
consumption? nurse to ask the client if they are using which of
the following herbal remedies?
A. midamor (amiloride)
B. aldactone (spironolactone) A. Ginseng
C. demadex (torsemide) B. Echinacea
D. dyrenium (triamterene) C. Aloe Vera
D. Black Cohash
35. A client drank 71/2 oz of apple juice, 6 oz of tea, and 8
oz of egg nog. The calculated intake would be: 40. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for
the client receiving Prozac (Fluoxetine). Patient
A. 515 ml teaching must include avoidance of which herbal
B. 585 ml remedy?
C. 625 ml
D. 645 ml A. St. Johns Wort
B. Echinacea
36. The nurse is caring for a 76 year old client whose past C. Valerian Root
medical history includes coronary artery disease. A D. Saw Palmetto
review of the laboratory results reveal: HDL 34, LDL
168 and total Cholesterol 270. Which of the following Physiological integrity: Reduction of Risk
medications might be included in the plan of care? Potential
A. Tagamet (Cimetidine) 300 mg po four times a day 1. The nurse is caring for a client with Chronic Renal
B. Coumadin (Warfarin Sodium) 2 mg po at bedtime Failure. Which lab is of most concern?
C. Questran (Choleystyramine) 4 gms po every day
D. Reglan (Metoclopramide) 10mg po as needed A. potassium 7.2 mml/L
B. creatinine 15 mg/dl
37. While administering Actonel (Risedronate) the nurse is C. blood urea nitrogen 68 mg/dl
aware of the importance of which the following health D. calcium 7.8 mg/dl
teachings?
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is complaining of
A. remain in a sitting position for 30 minutes after muscle spasms and rigidity. It would be a priority
administration for the nurse to check which lab value?
B. take medication after breakfast daily
C. change position slowly while taking this A. K+
medication B. NA+
D. monitor the pulse rate prior to administration C. Ca+
D. mg-
38. A nurse is teaching a class on common medications
used in Labor and Delivery. The nurse would be 3. A nurse is reviewing the chart and notes the
correct to state that the drug used to stimulate lung following values. Which lab result is of most
development in the fetus is concern?
A. Terbutaline (Brethine) A. K+ 5.2 meq/L
B. Oxytocin (Pitocin) B. Na+ 134 meq/L
C. Hydralazine (Apresoline) C. Ca+ 10.9 mg/dL
D. Bethamethasone (Celestone) D. Mg- 0.8 meq/L
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4. A nurse is caring for a client with Multiple Myeloma. 9. Which of the following statements regarding cancer
The nurse would expect abnormalities in which of the is false?
following lab values?
A. young men ages 15-30 are at high risk for
A. ammonia testicular cancer
B. red blood cells B. the risk for cancer of the prostate increases
C. glucose with age
D. potassium C. early cervical cancer rarely produces
symptoms
5. A nurse is reviewing a client’s record and notes that D. pap smears are essential to detect uterine
the physician documented that the client has a renal cancer
disorder. Which of the following would be indicative of
the condition? 10. While teaching a class about the risks for breast
cancer the nurse should include which of the
A. hemoglobin level of 16 following risk factors? Select all that apply:
B. potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
C. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 40mg/dl A. Early onset of menstruation
D. white blood count of 5,000 B. Low fat diet
C. Menopause after age 55
6. The nurse is visiting a client with renal calculi. Which D. First child late in life
of the following statements if made by the client E. Nulliparity
indicates a need for further teaching? F. History of fibrocystic breast disease
A. “I will eats lots of spinach and take my calcium 11. A client who has had a colostomy is one day
supplements daily” postoperative. A nurse assesses that the client’s
B. “I will take my pain medication as prescribed” colostomy stoma is moist and pink with no drainage.
C. “If I have burning during urination I will notify the Which of these actions should the nurse take?
heath care provider”
D. “I will increase my fluid intake to 2000 ml per A. Irrigate the colostomy with normal saline
day” B. Apply petroleum gauze dressing to the stoma
C. Document the condition of the stoma
7. Your client has received intravenous fluids for 3 days D. Palpate the abdomen around the stoma
postoperatively. You plan to observe for signs of fluid
overload. You know that the signs of fluid overload 12. The nurse is assessing a new graduate nurse
include who is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube.
