QPAMBSC17

*SLRC1* SLR-C 1
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) Examination, 2017

ENGLISH (Compulsory) (CBCS Pattern) (New)
On Track English Skills for Success
Time : 2.30 Hours Total Marks : 70
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternatives from

those given below them. 14
1) Jimmy and Bob dined at ________ restaurant twenty years ago.
a) Big Brothers b) Big Boss Brandys
c) Big Joe Bradys d) John Bradlys
2) The story, After Twenty Years implies that silky Bob is ________
a) Private Detector b) Restaurant Owner
c) Police Officer d) Gangster or Criminal
3) The writer met Miss. Krishna ________
a) at an art exhibition b) at the hotel
c) in railway d) in city bus
4) The narrator of the story The Connoisseur is ________
a) Nergis Dalal b) Sarojini Naidu c) O. Henry d) Attila Narin
5) The essential part of intelligence, as the Latin word suggests, is ________
a) the inability to neglect the simple facts
b) the ability to look beyond the simple the facts
c) the inability to look at nature
d) the ability to compete others
6) Mr. Binet developed ________

a) IQ Test b) GK Test
c) Aptitude Test d) Computer software
P.T.O.
SLR-C 1 -2- *SLRC1*
7) Where are the bangle sellers carrying their wares ?

a) to the temple fair b) to the roads
c) to the garden d) to the married womans house
8) The poem An Irish Airman Foresees His Death is composed by ________
a) W.B. Yeats b) Robert Frost
c) W.H. Auden d) William Shakespeare
9) The speaker in the poem Bangle Sellers is ________
a) customers b) bangle sellers
c) married women d) young unmarried women
10) W.B. Yeats relates the plight of ________ soldiers.
a) American b) Irish c) African d) Indian
11) ________ Sangoli Rayanna was a great freedom fighter.

a) An b) The c) A d) No article
12) This is the Dr. Bhujade who treated me for typhoid. The underlined word is ________
a) proper noun b) common noun c) collective noun d) abstract noun
13) Prarthana goes to ________ school. (for education)

a) a b) the c) an d) no article
14) Soham went to America ________ plane.
a) by b) from c) in d) at
2. Answer in brief any seven of the following : 14

1) Why did Bob decide to travel to west ?
2) What was the policeman constantly doing with his stick ?
3) What is the meaning of the title The Connoisseur ?
4) What is the narrators initial opinion about Miss. Krishna ?
5) How can you define Intelligence ?
6) What is virtual reality by Attila Narin ?
7) Why does Jimmy send another policeman to arrest Bob ?
8) Why can computers not think in the same way as human beings ?
*SLRC1* -3- SLR-C 1
3. A) Write short answers on any two of the following : 8

1) Describe the different types of bangles which the bangle sellers carry.
2) What is the theme of An Irish Airman Foresees His Death ?
3) The speaker in An Irish Airman Foresees His Death.
B) Write a paragraph on any two of the following : 6

1) Human values are Timeless and Eternal.
2) Solar Energy.
3) A Decision that Changed my life.
4. Write an essay on the impact of mobile on the lives of young people in the
present day. 14
OR
Write an essay describing an exciting cricket match which you have seen.
5. Read the following passage and make notes of it. Use an appropriate title for
your notes. 14
Drugs related health disorders are many and varied. Dirty needles and solutions
used for injecting drugs can easily cause abscesses in the arms and veins, liver
disease, venereal diseases and infection of the kidneys and brain. Sniffing cocaine
and amphetamines can damage the tissue of the nose and Marijuana and tobacco
smoking can cause lung diseases. Heavy users of alcohol, volatile solvents,
amphetamines or Marijuana may find that their livers are permanently damaged.
Babies of women addicted to opiates are likely to be born addicted and to suffer
from withdrawal symptoms. Cocaine and amphetamines can cause hair loss.
Recent research has indicated that Marijuana can damage cells. A drug users
way of life makes him more susceptible to pneumonia, tuberculosis, malnutrition
and weight loss. Finally, an overdose of any of the sensual drugs can lead to
respiratory or cardiac failure and death.
_______________
*SLR-C-2* SLR-C – 2
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY (Paper – I) (CBCS Pattern) (New)
Physical Chemistry
Time : 2 12 Hours Total Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Draw neat diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic tables and scientific calculator is
allowed. (At.wts. H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, Na = 23
and CI = 35.5)
1. Select the correct alternative for each of the following : 14

1) The order of a reaction in which rate constant and half life period are inversely
proportional to the concentration is
a) First b) Zero c) Second d) Third
2) Hot reservoir represents
a) Source b) Sink
c) Isolated System d) Open System
3) Integration of dx is ___________
a) X b) X + C c) log x d) log x + C
4) Pc, Vc and Tc are know as ___________
a) gas constants b) critical constants
c) van der Waals’ constants d) velocity constants
5) The rate of reaction ___________ with increase in temperature.
a) Decrease b) Increase
c) Remain constant d) All of these
6) The symbol ∫ represents ___________

a) Integration b) Derivative c) Both of these d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 2 -2- *SLR-C-2*
7) If one of the reactant in bimolecular reaction is present in large excess, the

reaction becomes kinetically of ___________ order.
a) First b) Zero c) Second d) Third
8) The ideal gas equation for n mole of gas is ___________
a) PV=RT b) PV = nRV c) PV = nRT d) PV = T/RT
9) In adiabatic process
a) q = 0 b) q = 1 c) w = q d) q ≠ 0
10) No machine has ___________ efficiency.
a) 0% b) 80% c) 100% d) 70%
11) The reaction in which molecularity and order of reaction are not equal is
known as ___________ reaction.
a) Zero order b) Pseudo-molecular
c) Second order d) First order
12) The point of intersection of X and Y axis in the graph is known as ___________
a) Slope b) Origin c) Intercept d) All of these
13) The number of molecules taking part in chemical reaction is known as
___________
a) Order of reaction b) Molecularity of reaction
c) Specific reaction rate d) Rate of reaction
14) The rate constant in first order reaction is 0.0154 Min–1. The half life period
of the reaction is ___________
a) 60 min b) 45 min c) 120 min d) 20 min
2. Answer any seven of the following : 14

i) Give any four rules of derivative.
2.303 a a
ii) K = log using this equation plot a graph of log against t.
t a−x a−x
Find the value of slope.
iii) Distinguish between definite integral and indefinite integral.
iv) Define the term order of chemical reaction.
v) Define ideal and non-ideal gases.
*SLR-C-2* -3- SLR-C – 2
vi) What is isotherm ?

vii) Give any two statement of second law of thermodynamics.
viii) What is heat engine ? Give example.
ix) Define graph and graph paper.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 10

i) Explain Joule Thomson effect.
ii) What is slope ? Give its characteristics.
iii) Explain efficiency of heat engine on the basis of Carnot cycle. Calculate
the % efficiency of stem engine operating between 373 K. and 298 K.
B) For a certain first order reaction the time for half change is 72 min. How much
time will be required for the completion of 90% reaction. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 14

i) Define first order reaction and derive the rate constant equation for first
order reaction.
ii) Define rate of reaction. Discuss different factor which affect the rate of
reaction.
iii) What are the causes for deviation of gases from ideal behavior ? Calculate
the critical constant of a gas from the following data :
a = 1.406 Nm4 mol–2 b = 9.94 × 10–5 m3
R = 8.31 JK–1.

i) Mention various method used for determination of the order of reaction.
Describe any two of them.
ii) What correction is made by van der Waals in the postulates of kinetic theory
of gases ? How he deduce a new equation in the light of these ?
iii) Define second order reaction. Derive the expression for the velocity constant
of the second order reaction where initial concentrations of the reactants are
same.
_____________________
*SLRC3* SLR-C 3
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester I) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY (Paper II) (New CBCS Pattern)
Inorganic Chemistry
Time : 2 ½ Hours Max. Marks : 70

2) All questions carry equal marks.
4) Neat and labeled diagrams should be drawn wherever possible.
1. Select the most correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite the
sentence. 14
i) Possible values of spin quantum number are

a) 0 and 1 b) 1 and 2 c) + ½ and ½ d) ½ and 0
ii) All the d-orbitals have equal energy, therefore they are called _______ orbitals.
a) quantized b) degenerate c) unsymmetrical d) coplanar
iii) The electronic configuration of Phosphorous (P) is

a) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p3 b) [Kr] 3d10 4s2 4p3
c) [Ne] 3s2 3p 3 d) [Ar] 4s2 4p3
iv) The strength of covalent bond depends upon

a) number of electron
b) the extent of overlapping of atomic orbitals
c) type of orbitals
d) type of hybridization
v) The crystal structure of NaCl is

a) BCC b) cubic c) FCC d) Hexagonal
vi) Critical radius ratio at contact position for CN = 6 is

a) 0.155 b) 0.225 c) 0.732 d) 0.414
P.T.O.
SLR-C 3 -2- *SLRC3*
vii) In H2O molecule, ________ hybridization is present.

a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) sp3 d
viii) The shape of PCI5 molecule is

a) linear b) octahedral
c) tetrahedral d) trigonal bipyramidal
ix) For H2 molecule, -

= _________ kJ/mole.
a) 432 b) 532 c) 342 d) 352
x) In BeCl2 molecule, the bond angle is

a) 90° b) 180° c) 72° d) 120°
xi) The bond length in NO molecule is __________ .

a) 1.44 b) 1.06 c) 1.18 d) 1.81
xii) Oxygen molecule contains _________ unpaired electrons.

a) two b) three c) one d) zero
xiii) MOT is discussed on the basis of

a) Aufbau process b) LCAO approximation
c) Paulis exclusion principle d) Pearsons principle
xiv) The bond order of Li2 molecule is

a) 1.5 b) 2.0 c) 2.5 d) 1.0

i) Draw the shape of p orbitals.
ii) Why inert gas elements have zero electron affinity ?
iii) Give the steps involved in hybridization of atomic orbitals.
iv) In water molecule, bond angle decreases from '

&

to "

%

, why ?
v) AICI3 is less ionic than AIBr3, why ?

vi) What is stoichiometry ?
*SLRC3* -3- SLR-C 3
vii) Give the importance of Born-Haber cycle.

viii) What is an energy level sequence of molecular orbitals for n = 2 ?
ix) Give the characteristics of non-bonding molecular orbitals.
3. A) Write note on any two of the following : 10

i) Shapes of d-orbitals.
ii) Formation of CIF3 molecule.
iii) Bond order and stability of molecule.
B) What is radius ratio ? Calculate radius ratio for octahedral geometry. 4

i) What is chemical bond ? Discuss the types of chemical bonds.
ii) Give a brief account on valence bond theory.
iii) Give the comparison between atomic orbitals and molecular orbitals.

i) What is MO diagram ? With the help of MO diagram explain the formation and
characteristics of CO molecule.
ii) Discuss the formation of SiCI4 molecule.
iii) What is ionic bond ? Explain the formation of ionic bond with example.
______________
*SLRC4* SLR-C 4
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester I) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Paper I)
Mechanics and Properties of Matter
Time : 21/2 Hours Max. Marks : 70

3) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic tables or calculator is allowed.
Given data : Acceleration due to gravity, g = 980cm/s2.
1. Select the correct alternative from the following : 14

i) Moment of inertia of a disc about its diameter is given by ____________
a) b) c) d)
2
M R M R
M R
M R
2 4
ii) With the increase in temperature, surface tension ____________

a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Does not change d) Either decrease or increase
iii) Potential energy possessed by unit mass of a liquid flowing at a height of
20m is ____________
a) 2.04 J b) 20 J c) 196 J d) 0.49 J
iv) The length of the equivalent simple pendulum is also called as __________of
the compound pendulum.
a) Equal length b) Reduced length
c) Extended length d) Suspension length
P.T.O.
SLR-C 4 -2- *SLRC4*
v) If T is the surface tension of a liquid then the excess pressure inside the
liquid drop of radius r is ___________
a) b) c) d)
6 " 6 6 6
H H " H H
vi) Torsional pendulum is used to determine _____________ of the material.

a) Youngs modulus b) Density
c) Mass d) Modulus of rigidity
vii) The theoretical upper limiting value of Poissons ratio is ___________
a) 1 b) +1.5 c) + 0.5 d) 0.5
viii) Dimensions of moment of inertia are _________
a) [M1 L2 T0] b) [M2 L2 T0]
c) [M1 L1 T2] d) [M1 L2 T0]
ix) Venturimeter is used mainly to determine the ____________
a) Density of liquid
b) Rate of flow of water through a pipe
c) Viscosity of water through the capillary
d) Pressure of a liquid
x) If the substance is highly soluble in a liquid then the surface tension of the
liquid ____________
c) Does not change d) None of these
xi) ____________ indicates the resistance of elastic solid to elongation.
a) Elastic limit b) Modulus of rigidity
c) Youngs modulus d) Bulk modulus
xii) Moment of inertia in rotational motion is analogous to the ___________ in
translational motion.
a) Mass b) Force
c) Acceleration d) Velocity
*SLRC4* -3- SLR-C 4
xiii) If the radius of gyration of a compound pendulum is 40cm then to get minimum
period of oscillation the length of the pendulum should be _____________
a) 20cm b) 80cm
c) 40cm d) 10cm
xiv) Velocity of a liquid flow ___________ with the area of cross section of the
tube.
a) Varies inversely b) Varies directly
c) Does not change d) Becomes twice

1) Draw a labelled diagram of Katers pendulum.
2) State any two advantages of Jaegers method to determine surface tension
of a liquid.
3) Give physical significance of moment of inertia.
4) Define Poissons ratio.
5) State any two applications of surface tension.
6) Obtain an equation for M.I. of a spherical shell about its tangent on the basis
of its M.I. about its diameter.
7) Give significance of Reynolds number.
8) Calculate M.I. of a circular disc of mass 400gm and diameter 0.3m about an
axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane.
3. A) Attempt any two of the following : 10

1) Show that shear strain is equivalent to compression and extension strains.
2) Obtain an expression for moment of inertia of rectangular lamina about an
axis passing through its centre and parallel to its sides.
3) In Jaegers experiment the difference in the level of manometric liquid of
density 0.5 gm/cm3 is found to be 6 cm. The capillary tube of internal
radius 0.02 cm dips 3 cm inside a liquid of density 0.2 gm/cm3. Calculate
the surface tension of liquid when bubble just burst.
B) Show that the centre of suspension and centre of oscillation of a compound
pendulum are interchangeable. 4
SLR-C 4 -4- *SLRC4*
4. Attempt any two of the following : 14

1) Derive the relation between surface tension, excess pressure and radius of
curvature.
2) Obtain an expression for moment of inertia of a flywheel.
3) Calculate modulus of rigidity of a material for which K = 9.6×1010 N/m2 and
Y = 12.5×1010 N/m2. Also, in this case calculate tensile stress if the tensile
strain is 0.2.
5. Attempt any one of the following :

1) What is a bifilar pendulum ? Derive an expression for the period of a bifilar
pendulum. 10
Calculate radius of gyration of a bar pendulum whose minimum time period
of oscillation is 1.55 sec. 4
2) Obtain Poiseuilles equation to determine the coefficient of viscosity of a
liquid. 10
Water flows at a rate of 20 cc per second, through a horizontal capillary of
30 cm and diameter 0.2 cm. If the coefficient of viscosity is 0.015 poise
calculate the pressure to maintain the flow. 4
_____________________
*SLRC5* SLR-C 5
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Paper II)
Optics and Laser
Time : 2½ Hours Max. Marks : 70

4) Use of calculator and log tables is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative : 14

i) If diameter of circle of least confusion is 6 cm then lateral or transverse
spherical aberration of the lens is _________ cm.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 12
ii) The blurring of image due to the difference in focal lengths of different colors
is called _________ aberration.
a) lateral b) axial c) spherical d) chromatic
iii) The condition for achromatism of two thin lenses placed in contact is _________
a) b) c) d)

B B B B

B B B B
iv) Cross-wires cannot be used with __________ eye-piece.

a) Huygens b) Ramsdens c) Gauss d) None of these
v) Gauss eyepiece is modification of _________ eyepiece.
a) Newtons b) Huygens c) Ramsdens d) Kellners
vi) When a ray of light gets reflected from the surface of a denser medium, then
additional path difference introduced is _________
a) b) c) d)

"
vii) The fringes obtained in case of Newtons rings experiment are _________
a) localized fringes b) of equal thickness
c) localized and of equal thickness d) delocalized fringes
P.T.O.
SLR-C 5 -2- *SLRC5*
viii) In case of Newtons rings experiment if the ring pattern is formed due to
reflected light then the centre of ring pattern is _________
a) dark b) bright c) dark or bright d) semi-dark
ix) The phenomenon of diffraction is explained on the basis of _________
a) Fermats principle
b) Rectilinear propagation of light
c) Newtons corpuscular theory
d) Huygens theory of secondary wavelets
x) In plane diffraction grating, if a and b are width of slit and width of the
opaque portion respectively then the grating element, d = _________
a) b) a × b c) a + b d) a b
=
>
xi) There are 15,000 lines per inch of a given grating, then its grating element
d = __________ cm.
a) 1.7 × 104 b) 1.1 × 104 c) 2.7 × 104 d) 3.1 × 104
xii) He-Ne laser is a ___________ laser.
a) liquid b) gas c) solid d) semiconductor
xiii) In Helium-Neon laser, the type of pumping used is _________
a) mechanical b) optical c) chemical d) electrical
xiv) N1 and N2 be population of atoms in lower and higher energy states, when
population inversion occurs _________
a) N1 < N2 b) N1 > N2 c) N1 = N2 d)
N
N

i) State laws of refraction.
ii) Give methods of minimize spherical aberration.
iii) Draw diagram of Huygens eyepiece.
iv) Distinguish between Huygens eyepiece and Ramsdens eyepiece.
v) In a Newtons rings experiment, the diameters of 18th and 4th dark ring are
0.7 cm and 0.4 cm respectively. The radius of curvature of the plano convex
lens is 100 cm. Calculate the wavelength of the monochromatic light used to
obtain the fringes.
*SLRC5* -3- SLR-C 5
vi) Give the comparison between prism and grating spectra.

vii) What is population inversion ?
viii) What are applications of LASER ?

i) Using Fermats principle show that angle of incidence is equal to angle of
reflection. A ray of light enters from air to water. Calculate angle of refraction
if angle of incidence is equal to 30°. (Given : and
=

).

