Prova Ccna Com Questoes Reais Emulador

16/02/2022 00:11 How2Pass CCNA 200-301 Online Practice Tests - (Test Engine v4.7.
4)
How2Pass CCNA 200-301 Online Practice Tests
Test #09: Random Test from all exam topics
How2Pass Test Score Report Print this page
Test Taker's Name : el_buffalo

Questions Attempted : 100
Correct Answers : 76
Your score: 76%
Passing score: 82.5%
Pass/Fail: Fail

Your time is: 1 hr 40 min 36 sec
Section Analysis

Section 0% 50% 100% Score

IP Connectivity: 85% (17/20)
Network Fundamentals: 67% (18/27)
Automation and Programmability: 83% (10/12)
IP Services: 58% (7/12)
Network Access: 76% (13/17)
Security Fundamentals: 92% (11/12)
Correct Answers/Explanations are given below
1. (QID:AN408) Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on
RouterA?

Exhibit

Your Answer: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Correct Answer: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

2. (QID:AN040) Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?

Exhibit

Your Answer: 10.10.13.208/29

Correct Answer: 10.10.13.208/29

Explanation:
You need to check every route entry for valid host range and the one having Host A's IP address in the range is our answer. The
IP address of Host A, 10.10.13.214, belongs to the subnet 10.10.13.208/29, that is present in the routing table of Router1 and is
reachable through the next hop address 10.10.10.1.
The subnet 10.10.13.208/29 has the valid host range from 10.10.13.209 10.10.13.214.
3. (QID:AN198) What is the function of a server?

Your Answer: It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

Correct Answer: It provides shared applications to end users.

4. (QID:AN352) Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

Your Answer: The device is assigned to the Global site.

The device is placed into the Unmanaged
state.

Correct Answer: The device is assigned to the Global site.
https://www.how2pass.com/emembers/ccna301/onlinetest/frame.php 1/28
16/02/2022 00:11 How2Pass CCNA 200-301 Online Practice Tests - (Test Engine v4.7.4)
The device is placed into the Unmanaged state.
5. (QID:AN389) In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
Your Answer: expedited forwarding
Correct Answer: expedited forwarding
Explanation:
Expedited Forwarding (EF) PHB
Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP), a component of the integrated services model, provides a guaranteed bandwidth service.
Applications such as Voice over IP (VoIP), video, and online trading programs require this kind of robust service. The EF PHB, a
key ingredient of DiffServ, supplies this kind of robust service by providing low loss, low latency, low jitter, and assured bandwidth
service.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_dfsrv/configuration/15-mt/qos-dfsrv-15-mt-book/qos-dfsrv.html#GUID-
F365B1FD-1E05-4C46-90B6-E58C92A3FD04
6. (QID:AX022) Which two statements about IPv6 anycast addresses are true ? (Choose two)
Your Answer: They are allocated from the IPv6 unicast address space.
They receive packets on the closest interface that is discovered by the routing protocol.
Correct Answer: They receive packets on the closest interface that is discovered by the routing protocol.
They are allocated from the IPv6 unicast address space.
Explanation:
An IPv6 anycast address is an address that is assigned to a set of interfaces that typically belong to different nodes. A packet sent
to an anycast address is delivered to the closest interface (as defined by the routing protocols in use) identified by the anycast
address.
There is no special prefix for an IPv6 anycast address. An IPv6 anycast address uses the same address range as global unicast
addresses. Each participating device is configured to have the same anycast address.
7. (QID:AX030) Which information is used to install the best route to a destination in IP routing table?
Your Answer: The prefix length
Correct Answer: The prefix length
Explanation:
The Effect of Prefix Length on Populating the Routing Table
Let us look at a scenario to see how the router handles varying prefix lengths. Assume, that a router has four routing processes
running on it, and each process has received these routes:
EIGRP (internal): 192.168.32.0/26

RIP: 192.168.32.0/24
OSPF: 192.168.32.0/19
Which of these routes will be installed in the routing table? Since EIGRP internal routes have the best administrative distance, it's
tempting to assume the first one will be installed. However, since each of these routes has a different prefix length (subnet mask),
they're considered different destinations, and they will all be installed in the routing table.
The Effect of Prefix Length on Forwarding Decisions
Let us look at the three routes we just installed in the routing table, and see how they look on the router.
Router# show ip route
....
D 192.168.32.0/26 [90/25789217] via 10.1.1.1
R 192.168.32.0/24 [120/4] via 10.1.1.2
O 192.168.32.0/19 [110/229840] via 10.1.1.3
....
If a packet arrives on a router interface destined for 192.168.32.1, which route would the router choose? It depends on the prefix
length, or the number of bits set in the subnet mask. Longer prefixes are always preferred over shorter ones when forwarding a
packet.
In this case, a packet destined to 192.168.32.1 is directed toward 10.1.1.1, because 192.168.32.1 falls within the 192.168.32.0/26
network (192.168.32.0 to 192.168.32.63). It also falls within the other two routes available, but the 192.168.32.0/26 has the
longest prefix within the routing table (26 bits verses 24 or 19 bits).
Likewise, if a packet destined for 192.168.32.100 arrives on one of the router's interfaces, it's forwarded to 10.1.1.2, because
192.168.32.100 does not fall within 192.168.32.0/26 (192.168.32.0 through 192.168.32.63), but it does fall within the
192.168.32.0/24 destination (192.168.32.0 through 192.168.32.255). Again, it also falls into the range covered by
192.168.32.0/19, but 192.168.32.0/24 has a longer prefix length.
8. (QID:AN159) Refer to the exhibit. What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an
adjacency?
Exhibit
Your Answer: Modify network type
Correct Answer: Modify network type
Explanation:
From the perspective of OSPF, there are a couple of things that must match for a OSPF neighborship to establish; these include:
1. The devices must be in the same area.