The nurse would intervene immediately if the new
A. weight loss graduate
B. decrease in blood pressure
C. decreased inspiratory rate A. Instilled 30 ml of normal saline into the tube as
D. coughing and wheezing she placed her stethoscope over the stomach
to listen for bowel sounds
8. A 45-year-old male who has just had a routine pre- B. Stated “the length of the tube placement is
employment physical had the following laboratory determined by measuring from the nostril to the
results. Which laboratory finding warrants further and earlobe to the zyphoid process”
prompt investigation? C. Aspirated 30cc of gastric contents and replaced
the fluid after confirmation of placement
A. hemoglobin of 16 g/dl D. Asked the patient to sit in high fowlers position
B. white blood count of 7500/cm3 before initiating the feeding
C. prostate specific antigen of 19.6ng/ml
D. blood urea nitrogen of 15 mg/dl
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13. An emergency room physician is caring for a child 17. A client was recently admitted into the emergency
brought into the emergency room after swallowing a cup room reporting rapidly progressing visual
of chlorine bleach. After interviewing the parent, which impairment and loss of peripheral vision. The
of the following would cause the greatest concern? most likely diagnosis for this client is:
A. the parent called the poison control center to obtain A. macular degeneration
information B. closed angle glaucoma
B. the parent administered a glass of milk C. exacerbation of cataracts
C. the parent administered syrup of ipecac D. retinal detachment
D. he parent attempted to perform CPR when the
child could not respond 18. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of
gout. Which of the following laboratory values
14. A nurse is using the Glasgow coma scale to assess would the nurse expect to note in the client?
a client who had a head injury. During assessment,
the following is observed: Eyes open to speech, motor A. uric acid level of 9.0mg/dl
response appropriate, client obeys commands, and B. calcium level of 9.0mg/dl
conversation is confused. The client should receive a C. phosphorous level of 3.0mg/dl
score of: D. potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
A. 3-5 19. The nurse is caring for an adult client that was
B. 6-10 injured in a welding accident. According to the
C. 11-13 “rule of nines,” burn victims experiencing burns
D. 14-15 to their anterior chest and arm have an injury that
approximates:
15. The nurse is caring for a client status post trauma to the
brain. The nurse should be aware that the normal range A. 9% of their body surface
of intracranial pressure is: B. 18% of their body surface
C. 27% of their body surface area
A. 5-8 mm hg D. 36% of their body surface area
B. 10-20 mm hg
C. 20-35 mm hg 20. A nurse is caring for a client that recently had
D. 75-120 mm hg surgery on the left inner ear and is being discharged
home. Which of the following statements if made
16. The nursing student is caring for a client with Ménière’s by the client would indicate a need for further
Disease. Which of the following actions if taken by the teaching?
student would be most appropriate?
A. “My hair will smell since I cannot wash it.”
A. The student offers the client salted pretzels and B. ”I will open my mouth if I have to cough.”
water for snack C. “My airplane will leave at 9:00AM.”
B. The client is offered Benadryl with a small sip of D. “My husband will have to tie my shoes.”
water
C. The client is encouraged to ambulate frequently in 21. The nurse is caring for a client who underwent
the hall surgical repair of a detached retina of the right
D. The student places the client in a room close to the eye. Which of the following interventions should
nurses station the nurse perform? Select all that apply.
A. place the client in the prone position
B. approach the client from the left side
C. encourage deep breathing and coughing
D. discourage bending at the waist
E. orient the client to his environment
F. administer a stool softener as prescribed
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22. The patient with emphysema reports dyspnea at night. 26. The nurse has attended a staff development
Which of the following positions would be appropriate conference on preparing clients for neurological
for the nurse to advise the patient’s wife to use at diagnostic tests. Which of the following statements,
night? if made by the nurse would require follow-up?
