Nsca Personal Trainer

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NSCA Personal Trainer Practice Exam Kit

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______________________________
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Published by Tests.com LLC

PO Box 232
Lititz, PA 17543
www.Tests.com
ISBN: 978-1-938967-38-2
Copyright © 2013 - 2017 Tests.com LLC

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced,
reproduced, distributed or transmitted in
any form or by any means without the prior written permission of Tests.com LLC.
LLC. Published in
electronic format in the United States of America.
About the Author
Christy Hamilton is a NSCA certified personal trainer and professional writer with over five years
of experience in the field
fie ld of health and fitness. Christy holds certifications as an NSCA Certified
Personal Trainer, an ACSM Inclusive Fitness Trainer and is a former ACE Certified Personal
Trainer and Group Fitness Instructor. Christy obtained her bachelor’s degree in Exercise Science
from Montana State University.
Table of Contents
Review of the NSCA Personal Trainer Certification Exam ................................................ 1
Practice Exam Questions
Section 1 – Client Consultation and Assessment ....................................................... 7
Section 2 – Program Planning................................................................................... 20
Section 3 – Techniques of Exercise........................................................................... 41
Section 4 – Safety, Emergency Procedures and Legal Issues ................................... 61
Practice Exam Answers .................................................................................................... 69
Practice Exam Questions with Answers .......................................................................... 88
Test Preparation and Test Taking Tips .......................................................................... 168
Bubble Sheet .................................................................................................................. 17 2
Review of the NSCA Certified Personal Trainer Exam
About NSCA
The National Strength and Conditioning Association (NSCA) was founded in 1978. The
organization considers itself the “worldwide authority on strength and conditioning”. It strives
to utilize research-based evidence to improve fitness and athletic performance. The NSCA
Certified Personal Trainer exam was designed to determine if a candidate possesses the skills
and qualities necessary to work in the fitness industry as a trainer, as well as tests one’s
knowledge on fitness specific to strength and conditioning. It evaluates a candidate’s
knowledge of assessments, program planning, techniques of exercise, legalities and many more
aspects of being a good personal trainer.
Exam Overview
The NSCA Certified Personal Trainer exam is comprised of 155 multiple-choice questions based
on four subject areas. These subject areas are as follows:
- Client Consultation and Assessment

- Program Planning
- Techniques of Exercise
- Safety, Emergency Procedures and Legal Issues
Some the questions are based on videos. You are given three (3) hours to take the 155
question exam. Only 140 of the questions are scored. Test scores range from 1 – 99, with a
passing score being 70 or greater. A small portion of the exam questions are experimental and
not counted toward your score. You will not be informed which questions are these are, so
make every answer count. All blank answers will be scored incorrect.
There are certain qualifications you must meet in order to sit for the NSCA Certified Personal
Trainer exam. You must be at least 18 years of age, have a high school diploma or equivalent
and hold an adult CPR and AED certificate. Note that NSCA does not accept certification from
online CPR and AED courses. Once at the exam location you must present a current official
Photo Identification, which can be a driver's license, passport or military ID.
Registering for the Exam
You can register for your exam online at www.nsca.com. When you register you will choose a
day and time to take your exam.
1
Exam Categories Broken Down Further
The Client Consultation and Assessment questions will test your knowledge on the initial
interview, medical history and health appraisal, fitness evaluation and basic nutrition. You will
need to be able to understand and interpret documents, evaluate a client’s vital signs, body
composition, etc., and understand the basics of nutrition while maintaining your scope of
practice as a CPT.
The Program Planning questions test the subjects of goal setting, program design, training
adaptations and special populations. You will need to know how to use coaching techniques,
select proper exercise components and modalities, understand body structures and systems
and have a grasp on limitations of certain special populations.
The Techniques of Exercise questions will test your knowledge of different types of resistance
exercise, flexibility exercises, functional training, sport-specific exercise and cardiovascular
exercise. You will need to have a working knowledge of the proper implementation and
technique of these exercises as well as the machines associated with them.
The Safety, Emergency Procedures and Legal Issues questions will test your awareness of safety
procedures, emergency response and professional, legal and ethical responsibility. You will
need to be aware of how to maintain a safe exercise environment, standards of exercise
facilities, basic first aid, legalities and confidentiality.
Studying Methods
When studying for any exam it is important to figure out your best study method(s). You may
like to study in the morning or evening. You may like to have study partners or to study alone.
You may drink coffee, stay up late, or wake up early to study. It is your decision how to study; it
is just about finding what works best for you.
When studying it is helpful to determine what type of learner you are, which basically means
what helps you remember what you learn. You may be an auditory learner (hearing things
helps), visual learner (seeing things helps), or kinesthetic learner (doing or saying things helps).
If you are an auditory learner, try either having someone read to you or reading aloud. If you
are visual, take mental notes of how the study materials are laid out. If you are a kinesthetic
learner, try writing out and verbalizing your notes.
The following is a step-by-step process of studying that you might find helpful.
Step 1:
Read through the NSCA’s Essentials of Personal Training 2nd edition once, highlighting areas of
importance which pertain to the 4 subject areas noted above, as well as anything you are
finding difficult to grasp or remember.
2
Step 2:
Take this practice exam. It is best to take the Tests.com practice test before you start studying
to assess your strengths and weaknesses and to evaluate how well you know the material.
Taking a practice test should be one part of your total study plan, including the review of
reference books and text books, class notes, study guides, flashcards and test prep courses.
Highlight the questions you get wrong and use them as a study guide for the exam. Take notes
as needed. You can use the bubble sheet at the end of the test to track your answers. You will
want to mix some test taking into your study habits to vary your activities to keep the process
interesting and to more effectively commit the subject matter to memory. You also want to
practice your test taking skills. Use the online TestSIM function to create a practice test that
simulates a real test. Limit yourself to a certain time period for a certain number of questions
randomly selected. You can do this more than once throughout your preparation period.
TestSIM allows you to tailor a test to fit your schedule. Finally, a few days prior to the actual
test, retake this practice test to evaluate your grasp of the material.
Step 3:
Go back through the manual a second time to re-read the highlighted portions. If you are
ambitious and colors help you, you can highlight each statement in a different color based on
which section of the exam it pertains to. Once you have read through your highlighted sections
a second time, I suggest taking the information with which you are still struggling as well as
information that seems important and putting it onto flash cards. You can color code these as
well and put them into different sections based on the format of the exam. When studying,
picture the answer on the back of the card. Answer them aloud if possible. Study your note
cards periodically until exam day. For online flashcards, check out Tests.com’s flashcard data
bank for the NSCA.
Step 4:
The night before the exam, go though the study guide one more time, reading through the
sections you have highlighted. Read through all of your note cards and whichever questions you
missed on this practice exam. Read any topics you are struggling with aloud a few times.
Remove the note cards you struggle with most and set them aside to look over once more
before the exam. Make sure to get enough sleep.
3
Step 5:
On the day of the exam, eat breakfast. About an hour before the exam, study the note cards
you find most challenging. Take a deep breath and go take your NSCA Certified Personal Trainer
exam with confidence!
Test Taking Methods
When answering a question on any exam, read all of the answers at least once. Re-read the
question if needed, then choose the answer that best answers the question. When answering a
question, rule out all of the answers you know are not correct. If you are left with two possible
answers, re-read the question and determine the best one. The following methods are not
guaranteed to work every time, but if you are stumped on a question they provide a logical plan
of attack.
Similar Answers
Some exams tend to lead you to the correct answer by giving two similar options.
Example:
What is the animal shown?
A) Dog
B) Cougar
C) Fish
D) Tiger
The answer is B. Both B and D are cats. Therefore, you could have narrowed your answers down
to either B or D, and guessed between them if necessary.
Opposite Answers
Like the similar answer questions, some exams tend to lead you to the correct answer by giving
two opposite options. Therefore, it must be one of the two.
4
Example:
Johnny eats pancakes every day. He loves eating them, especially blueberry. If he did not have
pancakes he would be sad.
According to the above statement, which of the following is NOT true?
A) Johnny loves pancakes

B) Johnny hates pancakes
C) Johnny thinks pancakes taste good
D) Johnny likes blueberry pancakes
The answer is B. Since the question contained the word “not”, either the positive statement or
the negative statement must be the correct answer, as they cannot coexist.
Absolute Answers
If a question uses an absolute word in a possible answer, it is most likely not that answer, since
it is common for there to be exceptions to absolute statements. Absolute words include but are
not limited to: all, always, never, none, only.
Example:
Which of the following is a true statement?
A) Kids only eat what they like.

B) People who own red cars always get pulled over.
C) All men like sports.
D) Most dogs like steak.
The answer has to be D, because A, B and C all used absolute answers.
Exam Day
• Don’t forget to breathe. Taking deep breaths is a great way of keeping yourself focused
and calm.
• Move around. Allow yourself time to stretch and look around (if allowed) throughout
the exam. This will help your mind remain focused through the remainder of the exam.
• Visualize your study guides, or hear yourself repeating the correct answers.
5
Extra Resources
The following practice exam was designed to cover each of the four content areas and to
provide a sampling of the types of questions that may be found on the NSCA certified personal
trainer exam.
Good luck on your exam!
Christy Hamilton, NSCA, ACSM
6
NSCA Personal Trainer Practice Exam – Section 1
Client Consultation and Assessments
1. Which of the following is a questionnaire that serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk

appraisal designed to determine contraindications to exercise?
a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

b. Readiness to Change Questionnaire
c. Health History Questionnaire
d. Liability Waiver
2. In which situation should the trainer refer the client to a dietitian?
a. Bill wants advice on losing 100 pounds

b. Shelly would like to learn how to eat healthier
c. Bob has cardiovascular disease and would like to lose 30 pounds
d. Gina is interested in cutting calories to lose weight
3. What information does the Health History Questionnaire collect?
a. Evidence of disclosure.
b. Previous exercise history including adherence experience.
c. Detailed medical and health information.
d. Fitness measurement data.
4. What information does the Informed Consent form collect?
b. Previous exercise history.
5. What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
a. 130/70 mmHg
b. 120/80 mmHg
c. 121/81 mmHg
d. 140/90 mmHg
7
6. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is s condition that affects mainly which system?
a. Musculoskeletal
b. Integumentary
c. Cardiovascular
d. Respiratory
7. When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers
“yes” to a bone or joint problem that could be made worse by a change in physical activity.
What is the next step in his fitness program?
a. Begin training at a low intensity.

b. Talk with her doctor about her readiness for exercise.
c. Conduct a fitness appraisal.
d. Fill out a Health History Questionnaire.
“yes” to chest pain during physical activity as well as currently taking a prescription blood
pressure medication. What is the next step i n his fitness program?

b. Talk with his doctor about his readiness for exe rcise.
9. Which of the following is a method used by personal trainers for gathering dietary intake data in
which clients report what they have eaten in the past 24 hours?
a. Dietary recall
b. Diet records
c. Dietary history
d. Dietary synopsis
10. Your new client informs you that she has diabetes and is taking insulin. What is the most
important thing to do for this client?
a. Make sure she eats a large meal before exercising.

b. Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program.
c. Monitor her blood glucose levels throughout the session.
d. Have her fill out a waiver of liability prior to exercise.
8
11. Mike is a 35-year-old male who weighs 150 pounds. He is moderately active throughout the day.
Approximately how many calories should Mike consume daily?
a. 2,000 calories
b. 2500 calories
c. 2800 calories
d. 3000 calories
12. Your client eats approximately 100 grams of protein, 500 grams of carbohydrates and 50 grams
of fat per day. How many calories is your client consuming daily?
a. 2600 calories
b. 2850 calories
c. 3100 calories
d. 5100 calories
13. Approximately how many grams of protein per kilogram of body weight should an athlete
consume daily?
a. 0.8-0.83 g/kg
b. 1.2-2.0 g/kg
c. 2.0-4.0 g/kg
d. 4.0 or higher g/kg
14. Which of the following nutritional sources could contain added vitamins and minerals?
a. Protein shakes
b. Breakfast cereal
c. Energy drinks
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b only
15. Which of the following comes first in the initial interview?
a. Implement and complete health history forms

b. Assess and interpret results
c. Obtain medical clearance
d. Conduct interview
9
16. Providing a description of available services, evaluating the motivation of an individual and
determining appropriateness are all part of which portion of the client consultation?
a. Discussion of goals
b. Establishing client-trainer agreement
c. Assessing client-trainer compatibility
d. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
17. In which portion of the client consultation are the legal documents, including a written
description of services and the payment process, signed by both the trainer and the client?
18. When filling out the “medications” portion of the Health History Questionnaire, your client lets
you know that he is taking a beta-blocking medication. Once obtaining a physician’s release for
exercise, what is the most important difference in this client’s exercise program versus a client
who is not taking beta-blockers?
a. Use Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) to determine the level at which he is exercising as
his heart rate will not go up.
b. Check his blood pressure throughout his session to ensure it does not spike.
c. Check his heart rate throughout the session to ensure it does not spike.
d. Monitor his consciousness level as beta-blockers will make him drowsy.
19. A client’s resting heart rate should always be checked ____________________.
a. before breakfast
b. when the client is sitting
c. when the client is lying down
d. before the client gets out of bed in the morning
20. When measuring a client’s blood pressure, where should the stethoscope be placed?
a. On the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.

b. On the inside of the client’s w rist.
c. Above the blood pressure cuff.
d. There is no need for a stethoscope.
10
21. Which of the following medications can affect a person’s exercising heart rate?
a. Diuretics
b. Antihistamines
c. Cold Medications
d. Antidepressants
22. In which portion of the client consultation is the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-
Q) administered?
a. Health appraisal screening

b. Initial consultation
c. Evaluation of risk factors
d. Additional screening
23. When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?
a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings
c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius
d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis
24. When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through
restorative exercise?

25. When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

26. Which form of body fat testing measures electrical signals as they pass through the body?
a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Air Displacement Plethysmography (ADP)
c. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA)
d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA)
11
27. Which type of muscle fiber has a larger aerobic capacity?
a. Type IIa
b. Type IIx
c. Type I
d. Type Ib
28. Tight hip adductors and weak gluteus medius muscles can lead to which compensation?
a. Knees moving inward

b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine
c. Lateral torso shift to one side
d. Lack of foot stability
29. Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation?

c. Raised heels
d. Lateral torso shift to one side
30. What are the correct units of measurement for calculating body mass index (BMI)?
a. Weight (lb)/Height (in)

b. Weight (kg)/Height (m)
c. Height (in)/Weight (lb)
d. Height (m)/Weight (kg)
31. Jeanette is a 55-year-old woman who exercises regularly. What is her estimated maximum heart
rate?
a. 165 bpm
b. 220 bpm
c. 185 bpm
d. 55 bpm
32. Mark is a 32-year-old man. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?
a. 200 bpm
b. 188 bpm
c. 168 bpm
d. 190 bpm
12
33. Jim’s 1 repetition maximum for bench press is 10 0 pounds. If Jim follows the typical relative
muscular endurance pattern, approximately what resistance should he be able to bench press
for 10 repetitions?
a. 100 pounds
b. 50 pounds
c. 75 pounds
d. 65 pounds
34. Which of the following is an example of a client who should be referred to a physical therapist?
a. A client complaining of a lower backache after purchasing a new bed.

b. A client with a reoccurring knee injury.
c. A client that walks with a limp.
d. A client that has fallen and hurt their ankle.
35. Which additional Screening form evaluates a client’s dietary i ntake, stress level and level of
physical activity?
a. Assumption of Risk Agreement

b. Informed Consent
c. Lifestyle Inventory
d. Children and Participation Document
36. Which of the following is NOT an element of an Informed Consent form?
a. A waiver of rights to legal remedy in the event of injury

b. A description of the program’s risks
c. A confidentiality clause
d. Responsibilities of the participant
37. Jim is a 47-year-old

47 -year-old man with a Body Mass Index of 32. He has been exercising regularly for the
last 4 months. His blood pressure is 152/94. How many coronary artery disease risk factors does
Jim have?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
13
38. Martha is a 48-year-old woman with a Body Mass Index of 26. Her blood pressure is 126/72. She
has been exercising regularly for the last year. How many coronary artery disease risk factors
does Martha have?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. none
39. How many coronary artery disease risk factors does a person need to have in order to be
classified as “Moderate risk”?
a. 1 or more
b. 2 or more
c. 3 or more
d. 4 or more
40. How many questions on the PAR-Q must an individual answer “yes” to in order to require
clearance from his or her physician prior to beginning an exercise program?
a. 1 or more
b. 2 or more
c. 3 or more
d. An individual should always speak to his/her physician prior to beginning an exercise
program
41. Which of the following necessitates physician clearance prior to beginning an exercise program?
a. Being stratified as “high risk” and desiring to participate in moderate to vigorous exercise
b. Exhibiting signs or symptoms of cardiovascular disease
c. Being stratified as “moderate risk” and desiring to participate in vigorous exercise
d. All of the above
42. Andrea is a 25-year-old woman who has been training with you for 2 months. She has lost 10
pounds in the last 2 weeks. She never misses a session and constantly asks questions about diet.
You have begun to notice that she has been losing muscle mass and she becomes light-headed
upon standing. What possible disorder do these signs point to?
a. Bulimia Nervosa
b. Anorexia Nervosa
c. Disordered Eating
d. All of the above
e. Both b and c only
14
43. You are administering an exercise test on your client and notice she is wheezing. What action
should you take?
a. Have her slow down and resume only when t he wheezing ceases
b. Let her know that she doesn’t have to continue if she is uncomfortable
c. Terminate the test immediately
d. Call 911
44. You are administering an exercise test on your client and he says he is extremely tired and would
like to stop. What course of action should you take?
a. Let him know that exercise tests are meant to be tiring and he needs to keep going
b. Tell him he can slow down if he needs to
c. Have him go get a drink of water and come back to finish the test
d. Terminate the test immediately
45. Which of the following fitness assessments should be administered before the others?
a. Resting heart rate

b. Vertical jump test
c. Aerobic capacity test
d. Maximum strength test
46. Which of the following tests should be administered prior to the others?
a. Anaerobic capacity test

b. Muscular strength test
c. Maximal aerobic capacity test
d. Local muscular endurance test
47. When checking a client’s pulse at rest, you record 18 beats in 15 seconds. What is your client’s
heart rate per minute?
a. 18 bpm
b. 36 bpm
c. 72 bpm
d. 108 bpm
15
48. Which of the following factors will l ikely affect a heart rate assessment?
a. Altitude
b. Smoking
c. Body position
d. All of the above
49. Body Mass Index, or BMI, is the ratio of the measures of a person’s ________________.
a. Body weight (lbs) to Height (ft)

b. Height (ft) to Body weight (lbs)
c. Body weight (kg) to Height (m 2)
d. Height (m2) to Body weight (kg)
50. Which of the following is considered a “normal” Body Mass Index?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
51. Which of the following is an “average” body fat percentage for a 20-year-old male?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
52. Amy is 25 years old. You have recently tested her body fat percentage and determined that she
has 22% body fat. Which category would Amy most likely fall into?
a. Lean
b. Leaner than average
c. Average
d. Fatter than average
16
53. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate skinfold site for assessing body fat percentage with
skinfold calipers?
a. Chest
b. Abdomen
c. Gluteal
d. Thigh
54. Which if the following body composition assessments utilizes a small electrical current, which
passes through the body?
a. Skinfolds
b. Near-infrared resistance
c. Hydrostatic weighing
d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
e. None of the above
55. Which circumferential areas are measured to determine Waist-to-Hip ratio?
a. Smallest part of the waist and largest part of the hips

b. Largest part of the waist and smallest part of the hips
c. Largest part of the waist and largest part of the hips
d. Smallest art of the waist and smallest part of the hips
56. When should heart rate measurements be recorded during a submaximal exercise test?
a. At the end of a constant work rate stage

b. Only at the beginning and end of the assessment
c. After 2-3 minutes of exercise at a constant work rate
d. All of the above
e. Both a and c only
57. Which of the following assessments tests cardiovascular endurance?
a. YMCA Bench Press test

b. Partial Curl-up test
c. Sit and Reach test
d. YMCA Cycle Ergometer test
17
58. Which of the following assessments tests muscular strength?
a. YMCA Step test

b. Rockport Walking test
c. 1-Repetition Maximum Leg Press test
d. Sit and Reach test
59. Which of the following individuals should NOT perform the 1.5-Mile Run assessment?
a. A 35-year-old man who has been exe rcising off and on for 5 years and is training for a 5k.
b. A 45-year-old woman who is new to resistance exercise but frequently enjoys speed-
walking.
c. A 35-year-old woman who has not participated in any form of exercise within the last 6
months.
d. A 45-year old man who is new to exercise and has been jogging for the past several
weeks.
60. Mary is a 60-year-old woman who would like to get back into shape. She has not exercised for 8
years. Which of the following cardiovascular assessments is appropriate for Mary?
a. Rockport Walking test

b. 12-Minute Run/Walk
c. YMCA Step test
61. Which of the following assessments measures upper body muscular endurance?
a. 1-Repetition Maximum Bench Press test

c. YMCA Bench Press test
d. 1-Repetition Maximum Leg Press test
62. Which of the following assessments measures flexibility?
a. YMCA Step test

18
63. What is the best way of assessing abdominal fat in a client who is overweight or obese?
a. Body Mass Index

b. Waist circumference
c. Skinfold measurements
d. Both a and b
64. When reviewing a client’s dietary habits, approximately what percent of his or her calories
consumed should you recommend come from fat?
a. 15% or less
b. 30% or less
c. 40% or less
d. 15% or more
65. Shirley wants to lose 30 pounds. When evaluating her diet, a safe amount of calories to reduce
her usual intake by is approximately _____________________.
a. 100-500 kcal per day

b. 500-1000 kcal per day
c. 1000-1500 kcal per day
d. 1500-2000 kcal per day
66. When discussing nutrition with a client, which of the following should be recommended?
a. Drink 2% milk
b. Drink diet soda
c. Make half your plate fruits and vegetables
d. Eat less protein
67. Which mode of energy expenditure is the l argest contributor to overall energy expenditure?
a. Thermic effect of food

b. Cardiovascular exercise
c. Resistance exercise
d. Resting metabolic rate
19
68. The question, “Do you feel pain in your chest when you do physical activity?” would be found on
which assessment?
a. PAR-Q
b. Health/Medical Questionnaire
c. Personal Training Contract/Agreement
d. Attitudinal Assessment
69. Which of the following is an example of a summative evaluation?
a. PAR-Q
b. Heart rate monitoring
c. Body fat testing
d. Observations made during the session
70. Which of the following is an important factor in selecting appropriate assessments for clients?
a. Functional capacity
b. Age
c. Sex
d. All of the above

Program Planning
71. What is the correct sequence of connective tissue found within the muscle from largest to
smallest?
a. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium

b. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium
c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
d. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium
72. What is the fuel source in the sliding filament theory?
a. Amino acids
b. Fatty acids
c. Creatine phosphate
d. Adenosine triphosphate
20
73. What is considered the basic contractile unit of a muscle?
a. Muscle fiber
b. Actin
c. Myosin
d. Sarcomere
74. Torque produces ___________________.
a. Angular velocity
b. Linear acceleration
c. Angular acceleration
d. Force
75. What is the biomechanical definition of Work?
a. Mass x acceleration
b. Distance x time
c. Force x distance
d. Force x time
76. Which of the following contributes to movement inefficiency?
a. Muscular coactivation
b. Extraneous movements
c. Isometric actions
d. All of the above
77. In which of the following muscle actions does the muscle neither lengthen nor shorten?
a. Concentric contraction
b. Eccentric contraction
c. Cocontraction
d. Isometric contraction
21
78. Which of the following muscles concentrically contract during hip extension?
i) Psoas major
ii) Gluteus maximus
iii) Biceps femoris
iv) Rectus femoris
a. i, ii & iii
b. ii & iii
c. i & iv
d. i, ii & iv
79. Which of the following muscles concentrically contract during knee extension?
i) Rectus femoris
ii) Semimembranosus
iii) Semitendinosus
iv) Biceps femoris
a. ii, iii & iv

b. iv only
c. i only
d. ii & iii
80. Which of the following components of the production of force changes throughout the
movement of a bicep curl with a free weight?
a. Horizontal distance from the weight to the elbow

b. Torque
c. Weight
d. Both a and b
81. Which of the following is an aerobic process through which ATP is replenished?
a. Fast glycolysis
b. Slow glycolysis
c. Phosphagen system
d. Oxidative system
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82. Which of the following is an example of an ACUTE adaptation to resistance training?
a. Muscular creatine phosphate concentration decreases

b. Muscle strength increases
c. Muscular creatine phosphate concentration increases
d. Cocontraction decreases
83. Which of the following is an example of a CHRONIC adaptation to resistance training?
a. Muscular ammonia levels increase

b. Muscle glycogen concentration decreases
c. Muscle endurance increases
d. Cortisol concentration increases
84. Which of the following is an example of a possible neuromuscular adaptation due to r esistance
training?
a. Decreased cocontraction
b. Increase in protein synthesis
c. Increase in number of actin and myosin filaments
d. Increased concentration of creatine phosphate
85. Which of the following is an example of a possible muscular adaptation to resistance training?
a. Decreased risk for osteoporosis later in life

b. Increase in cross-sectional area of a muscle fiber
c. Increased caplliarization
d. Increased fat burning
86. Which of the following is an example of a possible endocrine adaptation to resistance training?
a. Increased tendon stiffness

b. Increased capillarization
c. Increased fat free mass
d. Increased quantity of hormone receptors on target tissue
87. Which of the following describes a possible metabolic adaptation to resistance training?
a. Decrease in mitochondrial density

b. Increase in muscle creatine phosphate concentration
c. Increased motor unit recruitment
d. Decreased cocontraction
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88. Which of the following describes a possible cardiorespiratory adaptation to resistance training?
a. Increased capillarization
b. Increased quantity of hormone receptors on target tissue
c. Increased tendon stiffness
d. Increase in protein synthesis
89. Which of the following is an example of a possible change to bones and cartilage due to
resistance training?
a. Increased motor unit recruitment

b. Hyertrophy
c. Decreased risk of osteoporosis later in life
d. Increased fat free mass
90. Which of the following is an example of a possible adaptation to tendons and ligaments based
on resistance training?
c. Greater number of actin
act in and myosin filaments
d. Increase in collagen production
91. Which of the following is an example of a possible factor of resistance training that influences
adipose tissue?
a. Hypertrophy
b. Increased fat free mass
c. Elevated energy consumption during rest periods
d. Increased motor unit recruitment
92. Which of the following is a possible psychological response to exercise?
a. Decreased stress
b. Diminishing feelings of depression
c. Decreased cognitive ability
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b
24
93. Which of the following is NOT a factor that can influence resistance training adaptations?
a. Age
b. Specificity
c. Sex
d. Culture
94. Which of the following is a possible chronic cardiovascular response to aerobic training?
i) Increased heart rate

ii) Increased stroke volume
iii) Decreased blood pressure
iv) Decreased blood volume
a. i& ii
b. i, iii & iv
c. ii & iii
d. i & iii
95. Your client sets a goal of fitting into a size 6, and decides that once she reaches her goal she will
buy herself 3 new pair of pants. Which motivational technique does this describe?
a. Negative reinforcement
b. Positive reinforcement
c. Intrinsic motivation
d. External regulation
96. Molly is a 25-year-old woman who wants to lose weight and improve lower body strength.
Which of the following is an example of an effective SMART goal for Molly?
a. Molly will complete 30 squats in 2 minutes.