2. The devices must have the same authentication configuration.
3. The devices must be on the same subnet.
4. The devices hello and dead intervals must match.
5. The devices must have matching stub flags.
But the question is asking about OSPF neighborship without forming adjacencies. The OSPF point-to-point and point-to-multipoint
nonbroadcast networks require statically defined neighbor statements without forming DR/BDR adjacencies.
9. (QID:AN178) Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
Exhibit:
SW1: 0C:E0:38:00:36:85
SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97
SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D
SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19
Your Answer: SW2
Correct Answer: SW3
Explanation:
Root Bridge Election
A Root Bridge is a reference point for all switches in a spanning-tree topology. Across all connected switches a process of election
occurs and the Bridge with the lowest Bridge ID is elected as the Root Bridge.
Since the Bridge ID starts with the Bridge Priority field, essentially, the switch with the lowest Bridge Priority field becomes the
Root Bridge. If there is a tie between two switches having the same priority value, then the switch with the lowest MAC address
becomes the Root Bridge.
In this case, with the default Bridge Priority, switch SW3 becomes the root bridge because it has the lowest MAC address of
0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D.
10. (QID:AN302) A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the
router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address
2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
Your Answer: ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B
Correct Answer: ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B
11. (QID:AN072) Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router
or switch?
Your Answer: service password-encryption
Correct Answer: service password-encryption
Explanation:
service password-encryption
Many configuration commands used to configure passwords store the passwords in clear text in the running-config file, for
example the simple passwords configured on the console and vty lines, with the password command, plus the password in the
username command. The enable secret command automatically encrypts the password value, but enable password command
shows it in clear text.
These clear text passwords in a printed version of the configuration file, or in a backup copy of the configuration file stored on a
server, are vulnerable. A relatively weaker encryption of the passwords can be obtained using the service password-encryption
global configuration command. The presence or absence of the service password-encryption global configuration command
dictates whether the passwords are encrypted as follows:
When the service password-encryption command is configured, all existing console, vty, and username command
passwords are immediately encrypted.
If the service password-encryption command has already been configured, any future changes to these passwords (and
new passwords) are encrypted.
If the no service password-encryption command is used later, the passwords remain encrypted, until they are changed - at
which point they show up in clear text.
12. (QID:AN315) Refer to the exhibit. The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data
frame to Sales-1. What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
Exhibit
Your Answer: Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.
Correct Answer: Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.
13. (QID:AN207) What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that
use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
Your Answer: different overlapping channels
Correct Answer: different overlapping channels
Explanation:
APs should be deployed with overlapping coverage cells. This prevents packet loss which can occurs if a wireless client hits a
dead zone when roaming between AP coverage cells. However, APs with overlapping coverage cells should not be on the same
channel, if possible, because this can lead to increased channel utilization.
https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Channel_Planning_Best_Practices
14. (QID:AN231) Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B
to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
Exhibit
Your Answer: It is unreachable and discards the traffic.
Correct Answer: It is unreachable and discards the traffic.
Explanation:
In unicast routing, the destination address must be a unique host address on a subnet, but the destination address
10.10.13.128/25 is a subnet ID. Therefore, this destination is unreachable and Router2 will discard the packets having destination
address of 10.10.13.128/25.
15. (QID:AN354) Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements?
(Choose two.)
a) Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:23::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
b) Packets towards host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Exhibit
Your Answer: ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200
Correct Answer: ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200
Explanation:
ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2
The above static route fulfills the requirement that packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:23::/64 must be forwarded through
router R2.
ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200
The router will not use this route through R2 due to higher AD value but will use the route through R3. So, this entry fulfills the
requirement that packets towards host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
16. (QID:AND21) Drag-n-drop. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the
webserver. Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the
configuration on the right.
Exhibit
Your Answer: 1:A,2:C,3:B,4:F,5:D,6:E
Correct Answer: 1:A,2:C,3:B,4:F,5:E,6:D
Explanation:
interface Ethernet 0
ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0
ip nat inside
interface Serial 0
ip address 45.83.2.214 255.255.255.240
ip nat outside
ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.1.2 80 45.83.2.214 80 extendable
ip nat inside source list 1 interface s0 overload
access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
17. (QID:AX005) Which of the following is true about access point?
Your Answer: It is used physically to connect network devices.
Correct Answer: It is a layer 2 device used to extend the LAN coverage to wireless devices.
18. (QID:AN122) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using
passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators
to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
Exhibit
Your Answer: SW3
Correct Answer: SW3
Explanation:
SW3(config)#username admin1 secret abcd1234

SW3(config)#username admin2 secret abcd1234
!The secret keyword ensures that the password is stored with MD5 encryption
SW3(config-line)#line vty 0 15
SW3(config-line)#login local
!SSH/Telnet connections use local authentication.
19. (QID:AN263) Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
Your Answer: read
Correct Answer: read
Explanation:
The primary or most commonly used HTTP verbs or methods are POST, GET, PUT, PATCH, and DELETE. These correspond to
create, read, update, and delete (or CRUD) operations, respectively. There are a number of other verbs, too, but are utilized less
frequently.
The HTTP GET method retrieves the resource identified by the request URI. This maps to read operations (the R in CRUD).
20. (QID:AN396) Refer to the exhibit. Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent
connectivity?
Exhibit
Your Answer: between zones 3 and 4
Correct Answer: between zones 3 and 4
Explanation:
The 2.4GHz band is subdivided into multiple channels. Each of its channels is much too wide to avoid overlapping the next lower
or upper channel number. In fact, each channel covers the frequency range that is allocated to more than four consecutive
channels.
The only way to avoid any overlap between adjacent channels is to configure APs to use only channels 1, 6, and 11. Even though
there are 14 channels available to use, you should always strive for non-overlapping channels in your network.
The 802.11b wireless standard uses only 2.4-GHz frequency band and only three non-overlapping channels are available.
In this question, both Zone 3 and Zone 4 use Channel 11. When the neighboring wireless access points are using the same
wireless channel, this may cause intermittent connectivity issues due to interference.
21. (QID:AN008) Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
Your Answer: FC00::/7
Correct Answer: FF00::/8
Explanation:
An IPv6 multicast address defines a group of devices known as a multicast group. IPv6 multicast addresses use the prefix
FF00::/8.
22. (QID:AN170) How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
Your Answer: TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.
Correct Answer: TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.
Explanation:
UDP uses a simple connectionless communication model with a minimum of protocol mechanisms. UDP provides checksums for
data integrity, and port numbers for addressing different functions at the source and destination of the datagram.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User_Datagram_Protocol
TCP differs in several key features from the User Datagram Protocol:
It provides ordered data transfer according to a sequence number.