M
. 3 3
ii) Obtain equation for fringe width due to interference in thin wedge shaped
film.
iii) Explain the elementary theory of plane diffraction grating. Obtain the relation
d s i n n
for principal maxima in the nth order.
B) Write a note on Gauss eyepiece. 4
4. Solve any two of the following : 14

i) Give construction of optical bench. Explain use of optical bench for any one
application.
ii) Obtain an expression for the optical path difference between two successively
reflected rays of monochromatic light for a thin parallel faced film. Calculate
an angle made by reflected light with the surface of a parallel faced thin film
when an angle of incidence i = 30°.
iii) Describe construction and working of Ruby laser.
5. Solve any one of the following : 14

i) Derive condition for achromatism of two thin lenses separated by finite
distance. Two lenses of focal lengths 8 cm and 4 cm are placed at a certain
distance apart. Calculate the distance between the lenses if they form an
achromatic combination.
ii) Describe the experiment to determine the wavelength of light by using a plane
diffraction grating and a spectrometer.
With plane diffraction grating the angle of diffraction for the first order principal
maxima is 30°. Calculate the wavelength of light incident on the grating if the
grating element is 1.2 × 104 cm.

*SLRC6* SLR-C – 6
Seat
No.
B.Sc – I (Semester – I) Examination, 2017

(CBCS Pattern) (New)
STATISTICS (Paper – I)
Descriptive Statistics – I

1. Choose the correct alternative : 14

i) Variables are measured using
a) Nominal scale b) Ordinal scale
c) Interval and ratio scale d) None of these
ii) The classes in which the lower limits or the upper limits are not specified is
known as
a) Open classes b) Close classes
c) An open end classes d) None of these
iii) If we plot two types of ogive curves on the same scale, then from point of
intersection of curves one can determine
a) Lower quartile b) Mode c) Median d) Upper quartile
iv) Which of the following is the best measure of central tendency ?
a) mean b) median c) mode d) all the above
v) The arithmetic mean of first n natural number is
n(n + 1) n+1 n n+1

a) b) c) d)
2 n 2 2
vi) The value of P50
a) is equal to Q1 b) is equal to D5
c) is equal to Q3 d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 6 -2- *SLRC6*
vii) Mode is
a) middle most value
b) most frequent value
c) can be formed when individual observation do not repeat
d) any maximum observation
viii) In an individual series 25, 17, 9, 11, 5, 4, 13, 7 are eight observations, then
median is
a) 10 b) 12 c) 13 d) none of these
ix) M.D. is minimum when the deviations are taken from
a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) All the above
x) The formula of semi-inter quartile range is
Q 3 − Q1 Q 3 − Q1 Q1 − Q 3
a) Q3 – Q1 b) c) d)
2 Q 3 + Q1 2
xi) If a constant 10 is subtracted from each observation of a set, the variance is

a) Decreased by 10 b) Decreased by 100
c) Increased by 10 d) Not changed
xii) The first order moment about mean is
a) Zero b) One c) Three d) None of the above
xiii) If first order movement about 5 is 2, then mean is equal to
a) 5 b) 2 c) 7 d) None of these
xiv) If the values of mean, mode and median are equal, then the curve is
a) Positively skew b) Negatively skew
c) Symmetric d) None of these

i) Define frequency and cumulative frequency.
ii) Define class limits and mid-points.
iii) Define G.M. and H.M.
*SLRC6* -3- SLR-C – 6
iv) State any two properties of A.M.

v) Find A.M. and G.M. of two observation 4 and 9.
vi) Define range and coefficient of range.
vii) Define mean square deviation and state its minimal property.
viii) Show that second central moment is variance.
ix) Explain the term kurtosis.
3. A) Write short note on any two of the following : 10

i) Distinguish between inclusive method and exclusive method of class
intervals.
ii) Show that mean square deviation is greater than or equal to variance.
iii) The first three moments of a distribution about 2 are 1, 22, 10. Find its
mean, S.D. and 3rd central moment.
B) What is the effect of change of origin and scale on arithmetic mean ? 4

i) What is Histogram ? How it is constructed ? Explain how it is used to locate
mode.
ii) Derive the formula of mode for grouped frequency distribution.
iii) A variable takes values 1, 2, 3, 4,.........n with frequencies 1, 2, 3, 4,......n.
Find its mean and variance.

i) Define arithmetic mean and show that sum of squares of deviations is minimum
when calculated about mean.
ii) Define S.D. and M.D. Show that S.D. is always greater than or equal to M.D.
about mean.
iii) What is skewness ? Explain different types of skewness. State the empirical
relation between mean, median and mode.
_____________
*SLRC7* SLR-C 7
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Paper II)
Probability and Probability Distributions I


i) A ticket is drawn from 25 tickets numbered 1 to 25. Define an event as : the
number drawn is odd number. The number of elements in this event is
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 25
ii) For a classical definition of probability the sample space must be
a) Discrete
b) Continuous
c) Finite with equiprobable sample space
d) None of these
iii) A, B and C are mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, for which set the
function P(. ) is regarded as probability function
a) b)
1
P ( A ) P ( B ) 0 . 5 P ( C ) 0 2 ) 2 * 2 +
2 "
c) d)
1 1 !
P ( A ) P ( B ) , P ( C ) 2 ) 2 * 2 +
2 4 " "
iv) Two events are said to be independent if

a) Each outcome has equal chance of occurrence
b) They are disjoint
c) One does not affect the occurrence of the other
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 7 -2- *SLRC7*
v) A box has 4 red and 4 blue balls. Five balls are selected at random, then
probability of getting 2 red balls is given by
a) b)
" $
# $ # $
c) d) One
# $
vi) Items are inspected until first defective is observed and X denotes number of
items inspected. Then the sample space of the experiment is =
a) {1, 2, 3,...} b) {0, 1, 2,...}

c) (0, ) d) {0, 1, 2,...N}
vii) The complementary event of an impossible event is

a) Impossible event b) Sure event
c) Random event d) None of these
viii) Which of the following relation does not hold ?
a) 2 ) 2 )
b) If A
B then P(A) P(B)
c) 2 ) * 2 )
d) 2 )
ix) Let A and B be two events defined on and P(B) > 0 then
P ( A )

P ( A | B )
P ( B )
a) * )
b) ) *
c) ) *
d) None of these
x) If P(A) = 1/3 P(B) = 3/4 2 ) *
= 11/12 then P ( B | A )
a) 1/6 b) 4/9
c) 1/2 d) None of these
xi) If A and B are independent events where P(A) = 0.6, P(A B) = 0.3 then P(B) =
a) 0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0.3 d) 0.5

xii) Which of the following is not a probability function ?
a) b) P(x) = 1 x=0
1
P ( x ) x 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 4
c) d)
1
P ( x ) x 0 , 1
P ( x ) x 1 , 0 , 1
2
*SLRC7* -3- SLR-C 7
xiii) For the following distribution
X : 0 1 2
P(x) : k 5k 4k
The value of k is
a) 1 b)

c) d)

"
xiv) If P(x) is p.m.f. of X. Then distribution function of Fx(X) is given by

a) P(X < )
b) P(X x)
c) P(X x)
d) P(0 < X < 1)

i) Define finite sample space and countably infinite sample space.
ii) Define mutually exclusive events and exhaustive events.
iii) For any events show that P(Ac) = 1 P(A).
iv) What is the probability that a non-leap year will have 53 Sunday ?
v) Define axiomatic definition of probability.
vi) Define :
a) Pairwise independence of events A, B and C.
b) Mutual independence of events A, B and C.
vii) If A
B then prove that P(B|A) = 1.
viii) Define :
i) Discrete random variable
ii) Probability mass function (p.m.f.)
ix) If the p.m.f. of a discrete random variable X is
P(X = x) = C x = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
= 0 otherwise
Find the value of C.

SLR-C 7 -4- *SLRC7*
i) If P(A) =0.2, P(B) = K and P(A B) = 0.6.
Find K
a) If A and B are independent events
b) If A and B are mutually exclusive events.
ii) Define partition of the sample space. If A, B and C form the partition of
sample space and if 3P(A) = 2P(B) = 6P(C) then find P(A).
iii) If A, B, C are any three events defined on sample space with P(A) > 0
then prove that P(B C/A) = P(B/A) + P(C/A) P(B C/A).

B) State and prove addition law of probability for two events. 4

i) A and B are two events defined on sample space
such that
and .
1 1
P ( A ) , P ( B ) 2 ) *
4 5 %
Find :
i) 2 ) *
?
ii) 2 )
?
*
?

iii) 2 ) *
?

iv) 2 ) *
ii) State and prove Bayes theorem on probability.

iii) If A and B are independent events. Then prove that
i) A and BC are independent ii) AC and B are independent.

i) For any two events A and B prove that
2 ) * 2 ) 2 ) * 2 ) 2 *
.
ii) A fair coin is tossed twice and the events are defined as follows
A : Head on first toss
B : Head on second toss
C : Same face on both tosses
Discuss pairwise and mutual independence of A, B and C.
iii) A r.v. X has the following probability distribution.
X : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
P(x) : 1/8 2/8 3/8 1/64 9/64 2/64 4/64
Find :
i) P(2 < X < 6) ii) P(X 5)
iii) Distribution function of X iv) Median of X

_____________

*SLRC8* SLR-C – 8
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – I) (New) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Paper – I)
Algebra

1) The diagonal elements of skew-symmetric matrix are

a) never zero b) few of them zero
c) always zero d) none of these
⎡1 0 0⎤
2) The rank of the matrix ⎢⎢0 3 2 ⎥ is
⎥
⎢⎣0 3 4 ⎥⎦
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
⎡1 0⎤
3) The characteristic equation of the matrix ⎢ ⎥ is
⎣ 0 1 ⎦
a) x2 + 2x + 1 = 0 b) x2 – 2x – 1 = 0
c) x2 + 2x – 1 = 0 d) x2 – 2x + 1 = 0
4) If rank of [A] = rank of [A:B] < number of unknowns, then the system of
equations AX = B possess
a) unique solution b) infinite solution
c) no solution d) none of these
⎡1 2 3⎤
⎢ ⎥
5) Eigen values of the matrix ⎢0 4 5 ⎥ are
⎢⎣0 0 6 ⎥⎦
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 4, 6 d) 1, 4, 5
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 8 -2- *SLRC8*
6) A square matrix A = [aij] is called symmetric if ________ for all i and j.

a) aij – aji = 0 b) aij .aji = 1
c) aij + aji = 0 d) None of these
⎡1 2⎤
7) The characteristic polynomial of the matrix ⎢ ⎥ is
⎣3 4 ⎦
a) λ2 − 5λ + 2 b) λ2 + 5 λ + 2
c) λ2 + 5 λ − 2 d) λ2 − 5λ − 2
8) The modulus and argument of a complex number z = 3 + i is
⎛ π⎞ ⎛ π⎞ ⎛ π⎞ ⎛ π⎞
a) ⎜ 2, ⎟ b) ⎜ 2, ⎟ c) ⎜ 1, ⎟ d) ⎜ 1, ⎟
⎝ 3⎠ ⎝ 6⎠ ⎝ 6⎠ ⎝ 3⎠
9) If z = cos θ + isin θ then z7 + z–7 =

a) 2cos 7 θ b) 2icos 7 θ
c) 2sin 7 θ d) 2isin 7 θ
10) If 1, ω , ω 2 are cube roots of unity then 1 + ω + ω 2 =

a) 1 b) –1 c) 2 d) 0
11) The value of (i)i =

π −π π −π
a) e 3 b) e 3 c) e 2 d) e 2
12) For any complex number z, sin z =
ez − e−z eiz − e − iz
a) b)
2i 2i
eiz + e −iz ez + e−z

c) d)
2 2
13) For any complex number z, sin (iz) =

a) isinhz b) sinhz c) sinh(iz) d) isinz
14) For any complex number z, coshz – sinhz =

a) ez b) e–z c) eiz d) e–iz
*SLRC8* -3- SLR-C – 8
2. Attempt any seven of the following : 14
1) If A is any square matrix then show that A + A T is a symmetric matrix.
⎡1 3 7⎤
⎢ 3⎥ .
2) Find the characteristic equation of matrix ⎢4 2 ⎥
⎢⎣ 1 2 1⎥⎦
3) Test for consistency the equations
x + y + z = –3,
3x + y – 2z = –2,
2x + 4y + 7z = 7.
⎡1 − 3 − 8⎤
⎢ − 4⎥ .
4) Find the rank of matrix ⎢3 1
⎥
⎢⎣2 5 6 ⎥⎦
(cos 2 θ + i sin 2 θ)7 (cos 3θ − i sin 3 θ)3
5) Simplify .
(cos 4 θ + i sin 4 θ)3 (cos 7θ − i sin 7 θ)
1
6) Find all values of (−1) 4 .
7) Separate the real and imaginary parts of cosh (x + iy).
8) Prove that cosh2z – sinh2z = 1.

1) Solve x + y + z = 0
2x + 5y + 7z = 0
2x – 5y + 3z = 0
⎡4 2 1 3⎤
2) Reduce the matrix A = ⎢⎢6 3 4 7 ⎥ to normal form and hence find the
⎥
⎢⎣2 1 0 1⎥⎦
rank of matrix A.
3) Show that
[sin(α − θ) + eαi sin θ]n = sinn α.einθ .
⎡ 3 2⎤
B) Find the eigen values and eigen vectors of the matrix ⎢ ⎥. 4
⎣− 1 0⎦
SLR-C – 8 -4- *SLRC8*
1) For what values of λ , the equations

x+y+z=1
2x + y – 4z = λ
4x + 5y + 10z = λ2 have a solution and solve them completely in each case.
2) Solve x6 + x5 + x4 + x3 + x 2 + x + 1 = 0.
3) If x real then show that
(
i) cosh–1x = log x + x 2 − 1 )
ii) sinh–1 x = log (x + x2 + 1)
5. Attempt any one of the following : 14
1) State and prove Cayley-Hamilton theorem and find the inverse of matrix
⎡1 2 1⎤
⎢0 1 − 1 ⎥
⎢ ⎥ using Cayley-Hamilton inverse method.
⎢⎣3 − 1 1 ⎥⎦
2) State and prove De-Moivre’s Theorem and if α and β are the roots of the
n+2
n n ⎛ nπ ⎞
equation x2 – 2x + 2 = 0, then show that α + β = 2 2 , cos ⎜ ⎟ .
⎝ 4 ⎠
——————————
*SLRC9* SLR-C 9
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CBCS Pattern) (New) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Paper II)
Calculus
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Select and write the correct alternative for each of the following : 14
1) If y = (2x + 3)5 then y3 = ___________
a) 480 (2x + 3) b) 480 (2x + 3)2
c) d) none of these
" &
N !
2) If y = x7 then y8 = ___________
a) 7 ! b) x c) 8 ! x2 d) 0
%
&
3) = ___________
N N
!
l i m
N
a) 0 b) 1 c) log !
d) log !
4) The expansion of log (1 + x) = ___________

! " !
a) x + ..... b) x + ......
N N N N N

! " !
c) x + + ..... d) none of these

N N
5) If u = then x +y +z = __________
u
y K K
z x

z x y
z
N O
a) u b) 2u c) u d) 0
P.T.O.
SLR-C 9 -2- *SLRC9*
# #
6) If u = log then x +y = _________

N O
K
K

! !
N O
N O

a) eu b) 2eu c) 2u d) 2
7) If u = x3 3xy2, v = 3x2y y3 then = _________

K L
N O
a) 0 b) 1 c) x d) x2 y2
8) If u = x3 + y3, where x = acos , y = bsin then = _________

K

a) 3 (b2 sin2
cos
a2 cos2
sin )
b) 3 (b3 sin2
cos
a3 cos2
sin )
c) 3 (a3 sin2 cos

b3 cos2
sin )
d) none of these

9)
sin7x dx = __________

a) b) c) d) none of these
$ ! # $
! # $ ! #
10)
sin4 x cos5 x dx = ___________

a) b)
# &
& #
c) d) none of these
&
#
11) cosn x dx = then n is _________ number.

n 1 n 3 3 . 1

n n 2 n 4 4 . 2
a) even b) odd c) positive d) none of these

*SLRC9* -3- SLR-C 9

12) If = 2xyi + 3yzj + 4zxk then

.

.
at the point (1, 2, 3) is __________ units.
13) If . = xyi + yzj + zxk then

× . = __________
a) yi zj xk b) yi + zj + xk
c) zi + xj + yk d) none of these
14) If . = x2y2z2 i + x3y3z3 j + x4y4z4 k then value of div curl . = __________
a)

.
b)
× .
c) 0 d) none of these
2. Attempt any seven from the following : 14
1) Show that the vector = is irrotational.

y i x j
x y
2) Define the term Directional derivative.
3) If
= x2 + y2 + z2 then prove that curl.grad
=
.

"
4) Evaluate
sin7 2
d .
5) Evaluate dx.
N

N
6) Investigate the continuity of the function f(x, y) = , (x, y) (0, 0)

N O
$ "
N O
= 0, otherwise.
7) If z = x2 + y2, x = at2, y = 2at find .

d z
d t
8) If y = amx then find yn.
9) If y = find yn.

N " N !
SLR-C 9 -4- *SLRC9*
3. A) Attempt any two from the following : 10

1) If y = sin1x then prove that (1 x2) yn + 2 (2n + 1) xyn + 1 n2 yn = 0

2) Obtain the reduction formula for

cosn xdx.