b. Molly will complete 30 body weight squats in 2 m inutes within one week.
c. Molly will eat healthier within 2 weeks.
d. Molly will lose 5 pounds.
97. Jose is 18 years old. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?
a. 202 bpm
b. 200 bpm
c. 220 bpm
d. 218 bpm
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98. What is the workload of 1 MET associated with?
a. Oxygen consumption at rest

b. Energy expenditure at rest
c. Energy expenditure while performing a low-level task
d. Oxygen consumption while performing a low-level task
99. What is the best definition of VO 2 max?
a. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one m inute per pound of body
weight.
b. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one m inute per kg of body weight.
c. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per pound of body
weight.
d. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per kg of body
weight.
100. Which of the following has been thought to represent the highest sustainable level of exercise
intensity?
a. Anaerobic threshold
b. Aerobic threshold
c. First ventilator threshold
d. Talk test threshold
101. Muscular Power takes what two performance factors into account?
a. Force and Velocity

b. Agility and Force
c. Strength and Force
d. Work and Distance
102. The force generating capacity of a muscle based on the relationship between the contractile
proteins of a sarcomere refers to which movement principle?
a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition
26
103. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee joint is responsible for which of the following
actions?
a. Connecting the femur to the fibula

b. Stabilizing the femur on the tibia during knee extension
c. Preventing the tibia from sliding backward
d. Preventing excessive external rotation of the tibia
104. Which of the following are utilized for anaerobic energy production?
a. Glycogen
b. Fatty Acids
c. Amino acids
d. Oxygen
105. Which of the following are utilized for aerobic energy production?
a. Creatine phosphate
b. Fatty acids
c. Glycogen
d. None of the above.
106. During the first two weeks of an exercise program, strength gains are typically a result of what
adaptation?
a. Hypertrophy
b. Motor learning
c. Increased numbers of Mitochondria
d. Transient hypertrophy
107. Monica is a 40-year-old woman with a resting heart rate of 70 bpm. What is her Heart Rate
Reserve (HRR)?
a. 110 bpm
b. 150 bpm
c. 180 bpm
d. 220 bpm
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108. Your client has a goal of hypertrophy. What percentage of his 1 repetition maximum should he
be resistance training within?
a. 40-60%
b. 55-75%
c. 65-85%
d. 85-100%
109. When training for muscular strength, what percentage of an individual’s 1 repetition maximum
should he or she be training within?
a. 30- 70%
b. >70->85%
c. <65-<75%
d. 65-85%
110. When training for muscular endurance, what percentage of an individual’s 1 repetition
maximum should he or she be training within?
a. 30- 70%
b. >70->85%
c. <65-<75%
d. 65-85%
111. When training for muscular power, what percentage of an individual’s 1 repetition maximum
a. 30- 70%
b. >70->85%
c. <65-<75%
d. 65-85%
112. When training for muscular endurance, approximately how many repetitions should be
performed per set?
a. 10-25 repetitions
b. 6-12 repetitions
c. less than or equal to 6 repetitions
d. 1-6 repetitions
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113. When training for muscular power, approximately how many repetitions should be performed
per set?
b. 6-12 repetitions
d. 1-6 repetitions
114. When training for muscular strength, approximately how many repetitions should be performed
per set?
b. 6-12 repetitions
d. 1-6 repetitions
115. When training for muscular hypertrophy, approximately how many repetitions should be
performed per set?
b. 6-12 repetitions
d. 1-6 repetitions
116. Approximately how many sets should a novice perform for any given exercise?
a. 1 set
b. 1-2 sets
c. 1-3 sets
d. 1-4 sets
117. Approximately how long should rest intervals last between sets of exercises targeting muscular
endurance?
a. Less than or equal to 30 seconds

b. 30 seconds to 1.5 minutes
c. 2 to 5 minutes
d. There should be no rest period during e ndurance exercises
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118. How many weeks are typically in an exercise progression plan?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 12 weeks
d. 16 weeks
119. Ratings of perceived exertion, functional capacity, heart rat e and metabolic equivalents are all
methods in which to measure which component of aerobic endurance?
a. Exercise duration
b. Exercise intensity
c. Progression
d. Training frequency
120. Which of the following is a commonly accepted guideline for youth participating in a resistance
training program?
a. Dynamic warm up
b. Increase resistance by 5-10% as strength improves
c. Perform 1-3 sets of 6-15 repetitions
d. All of the above
121. Resistance training has been shown to reduce t he risk of which of the following degenerative
problems in older adults?
a. High blood pressure

b. Insulin insensitivity
c. Low back pain
d. All of the above
122. Which of the following exercises should be excluded from the exercise program of a pregnant
woman who is in her second trimester?
a. Seated chest press

b. Body weight squat
c. Supine abdominal crunches
d. Side-lying abdominal crunches
30
123. Which of the following is a physiological mechanism that affects weight control?
a. Mood/well-being
b. Macronutrient selection
c. Motivation
d. Coping
124. Which of the following is a psychological mechanism that affects weight control?
a. Preservation of lean body mass

b. Caloric expenditure
c. Body image
d. Prevention of decline in resting metabolic rate
125. Which mechanism linking exercise to weight control happens first?
a. Increased self-esteem
b. Increased commitment
c. Improved exercise adherence
d. Increased dietary compliance
126. Which of the following is a potential benefit of exercise in a weight loss program?
a. Improved mood
b. Decrease in abdominal fat
c. Increased energy expenditure
d. All of the above
127. What is an example of an appropriate initial goal?
a. Reducing body weight by 10% over 6 months

b. Reducing body fat by 15% over 3 months
c. Reducing body weight by 5% over 6 months
d. Reducing body fat by 2% over 8 months
128. Which modification of the exercises below decreases the force required to perform the exercise?
a. Squat to weighted squat

b. Abdominal crunch to sit up
c. Squat to lunge
d. Push up to wall push up
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129. Feelings of being fat when thin, slow pulse at rest, amenorrhea and hair loss are all possible
symptoms of what disease?
a. Cirrhosis
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Anorexia nervosa
d. Depression or anxiety
130. Andrew has a waist circumference of 103 cm, HDL cholesterol of 38 mg/dl and a blood pressure
of 150/90. These symptoms may make you consider a discussion on which disorder?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Hyperpnea
d. Metabolic syndrome
131. If an individual’s blood glucose level is under 70 mg/dl, what is the BEST food item to offer him
or her?
a. A tablespoon of sugar or honey

b. A protein bar
c. A diet beverage
d. A glass of water
132. An individual is considered hypertensive and should not be trained until a physician clears him
or her for exercise if he or she has a blood pressure of _______.
a. 135/70 mmHg or higher

b. 140/90 mmHg or higher
c. 150/95 mmHg or higher
d. 160/100 mmHg or higher
133. What is an example of a good exercise for an individual with controlled hypertension, who has a
physician’s release?
a. Interval training
b. The individual should not exercise until he or she is no longer hypertensive
c. Plyometric training
d. Mild to moderate cardiovascular exercise
32
134. What exercises are appropriate for a client who is post-MI with existing coronary artery disease
without associated chest pain?
b. The individual must be medically monitored while exercising and should not be trained
by a personal trainer
c. Light aerobic exercise
135. Which of the following is an appropriate goal for an individual who has suffered from a
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
a. Increase range of motion at shoulders

b. Increase power output of jumps
c. Decrease mile run time
d. Increase speed strength
136. What exercises are appropriate for a client who has been diagnosed as having Chronic
Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
b. The individual should exercise in a formal pulmonary and respiratory rehabilitation
facility, not with a personal trainer
d. Mild to moderate intensity walking
137. What is the BEST way to monitor exercise intensity for an individual who has asthma?
a. Rate of perceived exertion

b. Target heart rate
c. Shortness of breath
d. Both a and c only
138. Which of the following is a common musculoskeletal injury described as degeneration of the
articular or hyaline cartilage of a joint?
a. Osteochondrosis
b. Tendinopathy
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Bursitis
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139. During which phase of tissue healing does type 1 collagen form?
a. Inflammation phase
b. Repair phase
c. Remodeling phase
d. Injury phase
140. Which of the following activities should typically be performed during the proliferation phase of
a musculoskeletal injury?
i) Control pain and inflammation

ii) Range of motion
iii) Functional strengthening
iv) Balance and proprioception
a. i, ii & iv
b. ii & iv
c. iii & iv
d. ii & iii
141. Which of the following exercises should NOT be performed with a client who suffers from
lumbar pain?
a. Spinal stabilization exercises

b. Spinal flexion exercises
c. Posture corrections
d. Flexibility exercises
142. Which of the following exercises is a contraindication for an individual who suffers from a disc
injury of the lumbar spine?
a. Isometric extensor stretching

b. Passive lumbar extension stretches
c. Extensor strengthening
d. Knee-to-chest stretch
143. Which of the following exercises is indicated for an individual who suffers from a lower back
muscle strain?
a. Lumbar extension
b. Lumbar flexion
c. Knee-to-chest stretch
d. None of the above
34
144. Which of the following exercises are generally indicated for rehabilitation from impingement
syndrome?
i) Rotator cuff strengthening

ii) Lateral dumbbell raise
iii) Upright row above shoulder level
iv) Incline bench press
a. i & ii
b. iii & iv
c. i, ii & iii
d. i only
145. Which of the following exercise sets represent a correct recommendation for an individual with
anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction, following the guideline of “contraindicated,
indicated”?
a. Stiff-leg deadlift, Leg curl

b. Leg curl, Stiff-leg deadlift
c. Full leg extension, Step-up
d. ¾ squat, Full leg extension
146. A 53-year-old male is suffering from osteoarthritis. Which of t he following represent appropriate
exercises for him?
a. Running
b. Snow skiing
c. Jogging
d. Stair stepper
147. Venous return, temperature regulation and heart rate are all special concerns for individuals
with what type of ailment?
a. Diabetes
b. Heart disease
c. Spinal cord injury
d. Older adults
35
148. Mary has been diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis (MS). She has notified you that she is taking
multiple medications reduce the severity of attacks and to treat spasticity and fatigue. Which of
the following should you consider as potential side effects of commonly taken MS medications?
a. Fatigue
b. Risk of seizures
c. Hypotension
d. All of the above
149. Which of the following is a sport-specific exercise associated with jumping?
a. Lunge
b. Angles leg press
c. Box step-up
d. Power clean
150. Matthew is a 24-year-old male who is a pitcher for a baseball team. He has come to you for
sport-specific training. Which exercise is the MOST appropriate for Matthew?
a. Front shoulder raise

b. Reverse curl
c. Split squat
d. Power snatch
151. Molly is soccer player. She is looking to improve her kicking ability power. Which of the
following is the BEST exercise for her to perform in order to be specific to her goal?
a. Angled leg press

b. Squat jump
c. Lunge
d. Box step-up
152. You are training a client in separate strength, strength power, hypertrophy, endurance, and
competition phases. Which method of training is this an example of?
a. Non-linear periodization
b. Linear periodization
c. Cyclical periodization
d. General periodization
36
153. You have your client focusing on hypertrophy in weeks 1-3 and strength-power in weeks 4-6.
What type of periodization is this example of?
154. What type of periodization involves vacillating microcycles?
155. Which type of periodization is this example of?
Monday: Power exercises

Tuesday: Heavy exercises
Thursday: Light exercises
Friday: Moderate exercises
156. Which of the following shows the correct order of resistance training cycles from longest to
shortest?
a. Macrocycle, microcycle, mesocycle

b. Mesocycle, microcycle, macrocycle
c. Macrocycle, mesocycle, microcycle
d. Microcycle, mesocycle, macrocycle
157. Sarcopenia refers to the idea that adults in their 30s and 40s l ose approximately how many
pounds of muscle per year?
a. 0.5 pounds
b. 1 pound
c. 1.5 pounds
d. 2 pounds
37
158. Sarcopenia refers to the idea that adults in their 50s may lose up to how many pounds of muscle
per year?
a. 0.5 pounds
b. 1 pound
c. 1.5 pounds
d. 2 pounds
159. The average American adds approximately how many pounds of body weight each decade of his
or her adult life?
a. 5 pounds
b. 10 pounds
c. 15 pounds
d. 20 pounds
160. The average American adult has a reduction of approximately what percent of resting metabolic
rate per decade of his or her life?
a. 1-3%
b. 2-4%
c. 3-5%
d. 4-6%
161. What is an example of an appropriate repetition and resistance relationship for older adults in a
lower strength stimulus resistance training program?
a. 95% max, 4 reps

b. 55% max, 30 reps
c. 65% max, 14 reps
d. 50% max, 10 reps
162. Which of the following would contribute to a positive energy balance?
a. An increase in physical activity

b. An increase in calories consumed
c. A decrease in calories consumed
d. An increase in metabolic rate
38
163. Which of the following would contribute to a negative energy balance?

c. A decrease in physical activity
d. A decrease in metabolic rate
164. Which Obesity class would an individual with a body mass index of 31.2 fall under?
a. Obesity class I
b. Obesity class II
c. Obesity class III
d. Morbid obesity
a. Obesity class I
b. Obesity class II
d. Morbid obesity
a. Obesity class I
b. Obesity class II
d. Morbid obesity
167. What is an appropriate initial weight loss goal?

b. Reducing body weight by 10% over 6 months
d. Reducing body weight by 15% over 6 months
168. Which of the following is an example of an appropriate initial weight loss goal?
a. Matt currently weighs 200 pounds. He will lose 30 pounds in 6 months.

b. Jenna currently weighs 160 pounds. She will lose 16 pounds in 3 months.
c. Jacob currently weighs 250 pounds. He will lose 25 pounds in 6 months.
d. Marcus currently weighs 220 pounds. He will lose 10 pounds in 6 months.
39
169. Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical moderate amount of physical activity?
a. Walking 1 ¾ miles in 35 minutes (20 minutes per mile)

b. Raking leaves for 30 minutes
c. Playing volleyball for 15-20 minutes
d. Swimming laps for 20 minutes
170. Which of the following is an example of self-monitoring?
a. Charting progress toward a goal

b. Identifying barriers to a goal
c. Identifying obstacles to eating healthily
d. All of the above
171. What is hyperpnea and in which individual is it most likely to occur?
a. Decreased respiratory rate, over trained client

b. Increased respiratory rate, undertrained client
c. Decreased respiratory rate, undertrained client
d. Increased respiratory rate, over trained client
172. What is dyspnea and in which individual is it most likely to occur?
a. Labored breathing, undertrained client

b. Decreased respiratory rate, undertrained client
c. Increased respiratory rate, over trained client
d. Labored breathing, over trained client
173. Approximately how many days per week is it recommended for an obese individual perform
a. 1-2 days per week

b. 2-3 days per week
c. 3-4 days per week
d. Obese individuals should not perform resistance training
174. What is the minimum recommendation for aerobic conditioning for individuals who are obese?
a. At least 30 minutes 5 days per week

b. At least 20 minutes 5 days per week
c. At least 20 minutes 3 days per week
d. At least 60 minutes 5 days per week
40
175. What is the Female Athlete Triad?
a. Overeating leads to obesity which leads to heart disease

b. Disordered eating leads to osteoporosis which leads to amenorrhea
c. Disordered eating leads to amenorrhea which leads to osteoporosis
d. Overeating leads to obesity which leads to amenorrhea
176. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate goal for an individual with Hyperlipidemia?
a. Decreasing LDL levels

b. Initiating a therapeutic life change
c. Increasing HDL levels
d. Decreasing HDL levels

Techniques of Exercise
177. Beth is a 28-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long should she
rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise?
a. Less than 30 seconds

b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds
178. Abigail has been training with you for a year. She has begun seeing less results lately and is
becoming discouraged. What is the best way to increase the results she is getting when she has
reached a plateau and is unable to increase resistance or number of repetitions?
a. Decrease number of repetitions for a short period of time.

b. Decrease resistance for a short period of time.
c. Increase training frequency to more days per week.
d. Change the exercise modality.
179. What is the general idea behind periodization?
a. Changing the training exercise.

b. Increasing resistance by 5%.
c. Exercising the appropriate muscles.
d. Varying training intensity and vo lume.
41
180. Which training modality cannot utilize a 5% increase in training intensity as effectively?
a. Training for muscular strength

b. Training for hypertrophy
c. Training for muscular endurance
181. James has been training for and competing in triathlons for 5 years. He wants to increase
running speed and cycling power. How many times should you suggest he train per week?
a. 2-3
b. 3-4
c. 4-6
d. 4-7
182. Which of the following is an example of a “superset”?
a. 3 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and leg press with no rests in between.
b. 3 sets of 10 repetitions of leg press with 30 second rests in between.
c. 4 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 30 second rests in
between.
d. 3 sets of 10 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 60 second rests in
between
183. Which of the following is an example of alternating pushing and pulling exercises within a
session?
a. 3 sets of chest press alternating with 3 sets of chest flys

b. 3 sets of leg press alternating with 3 sets of squats
c. 3 sets of bicep curls alternating with 3 sets of tricep push-downs
d. 3 set of lat pulldowns alternating with 3 sets of rows
184. Jim has been resistance training with you for a month. He has been performing sets of 10-15
repetitions on the leg press. You have been gradually increasing the exercise workload, and he
can currently perform 15 leg presses per set with 200 pounds. Which of the following is the best
way to progress from here?
a. Increase the resistance to 220 pounds.

b. Increase the number of repetitions per set to 20.
c. Increase the resistance to 210 pounds.
d. Decrease the number of repetitions to 10.
42
185. When training a client with scapular protraction, which of the following exercises should be
avoided until the postural misalignment has been corrected to prevent further aggravation of
the misalignment?
a. Lat Pull Down

b. Row
c. Back extension
d. Chest Press
186. You are working with a client whose right shoulder appears to be lower than her left. Which
muscles should you have her stretch?
a. Right upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids

b. Left Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
c. Right Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
d. Left upper trapezius, levator scaula and r homboids
187. Which of the following is an example of a positive progression in functional movement and
a. Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge

b. Lunges to Wall sits
c. Wood chop to Pelvic tilts
d. Plank to Prone lies on stability ball with torso movements
188. Which of the following is an inappropriate exercise for a woman who is 5 months pregnant?
a. Graded walking on a treadmill

b. Step-ups
c. Jump rope
d. Abdominal crunches
189. Which of the following is a factor that may influence flexibility at a joint?
a. Joint structure
b. Age
c. Sex
d. All of the above
e. Only a and b
43
190. What type of flexibility training induces a passive stretch that does not activate the stretch reflex
within the muscle?
a. Ballistic stretching
b. Static stretching
c. Dynamic stretching
d. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation
191. What type of flexibility training is no longer considered an acceptable method for increasing
range of motion (ROM)?
a. Static stretching
b. Ballistic stretching
192. What type of flexibility training incorporates sport-specific movements?
a. Dynamic stretching
c. Static stretching
193. For which of the following clients would dynamic stretching be an appropriate form of flexibility
training preceding exercise?
a. A client who is beginning to train with you this week and is interested in becoming more
active
b. A client who is training for a m artial arts competition
c. A client who recently completed physical therapy after knee surgery
d. A client who has osteoporosis
194. Which of the following is an example of an appropriate warm-up for resistance training?
a. Jogging
c. Ballistic stretching
44
195. Which situation represents and appropriate time to perform flexibility training?
a. Prior to a warm-up
b. Prior to resistance training
c. Prior to cardiovascular training
d. After cardiovascular training
196. Which of the following is an example of a “specific warm-up”?
a. Taking a hot shower prior to jogging

b. Jogging before resistance training
c. Speed-walking before jogging
d. Jumping rope before boxing
197. Which of the following is an example of a “passive warm-up”?

198. What is an example of body weight training?
a. Push-ups
b. Bench press
c. Weighted squats
d. Medicine ball tosses
199. What is the optimal way to gain maximal benefits from body weight training?
a. Using quick motions to increase heart r ate

b. Performing less repetitions to avoid plateauing
c. Performing each repetition slowly to ensure perfect technique
d. Stretching before and after training
45
200. Which of the following is a likely potential benefit of the use of a stability ball in resistance
training?
i) Improved balance
ii) Improved neuromuscular control
iii) Muscular hypertrophy
iv) Decreased incidence of injury
a. i & ii
b. i & iv
c. i & iii
d. i, ii & iv
201. Which of the following is an example of a dynamic flexibility exercise?
i) Arm circle
ii) Modified push-up
iii) Neck flexion for 30 seconds
iv) Lunge walk
a. i & ii
b. iii only
c. i & iv
d. i, ii & iv
202. What represents proper form for an abdominal crunch on a stability ball?
a. Lying supine on the ball with hips below the ball

b. Lying prone on the ball with hips on the ball
c. Lying supine on the ball with hips on the ball
d. Lying supine on the ball with hands behind the head, pulling gently upward
203. Which flexibility exercise focuses on the rectus femoris, gluteus maximum, iliopsoas and
hamstrings?
a. Lunge walk
b. Knee to chest
c. Butterfly
d. Semistraddle
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204. Which of the following muscles does the push-up target?
i) Pectoralis major
ii) Triceps brachii
iii) Anterior deltoid
iv) Erector spinae
a. i only
b. i & iii
c. i, ii & iii
d. i, ii, iii and iv
205. Which body weight exercise targets the erector spinae?
a. Push-up
b. Step-up
c. Extended abdominal crunch
d. Twisting back extension
206. Which of the following exercise uses a pronated grip?
a. Bicep curl
b. Wrist curl
c. Overhead press
207. What is the most common grip width when performing exercises with a barbell?
a. Close
b. Hip-width
c. Shoulder-width
d. Wide
208. When performing a seated exercise, how many contact points should you instruct your client to
maintain?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 5
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209. When performing a resistance exercise, it is best to exhale at what point in a repetition?
a. Eccentric phase
b. Concentric phase
c. In between repetitions
d. At the beginning of the repetition
210. A weightlifting belt is recommended in which of the following situations?
i) Squat at 15% of 1RM

ii) Dead Lift at 90% 1RM
iii) Overhead Press at 85% 1RM
iv) Lat Pulldown at 90% 1RM
a. i, ii and iii
b. ii and iii
c. ii and iv
d. ii only
211. Which of the following exercises requires a spotter?
i) Standing shoulder press

ii) Lying triceps extension
iii) Bench press
iv) Leg press
a. i, ii and iii
b. i, iii and iv
c. iii only
d. i and iii
212. How should the personal trainer spot an over-the-face barbell exercise?
a. Grasp the bar between the client’s hands using an alternated grip
b. Grasp the bar outside the client’s hands using a supinated grip.
c. Guide the bar between the client’s hands using open hands
d. Place their hands over the client’ s hands
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213. Where should the personal trainer position his or her hands when spotting an overhead
dumbbell exercise?
a. Upper arms
b. Elbows
c. Dumbbells
d. Wrists
214. Which of the following exercises should not be spotted?
a. Supine dumbbell flys

b. Squat with bar on shoulders
c. Squat with bar in front
d. Power clean
215. Which of the following resistance training exercises target(s) the chest?
i) Bent over row

ii) Dumbbell lateral raise
iii) Flat dumbbell fly
iv) Flat barbell bench press
a. i and iv
b. iv only
c. iii and iv
d. ii, iii and iv
216. Which of the following resistance training exercises target(s) the hips and thighs?
i) Back squat
ii) Forward lunge
iii) Standing heel raise
iv) Bent-over-row
a. ii only
b. i and ii
c. i, ii and iii
d. i and iii
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217. When performing a bent-over row, with which grip should you hold the bar?
a. Supinated shoulder width

b. Pronated hip width
c. Pronated wide
d. Pronated shoulder width
218. When performing a bent-over row, what stance should be taken?
a. Shoulder-width stance with knees slightly to moderately flexed

b. Hip-width stance with knees slightly to moderately flexed
c. Shoulder-width stance with legs straight
d. Wide stance with legs straight
219. When performing a bicep curl with a bar, which of the following should be true?
i) Move the bar in an upward arc toward the shoulders