Any cumulative stream not acknowledged is retransmitted.
Error-free data transfer.
It uses flow control to limit the rate a sender transfers data to guarantee reliable delivery.
Congestion control.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transmission_Control_Protocol
The TCP protocol includes an extra checksum that protects the packet payload as well as the header. This is in addition to the
header-checksum of IP.
23. (QID:AN245) A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate
layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the
connection?
Your Answer: LACP
Correct Answer: LACP
Explanation:
In EtherChannel technology there are two types of dynamic channel-group protocols:
Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) which is a Cisco proprietary protocol, and

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) which is the IEEE standard.
LACP uses two types of port modes: active and passive. LACP active mode unconditionally forms a LACP dynamic EtherChannel
whereas passive mode will only accept LACP negotiation attempts from a device set to active mode.
PAgP modes are off, auto, desirable, and on. Only the combinations auto-desirable, desirable-desirable, and on-on will allow a
channel to be formed. In on-on configuration, PAgP will not run negotiation but the channel is forced to come up.
24. (QID:AN280) What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
Your Answer: On hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts.
Correct Answer: On hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts.
25. (QID:AN037) Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
Your Answer: The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
The two router share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.
Correct Answer: The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.
Explanation:
Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)
Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) is a CISCO proprietary protocol, which provides redundancy for a local subnet. In HSRP, two
or more routers give an illusion of a virtual router.
HSRP allows you to configure two or more routers as standby routers and only a single router as active router at a time. All the
routers in a single HSRP group share a single MAC address and IP address, which acts as a default gateway for the local
network. The Active router is responsible for forwarding the traffic. If it fails, the Standby router takes up all the responsibilities of
the active router and forwards the traffic.
26. (QID:AN247) What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?
Your Answer: Configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11.
Correct Answer: Group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel.
27. (QID:AN194) What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
Your Answer: Infrastructure-as-a-service
Correct Answer: Control and distribution of physical resources
Explanation:
The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage for the virtual machine.
28. (QID:AND19) Drag-n-drop. Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Your Answer: 1:C,2:D,3:B,4:A
Correct Answer: 1:A,2:D,3:B,4:C
Explanation:
MIB: collection of variables that can be monitored.
SNMP trap: unsolicited message.
SNMP agent: responds to status and requests for information about a device.
SNMP manager: resides on an NMS.
29. (QID:AN166) A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the
first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?
Your Answer: Late collision
Correct Answer: Late collision
Explanation:
The subset of all collisions that happen after the 64th byte (512th bit) of the frame has been transmitted, are called late collisions.
Typical causes of late collisions are segment cable lengths in excess of the maximum permitted for the cable type. A collision
wave is not detected by the transmitting stations until after the 64 byte slot time since it has to travel an excessive distance.
When a late collision wave is detected, the frame is not retransmitted automatically by the MAC sublayer. Upper layer protocols
must deduce that something went wrong and implement retransmission of the frame. This takes times and so late transmissions
can cause excessive delays.
30. (QID:AN388) What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate
switch in a three-layer architecture model?
Your Answer: access - distribution - core - distribution - access
Correct Answer: access - distribution - core - distribution - access
31. (QID:AN407) A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address
2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided to compress
the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Your Answer: ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64
Correct Answer: ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64
32. (QID:AN053) An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the
designated router is in the proper mode?
Your Answer: Full
Correct Answer: Full
Explanation:
The DR and BDR that achieve FULL state with every router on the segment will display FULL/DROTHER when you enter the
show ip ospf neighbor command on either a DR or BDR. This simply means that the neighbor is not a DR or BDR, but since the
router on which the command was entered is either a DR or BDR, this shows the neighbor as FULL/DROTHER.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html
33. (QID:AN182) Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
Your Answer: Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0
Correct Answer: Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0
Explanation:
Root Bridge Election
A Root Bridge is a reference point for all switches in a spanning-tree topology. Across all connected switches a process of election
occurs and the Bridge with the lowest Bridge ID is elected as the Root Bridge.
Since the Bridge ID starts with the Bridge Priority field, essentially, the switch with the lowest Bridge Priority field becomes the
Root Bridge. If there is a tie between two switches having the same priority value, then the switch with the lowest MAC address
becomes the Root Bridge.
To make a switch the root bridge on a switched network, we can use the spanning-tree vlan vlan-id root primary command in
global configuration mode. The priority for the switch is set to the predefined value of 24,576 or to the highest multiple of 4096 less
than the lowest bridge priority detected on the network.
"spanning-tree vlan vlan-id root primary" VS "spanning-tree vlan vlan-id priority 0"
The spanning-tree vlan vlan-id root primary command is a macro that fails if a switch on the network has priority equal to or less
than 4096. In this case you can use the spanning-tree vlan vlan-id priority 0 command to ensure that a switch has always the
lowest bridge priority value.
When one of the switches is configured with a priority of 4096, and we use the spanning-tree vlan vlaid-id root primary
command, the switch shows error:
Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary

% Failed to make the bridge root for vlan 750
% It may be possible to make the bridge root by setting the priority
% for some (or all) of these instances to zero.
34. (QID:AN369) When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward
requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
Your Answer: DHCP relay agent
Correct Answer: DHCP relay agent
Explanation:
A DHCP client is an Internet host using DHCP to obtain configuration parameters such as an IP address. A DHCP relay agent is
any host that forwards DHCP packets between clients and servers. Relay agents are used to forward requests and replies
between clients and servers when they are not on the same physical subnet.
35. (QID:AN256) Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the
network using a lightweight access point?
Your Answer: wireless LAN controller
Correct Answer: wireless LAN controller
36. (QID:AN271) What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
Your Answer: Enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection.
Correct Answer: Enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection.
Explanation:
SOHO is the abbreviation for Small Office/Home Office network. SOHO networks are small LANs (Local Area Networks). Typically,
SOHO networks consists of less than 10 computers. Network service servers like DNS server, email server, web server etc, are
typically configured outside SOHO network.
The SOHO router is more or less the conventional broadband router designed to be operated in such organizations.
Cisco SOHO 90 Series secure broadband routers provide secure connectivity to small and remote offices with up to five users and
teleworkers. The Cisco SOHO 90 Series router supports integrated security features of Cisco IOS Software such as stateful-
inspection firewall protection, strong encryption for virtual private networks (VPNs), easy setup for nontechnical users with a Web-
based setup tool, and advanced management capabilities to lower operational costs.
It allows multiple users to share connections with a single IP address.
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/it_it/solutions/small-business/pdf/net_found/soho9_ds.pdf
37. (QID:AN228) Refer to the exhibit. Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the
primary link?
Exhibit
Your Answer: ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254
Correct Answer: ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254
Explanation:
Floating Static Route
A floating static route is configured with a higher administrative distance than the dynamic routing protocol, or another static route,
it is backing up. As a result, the dynamic route learned through the routing protocol (or the primary static route) is always used in
preference to the floating static route. If the dynamic route learned through the routing protocol (or a primary static route, as
configured in this question) is lost, the floating static route will be used in its place.
The following command will result-in a floating static route entered in the routing table with AD 254 (higher than the default AD 1
for static routes):
ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254
38. (QID:AN358) When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?
Your Answer: sent to the port identified for the known MAC address
Correct Answer: sent to the port identified for the known MAC address
Explanation:
Layer 2 switches maintain a table of destination MAC addresses and associated ports. When a unicast frame is received, its
destination MAC address is searched in the MAC address table. If a match is found the frame is forwarded through the port
associated with that destination MAC address. If no entry matches, the frame is flooded out all ports except the receiving port.
39. (QID:AN190) A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is
the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table
automatically?
Your Answer: Enable sticky MAC addressing
Correct Answer: Enable sticky MAC addressing
40. (QID:AN262) Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
Your Answer: DHCP
Correct Answer: DHCP
41. (QID:AND35) Drag-n-drop. Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not
all actions are used.
Your Answer: 1:C,2:X,3:C,4:C
Correct Answer: 1:C,2:C,3:C,4:C
Explanation:
Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions
BPDUs received are forwarded to the system module.