A. Lying flat with one pillow A. “The electromyogram (EMG) is performed
B. Side lying with the head propped up by introducing small needle electrodes into
C. Supine position with 4 pillows under his head muscles.”
D. Place the patient in a recliner to sleep B. “After having a Positron Emission Tomography
(PET) of the head the client can resume normal
23. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. activities.”
Expected findings for this disorder include: Select all C. “The electroencephalogram (EEG) will require
that apply the client to be NPO for 12 hours before the
test.”
A. Diarrhea D. “After the lumbar puncture (LP) the client will
B. Dry skin need to lie flat for about 3 hours
C. Anorexia
D. Tachycardia 27. While doing a routine check up with the gynecologist,
E. Excessive menstruation a 32 year old client complains of frequent yeast
F. Heat intolerance infections. The nurse knows which of the following
may be noted?
24. The nurse is caring for a client with hypothyroidism.
Expected findings for this disorder include: Select all A. a fasting glucose of 132 mg/dl
that apply B. a white blood count of 10,000 cc mm
C. a HGB (hemoglobin) of 15 mg/dl
A. Constipation D. a BUN (blood urea nitrogen) of 19 mg/dl
B. Dry skin
C. Anorexia 28. The nurse is assessing a client who is 5 hours
D. Insomnia status post a transurethral resection of the prostate
E. Bradycardia (TURP). Which of the following findings requires
F. Palpitations immediate intervention?
25. A nurse is teaching a client being discharged after A. bladder spasms
surgery on the right eye for glaucoma. Which of the B. abdominal distention
following statements if made by the client requires C. blood tinged urine
further teaching? D. nausea
A. “I will avoid wearing restrictive clothing” 29. A client who has had a spinal cord injury is scheduled
B. “I will ask my wife to tie my shoes” for discharge. To prevent autonomic dysreflexia a
C. “I will formulate a new exercise plan” nurse should instruct the client to avoid
D. “I will sleep on my left side”
A. foods that are spicy
B. people who have upper respiratory infections
C. developing urinary retention
D. emotional stress
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30. The nurse has become aware of the following situations. 3. The nurse is instructing a class on common
It would be a priority for the nurse to follow-up if a client neurological disorders. Which of the following
who statements, if made by the nurse is incorrect?
A. had a gasterectomy lies down for 30 minutes after A. Guillain-Barre is characterized by ascending
eating paralysis and may be caused by a predisposing
B. had a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) event such as respiratory or gastrointestinal
24 hours ago reports blood in the urinary bag infection
C. had a fractured femur 2 days ago reports a rash on B. Alzheimer’s disease affects males and
the chest females equally and may be caused by a
D. removed a hearing aid requests a toothpick for decrease in acetylcholine
cleaning C. Parkinson’s disease may be linked to
environmental trauma and is commonly
31. A nursing student is positioning a client that has just treated with Levodopa
returned to the unit after a liver biopsy. The nursing D. Multiple Sclerosis is common in middle aged
student would be correct to position the client adults and can be confirmed with the tensilon
test
A. in the trendelenburg position
B. on the right side with a small pillow 4. A nurse is noted to ask a client to protrude the
C. on the abdomen with the legs abducted tongue and move it from side to side. Which
D. in semi-fowlers position with the head of bed cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
elevated 45 degrees
A. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
B. Vagus (X)
Physiological Integrity: Physiological C. Spinal accessory (XI)
Adaptation D. Hypoglossal (XII)
1. A nurse is providing care for a client with Type I DM 5. A community health nurse is teaching a class
complaining of a headache. What should the nurse do about the risks for developing cervical cancer.