ii) Keep the upper arms stationary
iii) Position the upper arms at a slight angle from the floor
iv) Keep the elbows slightly flexed at t he end of the downward phase
a. i only
b. i and ii
c. iii and iv
d. i and iii
220. What grip should be taken when performing a lying triceps extension with a bar?
a. An open pronated grip

b. A closed pronated grip
c. An open supinated grip
d. A closed supinated grip
221. Which of the following makes up the best stance for performing heel raises?
i) Knees slightly to moderately bent

ii) Hips under the shoulders
iii) Toes on the nearest edge of the step
iv) Feet and legs parallel to each other
a. ii and iv
b. i, ii and iii
c. ii, iii and iv
d. iii only
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222. Which of the following is a common error made during the flat barbell bench press?
a. Bouncing the bar off the chest

b. Lifting the buttocks off the bench
c. Raising the head off the bench
d. All of the above
223. At what height should the handgrips be positioned during a vertical seated chest press?
a. Ribcage level
b. Nipple level
c. Collar bone level
d. Shoulder level
224. Which muscles are targeted by the back squat?
i) Gluteus Maximus
ii) Hamstrings
iii) Erector Spinae
iv) Quadriceps
a. i and ii
b. ii and iv
c. i and iii
d. i, ii and iv
225. Which of the following muscles are targeted by a forward lunge?
i) Iliopsoas of the trailing leg

ii) Soleus of the trailing leg
iii) Gastrocnemius of the lead leg
iv) Iliopsoas of the lead leg
a. ii, iii and iv

b. ii and iv
c. i and iii
d. i only
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226. When spotting a seated shoulder press with a bar, which of the following should the personal
trainer do?
i) Stand behind the client

ii) Grasp the bar inside the client’s hands
iii) Use an open, supinated grip
iv) Continue holding the bar as it descends
a. i and iii
b. i, and ii
c. i, ii and iii
d. ii and iv
227. Which of the following muscles does the lateral raise target?
i) Latissimus dorsi
ii) Rhomboids
iii) Deltoids
iv) Trapezius
a. i and ii
b. ii, iii and iv
c. iii and iv
d. iii only
228. What is the proper sequence of events in a power clean?
a. Pull, catch, pull, scoop

b. Pull, scoop, pull, catch
c. Pull, scoop, catch
d. Scoop, pull, catch
229. Which of the following should be included in a proper starting stance for of a power clean?
a. Back flat or slightly arched

b. Shoulders rounded
c. Head down
d. Feet slightly narrower than shoulder width apart
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230. What is the general guideline for frequency of cardiovascular exercise?
a. 1-3 sessions per week

b. 2-5 sessions per week
c. 4-6 sessions per week
d. 5-7 sessions per week
231. What is the general guideline for the optimal level of intensity of cardiovascular exercise?
a. 30-55% of Heart Rate Reserve

b. 3-4 on a Rate of Perceived Exertion scale
c. 50-85% Heart Rate Reserve
d. Full sentences during a Talk Test
232. As a general guideline, cardiovascular exercise should be performed for approximately how long
in duration?
a. 25-45 minutes
b. 20-60 minutes
c. 30-60 minutes
d. 30-90 minutes
233. What is the best example of cardiovascular program variation?
a. Staying with treadmill running because your client is exce lling at it

b. Switching between using the treadmill, bike and e lliptical throughout the month
c. Alternating speeds and incline on the treadmill
d. Adding swimming into the training routine once a month.
234. What are the primary muscles worked when walking or running on a treadmill?
a. Quadriceps, hamstrings, gluteals and gastrocnemius

b. Quadriceps, hamstrings, erector spinae and soleus
c. Gastrocnemius, soleus, hip flexors and erector spinae
d. Soleus, rectus abdominis, hamstrings and quadriceps
235. Which of the following is a proper hand position when using a stationary bicycle?
a. Palms facing down on the front of t he handlebar

b. Neutral grip on the sides of the handlebar
c. Forearms resting on the sides of the handlebar
d. All of the above
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236. Which cardiovascular training machine might you suggest to a client with arthritis?
a. Treadmill
b. Stair Climber
c. Rowing Machine
d. Stationary Bicycle
237. Janet is 55 years old, new to exercise and has had a knee injury in t he past. Which exercise
modality best suits her?
a. Treadmill running
b. Swimming
c. Elliptical trainer
d. All of the above
238. During long-distance or treadmill running, what is the sequence of a proper foot strike?
a. Toe, roll to the heel, push off

b. Heel, roll to the toe, push off
c. Ball of foot, roll to heel, push off
d. Heel, roll to ball of foot, push off
239. How many ounces of fluid should be consumed following exercise per pound of body weight
lost?
a. 14-18 oz
b. 16-20 oz
c. 20-24 oz
d. 24-28 oz
240. Which general training principle involves a training stress or intensity that is greater than what
the client is used to?
a. Specificity
b. Overload
c. Variation
d. Progression
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241. Which step comes before the others in a sequential approach to designing a resistance training
program?
a. Exercise selection
b. Determination of training frequency
c. Training volume
d. Progression
242. Which step comes last in a sequential approach to designing a resistance training program?
a. Progression
b. Rest periods
c. Training load
d. Fitness evaluation
243. During what portion of the resistance training program should you ask the question, “How many
times per week do you resistance train?”
a. Fitness evaluation
b. Exercise selection
c. Exercise order
d. Initial consultation
244. What is the primary factor a personal trainer should consider when determining a client’s
training frequency?
a. The client’s overall level of fitness

b. The client’s goals
c. The client’s resting heart rate
d. All of the above
245. Jenny is a 45-year-old woman who has not exercised regularly in over 5 years. She is looking to
get back into shape. At what frequency should you schedule her resistance training?

d. 4-5 days per week
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246. With which type of client should the personal trainer select one type of exercise per muscle
group?
a. Intermediate
b. Beginner
c. Advanced
247. Which of the following displays a commonly used guideline for t he order of resistance exercises?
i) Power, core, assistance

ii) Core, power, assistance
iii) Multijoint, single-joint
iv) Small muscles, large muscles
a. i, iii and iv
b. ii, iii and iv
c. ii and iv
d. i and iii
248. In which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle does the signal reach the muscle, causing reflexive
contraction?
a. Eccentric phase
b. Amortization phase
c. Concentric phase
d. Refractory phase
249. Which individual is ready to begin a plyometric training program?
a. Mary has 3 months of resistance training experience, demonstrates proper technique

and although she sprained her ankle 6 months ago she has no current injuries.
b. James has 2 months of resistance training e xperience, demonstrates proper technique
and has no current injuries.
c. Matt has 2 years of resistance training experience, demonstrates proper tec hnique, and
has recently been experiencing slight pain in his left knee.
d. Monica has 3 years of resistance training experience, could use some help on her form
during drills, and has no current injuries.
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250. Which of the following is an example of a low-intensity speed drill?
a. Front barrier hop

b. Downhill sprinting
c. Stationary arm swing
d. Uphill sprinting
251. Which of the following is an example of a stride frequency speed drill?
a. Downhill sprint
b. Double-leg hop
c. Split squat jump
d. Uphill sprint
252. Which of the following is an example of a stride length speed drill?
a. Downhill sprint
b. Double-leg hop
c. Split squat jump
d. Uphill sprint
253. Which of the following is an example of a lower body plyometric drill?
a. 45-degree sit-up
b. Ankling
c. Butt kicker
d. Front barrier hop
254. During the stretch-shortening cycle in plyometric exercise, in which phase does the st retching of
the agonist muscle(s) occur?
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
255. During the stretch-shortening cycle in plyometric exercise, in which phase does the shortening of
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
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256. During the stretch-shortening cycle in plyometric exercise, which phase represents a pause
between muscle actions?
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
257. During which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is elastic energy stored and muscle spindles
stimulated?
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
258. During which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is a signal sent to the stretched muscle?
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
259. During which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is the stretched muscle stimulated and
energy released?
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
260. In which order does the stretch-shortening cycle occur?
a. Amortization, concentric, eccentric

b. Concentric, amortization, eccentric
c. Eccentric, amortization, concentric
d. Eccentric, concentric, amortization
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261. Which balance performance level would a drill of standing on one leg for 30 seconds fall under?
a. Beginning
b. Intermediate
c. Advanced
d. Professional
262. Which balance performance level would a drill of holding a quarter squat for 30 seconds fall
under?
a. Beginning
b. Intermediate
c. Advanced
d. Professional
263. Which balance performance level would a drill of holding a single-leg half squat for 30 seconds
fall under?
a. Beginning
b. Intermediate
c. Advanced
d. Professional
264. What percentage of a client’s body weight should his or her squat 1 repetition maximum be
prior to performing lower body plyometric exercises?
a. 75%
b. 100%
c. 150%
d. 200%
265. For individuals under 220 pounds, what percentage of a client’s body weight should his or her
bench press 1 repetition maximum be prior to performing upper body plyometric exercises?
a. 75%
b. 100%
c. 150%
d. 200%
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266. For individuals over 220 pounds, what percentage of a client’s body weight should his or her
a. 75%
b. 100%
c. 150%
d. 200%
267. What are the primary muscles used when using a stationary bicycle?
a. Quadriceps
b. Gastrocnemius
c. Recus abdominis
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b
268. What is the most commonly used sequential order of the performance of typical exercise types?
a. Core exercises, assistance exercises, power exercises

b. Power exercises, assistance exercises, core exercises
c. Assistance exercises, core exercises, power exercises
d. Power exercises, core exercises, assistance exercises
269. In resistance training, which of the following is an example of a compound set?
a. Incline bench press immediately followed by dumbbell fly

b. Incline bench press followed by dumbbell fly with a 30 second rest in between
c. Leg press immediately followed by heel raises
d. Leg press followed by heel raises with a 30 second rest in between
270. Which resistance exercise combination is an example of power, core, assistance order?
a. Push press, power clean, seated heel raise

b. Push press, front squat, wrist curl
c. Front squat, triceps press-down, seated hee l raise
d. Power clean, triceps press-down, seated heel raise
271. Which resistance exercise combination is an example of multi-joint to single-joint order?
a. Squat and press, incline bench press

b. Back squat, leg curl
c. Three-way shoulder, squat and press
d. Leg curl, squat and press
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272. Which resistance exercise combination is an example of large muscle to small muscle order?
a. Lateral raise, power clean

b. Bent over row, overhead squat
c. Snatch grip Romanian deadlift, abdominal crunch
d. Snatch grip Romanian deadlift, power snatch
a. Lateral raise, overhead squat, power snatch

b. Bench press, push press, wrist curl
c. Power snatch, bench press, lateral raise
d. Push press, overhead squat, front squat

Safety, Emergency Procedures and Legal Issues
274. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to stretching?
a. Presence of osteoporosis
b. Joint swelling
c. Prolonged immobilization of muscles
d. A healing fracture site
275. When on the treadmill your client becomes dizzy and passes out. She hits her head on the
ground. She is unconscious and non-responsive. What is an appropriate action to t ake?
a. Go to a phone and call 911.

b. Gently move her out of the way of bystanders and prop her head with a pillow.
c. Have a coworker call 911 while you stay with her.
d. Begin CPR.
276. Howard is a diabetic client whom you have been training for 3 months. While exercising he
begins to show signs of hypoglycemia. What is the best course of action?
a. Discontinue the exercise and have Howard sit down, give him something sugary to drink
and monitor him.
b. Give Howard a sugary drink and continue the e xercise, monitoring him.
c. Have Howard discontinue the exercise and give him a protein bar and diet drink.
d. Contact EMS as this is a potential life-threatening situation.
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277. Upon approaching a client who is unconscious and non-responsive, what should you check and
in which order?
a. Circulation, breathing and airway

b. Breathing, airway and circulation
c. Airway, breathing and circulation
d. Airway, circulation and breathing
278. You are training a client with Epilepsy and he begins having a seizure on the leg press machine.
Which of the following is an appropriate action to take?
a. Restrain him so he does not fall

b. Put your pen in his mouth to keep him from biting his tongue
c. Administer the client’s medication
d. Assist him to the ground if necessary
279. You notice that a member of the gym has fallen to the ground. What is the first thing you should
do?
a. Call 911
b. Begin CPR
c. Check the ABCs
d. Ask her if she is ok
280. What questions should you ask a victim of a fall who is conscious?
a. Medical history
b. Spouse’s name and phone number
c. If they would like you to c all someone to pick them up
d. Their age and weight
281. In which situation should you call 911?
a. A client has fallen and twisted his ankle.

b. A member has fallen and hit her head and is responsive
c. A client needs to sit down from dizziness after a difficult bout of exercise
d. A client is having difficulty breathing and you are unsure of w hat to do
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282. In which situation is it not necessary to call 911?
a. Your client has had a seizure

b. A member is suffering from chest pain
c. Your client is vomiting and ends her session early
d. A member is threatening to hit another member
283. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, passageways must be at least how wide?
a. 36 in
b. 32 in
c. 46 in
d. 60 in
284. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, hallways and circulation passages must be at
least how wide?
a. 36 in
b. 40 in
c. 60 in
d. 65 in
285. All resistance training machines should be spaced at least _______ apart.
a. 1 foot
b. 2 feet
c. 3 feet
d. 4 feet
286. Which of the following are important considerations in a home facility?
a. Cords from treadmills

b. Children and pets
c. Electrical supply
d. All of the above
287. Which of the following is a question you may be expected to answer when calling 911?
a. What number are you calling from?

b. Are you able to assist with CPR?
c. Do you have access to an AED?
d. All of the above
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288. What is the purpose of CPR?
a. To help the body maintain perfusion.

b. To get air into the person’s lungs.
c. To keep the person conscious.
289. On whom should you use an Automated External Defibrillator (AED)?
a. A client who is unconscious and breathing shallowly.

b. A member who is unconscious and not breathing but has a pulse.
c. A member who is unconscious, not breathing and does not have a palpable pulse.
d. A member who is barely conscious and complaining of chest pain.
290. Which of the following are signs of hypoglycemia?
a. Excess sweating
b. Hunger
c. Feeling energetic
d. All of the above
291. Your client has been running sprints outside on a hot summer day. She begins to become dizzy
and pale with cool, clammy skin. What steps should you take to prevent heat stroke?
a. Have her lie down in a cool area with her feet elevated and give her fluids.
b. Have her sit down and wait until she feels better to resume exercise.
c. Give her plenty of fluids and wait to c ontinue exercise until she feels better.
d. Discontinue exercise and send her home.
292. Your client is exercising outside on a hot day and becomes confused. She has hot, bright red skin
and is having difficulty breathing. She is scared and dizzy. What is the best course of action to
take?
a. Discontinue exercise, call 911 and begin actively cooling her.

b. Discontinue exercise, begin actively cooling her and c all 911.
c. Discontinue exercise, have her sit down inside and give her fluids.
d. Discontinue exercise, have her lie down inside with her head elevated and begin actively
cooling her.
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293. Your client trips over a piece of exercise equipment and falls, twisting her ankle. She cannot get
up on her own and it is painful to stand on. What is the best course of action?
a. Help her over to a chair, wrap her ankle for her and offer her some ibuprofen.
b. Call 911 immediately.
c. Help her to a chair, offer an ice pack and allow her to call someone to transport her t o
the hospital.
d. Let her know that she has sprained her ankle and take her to the hospital.
294. Legal claims in health and fitness activities generally have to do with which of the following?
a. Screening responsibilities
b. Fitness recommendations
c. Emergency response
d. All of the above
295. Which legal term is associated with the failure to comply with a legally determined duty to
protect another person, therefore causing them harm?
a. Breach of duty
b. Negligence
c. Informed consent
d. Proximate cause
296. Which of the following legal documents can serve as a defense in a negligent case?
a. Informed consent
b. Assumption of risk
c. Failure to pay notice
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b
297. Which of the following documents contains a contractual promise not to bring claim in the event
of injury?
a. Informed consent
c. Release of liability waiver
d. Industry standards and guidelines
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298. Which of the following fitness facility structures should be i nspected and cleaned daily?
a. Walls
b. Ceiling
c. Floor
d. Windows
299. What is the recommended size of an Olympic lift platform and surrounding cushion area?
a. 5 feet by 5 feet with 3-4 feet open on each side

b. 8 feet by 8 feet with 3-4 feet open on each side
c. 10 feet by 10 feet with 4-5 feet open on each side
d. 6 feet by 6 feet with 3-4 feet open on each side
300. Which of the following is not a symptom of inflammation at a joint?
a. Pain
b. Warmth
c. Increased range of motion
d. Loss of function
301. What is a proper place to store an incident report?
a. In your desk drawer

b. On your desk
c. In a locked filing cabinet at t he gym
d. In a locked filing cabinet in your home
e. Either a or c only
302. Which of the following is an example of negligence?
a. Neglecting to ask if your client would like some water.

b. Neglecting to give your client a break in the middle of their session.
c. Neglecting to spot a client during a bench press exercise.
d. Neglecting to ask a client for payment before the session.
303. Which of the following is an example of a personal trainer performing duties outside of their
scope of practice?
a. Advising the client to look up the food pyramid online.

b. Advising the client on how to better perform the bench press exercise.
c. Advising the client on how to stre tch the hamstrings.
d. Advising the client on supplements to take for increasing muscle mass.
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304. Which of the following is NOT an overuse condition?
a. Tendinitis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Stress fracture
d. Bursitis
305. Which of the following is a common management technique for musculoskeletal injuries?
a. Anti-inflammatory medication
b. Avoiding aggravating movements
c. Physical therapy
d. All of the above
306. Which of the following exercises should be avoided in a person with carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. Overhead Press
b. Elbow extension
c. Abdominal crunch
d. Lat pulldown
307. Which of the following is an example of a confidential document that should remain in a locked
drawer?
a. Daily exercise logs

b. Fitness assessment data
c. An incident report from a fall
d. Personal trainer’s schedule
308. Which of the following is an acceptable temperature for a fitness facility?
a. 66 degrees Fahrenheit
b. 18 degrees Celsius
c. 69 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 24 degrees Celsius
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309. Which process is state-mandated through which certain professionals are authorized to provide
defined services to others?
a. Certification
b. Legal authority
c. Negligence
d. Licensure
310. Which law is in place in order to deal with issues related to c onduct that is prohibited by federal
or state laws?
a. Contract law
b. Tort law
c. Criminal Law
311. Which type of civil law covers wrongful acts or omissions that occur between parties?
a. Contract law
b. Tort law
c. Criminal Law
d. Negligent law
312. Which law is based on promises legally bargained for between two parties?
a. Contract law
b. Tort law
c. Criminal Law
d. Negligent law
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NSCA Personal Trainer Practice Exam
Answers with Explanations
1. a - The PAR-Q is a simple questionnaire designed to screen for readiness for low to mo derate
intensity training.
2. c - Personal trainers should refer their clients to a dietitian if the client is in a disease state.
3. c - The health history questionnaire collects detailed information about an individual’s health
background such as medications, surgeries, family history and lifestyle information.
4. a - The informed consent form is whe re your client acknowledges their “assumption of risk”,
serves as evidence of disclosure of risks and communicates the potential dangers of exercise. It
does not release liability.
5. d - An individual with blood pressure greater t han or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and/or 9 0 mmHg
diastolic is considered to be hypertensive, or high blood pressure, making it a risk factor for
cardiovascular disease.
6. d - COPD is a common respiratory problem, affecting the lungs and an individual’s oxygen carrying
capacity.
7. b - If a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them
to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program before any other
actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal.
8. b - If a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them
9. a - The form of dietary data collection in which a person recalls what they have e aten in the last 24
hours is called dietary recall.
10. b - It is very important for a client receiving insulin for diabetes to consult with a physician prior t o
beginning any kind of exercise program, both for legal reasons as well as client safety.
11. c - A man who is moderately active should take in approximately 19 kcal/lb, or in Mike’s case 2850
calories/day.
12. b - There are 9 cal/g of fat and 4 cal/g of carbohydrates and protein. 9 x 50 = 450, 4 x 500 = 2000
and 4 x 100 = 400. Add these together and you get 2850 calories per day.
13. b - An athlete should consume 1.2-2.0 grams per kilogram of body weight daily. Anything over 4.0
g/kg can be dangerous.
14. d -– All of the above could possibly contain added vitamins and minerals.
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15. d - Conducting the interview is the absolute first step in the initial interview process.
16. c - These all take place initially, in the assessment of compatibility.
17. b - When establishing the client-trainer agreement a legal document is signed outlining the
process, services rendered and payment plan.
18. a - Beta-blockers keep a person’s heart rate from going up past a certain point, therefore
rendering heart rate monitoring useless for determining the intensity at which someone is
exercising. Therefore, RPE is the only w ay you will be able to determine if this person is exercising
at the desired intensity.
19. b - Although resting heart rate may be slightly lower when a client is lying down or has just woken
up, it is only necessary for them t o be sitting to acquire an accurate resting heart rate.
20. a - In order to hear the blood flow when releasing the pressure of the cuff, the stethoscope must
be placed on the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.
21. c - Some cold medicines can increase a person’s exercising heart rate. These are generally
medications designed for sinus congestion.
22. a - Administering the PAR-Q is part o f health appraisal screening.
23. a - Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight.
When an anterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip flexors and/or
erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine.
24. b - When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the
action that is occurring. In the case of an anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the rectus
abdominis and the hamstrings.
25. b - Generally, the muscles supporting the oc curring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight.
When a posterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight rectus abdominis
and/or hamstrings, possibly causing reverse lordosis in the lumbar spine.
26. d - BIA passes electrical signals through fat, lean mass and water in t he body to determine body fat
percentage.
27. c - Type I muscle fibers are typically smaller with the capacity to sustain low levels of activity for
extended periods of time. There is no such thing as type Ib muscle fibers.
28. a - The muscles that oppose the inward movement of the knees are weak and the muscles that
generate it are tight, therefore causing the movement to occur.
29. c - The plantarflexor muscles cause the heels to elevate and, therefore, tight, or overactive,
plantarflexors can lead to the inability to kee p heels in contact with the floor.
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30. b - BMI is a ratio of weight to height, or weight/height. You must make sure to first convert height
to meters and weight to kilograms.
31. a - A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is 220 – age.
32. b - A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is 220 – age.
33. c - Most people can complete about 10 repetitions at 75% of their 1RM.
34. b - Any reoccurring injury should be addressed by a physical therapist to avoid further injury
through exercise.
35. c - Lifestyle inventories evaluate personal choices and pattern o f physical activity, diet and stress.
36. a –- The Release/Assumption of Risk Agreement includes a waiver of rights to legal remedy in t he
event of injury, NOT the Informed Consent form.
37. c - Jim’s coronary artery disease risk factors are as follows: He is a man over the age of 45, BMI of
over 30 and blood pressure higher than 140/90.
38. d - Martha is a woman who is less than 55 years old, has a body mass index of less than 30, blood
pressure that is lower than 140/9 0 and has been exercising regularly for at least 3 months.. This
gives her no CAD risk factors.
39. b - An individual with 2 or more risk factors for CAD is considered “Moderate r isk”.
40. a - If an individual answers “yes” to one or more questions on the PAR-Q it is recommended that
he or she consult his/her physician prior to exercise.
41. d - Any of the above requires physician clearance prior to exercise testing and prescription, as well
as an individual who answers “yes” to any question on the PAR-Q.
42. e - Andrea shows signs of anorexia as well as disordered eating based on her we ight and muscle
loss and obsession with diet and exercise.
43. c - If a client is wheezing or extremely short of breath the test should be terminated immediately.
44. d - If a client requests to stop the test should be terminated immediately.
45. a –- General fitness tests should be administered before athletic performance tests. Resting heart
rate is a general fitness test. It is also important to determine R HR prior to administering any form
or aerobic test to determine a baseline.
46. b –- General fitness tests should be administered before athletic performance tests. Muscular
strength is a general fitness test. It is important to test muscular strength prior to rigorous testing.
47. c - There are 4 intervals of 15 seconds in one minute, therefore in order to determine a person’s
heart rate per minute you must multiply number of beats/15 seconds by 4. 18 x 4 = 72.
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48. d - Altitude, smoking and body position can all affect a hear t rate assessment.
49. c - BMI is the ratio of a person’s body weight in kg to their height in m2.
50. b - A BMI of 18.5-24.9 is considered to be within the “normal” range.
51. c - A male of 18-25 years of age with a body fat percentage of 13-15% is considered “average”.
52. c - A woman of 18-25 years of age with a body fat percentage between 22-23% is considered
“average”.
53. c - The gluteals are not an appropriate area in which to te st body fat percentage as they do not
provide an accurate measurement proportional to t he rest of the body and it is not an appropriate
place to touch a client.
54. d - Bioelectrical impedance analysis utilizes a small, painless electrical curre nt, which passes
through the body to determine body composition.
55. a - The waist-to-hip ratio is determined by dividing the measurement of the smallest part of the
waist by measurement of the large st part of the hips.
56. e - Heart rate should be monitored at least every 2-3 m inutes and at the end of a constant work
rate stage.
57. d - The YMCA cycle ergometer test assesses cardiovascular endurance.
58. c - The 1-repetition maximum leg press test assesses absolute muscular strength.
59. c - An individual should regularly use running or fast walking and should have at least a few weeks
of training under their belt before participating in the 1.5-Mile Run assessment.
60. c - The YMCA step test and the Astrand-Rhyming cycle ergometer test are both acceptable
assessments for detrained individuals.
61. c - The YMCA Bench Press test assesses upper body muscular endurance t hrough continual
repetitions to fatigue.
62. d - The sit and reach test measures flexibility and range of motion at the hips and lower back.
63. d - In overweight or obese individuals it may be difficult to obtain an accurate body fat perce ntage
with skinfold measurements (calipers). It is better to begin with BMI or waist circumference and
monitor for change.
64. b - Approximately 30% or less of a person’s calories should come from fat.
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65. b - It is considered safe for a person to lose 1-2 pounds per week. Reducing a person’s calories
consumed by 500-1000 calories per day creates a deficit of 3500-7000 calories per week, which is
equivalent to 1-2 pounds.
66. c - Making half of your plate fruits and vegetables is a recommendation from MyPlate.gov.
67. d - Your resting metabolic rate contributes to about 60-75% of your total daily ener gy expenditure.
68. a - The PAR-Q asks yes or no questions such as the question above.
69. d - An informal observation is considered a summative evaluation of the client.
70. d - All of the above should be considered prior to selecting assessments for clients.
71. c - This shows the order of connective tissues from largest to smallest. Epimysium encases the
muscle, perimysium acts as connective tissue between muscle fibers and endomysium encases
each single muscle fiber, or cell.
72. d - Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the fuel source in the sliding filament theory.
73. d - The sarcomere is found within eac h muscle fiber (cell) and contains both actin and myosin. It is
considered the basic contractile unit of a muscle.
74. c - Torque produces angular acceleration, while force creates linear acceleration.
75. c - Work is the product of force times the distance through which an object moved.
76. d - All of the above can contribute to movement inefficiency, and can le ad to earlier tiring of
muscles.
77. d - The muscle neither lengthens nor shortens in an isometric contraction, and therefore there is
no movement around the joint.
78. b - The gluteus maximus and biceps femoris contribute to the concentric contraction occurring
during hip extension, while the others conce ntrically contract during hip flexion.
79. c - The rectus femoris concentrically contracts during knee extension, while the others
concentrically contract during knee flexion.
80. d - Since the horizontal distance from the weight to the e lbow changes, so does the torque
produced throughout the motion, even though the weight stays the same. This then changes the
resistance throughout the motion.
81. d - The oxidative system requires o xygen and therefore is aerobic.
82. a - An acute adaptation to resistance training occurs immediately after an exer cise bout. Muscular
creatine phosphate concentration tends to decrease after an exercise bout but over time can
increase.
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83. c - A chronic adaptation to resistance training occurs after repeated training bouts and continue
for long periods of time after the exercise bouts are over. It takes more than one bout of exercise
for muscular endurance to increase.
84. a - Resistance training has been shown to decrease cocontraction of agonist and antagonist muscle
groups, which is a neurological adaptation.
85. b - Hypertrophy, or the increase in cross-sectional area of a muscle fiber, is the primary adaptation
of skeletal muscle to resistance training.
86. d - Increased quantity of recepto rs for certain hormones on target tissue is thought to be a
possible endocrine response to resistance training, amplifying the effect of a given concentration
of a hormone.
87. b - Studies have shown that an incre ased concentration of creatine phosphate occurs in the m uscle
tissue after a bout of exercise. This is a metabolic change.
88. a - Resistance training induces increased capillarization of muscle tissue, w hich is a

