Exam

0. At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas pressures occur?
a. At the compressor outlet.
b. At the turbine entrance.
c. Within the burner section.

1. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion?

a. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of acceleration to a smaller
mass of air.
b. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas energy is extracted by
turbines to drive the propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust thrust.
c. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large
mass of air.

2. A waisted drive shaft is primarily to

a. achieve dynamic balance.
b. reduce weight.
c. provide a fuse if the driven component is overloaded.

3. Adiabatic compression is
a. an isothermal process.
b. one where there is an increase in kinetic energy.
c. one where there is no loss or gain of heat.

4. The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the

a. burner cans.
b. turbine inlet guide vanes.
c. turbine blades.

5. The efficiency of a gas turbine would be greatest at

a. cold temperatures.
b. low pressure.
c. hot temperatures

6. The efficiency of conversion of kinetic energy into propulsive work is a measure of.
a. mechanical efficiency.
b. propulsive efficiency.
c. thermal efficiency.

7. Ram effect' due to aircraft forward speed will cause the efficiency of the engine to
a. remain constant.
b. decrease.
c. increase.
8. At altitude, idling RPM is
a. same as at sea level.
b. higher than at sea level.
c. lower than at sea level.

9. The propulsive efficiency is

a. low, with a low mass flow acceleration.
b. high, with a low mass flow acceleration.
c. high, with a high mass flow acceleration.

10. Thrust rating on an FADEC controlled engine can be changed by

a. varying the ballast resistor in the EGT system.
b. changing the engine rating plug.
c. varying the EPR datum plug.

11. A divergent intake is

a. divergent from front to rear.
b. convergent/divergent from front to rear.
c. divergent/convergent from front to rear.

12. In an electrical de-icing system, the main elements will be on

a. intermittently, 8 times a minute, dependant on OAT .
b. intermittently, 4 times a minute, dependant on OAT .
c. continuously and intermittently.

13. The air intake for a gas turbine powered subsonic aircraft would be of
a. convergent form.
b. divergent form.
c. convergent/divergent form.

14. The fan speed of a twin spool axial compressor engine is the same as the
a. low pressure compressor.
b. forward turbine wheel.
c. high pressure compressor.

15. Air through the compressor, before entering the combustion chamber, passes
a. through divergent passage to increase the pressure.
b. through nozzles to increase the velocity.
c. through divergent passage to decrease the pressure.

16. The resultant velocity of air exiting an axial compressor stage depends upon
a. aircraft forward speed.
b. compressor RPM.
c. Both of the above.

17. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine?

 a. To convert pressure to velocity.
b. To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
c. To increase pressure and reduce velocity.

18. What is the purpose of the stator vanes in the compressor section of a gas turbine engine?
a. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
b. Control direction of the airflow.
c. Prevent compressor surge.

19. Low mass airflow through a compressor will produce

a. stalling of rear stages.
b. stalling of early stages.
c. no effect.

20. The fabricated liner of a flame tube is achieved mainly by

a. argon arc process.
b. electric resistance welding.
c. oxyacetylene welding.

21. At high rotational speed at sea level, a duple burner would be passing fuel via the
a. main nozzle.
b. primary nozzle.
c. primary and the main nozzle.

22. Why is it necessary to have a combustion drain system?

a. To prevent pressure build up in the combustion chamber.
b. To prevent initial over-fuelling on start up or hot start.
c. To allow water in the combustor to drain away.

23. The approximate percentage of the mass airflow taken in by the flame tube snout is
a. 82%.
b. 8%.
c. 18%.

24. Creep may occur to turbine blades due to

a. prolonged low RPM use.
b. over-temp with excessive centrifugal loads.
c. high back pressures.

25. The hottest casing is the

a. HPT
b. combustion chamber.
c. L.PT.

26. Necking and mottling of turbine blades

a. is due to thermal stress.
 b. is formed during manufacture.
c. is due to bending when the gas hits the blades.

27. The purpose of a propelling nozzle is to

a. increase the velocity of the air and increase thrust.
b. decrease the velocity of the exhaust to increase static pressure.
c. direct the air onto the turbines.

28. What indication does the pilot receive that thrust reversers have deployed?
a. An audible warning.
b. A sequence of lights.
c. A feeling of rapid deceleration.

29. The Jet Pipe of a gas turbine engine

a. protects the airframe from heat damage.
b. has an inner cone to protect the rear turbine disc.
c. is convergent in shape to increase the velocity as much as possible.

30. If the exit area of the nozzle was too large, the effect is
a. exit velocity lower causing loss of thrust.
b. will choke at a lower gas temperature.
c. exit velocity lower, negligible effect on thrust.

31. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are usually what type(s)?
a. Teflon and synthetic rubber.
b. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
c. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.