3) Define divergence and curl of a vector and prove that div (curl . ) = 0.
B) Let z = f(x, y) and x = (t), y = (t) then prove that . 4

d z z d x z d y

d t x d t y d t
4. Attempt any two from the following : 14

1) Obtain the reduction formula for

sinm x cosn x dx and hence evaluate

sin8 x
cos4 x dx.

2) Prove that,
[f(r)] = B

(r) + B
(r).
H
3) If z = F(u), where z is a homogeneous function in x and y of degree n
then prove that x2 + 2xy + y2 = G(u) { (u) 1} where

K
K
K
N O
N
O
G(u) = n

.
. K

. K

1) State and prove Eulers theorem on homogeneous functions and verify if for
z = x3y2 + x5 + y5.
2) State and prove Leibnitzs theorem and hence find nth derivative of x3 sin x.
n
3) If In = then prove that :

@
x l o g x
@ N
i) In = nIn 1 + (n 1) !
ii) In = n! {log x + 1 +
+
!
+ .... + 1
n
}
_____________________
*SLRC10* SLR-C – 10
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (New CBCS) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS (Paper – I)
Basic Circuit Theory and Network Analysis
Time : 2.30 Hours Max. Marks : 70
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

3) Use of calculator is permissible.
4) Draw neat labeled diagram whenever necessary.
1. Choose correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 14

1) The working principle of transformer is based on ___________
a) Self inductance b) Conduction
c) Mutual inductance d) None of these
2) An ideal current source has ___________ internal resistance.
a) Infinite b) Finite c) Zero d) All of these
3) Parallel resonance circuit is also called as __________ circuit.
a) Acceptor b) Rejecter
c) Voltage Magnifier d) None of these
4) Kirchhoff’s voltage law is applied to __________
a) Node b) Open circuit c) Close loop d) None of these
5) The Z parameters are same as __________ circuit impedance parameters.
a) Open b) Short c) Hybrid d) None of these
6) The main purpose of fuse is ____________
a) To protect the circuit from the excessive temperature
b) To protect the circuit against the excessive current
c) To protect the circuit against the excessive voltage
d) None of these
7) In pure capacitive circuit the current is _________ with applied voltage.
a) In phase b) Out of phase
c) Lagging d) Leading
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 10 -2- *SLRC10*
8) A sinusoidal AC current RMS value of 50 Amp; its maximum value is
_______ Amp.
a) 78.61 b) 70.72 c) 25 d) 100
9) A RLC circuit is said to inductive if ____________
a) XL = XC b) XL < XC c) XL > XC d) XL ≤ XC
10) The hybrid parameters are h11 is called as ___________
a) Output conductance b) Reverse voltage gain
c) Forward current gain d) Input impedance
11) The color code for 330Ω ± 10% resistor is ___________
a) Orange Orange Black Silver b) Orange Orange Black Gold
c) Orange Orange Brown Silver d) Orange Orange Brown Gold
12) The π network is also called as __________ network.
a) T b) Star c) Delta d) Hybrid
13) The bandwidth of resonance circuit more than, its quality factor Q is ________
a) High b) Low c) Very high d) None of these
14) After applying Norton’s theorem; equivalent circuit will have a new ________
a) Voltage source in series with resistance
b) Current source in series with resistance
c) Current source in parallel with resistance
d) Voltage source in parallel with resistance

1) Define inductance, state its practical units.
2) If the inductor of 50 mH is connected to a 120 V, 50 Hz supply, find out the
inductive reactance.
3) Define the term :
i) Resonating frequency
ii) Band width of a series RLC circuit.
4) State Kirchhoff’s voltage and current law.
5) Draw the symbol of
a) Iron core inductor
b) Variable capacitor
c) Step down transformer
d) Variable resistor.
*SLRC10* -3- SLR-C – 10
6) Define impedance, state its unit.
7) Calculate the resonant frequency of a parallel LCR circuit has an inductor of
1 mH and capacitor of 10 μf .
8) What are admittance parameters ? Give their formulas.
9) Define branch and node of a network.

1) Define capacitance, state its practical units. Give the classification of
capacitor.
2) Explain phase relationship of voltage and current in pure resistor and
capacitor.
3) State and prove Maximum Power Transfer Theorem.
B) Find out current flowing through load resistance RL of a following dc network
using Thevenin’s theorem. 4

1) State Norton’s theorem. Find the current flowing through load resistance by
using Norton’s theorem of the following dc circuit.
SLR-C – 10 -4- *SLRC10*
2) Find the value of h-parameters of the following circuit :
3) Explain the behavior of series RLC circuit as resistive, capacitive and inductive.

1) State Superposition theorem. Find out current flowing through load resistance
RL of a following dc network using superposition theorem.
2) Find out current flowing through each branch of following dc network using
Mesh analysis.
3) Compare Series and Parallel resonance circuit.
_____________________

Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (CBCS) (New) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS
Digital Fundamentals (Paper – II)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 70

1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 14
1) The radix of binary number system is

i) 10 ii) 2 iii) 8 iv) 16
2) ASCII is a ________ bit binary code.

i) 7 ii) 32 iii) 8 iv) 16
3) The _________ gate is used as universal gate.

i) AND ii) OR iii) NOT iv) NOR
4) Boolean addition is provided by ________ gate.

i) AND ii) NOT iii) OR iv) NOR
5) In Boolean algebra A+A+A= _________

i) 1 ii) A3 iii) A iv) 0
6) In K map _________ eliminates two variables.

i) Pair ii) Quad iii) Octate iv) None of these
7) The _________ gate is used as controlled inverter.

i) AND ii) OR iii) EX-OR iv) NOR
8) In __________ gate, if A = 1, B = 1 then output Y = 0.

i) AND ii) OR iii) NOT iv) NOR
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 11 -2- *SLRC11*
9) The 2’s complement of 0101 is
i) 0110 ii) 0101 iii) 1011 iv) 1010
10) In Boolean algebra A(A + B) = ___________

i) 1 ii) B iii) A iv) 0
11) The excess 3 code is _________ code.

i) weighted ii) unweighted
iii) both i and ii iv) none of these
12) IC 7400 contains four _________ gates.

i) AND ii) OR iii) NOT iv) NAND
13) The 4 bit parallel binary adder adds _________ number of bits.
i) One ii) Two iii) Three iv) Four
14) The _______ is the invalid octal number.

i) 125 ii) 256 iii) 528 iv) 525

1) Draw the symbol and truth table of OR gate.
2) State any four rules of Boolean algebra.
3) Draw the logic diagram of half adder.
4) Draw the logic diagram for logic equation Y = AB + C.
5) What is hexadecimal number system ?
6) Draw pinout diagram of IC 7404.
7) What is universal gate ?
8) Convert decimal number 13 into equivalent binary number.
9) State the full form of ASCII Code.

1) Convert 987510 into equivalent hexadecimal number.
2) Explain full adder circuit with logic diagram.
3) Explain the K-map for three variables with suitable example.
B) State and explain any two laws of Boolean algebra with logic diagram. 4
*SLRC11* -3- SLR-C – 11

1) Explain the universality of NAND gate.
2) State and prove De Morgan’s theorems.
3) Explain any three logic gates in detail.
1) Explain 4-bit parallel binary adder circuit with suitable diagram.
2) Simplify
Y = A B C D + A B C D + AB C D + A B C D + A B C D + A B C D + A B C D +
A BC D + ABC D + A B CD + A B C D using K-map.
3) Explain the various blocks of digital computer with suitable diagram.
—————————
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (New-CBCS) Examination, 2017

Paper – I : COMPUTER SCIENCE
Fundamental of Computer
Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.

ii) Figure to the right indicates full marks.

1) In which generation of computers micro-chips were first introduced ?
A) First Generation B) Second Generation
C) Third Generation D) Fourth Generation
2) ____________ is a scanning device.
A) MICR B) Trackball C) Touch screen D) Mouse
3) ALU stands for ____________

A) Array Logic Unit B) Application Logic Unit
C) Arithmetic Logic Unit D) None of these
4) 1 GB means____________
A) 1024 bytes B) 1024 MB C) 1024 GB D) 1025 MB
5) DOS stands for____________
A) Disk Operating System B) Disk Open System
C) Disk Operable System D) None of these
6) ____________is the extension in MS-word.

A) .doc B) .dox C) .document D) .html
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 12 -2- *SLRC12*
7) Which of the following is used to manage hardware and I/O operation of a

computer ?
A) Operating System
B) Performance Management System
C) Language Translator
D) Database Management System
8) ____________ is not a part of an operating system.

A) Job Control Program B) Performance Monitor
C) Supervisor D) I/O Control Unit
9) The small graphic or symbol that represents a program file, folder or device
is____________
A) Desktop B) Monitor C) Pointer D) Icons
10) Which tab would you select to display gridlines in the document ?
A) Insert B) Page Layout C) View D) Review
11) By default how many worksheet appear in the sheets ?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
12) Operating System Act as an ____________ between user and Hardware.
A) Interchange B) Operation C) Interface D) None of these
13) ____________command used to create text file in DOS.
A) text B) copy C) copy con D) file
14) ____________ mobile operation system used in many mobile.
A) Linux B) DOS C) Android D) None of these

1) EDVAC stands for.
2) Explain dir command.
3) What is meant by software ? State different types of software.
4) Explain type command.
*SLRC12* -3- SLR-C – 12
5) Is DOS Multiuser Operating System ? Comment on it.

6) What is meant by file ?
7) UNIVAC stands for.
8) SMPS stands for.

1) Define computer. Explain characteristics of computer.
2) Explain functions of operating system.
3) Write mail merge process.
B) Difference between DOS and windows. 4

1) Explain android mobile operating system.
2) Explain ROM and its different types.
3) Explain keyboard in detail.

1) Summarize the features of MS-word.
2) Explain evaluation of computer.
3) Explain different types of Operating System.
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRC13* SLR-C 13
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (New CBCS) Examination, 2017

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Programming Using C (Paper II)
Time : 2½ Hours Total Marks : 70


1) Which of the following special symbol allowed in a variable name ?
A) * (asterisk) B) | (pipeline)
C) (hyphen) D) _ (underscore)
2) Which of the following correctly shows the hierarchy of arithmetic operations
in C ?
A) / + * B) * / + C) + / * D) / * +
3) Which of the following is the correct usage of conditional operators used in C ?
A) a > b ? c = 30 : c = 40; B) a > b ? c = 30;
C) max = a>b?a>c?a:c:b>c?b:c D) return (a>b)?(a:b)
4) Which of the following are not unary operators in C ?
A) ! B) sizeof C) ~ D) &&
5) What will be the output of the program ?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i = 3, j = 2, k = 0, m;
m = ++ i && ++j && ++ k;
printf(%d, %d, %d, %d\n, i, j, k, m);
return 0;
}
A) 2, 3, 1, 1 B) 2, 3, 1, 2 C) 1, 2, 3, 1 D) 3, 3, 1, 2
P.T.O.
SLR-C 13 -2- *SLRC13*
6) What will be the output of the program ?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int x = 12, y = 7, z;
z = x! = 4 || y = = 2;
printf(z=%d\n, z);
return 0;
}
A) z = 0 B) z = 1 C) z = 4 D) z = 2
7) An array elements are always stored in ___________ memory locations.
A) Sequential B) Random
C) Sequential and Random D) None of the above
8) Which of the following correctly accesses the eight element stored in arr, an
array with 100 elements ?
A) arr[6] B) arr[7] C) arr{6} D) arr{7}
9) String concatenation means
A) Combining two strings
B) Extracting a substring out of a string
C) Partitioning the string into two strings
D) Merging two strings
10) Which of the following statements are correct about an array ?
1. The array int num[26]; can store 26 elements.
2. The expression num[1] designates the very first element in the array.
3. It is necessary to initialize the array at the time of declaration.
4. The declaration num[SIZE] is allowed if SIZE is a macro.
A) 1 B) 1, 4 C) 2, 3 D) 2, 4
11) Associativity of an operator is either left to right or right to left.
A) True B) False
12) The format identifier %i is also used for _____________ data type.
A) char B) int C) float D) double
*SLRC13* -3- SLR-C 13
13) What is the size of an int data type ?
A) 4 Bytes B) 8 Bytes
C) Depends on the system/compiler D) None of these
14) All keywords in C are in
A) Upper Case letters B) Lower Case letters
C) Camel Case letters D) None of these

1) What is algorithm ?
2) What is Compiler ?
3) What is Assembler ?
4) What is Interpreter ?
5) Write four data types of C language.
6) Rules of declaration variable name.
7) Syntax of if-else statement.
8) Advantages of flowcharts.
9) Write operators of C language.

1) Explain programming language.
2) Explain declaration and initialization of string.
3) Explain structure of C programming.
B) Write a program to calculate addition of two numbers. 4

1) What is flowchart ? Explain flowchart symbols.
2) Explain looping statement.
3) Write a program to find given number is Armstrong or not.

1) What is array ? Explain types of array.
2) Explain advantages and disadvantages of algorithm. Write algorithm of
maximum of two numbers.
3) Write a program to find factorial of given number.
______________
*SLRC14* SLR-C 14
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester I) (New) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

GEOGRAPHY
Physical Geography Geomorphology (Paper I)

3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of map stencils is allowed.
1. Select the proper answer from the given below and rewrite the sentences : 14
1) _____ is the branch of science that deals the study of evolution and formation
of land forms.
a) Climatology b) Geology
c) Geomorphology d) Biogeography
2) _____ is the largest planet in solar system.
a) Saturn b) Jupiter c) Mars d) Uranus
3) The planetesimal theory about the earths origin have postulated by ________
a) Chamberlion and Moulten b) Norish Russel
c) Imanual Kant d) Jeans and Jeffory
4) ______ is the biggest satellite among all the satellites in solar system.
a) Moon b) Fobos c) Deimas d) Titan
5) E.Suess classified the interior earth into ______ zones.
a) two b) three c) four d) five
6) _____ discontinuity is found in between mantle and core.
a) Moho b) Guttenberg c) Conrad d) None of these
7) _____ waves has not passes through liquid and gaseous media.
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Long d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 14 -2- *SLRC14*
8) _____ waves introduced at that time, whenever an earthquake took place

onto ocean bottom.
a) Tsunami b) Tidal c) Longitudinal d) Transverse
9) The average density of the earth is ______ gm/cm3.
a) 13.6 b) 10.0 c) 5.5 d) 2.67
10) The forces which are originated in the interior earth, known as _____ forces.
a) tidal b) gravitational c) endogenic d) exogenic
11) _____ ocean is famous to fire ring of earthquakes and volcanisms in world.
a) Atlantic b) Pacific c) Indian d) Arctic
12) Fumaroles are related to _____ activity.
a) Seismic b) Vulcuncity c) Weathering d) Denudational
13) The continental drift theory has postulated by _________
a) Alfred Wegener b) W.M. Davis c) C.D. Harris d) Guttenberg
14) _________ instruments are used to record the intensity of earthquakes.
a) Pantograph b) Barograph c) Thermograph d) Seismograph
2. Write answers in short (any seven) : 14

1) Give the sequential name of all planets in solar system.
2) Explain the characteristics of primary waves.
3) Explain the importance of geomorphology.
4) State the material composition of SIAL and SIMA.
5) What is a upward forces ?
6) Give the examples of folding mountains.
7) Which type of materials ejected in volcanism ?
8) Interior temperature of earth.
9) Classification of magma on the basis of silica content.
*SLRC14* -3- SLR-C 14
3. A) Write a short notes on any two of the following : 10

i) Chamberlions planetesimal hypothesis.
ii) Causes of earthquake.
iii) Vertical forces.
B) Describe the plate tectonic movement. 4
4. Write answers any two of the following : 14

i) What is a volcanoes ? Classify it on the basis of erruption and periodicity.
ii) Describe the structure and composition of interior earth.
iii) Discuss the concept of Wegeners continental drift theory.

i) What is a folding ? State its various types with schematic diagrams.
ii) State the seismic belts on the earth surface.
iii) Describe the nature and scope of geomorphology.

Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (CBCS Pattern) (New) Examination, 2017

PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
GEOMORPHOLOGY (Paper – II)

1) The process of disintegration and decomposition of rocks is called as
_____________
a) Denudation b) Weathering c) Erosion d) Transportation
2) _____________ weathering is more dominant in hot desert regions.
a) Physical b) Chemical c) Biological d) Anthropogenic
3) Deltas are formed in the _____________ stage of river.
a) First b) Second c) Third d) None of them
4) ‘U’ shaped valley is formed by the _____________ work of glacier.
a) Erosional b) Transportational
c) Depositional d) None of them
5) Marble is an example of _____________ rocks.
a) Igneous b) Metamorphic
c) Stratified d) Sedimentary
6) Yardang and Zuegen are frequently found in _____________ areas.
a) Coastal b) Desert c) Glaciated d) Plain
7) Generally carbonation process is commonly found in _____________ areas.
a) Humid b) Cold desert c) Hot desert d) None of them
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 15 -2- *SLRC15*
8) Frost weathering is more common in _____________ areas.

a) Cold b) Hot c) Temperate d) Equatorial
9) The biggest delta ‘Sunderban’ is found in _____________
a) U.S.A. b) India
c) United Kingdom d) China
10) _____________ is the biggest desert regions in the world.

a) Sahara b) Atacama c) Thar d) Gobi
11) _____________ is formed by the depositional work by wind.

a) Loessic plain b) Driekanter c) Mashroom d) Zeugen
12) _____________ has postulated the concept of ‘cycle of erosion’.

a) Alfred Wegener b) W. M. Davis
c) Chamberlin d) Norish Russel
13) Beaches are the depositional landforms made by _____________
a) Glacier b) Underground water
c) Oceanic waves d) Winds
14) ‘Oasis’ is found in _____________ topography.
a) Desert b) Coastal c) Riverine d) None of them

1) Define rocks.
2) Give the types of weathering.
3) Types of sand dunes.
4) Depositional features made by glacier.
5) Give the examples of igneous rocks.
6) Explain the different processes of erosional work of river.
7) State the economic importance of sedimentary rocks.
8) Types of biological weathering.
9) Give the types of moraines.
*SLRC15* -3- SLR-C – 15
3. A) Write a short notes on any two of the following : 10

i) Formation process of delta
ii) Classification of sedimentary rocks
iii) Migration of sand dunes.
B) What is a physical weathering and state various factors affecting on it ? 4

i) Define chemical weathering and state its types with good examples.
ii) Describe the various landforms in the erosional work of river.

iii) Describe the concept of ‘Cycle of Erosion’.

i) Define igneous rocks and state its classification with good examples.
ii) Describe the erosional landforms formed by wind.

iii) Describe the erosional work of glacier.
_______________
*SLRC16* SLR-C 16
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CBCS Pattern) (New) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY
Paper I : Animal Diversity I
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing correct alternative : 14

i) _________ contractile vacuoles are present in Paramoecium.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
ii) Tape worm belongs to the Phylum ____________.
a) Aschelminthes b) Platyhelminthes
c) Coelonterata d) Porifera
iii) In Sycon water current enters in the body through ___________.
a) Ostia b) Osculum
c) Apopyle d) Prosopyle
iv) Hydra belongs to the class __________ .
a) Scyphozoa b) Hydrozoa
c) Calcarea d) Ciliata
v) Amoeba belongs to the Phylum _______ .
a) Protozoa b) Porifera
c) Coelenterata d) Nematoda
vi) In Hydra ________ cells are capable of developing into any type of cells.
a) Muscular b) Gland
c) Interstitial d) Cnidoblasts
vii) Tapeworm is _______ parasite.
a) Ectoparasite b) Obligatory
c) Endoparasite d) Facultative
P.T.O.
SLR-C 16 -2- *SLRC16*
viii) In Earthworm, the locomotory organs are ________.

a) Setae b) Cilia c) Tentacles d) Flagella
ix) Ascaris belongs to the _____ phylum.
a) Nematoda b) Porifera
c) Coelenterata d) Protista
x) Scolex of Tapeworm shows _________ suckers.
a) Two b) Four c) Three d) Six
xi) In Paramoecium ________ nuclei are present.
a) One b) Three c) Four d) Two
xii) In Hydra the locomotory organs are ________.
a) Cilia b) Pseudopodia
c) Tentacles d) Setae
xiii) In Earthworm, the spermathecae are the organs of _________ system.
a) Male reproductive b) Female reproductive
c) Excretory d) Respiratory
xiv) In Earthworm, the clitellar segments are in __________ segments.
a) 12 to 14 b) 14 to 16
c) 16 to 18 d) 18 to 20
2. Attempt any seven (out of nine) of the following : 14

i) Salient features of Phylum porifera.
ii) Scolex of Taenia solium.
iii) Earthworm gizzard.
iv) Setae in earthworm.
v) Nematocysts in Hydra.
vi) Habits and Habitat of Earthworm.
vii) Earthworm : Nerve Ring.
viii) Regeneration in Hydra.
ix) Cyclosis in paramoecium.
*SLRC16* -3- SLR-C 16
3. A) Attempt any two (out of three) of the following : 10

i) Describe with neat labeled diagram sycon type of canal system and its
functions.
ii) Describe locomotion in Hydra.
iii) Describe parasitic adaptations in tape worm.
B) Discuss Coelom in earthworm. 4
4. Attempt any two (out of three) of the following : 14

i) Describe morphology of earthworm, Pheretima posthuma.
ii) Describe binary fission in paramoecium.
iii) Give salient features of Phylum Annelida.

i) Describe in detail with neat labeled diagram digestive system of earthworm.
ii) Describe any four cell types in Hydra.
iii) Describe morphology of tape worm.
_______________
*SLRC17* SLR-C 17
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester I) (New CBCS) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY (Paper II)
(Cell Biology and Genetics)

2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Complete the sentence selecting appropriate answer : 14

1) __________ is common tool for the cell study in a working laboratory.
a) Compound microscope b) Electron microscope
c) Light microscope d) Phase contrast microscope
2) __________ is light source in electron microscope.
a) Halogen b) Tungston c) X-rays d) Fluorescent
3) __________ is an example of prokaryotic cell.
a) Plant cell b) Nerve cell
c) Bacterium d) Muscle cell
4) __________ is a nucleated cell in mammals.
a) WBC b) Thrombocytes
c) RBC d) Epithelial cells
5) ___________ called hereditary material.
a) Peroxisomes b) Ribosomes
c) Lysosomes d) Chromosomes
6) Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane is given by _________
a) Robert Brown b) Singer and Nicholson
c) De Duve d) Camillo Golgi
7) ___________ is called as power houses of cell.
a) Mitochondria b) Ribosomes
c) Lysosomes d) Chromosomes
P.T.O.
SLR-C 17 -2- *SLRC17*
8) The main role of endoplasmic reticulum in a cell is __________

a) energy formation b) production of lysosomes
c) transport d) secretion
9) The Balbiani rings are found in __________
a) polytene chromosomes b) autosomes
c) lamph brush chromosomes d) sex chromosomes
10) ________ is known as father of genetics.
a) Mendel b) T.H. Morghan
c) Darvin d) De Robertis
11) XX-XO type of sex determination is found in the _________
a) Man b) Frog
c) Moth and butterflies d) Fishes
12) The ABO blood group is discovered by
a) Karl Landstainer b) Karl Marx
c) Karl Pearson d) Karl Lemark
13) In Sickle cell anemia _________ are affected.
a) WBC b) Osteocytes
c) Thrombocytes d) RBC
14) The genetic disorder PKU is concerned with ___________
a) amino acids b) glucose c) vitamins d) fatty acids
2. Write short note on following (any seven) : 14

i) Functions of nucleus.
ii) Prokaryotic cell.
iii) Co-dominance.
iv) Sex determination.
v) Functions of endoplasmic reticulum.
vi) Ribosomes.
vii) Rh factor.
viii) Dominant genes.
ix) Dihybrid cross.
*SLRC17* -3- SLR-C 17

i) Give an account of Mendels pattern of inheritance.
ii) Describe sickle cell anemia.
iii) Give an account of compound microscope.
B) Describe the structure of nucleus. 4

i) What are Mendels laws ? Describe the law of dominance.
ii) Describe the structure and functions of Golgi complex.
iii) With the neat labeled diagram describe the structure of eukaryotic cell.

i) Describe the structure and types of lysosomes.
ii) Describe the structure and functions of Mitochondria.
iii) With the help of suitable example explain the environmental method of sex
determination.

*SLRC18* SLR-C 18
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

BOTANY (New)
Paper I : Microbiology and Phycology

2) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives : 14

1) Virology is the study of ____________
a) Viruses b) Bacteria
c) Algae d) Fungi
2) ____________ is an example of plant viruses.
a) Influenza virus b) TMV
c) Adenovirus d) None of these
3) Mycoplasma are responsible for diseases in ___________
a) Plants b) Animals
c) Plants and animals d) None of these
4) PPLO and MLO terms are commonly used for ___________
a) Blue green algae
b) Plant viruses
c) Crustose lichen
d) Mycoplasma
5) The virus that infects bacteria are called as ___________
a) Bacteriophages b) Plant viruses
c) Animal viruses d) All the above
6) The shape of coccus bacterium is _____________
a) Spiral b) Spherical
c) Rod like d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 18 -2- *SLRC18*
7) ____________ is used as a biofertilizer.

a) Spirogyra b) Sargassum
c) Nostoc d) Both a) and b)
8) Spirogyra belongs to division ____________
a) Pheophyta b) Cynophyta
c) Rhodophyta d) Chlorophyta
9) Cynophycean starch is storage food of ____________
a) Nostoc b) Mucor c) Albugo d) Riccia
10) ___________ is a brown alga of marine water.
a) Ulva b) Sargassum
c) Chara d) Nostoc
11) G. M. Smith classified algae in to ___________ division.
a) 8 b) 13 c) 7 d) 9
12) Prokaryotic cells are found in ___________
a) Rhodophyta b) Pyrrophyta
c) Chlorophyta d) Cynophyta
13) Agar Agar is obtained from ____________
a) Gelidium b) Ulva
c) Spirogyra d) Nostoc
14) ____________ occur in the coralloid root of Cycas.
a) Fungi b) Blue green algae
c) Bacteria d) Volvox

i) What are bacteria ?
ii) What is phycology ?
iii) Write forms of bacteria.
iv) Sketch and label Tobacco Mosaic Virus.
v) What is mycoplasma ?
vi) What is spiroplasma ?
vii) Give the functions of heterocyst in Nostoc.
viii) Sketch and label the cell structure of Spirogyra.
ix) Give systematic position (Classification) of Spirogyra.
*SLRC18* -3- SLR-C 18
3. A) Answer any two of the following : (2×5=10)

i) Give role of algae in agriculture.
ii) Give general characters of viruses.
iii) Describe the vegetative methods of reproduction in algae.
B) Give an economic importance of bacteria. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : (2×7=14)

i) Describe the structure of a typical virus.
ii) Describe the reproduction methods in Nostoc.
iii) Give the general characters of chlorophyta.

i) Describe the scalariform conjugation in Spirogyra.
ii) Describe the reproduction in Sargassum.
iii) Give an economic importance of viruses.
_____________________
*SLRC19* SLR-C 19
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (New) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

BOTANY (Paper II)
Biomolecules and Cell Biology

2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct answer from the given
alternatives : 14
1) In water molecule, the angle between two hydrogen atoms is about
a) 108° b) 110° c) 105° d) 90°
2) When H+ ion concentration decreases in solution then pH shows _____ in
nature.
a) Acidic b) Basic c) Neutral d) None of them
3) Sucrose is a type of
a) Monosaccharides b) Disaccharides
c) Polysaccharides d) None of these
4) The chromosomes are lies on equatorial line in the
a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) None of the above
5) Nucleus is absent in
a) Prokaryotic cell b) Eukaryotic cell
c) Plant cell d) Animal cell
6) ________ is fundamental, structural and functional unit of living organisms.
a) Atom b) Molecule c) Cell d) Gene
7) An enzyme ________ is present in the Gloxysomes.
a) Catalase b) Lyase c) Ligase d) Dehydrogenase
8) The term cell plate is used in _________ of cell wall.
a) First b) Second c) Neotonic d) Ontogenic
9) Buffer is mixture, the mixture of salts of weak acid and its
a) Strong base b) Weak base c) Strong acid d) None of them
10) The plant cell wall is mainly composed of
a) Cellulose b) Hemicellulose c) Lignins d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C 19 *SLRC19*
11) Enzymes are also known as

a) Biocatalyst b) Bioindicators c) Retardance d) Inhibitors
12) The synthesis of DNA occurs in
a) G1 phase b) G2 phase c) S phase d) Division phase
13) In prokaryotic cell ______ is absent.
a) Chloroplast b) Ribosome c) DNA d) All of these
14) Eukaryotic ribosomes are
a) 80s b) 60s c) 50s d) 30s

1) Sketch and label structure of Prokaryotic cell.
2) Define microbodies.
3) Give any two functions of cell membrane.
4) Define pH.
5) What is composition of cell wall ?
6) Enlist the types of Carbohydrates.
7) Explain the metaphase of Mitosis.
8) Write in brief significance of Buffer.
9) What is structure of water molecule ?

1) Describe the co-enzymes and co-factors.
2) Describe the structure of DNA.
3) Explain the Lock and Key hypothesis.
B) Sketch and label ultrastructure of Eukaryotic cell. 4

1) Describe chemical and physical properties of Monosaccharides and
Polysaccharides.
2) Describe the origin and ultrastructure of cell wall.
3) What is the cell membrane ? Describe the ultrastructure and chemical
composition of cell membrane.

1) Describe the various stages of Mitosis.
2) Define biomolecules. Describe the structure and properties of water.
3) Describe the microbodies with reference to occurrence, structure and functions
of peroxysomes.
_____________
*SLRC20* SLR-C 20
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester I) (New) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

PSYCHOLOGY
General Psychology (Paper I)

1. Choose and write a correct answer of the following four alternatives. 14
1) _________ is the scientific study of behaviour and mental process.
A) Psychology B) Cognition C) Self D) Stress
2) _________ includes all of our outward or overt actions and reactions.
A) Behaviour B) Mind C) Society D) Soul
3) _________ process refers to all internal, covert activity of our minds.
A) Mental B) Physical C) Educational D) Social
4) In psychology, there are _________ goals.
A) 03 B) 06 C) 09 D) 12
5) The first step in understanding anything is to give it a name is ________
A) description B) prediction C) explanation D) control
6) A _________ is a general explanation of a set of observation of facts.
A) mental B) theory C) objective D) happiness
7) The goal of _________ provides the observation, and the goal of explanation
helps to build the theory.
A) control B) explanation C) description D) prediction
8) The _________ is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
A) central nervous system B) reuptake
C) endorphin D) disorder
9) The name _________ comes from the term endogenous morphine.
A) disorder B) endorphin C) brain D) anxiety
10) The _________ is the true core of the nervous system.
A) brain B) mind C) soul D) cell
P.T.O.
SLR-C 20 *SLRC20*
11) The first neurotransmitter to be identified was named

A) acetylcholine B) GABA C) antagonists D) happiness
12) _____ are chemical substances that block a cells response to the action.
A) Antagonists B) Cognitions C) Disorders D) Anxiety
13) ______ is a neurotransmitter found in the lower part of the brain.
A) Dopamine B) Serotonin C) GABA D) Endorphin
14) The limbic system means__________
A) cognition B) social C) marginal D) abnormal
2. Answer the following (any seven). 14

1) Define Psychology.
2) Who wrote the textbook on the subject, Principles of Psychology ?
3) Where was first psychological laboratory ?
4) Who wrote De Anima ?
5) Who developed Psychoanalysis ?
6) Who developed Behaviorism ?
7) Define Consciousness.
8) Define Dream.
9) Full form of MRI.
3. A) Short notes (any two). 10

1) The contents of consciousness.
2) REM sleep.
3) Explanation.
B) Discuss on Psychoanalysis. 4
4. Answer the following (any two). 14

1) Explain the Functionalism.
2) Explain the Humanistic perspective.
3) Explain the Somatic Nervous System.
5. Answer the following (any two). 14

1) Explain the necessity of sleep.
2) Explain the Sleep Disorder.
3) Explain the Cognitive Perspective.

*SLRC21* SLR-C 21
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CBCS) (New) Examination, 2017

GEOLOGY (Paper I)
Mineralogy and Paleontology

1. Fill in the blanks using correct answer given in the options : 14

1) Quartz shows ________ set cleavage.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) no
2) Lusture of talc is
a) dull b) vitreous
c) adamantine d) pearly
3) Talc shows _________ fracture.
a) conchoidal b) uneven c) earthy d) even
4) Colour of Biotite is
a) brown b) colourless c) red d) violet
5) Hardness of Amethyst is
a) 1 b) 7 c) 3 d) 10
6) Streak of Calcite is
a) white b) red c) black d) green
7) Three sets of cleavages is shown by
a) biotite b) talc c) chlorite d) calcite
P.T.O.
SLR-C 21 -2- *SLRC21*
8) Conus shows _____ apex angle.

a) acute b) obtuse c) small d) big
9) Pecten shows ________ hinge line.
a) oblique b) curved c) straight d) long
10) Shape of Physa is
a) spindle like b) conical c) triangular d) round
11) Turbo have _________ whorls.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) one
12) Aperture forming tube at base is _________
a) holostomatous b) round
c) siphonostomatous d) small
13) Aperture without tube at base is _________
a) holostomatous b) round
c) siphonostomatous d) small
14) Ears are seen in _________
a) productus b) physa
c) pecten d) both a) and c)

i) Define form of Mineral.
ii) What is streak. of fluorite ?
iii) What is lusture of flint ?
iv) What is colour of lepidolite ?
v) What is form of corundum ?
vi) What is age of products ?
vii) What is primary septa ?
viii) What is secondary septa ?
ix) What is suture line ?
*SLRC21* -3- SLR-C 21

i) Describe the forms of minerals Drusy, Needle, Stellate. Draw their
diagrams.
ii) Describe the internal parts of Cephalopoda shell. Draw diagrams.
iii) Describe morphological characters of Lamellibranches shell. Draw
diagrams.
B) Describe physical properties of Feldspar group of minerals. 4

i) Describe forms of minerals Crystallized, Crystalline, Amorphous. Give
examples, draw diagrams.
ii) Describe pyroxene group of minerals.
iii) Describe corona of cephalopoda shells. Draw diagrams.

i) Describe forms of minerals Sheaf like, Radiating, Amygdaloidal. Draw
diagrams. Give examples.
ii) Describe apical system of echinoids. Draw diagram.
iii) Describe the morphological characters of Brachiopoda shell. Draw diagram.
_______________
*SLRC22* SLR-C 22
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper I)
Introduction to Microbiology and Microbial Diversity

4) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer from the given
alternatives. 14
i) Vaccine for Rabies was prepared by
a) Joseph Lister b) Robert Koch c) Louis Pasteur d) John Tyndall
ii) A group of similar genera is
a) Species b) Family c) Genus d) Order
iii) Amylase enzyme production is studied using _________ medium.
a) Milk agar b) Starch agar c) Nutrient agar d) Mac Conkeys agar
iv) _________ is an example of eucaryotes.
a) Bacteria b) Cyanobacteria
c) Blue green algae d) Fungi
v) Antiseptic surgery was introduced by
a) Robert Koch b) Joseph Lister c) A. Fleming d) John Tyndals
vi) Viruses grow on ____________ medium.
a) Nutrient agar b) Tissue culture
c) Mac Conkeys agar d) Nutrient broth
vii) Rod shaped bacteria are called
a) Cocci b) Spirochetes c) Bacillus d) Streptococci
P.T.O.
SLR-C 22 -2- *SLRC22*
viii) Special character of gram negative bacterial cell wall is the presence of
a) Teichoic acid b) Mycolic acid
c) Lipopolysaccharide d) Cellulose
ix) Streptomyces spp is an example of
a) Rickettsia b) Actinomycetes
c) Fungi d) Bacteria
x) Shigella is named after scientist
a) Pasteur b) Neisser c) Shiga d) Escherich
xi) Locomotion is the function of ________ organelle in bacteria.
a) Flagella b) Cell membrane
c) Capsule d) Cell wall
xii) _________ type of bacteria that live in extreme environments.
a) Viruses b) Archaebacteria
c) Actinomycetes d) Eubacteria
xiii) Liquid media, broth cultures dont show growth in the form of
a) Turbidity b) Pellicle c) Colonies d) Coloudiness
xiv) ___________ gives shape and rigidity to the bacterial cell.
a) Cell wall b) Cell membrane c) Capsule d) Flagella
2. Attempt any seven (out of nine) of the following : 14

i) Define spontaneous generation.
ii) Define antibiotic.
iii) List morphological characters.
iv) Consistency.
v) Examples of archaebacteria.
vi) Definition of viruses.
vii) Functions of capsule.
viii) Germ theory of disease.
ix) Active immunization.
*SLRC22* -3- SLR-C 22
3. A) Attempt any two (out of three) of the following : 10

i) Give criteria for bacterial classification.
ii) Contributions of Antony Von Leeuwenhock and Joseph Lister.
iii) List beneficial activities of microorganisms.
B) Give an account on Kochs postulates. 4

i) Differentiate between procaryotic and eucaryotic cell with a labelled diagram.
ii) Give an account on Gram positive cell wall.
iii) General characteristics of Actinomycetes.

i) Give general characteristics, structure and economic importance of viruses.
ii) Write details on structure, arrangement and functions of flagella.
iii) Brief account on various branches of microbiology.
_____________
*SLRC23* SLR-C 23
Seat
No.