cardiorespiratory adaptation.
89. c - Resistance training has been shown to decrease the risk for osteoporosis later in life, which is
an adaptation of the skeletal system.
90. d - Resistance training has been linked to increased collagen production as well as turnover in
tendons.
91. c - Increased energy consumption after resistance training facilitates fat loss.
92. e - Exercise can decrease stress and diminish feelings of depression. It can also enhance, not
decrease, cognitive ability.
93. d - All of the above except a person’s culture can affect resistance training results.
94. c - Chronic cardiorespiratory responses to aerobic exercise include decreased heart rate, increased
stroke volume, decreased blood pressure and increased blood volume.
95. b - Getting a reward when a goal is a achieved is a form of positive reinforcement.
96. b - This SMART goal is specific (body weight, 2 m inutes), measureable (30 in 2 minutes), attainable
(it is not out of her reach), relevant (lower body strength) and time-bound (within one week).
97. a - An individual’s estimated MHR is 220 - age . In Jose’s case this is 202 bpm.
98. a - One MET is equivalent to oxygen consumption at rest , which is approximately 3.5 mL/kg/min.
99. b - VO 2 max is the maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of body
weight. It is also called maximum oxygen uptake or maximal aerobic capacity.
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100. a - The anaerobic, or lactate threshold, is used as a marker of exercise performance as it is thought
to indicate when an exercise intensity can no longer be sustained.
101. a - Power = Force x Velocity, or Work/Time. It takes into account how quickly and forcefully a
person can perform an activity.
102. c - The length-tension relationship refers to sarcome re length and the relationship between the
contractile proteins actin and myosin, which determine the force production of a muscle fiber.
103. b - The ACL is responsible for connecting the femur to the tibia, stabilizing the femur on the tibia
during knee extension, preventing the tibia from sliding forward and preventing excessive internal
rotation of the tibia during walking.
104. a - Glycogen and creatine phosphate are the main substrates utilized for anaerobic energy
production.
105. b - Fatty acids are the main substrate utilized for aerobic energy production.
106. b - Most strength increases in the first two weeks of a training program are typically due to
increased motor unit recruitment within the nervous system as opposed to an increase in muscle
size, which comes later.
107. a - Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) is the difference between a person’s resting heart rate and their
maximum heart rate (MHR). We can use the Karvonen method to determine her HRR. Since
Monica is 40, we can determine her MHR by subtraction 40 from 220, which gives us 180 bpm.
Then we take 70 away from 180 to get a HRR of 110 bpm.
108. c - When training for hypertrophy it is important to stay between 65-85% of your 1RM.
109. b - When training for muscular strength it is best to stay within a range that is greater than or
equal to 70-85% of 1RM.
110. c - When training for endurance it is important to keep the work load low in order to keep the
repetitions high. Therefore, the best percent of a person’s 1RM for endurance is less than or equal
to 65-75%.
111. a - Power is force x velocity. There is a specific window in which both of these factors can be
maximized, and this window is between approximately 30-70% of a person’s 1RM.
112. a - Endurance training typically requires the highest amount of repetitions per set, around 10-25.
113. d - When training for power it should only take 1-6 repetitions per set if the individual is being
challenged enough.
114. c - When training for strength, 6 or less repetitions should be performed at high levels of
resistance.
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115. b - When training for hypertrophy, 6-12 repetitions per set is the best volume.
116. c - A beginner should perform 1-3 sets of any given exercise.
117. a - Rest intervals during endurance e xercise should last for 30 seconds or less.
118. d - An exercise progression program generally covers 16 weeks of resistance training before it is
reevaluated and a new progression plan is made.
119. b - Ratings of perceived exert ion, functional capacity, heart rate and metabolic equivalents are all
ways to measure exercise intensity.
120. d - All of the above are generally accepted guidelines when training youth.
121. d - Resistance training has been shown to reduce the risk of all of the above and more in older
adults.
122. c - Supine, or back-lying exercises have the potential to cause restricted blood return to the heart
after the first trimester of pregnancy, and should be phased out by the second trimester.
123. b - Macronutrient selection (carbohydrates, fat and protein) is a physiological way people can
affect their weight.
124. c - Body image is an internal marker of how someone feels about his or her body, therefore it is
psychological.
125. a - Increased self-esteem leads to increased commitment, adherence and compliance.
126. d - All of the above and more are potential benefits of exer cise, especially in a weight loss
program.
127. a - A reduction in body weight by 10% over six months is an appropriate initial goal because this is
a moderate amount of weight over a significant amount of time.
128. d - Modifying the regular push up exer cise to a wall push up decreases the force required to
perform the exercise.
129. c - The above symptoms are all possible symptoms of anorexia nervosa.
130. d - If a person has 3 or more of the most common symptoms, he or she is c onsidered to have
metabolic syndrome. These symptoms also encompass elevated LDL levels and elevate d fasting
glucose levels.
131. a - If an individual is showing a blood glucose level lower than 70 mg/l he or she should eat
something high in sugar to get the level back up. Protein, water or a diet beverage will not help.
132. b - A blood pressure of 140/90 or higher is considered hypertensive and a physician’s release is
required.
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133. d - An individual with controlled hypertension and a release can exercise, but it should be kept to
mild to moderate activities that do not spike the heart rate.
134. b - Any individual that has had a heart attack (MI) and has coronary artery disease is a ve ry high
risk for another heart attack among other medical emergencies and needs to be medically
monitored while exercising.
135. a - An individual who has had a stroke (CVA) should focus on balance, coordination and range of
motion activities as well as activities that focus on daily living.
136. b - An individual with COPD needs to exe rcise in a facility in which he or she can be formally
monitored, such as a pulmonary or respiratory re habilitation facility.
137. d - Both a and c are good ways to monitor intensity for an individual with asthma. He or she may
not be able to reach his/her target heart rate.
138. c - This is the definition of osteoarthritis.
139. c - Type 1 collagen forms during the remodeling, or maturation phase.
140. b - During the proliferation phase (the middle phase of healing), the focus should be on range of
motion and balance and proprioception.
141. b - All of the above are suggested exercises for clients who have low back pain except spinal
flexion, which can exacerbate the pain.
142. d - Even minimal spinal flexion can aggravate disc injuries and should be avoided.
143. d - There are no exercise indications for individuals who are currently suffering from lumbar
muscle strains. Exercises involving the spine should be avoided until t he individual is healed.
144. d - Rotator cuff strengthening is the only type of shoulder-related exercise indicated for individuals
with impingement syndrome.
145. c - Full range leg extensions are contraindicated for individuals who have undergone ACL
reconstruction, where step-ups are r ecommended, along with stiff-leg deadlifts, leg curls and ¾
squats.
146. d - Bicycling, stair stepping, elliptical training and swimming are all examples of exercises which are
indicated for individuals who suffer from osteoarthritis. Note that each exe rcise is low-impact.
147. c - The above concerns are important to monitor when working with an individual with a spinal
cord injury, since temperature control can be off, heart rate elevated and blood pressure lowered.
148. d - All of the above are potential side effects of commonly taken MS me dications.
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149. d - The power clean is specific to jumping because it uses explosive power, while the other
examples do not.
150. a - The front shoulder raise targe ts the muscles used in pitching a ball, and the refore is the most
sport-specific for Matthew.
151. b - Since Molly is looking to improve kicking POWER, the best exercise is squat jumps because it
incorporates power into a lower body exe rcise such as a squat.
152. b - These phases are an example of linear periodization.
153. b - Linear periodization separates training focuses into phases over significant periods of time.
154. a - Non-linear periodization involves alternating exercise modalities through microcycles within
one week.
155. a - Non-linear periodization involves alternating exercise modalities through microcycles within
one week.
156. c - Macrocycles last from 1-4 years, mesocycles several weeks to a few months and microcycles
from one to four weeks.
157. a - Adults lose approximately half a pound of muscle each ye ar once they reach their thirties and
forties.
158. b - Adults may lose up to one pound of muscle each year once they ar e in their 50s.
159. b - The average adult American gains approximately 10 pounds every 10 years of his or her life.
160. b - The average American adult has a reduction of approximately 2-4 percent of resting metabolic
rate per decade of his or her life.
161. c - An acceptable lower strength stimulus for older adults falls between 14 and 16 repetitions at
60-65% of his or her 1 repetition maximum.
162. b - Positive energy balance occurs w hen a person consumes more calories than he or she burns.
163. a - Negative energy balance occurs w hen a person consumes less calories than he or she burns.
164. a - Obesity class I encompasses BMI levels of 30.0-34.9.
165. b - Obesity class II encompasses BMI levels of 35.0-39.9.
166. c - Obesity class III encompasses BMI levels higher than 40.0, and is co nsidered “Extreme obesity”.
167. b - Reducing body weight by 10% ove r 6 months is an appropriate initial weight loss goal.
168. c - 25 is 10% of 250, and over six months t his is an appropriate initial weight loss goal.
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169. c - Playing volleyball is not typically considered moderate intensity until it has been played for 45-
60 minutes. Both intensity of the activity itself and duration of the activity factor in to determine
the amount of physical activity.
170. d - All of the above are examples of self-monitoring.
171. b - Hyperpnea is an increased respiratory rate and is most likely to occur in an undertrained client.
172. a - Dyspnea is labored or difficulty breathing, and is most likely to occur in an undertrained client.
173. b - It is recommended that obese individuals perform resistance training approximately 2-3 days
per week.
174. a - It is recommended that obese individuals participate in aerobic conditioning for at least 30
minutes and a minimum of 5 days per week to maximize calorie burning.
175. c - Disordered eating (not eating enough) leads to amenorrhea (the stopping of a woman’s
menstrual cycle) which leads to osteoporosis. This is the Female Athlete Triad.
176. d - It is recommended that an individual increase HDL levels, which helps to balance
Hyperlipidemia.
177. b - A person exercising for the purpose of general fitness should rest for 30-90 seconds in between
sets of a resistance exercise.
178. d - When a client begins to experience diminishing returns due to having reached their full genetic
potential, introducing a new form of exerc ise will change the stimulus and force their body to
continue changing.
179. d - Periodization is about intentionally varying the components of training, especially volume and
intensity, over specific segments of time.
180. b - When training for hypertrophy an individual performs a large number of exercises with short
recovery periods, which does not facilitate a simple 5% increase for every exercise. Therefore,
when training for hypertrophy intensity increases are determined on an individual basis.
181. d - An athlete with advanced skill like James should train no less than 4 times a wee k and can train
up to 7 if done properly.
182. a - A superset is a compound of exercises or sets of exercises performed in sequence with little or
no rest between them.
183. c - When alternating pushing versus pulling, the exercises must alternate between targe ting
muscles on either side of the joint. Biceps are on anterior side of t he elbow joint and triceps are on
the posterior side.
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184. c - When progressively increasing a workload (resistance), it is best to increase in incre ments of
5%, which in this case is 10 pounds.
185. d - Scapular protraction occurs when the serratus anterior and synergistic muscles are tight and
muscles of the upper back are weak. Chest press is an exercise that strengthens the serratus
anterior, and should be avoided to prevent incre ased tightness in the muscles causing the
imbalance.
186. d - If the right shoulder appears to be lower, the likely cause is elevation of the left shoulder. This
can be caused by tight, shortened muscles pulling it upward. The muscles that elevate the
shoulder are the upper trapezius, levator sc apula and rhomboids.
187. d - When progressing in functional movement and resistance training it is important to start with
static exercises and move to movement training. Plank is a static exercise focusing on core and
torso movements on a stability ball focus on the core as well but with added movement, thus
progressing the exercise in a positive direction.
188. c - Pregnant women are generally advised to avoid any form of jumping.
189. d - All of the above can affect flexibility as well as activity level, resistance t raining, temperature,
hyperlaxity and muscle and connective tissue.
190. b - Static stretching is passive in that there is no act ive pressure placed on the joint (pushing with
your hand), and static stretching is so slow and gentle for the purpose of avoiding activation of the
stretch reflex.
191. b - Ballistic stretching can be dangerous in that an individual can exceed the extensibility limits of
the involved tissues, and therefore is not recommended for flexibility training. It activates the
stretch reflex and therefore is not likely to increase ROM at the joint.
192. a - Dynamic stretching involves movements that are specific to a sport or movement patte rn.
193. b - A client who is training for a specific sport would benefit most from dynamic stretching, as well
as any client who has been training for a while, has no joint injuries or bone problems and is
looking to increase flexibility.
194. a - It is necessary for a warm-up to increase blood flow to the entire body and to incre ase body
temperature, which jogging accomplishes.
195. d - It is important to only perform flexibility training when the muscles have had a chance to warm
up. It is generally unnecessary and sometimes dangerous to perform flexibility training prior to a
workout.
196. c - Speed-walking utilizes the same major muscle groups as jogging, and therefore is considered a
“specific warm-up”.
197. a - Utilizing an outside source to w arm the body is considered a “passive warm-up”.
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198. a - Push-ups utilize only the individual’s body weight as resistance during the e xercise.
199. c - Performing each repetition slowly and with control will ensure the individual is reaching their
full range of motion and obtaining maximum benefits from the exer cise.
200. d - The use of stability balls has been shown to increase balance, improve neuromuscular control
and therefore decrease the incidence of injury.
201. c - Circling the arms and walking lunges are both examples of dynamic stretches in that they both
move the joint through its full range of motion.
202. c - The individual should be lying supine (with back on the ball) with their feet on the floor, hips on
the ball and head resting in their hands.
203. a - Any form of lunge stretches all of the above muscles.
204. c - Push-ups target the pectoralis major, triceps brachii and anterior deltoid. While the er ector
spinae may function as a stabilizer muscle group, they are not directly targeted by this exer cise.
205. d - While the erector spinae act as stabilizer muscles for many exercises, they are only targeted
specifically by exercises such as the back ex tension or twisting back extension.
206. c - The overhead press uses a pronated grip, with palms down and knuckles up.
207. c - Shoulder width is the most commonly used grip width when working with a barbell.
208. d - A five-point body contact position is important to maintain when performing a se ated or prone
exercise.
209. b - When performing resistance t raining, it is important to exhale during the concentric, or difficult
point in the repetition. This is also referred to as the “sticking point”.
210. b - A weightlifting belt is recommended for ground-based, structural exercises that involve lifting
maximal or near maximal loads.
211. a - Any free weight exercise performed over the head, over the face, with a bar on the upper back
or with a bar positioned on the front of the shoulders requires a spotter.
212. a - Grasping the bar between the client’s hands with an alternate d grip offers the most control.
213. d - The trainer should position his or her hands at the client’s wrists, close to the dumbbells.
214. d - Power exercises should not be spotted. Instead they should be performed in a segregated area.
215. c - The flat dumbbell fly and the flat barbell bench press both target the c hest.
216. b - The back squat and the forward lunge target the hips and thighs.
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217. c - When performing a bent over row you should use a grip w ider than shoulder or hip width with
the hands pronated.
218. a - When performing a bent-over row your knees should be slightly to moderately flexed and you
should assume a shoulder-width stance.
219. b - When performing a bicep curl with a bar, you should keep your upper arms stationary and
move the bar in an upward arc toward your shoulders.
220. b - A closed, pronated grip is the safest and most effective grip to use when performing lying
triceps extensions with a bar.
221. a - When performing heel raises yo u should be positioned with the balls of your feet on the edge
of the step, your hips under your shoulders, le gs straight and feet parallel to your legs.
222. d - All of the above are common errors made during the flat barbell bench press.
223. b - The handgrips should be positioned at nipple level during a vertical seated chest press.
224. d - The back-weighted squat targets t he gluteus maximus, quadriceps and hamstrings.
225. c - The forward lunge targets the iliopsoas of the trailing leg and the soleus and gastrocnemius of
the lead leg. It may be helpful to look at a muscle diagram while pe rforming the exercise to
understand which muscles are being targeted.
226. b - When spotting a seated shoulder press w ith a bar, the personal trainer should stand behind the
client and grasp the bar inside the client’s hands with a closed, alternated grip, hands hovering as
the bar descends.
227. c - The lateral raise targets the deltoids and the t rapezius muscles.
228. b - The proper sequence of a power clean is 1st pull, scoop, 2nd pull, catch.
229. a - When performing a power clean your back should be flat or slightly arched, shoulders back,
head up and feet slightly wider than shoulder width apart.
230. b - Cardiovascular exercise should be performed 2 -5 times per week for best results.
231. c - Cardiovascular exercise should be performed at a level of 50-85% of a person’s Heart Rate
Reserve.
232. b - Cardiovascular exercise should be performed for at least 20 minutes, and generally people do
not perform cardiovascular exercise for longer t han 60 minutes.
233. b - Utilizing different forms of cardiovascular exercise m ultiple times per month is an example of
cardiovascular program variation.
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234. a - The primary muscles worked when walking or running on a treadmill are the quadriceps,
hamstrings, gluteals and gastrocnemius.
235. d - All of the above are possible hand positions for stationary cycling.
236. d - Stationary bicycles and elliptical trainers are e xamples of low-impact cardiovascular training
machines, which is important for a person with art hritis.
237. e - Swimming or an elliptical trainer are generally choices that would suit a client who is new to
exercise and has had a past injury.
238. d - The proper sequence of the foot strike is heel, gently roll to the ball of the foot, for push off.
239. c - A person should consume 20-24 ounces of water for every pound lost during cardiovascular
exercise.
240. b - Overload refers to increasing the difficulty level of training to induce changes in t he body.
241. b - You should first determine how many days per week your client is going to train, then establish
types of exercises, etc.
242. a - Progression is the final step in sequencing a resistance training program in order to produce
positive results.
243. d - Questions about training intensity, frequency and mode should be asked during the initial
interview.
244. a - The most important factor to consider when determining training frequency is the client’s
overall level of fitness.
245. b - A beginner to exercise should participate in resistance training 2-3 days per week for optimal
results.
246. b - With a beginner the trainer may elect to train each muscle group with one exercise type for
each in order to develop a training base.
247. d - Power should always come first and assistance exercises last, multijoint before single-joint and
large muscles before small muscles when designing a resistance training program.
248. c - The concentric phase is the phase in which contraction occurs. There is no such thing as the
refractory phase.
249. a - In order to meet the minimum requirements for plyometric training, an individual must have at
least 3 months of resistance training e xperience, proper technique during drills and no current
injuries to involved body parts.
250. c - Any stationary speed exercise is typically a lower intensity.
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251. d - An uphill sprint is an example of a stride frequency speed drill in that the m ain focus is the
frequency of strides.
252. a - A downhill sprint is an example of a stride length speed drill in that the length of the strides is
the main focus.
253. d - The front barrier hop is an example of a lower body plyometric drill.
254. c - The eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is the phase in which the concentric
muscle(s) are stretched.
255. d - The concentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is the phase in which the concentric
muscle(s) shorten.
256. b - The amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is the phase in which a pause between
muscle actions takes place.
257. c - Potential energy is generated and a signal is sent to the spinal cord during the eccentric phase.
258. b - Nerves synapse in the spinal cord and a signal is sent to the muscle that has been stretched
during the amortization phase.
259. d - Elastic energy is released once the stretched muscle is stimulated during the concentric phase.
260. c - An eccentric stretch begins the cycle, followed by a transitory pause in the amortization phase
and then a concentric contraction.
261. a - Single-leg standing drills fall under the beginner category of balance drills.
262. b - Double-leg quarter squat drills fall under the intermediate category of balance drills.
263. c - Single-leg half squat drills fall under t he advanced category of balance drills.
264. c - A client’s squat should be at least 1.5 times his or her body weight prior to attempting lower
body plyometric exercises.
265. c - For a client under 220 pounds, his or her bench press should be at least 1.5 times his or her
body weight prior to attempting upper body plyometric exercises.
266. b - For a client over 220 pounds, his or her be nch press should be at least 1 times his o r her body
weight prior to attempting upper body plyometric e xercises.
267. e - Both the quadriceps and the gastrocnemius are prime movers in the use of a stationary bicycle.
268. d - The order typically involves multi-joint exercises first, then single-joint exercises.
269. a - A compound set is two exercises performed simultaneously that both target the same muscle
group.
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270. b - The push press exercise is a power exercise, front squat is a core exercise and wrist curl is an
assistance exercise.
271. b - The back squat utilized multiple joint movements, while the leg curl is strictly a knee
movement.
272. c - The snatch grip Romanian deadlift utilizes large muscle groups, while the abdominal crunch
focuses only on one muscle group.
273. c - The power snatch exercise is a power exercise, bench press is a core exercise and lateral raise is
an assistance exercise.
274. d - While some conditions may pose slight concern and re quire extra consideration while
stretching, a healing fracture site should never be stretched, no matter what.
275. c - It is necessary to call 911 if your client is unconscious, but you should never leave your client.
You should never move someone with a possible head or neck injury unless they are somewhere
life threatening.
276. a - You should discontinue exercise at the first signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It is not
yet necessary to contact EMS. It is important to give the person something sugary to eat or drink
as opposed to anything with artificial sweeteners or only protein. He should be monitored in case
he loses consciousness.
277. c - The ABCs are Airway, Breathing and Circulation, in that order. This will ensure that the most
life-threatening issues are addressed first.
278. d - Assisting a client to the ground and placing him or her in a prone or side-lying position is an
option. The rest are not acceptable.
279. d - The first thing you should do is to ask the victim if they are okay. You can determine if they are
conscious and potentially rule out any of the other options with this simple question, as well as
prevent frightening them.
280. a - A person’s medical history is pertinent and logical information to ascertain in a medical
emergency.
281. d - Whenever you are unsure of what to do in a medical emergency you should call 911. Difficulty
breathing is a medical emergency and can turn fatal within minutes, so it is important to call 911 in
the case of difficulty breathing.
282. c - It is not necessary to call 911 when a client is vomiting, unless it is uncontrollably or interfering
with their breathing.
283. a - Passageways must be at least 36 inches to accommodate for wheelchairs.
284. c - Hallways and circulation passages must be at least 60 inches wide.
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285. b - Resistance training machines and equipment should be spaced at least 2 feet apart, preferably
3.
286. d - All of the above should be considered when training a client in a home facility.
287. d - All of the above are question you might be asked when calling 911.
288. a - The purpose of CPR is to help the person’s body maintain perfusion, or blood flow and oxygen
delivery to tissues.
289. c - An AED should only be used if the person is unconscious, not breathing and has no palpable
pulse.
290. e - Excess sweating and hunger are signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) as well as weakness
and fatigue.
291. a - When a client is showing signs of heat exhaustion it is important to remove t hem from the heat,
give fluids and elevate their feet to avoid shock.
292. b - It is important to begin actively cooling someone who is showing signs of heat stroke as soon as
possible. Use cold, wet washcloths, ice packs, or even a cool bath. Once you have begun t his
process, activate EMS.
293. c - This is a situation in which the person can make his or her own decision about contacting EMS.
It is not okay to diagnose an injury or illness, wrap the injury, or give any medication. Just help the
person become more comfortable and offer something non-invasive like an ice pack.
294. d - All of the above and many more are associated with lawsuits against personal trainers/fitness
facilities.
295. b - Negligence occurs when a person breaches a duty owed to another where the breach of that
duty causes harm..
296. e - Informed consent and assumption of the risk forms can serve as a defense in a negligent case.
297. c - A release of liability waiver serves as a contractual promise not to file suit or claim in the eve nt
of an injury.
298. c - The floors should be inspected and cleaned daily to prevent hazards.
299. b - The recommended size of an Olympic lift area for safety is 8 feet by 8 feet with 3-4 feet open
on each side.
300. c - A person suffering from inflammation will experience decreased range of motion at that joint
due to swelling.
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301. c - It is not appropriate to take any incident reports home, and they must remain in a locked
cabinet.
302. c - This could potentially cause harm to the client and goes against what a “re asonable and
prudent professional” would do.
303. d - It is out of the personal trainer’s scope of pract ice to advise clients on supplements.
304. b - Osteoporosis is a condition in which bone density decre ases, and it not related to overtraining.
305. d - All of the above are common techniques for managing musculoskeletal injuries, as well as
ice/heat modalities and cortisone injections.
306. a - The overhead press puts the wrists in a fully extended position, which can aggravate carpal
tunnel syndrome, along with full flexion.
307. c - All incident reports are considered confidential and should be kept in a locked drawer.
308. c - The recommended temperature in a fitness facility is between 68-78 degrees Fahrenheit.
309. d - The granting of licenses is a state regulated and administered function. Certification is typically
carried out through a professional organization.
310. c - Criminal law is implicated when someone does an act that is prohibited by law.
311. b - The word “tort” means “wrong”. The tort law system is set up to remedy wrongs in the civil
court system, where one party can sue another for damages, or monetary compensation, for the
harm that occurred. This is not to be confused with wrongful acts that are punishable as crimes.
312. a - A contract is an agreement in which parties promise certain things to one another and where
certain consideration is exchanged.
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Questions with Answers
An additional practice exam format to make it easier for you to
reference answers.