first? The nurse would be correct in saying that risks
include: select all that apply
A. Give one cup of orange juice
B. Call the nurse in charge A. sex after age 20
C. Check the clients glucose level B. a history of fibroids
D. Administer insulin as prescribed C. nulliparity
D. smoking
2. A client is experiencing acute renal failure that is post E. multiple sex partners
renal in nature. The nurse should know that this is F. exposure to the human papilloma virus
probably due to (HPV)
A. cardiogenic shock 6. The nurse is caring for a client who reports
B. hypovolemia right side facial pain associated with drinking
C. nephrotoxic substances hot beverages. The nurse suspects a possible
D. urethral obstruction diagnosis of
E. “I will sleep on my left side”
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Bell’s Palsy
C. Guillian Barre’ Syndrome
D. Transient Ischemic Attack
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A. urinary frequency
B. hyponatremia
C. dehydration
D. specific gravity of 1.030
E. increased thirst
F. preference for hot liquids
10. The nurse is reviewing a client’s arterial blood gas
(ABG) results which reveal the following: pH: 7.35;
PaO2: 75 mm Hg; PaCO2: 55 mm Hg; HCO3: 30
mEq/L. The nurse should recognize that this result is
suggestive of which acid base imbalance?
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Rationales
9. D. Albuterol is a short acting bronchodilator which
Safe, Effective Care Environment: should improve breathing. If there is no change in
Management of care respiratory effort, this client is the priority.
1. C. The statement further teaching indicates you 10. A. Restlessness and combativeness are signs of
are looking for an incorrect response. Clients of the hypoxia. This client would take priority. According
Mormon faith abstain from alcohol, coffee, and tea. to disaster triage Choices B and D are (priority level
Choices A, B, and D are correct. 3) and choice C is a (priority level 2).
2. A. Average fluid intake is 1500-2500ml per day. 8L or 11. B. Jitteriness is indicative of opioid withdrawal in
8,000ml can result in fluid volume excess. Choices B, the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are normal for a
C, and D are expected findings. newborn.
3. C. A client with a temperature of 101◦ may indicate an 12. C. A quiet patient is most likely exhibiting signs
infection. This client should be seen first. According to of depression. The maternity nurse can manage
the nursing theorist “Orem” a client with an infection this patient. Clients A, B, and D should be cared
has an “Air” need. Choices A, B, and D are expected for by the behavioral health nurse who has more
findings. experience in this area.
4. C. The term follow up indicates you need to intervene. 13. B. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30-
The client with a lap tray or (lap buddy) needs 60 per minute. A rate of 70 indicates tachypnea
intervention as this is considered an illegal restraint. suggestive of distress. Choices A, C, and D are
Choices A, B, and D are expected findings. normal findings.
14. B. The normal potassium level is 3.5-5.5 mEq/L.
5. C. Vomiting and diarrhea can be managed on a non- Hyperkalemia places the client at risk for arrythmias.
emergent basis; clients reporting “indigestion” may be This infant is the priority. Choices A, C, and D are
experiencing a cardiac event; clinical manifestations expected findings.
suggestive of abdominal aortic aneurysm include
abdominal mass and abdominal throbbing; the client 15. C. The need for clarification indicates that you are
who is 6 weeks pregnant experiencing abdominal looking for an incorrect statement. A dying client does
pain must be evaluated to rule out ectopic pregnancy have the right to refuse food therefore clarification is
which could be life threatening. needed. Choices A, B, and D are correct findings.
6. D. A client with radon seed Implants should be on 16. D. Clients have the right to privacy while hospitalized.
absolute bed rest in a private room to avoid emission Permission should be granted prior to observation
of radioactive material. Clients should also avoid of any care provided.
infants and pregnant women. Choices A, B, and C
are expected findings. 17. B. Clients that give away their favorite possessions
may be an increased suicide risk. This client should
be seen first. Choices A, C, and D can be seen at a
7. C. Excessive tiredness may be a sign of hypertension later time.
or increased intracranial pressure. This client should
be seen first. Choices A, B, and D are not a priority 18. C. Chills may indicate a temperature elevation.
at this time. According to the nursing theorist “Orem” a client with
an infection has an “Air” need. This client should be
8. D. Confusion is the first sign of increased intracranial seen first.
pressure and or hypoxia. According to disaster
triage choices A and C are considered (priority level 19. D. Priorities for a client in sickle cell crisis include
3) and choice B is a (priority level 4) which are lower oxygenation, hydration, and pain relief. Choices A,
priorities. B, and C can wait to be seen at a later time.