Frames received from the attached segment are processed.
Switched frames received from other ports are advanced.
The port in the forwarding state responds to network management messages.
42. (QID:AN112) What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?
Your Answer: Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC.
Correct Answer: Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC.
Explanation:
In local mode, an AP creates two CAPWAP tunnels to the WLC. One is for management, the other is data traffic. This behavior is
known as centrally switched because the data traffic is switched (bridged) from the AP to the controller where it is then routed by
some routing device.
APs operating in REAP/Flexconnect mode do not always require a connection to the WLC, and have the capability to locally
switch WLAN traffic without relying on the controller.
https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-and-mobility/what-s-the-difference-between-local-mode-and-flex-connect-mode/td-
p/2532657
43. (QID:AN345) A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The
date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
Your Answer: clock set
Correct Answer: clock set

Explanation:
Setting the Router's Time
The router's internal clock is set with the clock set command. This command is not a configuration command (i.e., you must be in
enable mode to give it, but you don't need to give the configure terminal command) and is not stored in the router's configuration.
The time is in military (24-hour) time. For example:
Router#clock set 13:00:00 20 jan 2021
44. (QID:AN229) How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
Your Answer: The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port.
Correct Answer: The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port.
45. (QID:AN392) An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass through the same port. The designated
switch interface fastethernet0/1 must transmit packets using the same priority for data when they are received from the
access port of the IP phone. Which configuration must be used?
Your Answer: interface fastethernet0/1

switchport priority extend cos 7
Correct Answer: interface fastethernet0/1

switchport priority extend cos 7
Explanation:
The switchport priority extend cos 7 command sets the access port of switch (connected to IP phone) to override the priority
received from the attached PC or other device, with the highest priority 7 (used for voice traffic).
46. (QID:AN077) An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which
cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
Your Answer: AES
Correct Answer: AES
Explanation:
Cisco access points provide WPA2-PSK (TKIP), WPA2-PSK (AES), and WPA2-PSK (TKIP/AES) as WPA2 encryption options.
AES is a more secure encryption protocol introduced with WPA2 and it is currently the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK.
47. (QID:AX020) Which two statements about southbound APIs are true? (Choose two)
Your Answer: They enable communication between the controller and SDN applications.
They communicate with the management place.
Correct Answer: OpenFlow is a southbound API standard.

They enable communication between the controller and the network device.
Explanation:
In SDN, the southbound interface is the OpenFlow (or alternative) protocol specification. Its main function is to enable
communication between the SDN controller and the network nodes (both physical and virtual switches and routers) so that the
router can discover network topology, define network flows and implement requests relayed to it via northbound APIs.
The northbound interface describes the area of protocol-supported communication between the controller and applications or
higher layer control programs.
https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/northbound-interface-southbound-interface
48. (QID:AN391) What are two characteristics of a public cloud implementation? (Choose two.)
Your Answer: It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.
It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.
Correct Answer: It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.
It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.
Explanation:
Types of cloud computing deployment models
Private cloud
The private cloud model refers to cloud computing resources used exclusively by a single business or organization. A private
cloud can be located in your on-site data center or hosted in the cloud by a service provider.
Public cloud
When an organization deploys a public cloud model, all hardware, software, and supporting infrastructure is owned and managed
by a service provider, which is delivered exclusively over the Internet. You access these services and manage your account
through a web browser.
Hybrid cloud
A hybrid cloud computing model combines public and private clouds to share data and applications. Hybrid clouds connect
infrastructure and applications between cloud-based resources with existing resources not located in the cloud. This approach
gives your business greater flexibility and deployment options.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/cloud/what-is-cloud-computing.html#~cloud-computing-services
49. (QID:AN107) Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from
being established between the two routers?
Exhibit
Your Answer: R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size.
Correct Answer: R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size.
Explanation:
By design, OSPF will automatically detect a MTU mismatch between two devices when they exchange the Database Description
(DBD) packets during the formation of adjacency. This is per the standard OSPF specification defined in RFC 2328, "OSPF
Version 2".
If a router tries to negotiate an OSPF adjacency on an interface in which the remote neighbor has a larger MTU, the adjacency will
be denied. This is due to a check that states, "if the Interface MTU field in the Database Description packet indicates an IP
datagram size that is larger than the router can accept on the receiving interface without fragmentation, the Database Description
packet is rejected".
Since R1 is configured with an IP MTU value of 1600 (default for Ethernet is 1500), R2 will reject the DBD packet from R1
because the MTU is larger.
Although the obvious solution to this problem is to simply match the MTU of the links to avoid this problem in the first place, IOS
also offers the ip ospf mtu-ignore command at the interface level to skip over this check in the OSPF adjacency state machine.
50. (QID:AN050) Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
Exhibit
Your Answer: 38443
Correct Answer: 38443
Explanation:
Our destination host address 172.16.0.202 is a Class B address. There are three subnets of Class B network 172.16.0.0/16
present in the routing table. If you calculate the range of valid hosts on each Class B subnet, the destination address 172.16.0.202
is a valid host address on 172.16.0.0/24 with metric 0 (being static route) and prefix length 24, and 172.16.0.128/25 with metric
38443 and prefix length 25.
Now we need to see which route will be used to send traffic to our destination host? The router always chooses the route with the
longest prefix when sending traffic to a destination. So R1 will use 172.16.0.128/25 that was learned with metric 38443.
51. (QID:AN329) What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
Your Answer: forwards multicast hello messages between routers
Correct Answer: forwards multicast hello messages between routers
52. (QID:AN140) Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two
standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
Your Answer: Cells that overlap one another are configured to use non-overlapping channels.
5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 non-overlapping channels.
Correct Answer: 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 non-overlapping channels.
Cells that overlap one another are configured to use non-overlapping channels.
Explanation:
The 802.11 standard defines fourteen 20MHz wide channels in the 2.4 GHz industrial, scientific, and medical (ISM) band. It is
used by 802.11b/g/n. It can carry a maximum of three non-overlapping channels.
The 802.11 standard defines 23 20MHz wide channels in the 5 GHz spectrum. Each channel is spaced 20MHz apart and
separated into three Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (UNII) bands. Wireless devices specified as 802.11a/n/ac are
capable of operating within these bands.
The 5 GHz band can carry up to 23 non-overlapping channels, but gives a shorter range than 2.4 GHz.
APs should be deployed in such a manner that wireless clients experience minimal packet loss and choose the AP with the
strongest signal when roaming. In order to achieve this, neighboring APs will need to be close enough so that their coverage cells
have some overlap. When APs have overlapping coverage they should be set to different non-overlapping channels. This prevents
the APs from causing an increase in channel utilization or interfering with each other.
https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Channel_Planning_Best_Practices#Overlapping_Coverage_Cells
53. (QID:AN109) How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
Your Answer: Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services
Correct Answer: Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services
Explanation:
Authentication:
Identifies the user.