Client Consultation and Assessments
1. Which of the following is a questionnaire that serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk

appraisal designed to determine contraindications to exercise?
a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

b. Readiness to Change Questionnaire
c. Health History Questionnaire
d. Liability Waiver
a - The PAR-Q is a simple questionnaire designed to screen for readiness for low to mo derate
intensity training.
2. In which situation should the trainer refer the client to a dietitian?
a. Bill wants advice on losing 100 pounds

b. Shelly would like to learn how to eat healthier
c. Bob has cardiovascular disease and would like to lose 30 pounds
d. Gina is interested in cutting calories to lose weight
c - Personal trainers should refer their clients to a dietitian if the client is in a disease state.
3. What information does the Health History Questionnaire collect?
b. Previous exercise history including adherence experience.
c - The health history questionnaire collects detailed information about an individual’s health
background such as medications, surgeries, family history and lifestyle information.
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4. What information does the Informed Consent form collect?
b. Previous exercise history.
a - The informed consent form is wher e your client acknowledges their “assumption of risk”,
serves as evidence of disclosure of risks and c ommunicates the potential dangers of exercise. It
does not release liability.
5. What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
a. 130/70 mmHg
b. 120/80 mmHg
c. 121/81 mmHg
d. 140/90 mmHg
d - An individual with blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and/or 90 mmHg
diastolic is considered to be hypertensive, or high blood pressure, making it a risk factor for
cardiovascular disease.
6. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is s condition that affects mainly which system?
a. Musculoskeletal
b. Integumentary
c. Cardiovascular
d. Respiratory
d - COPD is a common respiratory problem, affecting the lungs and an individual’s oxygen carrying
capacity.
“yes” to a bone or joint problem that could be made worse by a change in physical activity.
What is the next step in his fitness program?

b. Talk with her doctor about her readiness for exercise.
b - If a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them
to talk with their doctor about t heir readiness to begin an exercise program before any other
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“yes” to chest pain during physical activity as well as currently taking a prescription blood
pressure medication. What is the next step i n his fitness program?

b. Talk with his doctor about his readiness for exe rcise.
b - If a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them
9. Which of the following is a method used by personal trainers for gathering dietary intake data in
which clients report what they have eaten in the past 24 hours?
a. Dietary recall
b. Diet records
c. Dietary history
d. Dietary synopsis
a - The form of dietary data collection in which a person recalls what t hey have eaten in the last 24
hours is called dietary recall.
10. Your new client informs you that she has diabetes and is taking insulin. What is the most
important thing to do for this client?
a. Make sure she eats a large meal before exercising.

b. Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program.
c. Monitor her blood glucose levels throughout the session.
d. Have her fill out a waiver of liability prior to exercise.
b - It is very important for a client receiving insulin for diabetes to c onsult with a physician prior to
beginning any kind of exercise program, both for legal reasons as well as client safety.
11. Mike is a 35-year-old male who weighs 150 pounds. He is moderately active throughout the day.
Approximately how many calories should Mike consume daily?
a. 2,000 calories
b. 2500 calories
c. 2800 calories
d. 3000 calories
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c - A man who is moderately active should take in approximately 19 kcal/lb, or in Mike’s case 2850
calories/day.
12. Your client eats approximately 100 grams of protein, 500 grams of carbohydrates and 50 grams
of fat per day. How many calories is your client consuming daily?
a. 2600 calories
b. 2850 calories
c. 3100 calories
d. 5100 calories
b - There are 9 cal/g of fat and 4 cal/g of carbohydrates and protein. 9 x 50 = 450, 4 x 500 = 2000
and 4 x 100 = 400. Add these together and you get 2850 calories per day.
13. Approximately how many grams of protein per kilogram of body weight should an athlete
consume daily?
a. 0.8-0.83 g/kg
b. 1.2-2.0 g/kg
c. 2.0-4.0 g/kg
d. 4.0 or higher g/kg
b - An athlete should consume 1.2-2.0 grams per kilogram of body weight daily. Anything over 4.0
g/kg can be dangerous.
14. Which of the following nutritional sources could contain added vitamins and minerals?
a. Protein shakes
b. Breakfast cereal
c. Energy drinks
d. All of the above
d -– All of the above could possibly contain added vitamins and minerals.
15. Which of the following comes first in the initial interview?
a. Implement and complete health history forms

b. Assess and interpret results
c. Obtain medical clearance
d. Conduct interview
d - Conducting the interview is the absolute first step in the initial interview process.
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16. Providing a description of available services, evaluating the motivation of an individual and
determining appropriateness are all part of which portion of the client consultation?
c - These all take place initially, in the assessment of compatibility.
17. In which portion of the client consultation are the legal documents, including a written
description of services and the payment process, signed by both the trainer and the client?
b - When establishing the client-trainer agreeme nt a legal document is signed outlining the
process, services rendered and payment plan.
18. When filling out the “medications” portion of the Health History Questionnaire, your client lets
you know that he is taking a beta-blocking medication. Once obtaining a physician’s release for
exercise, what is the most important difference in this client’s exercise program versus a client
who is not taking beta-blockers?
a. Use Rate of Perceived Exertion (RPE) to determine the level at which he is exercising as
his heart rate will not go up.
b. Check his blood pressure throughout his session to ensure it does not spike.
c. Check his heart rate throughout the session to ensure it does not spike.
d. Monitor his consciousness level as beta-blockers will make him drowsy.
a - Beta-blockers keep a person’s heart rate from going up past a certain point, therefore
rendering heart rate monitoring useless for determining the intensity at which someone is
exercising. Therefore, RPE is the only w ay you will be able to determine if this person is exercising
at the desired intensity.
19. A client’s resting heart rate should always be checked ____________________.
a. before breakfast
b. when the client is sitting
c. when the client is lying down
d. before the client gets out of bed in the morning
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b - Although resting heart rate may be slightly lower when a client is lying down or has just woken
up, it is only necessary for them t o be sitting to acquire an accurate resting heart rate.
20. When measuring a client’s blood pressure, where should the stethoscope be placed?
a. On the inside of the client’s ar m at the bend of the elbow.

b. On the inside of the client’s wrist.
c. Above the blood pressure cuff.
d. There is no need for a stethoscope.
a - In order to hear the blood flow when releasing the pressure of the cuff, the stethoscope must
be placed on the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.
21. Which of the following medications can affect a person’s exercising heart rate?
a. Diuretics
b. Antihistamines
c. Cold Medications
d. Antidepressants
c - Some cold medicines can increase a person’s exercising heart rate. These are generally
medications designed for sinus congestion.
22. In which portion of the client consultation is the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-
Q) administered?
a. Health appraisal screening

b. Initial consultation
c. Evaluation of risk factors
d. Additional screening
a - Administering the PAR-Q is part of health appraisal screening.
23. When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

a - Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight.
When an anterior pelvic tilt occ urs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip flexors and/or
erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine.
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24. When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through
restorative exercise?

b - When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the

action that is occurring. In the case of an anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the rectus
abdominis and the hamstrings.
25. When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be t ight?

b - Generally, the muscles supporting the oc curring action, or the shortened muscles, ar e tight.
When a posterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight rectus abdominis
and/or hamstrings, possibly causing reverse lordosis in the lumbar spine.
26. Which form of body fat testing measures electrical signals as they pass through the body?
a. Hydrostatic Weighing
b. Air Displacement Plethysmography (ADP)
c. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA)
d. Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA)
d - BIA passes electrical signals t hrough fat, lean mass and water in t he body to determine body fat
percentage.
27. Which type of muscle fiber has a larger aerobic capacity?
a. Type IIa
b. Type IIx
c. Type I
d. Type Ib
c - Type I muscle fibers are typically smaller with the capacity to sustain low levels of activity for
extended periods of time. There is no such thing as type Ib muscle fibers.
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28. Tight hip adductors and weak gluteus medius muscles can lead to which compensation?

c. Lateral torso shift to one side
d. Lack of foot stability
a - The muscles that oppose the inward movement of the knees are we ak and the muscles that
generate it are tight, therefore causing the movement to occur.
29. Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation?

c. Raised heels
d. Lateral torso shift to one side
c - The plantarflexor muscles cause the heels to elevate and, therefore, tight, or overactive,
plantarflexors can lead to the inability to kee p heels in contact with the floor.
30. What are the correct units of measurement for calculating body mass index (BMI)?
a. Weight (lb)/Height (in)

b. Weight (kg)/Height (m)
c. Height (in)/Weight (lb)
d. Height (m)/Weight (kg)
b - BMI is a ratio of weight to height, or weight/height. You must make sure to first convert height
to meters and weight to kilograms.
31. Jeanette is a 55-year-old woman who exercises regularly. What is her estimated maximum heart
rate?
a. 165 bpm
b. 220 bpm
c. 185 bpm
d. 55 bpm
a - A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is 220 – age.
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32. Mark is a 32-year-old man. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?
a. 200 bpm
b. 188 bpm
c. 168 bpm
d. 190 bpm
b - A person’s estimated maximum heart rate is 220 – age.
33. Jim’s 1 repetition maximum for bench press is 10 0 pounds. If Jim follows the typical relative
muscular endurance pattern, approximately what resistance should he be able to bench press
for 10 repetitions?
a. 100 pounds
b. 50 pounds
c. 75 pounds
d. 65 pounds
c - Most people can complete about 10 repetitions at 75% of t heir 1RM.
34. Which of the following is an example of a client who should be referred to a physical therapist?
a. A client complaining of a lower backache after purchasing a new bed.

b. A client with a reoccurring knee injury.
c. A client that walks with a limp.
d. A client that has fallen and hurt the ir ankle.
b - Any reoccurring injury should be addressed by a physical therapist to avoid further injury
through exercise.
35. Which additional Screening form evaluates a client’s dietary i ntake, stress level and level of
physical activity?
a. Assumption of Risk Agreement

b. Informed Consent
c. Lifestyle Inventory
d. Children and Participation Document
c - Lifestyle inventories evaluate personal choices and pattern o f physical activity, diet and stress.
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36. Which of the following is NOT an element of an Informed Consent form?
a. A waiver of rights to legal remedy in the event of injury

b. A description of the program’s risks
c. A confidentiality clause
d. Responsibilities of the participant
a –- The Release/Assumption of Risk Agreement includes a waiver of rights to legal remedy in t he

event of injury, NOT the Informed Consent form.
37. Jim is a 47-year-old man with a Body Mass Index of 32. He has been exercising regularly for the
last 4 months. His blood pressure is 152/94. How many coronary artery disease risk factors does
Jim have?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
c - Jim’s coronary artery disease risk factors are as follows: He is a man over the age of 45, BMI of
over 30 and blood pressure higher than 140/90.
38. Martha is a 48-year-old woman with a Body Mass Index of 26. Her blood pressure is 126/72. She
has been exercising regularly for the last year. How many coronary artery disease risk factors
does Martha have?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. none
d - Martha is a woman who is less than 55 years old, has a body mass index of less than 30, blood
pressure that is lower than 140/9 0 and has been exercising regularly for at least 3 months.. This
gives her no CAD risk factors.
39. How many coronary artery disease risk factors does a person need to have in order to be
classified as “Moderate risk”?
a. 1 or more
b. 2 or more
c. 3 or more
d. 4 or more
b - An individual with 2 or more risk factors for CAD is considered “Moderate r isk”.
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40. How many questions on the PAR-Q must an individual answer “yes” to in order to require
clearance from his or her physician prior to beginning an exercise program?
a. 1 or more
b. 2 or more
c. 3 or more
d. An individual should always speak to his/her physician prior to beginning an exercise
program
a - If an individual answers “yes” to one or more questions on the PAR-Q it is recommended that
he or she consult his/her physician prior to exercise.
41. Which of the following necessitates physician clearance prior to beginning an exercise program?
a. Being stratified as “high risk” and desiring to participate in moderate to vigorous exercise
b. Exhibiting signs or symptoms of cardiovascular disease
c. Being stratified as “moderate risk” and desiring to participate in vigorous exercise
d. All of the above
d - Any of the above requires physician clearance prior to exercise te sting and prescription, as well
as an individual who answers “yes” to any question on the PAR-Q.
42. Andrea is a 25-year-old woman who has been training with you for 2 months. She has lost 10
pounds in the last 2 weeks. She never misses a session and constantly asks questions about diet.
You have begun to notice that she has been losing muscle mass and she becomes light-headed
upon standing. What possible disorder do these signs point to?
a. Bulimia Nervosa
b. Anorexia Nervosa
c. Disordered Eating
d. All of the above
e - Andrea shows signs of anorexia as well as disordered eating based on her we ight and muscle
loss and obsession with diet and exercise.
43. You are administering an exercise test on your client and notice she is wheezing. What action
should you take?
a. Have her slow down and resume only when t he wheezing ceases
b. Let her know that she doesn’t have to continue if she is uncomfortable
c. Terminate the test immediately
d. Call 911
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c - If a client is wheezing or extremely short of breath the test should be terminated immediately.
44. You are administering an exercise test on your client and he says he is extremely tired and would
like to stop. What course of action should you take?
a. Let him know that exercise tests are meant to be tiring and he needs to keep going
b. Tell him he can slow down if he needs to
c. Have him go get a drink of water and come back to finish the test
d. Terminate the test immediately
d - If a client requests to stop the test should be terminated immediately.
45. Which of the following fitness assessments should be administered before the others?
a. Resting heart rate

b. Vertical jump test
c. Aerobic capacity test
d. Maximum strength test
a –- General fitness tests should be administered before athletic performance tests. Resting heart
rate is a general fitness test. It is also important to determine RHR prior to administering any form
or aerobic test to determine a baseline.
46. Which of the following tests should be administered prior to the others?
a. Anaerobic capacity test

b. Muscular strength test
c. Maximal aerobic capacity test
d. Local muscular endurance test
b –- General fitness tests should be administered before athletic performance tests. Muscular
strength is a general fitness test. It is important to test muscular strength prior to rigorous testing.
47. When checking a client’s pulse at rest, you record 18 beats in 15 seconds. What is your client’s
heart rate per minute?
a. 18 bpm
b. 36 bpm
c. 72 bpm
d. 108 bpm
c - There are 4 intervals of 15 seconds in one minute, therefore in order to determine a person’s
heart rate per minute you must multiply number of beats/15 seconds by 4. 18 x 4 = 72.
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48. Which of the following factors will l ikely affect a heart rate assessment?
a. Altitude
b. Smoking
c. Body position
d. All of the above
d - Altitude, smoking and body position can all affect a hear t rate assessment.
49. Body Mass Index, or BMI, is the ratio of the measures of a person’s ________________.
a. Body weight (lbs) to Height (ft)

b. Height (ft) to Body weight (lbs)
c. Body weight (kg) to Height (m 2)
d. Height (m2) to Body weight (kg)
c - BMI is the ratio of a person’s body weight in kg to their height in m2.
50. Which of the following is considered a “normal” Body Mass Index?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
b - A BMI of 18.5-24.9 is considered to be within the “normal” range.
51. Which of the following is an “average” body fat percentage for a 20-year-old male?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
c - A male of 18-25 years of age with a body fat percentage of 13-15% is considered “average”.
52. Amy is 25 years old. You have recently tested her body fat percentage and determined that she
has 22% body fat. Which category would Amy most likely fall into?
a. Lean
b. Leaner than average
c. Average
d. Fatter than average
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c - A woman of 18-25 years of age with a body fat percentage between 22-23% is considered
“average”.
53. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate skinfold site for assessing body fat percentage with
skinfold calipers?
a. Chest
b. Abdomen
c. Gluteal
d. Thigh
c - The gluteals are not an appropriate area in which to te st body fat percentage as they do not
provide an accurate measurement proportional to t he rest of the body and it is not an appropriate
place to touch a client.
54. Which if the following body composition assessments utilizes a small electrical current, which
passes through the body?
a. Skinfolds
b. Near-infrared resistance
c. Hydrostatic weighing
d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
e. None of the above
d - Bioelectrical impedance analysis utilizes a small, painless electrical curre nt, which passes
through the body to determine body composition.
55. Which circumferential areas are measured to determine Waist-to-Hip ratio?
a. Smallest part of the waist and largest part of the hips

b. Largest part of the waist and smallest part of the hips
c. Largest part of the waist and largest part of the hips
d. Smallest art of the waist and smallest part of the hips
a - The waist-to-hip ratio is determined by dividing the measurement of the smallest part of t he
waist by measurement of the large st part of the hips.
56. When should heart rate measurements be recorded during a submaximal exercise test?
a. At the end of a constant work rate stage

b. Only at the beginning and end of the assessment
c. After 2-3 minutes of exercise at a constant work rate
d. All of the above
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e - Heart rate should be monitored at least every 2-3 minutes and at the end of a constant work
rate stage.
57. Which of the following assessments tests cardiovascular endurance?
a. YMCA Bench Press test

c. Sit and Reach test
d - The YMCA cycle ergometer test assesses cardiovascular endurance.
58. Which of the following assessments tests muscular strength?
a. YMCA Step test

c - The 1-repetition maximum leg press test assesses absolute muscular strength.
59. Which of the following individuals should NOT perform the 1.5 -Mile Run assessment?
a. A 35-year-old man who has been exe rcising off and on for 5 years and is training for a 5k.
b. A 45-year-old woman who is new to resistance exercise but frequently enjoys speed-
walking.
c. A 35-year-old woman who has not participated in any form of exercise within the last 6
months.
d. A 45-year old man who is new to exercise and has been jogging for the past several
weeks.
c - An individual should regularly use running or fast walking and should have at least a few weeks
of training under their belt before participating in the 1.5-Mile Run assessment.
60. Mary is a 60-year-old woman who would like to get back into shape. She has not exercised for 8
years. Which of the following cardiovascular assessments is appropriate for Mary?
a. Rockport Walking test

b. 12-Minute Run/Walk
c. YMCA Step test
c - The YMCA step test and the Astrand-Rhyming cycle ergometer test are both acceptable
assessments for detrained individuals.
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61. Which of the following assessments measures upper body muscular endurance?
a. 1-Repetition Maximum Bench Press test

c. YMCA Bench Press test
d. 1-Repetition Maximum Leg Press test
c - The YMCA Bench Press test assesses upper body muscular endurance through continual
repetitions to fatigue.
62. Which of the following assessments measures flexibility?
a. YMCA Step test

d - The sit and reach test measures flexibility and range of motion at the hips and lower back.
63. What is the best way of assessing abdominal fat in a client who is overweight or obese?
a. Body Mass Index

b. Waist circumference
c. Skinfold measurements
d. Both a and b
d - In overweight or obese individuals it may be difficult to obtain an accurate body fat perce ntage
with skinfold measurements (calipers). It is better to begin with BMI or waist circumference and
monitor for change.
64. When reviewing a client’s dietary habits, approximately what percent of his or her calories
consumed should you recommend come from fat?
a. 15% or less
b. 30% or less
c. 40% or less
d. 15% or more
b - Approximately 30% or less of a person’s calories should come from fat.
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65. Shirley wants to lose 30 pounds. When evaluating her diet, a safe amount of calories to reduce
her usual intake by is approximately _____________________.
a. 100-500 kcal per day

b. 500-1000 kcal per day
c. 1000-1500 kcal per day
d. 1500-2000 kcal per day
b - It is considered safe for a person to lose 1-2 pounds per week. Reducing a person’s calories
consumed by 500-1000 calories per day creates a deficit of 3500-7000 calories per week, which is
equivalent to 1-2 pounds.
66. When discussing nutrition with a client, which of the following should be recommended?
a. Drink 2% milk
b. Drink diet soda
c. Make half your plate fruits and vegetables
d. Eat less protein
c - Making half of your plate fruits and vegetables is a recommendation from MyPlate.gov.
67. Which mode of energy expenditure is the largest contributor to overall energy expenditure?
a. Thermic effect of food

b. Cardiovascular exercise
c. Resistance exercise
d. Resting metabolic rate
d - Your resting metabolic rate contributes to about 60-75% of your total daily energy expenditure.
68. The question, “Do you feel pain in your chest when you do physical activity?” would be found on
which assessment?
a. PAR-Q
b. Health/Medical Questionnaire
c. Personal Training Contract/Agreement
d. Attitudinal Assessment
a - The PAR-Q asks yes or no questions such as the question above.
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69. Which of the following is an example of a summative evaluation?
a. PAR-Q
b. Heart rate monitoring
c. Body fat testing
d. Observations made during the session
d - An informal observation is considered a summative evaluation of t he client.
70. Which of the following is an important factor in selecting appropriate assessments for clients?
a. Functional capacity
b. Age
c. Sex
d. All of the above
d - All of the above should be considered prior to selecting assessments for clients.