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20. C. Reports of swelling in the calf 8 hours postpartum 31. A. This task can safely be delegated to the LPN. Choice
may be suggestive of the development of a deep vein B & C should be delegated to the UAP. Initiation of the
thrombosis, a potentially life threatening condition. client’s plan of care should be done by the RN
Immediate intervention is needed; other symptoms
include pain, warmth, chills, diminished peripheral 32. D. Choices A and C would be most appropriate to
pulses, erythema, or shiny white skin on the extremity. delegate to a UAP. Choice B requires assessment and
should be seen by the RN.
21. B. Nasal flaring in an infant indicates respiratory
distress; therefore this infant is the priority. Choices A, 33. B, E, F are correct. Choices A, C, and D should be
C, and D are expected findings in a neonate. done by a nurse.
22. B. Restlessness is suggestive of hypoxia so this client 34. B. Administration of intravenous fluids has a predictable
should be seen first. Choices A, C, and D are expected outcome. A, D and C require the more experienced
findings. med-surg nurse
6. C. A client with low grade fever and night sweats is 4. B. A client with mastitis should relieve the breasts of
exhibiting signs of tuberculosis (TB). TB requires airborne milk frequently. This should be done by encouraging
isolation. Choices A and B do not require a private room. the baby to suck or by using a breast pump if the
A client with leukemia may require a private room if they baby is unable to suck. Choices, A, C, and D are
are immunosuppressed. However, they would not take incorrect.
priority over a client with TB.
5. C. Subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day
7. B. The CDC guidelines mandate the use of a N95 of the last normal menstrual period (LNMP). Add
respirator mask prior to entry into a room with a client on one year if the pregnancy occurs in April through
airborne precautions. The surgical mask is appropriate December.
when coming within 3 feet of the person on droplet
precautions. 6. A is correct. Small removable parts are unsafe.
Blocks are appropriate for a 2 year old a low lying
8. B. When responding to a fire, there are four sequential mobile is a strangulation hazard.
priorities that must be followed: Rescue the clients,
which was already done in this situation, Alarm (call for 7. B. is correct. A tricycle and puppets are appropriate
additional help), Confine the fire, Extinguish the fire. for an older toddler (age 3). A ball to throw and catch
is appropriate for a 5-year-old.
9. C. Placing a client in prone position after above the knee
amputation is done to prevent contractures; following 8. C. This indicates the 2008 recommended schedule
supratentorial surgery the head of the bed is elevated for routine administration of childhood vaccines at
30 degrees to promote venous outflow. Removing all this age.
liquids is not necessary for clients experiencing Dumping
Syndrome. The client should be taught to avoid drinking 9. C. The time between infection with syphilis and the
with meals. start of the first symptom can range from 10 to 90
days (average 21 days).
10. D. A white blood cell count of 2,500/mm3 is low therefore
the client is at risk for infection. Protective precautions 10. C. The MMR vaccine should not be administered
should be implemented. The normal White blood cell within 3 months of pregnancy. A yeast allergy should
count (WBC) is 5,000 – 10,000/mm3; The normal red be assessed prior to administering the Hepatitis B
blood cell count (RBC) is 4 – 5 million/mm3, a deficit
vaccine. Choices A and D are incorrect.
of red blood cells is indicative of anemia. The normal
platelet count is 150,000 – 400,000µ/Liter. A low platelet
count predisposes the client to bleeding; the normal 11. A is correct. The infant should be able to say a one
hemoglobin value is 13.5 – 18g/dl male and 12 -16g/dl syllable word at approximately 6 months, sit without
female. Low hemoglobin is suggestive of anemia and support at 8 months and use the pincer grasp
possible active bleeding. between 9 and 11 months of age.