Verifies the password associated with a user.
Authorization:
Restricts the services that are available to a user.

Controls the actions that a user can perform.
Accounting:
Tracks/records user activities.

Provides analytical information for the network administrator.
54. (QID:AND33) Drag-n-drop. Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the
right. Not all functions are used.
Your Answer: 1:D,2:D,3:X,4:X
Correct Answer: 1:D,2:D,3:D,4:D
Explanation:
DHCP Functions
1. Provides local control for network segments using a client-server scheme.

2. Reduces the administrative burden for onboarding end users.
3. Maintains an address pool.
4. Assigns IP addresses to local hosts for a configurable lease time.
Not Used
Associates hostnames to IP addresses.

Offers domain name server configuration.
Uses authoritative servers for record keeping.
55. (QID:AND20) Drag-n-drop. Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the
description on the right.
Your Answer: N/A
Correct Answer: 1:D,2:B,3:E,4:A,5:C
Explanation:
PQ: places packets into one of four priority-based queues.
CQ: provides guaranteed bandwidth to a specific class of traffic.
WFQ: provides minimum guaranteed bandwidth to one or more flows.
CBWFQ: services a specified number of bytes in one queue before continuing to the next queue.
FIFO: uses store-and-forwarding queueing.
With Priority Queueing (PQ), traffic is classified into high, medium, normal, and low priority queues. The high priority traffic is
serviced first, then medium priority traffic, followed by normal and low priority traffic.
56. (QID:AN403) What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?
Your Answer: Move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses.
Correct Answer: Move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses.
57. (QID:AN378) Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and
Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
Your Answer: lightweight
Correct Answer: lightweight
Explanation:
Cisco Access Points (APs) can operate in two modes:
Autonomous: These are self-sufficient and standalone APs, used for small wireless networks.
Lightweight: A Cisco lightweight AP (LAP) has to join a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) to function. LAP and WLC
communicate with each other via a logical pair of CAPWAP tunnels.
58. (QID:AN202) Refer to the exhibit. Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
Exhibit:
cisco_ospf_vrf {"R1 default":

ensure => 'present',
auto_cost => '100',
}
Your Answer: Puppet
Correct Answer: Puppet
Explanation:
Puppet Code
Puppet code is composed primarily of resource declarations. A resource describes something about the state of the system, such
as a certain user or file should exist, or a package should be installed. Here is an example of a user resource declaration:
user { 'mitchell':
ensure => present,
uid => '1000',
gid => '1000',
shell => '/bin/bash',
home => '/home/mitchell'
}
Resource declarations are formatted as follows:
resource_type { 'resource_name'
attribute => value
...
}
Therefore, the previous resource declaration describes a user resource named 'mitchell', with the specified attributes.
59. (QID:AN174) An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on
employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user's smartphone being lost or stolen?
Your Answer: The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.
Correct Answer: The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.
60. (QID:AN305) Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the
same SSID?
Your Answer: Re-association Request
Correct Answer: Re-association Request
61. (QID:AN102) Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the
network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
Exhibit
Your Answer: 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
Explanation:
10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240
Incorrect - provides up to 14 hosts; requirement is minimum 20 hosts.
10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240
Incorrect - provides up to 14 hosts; requirement is minimum 20 hosts.
10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224
Incorrect - not a subnet; it is host address.
10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
Correct - provides up to 30 hosts in the range 10.10.225.33 - 10.10.225.62
62. (QID:AX009) What happens to new traffic that is sent to a destination MAC address after the MAC aging time
expires?
Your Answer: It is flooded.
Correct Answer: It is flooded.
Explanation:
Layer 2 switches maintain a table of destination MAC addresses and associated ports. When a unicast frame is received, its
destination MAC address is searched in the MAC address table. If a match is found the frame is forwarded through the port
associated with that destination MAC address. If no entry matches, the frame is flooded out all ports except the receiving port.
63. (QID:AX017) Which two characteristics of standard Access Control Lists are true? (Choose two)
Your Answer: They can compare source traffic only against a permit or deny statement.
They must be identified with a number between 1 and 99 or 1300 and 1999.
Correct Answer: They can compare source traffic only against a permit or deny statement.
They must be identified with a number between 1 and 99 or 1300 and 1999.
Explanation:
Standard Access Control List
Standard ACLs are made using the source IP addresses only. These ACLs permit or deny the entire protocol suite. They do not
distinguish between the protocol port, such as TCP, UDP, HTTP, etc. By using numbers 1-99 or 1300-1999, a router will
understand it as a standard ACL and the specified address(s) as source IP address(s).
64. (QID:AX011) When troubleshooting a user complaint, you notice that two routers failed to establish an OSPF
neighbor adjacency. Which two issues are root causes for the problem? (Choose two)
Your Answer: The passive-interface command is configured on the connected interfaces.

The two routers are configured with the same area ID.
Correct Answer: The two routers are using the same router ID.
The passive-interface command is configured on the connected interfaces.
Explanation:
Out of the given choices, the following two reasons will prevent an OSPF neighbor relationship between two connected routers:
The two routers are using the same router ID.