Program Planning
71. What is the correct sequence of connective tissue found within the muscle from largest to
smallest?
a. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium

b. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium
c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
d. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium
c - This shows the order of connective tissues from largest to smallest. Epimysium encases the
muscle, perimysium acts as connective tissue between muscle fibers and endomysium encases
each single muscle fiber, or cell.
72. What is the fuel source in the sliding filament theory?
a. Amino acids
b. Fatty acids
c. Creatine phosphate
d. Adenosine triphosphate
d - Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the fuel source in the sliding filament theory.
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73. What is considered the basic contractile unit of a muscle?
a. Muscle fiber
b. Actin
c. Myosin
d. Sarcomere
d - The sarcomere is found within each muscle fiber (cell) and contains both actin and myosin. It is
considered the basic contractile unit of a muscle.
74. Torque produces ___________________.
a. Angular velocity
b. Linear acceleration
c. Angular acceleration
d. Force
c - Torque produces angular acceleration, while force creates linear acceleration.
75. What is the biomechanical definition of Work?
a. Mass x acceleration
b. Distance x time
c. Force x distance
d. Force x time
c - Work is the product of force times the distance through which an object moved.
76. Which of the following contributes to movement inefficiency?
a. Muscular coactivation
b. Extraneous movements
c. Isometric actions
d. All of the above
d - All of the above can contribute to movement inefficiency, and can lead to earlier tiring of
muscles.
77. In which of the following muscle actions does the muscle neither lengthen nor shorten?
a. Concentric contraction
b. Eccentric contraction
c. Cocontraction
d. Isometric contraction
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d - The muscle neither lengthens nor shortens in an isometric contraction, and therefore there is
no movement around the joint.
78. Which of the following muscles concentrically contract during hip extension?
i) Psoas major
ii) Gluteus maximus
iii) Biceps femoris
iv) Rectus femoris
a. i, ii & iii
b. ii & iii
c. i & iv
d. i, ii & iv
b - The gluteus maximus and biceps femoris contribute to the concentric contraction occurring
during hip extension, while the others concentrically contrac t during hip flexion.
79. Which of the following muscles concentrically contract during knee extension?
i) Rectus femoris
ii) Semimembranosus
iii) Semitendinosus
iv) Biceps femoris
a. ii, iii & iv

b. iv only
c. i only
d. ii & iii
c - The rectus femoris concentrically contracts during knee extension, while the o thers
concentrically contract during knee flexion.
80. Which of the following components of the production of force changes throughout the
movement of a bicep curl with a free weight?
a. Horizontal distance from the weight to t he elbow

b. Torque
c. Weight
d. Both a and b
d - Since the horizontal distance from the weight to the elbow changes, so does the torque
produced throughout the motion, even though the weight stays the same. This then changes the
resistance throughout the motion.
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81. Which of the following is an aerobic process through which ATP is replenished?
a. Fast glycolysis
b. Slow glycolysis
c. Phosphagen system
d. Oxidative system
d - The oxidative system requires oxyge n and therefore is aerobic.
82. Which of the following is an example of an ACUTE adaptation to resistance training?
a. Muscular creatine phosphate concentration decreases

b. Muscle strength increases
c. Muscular creatine phosphate concentration increases
d. Cocontraction decreases
a - An acute adaptation to resistance training occurs immediately after an exerc ise bout. Muscular
creatine phosphate concentration tends to decrease after an exercise bout but over time can
increase.
83. Which of the following is an example of a CHRONIC adaptation to resistance training?
a. Muscular ammonia levels increase

b. Muscle glycogen concentration decreases
c. Muscle endurance increases
d. Cortisol concentration increases
c - A chronic adaptation to resistance training occurs after repeated training bouts and continue
for long periods of time after the exercise bouts are over. It takes more than one bout of exercise
for muscular endurance to increase.
84. Which of the following is an example of a possible neuromuscular adaptation due to r esistance
training?
c. Increase in number of actin and myosin filaments
d. Increased concentration of creatine phosphate
a - Resistance training has been shown to decrease cocontraction of agonist and antagonist muscle
groups, which is a neurological adaptation.
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85. Which of the following is an example of a possible muscular adaptation to resistance training?
a. Decreased risk for osteoporosis later in life

b. Increase in cross-sectional area of a muscle fiber
c. Increased caplliarization
d. Increased fat burning
b - Hypertrophy, or the increase in cross-sectional area of a muscle fiber, is the primary adaptation
of skeletal muscle to resistance training.
86. Which of the following is an example of a possible endocrine adaptation to resistance training?
a. Increased tendon stiffness

b. Increased capillarization
c. Increased fat free mass
d. Increased quantity of hormone receptors on target tissue
d - Increased quantity of recepto rs for certain hormones on target t issue is thought to be a

possible endocrine response to resistance training, amplifying the effect of a given concentration
of a hormone.
87. Which of the following describes a possible metabolic adaptation to resistance training?
a. Decrease in mitochondrial density

b. Increase in muscle creatine phosphate co ncentration
c. Increased motor unit recruitment
d. Decreased cocontraction
b - Studies have shown that an increased concentration of creatine phosphate occurs in the m uscle
tissue after a bout of exercise. This is a metabolic change.
88. Which of the following describes a possible cardiorespiratory adaptation to resistance training?
a. Increased capillarization
b. Increased quantity of hormone receptors on target tissue
c. Increased tendon stiffness
d. Increase in protein synthesis
a - Resistance training induces increased capillarization of muscle tissue, w hich is a

cardiorespiratory adaptation.
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89. Which of the following is an example of a possible change to bones and cartilage due to
a. Increased motor unit recruitment

b. Hyertrophy
c. Decreased risk of osteoporosis later in life
d. Increased fat free mass
c - Resistance training has been shown to decrease the risk for osteoporosis later in life, which is
an adaptation of the skeletal system.
90. Which of the following is an example of a possible adaptation to tendons and ligaments based
on resistance training?
c. Greater number of actin and myosin filaments
d. Increase in collagen production
d - Resistance training has been linked to increased collagen production as well as turnover in
tendons.
91. Which of the following is an example of a possible factor of resistance training that influences
adipose tissue?
a. Hypertrophy
b. Increased fat free mass
c. Elevated energy consumption during rest periods
d. Increased motor unit recruitment
c - Increased energy consumption after resistance training facilitates fat loss.
92. Which of the following is a possible psychological response to exercise?
a. Decreased stress
b. Diminishing feelings of depression
c. Decreased cognitive ability
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b
e - Exercise can decrease stress and diminish feelings of depression. It can also enhance, not
decrease, cognitive ability.
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93. Which of the following is NOT a factor that can influence resistance training adaptations?
a. Age
b. Specificity
c. Sex
d. Culture
d - All of the above except a person’s culture can affect resistance training results.
94. Which of the following is a possible chronic cardiovascular response to aerobic training?
i) Increased heart rate

ii) Increased stroke volume
iii) Decreased blood pressure
iv) Decreased blood volume
a. i& ii
b. i, iii & iv
c. ii & iii
d. i & iii
c - Chronic cardiorespiratory responses to aerobic exercise include decreased heart rate, increased
stroke volume, decreased blood pressure and increased blood volume.
95. Your client sets a goal of fitting into a size 6, and decides that once she reaches her goal she will
buy herself 3 new pair of pants. Which motivational technique does this describe?
a. Negative reinforcement
b. Positive reinforcement
c. Intrinsic motivation
d. External regulation
b - Getting a reward when a goal is a achieved is a form of positive reinforcement.
96. Molly is a 25-year-old woman who wants to lose weight and improve lower body strength.
Which of the following is an example of an effective SMART goal for Molly?
a. Molly will complete 30 squats in 2 minutes.

b. Molly will complete 30 body weight squats in 2 m inutes within one week.
c. Molly will eat healthier within 2 weeks.
d. Molly will lose 5 pounds.
b - This SMART goal is specific (body weight, 2 minutes), measureable (30 in 2 minutes), attainable
(it is not out of her reach), relevant (lower body strength) and time-bound (within one week).
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97. Jose is 18 years old. What is his estimated maximum heart rate?
a. 202 bpm
b. 200 bpm
c. 220 bpm
d. 218 bpm
a - An individual’s estimated MHR is 220 - age. In Jose’s case this is 202 bpm.
98. What is the workload of 1 MET associated with?
a. Oxygen consumption at rest

b. Energy expenditure at rest
c. Energy expenditure while performing a low-level task
d. Oxygen consumption while performing a low-level task
a - One MET is equivalent to oxygen consumption at rest, which is approximately 3.5 mL/kg/min.
99. What is the best definition of VO 2 max?
a. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one m inute per pound of body
weight.
b. Maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one m inute per kg of body weight.
c. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per pound of body
weight.
d. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide a person can expel in one minute per kg of body
weight.
b - VO 2 max is the maximum amount of oxygen a person can utilize in one minute per kg of body
weight. It is also called maximum oxygen uptake or maximal aerobic capacity.
100. Which of the following has been thought to represent the highest sustainable level of exercise
intensity?
a. Anaerobic threshold
b. Aerobic threshold
c. First ventilator threshold
d. Talk test threshold
a - The anaerobic, or lactate threshold, is used as a marker of exercise performance as it is thought

to indicate when an exercise intensity can no longer be sustained.
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101. Muscular Power takes what two performance factors into account?
a. Force and Velocity

b. Agility and Force
c. Strength and Force
d. Work and Distance
a - Power = Force x Velocity, or Work/Time. It takes into account how quickly and forcefully a
person can perform an activity.
102. The force generating capacity of a muscle based on the relationship between the contractile
proteins of a sarcomere refers to which movement principle?
a. Neural Control
b. Force-couple Relationships
c. Length-tension Relationships
d. Reciprocal Inhibition
c - The length-tension relationship refers to sarcome re length and the relationship between the
contractile proteins actin and myosin, which determine the force production of a muscle fiber.
103. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee joint is responsible for which of the following
actions?
a. Connecting the femur to the fibula

b. Stabilizing the femur on the tibia during knee extension
c. Preventing the tibia from sliding backward
d. Preventing excessive external rotation of the tibia
b - The ACL is responsible for connecting the femur to the tibia, stabilizing the femur on the tibia
during knee extension, preventing the tibia from sliding forward and preventing excessive internal
rotation of the tibia during walking.
104. Which of the following are utilized for anaerobic energy production?
a. Glycogen
b. Fatty Acids
c. Amino acids
d. Oxygen
a - Glycogen and creatine phosphate are the main substrates utilized for anaerobic energy
production.
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105. Which of the following are utilized for aerobic energy production?
a. Creatine phosphate
b. Fatty acids
c. Glycogen
b - Fatty acids are the main substrate utilized for aerobic energy production.
106. During the first two weeks of an exercise program, strength gains are typically a result of what
adaptation?
a. Hypertrophy
b. Motor learning
c. Increased numbers of Mitochondria
d. Transient hypertrophy
b - Most strength increases in the first two weeks of a training program are typically due to
increased motor unit recruitment within the nervous system as opposed to an increase in muscle
size, which comes later.
107. Monica is a 40-year-old woman with a resting heart rate of 70 bpm. What is her Heart Rate
Reserve (HRR)?
a. 110 bpm
b. 150 bpm
c. 180 bpm
d. 220 bpm
a - Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) is the difference between a person’s resting heart rate and their
maximum heart rate (MHR). We can use the Karvonen method to determine her HRR. Since
Monica is 40, we can determine her MHR by subtraction 40 from 220, which gives us 180 bpm.
Then we take 70 away from 180 to get a HRR of 110 bpm.
108. Your client has a goal of hypertrophy. What percentage of his 1 repetition maximum should he
be resistance training within?
a. 40-60%
b. 55-75%
c. 65-85%
d. 85-100%
c - When training for hypertrophy it is important to stay between 65-85% of your 1RM.
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109. When training for muscular strength, what percentage of an individual’s 1 repetition maximum
a. 30- 70%
b. >70->85%
c. <65-<75%
d. 65-85%
b - When training for muscular strength it is best to stay within a range that is greater than or
equal to 70-85% of 1RM.
110. When training for muscular endurance, what percentage of an individual’s 1 repetition
maximum should he or she be training within?
a. 30- 70%
b. >70->85%
c. <65-<75%
d. 65-85%
c - When training for endurance it is important to keep the workload low in order to keep the
repetitions high. Therefore, the best pe rcent of a person’s 1RM for endurance is less than or equal
to 65-75%.
111. When training for muscular power, what percentage of an individual’s 1 repetition maximum
a. 30- 70%
b. >70->85%
c. <65-<75%
d. 65-85%
a - Power is force x velocity. There is a specific window in which both of these factors can be
maximized, and this window is between approximately 30-70% of a person’s 1RM.
112. When training for muscular endurance, approximately how many repetitions should be
performed per set?
b. 6-12 repetitions
d. 1-6 repetitions
a - Endurance training typically requires the highest amount of repetitions per set, around 10-25.
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113. When training for muscular power, approximately how many repetitions should be performed
per set?
b. 6-12 repetitions
d. 1-6 repetitions
d - When training for power it should only take 1-6 repetitions per set if the individual is being
challenged enough.
114. When training for muscular strength, approximately how many repetitions should be performed
per set?
b. 6-12 repetitions
d. 1-6 repetitions
c - When training for strength, 6 or less repetitions should be performed at high levels of
resistance.
115. When training for muscular hypertrophy, approximately how many repetitions should be
performed per set?
b. 6-12 repetitions
d. 1-6 repetitions
b - When training for hypertrophy, 6-12 repetitions per set is the best volume.
116. Approximately how many sets should a novice perform for any given exercise?
a. 1 set
b. 1-2 sets
c. 1-3 sets
d. 1-4 sets
c - A beginner should perform 1 -3 sets of any given exercise.
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117. Approximately how long should rest intervals last between sets of exercises targeting muscular
endurance?
a. Less than or equal to 30 seconds

b. 30 seconds to 1.5 minutes
c. 2 to 5 minutes
d. There should be no rest period during endurance exercises
a - Rest intervals during endurance exercise should last for 30 seconds or less.
118. How many weeks are typically in an exercise progression plan?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 12 weeks
d. 16 weeks
d - An exercise progression program generally covers 16 weeks of resistance training before it is

reevaluated and a new progression plan is made.
119. Ratings of perceived exertion, functional capacity, heart r ate and metabolic equivalents are all
methods in which to measure which component of aerobic endurance?
a. Exercise duration
b. Exercise intensity
c. Progression
d. Training frequency
b - Ratings of perceived exertion, functional capacity, heart rate and metabolic equivalents are all
ways to measure exercise intensity.
120. Which of the following is a commonly accepted guideline for youth participating in a resistance
training program?
a. Dynamic warm up
b. Increase resistance by 5-10% as strength improves
c. Perform 1-3 sets of 6-15 repetitions
d. All of the above
d - All of the above are generally accepted guidelines when training youth.
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121. Resistance training has been shown to reduce the risk of which of the following degenerative
problems in older adults?
a. High blood pressure

b. Insulin insensitivity
c. Low back pain
d. All of the above
d - Resistance training has been shown to reduce the risk of all of the above and more in older
adults.
122. Which of the following exercises should be excluded from the exercise program of a pregnant
woman who is in her second trimester?
a. Seated chest press

b. Body weight squat
c. Supine abdominal crunches
d. Side-lying abdominal crunches
c - Supine, or back-lying exercises have the potential to cause restricted blood return to the heart
after the first trimester of pregnancy, and should be phased out by the second trimester.
123. Which of the following is a physiological mechanism that affects weight control?
a. Mood/well-being
b. Macronutrient selection
c. Motivation
d. Coping
b - Macronutrient selection (carbohydrates, fat and prote in) is a physiological way people can
affect their weight.
124. Which of the following is a psychological mechanism that affects weight control?
a. Preservation of lean body mass

b. Caloric expenditure
c. Body image
d. Prevention of decline in resting metabolic rate
c - Body image is an internal marker of how someone feels about his or her body, therefore it is
psychological.
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125. Which mechanism linking exercise to weight control happens first?
a. Increased self-esteem
b. Increased commitment
c. Improved exercise adherence
d. Increased dietary compliance
a - Increased self-esteem leads to increased commitment, adherence and compliance.
126. Which of the following is a potential benefit of exercise in a weight loss program?
a. Improved mood
b. Decrease in abdominal fat
c. Increased energy expenditure
d. All of the above
d - All of the above and more are potential benefits of exerc ise, especially in a weight loss
program.
127. What is an example of an appropriate initial goal?

b. Reducing body fat by 15% over 3 months
d. Reducing body fat by 2% over 8 months
a - A reduction in body weight by 10% over six months is an appropriate initial goal because this is
a moderate amount of weight over a significant amount of time.
128. Which modification of the exercises below decreases the force required to perform the exercise?
a. Squat to weighted squat

b. Abdominal crunch to sit up
c. Squat to lunge
d. Push up to wall push up
d - Modifying the regular push up exerc ise to a wall push up decreases t he force required to
perform the exercise.
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129. Feelings of being fat when thin, slow pulse at rest, amenorrhea and hair loss are all possible
symptoms of what disease?
a. Cirrhosis
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Anorexia nervosa
d. Depression or anxiety
c - The above symptoms are all possible symptoms of anorexia nervosa.
130. Andrew has a waist circumference of 103 cm, HDL cholesterol of 38 mg/dl and a blood pressure
of 150/90. These symptoms may make you consider a discussion on which disorder?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Hyperpnea
d. Metabolic syndrome
d - If a person has 3 or more of the most common symptoms, he or she is c onsidered to have
metabolic syndrome. These symptoms also encompass elevated LDL levels and elevated fasting
glucose levels.
131. If an individual’s blood glucose level is under 70 mg/dl, what is the BEST food item to offer him
or her?
a. A tablespoon of sugar or honey

b. A protein bar
c. A diet beverage
d. A glass of water
a - If an individual is showing a blood glucose level lower than 70 mg/l he or she should eat
something high in sugar to get the level back up. Protein, water o r a diet beverage will not help.
132. An individual is considered hypertensive and should not be trained until a physician clears him
or her for exercise if he or she has a blood pressure of _______.
a. 135/70 mmHg or higher

b. 140/90 mmHg or higher
c. 150/95 mmHg or higher
d. 160/100 mmHg or higher
b - A blood pressure of 140/90 or higher is considered hyperte nsive and a physician’s release is
required.
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133. What is an example of a good exercise for an individual with controlled hypertension, who has a
physician’s release?
b. The individual should not exercise until he or she is no longer hypertensive
c. Plyometric training
d - An individual with controlled hypertension and a release can exercise, but it should be kept to
mild to moderate activities that do not spike the heart rate.
134. What exercises are appropriate for a client who is post-MI with existing coronary artery disease
without associated chest pain?
b. The individual must be medically monitored while exercising and should not be trained
by a personal trainer
b - Any individual that has had a heart attack (MI) and has coronary artery disease is a very high
risk for another heart attack among other medical emergencies and needs to be medically
monitored while exercising.
135. Which of the following is an appropriate goal for an individual who has suffered from a
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
a. Increase range of motion at shoulders

b. Increase power output of jumps
c. Decrease mile run time
d. Increase speed strength
a - An individual who has had a stroke (CVA) should focus on balance, coordination and range of
motion activities as well as activities that focus on daily living.
136. What exercises are appropriate for a client who has been diagnosed as having Chronic
Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
b. The individual should exercise in a formal pulmonary and respiratory rehabilitation
facility, not with a personal trainer
d. Mild to moderate intensity walking
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b - An individual with COPD needs to exe rcise in a facility in which he or she can be formally
monitored, such as a pulmonary or respiratory rehabilitation facility.
137. What is the BEST way to monitor exercise intensity for an individual who has asthma?
a. Rate of perceived exertion

b. Target heart rate
c. Shortness of breath
d. Both a and c only
d - Both a and c are good ways to monitor intensity for an individual with asthma. He or she may
not be able to reach his/her target heart rate.
138. Which of the following is a common musculoskeletal injury described as degeneration of the
articular or hyaline cartilage of a joint?
a. Osteochondrosis
b. Tendinopathy
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Bursitis
c - This is the definition of osteoarthritis.
139. During which phase of tissue healing does type 1 collagen form?
a. Inflammation phase
b. Repair phase
c. Remodeling phase
d. Injury phase
c - Type 1 collagen forms during the remodeling, or maturation phase.
140. Which of the following activities should typically be performed during the proliferation phase of
a musculoskeletal injury?
i) Control pain and inflammation

ii) Range of motion
iii) Functional strengthening
iv) Balance and proprioception
a. i, ii & iv
b. ii & iv
c. iii & iv
d. ii & iii
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b - During the proliferation phase (the middle phase of healing), t he focus should be on range of
motion and balance and proprioception.
141. Which of the following exercises should NOT be performed with a client who suffers from
lumbar pain?
a. Spinal stabilization exercises

b. Spinal flexion exercises
c. Posture corrections
d. Flexibility exercises
b - All of the above are suggested exercises for clients who have low back pain except spinal
flexion, which can exacerbate the pain.
142. Which of the following exercises is a contraindication for an individual who suffers from a disc
injury of the lumbar spine?
a. Isometric extensor stretching

b. Passive lumbar extension stretches
c. Extensor strengthening
d. Knee-to-chest stretch
d - Even minimal spinal flexion can aggravate disc injuries and should be avoided.
143. Which of the following exercises is indicated for an individual who suffers from a lower back
muscle strain?
a. Lumbar extension
b. Lumbar flexion
c. Knee-to-chest stretch
d - There are no exercise indications for individuals who are currently suffering from lumbar
muscle strains. Exercises involving the spine should be avoided until the individual is healed.
144. Which of the following exercises are generally indicated for rehabilitation from impingement
syndrome?
i) Rotator cuff strengthening

ii) Lateral dumbbell raise
iii) Upright row above shoulder level
iv) Incline bench press
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a. i & ii
b. iii & iv
c. i, ii & iii
d. i only
d - Rotator cuff strengthening is t he only type of shoulder-related exercise indicated for individuals
with impingement syndrome.
145. Which of the following exercise sets represent a correct recommendation for an individual with
anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction, following the guideline of “contraindicated,
indicated”?
a. Stiff-leg deadlift, Leg curl

b. Leg curl, Stiff-leg deadlift
c. Full leg extension, Step-up
d. ¾ squat, Full leg extension
c - Full range leg extensions are contraindicated for individuals who have undergone ACL
reconstruction, where step-ups are re commended, along with stiff-leg deadlifts, leg curls and ¾
squats.
146. A 53-year-old male is suffering from osteoarthritis. Which of the following represent appropriate
exercises for him?
a. Running
b. Snow skiing
c. Jogging
d. Stair stepper
d - Bicycling, stair stepping, elliptical training and swimming are all e xamples of exercises which are
indicated for individuals who suffer from osteoarthritis. Note that each exercise is low-impact.
147. Venous return, temperature regulation and heart rate are all special concerns for individuals
with what type of ailment?
a. Diabetes
b. Heart disease
c. Spinal cord injury
d. Older adults
c - The above concerns are important to monitor when working with an individual with a spinal
cord injury, since temperature control c an be off, heart rate elevated and blood pressure lowered.
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148. Mary has been diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis (MS). She has notified you that she is taking
multiple medications reduce the severity of attacks and to treat spasticity and fatigue. Which of
the following should you consider as potential side effects of commonly taken MS medications?
a. Fatigue
b. Risk of seizures
c. Hypotension
d. All of the above
d - All of the above are potential side effects of commonly taken MS medications.
149. Which of the following is a sport-specific exercise associated with jumping?
a. Lunge
b. Angles leg press
c. Box step-up
d. Power clean
d - The power clean is specific to jumping because it uses explosive power, while the other
examples do not.
150. Matthew is a 24-year-old male who is a pitcher for a baseball team. He has come to you for
sport-specific training. Which exercise is the MOST appropriate for Matthew?
a. Front shoulder raise

b. Reverse curl
c. Split squat
d. Power snatch
a - The front shoulder raise targe ts the muscles used in pitching a ball, and there fore is the most
sport-specific for Matthew.
151. Molly is soccer player. She is looking to improve her kicking ability power. Which of the
following is the BEST exercise for her to perform in order to be specific to her goal?
a. Angled leg press

b. Squat jump
c. Lunge
d. Box step-up
b - Since Molly is looking to improve kicking POWER, the best exercise is squat jumps because it
incorporates power into a lower body exe rcise such as a squat.
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152. You are training a client in separate strength, strength power, hypertrophy, endurance, and
competition phases. Which method of training is this an example of?
b - These phases are an example of linear periodization.
153. You have your client focusing on hypertrophy in weeks 1-3 and strength-power in weeks 4-6.
What type of periodization is this example of?
b - Linear periodization separates training focuses into phases over significant periods of time.
154. What type of periodization involves vacillating microcycles?
a - Non-linear periodization involves alternating exercise modalities through microcycles within

one week.
155. Which type of periodization is this example of?
Monday: Power exercises

Tuesday: Heavy exercises
Thursday: Light exercises
Friday: Moderate exercises
a - Non-linear periodization involves alternating exercise modalities through microcycles within

one week.
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156. Which of the following shows the correct order of resistance training cycles from longest to
shortest?
a. Macrocycle, microcycle, mesocycle

b. Mesocycle, microcycle, macrocycle
c. Macrocycle, mesocycle, microcycle
d. Microcycle, mesocycle, macrocycle
c - Macrocycles last from 1-4 years, mesocycles several weeks to a few months and microcycles
from one to four weeks.
157. Sarcopenia refers to the idea that adults in their 30s and 40s l ose approximately how many
pounds of muscle per year?
a. 0.5 pounds
b. 1 pound
c. 1.5 pounds
d. 2 pounds
a - Adults lose approximately half a pound of muscle each ye ar once they reach their thirties and
forties.
158. Sarcopenia refers to the idea that adults in their 50s may lose up to how many pounds of muscle
per year?
a. 0.5 pounds
b. 1 pound
c. 1.5 pounds
d. 2 pounds
b - Adults may lose up to one pound of muscle each year once t hey are in their 50s.
159. The average American adds approximately how many pounds of body weight each decade of his
or her adult life?
a. 5 pounds
b. 10 pounds
c. 15 pounds
d. 20 pounds
b - The average adult American gains approximately 10 pounds every 10 years of his o r her life.
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160. The average American adult has a reduction of approximately what percent of resting metabolic
rate per decade of his or her life?
a. 1-3%
b. 2-4%
c. 3-5%
d. 4-6%
b - The average American adult has a reduction of approximately 2-4 percent of resting metabolic
rate per decade of his or her life.
161. What is an example of an appropriate repetition and resistance relationship for older adults in a
lower strength stimulus resistance training program?
a. 95% max, 4 reps

b. 55% max, 30 reps
c. 65% max, 14 reps
d. 50% max, 10 reps
c - An acceptable lower strength stimulus for older adults falls between 14 and 16 repetitions at
60-65% of his or her 1 repetition maximum.
162. Which of the following would contribute to a positive energy balance?

c. A decrease in calories consumed
d. An increase in metabolic rate
b - Positive energy balance occurs when a person consumes more calories than he or she burns.
163. Which of the following would contribute to a negative energy balance?

c. A decrease in physical activity
d. A decrease in metabolic rate
a - Negative energy balance occurs when a person consumes less calories than he or she burns.
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a. Obesity class I
b. Obesity class II
d. Morbid obesity
a - Obesity class I encompasses BMI levels of 30.0-34.9.
a. Obesity class I
b. Obesity class II
d. Morbid obesity
b - Obesity class II encompasses BMI levels of 35.0-39.9.
a. Obesity class I
b. Obesity class II
d. Morbid obesity
c - Obesity class III encompasses BMI levels higher than 40.0, and is considered “Extreme obesity”.
167. What is an appropriate initial weight loss goal?

b. Reducing body weight by 10% over 6 months
d. Reducing body weight by 15% over 6 months
b - Reducing body weight by 10% over 6 months is an appropriate initial weight loss goal.
168. Which of the following is an example of an appropriate initial weight loss goal?
a. Matt currently weighs 200 pounds. He will lose 30 pounds in 6 months.