32. Squeeze film bearings are usually found on

a. H.P compressor section.
b. the turbine section.
c. LP compressor section.

33. Seals on a gas turbine engine restrict leakage of oil by

a. spring pressure.
b. closely tolerated contacting components.
c. air pressure.

34. The function of a labyrinth seal is to create

a. a restricted leakage of air between fixed and rotating components.
b. an airtight seal between fixed and rotation components.
c. an airtight seal between fixed adjacent casing surfaces.

35. An abradable lining in the fan case

a. prevents fan blade tip rub.
b. produces less leakage at tips for anti-ice.
 c. provides acoustic medium.

36. Some labyrinth seals

a. control the outflow of air at the turbine.
b. are self lubricating.
c. are spring loaded.

37. The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic centimeters of oil to flow through an accurately
calibrated orifice at a specific temperature is recorded as a measurement of the oil's
a. specific gravity.
b. flash point.
c. viscosity.

38. Kerosene is used instead of gasoline because

a. kerosene is highly volatile and has good lubrication qualities.
b. Kerosene is less volatile and has good lubrication properties.
c. kerosene has a higher volatility than gasoline and has good lubrication abilities.

39. What action is taken to protect integral fuel tanks from corrosion due to micro biological
contamination?
a. Rubber liners are installed in the tank.
b. A biocidal additive is added to the fuel.
c. The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate.

40. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of a turbine engine performance check if
an alternate fuel is to be used?
a. Maximum RPM adjustment.
b. Fuel specific gravity setting.
c. EPR gauge calibration.

41. The purpose of a pressure filter in a lubrication system is to

a. protect the pressure pump.
b. protect the oil jets.
c. protect the scavenge pumps.

42. The air-cooled-oil-cooler has an anti-surge valve in order to

a. protect the cooler.
b. restrict the engine max oil pressure.
c. stop oil draining from the system when the cooler is removed.

43. When rotating, the gear type oil pump

a. draws oil into the pump and carries it round between the gear teeth and casing.
b. draws oil into the pump and through the intermeshing gears to the outlet.
c. draws oil into the pump, half being carried around between pump and casing, the other half
passing between the gears to the outlet.
44. What will happen to the return oil if the oil line between the scavenger pump and the oil cooler
separates?
a. Oil will accumulate in the engine.
b. The scavenger return line check valve will close and force the oil to bypass directly to
the intake side of the pressure pump.
c. The return oil will be pumped overboard.

45. When re-light is required in flight on a FADEC engine, the pilot selects
a. one igniter.
b. igniter selected automatically.
c. both igniters.

46. A FADEC system consists of

a. H.M.U, A.D.C and sensors.
b. E.E.C, A.D.C and sensors.
c. H.M.U, sensors and an E.E.C.

47. When both FADEC channels are healthy they will alternate
a. as selected on the flight deck.
b. when one channel fails.
c. on each engine start.

48. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control unit trimmed?
a. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.
b. To properly position the power levers.
c. To adjust the idle RPM .

49. Turbine case cooling utilizes

a. LP compressor air.
b. fan air.
c. H.P compressor air.

50. Engine anti-ice is taken from the

a. turbine.
b. H.P compressor.
c. LP compressor.

51. In an axial flow turbine engine, compressor bleed air is sometimes used to aid in cooling the
a. inlet guide vanes.
b. turbine, vanes, blades, and bearings.
c. fuel.

52. Air bleed for an anti-ice system is

a. tapped directly off the compressor.
b. sent through a pressure regulator.
c. sent through the air conditioning.
53. On light up, the gas temperature will
a. rise slowly.
b. rise rapidly, then fall as RPM increases to idle.
c. rise rapidly.

54. After an unsuccessful start of an engine

a. the engine has to be left for some time before another start.
b. unburnt fuel can be drained from fuel drainage lines.
c. unburnt fuel can be evacuated by motoring the engine with H.P cock closed.

55. High energy ignition is required because of the

a. high flash point of the fuel.
b. absorbed moisture content.
c. low flash point of the fuel.

56. A thermocouple indicator is basically a

a. milliammeter.
b. millivoltmeter.
c. milliohmeter.

57. Where is Turbine Outlet Temperature (T.O.T) measured?

a. Upstream of the turbine.
b. Downstream of the turbine.
c. In the combustion chamber.

58. The compensation device on an E.G.T system must be re-calibrated after

a. each time a part of the system is replaced.
b. does not need calibration.
c. manufacture and overhaul.

59. Water methanol for cooling is injected into the

a. compressor inlet or outlet.
b. engine hot zone.
c. combustion chamber.