The passive-interface command is configured on the connected interfaces.
65. (QID:AN089) Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)
Your Answer: SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment.

Customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises.
Correct Answer: SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment.
REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center.
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dna-center/nb-06-dna-center-faq-cte-en.html
66. (QID:AND31) Drag-n-drop. Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.
Your Answer: 1:L,2:U,3:U,4:L
Correct Answer: 1:L,2:L,3:U,4:U
Explanation:
Local-Link Address
attached to a single subnet

configured only once per interface
Unique Local Address
addresses with prefix FC00::/7

addressing for exclusive use internally without internet routing
https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2803866&seqNum=4
67. (QID:AN298) Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data
traffic. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
Exhibit
Your Answer: interface gigabitethernet1/1

switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 300
switchport voice vlan 400
Correct Answer: interface gigabitethernet1/1

switchport mode access
switchport access vlan 300
Explanation:
We configure the interface Gi1/1 in access mode and use VLAN 300 for PC (data traffic). Then we configure VLAN 400 for voice
traffic. The switchport voice vlan 400 command tells the switch to use VLAN 400 as the voice VLAN.
68. (QID:AN204) Refer to the exhibit. After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
Exhibit
Your Answer: Switch 3: 0C:0E:15:1D:3C:9A
Correct Answer: Switch 3: 0C:0E:15:1D:3C:9A
Explanation:
Root bridge and the bridge ID
The root bridge of the spanning tree is the bridge with the smallest (lowest) bridge ID. Each bridge has a configurable priority
number and a MAC address; the bridge ID is the concatenation of the bridge priority and the MAC address. For example, the ID of
a bridge with priority 32768 and MAC 0200.0000.1111 is 32768.0200.0000.1111. The bridge priority default is 32768 and can only
be configured in multiples of 4096. When comparing two bridge IDs, the priority portions are compared first and the MAC
addresses are compared only if the priorities are equal. The switch with the lowest priority of all the switches will be the root; if
there is a tie, then the switch with the lowest priority and lowest MAC address will be the root.
69. (QID:AN208) Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
Your Answer: marking interesting traffic for data polices
Correct Answer: enforcing routing policies
Explanation:
In a three-tier network model, the core layer is where Layer 3 routing is done and will have have connections to things like servers
and the Internet. The distribution layer is used as an aggregation point for the access layer to connect to the core layer.
A collapsed core is when the distribution layer and core layer functions are implemented by a single device. This is called a two-
tier network model. The primary motivation for the collapsed core design is reducing network cost, while maintaining most of the
benefits of the three-tier hierarchical model.
Another purpose of the collapsed core is that we can do local routing and switching for the servers.
70. (QID:AN393) Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two
sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on
their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each
site?
Exhibit
Your Answer: R1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226
R2
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.225
Correct Answer: R1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226
R2
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.225
71. (QID:AN402) Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?
Your Answer: southbound API
Correct Answer: southbound API
72. (QID:AND23) Drag-n-drop. Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto
the functions on the right.
Your Answer: 1:E,2:C,3:B,4:D,5:A
Correct Answer: 1:E,2:C,3:D,4:B,5:A
Explanation:
show snmp host displays the information about the SNMP recipient.
show snmp engineID displays the IP address of the remote SNMP device.
show snmp group displays the SNMP security model in use.
show snmp community displays the SNMP access string.
show snmp chassis displays the SNMP server serial number.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/snmp/command/snmp-xe-3se-3850-cr-book/snmp-xe-3se-3850-cr-
book_chapter_0110.html
73. (QID:AN295) What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
Your Answer: Connect wireless devices to a wired network.
Correct Answer: Connect wireless devices to a wired network.
Explanation:
A wireless access point, or more generally just access point (AP), is a networking hardware device that allows other Wi-Fi devices
to connect to a wired network.
74. (QID:AN367) What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two.)
Your Answer: Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately.
Correct Answer: Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately.
Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.
Explanation:
Portfast does two things for us:

Interfaces with portfast enabled that come up will go to forwarding mode immediately, the interface will skip the listening and
learning state.
A switch will never generate a topology change notification for an interface that has portfast enabled.
75. (QID:AN225) Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating
with managed nodes?
Your Answer: Ansible
Correct Answer: Ansible
Explanation:
Ansible by default manages machines over the SSH protocol. Once Ansible is installed, it will not add a database, and there will
be no daemons to start or keep running. You only need to install it on one machine (which could easily be a laptop) and it can
manage an entire fleet of remote machines from that central point.
76. (QID:AN398) Refer to the exhibit. R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are
flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations
must the engineer implement?
Exhibit
Your Answer: R2(config)#interface gi0/0

R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 259

R3(config)#interface gi0/0
Correct Answer: R3(config)#interface gi0/0


R2(config)#interface gi0/0
Explanation:
A router with the highest value of OSPF priority becomes DR and the next higher value router becomes BDR. The OSPF priority
ranges from 0 to 255 (default 100). So, we need to increase the OSPF priority value of R1, R2 or R3 to select DR and BDR from
them.
77. (QID:AND03) Drag-n-drop. Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto
the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
Your Answer: 1:A,2:A,3:B,4:B
Correct Answer: 1:A,2:A,3:B,4:B
Explanation:
Layer 2 Security Mechanism
WPA+WPA2
802.1X
Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN)
Web Policy
Passthrough
Layer 2 Security Mechanisms include WPA+WPA2, 802.1x, Static WEP, Static WEP+802.1x, CKIP, MAC filtering.
Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) include IPsec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Policy, Preauthentication ACL, Over-ride
Global Config, Web Auth type, Email input.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/106082-wlc-compatibility-matrix.html
78. (QID:AX013) Which value represents a host route?
Your Answer: 192.168.1.0/32
Correct Answer: 192.168.1.0/32
Explanation:
Host Route
A host route is configured to route packets to a specific host.