PSYCHOLOGY (Paper II)
Human Development
N. B. : I) All questions are compulsory.

II) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
1. Multiple Choice Questions : 14

1) Adolescence is generally considered to begin at about _______ and end in
the late teen or early twenties.
a) 12 or 13 b) 11 or 12 c) 13 or 14 d) 15 or 16
2) Adolescents spend their lot of time with __________
a) Peers b) Mother c) Father d) Old people
3) __________ believed that the chief task of adolescence is to resolve the
conflict of identify vs identity confusion.
a) Piaget b) Erikson c) Anna d) Any other
4) __________ is the first sexual experience for most young people.
a) Masturbation b) Intercourse
c) Homosexuality d) Heterosexuality
5) According to Sternberg the __________ elements is the insightful aspect of
intelligence.
a) Experimental b) Contextual
c) Componential d) Any other
6) According to Strenbergs __________ of Love.
a) Triangular b) Four-dimensional
c) Two-dimensition d) Eight dimensional
7) Alcohol Marijuana and Tobacco are the three drugs most popular
with __________
a) adolescence b) middle age c) old age d) children
P.T.O.
SLR-C 23 -2- *SLRC23*
8) Boys and girls slow __________ during adolescence.

a) same b) slow c) differently d) no
9) Perry nine stages are divided among __________ border categories.
a) three b) four c) six d) nine
10) __________ is the first stages of sexuality.
a) Heterosexuality b) Homosexuality
c) Autosexuality d) Any other
11) __________ developed theory of ethical development.
a) Perry b) Carry c) Marray d) Newell
12) AIDS was first diagnosed in 1979 at __________ University Medical Center.
a) Ohio b) Michagan
c) Belleve-Newyork d) Solapur
13) __________ theory gives more cited explanation of homosexually.
a) Psycho-analytic b) Humanistic
c) Client centered d) Any other
14) The extreme __________ of young adolescents can be explained by the
concept of the imaginary audience.
a) Self-esteem b) Self-consciousness
c) Self-confidence d) Any other
2. Write answer in short (any seven) : 14

1) When does purerity stands ?
2) What are the two components of Ego-centrism ?
3) Define Early adulthood.
4) Define preconsciousness.
5) What are the three stages of sexuality ?
6) What are the seven forms of Love ?
7) Define cognitive development.
8) What is obesity ?
9) What is main function of pituitary gland ?
*SLRC23* -3- SLR-C 23
3. A) Write short note (any two) : 10

1) Warner Schaic stages of cognitive development.
2) Work and age in early adulthood.
3) Self concept of adolescence.
B) Explain the functions of Peer groups in adolescence. 4

A) Explain the eating disorder in adolescence.
B) Discuss the aspects of personality development in adolescence.
C) Explain the choice of food in early adulthood.

A) Explain Piaget approaches to cognitive development.
B) Explain the physical development in adolescence.
C) Discuss elaborately AIDS sexually transmitted disease.
_____________________
*SLRC24* SLR-C 24
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (New CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

GEOLOGY (Paper II)
Igneous, Sedimentary and Metamorphic Petrology

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answers from the given options : 14
1) The directed pressure plays predominant role in _______ metamorphic rocks.
a) Dynamo thermal b) Thermal
c) Contact d) Cataclastic
2) Granite is igneous ___________ rock.
a) Hypabyssal b) Plutonic c) Volcanic d) Clastic
3) Conglomerate shows _________ structure.
a) Lamination b) Flow c) Salty d) Clastic
4) Alternate schistose and granulose bands are present in _________ structure.
a) Sedimentary b) Igneous c) Flow d) Gneissose
5) Roof pendent is present in _______ rock.
a) Igneous b) Metamorphic c) Sedimentary d) Flaser
6) Dyke having _______ rocks.
a) Metamorphic b) Igneous
c) Cataclastic d) None of these
7) Minerals formed from fire i.e., magma or lava are called as ________ minerals.
a) Calastic b) Fine grained
c) Metamorphic d) Pyrogenetic
P.T.O.
SLR-C 24 -2- *SLRC24*
8) Process of cementation is related to the information of _________ rocks.

a) Sedimentary b) Metamorphic
c) Igneous d) Pyrogenetic
9) The minerals that are formed after the formation of igneous rocks are called
as _________ minerals.
a) Secondary b) Accessory
c) Essential d) Pyrogenetic
10) __________ is a volcanic igneous rocks.
a) Basalt b) Pitchstone c) Granite d) Syenite
11) The bun shaped igneous intrusion in unfolded region is called
a) Lopolith b) Phacolith
c) Laccolith d) None of these
12) The rapid cooling of lava form _________ texture.
a) Porphyritic b) Coarse c) Glassy d) Ophitic
13) ________ is a dark coloured exceedingly fine grained low grade Cataclastic
metamorphic rock.
a) Slate b) Quartzite
c) Marble d) Hornblende Schist
14) Arenaceous sedimentary rocks composed entirely of _________ grains.
a) Sand b) Clay c) Boulder d) Cobble

1) Basalt rock formation.
2) Define rock.
3) Minerals in Granite.
4) Differentiate between Laterite and Bauxite.
5) Name the concordant igneous intrusions.
6) Stress minerals.
7) What is extrusive igneous rocks ?
8) Name any four metamorphic rocks.
9) Name the types of Cementing material.
*SLRC24* -3- SLR-C 24

1) Explain vesicular and amygdaloidal structure.
2) Explain graded bedding and cross bedding.
3) Explain depth zones.
B) Write note on composition of magma. 4

1) Explain the Rock Cycle.
2) Classification of sedimentary rock.
3) Schistose and gneissose structure.

1) Igneous concordant intrusions in unfolded region.
2) Explain ripple marks and mud cracks.
3) Agents of metamorphism.
_______________
*SLRC25* SLR-C 25
Seat
No.

(New) (CBCS) Pattern
MICROBIOLOGY (Paper II)
Microbial Techniques
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

2) Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives from given below : 14
i) The limit of resolution of light microscope is ____________
A) 1 B) 0.2 C) 20 D) 2
ii) The process of separation of microorganism on agar plates is called
as __________
A) Cultivation B) Isolation C) Screening D) Inhibition
iii) The population of more than one type of microorganism is known as
__________ culture.
A) Mixed B) Syntrophic C) Dual D) Pure
iv) The acid fast staining used for staining of __________ bacterial genus.
A) Mycobacterium B) Rhizobium
C) Bacillus D) E.coli
v) ________ is moist heat type of sterilizer.

A) Autoclave B) Inspissator C) Seitz filter D) Oven
vi) First electron microscope invented by __________

A) Van Boris & Ruska B) Watson & Crick
C) Wendel & Stanley D) Louis Pasteur
P.T.O.
SLR-C 25 -2- *SLRC25*
vii) ________ used as a counter stain in Gram staining.

A) Grams Iodine B) Alcohol
C) Basic fuchsine D) Methylene blue
viii) Methylene blue is _________ stain.
A) Acidic B) Basic C) Neutral D) Ramanovsky
ix) ________ is a halogen uses as sterilizing agent.

A) Chlorine B) Copper C) Phenol D) Ethylene oxide
x) ________ is an example of different and selective media.

A) Milk agar B) Nutrient agar
C) MacConckeys agar D) YPD agar
xi) Blood agar is an example of _________ type of media.

A) Enriched B) Non living C) Enrichment D) Complex
xii) ___________ is used for sterilization of Microbial laboratory media.
A) Autoclave B) Alcohol C) Filtration D) Tyndallizer
xiii) Capsule staining is carried out by ___________ method.
A) Chances B) Manvels C) Alberts D) Dorners
xiv) Killing of microorganisms by applying chemical agents to wounds is called
as ______________
A) Sterilization B) Sanitizer C) Antiseptic D) Inhibition

i) Define Disinfection. Give one example of disinfectant.
ii) What is working distance ?
iii) Role of eye piece.
iv) Ethylene oxide.
v) Define Enriched media.
vi) Define germicide.
vii) Define dyes.
viii) Principle of Negative staining.
ix) Serial dilution.
*SLRC25* -3- SLR-C 25

i) Describe in brief mechanism of Monochrome staining.
ii) Discuss in detail selective media.
iii) Describe in detail sterilization by Radiation.
B) Give a detailed account of Negative Staining. 4

i) Describe in detail principle and mechanism of Gram staining.
ii) What is Resolution ? Explain in detail ray diagram, working and principle of
compound microscope.
iii) Define cultivation. Describe in detail streak plate method.

i) Describe in detail pure culture techniques.
ii) Discuss in detail capsule staining by Manvels method.
iii) Write an essay on Electron microscope.
_______________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) Examination, 2017

ENGLISH (Compulsory) (CGPA Pattern) (Old)
‘On Track’ English Skills for Success

1. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternatives from

these given below each. 14
1) Bob and Jimmy were _____________
a) brothers b) enemies of each others
c) colleagues d) friends
2) The word ‘avenue’ means _____________
a) a narrow street b) a wide street
c) a room d) a restaurant
3) Miss. Krishna’s mother left _____________ to her.
a) a big building b) a huge property
c) a tiny cottage d) nothing
4) The writer and Miss. Krishna _________________
a) were at school together b) met at an art exhibition
c) were neighbours d) met at a tea party
5) IQ Test was developed by ______________
a) Mr. Binet b) Mr. Bennet
c) Ms. Benet d) Mrs. Binet
6) Some experts say that _____________ intelligence will soon come into
existence.
a) a scientific b) an artificial
c) a technical d) a natural
7) The bangle sellers carry the load of shining bangles to the ____________
a) village fair b) city fair
c) temple fair d) none of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 26 -2- *SLRC26*
8) The term ‘virtual reality’ means _____________

a) an environment produced by a computer
b) a building built by an engineer
c) a viral reality
d) an environment destroyed by a man
9) W. B. Yeats expresses his ____________ with the war.
a) satisfaction b) discontent
c) willingness d) none of the above
10) Sarojini Naidu speaks about lack of freedom for _______________ in ‘Bangle
sellers’.
a) married men b) unmarried boys
c) married women d) none of the above
11) The plural form of the word ‘wolf’ is ___________
a) wollfs b) wolfes c) wolves d) wolf
12) The man ____________ the car is Gopichand.
a) into b) of c) at d) in
13) Let’s go on ____________ picnic today.
a) a b) the c) an d) No article
14) The word ‘Teacher’ is a ___________ noun.
a) proper b) common c) abstract d) collective

1) Why did Bob decide to travel to the west ?
2) What had happened to ‘Big Joe Brady’s restaurant ?
3) What is the profession of narrator in ‘The Connoisseur’ ?
4) What do you mean by the title ‘Connoisseur’ ?
5) How can you define ‘intelligence’ ?
6) What are the many facets of intelligence ?
7) What was the policeman constantly doing with his stick ?
8) What did Mr. Binet develop ?
3. A) Write short answers on any two of the following. 8

1) What is the theme of the poem ‘Bangle sellers’ ?
2) Describe the different types of bangles which the bangle-sellers carry.
3) What is the stand of an Irish airman towards the war ?
*SLRC26* -3- SLR-C – 26
B) Write paragraphs on any two of the following. 6

1) A craze of fashions in the youth.
2) The greenhouse effect.
3) The performance of Indian players in 2016 Olympic.
4. Write an essay on ‘Machine Civilisaiton’. 14

OR
Write an essay on ‘A Meaningful Life’.
5. Read the following passage and make notes of it. Use an appropriate title for
your notes. 14
There are different forms of environmental pollution. Air pollution is caused by

the burning coal and oil. It can damage the earth’s vegetation and cause respiratory
problems in humans. A second type of pollution is noise pollution. It is the result
of the noise of aircraft and heavy traffic. Further, loud music is also a cause of
noise pollution, which had been seen to affect people’s hearing and give them
severe headaches and high blood pressure. Another source of pollution is
radioactivity, which occurs when there is a leak from a nuclear power station.
Radioactivity is a deadly pollutant, which kills and causes irreparable harm to
those exposed to it. Land and water pollution is caused by the careless disposal
of huge quantities of rubbish, sewage and chemical wastes. Pollution of rivers
and seas kills fishes and other marine life and also becomes the cause of water-
borne diseases. Land pollution, on the other hand, poisons to soil, making the
food grown in it unfit for consumption.
_____________________
*SLRC27* SLR-C 27
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Paper I) (CGPA Pattern) (Old)
Physical and Inorganic Chemistry

ii) Draw neat, labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
iii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iv) Use of log-table and calculator is allowed.
v) Solve each Section in separate answer book.
SECTION I
(Physical Chemistry)
1. Select the correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentences : 5
i) The number of molecules or atoms whose concentration changes during the
chemical reaction is known as ___________ of reaction.
a) molecularity b) velocity c) order d) none of these
ii) In a certain graph, the straight line obtained is parallel to X-axis. Hence its
slope is
a) zero b) 1 c) + 1 d) 0.5
iii) The process that does not occur of its own accord is called ___________
process.
a) spontaneous b) non-spontaneous
c) isothermal d) adiabatic
iv) The unit of b in van der Walls equation is
2
a) dm3 mole1 b) (dm3) mole1
c) dm3 mole d) dm3 mole
v) Rate of reaction
a) increases with increase in temperature
b) decreases with increase in temperature
c) is independent of concentration
d) is independent of temperature
P.T.O.
SLR-C 27 -2- *SLRC27*
2. Answer any five of the following : 10

i) Write the kinetic equations for second order reaction, when reacting substances
are at the same initial concentration and at different initial concentrations.
ii) Write any two rules of differentiation.
iii) Give any two statements of second law of thermodynamics.
iv) Write the reaction of hydrolysis of methyl acetate in presence of HCl.
v) What do you mean by ideal gas and non-ideal gas ?
vi) Define the term specific reaction rate.
vii) What is continuity of a state ?

i) Explain factors affecting the rate of reaction.
ii) What is intercept ? Give its characteristics. Write different forms of straight
line equations.
iii) Explain Carnots cycle.
B) Answer any one of the following : 10
i) Discuss various methods to determine order of reaction.
ii) Derive Van der Walls equation.
Van der Walls constants for CO 2 are a = 0.3636 Nm 4 mol 2 and
b = 4.28 × 105m3 mole1 and R = 8.314 JK1 mole1. Calculate Pc, Vc and Tc.
SECTION II
(Inorganic Chemistry)
4. Select the most correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentences : 5
1) S-orbital has ___________ shape.
a) dumb-bell b) square c) spherical d) triangular
2) As atomic size increases, ionization potential
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains same d) first increases then decreases
3) The shape of BF3 molecule is
a) triangular planer b) linear
c) tetrahedral d) hexagonal
*SLRC27* -3- SLR-C 27
4) Limiting radius ratio for tetrahedral geometry is

a) 0.155 0.225 b) 0.414 0.732
c) 0.732 1.00 d) 0.225 0.414
5) MOT is discussed on the basis of
a) Hybridization b) Aufbau principle
c) LCAO approximation d) Paulis exclusion principle

i) Give the energetics of ionic bonding.
ii) State and explain Hunds rule of maximum multiplicity.
iii) Draw the shapes of d-orbitals.
iv) Give the steps involved in process of hybridization.
v) Draw the potential energy diagram for formation of H2 molecule.
vi) Give the conditions for successful overlap of atomic orbitals.
vii) What are bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals ?
6. A) Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

i) What is electronegativity ? Discuss its trend in a group and in a period in
the periodic table.
ii) Explain the formation of SiCl4 molecule on the basis of VBT.
iii) On the basis of VSEPR theory explain the formation of CIF3 molecule.
B) Attempt any one of the following : 10
i) With the help of MO diagram, predict bond order, stability and magnetic
character of N2 and CO molecules.
ii) What is ionic bond ? Discuss the structure of CsCI with respect to radius
ratio, unit cell, co-ordination number and stoichiometry.