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3. C. The client receiving Lithium (Eskalith) should 11. C. During the bargaining stage the client attempts to
be careful to include sodium in the diet to prevent negotiate to prolong their life. Kübler-Ross identified
hyponatremia which predisposes the client to the stages of death and dying as denial (disbelief),
Lithium toxicity; Caffeine should be avoided anger (hostility), bargaining, depression (sadness)
because of the diuretic effect which will further and acceptance (coming to terms with death).4.
increase the risk of hyponatremia; There is no
contraindication for fresh fruit or raw vegetables. Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort
4. D. Panic is a form of anxiety that is characterized 1. D. Potato, spinach and avocado are all sources of
by unexpected and repeated episodes of intense potassium. This is the best choice.
fear accompanied by physical symptoms that may
include chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness 2. C. Laënnec’s cirrhosis, common in alcoholics can
of breath, dizziness, or abdominal distress lead to thiamine deficiency. Deficiency of this vitamin
can lead to alcoholic brain disease.
5. B. When a client actually has a plan they are at
the highest risk to commit suicide. 3. C. Barley, rye, oat and wheat (BROW) are foods to be
avoided with Celiac Disease. Corn (popcorn) and rice
6. B. is correct. A, C, and D are incorrect choices. are allowed.
7. C. When clients have thoughts of harming 4. C. Clients with renal failure require decreased sodium
themselves they are more likely to carry out the in the diet. Corned beef is high in sodium.
act. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
5. B. Clients with an increase in uric acid or Gout should
8. A. A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder decrease purine in the diet. Foods such as organ meat,
may have difficulty meeting nutritional needs sweetbread, sardines, beer, mushroom, spinach,
because of their inability to sit still; competitive asparagus and anchovies should be avoided.
games are avoided because the client is
hyperactive, impulsive and distractible. Structured 6. B. Dyrenium is a potassium sparing diuretic and foods
activity is more appropriate; foods containing
high in potassium should be avoided.
tyramine are avoided in clients prescribed MAO
inhibitors; placing the client on suicide observation
may be indicated during the depressed phase. 7. B. is correct.
9. B. Lanugo type hair on the body is a characteristic 8. B. Cabbage, strawberries and popcorn may cause
of anorexia nervosa; stained enamel of the teeth an obstruction, fish is odor producing. These foods
is associated with bulimia nervosa related to should be avoided.
the frequent vomiting; persistent ringing in the
ears and white patches on the tongue are not 9. D. Vitamin B1 (thiamine) is used to treat alcohol
associated with anorexia nervosa. induced deficiency not B6.
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13. B. The proper technique to be used when teaching a 10. 18.9ml or if instructed to round 19ml/hr
client to ambulate with a cane is to hold the cane in Formula: Desire X Volume X Weight X Min.
the hand opposite the affected leg. Have
Remember 2.2 lbs = 1 kg 185 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 84.09 kg
14. C. Vitamin C is necessary to improve wound healing.
Oranges and other citrus fruit are a good source of
3mcg X 500ml X 84.09 kg X 60 minutes
vitamin C.
400 mg
OR Desire 20 mEq X Volume 5ml 23. D. The phrase further teaching indicates that you
are looking for an incorrect response. Clients on
Have 10 mEq
hydrochlorothiazide need additional potassium as it
is a potassium wasting diuretic.
15. 3.2 ml
80mg : Xml :: 125mg : 5ml
24. B. Constipation is a common side effect of Clozaril.
125 X = 400 = 3.2 ml
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperglycemia,
125 125 an elevated white blood count and hypotension are
common.
OR Desire 80 mg X Volume 5ml
Have 125 mg 25. A, E, and F are correct. Cardura may decrease libido.
Choices C and D are incorrect.
16. B, C, F are correct. A, D, E are incorrect
26. B. is correct. Hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, and
17. 63 gtts per minute (62.5) leukopenia are possible adverse reactions.
Volume 1500ml X drop factor 20 gtts/ml = 27. A, B, E, and F are correct. Constipation and anorexia
Minutes (60X8) = 480 are common.
18. D. AZT causes insomnia not drowsiness. It 28. D is correct. Hyperactivity, anorexia, and weight loss
should be taken around the clock. There is no are common adverse reactions.
direct relationship with protein.