b. Jenna currently weighs 160 pounds. She will lose 16 pounds in 3 months.
c. Jacob currently weighs 250 pounds. He will lose 25 pounds in 6 months.
d. Marcus currently weighs 220 pounds. He will lose 10 pounds in 6 months.
c - 25 is 10% of 250, and over six months this is an appropriate initial weight loss goal.
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169. Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical moderate amount of physical activity?
a. Walking 1 ¾ miles in 35 minutes (20 minutes per mile)

b. Raking leaves for 30 minutes
c. Playing volleyball for 15-20 minutes
d. Swimming laps for 20 minutes
c - Playing volleyball is not typically considered moderate intensity until it has been played for 45-
60 minutes. Both intensity of the act ivity itself and duration of the activity factor in to dete rmine
the amount of physical activity.
170. Which of the following is an example of self-monitoring?
a. Charting progress toward a goal

b. Identifying barriers to a goal
c. Identifying obstacles to eating healthily
d. All of the above
d - All of the above are examples of self-monitoring.
171. What is hyperpnea and in which individual is it most likely to occur?
a. Decreased respiratory rate, over trained client

b. Increased respiratory rate, undertrained client
c. Decreased respiratory rate, undertrained client
d. Increased respiratory rate, over trained client
b - Hyperpnea is an increased respiratory rate and is most likely to occur in an undertrained client.
172. What is dyspnea and in which individual is it most likely to occur?
a. Labored breathing, undertrained client

b. Decreased respiratory rate, undertrained client
c. Increased respiratory rate, over trained client
d. Labored breathing, over trained client
a - Dyspnea is labored or difficulty breathing, and is most likely to occur in an undertrained client.
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173. Approximately how many days per week is it recommended for an obese individual perform

d. Obese individuals should not perform resistance training
b - It is recommended that obese individuals perform resistance training approximately 2-3 days
per week.
174. What is the minimum recommendation for aerobic conditioning for individuals who are obese?
a. At least 30 minutes 5 days per week

b. At least 20 minutes 5 days per week
c. At least 20 minutes 3 days per week
d. At least 60 minutes 5 days per week
a - It is recommended that obese individuals participate in aerobic conditioning for at least 30

minutes and a minimum of 5 days per week to maximize calorie burning.
175. What is the Female Athlete Triad?
a. Overeating leads to obesity which leads to heart disease

b. Disordered eating leads to osteoporosis which leads to amenorrhea
c. Disordered eating leads to amenorrhea which leads to osteoporosis
d. Overeating leads to obesity which leads to amenorrhea
c - Disordered eating (not eating enough) leads to amenorrhea (the stopping of a woman’s
menstrual cycle) which leads to osteoporosis. This is the Female Athlete Triad.
176. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate goal for an individual with Hyperlipidemia?
a. Decreasing LDL levels

b. Initiating a therapeutic life change
c. Increasing HDL levels
d. Decreasing HDL levels
d - It is recommended that an individual increase HDL levels, which helps to balance

Hyperlipidemia.
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Techniques of Exercise
177. Beth is a 28-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long should she
rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise?
a. Less than 30 seconds

b. 30-90 seconds
c. 2-5 minutes
d. 30-60 seconds
b - A person exercising for the purpose of general fitness should rest for 30-90 seconds in between
sets of a resistance exercise.
178. Abigail has been training with you for a year. She has begun seeing less results lately and is
becoming discouraged. What is the best way t o increase the results she is getting when she has
reached a plateau and is unable to increase resistance or number of repetitions?
a. Decrease number of repetitions for a short period of time.

b. Decrease resistance for a short period of time.
c. Increase training frequency to more days per week.
d. Change the exercise modality.
d - When a client begins to experience diminishing returns due to having reached their full genetic
potential, introducing a new form of exercise will change the stimulus and force their body to
continue changing.
179. What is the general idea behind periodization?
a. Changing the training exercise.

b. Increasing resistance by 5%.
c. Exercising the appropriate muscles.
d. Varying training intensity and volume.
d - Periodization is about intentionally varying the components of training, especially volume and
intensity, over specific segments of time.
180. Which training modality cannot utilize a 5% increase in training intensity as effectively?
a. Training for muscular strength

b. Training for hypertrophy
c. Training for muscular endurance
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b - When training for hypertrophy an individual performs a large number of exercises with short
recovery periods, which does not facilitate a simple 5% increase for every exercise. Therefore,
when training for hypertrophy intensity increases are determined on an individual basis.
181. James has been training for and competing in triathlons for 5 years. He wants to increase
running speed and cycling power. How many times should you suggest he train per week?
a. 2-3
b. 3-4
c. 4-6
d. 4-7
d - An athlete with advanced skill like James should train no less than 4 times a week and can train
up to 7 if done properly.
182. Which of the following is an example of a “superset”?
a. 3 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and leg press with no rests in between.
b. 3 sets of 10 repetitions of leg press with 30 second rests in between.
c. 4 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 30 second rests in
between.
d. 3 sets of 10 repetitions alternating bench press and lat pulldown with 60 second rests in
between
a - A superset is a compound of exercises or sets of exercises performed in sequence with little or

no rest between them.
183. Which of the following is an example of alternating pushing and pulling exercises within a
session?
a. 3 sets of chest press alternating with 3 sets of chest flys

b. 3 sets of leg press alternating with 3 sets of squats
c. 3 sets of bicep curls alternating with 3 sets of tricep push-downs
d. 3 set of lat pulldowns alternating with 3 sets of rows
c - When alternating pushing versus pulling, the e xercises must alternate between targeting
muscles on either side of the joint.
jo int. Biceps are on anterior side of the elbow joint and triceps are on
the posterior side.
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184. Jim has been resistance training with you for a month. He has been performing sets of 10-15
repetitions on the leg press. You have been gradually increasing the exercise workload, and he
can currently perform 15 leg presses per set with 200 pounds. Which of the following is the best
way to progress from here?
a. Increase the resistance to 220 pounds.

b. Increase the number of repetitions per set to 20.
c. Increase the resistance to 210 pounds.
d. Decrease the number of repetitions to 10.
c - When progressively increasing a workload (resistance), it is best to increase in increments of

5%, which in this case is 10 pounds.
185. When training a client with scapular protraction, which of the following exercises should be
avoided until the postural misalignment has been corrected to prevent further aggravation of
the misalignment?
a. Lat Pull Down

b. Row
c. Back extension
d. Chest Press
d - Scapular protraction occurs when the serratus anterior and synergistic muscles are tight and
muscles of the upper back are weak. Chest press is an exercise that strengthens the serratus
anterior, and should be avoided to prevent incre ased tightness in the muscles causing the
imbalance.
186. You are working with a client whose right shoulder appears to be lower than her left. Which
muscles should you have her stretch?
a. Right upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids

b. Left Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
c. Right Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
d. Left upper trapezius, levator scaula and r homboids
d - If the right shoulder appears to be lower, the likely cause is elevation of the left shoulder. This
can be caused by tight, shortened muscles pulling it upward. The muscles that elevate the
shoulder are the upper trapezius, levator sc apula and rhomboids.
187. Which of the following is an example of a positive progression in functional movement and
a. Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge

b. Lunges to Wall sits
c. Wood chop to Pelvic tilts
d. Plank to Prone lies on stability ball with torso movements
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d - When progressing in functional movement and resistance tr aining it is important to start with
static exercises and move to movement
moveme nt training. Plank is a static exercise focusing on core and
torso movements on a stability ball focus on the core as well but with added movement, thus
progressing the exercise in a positive direction.
188. Which of the following is an inappropriate exercise for a woman who is 5 months pregnant?
a. Graded walking on a treadmill

b. Step-ups
c. Jump rope
d. Abdominal crunches
c - Pregnant women are generally advised to avoid any form of jumping.
189. Which of the following is a factor that may influence flexibility at a joint?
a. Joint structure
b. Age
c. Sex
d. All of the above
e. Only a and b
d - All of the above can affect flexibility as well as activity level, re sistance training, temperature,
hyperlaxity and muscle and connective tissue.
190. What type of flexibility training induces a passive stretch that does not activate the stretch reflex
within the muscle?
a. Ballistic stretching
b - Static stretching is passive in that there is no active pre ssure placed on the joint (pushing with
your hand), and static stretching is so slow and ge ntle for the purpose of avoiding activation of the
stretch reflex.
191. What type of flexibility training is no longer considered an acceptable method for increasing
range of motion (ROM)?
a. Static stretching
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b - Ballistic stretching can be dangerous in that an individual can exceed the extensibility limits of
the involved tissues, and therefore is not re commended for flexibility training. It activates the
stretch reflex and therefore is not likely to increase ROM at the joint.
192. What type of flexibility training incorporates sport-specific movements?
a. Dynamic stretching
c. Static stretching
a - Dynamic stretching involves movements that are specific to a sport or movement patte rn.
193. For which of the following clients would dynamic stretching be an appropriate form of flexibility
training preceding exercise?
a. A client who is beginning to tr ain with you this week and is interested in becoming more
active
b. A client who is training for a martial arts competition
c. A client who recently completed physical therapy after knee surgery
d. A client who has osteoporosis
b - A client who is training for a specific sport would benefit most from dynamic stretc hing, as well
as any client who has been training for a while, has no joint injuries or bone problems and is
looking to increase flexibility.
194. Which of the following is an example of an appropriate warm-up for resistance training?
a. Jogging
c. Ballistic stretching
a - It is necessary for a warm-up to increase blood flow to the entire body and to increase body
temperature, which jogging accomplishes.
195. Which situation represents and appropriate time to perform flexibility training?
a. Prior to a warm-up
b. Prior to resistance training
c. Prior to cardiovascular training
d. After cardiovascular training
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d - It is important to only perform flexibility training when the muscles have had a chance t o warm
up. It is generally unnecessary and sometimes dangerous to perform flexibility training prior to a
workout.
196. Which of the following is an example of a “specific warm-up”?

c - Speed-walking utilizes the same major m uscle groups as jogging, and therefore is considered a
“specific warm-up”.
197. Which of the following is an example of a “passive warm-up”?

a - Utilizing an outside source to war m the body is considered a “passive warm-up”.
198. What is an example of body weight training?
a. Push-ups
b. Bench press
c. Weighted squats
d. Medicine ball tosses
a - Push-ups utilize only the individual’s body weight as resistance during the e xercise.
199. What is the optimal way to gain maximal benefits from body weight training?
a. Using quick motions to increase heart r ate

b. Performing less repetitions to avoid plateauing
c. Performing each repetition slowly to ensure perfect technique
d. Stretching before and after training
c - Performing each repetition slowly and with control will ensure the individual is reaching their
full range of motion and obtaining maximum benefits from the e xercise.
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200. Which of the following is a likely potential benefit of the use of a stability ball in resistance
training?
i) Improved balance
ii) Improved neuromuscular control
iii) Muscular hypertrophy
iv) Decreased incidence of injury
a. i & ii
b. i & iv
c. i & iii
d. i, ii & iv
d - The use of stability balls has been shown to increase balance, improve neuromuscular control
and therefore decrease the incidence of injury.
201. Which of the following is an example of a dynamic flexibility exercise?
i) Arm circle
ii) Modified push-up
iii) Neck flexion for 30 seconds
iv) Lunge walk
a. i & ii
b. iii only
c. i & iv
d. i, ii & iv
c - Circling the arms and walking lunges are both examples of dynamic stretches in that they both
move the joint through its full range o f motion.
202. What represents proper form for an abdominal crunch on a stability ball?
a. Lying supine on the ball with hips below the ball

b. Lying prone on the ball with hips on t he ball
c. Lying supine on the ball with hips on the ball
d. Lying supine on the ball with hands behind the head, pulling gently upward
c - The individual should be lying supine (with back on the ball) with their feet on the floor, hips on
the ball and head resting in their hands.
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203. Which flexibility exercise focuses on the rectus femoris, gluteus maximum, iliopsoas and
hamstrings?
a. Lunge walk
b. Knee to chest
c. Butterfly
d. Semistraddle
a - Any form of lunge stretches all of the above muscles.
204. Which of the following muscles does the push-up target?
i) Pectoralis major
ii) Triceps brachii
iii) Anterior deltoid
iv) Erector spinae
a. i only
b. i & iii
c. i, ii & iii
d. i, ii, iii and iv
c - Push-ups target the pectoralis major, triceps brachii and anterior deltoid. While the er ector
spinae may function as a stabilizer muscle group, they are not directly targeted by this exe rcise.
205. Which body weight exercise targets the erector spinae?
a. Push-up
b. Step-up
c. Extended abdominal crunch
d. Twisting back extension
d - While the erector spinae act as stabilizer muscles for many exercises, they are only targeted
specifically by exercises such as the back ex tension or twisting back extension.
206. Which of the following exercise uses a pronated grip?
a. Bicep curl
b. Wrist curl
c. Overhead press
c - The overhead press uses a pronated grip, with palms down and knuckles up.
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207. What is the most common grip width when performing exercises with a barbell?
a. Close
b. Hip-width
c. Shoulder-width
d. Wide
c - Shoulder width is the most commonly used grip width when working with a barbell.
208. When performing a seated exercise, how many contact points should you instruct your client to
maintain?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 5
d - A five-point body contact position is important to maintain when per forming a seated or prone
exercise.
209. When performing a resistance exercise, it is best to exhale at what point in a repetition?
a. Eccentric phase
b. Concentric phase
c. In between repetitions
d. At the beginning of the repetition
b - When performing resistance tr aining, it is important to exhale during the concentric, or difficult
point in the repetition. This is also referred to as the “sticking point”.
210. A weightlifting belt is recommended in which of t he following situations?
i) Squat at 15% of 1RM

ii) Dead Lift at 90% 1RM
iii) Overhead Press at 85% 1RM
iv) Lat Pulldown at 90% 1RM
a. i, ii and iii
b. ii and iii
c. ii and iv
d. ii only
b - A weightlifting belt is recommended for ground-based, structural exercises that involve lifting
maximal or near maximal loads.
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211. Which of the following exercises requires a spotter?
i) Standing shoulder press

ii) Lying triceps extension
iii) Bench press
iv) Leg press
a. i, ii and iii
b. i, iii and iv
c. iii only
d. i and iii
a - Any free weight exercise performed over the head, over the face, with a bar on the upper back
or with a bar positioned on the front o f the shoulders requires a spotter.
212. How should the personal trainer spot an over-the-face barbell exercise?
a. Grasp the bar between the client’s hands using an alternated grip
b. Grasp the bar outside the client’s hands using a supinated grip.
c. Guide the bar between the client’s hands using open hands
d. Place their hands over the client’s hands
a - Grasping the bar between the client’s hands with an alternated gr ip offers the most control.
213. Where should the personal trainer position his or her hands when spotting an overhead
dumbbell exercise?
a. Upper arms
b. Elbows
c. Dumbbells
d. Wrists
d - The trainer should position his or her hands at the client’s wrists, close to t he dumbbells.
214. Which of the following exercises should not be spotted?
a. Supine dumbbell flys

b. Squat with bar on shoulders
c. Squat with bar in front
d. Power clean
d - Power exercises should not be spotted. Instead they should be performed in a segregated area.
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215. Which of the following resistance training exercises target(s) the chest?
i) Bent over row

ii) Dumbbell lateral raise
iii) Flat dumbbell fly
iv) Flat barbell bench press
a. i and iv
b. iv only
c. iii and iv
d. ii, iii and iv
c - The flat dumbbell fly and the flat barbell bench press both target the chest .
216. Which of the following resistance training exercises target(s) the hips and thighs?
i) Back squat
ii) Forward lunge
iii) Standing heel raise
iv) Bent-over-row
a. ii only
b. i and ii
c. i, ii and iii
d. i and iii
b - The back squat and the forward lunge target the hips and t highs.
217. When performing a bent-over row, with which grip should you hold the bar?
a. Supinated shoulder width

b. Pronated hip width
c. Pronated wide
d. Pronated shoulder width
c - When performing a bent over row you should use a grip w ider than shoulder or hip width with
the hands pronated.
218. When performing a bent-over row, what stance should be taken?
a. Shoulder-width stance with knees slightly to moderately flexed

b. Hip-width stance with knees slightly to moderately flexed
c. Shoulder-width stance with legs straight
d. Wide stance with legs straight
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a - When performing a bent-over row your knees should be slightly to moderately flexed and you
should assume a shoulder-width stance.
219. When performing a bicep curl with a bar, which of the following should be true?
i) Move the bar in an upward arc toward the shoulders

ii) Keep the upper arms stationary
iii) Position the upper arms at a slight angle from the floor
iv) Keep the elbows slightly flexed at t he end of the downward phase
a. i only
b. i and ii
c. iii and iv
d. i and iii
b - When performing a bicep curl with a bar, you should keep your upper arms stationary and
move the bar in an upward arc toward your shoulders.
220. What grip should be taken when performing a lying triceps extension with a bar?
a. An open pronated grip

b. A closed pronated grip
c. An open supinated grip
d. A closed supinated grip
b - A closed, pronated grip is the safest and most effective grip to use when performing lying
triceps extensions with a bar.
221. Which of the following makes up the best stance for performing heel raises?
i) Knees slightly to moderately bent

ii) Hips under the shoulders
iii) Toes on the nearest edge of the step
iv) Feet and legs parallel to each other
a. ii and iv
b. i, ii and iii
c. ii, iii and iv
d. iii only
a - When performing heel raises yo u should be positioned with the balls of your feet on the edge
of the step, your hips under your shoulders, le gs straight and feet parallel to your legs.
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222. Which of the following is a common error made during the flat barbell bench press?
a. Bouncing the bar off the chest

b. Lifting the buttocks off the bench
c. Raising the head off the bench
d. All of the above
d - All of the above are common errors made during the flat barbell bench press.
223. At what height should the handgrips be positioned during a vertical seated chest press?
a. Ribcage level
b. Nipple level
c. Collar bone level
d. Shoulder level
b - The handgrips should be positioned at nipple level during a vertical seated chest press.
224. Which muscles are targeted by the back squat?
i) Gluteus Maximus
ii) Hamstrings
iii) Erector Spinae
iv) Quadriceps
a. i and ii
b. ii and iv
c. i and iii
d. i, ii and iv
d - The back-weighted squat targets the gluteus maximus, quadriceps and hamstrings.
225. Which of the following muscles are targeted by a forward lunge?
i) Iliopsoas of the trailing leg

ii) Soleus of the trailing leg
iii) Gastrocnemius of the lead leg
iv) Iliopsoas of the lead leg
a. ii, iii and iv

b. ii and iv
c. i and iii
d. i only
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c - The forward lunge targets the iliopsoas of the trailing leg and the soleus and gastrocnemius of
the lead leg. It may be helpful to look at a muscle diagram while performing the exercise to
understand which muscles are being targeted.
226. When spotting a seated shoulder press with a bar, which of the following should the personal
trainer do?
i) Stand behind the client

ii) Grasp the bar inside the client’s hands
iii) Use an open, supinated grip
iv) Continue holding the bar as it descends
a. i and iii
b. i, and ii
c. i, ii and iii
d. ii and iv
b - When spotting a seated shoulder press with a bar, the personal trainer should stand behind the
client and grasp the bar inside the client’s hands with a closed, alternated grip, hands hovering as
the bar descends.
227. Which of the following muscles does the lateral raise target?
i) Latissimus dorsi
ii) Rhomboids
iii) Deltoids
iv) Trapezius
a. i and ii
b. ii, iii and iv
c. iii and iv
d. iii only
c - The lateral raise targets the deltoids and the trapezius muscles.
228. What is the proper sequence of events in a power clean?
a. Pull, catch, pull, scoop

b. Pull, scoop, pull, catch
c. Pull, scoop, catch
d. Scoop, pull, catch
b - The proper sequence of a power clean is 1st pull, scoop, 2nd pull, catch.
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229. Which of the following should be included in a proper starting stance for of a power clean?
a. Back flat or slightly arched

b. Shoulders rounded
c. Head down
d. Feet slightly narrower than shoulder width apart
a - When performing a power clean your back should be flat or slightly arched, shoulders back,
head up and feet slightly wider than shoulder width apart.
230. What is the general guideline for frequency of cardiovascular exercise?
a. 1-3 sessions per week

b. 2-5 sessions per week
c. 4-6 sessions per week
d. 5-7 sessions per week
b - Cardiovascular exercise should be per formed 2-5 times per week for best results.
231. What is the general guideline for the optimal level of intensity of cardiovascular exercise?
a. 30-55% of Heart Rate Reserve

b. 3-4 on a Rate of Perceived Exertion scale
c. 50-85% Heart Rate Reserve
d. Full sentences during a Talk Test
c - Cardiovascular exercise should be performed at a level of 50-85% of a person’s Heart Rate

Reserve.
232. As a general guideline, cardiovascular exercise should be performed for approximately how long
in duration?
a. 25-45 minutes
b. 20-60 minutes
c. 30-60 minutes
d. 30-90 minutes
b - Cardiovascular exercise should be performed for at least 20 minutes, and generally people do
not perform cardiovascular exercise for longer t han 60 minutes.
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233. What is the best example of cardiovascular program variation?
a. Staying with treadmill running because your client is exce lling at it

b. Switching between using the treadmill, bike and e lliptical throughout the month
c. Alternating speeds and incline on the treadmill
d. Adding swimming into the training routine once a month.
b - Utilizing different forms of cardiovascular exercise m ultiple times per month is an example of
cardiovascular program variation.
234. What are the primary muscles worked when walking or running on a treadmill?
a. Quadriceps, hamstrings, gluteals and gastrocnemius

b. Quadriceps, hamstrings, erector spinae and soleus
c. Gastrocnemius, soleus, hip flexors and erector spinae
d. Soleus, rectus abdominis, hamstrings and quadriceps
a - The primary muscles worked when walking or running on a treadmill are the quadriceps,
hamstrings, gluteals and gastrocnemius.
235. Which of the following is a proper hand position when using a stationary bicycle?
a. Palms facing down on the front of t he handlebar

b. Neutral grip on the sides of the handlebar
c. Forearms resting on the sides of the handlebar
d. All of the above
d - All of the above are possible hand positions for stationary cycling.
236. Which cardiovascular training machine might you suggest to a client with arthritis?
a. Treadmill
b. Stair Climber
c. Rowing Machine
d. Stationary Bicycle
d - Stationary bicycles and elliptical trainers are examples of low-impact cardiovascular training
machines, which is important for a person with art hritis.
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237. Janet is 55 years old, new to exercise and has had a knee injury in t he past. Which exercise
modality best suits her?
a. Treadmill running
b. Swimming
c. Elliptical trainer
d. All of the above
e - Swimming or an elliptical trainer are generally choices that would suit a client who is new to
exercise and has had a past injury.
238. During long-distance or treadmill running, what is the sequence of a proper foot strike?
a. Toe, roll to the heel, push off

b. Heel, roll to the toe, push off
c. Ball of foot, roll to heel, push off
d. Heel, roll to ball of foot, push off
d - The proper sequence of the foot strike is heel, gently roll to the ball of the foot, for push off.
239. How many ounces of fluid should be consumed following exercise per pound of body weight
lost?
a. 14-18 oz
b. 16-20 oz
c. 20-24 oz
d. 24-28 oz
c - A person should consume 20-24 ounces of water for every pound lost during cardiovascular
exercise.
240. Which general training principle involves a training stress or intensity that is greater than what
the client is used to?
a. Specificity
b. Overload
c. Variation
d. Progression
b - Overload refers to increasing the difficulty level of training to induce changes in the body.
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241. Which step comes before the others in a sequential approach to designing a resistance training
program?
a. Exercise selection
b. Determination of training frequency
c. Training volume
d. Progression
b - You should first determine how many days per week your client is going to train, then establish
types of exercises, etc.
242. Which step comes last in a sequential approach to designing a resistance training program?
a. Progression
b. Rest periods
c. Training load
d. Fitness evaluation
a - Progression is the final step in sequencing a resistance training program in order to produce
positive results.
243. During what portion of the resistance training program should you ask the question, “How many
times per week do you resistance train?”
a. Fitness evaluation
b. Exercise selection
c. Exercise order
d. Initial consultation
d - Questions about training intensity, frequency and mode should be asked during the initial
interview.
244. What is the primary factor a personal trainer should consider when determining a client’s
training frequency?
a. The client’s overall level of fitness

b. The client’s goals
c. The client’s resting heart rate
d. All of the above
a - The most important factor to consider when determining training frequency is the client’s
overall level of fitness.
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245. Jenny is a 45-year-old woman who has not exercised regularly in over 5 years. She is looking to
get back into shape. At what frequency should you schedule her resistance training?