*SLRC28* SLR-C 28
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CGPA Pattern) (Old) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Paper I)
Mechanics, Properties of Matter and Optics and Laser
Time : 2½ Hours Max.Marks : 70

4) Use of log table and calculator is allowed.
5) Answers to the two Sections must be written in separate
answer book.
SECTION I
(Mechanics and Properties of Matter)
1. Select the correct alternatives from the following : 5

i) Moment of inertia of a spherical shell about its tangent is
a) b)
2 7
M R M R
3 5
c) d) MR2
5
M R
ii) Minimum time period of compound pendulum is
a) b)
k 2 k
T 2 T 2
g g
c) d)
k k
T 4 T 2
g 2 g
iii) The theoretical limiting values of Poissons ratio lies between

a) 1 and + 0.5 b) + 1 and 0.5
c) 1 and 0.5 d) 1 and + 1
P.T.O.
SLR-C 28 -2- *SLRC28*
iv) If T is the surface tension of a liquid then the excess pressure inside the
liquid drop of radius r is
a) b)
6 " 6
H H
c) d)
6 6
" H H
v) The profile of advancing liquid in the capillary tube is a

a) Ellipse b) Circle
c) Hyperbola d) Parabola

i) Define moment of inertia and give its SI unit.
ii) State Bernoullis theorem.
iii) Define surface tension and give its SI unit.
iv) Define centre of suspension and centre of oscillation in a compound pendulum.
v) Define streamline flow and turbulent flow.
vi) Calculate moment of inertia of a circular disc having mass 500 gm and radius
0.1 m about an axis passing through centre and perpendicular to its plane.
vii) Give any two factors affecting surface tension of liquid.

i) Obtain the expression for moment of inertia of a rectangular lamina about
an axis passing through its centre and parallel to its sides.
ii) In a Jaegers experiment the difference in the level of manometric liquid of
density 0.7 gm/cm3 is found to be 9 cm. The capillary tube of internal
radius 0.25 mm dips 3 cm inside a liquid of density 0.1 gm/cm3. Calculate
the surface tension of liquid when the bubble just burst.
(given g = 980 cm/sec2).
iii) Obtain the equation of continuity for steady fluid flow.
i) Define compound pendulum. Show that oscillations of a compound pendulum
perform simple harmonic motion and hence obtain expression for its time
period.
ii) Derive the relation between elastic constants Y, K and .
*SLRC28* -3- SLR-C 28
SECTION II
(Optics and Laser)

i) According to the Fermats modified principle, a ray of light chooses that path
between two points along which the time of travel is
a) Zero b) Minimum
c) Maximum d) Extremum
ii) A combination of two lenses having focal length f1 = 8 cm and f2 = 6 cm
co-axially separated by distance d be achromatic combination, if d is equal to
a) 7 cm b) 6 cm
c) 8 cm d) 5 cm
iii) Huygens eye-piece is
a) Negative b) Positive
c) Single lens d) Convex lens
iv) In the Fraunhofer type diffraction, the edge of an obstacle is illuminated by
a) Spherical wavefront b) Plane wavefront
c) Cylindrical wavefront d) Elliptical wavefront
v) Ruby laser is
a) Semiconductor laser b) Gas laser
c) Liquid-dye laser d) Crystalline solid state laser

i) What is chromatic aberration ?
ii) State any two applications of spectrometer.
iii) Define diffraction of light. State the types of diffraction.
iv) Draw a ray diagram for wedge shaped thin films.
v) State any two characteristics of laser.
vi) What is population inversion ?
vii) If the dispersive power of crown glass is 0.024 and focal length is 20 cm, find
the longitudinal chromatic aberration.
SLR-C 28 -4- *SLRC28*
i) Explain principle and working of a He-Ne laser.
ii) Draw a neat ray diagram of Ramsden eyepiece and derive an expression
for focal length of it.
iii) Two thin lenses form an achromatic combination of focal length 30 cm.
The focal length of convex lens is 10 cm and its dispersive power is 0.032.
Find the focal length and dispersive power of the second lens.
i) Explain the construction of plane diffraction grating. Give the elementary
theory of plane diffraction grating.
ii) Obtain an expression for the optical path difference between two
successively reflected rays of monochromatic light for a thin parallel faced
film. Hence obtain the condition for maximum and minimum of interference.
A parallel beam of light of wavelength 6000 A.U. is incident on a thin glass
plate of refractive index 1.54. The angle of refraction is 60°. Calculate the
minimum thickness of the plate so that it appears completely dark in
reflected light.
___________
*SLRC29* SLR-C 29
S e a t
N o .

STATISTICS (Paper I)
Descriptive Statistics, Probability and Probability Distributions I
N. B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) Answers of two Sections should be written in same
answer book.
SECTION I
(Descriptive Statistics, Probability)
1) With help of an ogive curve; one can determine

a) Median b) Mean c) Mode d) None of these
2) If x1, x2 .... xn are n observations with mean :

, then

N
i
:

is
a) Necessarily zero b) Necessarily non-negative
c) May be non-negative d) May be zero
3) Mean deviation is least when measures from ___________

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Zero
4) The first order moment about 5 is 7, then the mean is equal to

5) The measure of kurtosis

for a platykurtic curve is ___________
a) Greater than 3 b) Less than 1
c) Equal to 3 d) Less than 3
P.T.O.
SLR-C 29 -2- *SLRC29*

i) Define discrete variable and continuous variable.
ii) Define frequency and cumulative frequency.
iii) Define median and mode.
iv) State empirical relation between mean, median and mode. Use it to find
mode of the distribution whose mean is 78 and median is 72.
v) Define range and quartile deviation.
vi) State the combined variance formula.
vii) Write a note on Sheppards correction.

i) Explain the construction of histogram.
ii) Show that sum of squares of deviation taken from mean is minimum.
iii) What is the effect of change of origin and scale on S.D. ?
i) Define A.M., G.M., H.M. for any two positive observations a and b show
that A.M. G.M. H.M.

ii) Define standard deviation and mean deviation about mean. Show that
standard deviation is always greater than or equal to mean deviation
about mean.
SECTION II
(Probability Distributions I)
1) A ticket is drawn from 25 tickets numbered 1 to 25. Define an event as :

the number drawn is odd number. The number of elements in this event is
a) 11 b) 12
c) 13 d) 25
*SLRC29* -3- SLR-C 29
2) If A and B are two events, the probability of occurrence of both A and B is

given by
a) P(A
B) b) P(A
B) c) P(A) + P(B) d) P(A) P(B)
3) Let A and B be two events defined on and P(B) > 0 then P(A|B) = .
2 )
2 *
a) * )
b) ) *
c) ) *
d) None of these
4) For two events A and B, if P(A) = , P(B) = and P ( )= then A

!
) *
! & "
and B are
a) Mutually exclusive but not independent
b) Mutually exclusive and independent
c) Independent but not mutually exclusive
d) Non mutually exclusive not independent
5) Which of the following is a probability distribution ?
a) (0.2, 0.2, 0.7) b) (0.7, 0.2, 0.1)
c) (0.2, 0.1, 0.9) d) (0.1, 0.6, 0.2)

i) Define :
a) Finite sample space
b) Uncountably finite sample space.
ii) Explain mutually exclusive events with an example.
iii) Define Axiomatic definition of probability.
iv) If A and B are mutually exclusive events, then prove that
a) 2

)
*

b) 2

)
*

v) Define pair wise and mutual independence.

vi) Define conditional probability.
vii) Verify whether the following function is p.m.f. or not.
.
1
P ( X x ) , x 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 4
5
SLR-C 29 -4- *SLRC29*

i) With usual notation prove that P(A
B) = P(A) + P(B) P(A
B). Write
the extension of the result to find P(A
B
C).
ii) If P(A) = 0.5, P(B) = 0.6 and P(B|A) = 0.9. Find the probability that
i) both A and B happen ii) at least one of A and B happen
iii) A man is equally likely to choose any one of the three routes A1, A2, A3
from his house to the railway station. The probabilities of his missing the
train by the routes A1, A2, A3 are respectively. He sets out on

2 3 1
5 1 0 , 1 0
a day and misses the train. What is the probability that the route A3 was
selected ?
i) If A and B are independent events defined on sample space
. Then
prove that
i) A and BC are independent ii) AC and B are independent
ii) Given the following probability function of discrete r.v.X
X : 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
P(x) : 0 c 2c 2c 3c c2 2c2 7c2+c
Find :
i) c
ii) Evaluate P(X 5)
iii) P(X< 3)
iv) Distribution function of X
v) If P(X k) > what is the minimum value of k, where k is positive

integer.
_____________________
*SLRC30* SLR-C 30
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CGPA) (Old) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Paper I)
Algebra and Calculus

3) Answer to the two Sections should be written in the separate
answer books.
SECTION I (Algebra)
1) If then the matrix is

)

) )

! "

#

a) b) c) d)
!

#

$
"

!

!

2) The eigen values of matrix

! #

are

$

a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 6 c) 0, 3, 5 d) 0, 0, 6
3) Find the real value of (i)i is
a) b) c) d)

E E
A A A A
4) For any complex number z, sin(iz) =

a) sinz b) isinz c) i sinhz d) sinh(iz)
5) For any real ,

A
E
is
a) cos isin
b) cos isin( )
c) cos + isin
d) none of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C 30 -2- *SLRC30*
2. Attempt any five of the following : 10
1) Separate into real and imaginary part of cos(x + iy)
2) If x = cos + isin then prove that .

1
2 c o s x

3) If tan then prove that .

2 y
t a n h 2
E N E O

1 x y
4) Prove that cosh2z sinh2z = 1.

5) Show that for square matrices A, B of the same order, ABT BAT is skew-symmetric.

6) Find the eigen value of matrix .

! !

7) Solve : x y + z = 0; x + 2y z = 0; 2x + y + 3z = 0.

1) State and prove De Moivres theorem.
2) Discuss the solution of the system of equations :
x + y + z = 6, 2x + y + 3z = 13, 5x + 2y + z = 12.
3) If z is any complex number then show that .

s i n h z l o g z z 1

1) i) If c o s

i

= x + iy then prove that
a) and b)
x y
x y
1
1
c o s h s i n h
c o s s i n
ii) Prove that 32cos 6 = cos6 + 6cos4

+ 15 cos2
+ 10 by using
De Moivres theorem.
2) State and prove Cayley-Hamilton theorem and hence find the inverse of matrix

.
)

*SLRC30* -3- SLR-C 30
SECTION II (Calculus)
2.1. Choose the correct one alternative for each of the following : 5
1) If y = log (5x + 2) then y3 =
# # # #
a) !
b) !
c) d) "
# N # N # N # N

! # %
2) The power series is the series expansion of

x x x
x . . .
3 ! 5 ! 7 !
a) ex b) sinx c) cosx d) log(1 + x)

N O
3) K

is homogeneous function of degree
! !
N O
a) b) c) d)

! $
4) =

c o s x d x
a) b) c) d)
& &
# # # #
5) If then curl

.
F x i y j z k
a)
i

j k

b)
i

j k

c)
i

j k

d)
2.2. Answer any five of the following : 10

i) Evaluate .
N
l i m a x

N
ii) Obtain the series expansion of cosx.
iii) Examine the continuity at (0, 0) of , (x, y) (0, 0)

x
f ( x , y )
x y 2 x
f(0, 0) = 0.
iv) If u = log(x2 + y2), prove that .

K K
N O O N
SLR-C 30 -4- *SLRC30*

#
v) Find .
N
@ N
N
vi) Find the directional derivative of at (1, 1, 1) in

!
x , y , z x y z x y z x y z

the direction of the vector .

i j k
vii) Find nth derivative of y = cos2x.sinx.
2.3. Attempt any two of the following : 10

i) If u = log v and v = x3 x2y xy2 + y3, prove that
K K K "
and .
K K

N O
N O
N O N O
N O

N
ii) Evaluate
$
@ N
.
N
iii) If ( x , y , z ) x
!
y
!
z
!
3 x y z
, find div(grad ) and curl (grad ).
2.4. Attempt any one of the following : 10
i) State and prove Leibnitzs theorem. Hence if , prove that

m c o s x
O A

1 x

y
n 2

2 n 1

y
n 1

n m

y
n
0
ii) State and prove Eulers theorem on homogeneous function f(x, y). Hence

verify it for the function .

! !
N O
K

N O
_____________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (CGPA Pattern) (Old) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS (Paper – I)
Electronics Fundamentals and Digital Fundamentals

5) Two Sections should be written in same answer paper.
SECTION – I
(Electronics Fundamentals)
1. Select correct alternative for the following : 5

1) The unit of capacitance is __________
a) Ohm b) Farad
c) Henry d) Hz
2) In series resonance circuit, at resonant frequency, the impedance is _______
a) Minimum b) Maximum
c) Remains same d) Changing
3) A ‘T’ connection is also called as _________
a) Delta b) Star
c) Series d) Parallel
4) A node point is ___________ of the two or more branches.
a) Centre point b) Earth point
c) Common point d) None of these
5) The impedance parameters are same as __________ circuit parameters.
a) Short b) Open
c) ABCD d) Hybrid
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 31 -2- *SLRC31*
i) Determine the value of a given resistor having the colour code of brown,
black, brown and silver in order.
ii) State h-parameters with their units.
iii) Give the classification of capacitors.
iv) Define the terms active network and passive network.
v) Define the terms time period and frequency.
vi) State Kirchhoff’s current law.
vii) State Norton’s theorem.

i) Constant current source and constant voltage source.
ii) Thevenin’s theorem.
iii) Admittance (Y) parameters.
i) Explain colour code of a resistor. Explain procedure to obtain value of
resistor with suitable example.
ii) Explain series LCR circuit. Obtain an expression for resonant frequency.
SECTION – II
(Digital Fundamentals)

1) The base of decimal number system is __________
a) 2 b) 8 c) 16 d) 10
2) IC 7402 is ___________ gate.
a) OR b) AND c) NOR d) EX-OR
3) Half adder adds ___________ bits at a time.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
4) A ⋅ A = _________
a) A b) A c) 0 d) 1
5) The excess 3 code of decimal number (5)10 is __________
a) 1000 b) 1010 c) 1001 d) 1100
*SLRC31* -3- SLR-C – 31
i) State truth table for OR gate.
ii) Draw pin diagram of IC 7408.
iii) Show that A + AB = A.
iv) Solve (1001)2 + (0100)2.
v) Draw logic diagram of half adder.
vi) Explain 2’s complement of a binary number with suitable example.
vii) What is negative logic ?

i) Half subtracter
ii) NAND gate as a universal block
iii) Gray code.
i) State and prove both De-Morgan’s theorems.
ii) Explain block diagram of digital computer.
_____________________
*SLRC32* SLR-C 32
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE (Paper I)
Computer Fundamentals and Programming Using C I
N.B : 1) All questions are compulsory.

SECTION I
(Computer Fundamentals)
1. Multiple choice questions : 5
1) The brain of any computer system is

a) ALU b) Memory c) CPU d) Control Unit
2) Which of the following is the 1s complement of 10 ?

a) 01 b) 110 c) 11 d) 10
3) Which device of computer operation dispenses with the use of the keyboard ?
a) Joystick b) Light pen c) Mouse d) Touch
4) Which printer uses a combination of laser-beam and electro photographic

techniques ?
a) Laser printers b) Dot-matrix
c) Line printer d) Daisy wheel
5) A compiler means
a) A person who compiles source programs
b) The same thing as a programmer
c) Keypunch operator
d) A program which translates source program into object program
P.T.O.
SLR-C 32 -2- *SLRC32*

1) Define Computer.
2) Define Bit, Byte.
3) Convert the hexadecimal number A62 to binary number.
4) Explain single user operating system.
5) Find the ones complement of 1011.
6) What is EPROM ?
7) What is compiler ?
3. A) Write short notes on any two of following : 10

1) Explain the block diagram of computer.
2) Explain the functions of operating system.
3) Explain laser printer in detail.

1) Convert the following :
a) (10101)2 = (?)8
b) (156)10 = (?)16
c) (578.23)8 = (?)10
d) (4DF)16 = (?)2
e) (23.56)10 = (?)8
2) Explain the different generations of computer in detail.
SECTION II
(Programming Using C I)
1. Multiple choice questions : 5
1) __________ is not keyword in C language.
a) void b) main c) else d) for
2) Total number of keywords in C language are
a) 30 b) 32 c) 48 d) 132
3) Break statement is used for
a) Quit a program b) Quit the current iteration
c) Both of above d) None of above
*SLRC32* -3- SLR-C 32
4) Range of char data type is

a) +127 to 128 b) 127 to 128 c) 128 to 127 d) 128 to 127
5) Printf() and scanf() contains in _________ header file.

a) conio.h b) std.h c) stdio.h d) iostream.h
1) Write syntax of if-else statement.
2) Give any two string functions syntax and its purpose.
3) Define keyword.
4) Write goto statement syntax.
5) What is array ?
6) Define variable and constant.
7) Gives the syntax of two entry controlled loop in c language.

1) What is flowchart ? Explain different shapes of flowchart with one example.
2) Write a program to check number is Armstrong or not.
3) Explain nested while loop with example.

1) Explain algorithm and its characteristics and give one example of it.
2) Write a program to calculate addition of (2 * 2) matrix.
______________
*SLRC33* SLR-C 33
Seat
No.