The subnet mask will be all 1's.
The IPv4 subnet mask of a host route will always be /32
The IPv6 subnet mask of a host route will always be /128
Host routes are automatically added to the routing table for all IPv4 and IPv6 addresses that are configured on the router.
The purpose of a host route is to create a corresponding CEF entry as a receive entry so that the packets destined to this IP
address can be processed by the router itself.
Loopback interfaces are commonly created with /32 subnet masks and will therefore appear as a host route in the routing
table.
Host routes are the most specific route possible and therefore take precedence over all other routes (based on the network
mask).
79. (QID:AN032) Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
Your Answer: lldp reinit
Correct Answer: lldp reinit
Explanation:
lldp reinit seconds
(Optional) Specifies the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface. The range is 1 to 10 seconds; the default is 2
seconds.
Example:
switch(config)#lldp reinit 5
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-
os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_lldp.html#45156
80. (QID:AN357) Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?
Your Answer: debug
Correct Answer: debug
Explanation:
We can use the logging trap level command to limit messages logged to the syslog server. By default, syslog servers receive
informational messages and numerically lower levels.
Therefore, to receive informational messages, you should set informational level of severity but, that is not given, so you must
select the next numerically higher severity level, that is debug.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/wireless/software/guide/SysMsgLogging.html
81. (QID:AN243) What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF
process configuration?
Your Answer: The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.
Correct Answer: The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.
Explanation:
The OSPF router ID is chosen according to the following criteria:
The highest router ID configured explicitly with router-id ip address command, in OSPF router configuration mode.
The highest IP address on its loopback interfaces (Loopback interface is a logical interface on a router).
If no loopback interface is configured then the highest IP address on one of its active physical interfaces.
If there is no active interface, the OSPF process will not start and therefore you will not have any OSPF routes in your routing
table.
82. (QID:AN200) A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do
not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud
service model does the engineer recommend?
Your Answer: Software-as-a-service
Correct Answer: Software-as-a-service
Explanation:
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service), as the name suggests, provides you the computing infrastructure, physical or (quite often)
virtual machines and other resources like virtual-machine disk image library, block and file-based storage, firewalls, load
balancers, IP addresses, virtual local area networks etc. Examples: Amazon EC2, Windows Azure, Rackspace, Google
Compute Engine.
PaaS (Platform as a Service), as the name suggests, provides you computing platforms which typically includes operating
system, programming language execution environment, database, web server etc. Examples: AWS Elastic Beanstalk,
Windows Azure, Heroku, Force.com, Google App Engine, Apache Stratos.
While in SaaS (Software as a Service) model you are provided with access to application software often referred to as "on-
demand software". You do not have to worry about the installation, setup and running of the application. Service provider will
do that for you. You just have to pay and use it through some client. Examples: Google Apps, Microsoft Office 365.
83. (QID:AN234) Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state
remediation?
Your Answer: 802.1x
Correct Answer: 802.1x
84. (QID:AN218) What is a function of TFTP in network operations?
Your Answer: Transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades.
Correct Answer: Transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades.
85. (QID:AX024) Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel
with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)
Your Answer: interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

channel-group 10 mode auto
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode active
Correct Answer: interface port-channel 10

no switchport
ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0
channel-group 10 mode active
Explanation:
In EtherChannel technology there are two types of dynamic channel-group protocols:
Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) which is a Cisco proprietary protocol, and

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) which is the IEEE standard.
LACP uses two types of port modes: active and passive. LACP active mode unconditionally forms a LACP dynamic EtherChannel
whereas passive mode will only accept LACP negotiation attempts from a device set to active mode.
86. (QID:AN241) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router.
Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
Exhibit:
access-list 101 permit ospf any any

access-list 101 permit tcp any any eq 179
access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 179 any
access-list 101 permit gre any any
access-list 101 permit esp any any
access-list 101 deny ospf any any

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq telnet
access-list 101 permit udp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 500
access-list 101 permit udp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 4500
access-list 101 deny ip any any log
interface Ethernet0/0
ip address 10.1.1.25 255.255.255.0
ip access-group 101 in
Your Answer: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq telnet
Correct Answer: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq telnet
Explanation:
Securing the vty lines means to allow access to required hosts and disallow all others.
The given answer allows telnet access, through VTY lines, only from IP address 10.1.1.0/24 to the destination host 172.16.1.0/24.
All other hosts are denied and failed attempts are logged.
87. (QID:AN211) In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?
Your Answer: data plane
Correct Answer: data plane
88. (QID:AN158) Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
Exhibit
Your Answer: 10.0.1.50
Correct Answer: 10.0.1.50
Explanation:
The destination host 10.0.1.5 has two routes in the routing table:
C 10.0.1.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0

and
O 10.0.1.5/32 [110/5] via 10.0.1.50, 00:39:08, Serial0
The second route has the longest prefix length, so the router will choose this route, having the next hop address 10.0.1.50.
89. (QID:AN370) Which plane is centralized by a JSON controller?
Your Answer: Control-plane
Correct Answer: Control-plane
90. (QID:AN154) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected
outcome when a
Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?
Exhibit:
!
Your Answer: The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.
Correct Answer: The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives
data in VLAN 1.
Explanation:
The switchport voice vlan 50 command tells the switch to use VLAN 50 as the voice VLAN. As a result the voice traffic from the
phone will be kept in VLAN 50. If a PC is connected to the phone it will be in data VLAN. The phone will forward all traffic from the
PC to the switch untagged, in data VLAN, that is VLAN 1, by default.
91. (QID:AND04) Drag-n-drop. Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on
the right.
Your Answer: 1:E,2:A,3:D,4:B,5:C
Correct Answer: 1:E,2:A,3:D,4:B,5:C
Explanation:
Wireless LAN controller: device that manages access points.

Access point: device that provides Wi-Fi devices with a connection to a wired network.
Service port: used for out of band management of a WLC.
Virtual interface: used to support mobility management of the WLC.
Dynamic interface: applied to the WLAN for wireless client communication.
92. (QID:AN331) What must be considered when using 802.11ba?
Your Answer: It is compatible with 802.11b and 802.11-compliant wireless devices.
Correct Answer: It is compatible with 802.11b and 802.11-compliant wireless devices.
93. (QID:AN320) Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute - value pairs?
Your Answer: object
Correct Answer: object
94. (QID:AN086) What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
Your Answer: faster changes with more reliable results