d. 4-5 days per week
b - A beginner to exercise should participate in resistance training 2-3 days per week for optimal
results.
246. With which type of client should the personal trainer select one type of exercise per muscle
group?
a. Intermediate
b. Beginner
c. Advanced
b - With a beginner the trainer may elect to train each muscle group with one exercise type for
each in order to develop a training base.
247. Which of the following displays a commonly used guideline for the order of resistance exercises?
i) Power, core, assistance

ii) Core, power, assistance
iii) Multijoint, single-joint
iv) Small muscles, large muscles
a. i, iii and iv
b. ii, iii and iv
c. ii and iv
d. i and iii
d - Power should always come first and assistance e xercises last, multijoint before single-joint and
large muscles before small muscles when designing a resistance training program.
248. In which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle does the signal reach the muscle, causing reflexive
contraction?
a. Eccentric phase
b. Amortization phase
c. Concentric phase
d. Refractory phase
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c - The concentric phase is the phase in which contraction occurs. There is no such thing as the
refractory phase.
249. Which individual is ready to begin a plyometric training program?
a. Mary has 3 months of resistance training experience, demonstrates proper technique

and although she sprained her ankle 6 months ago she has no current injuries.
b. James has 2 months of resistance training e xperience, demonstrates proper technique
and has no current injuries.
c. Matt has 2 years of resistance training experience, demonstrates proper tec hnique, and
has recently been experiencing slight pain in his left knee.
d. Monica has 3 years of resistance training experience, could use some help on her form
during drills, and has no current injuries.
a - In order to meet the minimum requirements for plyometric training, an individual must have at
least 3 months of resistance training ex perience, proper technique during drills and no current
injuries to involved body parts.
250. Which of the following is an example of a low-intensity speed drill?
a. Front barrier hop

b. Downhill sprinting
c. Stationary arm swing
d. Uphill sprinting
c - Any stationary speed exercise is typically a lower intensity.
251. Which of the following is an example of a stride frequency speed drill?
a. Downhill sprint
b. Double-leg hop
c. Split squat jump
d. Uphill sprint
d - An uphill sprint is an example of a stride frequency speed drill in that the m ain focus is the
frequency of strides.
252. Which of the following is an example of a stride length speed drill?
a. Downhill sprint
b. Double-leg hop
c. Split squat jump
d. Uphill sprint
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a - A downhill sprint is an example of a stride length speed drill in that the length of the strides is
the main focus.
253. Which of the following is an example of a lower body plyometric drill?
a. 45-degree sit-up
b. Ankling
c. Butt kicker
d. Front barrier hop
d - The front barrier hop is an example of a lower body plyometric drill.
254. During the stretch-shortening cycle in plyometric exercise, in which phase does the stretching of
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
c - The eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is the phase in which the concentric
muscle(s) are stretched.
255. During the stretch-shortening cycle in plyometric exercise, in which phase does the shortening of
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
d - The concentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is the phase in which the concentric
muscle(s) shorten.
256. During the stretch-shortening cycle in plyometric exercise, which phase represents a pause
between muscle actions?
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
b - The amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is the phase in which a pause between
muscle actions takes place.
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257. During which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is elastic energy stored and muscle spindles
stimulated?
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
c - Potential energy is generated and a signal is sent to t he spinal cord during the eccentric phase.
258. During which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is a signal sent to the stretched muscle?
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
b - Nerves synapse in the spinal cord and a signal is sent to the muscle that has been stretched
during the amortization phase.
259. During which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is the stretched muscle stimulated and
energy released?
a. Refractory
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
d - Elastic energy is released once the stretched muscle is stimulated during the concentric phase.
260. In which order does the stretch-shortening cycle occur?
a. Amortization, concentric, eccentric

b. Concentric, amortization, eccentric
c. Eccentric, amortization, concentric
d. Eccentric, concentric, amortization
c - An eccentric stretch begins the cycle, followed by a transitory pause in the amortization phase
and then a concentric contraction.
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261. Which balance performance level would a drill of standing on one leg for 30 seconds fall under?
a. Beginning
b. Intermediate
c. Advanced
d. Professional
a - Single-leg standing drills fall under the beginner category of balance drills.
262. Which balance performance level would a drill of holding a quarter squat for 30 seconds fall
under?
a. Beginning
b. Intermediate
c. Advanced
d. Professional
b - Double-leg quarter squat drills fall under the intermediate category of balance drills.
263. Which balance performance level would a drill of holding a single-leg half squat for 30 seconds
fall under?
a. Beginning
b. Intermediate
c. Advanced
d. Professional
c - Single-leg half squat drills fall under t he advanced category of balance drills.
264. What percentage of a client’s body weight should his or her squat 1 repetition maximum be
prior to performing lower body plyometric exercises?
a. 75%
b. 100%
c. 150%
d. 200%
c - A client’s squat should be at least 1.5 times his or her body weight prior to attempting lower
body plyometric exercises.
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265. For individuals under 220 pounds, what percentage of a client’s body weight should his or her
a. 75%
b. 100%
c. 150%
d. 200%
c - For a client under 220 pounds, his or her bench press should be at least 1.5 times his o r her
body weight prior to attempting upper body plyometric exer cises.
266. For individuals over 220 pounds, what percentage of a client’s body weight should his or her
a. 75%
b. 100%
c. 150%
d. 200%
b - For a client over 220 pounds, his or her bench press should be at least 1 times his or her body
weight prior to attempting upper body plyometric exercises.
267. What are the primary muscles used when using a stationary bicycle?
a. Quadriceps
b. Gastrocnemius
c. Recus abdominis
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b
e - Both the quadriceps and the gastrocnemius are prime movers in the use of a stationary bicycle.
268. What is the most commonly used sequential order of the performance of typical exercise types?
a. Core exercises, assistance exercises, power exercises

b. Power exercises, assistance exercises, core exercises
c. Assistance exercises, core exercises, power exercises
d. Power exercises, core exercises, assistance exercises
d - The order typically involves multi-joint exercises first, then single-joint exercises.
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269. In resistance training, which of the following is an example of a compound set?
a. Incline bench press immediately followed by dumbbell fly

b. Incline bench press followed by dumbbell fly with a 30 second rest in between
c. Leg press immediately followed by heel raises
d. Leg press followed by heel raises with a 30 second rest in between
a - A compound set is two exercises performed simultaneously that both target the same muscle
group.
a. Push press, power clean, seated heel raise

b. Push press, front squat, wrist curl
c. Front squat, triceps press-down, seated heel raise
d. Power clean, triceps press-down, seated heel raise
b - The push press exercise is a power exercise, front squat is a core exercise and wrist curl is an
assistance exercise.
271. Which resistance exercise combination is an example of multi-joint to single-joint order?
a. Squat and press, incline bench press

b. Back squat, leg curl
c. Three-way shoulder, squat and press
d. Leg curl, squat and press
b - The back squat utilized multiple joint movements, while the leg curl is strictly a knee
movement.
272. Which resistance exercise combination is an example of large muscle to small muscle order?
a. Lateral raise, power clean

b. Bent over row, overhead squat
c. Snatch grip Romanian deadlift, abdominal crunch
d. Snatch grip Romanian deadlift, power snatch
c - The snatch grip Romanian deadlift utilizes large muscle groups, while the abdominal crunch
focuses only on one muscle group.
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a. Lateral raise, overhead squat, power snatch

b. Bench press, push press, wrist curl
c. Power snatch, bench press, lateral raise
d. Push press, overhead squat, front squat
c - The power snatch exercise is a power exercise, bench press is a core exercise and lateral raise is
an assistance exercise.

Safety, Emergency Procedures and Legal Issues
274. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to stretching?
a. Presence of osteoporosis
b. Joint swelling
c. Prolonged immobilization of muscles
d. A healing fracture site
d - While some conditions may pose slight concern and require extra consideration while
stretching, a healing fracture site should never be stretched, no matter what.
275. When on the treadmill your client becomes dizzy and passes out. She hits her head on the
ground. She is unconscious and non-responsive. What is an appropriate action to t ake?
a. Go to a phone and call 911.

b. Gently move her out of the way of bystanders and prop her head with a pillow.
c. Have a coworker call 911 while you stay with her.
d. Begin CPR.
c - It is necessary to call 911 if your c lient is unconscious, but you should never leave your client.
You should never move someone with a possible head or neck injury unless they are somewhere
life threatening.
276. Howard is a diabetic client whom you have been training for 3 months. While exercising he
begins to show signs of hypoglycemia. What is the best course of action?
a. Discontinue the exercise and have Howard sit down, give him something sugary to drink
and monitor him.
b. Give Howard a sugary drink and continue the e xercise, monitoring him.
c. Have Howard discontinue the exercise and give him a protein bar and diet drink.
d. Contact EMS as this is a potential life-threatening situation.
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a - You should discontinue exercise at the first signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It is not
yet necessary to contact EMS. It is important to give the pe rson something sugary to eat or drink
as opposed to anything with artificial sweeteners or only protein. He should be monitored in case
he loses consciousness.
277. Upon approaching a client who is unconscious and non-responsive, what should you check and
in which order?
a. Circulation, breathing and airway

b. Breathing, airway and circulation
c. Airway, breathing and circulation
d. Airway, circulation and breathing
c - The ABCs are Airway, Breathing and Circulation, in that order. This will e nsure that the most
life-threatening issues are addressed first.
278. You are training a client with Epilepsy and he begins having a seizure on the leg press machine.
Which of the following is an appropriate action to take?
a. Restrain him so he does not fall

b. Put your pen in his mouth to keep him from biting his tongue
c. Administer the client’s medication
d. Assist him to the ground if necessary
d - Assisting a client to the ground and placing him or her in a prone or side-lying position is an
option. The rest are not acceptable.
279. You notice that a member of the gym has fallen to the ground. What is the first thing you should
do?
a. Call 911
b. Begin CPR
c. Check the ABCs
d. Ask her if she is ok
d - The first thing you should do is to ask the victim if they are okay. You can determine if they are
conscious and potentially rule out any of the other options with this simple question, as well as
prevent frightening them.
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280. What questions should you ask a victim of a fall who is conscious?
a. Medical history
b. Spouse’s name and phone number
c. If they would like you to call someone to pick them up
d. Their age and weight
a - A person’s medical history is pertinent and logical information to ascertain in a medical

emergency.
281. In which situation should you call 911?
a. A client has fallen and twisted his ankle.

b. A member has fallen and hit her head and is responsive
c. A client needs to sit down from dizziness after a difficult bout of exercise
d. A client is having difficulty breathing and you are unsure of what to do
d - Whenever you are unsure of what to do in a medical emergency you should call 911. Difficulty
breathing is a medical emergency and can turn fatal within minutes, so it is important to call 911 in
the case of difficulty breathing.
282. In which situation is it not necessary to call 911?
a. Your client has had a seizure

b. A member is suffering from chest pain
c. Your client is vomiting and ends her session early
d. A member is threatening to hit another member
c - It is not necessary to call 911 when a client is vomiting, unless it is uncontrollably or interfering
with their breathing.
283. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, passageways must be at least how wide?
a. 36 in
b. 32 in
c. 46 in
d. 60 in
a - Passageways must be at least 36 inches to accommodate for wheelchairs.
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284. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, hallways and circulation passages must be at
least how wide?
a. 36 in
b. 40 in
c. 60 in
d. 65 in
c - Hallways and circulation passages must be at least 60 inches wide.
285. All resistance training machines should be spaced at least _______ apart.
a. 1 foot
b. 2 feet
c. 3 feet
d. 4 feet
b - Resistance training machines and equipment should be spaced at least 2 feet apart, preferably
3.
286. Which of the following are important considerations in a home facility?
a. Cords from treadmills

b. Children and pets
c. Electrical supply
d. All of the above
d - All of the above should be considered when training a client in a home fac ility.
287. Which of the following is a question you may be expected to answer when calling 911?
a. What number are you calling from?

b. Are you able to assist with CPR?
c. Do you have access to an AED?
d. All of the above
d - All of the above are question you might be asked when calling 911 .
288. What is the purpose of CPR?
a. To help the body maintain perfusion.

b. To get air into the person’s lungs.
c. To keep the person conscious.
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a - The purpose of CPR is to help the person’s body maintain perfusion, or blood flow and oxygen
delivery to tissues.
289. On whom should you use an Automated External Defibrillator (AED)?
a. A client who is unconscious and breathing shallowly.

b. A member who is unconscious and not breathing but has a pulse.
c. A member who is unconscious, not breathing and does not have a palpable pulse.
d. A member who is barely conscious and complaining of chest pain.
c - An AED should only be used if the person is unconscious, not breathing and has no palpable
pulse.
290. Which of the following are signs of hypoglycemia?
a. Excess sweating
b. Hunger
c. Feeling energetic
d. All of the above
e - Excess sweating and hunger ar e signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) as well as weakness
and fatigue.
291. Your client has been running sprints outside on a hot summer day. She begins to become dizzy
and pale with cool, clammy skin. What steps should you take to prevent heat stroke?
a. Have her lie down in a cool area with her feet elevated and give her fluids.
b. Have her sit down and wait until she feels better to resume exercise.
c. Give her plenty of fluids and wait to c ontinue exercise until she feels better.
d. Discontinue exercise and send her home.
a - When a client is showing signs of heat exhaustion it is important to remove t hem from the heat,
give fluids and elevate their feet to avoid shock.
292. Your client is exercising outside on a hot day and becomes confused. She has hot, bright red skin
and is having difficulty breathing. She is scared and dizzy. What is the best course of action to
take?
a. Discontinue exercise, call 911 and begin actively cooling her.

b. Discontinue exercise, begin actively cooling her and c all 911.
c. Discontinue exercise, have her sit down inside and give her fluids.
d. Discontinue exercise, have her lie down inside with her head elevated and begin actively
cooling her.
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b - It is important to begin actively cooling someone who is showing signs of heat stroke as soon as
possible. Use cold, wet washcloths, ice packs, or even a cool bath. Once you have begun t his
process, activate EMS.
293. Your client trips over a piece of exercise equipment and falls, twisting her ankle. She cannot get
up on her own and it is painful to stand on. What is the best course of action?
a. Help her over to a chair, wrap her ankle for her and offer her some ibuprofen.
b. Call 911 immediately.
c. Help her to a chair, offer an ice pack and allow her to call someone to transport her t o
the hospital.
d. Let her know that she has sprained her ankle and take her to the hospital.
c - This is a situation in which the person can make his or her own decision about contacting EMS.
It is not okay to diagnose an injury or illness, wrap the injury, or give any medication. Just help the
person become more comfortable and offer something non-invasive like an ice pack.
294. Legal claims in health and fitness activities generally have to do with which of the following?
a. Screening responsibilities
b. Fitness recommendations
c. Emergency response
d. All of the above
d - All of the above and many more are associated with lawsuits against personal trainers/fitness
facilities.
295. Which legal term is associated with the failure to comply with a legally determined duty to
protect another person, therefore causing them harm?
a. Breach of duty
b. Negligence
c. Informed consent
d. Proximate cause
b - Negligence occurs when a person breaches a duty owed to another where the breach of that
duty causes harm..
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296. Which of the following legal documents can serve as a defense in a negligent case?
a. Informed consent
c. Failure to pay notice
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b
e - Informed consent and assumption of the risk forms can serve as a defense in a negligent case.
297. Which of the following documents contains a contractual promise not to bring claim in the event
of injury?
a. Informed consent
c. Release of liability waiver
d. Industry standards and guidelines
c - A release of liability waiver serves as a contractual promise not to file suit or claim in the eve nt
of an injury.
298. Which of the following fitness facility structures should be inspected and cleaned daily?
a. Walls
b. Ceiling
c. Floor
d. Windows
c - The floors should be inspected and cleaned daily to prevent hazards.
299. What is the recommended size of an Olympic lift platform and surrounding cushion area?
a. 5 feet by 5 feet with 3-4 feet open on each side

b. 8 feet by 8 feet with 3-4 feet open on each side
c. 10 feet by 10 feet with 4-5 feet open on each side
d. 6 feet by 6 feet with 3-4 feet open on each side
b - The recommended size of an Olympic lift area for safety is 8 feet by 8 feet with 3-4 feet open
on each side.
163
300. Which of the following is not a symptom of inflammation at a joint?
a. Pain
b. Warmth
c. Increased range of motion
d. Loss of function
c - A person suffering from inflammation will experience decreased range of motion at that joint
due to swelling.
301. What is a proper place to store an incident report?
a. In your desk drawer

b. On your desk
c. In a locked filing cabinet at t he gym
d. In a locked filing cabinet in your home
e. Either a or c only
c - It is not appropriate to take any incident reports home, and they must remain in a locked
cabinet.
302. Which of the following is an example of negligence?
a. Neglecting to ask if your client would like some water.

b. Neglecting to give your client a break in the middle of their session.
c. Neglecting to spot a client during a bench press exercise.
d. Neglecting to ask a client for payment before the session.
c - This could potentially cause harm to the client and goes against what a “re asonable and
prudent professional” would do.
303. Which of the following is an example of a personal trainer performing duties outside of their
scope of practice?
a. Advising the client to look up the food pyramid online.

b. Advising the client on how to bette r perform the bench press exercise.
c. Advising the client on how to stretc h the hamstrings.
d. Advising the client on supplements to take for incre asing muscle mass.
d - It is out of the personal trainer’s scope of pract ice to advise clients on supplements.
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304. Which of the following is NOT an overuse condition?
a. Tendinitis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Stress fracture
d. Bursitis
b - Osteoporosis is a condition in which bone density decre ases, and it not related to overtraining.
305. Which of the following is a common management technique for musculoskeletal injuries?
a. Anti-inflammatory medication
b. Avoiding aggravating movements
c. Physical therapy
d. All of the above
d - All of the above are common techniques for managing musculoskeletal injuries, as well as
ice/heat modalities and cortisone injections.
306. Which of the following exercises should be avoided in a person with carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. Overhead Press
b. Elbow extension
c. Abdominal crunch
d. Lat pulldown
a - The overhead press puts the wrists in a fully extended position, which can aggravate carpal
tunnel syndrome, along with full flexion.
307. Which of the following is an example of a confidential document that should remain in a locked
drawer?
a. Daily exercise logs

b. Fitness assessment data
c. An incident report from a fall
d. Personal trainer’s schedule
c - All incident reports are considered confidential and should be kept in a locked drawer.
165
308. Which of the following is an acceptable temperature for a fitness facility?
a. 66 degrees Fahrenheit
b. 18 degrees Celsius
c. 69 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 24 degrees Celsius
c - The recommended temperature in a fitness facility is between 68-78 degrees Fahrenheit.
309. Which process is state-mandated through which certain professionals are authorized to provide
defined services to others?
a. Certification
b. Legal authority
c. Negligence
d. Licensure
d - The granting of licenses is a state regulated and administered function. Certification is typically
carried out through a professional organization.
310. Which law is in place in order to deal with issues related to c onduct that is prohibited by federal
or state laws?
a. Contract law
b. Tort law
c. Criminal Law
c - Criminal law is implicated when someone does an act that is prohibited by law.
311. Which type of civil law covers wrongful acts or omissions that occur between parties?
a. Contract law
b. Tort law
c. Criminal Law
d. Negligent law
b - The word “tort” means “wrong”. The tort law system is set up to remedy wrongs in the civil
court system, where one party can sue another for damages, or monetary compensation, for the
harm that occurred. This is not to be confused with wrongful acts that are punishable as crimes.
166
312. Which law is based on promises legally bargained for between two parties?
a. Contract law
b. Tort law
c. Criminal Law
d. Negligent law
a - A contract is an agreement in which parties promise ce rtain things to one another and where
certain consideration is exchanged.
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10 Test Preparation Tips
1. Start Studying 3 Months Before The Test - You have a lot of information to review to get
prepared. Give yourself enough time to study all of it in a relaxed state of mind. Trying to
cram your study in a month or a few weeks before the test will just create anxiety and even
panic which is not conducive to learning.
2. Outline a Study Schedule and Stick to It – You first need to find out what subjects the test
covers, then break them down into a study outline. An outline of the material will give you
a birds-eye-view of what you have to cover and allow you to plan to actually study it.
Include review days throughout the schedule where you review material you studied the
month or two before. Include practice test sessions in your schedule as well. Once you
have a study schedule established, commit to it and be disciplined. It will only help you, and
give you the benefit of comprehensive study, if you actually follow it.
3. Study Every Day for at Least One Hour – Getting prepared for a professional certification
exam takes commitment. To maintain this commitment, it is best to make it part of your
regular schedule. Plan an hour a day to study the material you have scheduled for the day.
4. Obtain a Good Study Guide – A good study guide is very important. It will give you the
substance you need to know for the test.
5. Use Flashcards – Flashcards are easy to use and can interject some fun into the study
process. Flashcards that give you a question on one side and an answer on the other are
the most effective. Use them regularly throughout your study schedule.
6. Take Untimed Practice Tests Periodically to Assess Your Knowledge of the Material – Use
the Tests.com Practice Test to find out how well you know the material. For the first couple
times, do not time yourself, but use the test simply to determine your strengths and
weaknesses. Focus your study on the areas of the exam where you had the most trouble.
7. Take a Timed Practice Test Periodically to Practice Test Taking Skills – Take the Tests.com
Practice Test using a timer setting. Determine how many questions are on your state exam
and complete that amount of questions in the allotted time. This exercise will allow you to
get a sense of how fast you need to work under time pressure.
8. Tab and Highlight your Reference Books – Depending on the test, some organizations have
open book tests, allowing you to use a reference book while you take the test. Most testing
rules do not allow notes in the reference book you use, but many allow highlighting and
168
tabbing. When you use a reference book during a test, it is important to use it in such a way
that allows you to work efficiently and not slow you down. Place colored tabs on the pages
of the book referencing the sections, so you can turn to them quickly and not have look up
page numbers in the Table of Contents. Highlight those sections which you believe to be
important and that will be subject to testing.
9. Meet with Friends who are Studying for the Test and have a Group Discussion - Your
friends and colleagues who are studying for the test will have different strength and
weaknesses than you. You can benefit each other by sharing information, discussing issues
and asking each other questions about the information subject to testing.
10. Don’t Study the Day or Night Before the Test – You have prepared for months. Even
though you may feel a bit anxious the day before the test, it is important that you give your
brain a rest. During the test, you must be clear of mind and able to nimbly move from
question to question. If your brain is tired and your eyes are having trouble focusing, you
will put yourself at a great disadvantage. Do not study late into the night. You know the
material more than you realize. Take the day off, go for a walk, a bike ride or see a movie.
10 Test Taking Tips
1. Get Good Rest the Night before the Test – All the study in the world will not save you if you
can’t focus your eyes and your mind is cloudy due to staying up late at night to study before
the test. Test taking is an art and you must have a clear, well rested mind to do well. An
important tip, and the first in this list for a reason, is to get a good night’s rest the day
before the test.
2. Eat a Good Meal before Leaving for the Test – Tests usually last a couple of hours. They
take much concentration and mental energy. You don’t want to have your blood sugar level
affect your ability to concentrate. Eat a good meal before leaving to take the test. Stay
away from foods that would make you tired.
3. Get to the Testing Location on Time and Mentally Prepare You rself – You do not want to
get lost on your way to the testing location or leave too late such that you miss the
beginning of the exam or even have to rush to get to your seat. You want to arrive in
enough time to sit for 10 or 15 minutes prior to the test to collect your thoughts and clear
your mind. Make sure you have the address to the testing location the day before the test,
ensure you have the right directions or use a GPS system and find out beforehand how
much time it will take to get there so you know when to leave.
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4. Read the Question and Understand What it is Asking – A cardinal rule of test taking is “Do
not read into the question and Answer only What is Asked.” Before you read the answers,
make sure you understand what the question is asking. Do not let yourself insert
qualifications into the questions or assume additional fact patterns.
5. Form an Answer in Your Mind before Reading the Answer Options – If an answer comes
to you before you read the answer options, and the answer that came to you matches an
answer option, odds are that the answer option corresponding to the answer that popped
into your head is the correct answer. You know more than you realize. This is how
preparation benefits you.
6. Read all of the Answers - Even though the first answer option looks right, read all of the
answer options all of the time. One of the answers is the correct choice. All the
information to answer the question is there. Read all the answer options to understand
what options are available. You will find, while one of the first top selections seems right
some of the time, a bottom option will occasionally be the right selection because it
qualifies the answer in the correct way. If you just take the first answer that seems right
without reading the other answer options, you will not get the benefit of all the information
in the answer options.
7. Eliminate Obviously Wrong Answers – Some of the answer options will obviously be
wrong. You can increase the odds you will select the right answer and work more efficiently
by first eliminating obviously wrong answers.
8. Don’t get Stuck on Difficult Questions – Some questions will have difficult or complex fact
patterns that require some thought or calculation. If you find yourself getting lost in the
facts or numbers, or stuck on the answer options, such that you start feeling anxious that
you are wasting time, take the following steps: guess and register an answer, mark the
question with some notation that will tell you it was a guess, and come back to it at the end
of the test, after you finished all other questions.
9. Pace Yourself - Don’t Work too Fast; Don’t Work too Slow – Time is a very important
element of test taking. Aside from the subject matter, it is the factor that most causes
pressure and stress. To obtain a good score, it is important that you have the time to read
and answer all of the questions. Tests only allow a certain amount of time per questions.
Determine what that time per question is by dividing the time by the number of questions.
Pace yourself when taking the test so that you allow yourself enough time to read and
answer all questions. You don’t want to work too fast or too slow.
170
10. Maintain a Good Attitude during the Test – It is important to keep your composure during
the test. Having a good attitude will allow you to get through the challenging parts of an
exam and avoid becoming down or defeatist, which could slow you down or stop you
altogether from finishing the exam. Hang in there and have confidence. If you prepare for
the exam following the preparation and test taking tips discussed here, you can have
confidence that you will succeed.
171
Answer Bubble Sheet
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NSCA Personal Trainer Practice Exam Kit

Published by Tests.com LLC

Copyright © 2013 - 2017 Tests.com LLC

About the Author

Practice Exam Questions

Section 1 – Client Consultation and Assessment ....................................................... 7

Section 2 – Program Planning................................................................................... 20

Section 3 – Techniques of Exercise........................................................................... 41

Section 4 – Safety, Emergency Procedures and Legal Issues ................................... 61

Practice Exam Answers .................................................................................................... 69

Practice Exam Questions with Answers .......................................................................... 88

Test Preparation and Test Taking Tips .......................................................................... 168

- Client Consultation and Assessment

Registering for the Exam

Test Taking Methods

What is the animal shown?

According to the above statement, which of the following is NOT true?

A) Johnny loves pancakes

Which of the following is a true statement?

A) Kids only eat what they like.

The answer has to be D, because A, B and C all used absolute answers.

Good luck on your exam!

Christy Hamilton, NSCA, ACSM

1. Which of the following is a questionnaire that serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk

a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

2. In which situation should the trainer refer the client to a dietitian?

a. Bill wants advice on losing 100 pounds

3. What information does the Health History Questionnaire collect?

4. What information does the Informed Consent form collect?

a. Begin training at a low intensity.

a. Begin training at a low intensity.

a. Make sure she eats a large meal before exercising.

15. Which of the following comes first in the initial interview?

a. Implement and complete health history forms

19. A client’s resting heart rate should always be checked ____________________.

a. On the inside of the client’s arm at the bend of the elbow.

a. Health appraisal screening

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

a. Knees moving inward

29. Tight plantarflexors can lead to which compensation?

a. Knees moving inward

a. Weight (lb)/Height (in)

a. A client complaining of a lower backache after purchasing a new bed.

a. Assumption of Risk Agreement

36. Which of the following is NOT an element of an Informed Consent form?

a. A waiver of rights to legal remedy in the event of injury

37. Jim is a 47-year-old