GEOGRAPHY
Physical Geography (Geomorphology) (Paper I)

2) Draw neat diagrams and maps wherever necessary.
4) Solve each Section on separate answer book.
SECTION I
1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite : 5

1) The rock that is formed by volcanic action is called
a) Igneous rock b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock d) Limestone
2) Molten rock materials above the earth surface are called
a) Magma b) Lava
c) Vapour d) Gases
3) The evolution of the surface features of the earth is studied in
a) Climatology b) Hydrology
c) Geomorphology d) Pedology
4) Dyke is an example of __________ rock.
a) Igneous b) Sedimentary
c) Metamorphic d) Basalt
5) The parallel and horizontal limbs of recumbent fold are called as
a) Thrust b) Recumbent fold
c) Simple fold d) Nappes
P.T.O.
SLR-C 33 -2- *SLRC33*

1) What is metamorphism ?
2) Mention major types of rock.
3) Give the names of earthquake waves.
4) Define the term of geomorphology.
5) What is folding ?
6) What is faulting ?
7) What is earthquake ?
3. Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

1) Nature and scope of geomorphology.
2) Describe the types of faults.
3) What is igneous rock ? Describe their types and characteristics.
4. Answer any one of the following : 10

1) Describe any two theories of the origin of the earth.
2) Explain the causes and effects of earthquake and its world distribution.
SECTION II
1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite : 5

1) Pot holes are the landforms of
a) River b) Wind c) Glacier d) Karst topography
2) The concept of geomorphic cycle of erosion was postulated by
a) W. M. Davis b) Walter Rock c) King d) Crikmay
3) Laterite soil is formed due to
a) Deposition of loess b) Denudation
c) Deposition of alluvial d) None of these
4) ___________ is the reaction of carbonate ions with minerals.
a) Carbonation b) Hydration c) Oxidation d) Solution
5) The term weathering means
a) Decay b) Erosion c) Deposition d) Transportation
*SLRC33* -3- SLR-C 33

1) What is mechanical weathering ?
2) What do you mean by the cycle of erosion ?
3) What is soil ?
4) What is chemical weathering ?
5) What is N.P.K. of soils ?
6) What is T.S.S. of soils ?
7) State the two factors affecting of weathering.
3. Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

1) Wind erosional landforms.
2) State the types of physical weathering.
3) Give the process of formation of soil.

1) Describe briefly the work of river as an agent of erosion, transportation and
deposition.
2) Describe major landforms produced by wind erosion.
_____________
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (CGPA) (Old) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY (Paper – I)
Animal Diversity – I, Cell Biology and Genetics
N.B. : 1) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.

3) Two Sections should be written in separate answer book.
SECTION – I
(Animal Diversity – I)
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct alternative given below : 5

1) Earthworm belongs to phylum ___________
a) Porifera b) Platyhelminthes
c) Annelida d) Coelenterata
2) A sexual reproduction in Hydra is called as ___________
a) Conjugation b) Budding c) Binary fission d) Plasmogamy
3) Tapeworm requires ________ hosts to complete its life cycle.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
4) In earthworm spermathecae stores _________
a) Eggs b) Sperms
c) Female gametes d) Ova
5) In case of Sycon ___________ cells are called to tipotent cells.
a) Choanocyte b) Mesocyte
c) Archaeocyte d) Porocyte

i) Salient features of Coelenterata.
ii) Setae of earthworm.
iii) A sexual reproduction in Hydra.
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 34 -2- *SLRC34*
iv) Scolex of tapeworm.

v) Binary fission in Paramecium.
vi) Spermatheca of earthworm.
vii) Archaeocytes of sycon.

i) Describe the structure and functions of contractile vacuole in Paramecium.
ii) Describe physiological adaptations found in tapeworm.
iii) Describe the septal nephridium of earthworm.
i) Describe different types of locomotions found in Hydra.
ii) Describe the digestive system of earthworm.
SECTION – II
(Cell Biology and Genetics)
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct alternative be given below : 5

1) Cell organelle concerned with synthesis of protein is __________
a) Golgi complex b) Lysosomes
c) Ribosomes d) Mitochondrion
2) In partial dominance, phenotypic ratio is _________
a) 1 : 2 : 1 b) 3 : 1
c) 2 : 1 : 1 d) 1 : 1 : 2
3) Fluid mosaic model is discovered by __________
a) Singer and Nicolson b) Gorter and Grendel
c) Watson and Crick d) Robertson
4) XX – XY type of sex determination is found in ___________
a) Fishes and reptiles b) Man
c) Moth d) Butterfly
5) _________ is wild type of coat colour in rabbit.
a) Agouti b) Chinchilla
c) Himalayan d) Albino
*SLRC34* -3- SLR-C – 34

i) Nucleolus
ii) Monohybrid cross
iii) Structure of Ribosome
iv) Passive transport
v) PKU
vi) Endoplasmic reticulum
vii) Chromosome.

i) Describe co-dominance with suitable example.
ii) Sickle cell anaemia
iii) Describe the structure and functions of Mitochondria.
i) Describe the ABO blood groups in human with Rh factor.
ii) Explain the structures and functions of Golgi complex.
_____________________

*SLRC35* SLR-C 35
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Paper I)
Microbiology, Cryptogams, Plant Physiology & Horticulture

2) Solve each Section in separate answerbook.
SECTION I
(Microbiology and Cryptogams)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives. 5
1) In Mycoplasma _______ is absent.

a) Cell wall b) Cell membrane
c) DNA d) Ribosomes
2) _____ bacterium is rod shaped.

a) Vibrio b) Coccus
c) Bacillus d) Spirillium
3) Agar-agar is obtained from ______ algae.

a) UIva b) Gracillaria c) Nostoc d) Spirogyra
4) In Riccia sporophyte only _____ is present.

a) Capsule b) Foot c) Seta d) Foot and seta
5) Lichens are symbiotic association between alga and _____

a) Fungus b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Mycoplasma
P.T.O.
SLR-C 35 -2- *SLRC35*
2. Answer any five of the following 10

i) What is Mycoplasma ?
ii) What is phycology or algalogy ?
iii) Which algae are used as biofertilizers.
iv) What is bacteria ?
v) Sketch and label the bacteriophage virus.
vi) Give systematic position of Nostoc.
vii) Give any four economic importance of Lichens.

i) Describe the lateral conjugation in spirogyra.
ii) Give economic importance of algae.
iii) Give occurrence, structure of mycelium and nutrition in Mucor.
i) Give an account of sexual reproduction in Riccia.
ii) Give occurrence, external morphology of sporophyte (plant body) and
T.S. of stem in Selaginella.
SECTION II
(Plant Physiology and Horticulture)

1) The branch of horticulture which deals with cultivation, processing and
marketing of flowering plants is called
a) olericulture b) pomoculture
c) ornamental d) floriculture
2) _______ is a natural method of vegetative propagation.
a) Runner b) Cutting c) Layering d) Budding
3) ________ is an example of co-factor.
a) ATP b) Mg c) FAD d) NAD
*SLRC35* -3- SLR-C 35
4) _____ phase, the growth of rate is rapid to maximum.

a) Cell division b) Log c) Lag d) Steady
5) The elements are required for growth and development of plant in less amount,
which are known as
a) Macro elements b) Micro elements
c) Both a and b d) Trace element

i) Define photoperiodism.
ii) Primary structure of enzyme.
iii) What are growth promoters ?
iv) Enlist the micro nutrients.
v) Enlist the branches of horticulutre.
vi) What are suckers ?
vii) What is mean by grafting ?

i) Define vernalization and its mechanism.
ii) Explain air layering with suitable example.
iii) Role and deficiency symptoms of N and Mg.

i) Define horticulture and describe scope of horticulture.
ii) Define growth hormone, describe the practical applications of Auxin and
CCC.
__________________
*SLR-C-37* SLR-C – 37
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (CGPA) (Old) Examination, 2017

GEOLOGY (Paper – I)
Mineralogy and Palaeontology and Igneous, Sedimentary and
Metamorphic Petrology
Time : 2 12 Hours Max. Marks : 70

4) Answer to both Sections should be written in separate
answer book.
SECTION – I
(Mineralogy and Palaeontology)
1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from given options : 5

1) Chemical composition of Quartz is __________
a) SiO2 b) SiO4 c) AISiO5 d) FeO
2) Micraster belongs to __________ class.
a) Lamellibranchia b) Cephalopoda
c) Trilobite d) Echinoidea
3) The __________ is the best example of preservation of entire organism.
a) Woolly mammoth b) Fish skeleton
c) Coal d) Leaf impression
4) All the minerals in mica group show __________ lustre.
a) Vitreous b) Pearly
c) Adamantine d) Dull
5) Mineral Asbestos shows __________ form.
a) Foliated b) Drusy c) Bladed d) Fibrous
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 37 -2- *SLR-C-37*

1) Define fossils.
2) Describe any two forms of minerals with neat sketches.
3) Draw a figure of ionic bonds in minerals.
4) What are trace fossils ?
5) Describe Physical properties and chemical composition of orthoclase.
6) Describe Imprints.
7) Name any two species belonging to Brachiopoda phylum.

1) Describe types of luster.
2) Types of aperture in gastropods.
3) Describe members, chemical composition and physical properties of
Pyroxene group minerals.
1) Define mineral. Describe feldspar group of minerals.
2) Describe morphology of hard parts of trilobites.
SECTION – II
(Igneous, Sedimentary and Metamorphic Petrology)
1) ______________ is a discordant intrusions in unfolded region.

a) Dyke b) Batholith c) Boss d) Stock
2) The gaseous and vapors entrapped during the solidification of lava form
______________ structure.
a) Flow b) Ropy c) Pillow d) Vesicular
3) Arenaceous sedimentary rocks composed entirely of ______________ grains.

a) Sand b) Clay c) Boulder d) Cobble
*SLR-C-37* -3- SLR-C – 37
4) ______________ are typical argillaceous rocks.

a) Conglomerate and Breccia b) Shale and mudstone
c) Laterite and Bauxite d) Grit and Sandstone
5) ______________ is a dark coloured exceedingly fine grained low grade
Cataclastic metamorphic rock.
a) Slate b) Quartzite c) Marble d) Hornblende Schist

1) What is extrusive igneous rocks ?
2) Name the concordant igneous intrusions.
3) Cementing material.
4) Clastic sediments.
5) Slaty structure.
6) Antistress mineral
7) Schist structure.

1) Describe composition of magma.
2) Explain the process of sedimentary rock formation.
3) Explain depth zones.
1) Explain any four sedimentary structure.
2) Explain subdivisions of petrology in detail.
_____________________

Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – I) (CGPA) (Old) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper – I)
Fundamentals of Microbiology and Microbial Techniques

2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Answers to the two Sections should be written in the separate
answer books.
SECTION – I
(Fundamentals of Microbiology)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answers from given

alternatives : 5
1) __________ protein is present in bacterial flagella.

a) Pilin b) Albumin c) Flagellin d) Peptidoglycan
2) __________ are obligatory intracellular parasites.

a) Bacteria b) Protozoa c) Fungi d) Viruses
3) Penicillin antibiotic is discovered by

a) Louis Pasteur b) Alexander Flemming
c) Joseph Lister d) John Tyndall
4) Cocci are __________ shaped bacteria.

a) Rod b) Round c) Spiral d) Coma
5) Ribosomes in procaryotic cells are _______ type.

a) 80s b) 70s c) 50s d) 40s
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 38 -2- *SLRC38*
i) Define species
ii) Define viruses
iii) Define mycology
iv) Define monotrichous flagella
v) Define pasturisation
vi) Give two functions of cell membrane
vii) Give two characteristics of procaryotic cell.

i) Criteria for bacterial classification.
ii) Contributions of Louis Pasteur.
iii) General characteristics of Fungi.

i) Describe in detail cell wall of bacteria.
ii) Describe in detail structure and general characteristics of viruses.
SECTION – II
(Microbial Techniques)

alternatives : 5
1) ___________ is used as mordent in Gram staining.

a) Alcohol b) Gram’s Iodine c) Safranine d) Crystal violet
2) _________ requires living media for cultivation.

a) Viruses b) Bacteria c) Fungi d) Algae
3) ___________ objective lens is used for observation of bacteria.

a) 10 X b) 45 X c) 40 X d) 100 X
4) Heat sensitive liquid media are sterilized by

a) Autoclave b) Hot air oven c) Filtration d) Boiling
5) _________ is an example of living media.

a) Embryonated egg b) Nutrient agar
c) Peptone water d) MacConkey’s agar
*SLRC38* -3- SLR-C – 38
i) Define sterilization.
ii) Define stains.
iii) Define magnification of image.
iv) Define Antiseptic.
v) Define selective media.
vi) Stains used in cell wall staining.
vii) Two names of gaseous sterilizing agents.

i) Sterilization by autoclave.
ii) Compound microscope.
iii) Sterilization by chemical agents.

i) Describe in detail methods of pure culture techniques.
ii) Describe in detail Gram staining.
————————
*SLRC39* SLR-C 39
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (CBCS) (New) Examination, 2017

ENGLISH (Comp.)
On Track : English Skills for Success
1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct alternatives from those
given below them : 14
1) The V-2 missile became the first missile to exceed the
a) speed of motor b) speed of sound
c) speed of computer d) none
2) ___________ is the denominator among all successful men and women.
a) Partial interest b) Total discipline
c) Total commitment d) Partial commitment
3) The Parliament of Religions was to be held in
a) America b) Canada
c) Singapore d) India
4) Who represented the Jains at the Parliament of Religions ?
a) Swami Vivekananda b) Annie Besant
c) Gandhi d) Pratap Chunder Mozoomdar
5) According to Nani A. Palkhivala human rights may be summed up in one word
a) survival b) fraternity
c) freedom d) none
6) The main reason for serious economic problems of the majority is
a) famine b) negligence
c) drought d) ignorance
7) Nani A. Palkhivalas ultimate aim was to establish ___________ as a social
mandate.
a) Dharma b) Constitution
c) Secularism d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-C 39 -2- *SLRC39*
8) Ralph Emersons Brahma speaks about the relationship between

a) the soul and surrounding world
b) the body and surrounding world
c) the soul and body
d) the poet and soul
9) Robert Hayden ___________ mankinds relationship with the moon.
a) ponders on b) rejects
c) prays d) none
10) Ralph Emerson is an advocate of
a) transcendentalism b) all religions
c) west philosophy d) none
11) That is the ___________ important thing of all for Kisan.
a) list b) least c) lest d) little
12) The ___________ congratulated the best student of the college.
a) principle b) principal
c) prencipal d) principles
13) Mr. Kokane cannot drink ___________ coffee without your company.
a) her b) his c) their d) your
14) The correct antonym of expensive is
a) cheap b) chief c) poor d) best

1) What happend to the first V-2 missile when it was first tested ?
2) What is flow according to Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam ?
3) Describe Vivekanandas meeting with J. H. Wright.
4) What kind of personality was Wernher von Braun according to Dr. Kalam ?
5) How was Vivekanandas speech at the Parliament of Religions different from
those of the other speakers ?
6) Why does Palkhivala say that the world continues to be less than half free ?
7) Enumerate the signs of hope for a better world that Palkhivala sees.
8) How did Vivekananda begin his speech in Parliament of religion ?
*SLRC39* -3- SLR-C 39
3. A) Write short answers on any two of the following : 8

1) What is the message of the poem Brahma by Emerson ?
2) How does Hayden Lament the Moons Fate ?
3) What is Emersons concept of Brahma ?
B) Write short answers on any two of the following : 6

1) As the Principal of college, write a notice informing students about Annual
Social Gathering. Mention day, date and events.
2) What is an agenda ?
3) What do you mean by minutes ?
4. Answer any one of the following questions : 14

A) You are Dr. Tanaji Bhand, Secretary of Prabodhan Academy. The well known
speaker has been called to deliver lecture on M.P.S.C. examinations. Write a
notice and agenda informing members of the academy. Imagine necessary
details.
OR
B) You have received an email letter of appointment for the post of Assistant
Manager at Spark Consulting Company, Pune. Write an email letter accepting
the offer.
5. Prepare the curriculum vitae of a science graduate who has applied for the post
Sales Executive. 14
_____________
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2017

(New CBCS Pattern)
CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Paper – III)

2) Draw neat diagram and give equations wherever necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentences : 14
i) Carbenes are ____________
a) Monovalent b) Divalent c) Trivalent d) Tetravalent
ii) Total number of bonds present in HC ≡ CH are __________
a) 1σ and 4π b) 2σ and 3π
c) 3σ and 2π d) 4 σ and 1π
iii) Benzynes are the aromatic compounds containing a formal _______ bond.
a) One triple b) Two triple
c) Three triple d) Four triple
iv) The % of s character in sp2 hybrid orbital is ____________ %.
a) 25 b) 33 c) 50 d) 60
v) The number of electrons in outermost valence shell of carbon free radicals
are __________
a) 6 b) 4 c) 8 d) 7
vi) Hyperconjugation effect involves the delocalization of ___________
a) σ electrons b) π electrons
c) σ and π electrons d) Lone pair of electrons
vii) The general formula of cycloalkane is ____________
a) CnH2n + 2 b) CnH2n c) CnH2n – 2 d) CnH3n
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 40 -2- *SLRC40*
viii) Maleic acid and Fumaric acid are __________

a) Geometrical isomers b) Enantiomers
c) Optical isomers d) Distereoisomers
ix) Acidic hydrogens are present in __________
a) Ethane b) Ethene c) Ethyne d) Benzene
x) Aromaticity can be explained on the basis of _______ rule.
a) Hund’s b) Phase c) Huckel’s d) Van’t Hoff
xi) 1,4-Pentadiene is an example of __________ diene.
a) Isolated b) Conjugated c) Cumulated d) None of these
xii) Nitration of benzene is carried with ________
a) Con.HNO3 b) Con.H2SO4
c) Con.HNO3 + Con.H2SO4 d) dil.HNO3
xiii) Olefins can be hydrogenated by _____________
a) Zn/HCl b) H2/Ni
c) Nascent H2 d) LiAIH4 in ether
xiv) Pyridine is _________ compound.
a) Aromatic b) Non-aromatic
c) Anti-aromatic d) Pseudo aromatic

i) Define the terms :
a) Homolytic fission
b) Heterolytic fission.
ii) Explain Nitrene intermediate.
iii) Define the terms :
a) Bond angle
b) Bond energy.
iv) Draw the resonating structures of nitrobenzene.
v) What is the action of the following on cyclopropane ?
a) Con.HBr
b) H2/Ni.
*SLRC40* -3- SLR-C – 40
vi) Predict the products for the following reaction :
vii) Define Diels-Alder reaction with suitable example.