reduced operational costs
Correct Answer: reduced operational costs

faster changes with more reliable results
Explanation:
Network Automation
Network automation is the process of automating the configuring, managing, testing, deploying, and operating of physical and
virtual devices within a network. With everyday network tasks and functions automated and repetitive processes controlled and
managed automatically, network service availability improves.
Any type of network can use network automation. Hardware- and software-based solutions enable data centers, service providers,
and enterprises to implement network automation to improve efficiency, reduce human error, and lower operating expenses.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/automation/network-automation.html
95. (QID:AN084) What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their
management of networks?
Your Answer: It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.
Correct Answer: It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.
96. (QID:AN375) Where does wireless authentication happen?
Your Answer: Layer 2
Correct Answer: Layer 2
97. (QID:AN412) Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface
FastEthernet0/1 on router R4?
Exhibit:
interface FastEthernet0/10
description WAN_INTERFACE
ip address 10.0.1.2 255.255.255.252
ip access-group 100 in
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
description LAN_INTERFACE
ip address 10.148.2.1 255.255.255.0
duplex auto
speed auto
!
ip forward-protocol nd
!
access-list 100 permit eigrp any any
access-list 100 permit icmp any any
access-list 100 permit tcp 10.149.3.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.0.1.2 eq 22
access-list 100 deny ip any any log
Your Answer: interface FastEthernet0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1
!
access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1
Correct Answer: interface FastEthernet0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1
!
access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1
98. (QID:AN065) Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration
is correct. Which IP address is the source IP?
Exhibit
Your Answer: 10.4.4.4
Correct Answer: 172.23.104.4
Explanation:
The question is ambiguous and tricky. In case of NAT the source address of IP packet is different depending upon its location. On
the inside, before NAT translation, the source address would be the inside local address, that is usually a private IP address. In
this case we have two inside local addresses: 10.4.4.4 and 10.4.4.5, and both are present as answers. So, the question is not
asking about this type of source address.
Now on the outside, after NAT translation, the source IP address would become the inside global address. We have two inside
global addresses: 172.123.104.3 and 172.23.104.4. The given answers have only one of these inside global addresses,
172.23.104.4 - hence the correct answer.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_nat/configuration/15-mt/nat-15-mt-book/iadnat-addr-consv.html#GUID-
0CF68807-ABDB-4DC5-B725-4702206A34DA
Network Address Translation (NAT)
It is a feature that allows an organization's IP network to appear from the outside to use different IP address space than what it is
actually using. Thus, NAT allows an organization with non-globally routable addresses to connect to the Internet by translating
those addresses into globally routable address space.
NAT Terminology
The term inside refers to those networks that are owned by an organization and that must be translated. Inside this domain, hosts
will have address in the one address space, while on the outside, they will appear to have addresses in another address space
when NAT is configured. The first address space is referred to as the local address space while the second is referred to as the
global address space.
Similarly, outside refers to those networks to which the stub network connects, and which are generally not under the
organization's control.
To summarize, NAT uses the following definitions:
Inside local address: The IP address that is assigned to a host on the inside network. The address is probably not a
legitimate IP address assigned by the Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider.
Inside global address: A legitimate IP address (assigned by the NIC or service provider) that represents one or more inside
local IP addresses to the outside world.
Outside local address: The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not necessarily a legitimate
address, it was allocated from address space routable on the inside.
Outside global address: The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host's owner. The address was
allocated from globally routable address or network space.
99. (QID:AN052) Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF
configured?
Exhibit:
Designated Router (ID) 10.11.11.11, Interface address 10.10.10.1

Backup Designated router (ID) 10.3.3.3, Interface address 10.10.10.3
Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5
oob-resync timeout 40
Hello due in 00:00:08
Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS)
Cisco NSF helper support enabled
IETF NSF helper support enabled
Index 1/1/1, flood queue length 0
Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0)/0x0(0)
Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 6
Last flood scan time is 0 msec, maximum is 1 msec
Neighbor Count is 3, Adjacent neighbor count is 3
Adjacent with neighbor 10.1.1.4
Adjacent with neighbor 10.2.2.2
Adjacent with neighbor 10.3.3.3 (Backup Designated Router)
Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s)
Your Answer: The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.
Correct Answer: The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.
Explanation:
Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5
The default Hello and Dead timers for OSPF are in use.
"A point-to-point network type is configured" is incorrect. OSPF does not elect Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated
Router (BDR) on point-to-point networks.
100. (QID:AN106) Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in
router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
Exhibit
Your Answer: Configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network.
Correct Answer: Configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network.
Explanation:
The output shows that no dynamic routing protocol is configured, therefore, static routes must be used to route traffic between R1
and R3.
Now the routing table of R3 shows a static route, with 20.20.20.1 as the next hop, to reach the 10.10.10.0/24 network (R1 Fa0/0
network).
For two-way traffic routing, R1 must be configured with a static route, with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop, to reach the 20.20.20.0/24
network (R3 Fa0/1 network).
Retake this test with (24) incorrectly answered question(s)
Repeat this test with the same set of (100) question(s)
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16/02/2022 00:11 How2Pass CCNA 200-301 Online Practice Tests - (Test Engine v4.7.

How2Pass CCNA 200-301 Online Practice Tests

Test #09: Random Test from all exam topics

How2Pass Test Score Report Print this page

Test Taker's Name : el_buffalo

Your score: 76%

Passing score: 82.5%

Your time is: 1 hr 40 min 36 sec

Section 0% 50% 100% Score

Correct Answers/Explanations are given below

Your Answer: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Correct Answer: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Correct Answer: 10.10.13.208/29

3. (QID:AN198) What is the function of a server?

Your Answer: It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

Correct Answer: It provides shared applications to end users.

Your Answer: The device is assigned to the Global site.

Correct Answer: The device is assigned to the Global site.

Your Answer: expedited forwarding

Correct Answer: expedited forwarding

Expedited Forwarding (EF) PHB

Your Answer: The prefix length

Correct Answer: The prefix length

The Effect of Prefix Length on Populating the Routing Table

EIGRP (internal): 192.168.32.0/26

The Effect of Prefix Length on Forwarding Decisions

Your Answer: Modify network type

Correct Answer: Modify network type

1. The devices must be in the same area.

Correct Answer: SW3

Root Bridge Election

Your Answer: ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

Correct Answer: ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

Your Answer: service password-encryption

Correct Answer: service password-encryption

Your Answer: different overlapping channels

Correct Answer: different overlapping channels

Your Answer: It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

Correct Answer: It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

Your Answer: ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

Correct Answer: ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Correct Answer: 1:A,2:C,3:B,4:F,5:E,6:D

ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.1.2 80 45.83.2.214 80 extendable

17. (QID:AX005) Which of the following is true about access point?

Your Answer: It is used physically to connect network devices.

Correct Answer: SW3

SW3(config)#username admin1 secret abcd1234

Correct Answer: read

Your Answer: between zones 3 and 4

Correct Answer: between zones 3 and 4

Correct Answer: FF00::/8

It provides ordered data transfer according to a sequence number.

Correct Answer: LACP

In EtherChannel technology there are two types of dynamic channel-group protocols:

Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) which is a Cisco proprietary protocol, and

24. (QID:AN280) What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?