29. B, C, D, and F are correct. Prilosec should not be
19. A. Plaquenil may cause retinopathy and/or vi- crushed. Dizziness is a common adverse reaction.
sual disturbances. Dark glasses may be worn
in sunlight to decrease this risk. Hypotension 30. D. Cotazym should not be chewed therefore further
is common. It should be taken with food or
teaching is required.
milk to minimize GI distress not on an empty
stomach. It is not necessary to decrease fluids
31. B. An elevated calcium level is not expected with the
while taking Plaquenil. use of Ritonivir. Hyperlipidemia, renal insuficiency
and hyperglycemia are common.
20. 38 gtt/ min
32. C. Echinacea is contraindicated in clients with
Multiple Sclerosis. Choices A, B, and D are correct.
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33. A, C, and E. The phrase need for further teaching 6. A. a client with renal stones should avoid foods
indicate you are looking for an incorrect response. A, with high oxylate content. These include but
C, and E are incorrect. Fever Few should be taken are not limited to; spinach, eggplant, chocolate,
with food. Hawthorne causes hypotension and Valerian beer, peanuts, oatmeal, strawberries, kiwi, and
root is used to treat insomnia. Choices B, D, and F are drinking beer. Also, a diet high in calcium causes a
correct. predisposition to renal calculi.
34. C. Demedex is not potassium sparing, therefore 7. D. Coughing and wheezing may indicate left sided
additional potassium is indicated when using this heart failure as a result of fluid volume excess.
medication.
8. C. PSA levels of 4ng/ml warrant further diagnostic
35. D. 645 ml. 7.5 + 6 + 8 = 21.5 testing. Levels of 10 or greater may suggest prostate
Remember 30 ml equals 1 ounce infection, inflammation or cancer.
21.5 X 30 = 645
9. D. Pap smears can only detect cervical not uterine
36. C. Questran is a lipid lowering agent. cancer. Choices A, B, and C are true.
37. A. Actonel should be taken 30 minutes prior to breakfast. 10. A, C, D, E are true. Choices B and F are not risk
The client should be encouraged to participate in factors for the development of breast cancer.
exercise. The pulse rate does not need to be monitored
prior to administration. 11. C. A stoma that is moist and pink is normal. No
further interventions are needed at this time.
38. D. Glucocorticoids are given to stimulate growth in the
lungs of the fetus. Brethine is given to control premature 12. A. 30 ml of air should be instilled. The installation of
contractions. Apresoline is given for hypertension and normal saline or any liquid can result in aspiration.
Pitocin may be given to induce labor.
13. C. The poison control center should be called
39. C. Aloe Vera may increase the risk for Digoxin toxicity. first. Administering Syrup of IPECAC may result
in damage to internal organs and structures as
40. A. St. John’s Wort is contraindicated with the use of the substance is regurgitated. The national poison
Prozac as they both have an antidepressant effect. control telephone number is 1-800-222-1222.
14. C. The glascow coma scale is the most widely used
Physiological integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential scale to quantify level of consciousness following
traumatic brain injury. The maximum score is 15 the
1. A. Hyperkalemia increases the risk for cardiac changes minimal score is 3. Levels less than 8 indicate a
including weak pulse and cardiac arrest. This lab result coma. The following scores should be given. Eye
opening to speech (3), client obeys commands (6),
is the priority at this time.
confused conversation (4) total 13.
2. C. These symptoms are representative of
hypocalcemia. 15. B. is correct.
3. D. The lab value that is most deviated from normal is 16. B. is correct. Sodium should be restricted. The
the magnesium. Normal magnesium level is 1.3-2.1 mg/ client is encouraged to remain still and rest in a
dl. The normal calcium level is 9.3-10.9 mg/dl, normal quiet environment.
sodium is 1345-145 mmol/L and normal potassium is
3.5-5.5 mEq/L. 17. B. Glaucoma is characterized by loss of peripheral
vision. Macular degeneration is characterized by
4. B. Multiple Myeloma causes an interference with red loss of central vision. Cataracts cause opacity of
the lens. Retinal detachment will cause the client to
blood cell, white blood cell and platelet production.
have an increase in the number of floaters or see
“flashing lights”.