60. When reheat is selected and in operation, the mass gas flow
a. decreases.
b. remains the same.
c. increases.

61. Fuel trimming on a turboprop engine is

a. pilot controlled.
b. governor controlled.
c. automatic.
62. A free turbine is
a. not directly connected to the power output shaft.
b. connected directly to the propeller and compressor.
c. connected directly to the power output shaft.

63. What type of reduction gear is used on most turboprop modern engines?
a. Helical cut parallel spur gears.
b. Epicyclic reduction gear.
c. Straight cut parallel spur gears.

64. If an E.P.R gauge is installed on turbofans as a measure of power output, what is used on a
turboprop?
a. E.P.R gauge.
b. Torque-meter.
c. Thermocouples.

65. On a twin spool turbo-shaft engine, the free turbine is connected to the
a. output gearbox.
b. L.P gearbox.
c. H.P gearbox.

66. The shaft on Turbo-Shaft engine usually turns from:

a. 1.500 RPM to 3.000 RPM
b. 3.000 RPM to 10.000 RPM
c. 6.000 RPM to 30.000 RPM

67. A turbo-shaft engine has

a. a mechanical connection between compressor and turbine.
b. a power shaft which is not connected to the compressor.
c. none of the above.

68. In the majority of helicopters, the thrust generated by the gas generator is absorbed by the
a. L.P turbine.
b. Free power turbine.
c. H.P turbine.

69. The function of an A.P.U air inlet plenum is to

a. stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor.
b. increase the velocity of the air before entering the compressor.
c. decrease the pressure of the air before entering the compressor.

70. Auxiliary power units provide

a. hydraulic and electrical power.
b. pneumatic and electrical power.
c. hydraulic and pneumatic power.
71. In a large commercial passenger transport aircraft the A.P.U supplies
a. pneumatics and electrics.
b. electrics.
c. pneumatics.

72. An A.P.U consists of

a. a power compressor and load compressor.
b. a power compressor and directly connected turbine.
c. a load compressor and free turbine.

73. Forward engine mounts take which form?

a. Castings.
b. Forgings.
c. Fabricated sheet steel.

74. If you reduced the length of bellcrank (2) what would happen to the input to the F.C.U?
a. remain the same.
b. reduce.
c. increase.

75. Rubber anti-vibration pads are fitted to engine

a. components to prevent fatigue.
b. cradles to prevent damage during transportation.
c. pylons to prevent vibration through the airframe.

76. Pipes, electrical cables and associated components of a fire-detection system should be
a. fire resistant.
b. fire proof.
c. fire retardant.

77. A continuous loop fire detector is what type of detector?

a. Rate of temperature rise detector.
b. Spot detector.
c. Overheat detector.

78. In a two shot fire extinguishing system

a. extinguishers distributed once to either engine compartment.
b. extinguisher distributed twice to each enginecompartment.
c. one squib can be fired, if that fails then the 2nd squib can be fired.

79. When testing a squib on a fire bottle, you use a

a. multimeter (AVO).
b. low current ohmmeter.
c. lamp and 1.5V cell.

80. A fuel or oil fire is defined as a.

 a. class B fire
b. class C fire
c. class A fire

81. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating damage than compressor blades
because of
a. higher temperature stresses.
b. higher centrifugal loading.
c. high pressure and high velocity gas flow.

82. In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis program, which of the following is NOT true?
a. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an engine when it is new.
b. A successful oil analysis program should be run over an engine's total operating life so that
normal trends can be established.
c. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be made after an engine's first oil sample
analysis.

83. Vibration analysers determine which component is vibrating by analysing

a. voltage.
b. amplitude.
c. frequency.

84. A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to which kind of damage?
a. Scoring.
b. Galling.
c. Cracking.

85. When the engine is not running, and engine blanks are installed. The E.P.R gauge shows 1.0, then
a. the transmitter is faulty.
b. the receiver is faulty.
c. it is normal.

86. A magnetic chip detector detects

a. particles held in suspension.
b. particles which are too small for the naked eye.
c. ferrous particles only.

87. When running down an engine

a. it should be done as slowly as possible to assist thermal stress.
b. it should be done as quickly as possible to stop excess of fuel gathering.
c. it should be done as slowly as possible to reduce thermal stress.

88. Galling is a condition caused by excessive

a. chafing.
b. scoring.
c. temperatures.
89. When removing an engine for long-term storage, bleed valves should be
a. removed.
b. locked closed.
c. open but blanked.

90. Fuel system inhibiting oil is

a. mineral oil.
b. light anti-freeze oil.
c. kerosene.

91. When an installed engine is not to be used for a period of up to 7 days

a. it is necessary to inhibit the engine.
b. it is only necessary to blank off all apertures.
c. run the engine as prescribed in the Flight Manual.