5. C. An increase in BUN indicates an impairment in renal
function. Choices A, B, and D are normal.
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19. C. According to the “Rule of Nines” the anterior 1. C. The nurse should assess the client’s glucose level
chest accounts for 18% plus 9% for the arm before proceeding to the subsequent steps.
totaling 27%.
2. D. Post renal failure is caused by an acute obstruction
20. C. Flying in an airplane will cause an increase that affects the normal flow of urine out of both kidneys.
in pressure which is contraindicated after ear The blockage causes pressure build in all of the renal
surgery. Choices A, B, and D are correct therefore nephrons. The excess pressure causes the kidneys
no further teaching is required. to shut down. Cardiogenic shock and hypovolemia
cause pre renal ARF. Nephrotoxins result in intrarenal
21. B, D, E, F. The client should be placed on the ARF.
affected side. Coughing is contraindicated after
eye surgery. 3. D. Myasthenia Gravis is diagnosed using the tensilon
test. Choices A, B, and C are correct.
22. C. High fowlers or orthopneic position is most
appropriate for a client having difficulty breathing. 4. D. The hypoglossal nerve controls tongue movements.
The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves are assessed
23. A, D, F Dry skin and anorexia are common in a by eliciting the gag reflex. The spinal accessory nerve
client with hypothyroidism. Menstruation will be is tested by assessing muscle strength of the head
scanty. and shoulders.
24. A, B, C, E. Insomnia and palpitations are common 5. D, E, F. Risk factors for developing cervical cancer
in a client with hyperthyroidism. includes smoking, multiple sex partners, Human
Papilloma Virus (HPV) sex before the age of 20 is a
risk factor. Nulliparity and a history of fibroids are not
25. C. Exercise is contraindicated after eye surgery.
risk factors.
26. C. NPO is not required prior to an EEG. The client
is allowed to have breakfast if prescribed. Caffeine 6. A. Trigeminal Neuralgia is a disorder that causes
and other stimulants should be avoided for 24 intense pain along the areas innervated by the
hours prior to the procedure; the other statements 5th cranial nerve. Extremes in temperature can
are true of those diagnostic tests, therefore follow exacerbate the pain symptoms.
up is not required.
7. A. Coarctation of the Aorta is an acyanotic defect
27. A. A female with frequent yeast infections should characterized by narrowing of the aorta which affects
the outflow of blood. It leads to higher blood pressure
be evaluated for Diabetes Mellitus and HIV.
in the upper extremities than the lower. There may also
be a heart murmur and diminished or absent pulses
28. B. Abdominal distention may indicate a distended
below the femur. The other choices are symptoms of
bladder which indicates a complication after a
cyanotic defects.
(TURP).
8. A, B, C, D are correct. The other choices are incorrect.
29. C. Clients with a spinal cord injury should avoid
The patient experiences low blood pressure and
stimulating the bowels, bladder and skin which
increased heart rate.
may lead to autonomic dysreflexia.
9. A, C, E are correct. The other symptoms include
30. C. A fat embolism is a possible complication after a
hypernatremia, low specific gravity related to urinary
fracture of a long bone. Petechiae, increased pain,
dilution and a preference for cold liquids.
and swelling are some signs of a fat embolism.
31. B. Clients should be placed on the right side after
a liver biopsy to minimize the risk of bleeding.
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10. B. The normal pH is 7.35-7.45; the normal pCO2 is 35-45 mmHg. The normal HCO3 is 22-26 mm Hg. With respiratory
acidosis there is an increase of carbon dioxide. Generally the renal and pulmonary systems compensate for each
other to return the pH to normal. In this situation, the kidney increased the retention of HCO3 to normalize the pH.
Study Tool
Infection Control- list the type of isolation required:
HIB_______________________________ Bacterial Pneumonia_____________________
MRSA_____________________________ Klebsiella Pneumonia____________________
TB_______________________________ Group A Strep__________________________
Epiglottitis_________________________ Small pox______________________________
Fifths Disease______________________ Rubeola______________________________
Infection Control- list the type of isolation required: Page 45
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Answer: 0.5ml
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