viii) Why are meso compounds optically inactive ?
ix) Define the terms :
a) Non-aromatic compounds.
b) Anti-aromatic compounds.

i) Discuss the mechanism involved in sulphonation of benzene.
ii) Explain the optical isomerism in case of Lactic acid.
iii) Explain the reaction and mechanism involved in dehydration of lower
alcohols.
B) Discuss the free radical mechanism for the chlorination of methane. 4

i) Explain the following terms with reactions :
a) Hydroboration for ethylene
b) Polymerization of ethylene
c) Saytzeff rule for dehydrohalogenation.
ii) Discuss the following terms :
a) Hyperconjugation effect w.r.t. Toluene
b) Steric effect w.r.t. Mesitoic acid.
iii) What are reagents ? Explain the different types of reagents with suitable
examples.
SLR-C – 40 -4- *SLRC40*

i) Complete the following reactions :
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
ii) Discuss the optical isomerism of 2,3-dihydroxy butanoic acid.

iii) Discuss the mechanism involved in :
a) Friedel-Crafts alkylation
b) Nitration of benzene.
_____________________
*SLRC41* SLR-C 41
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Paper IV)
Analytical Chemistry

3) Use of log table or scientific calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the correct alternative from each of following and rewrite the sentences : 14
1) Nm2 is the SI unit of
a) Viscosity b) Surface tension
c) Parachor d) Fluidity
2) Dipolemoment is __________ property.
a) Colligative b) Additive c) Constitutive d) Both b) and c)
3) In Kjeldahls method the nitrogen in organic compound is converted to
a) Ammonium sulphate b) Nitric acid
c) NaNO2 d) Nitrogen dioxide
4) COD is expressed in
a) g/l b) kg/l c) g/dm3 d) mg/dm3
5) Intensity of sound is measured in
a) °k b) ppm c) dB d) mg/dm3
6) Octane number of fuel is 70 indicates
a) 30% isooctane b) 40% isooctane
c) 70% isooctane d) 100% isooctane
7) The properties which are sum of the corresponding properties of their
constituent are called _____ property.
a) additive b) constitutive c) both a and b d) colligative
P.T.O.
SLR-C 41 -2- *SLRC41*
8) ________ water is suitable for industrial and steam generation purpose.

a) Hard b) Soft c) Chlorinated d) Temporary
9) A dibasic acid has molecular weight 196 then its equivalent weight is
a) 196 b) 49 c) 98 d) 108
10) The ratio of velocity of light in vacuum to that in the medium is called
a) Viscosity b) Dipole moment
c) Refractive index d) Surface tension
11) All ions from water is removed by
a) Ion exchange b) Zeolite
c) Soda ash d) Lime soda
12) The conversion of n-heptane to toluene is
a) Knocking b) Hydroforming
c) Cracking d) None of these
13) CO2 and CS2 has zero dipole moment hence their expected structures is
a) Non-linear b) Angular c) Linear d) Spherical
14) _________ is used in the manufacture of synthetic rubber.
a) 2-phenyl ethanol b) Styrene
c) Adipic acid d) Paracetamol

1) Define (i) empirical formula (ii) molecular formula.
2) Write the equations to calculate (i) specific refractivity (ii) molecular refractivity.
3) Define (i) pollutant (ii) threshold limit value.
4) Define (i) Constitutive property (ii) Fluidity.
5) What do you understand biological oxygen demand ?
6) Give the synthesis of 2-phenyl ethanol.
7) What is meant by potable water ? What are the resources of water ?
8) Draw neat labelled diagram of Liebigs method for estimation of carbon and
hydrogen.
9) Define parachor and write Macleods equation.
*SLRC41* -3- SLR-C 41

1) Define coefficient of viscosity. How it is determined by Ostwald method ?
2) Discuss chemical methods for removal of germs and bacteria from water.
3) Write short note on refining of petroleum.
B) Explain types of pollution. 4
4. Answer any two of following : 14

1) Explain the use of dipolemoment in the study of molecular structure.
2) Discuss sources and health effects of carbon monoxide and oxides of sulphur.
3) Discuss the principle involved in the qualitative analysis of halogen by Carius
method. 2.59 × 104 kg of organic compound gave 1.78 × 104 kg of AgCl in
Carius estimation. Find the percentage of chlorine in the organic compound.
5. Answer any two of following : 14

1) Define surface tension. Describe the method of determination of surface tension
by drop-weight method.
2) Explain types of water pollutants.
3) An organic compound (molecular weight = 180) contains 38.94% of carbon
and 6.72% of hydrogen, find its molecular formula.
_______________
*SLRC42* SLR-C 42
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Paper III)
Heat and Thermodynamics

4) Use of calculator/logarithmic table is allowed.
1. Select Correct alternative : 14

i) Lambda point temperature for liquid helium is about
a) 4.2 °K b) 10 °K c) 2.19 °K d) 0.4 °K
ii) The zeroth law of thermodynamics leads to definition of the term
a) Entropy b) Pressure c) Volume d) Temperature
iii) Viscosity of a gas is due to transport of
a) Momentum b) Energy c) Mass d) None of these
iv) Any device which converts heat into mechanical work is called
a) Refrigerator b) Heat engine c) Air conditioner d) Cycle
v) In Joule-Thomson cooling, the gas is allowed to escape through porous plug
from
a) Low pressure to high pressure
b) High pressure to low pressure
c) Constant pressure region
d) None of these
vi) All natural processes are
a) Reversible b) Irreversible c) Isothermal d) Adiabatic
P.T.O.
SLR-C 42 -2- *SLRC42*
vii) In case of refrigerator coefficient of performance can be

a) Less than 100% b) Zero
c) Higher than 100% d) None of these
viii) The mean free path of gas molecules is inversely proportional to
a) Square of the diameter of the molecule
b) Square root of the diameter of the molecule
c) Molecular diameter
d) Three fourth of the molecular diameter
ix) Cooling by adiabatic demagnetisation of paramagnetic substance is also known as
a) Paramagnetic effect b) Magneto caloric effect
c) Mechano caloric effect d) Regenerative cooling
x) In practice the compression ratio in diesel engine is
a) Less than 10 b) Equal to zero
c) Unity d) In the range 15 to 20
xi) In refrigerator heat flows from
a) Sink to source b) Source to sink
c) Atmosphere to sink d) Atmosphere to source
xii) The efficiency of Carnots engine is 0.35. If the temperature of source is
500 °K, then the temperature of the sink is
a) 325 °K b) 175 °K c) 400 °K d) 250 °K
xiii) According to third law of thermodynamics, the heat capacities of all solids
tend to ________ as absolute zero of temperature is approached.
a) Zero b) Unity c) Infinity d) Integer
xiv) If a gas has specific heat at constant volume, Cv = 2.5 × 103 J/kg °K and
coefficient of viscosity, = 3.2 × 105 Ns/m2, then it has the thermal

conductivity, K =
a) 8 × 102 J/m.s °K b) 0.78 × 102 J/m.s °K
c) 1.28 × 102 J/m.s °K d) 5.7 × 102 J/m.s °K

1) State any two properties of liquid helium II.
2) Distinguish between otto engine and diesel engine.
3) Give applications of air conditioning system.
*SLRC42* -3- SLR-C 42
4) What do you mean by collision cross-section ?

5) What is regenerative cooling ?
6) Write general principle of refrigerator.
7) How viscosity of a gas depends upon temperature and pressure ?
8) Heat of 2 kcal is conducted from a body at 227 °C to another body at 127 °C.
Find increase in entropy.

1) Describe experimental set up for adiabatic demagnetisation of paramagnetic
substance.
2) Obtain an expression for coefficient of thermal conductivity of a gas.
3) Explain with examples, reversible and irreversible processes.
B) Obtain an expression for work done during an isothermal process. 4

1) Explain with neat diagram Lindes air liquifier.
2) With neat diagram, describe the working of vapour compression refrigeration
system.
3) Determine the mean free path of gas molecules having average velocity of
800 m/s and coefficient of viscosity 3.5 × 104 Ns/m2. Also calculate specific
heat at constant volume if thermal conductivity is 7 × 102 J/ms °K.
(Density of the gas = 2 kg/m3)

1) What is adiabatic process ? Derive adiabatic relations.
A certain mass of gas at NTP is expanded to three times its volume under
adiabatic conditions. Calculate the final temperature of the gas ( = 1.4)

2) What is otto cycle ?. With the help of P-V diagram, obtain an expression for
efficiency of otto engine.
The efficiency of Carnots engine is 40%. If the engine absorbs 60 cal of heat
then how much heat is rejected ?
_______________
*SLRC43* -1- SLR-C – –43
SLR-C 43
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (CBCS Pattern) (New) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Paper – IV)
Electricity, Magnetism and Basic Electronics


i) The time constant of a circuit consisting of a resistance of 50 ohm in series
with an inductance of 5 henry is ______________
a) 10 sec b) 0.1 sec c) 1 sec d) 250 sec
ii) The charging of capacitor through inductor is ______________
a) Exponential b) Linear
c) Oscillatory d) Sinusoidal
iii) The time constant of the circuit containing resistance (R) and capacitor (C);
connected to a source of steady e.m.f. is T = ______________
R
a) RC b) c) R2C d) R + C
C
iv) Multiplication of a vector by an operator j rotates the vector through
__________ degrees in anticlockwise direction.
a) 45 b) 90 c) 180 d) 360
v) The expression for quality factor in case of series resonant circuit is
Q = ______________
ω0L
a) ω0 L b) ω0 C c) d) ω0 LR
R
vi) Impedance (Z) of a parallel LCR circuit at resonance is ______________
a) Zero b) Minimum c) Maximum d) Constant
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 43 -2- *SLRC43*
vii) Unit of figure of merit (K) of a Ballistic galvanometer is ______________

a) μ A/mm b) mm/ μ A c) mm/ μ C d) mm/ μ V
viii) In Ballistic galvanometer the function of iron core is to ______________
a) Decrease the magnetic induction
b) Decrease the current through the galvanometer
c) Increase the magnetic induction
d) Keep magnetic induction constant
ix) Magnetic induction along the axis of infinitely long solenoid is B = ________
μ μ
a) μ 0 n2i b) 0 c) 0 d) μ 0 ni
ni 4π
x) An ideal forward biased semiconductor diode offers __________ resistance.
a) Infinite b) Zero c) Moderate d) Minimum
xi) Ripple factor of bridge rectifier is ______________
a) 0.482 b) 0.812 c) 1.21 d) 0.96
xii) The junction barrier potential difference for a germanium diode is of the order
of ______________
a) 0.7 V b) 1 V c) 0.3 V d) 1.7 V
xiii) The ______________ of the transistor is heavily doped.
a) Emitter b) Base c) Collector d) Base and collector
xiv) When both junctions of a transistor are forward biased, the transistor operates
in ______________
a) Cut off region b) Forbidden region
c) Saturation region d) Active region

i) What is varying current ?
ii) Why a spark is produced at the key at the break in an L-R circuit ?
iii) Calculate modulus of complex number Z = 6 + 8j.
iv) What is rejector circuit ?
v) Explain electromagnetic damping in Ballistic galvanometer.
vi) State Biot-Savart’s law.
vii) Draw circuit diagram of bridge rectifier.
viii) Derive relation between α and β .
*SLRC43* -3- SLR-C – 43

i) Write a note on Owen’s bridge.
ii) Obtain expression for magnetic induction at a point on the axis of current
carrying coil of single turn.
iii) Explain working of common emitter transistor amplifier.
B) A battery of e.m.f. 12 V is applied to a coil having resistance of 4 Ω and inductance
1 th
of 0.2 Henry. Calculate current flowing through coil in of the second.
10
(Given : e–1 = 0.368). 4

i) Derive an expression for the growth of charge in a circuit containing a
resistance (R), a condenser (C) and a source of constant e.m.f. in series.
ii) Discuss series resonant circuit. Show that at resonance, circuit is purely
resistive and current in the circuit is maximum. A series resonant circuit has
quality factor 6.2 and resonant frequency 7.9 Hz. Calculate its band width.
iii) Derive expression for measurement of charge using ballistic galvanometer.

i) Draw circuit diagram for zener diode as voltage regulator and explain its
regulation action. The voltage regulator circuit built using a zener diode receives
d.c. input voltage equal to 24 V. Calculate safety resistance if Vz = 12 V,
Iz = 10 mA and IL = 20 mA.
ii) Explain construction and working of BJT. Discuss input, output and transfer
characteristics of transistor in CB configuration.
_____________________

*SLRC44* SLR-C 44
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) Examination, 2017

STATISTICS (Paper III)
Descriptive Statistics II

i) The formula for covariance between the variables (X a) and (Y b) based

on n paired values, when a and b are constants is
a) ab COV (X, Y) b) ab COV (X, Y)
c) COV (X, Y) d) none of these
ii) The points of a scatter diagram are on a vertical line, the coefficient of
correlation is
a) 0 b) 1 c) +1 d) none of these
iii) If the variables X and Y are changes in the same directions, then correlation
coefficient is
a) zero b) one c) positive d) negative
iv) The limits of Spearmans rank correlation (R) is

a) 0 to 1 b) 0 to
c) 1 to 1 d) none of these
v) The correlation coefficient is

a) Product of regression coefficient b) Mean of regression coefficients
c) G.M. of regression coefficient d) None of these
vi) If one coefficient of regression is greater than one, the other must be
a) Less than one b) Equal to one
c) Both a and b d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 44 -2- *SLRC44*
vii) The two regression lines are perpendicular to each other angle between two
regression lines is
a) b) c) d)

" $
viii) Attribute is
a) a qualitative characteristics b) a measurable characteristics
c) a quantitative characteristics d) none of these
ix) With three attributes, the total number of class frequencies of all orders
equal to
a) Eight b) Nine
c) Twenty seven d) None of these
x) Ultimate class frequencies means the frequencies of the classes of

a) Zero order b) Lowest order
c) Highest order d) None of these
xi) Which of the following is not an example of quantitative characteristics ?

a) Height b) Weight c) Wages d) Blood group
xii) The index number for base year is always taken as

xiii) The best average in the construction of index number is

a) A.M. b) G.M. c) H.M. d) None of these
xiv) The weights used in Paasches formula belongs to

a) The base period b) Arbitrary chosen period
c) The given period d) None of these

i) Define positive correlation and negative correlation.
ii) Prove that Corr (X, X) = 1.
iii) Define Covariance between X and Y.
iv) Define two regression coefficients.
*SLRC44* -3- SLR-C 44
v) Explain the line of regression of X on Y.
vi) Define Ultimate class frequency.
vii) Define positive class frequency and negative class frequency.
viii) Define Laspeyres quantity index number.
ix) Define Fishers price index number.

i) Write short note on index number.
ii) What is the effect of change of origin and scale on correlation coefficient ?
iii) Find the conditions of consistency of data related to two attributes A and B.
B) With usual notation, prove that 4
a) >
O N
>
N O
b) >
O N
>
N O
H

i) With usual notation, prove that
R 1
$
d
n n
ii) What is time reversal test of consistency ? Verify the same for Laspeyres
index number.
iii) Obtain the expression for the acute angle
between the two regression
lines. Interpret the results = 0, .


i) Derive the equations of lines of regression of Y on X by the method of least
square.
ii) Define Yules coefficient of association (Q) and coefficient of colligation (Y)
and show that
O
3
O
iii) What are index numbers ? How are they constructed ? What are their uses ?
__________________
*SLRC45* SLR-C 45
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Paper IV)
Probability and Probability Distributions II

i) For a discrete r. v. X, the second moment about mean is called, second
_________ moment.
a) Raw b) Factorial c) Central d) None of these
ii) Variance is independent of
a) Change of origin b) Change of scale
c) Change of origin and scale d) None of these
iii) If X is a r. v. with mean
then E(X- ) =

a)
b) 2
c) 0 d) X-
iv) If X is a r. v. then
a) E(X2) = [E(X)]2 b) E(X2) [E(X)]2
c) E(X2) [E(X)]2
d) None of these
v) For the following probability distribution
X : 0 1 2 3
P(x) :

" " " "
Then V(20) =
a) 20 b) c) 0 d) 2.5
#
vi) If X is a discrete r. v. with p.m.f. p(x) then is given by

a) b) c) d)
N
F N
N F N
F N N F N
P.T.O.
N
SLR-C 45 -2- *SLRC45*
vii) If X and Y are independent r.v.s. then

a) E(X + Y) = E(X) + E(Y) b) E(X.Y) = E(X).E(Y)
c) P(x, y) = P(x).P(y) d) All of these
viii) If X and Y are two independent r.v.s. then v(x y) =
a) v(x) + v(y) 2 cov(x, y) b) v(x) + v(y) + 2 cov(x, y)
c) v(x) + v(y) d) v(x) v(y)
ix) The p.m.f. of one point distribution is
a) P(X = 1) = K b) P(X = K) = 1
c) P(X = K) = d)

2 :

x) If X1, X2,...,Xn are independent and identically distributed Bernoulli r.v.s.

then the distribution of ;

n
i 1
:
i
is
a) Bernoulli b) Discrete uniform
c) Hypergeometric d) Binomial
xi) If P(x) = x = 10, 20, 30, 40, 50

=0 otherwise
then the distribution of r.v. X is identical to __________ Distribution.
a) Discrete uniform b) Binomial
c) Hypergeometric d) Two point
xii) Suppose a box contain 4 white and 6 black balls. Three balls are drawn
randomly without replacement. A r.v. X is defined as number of white balls
obtained. Then probability distribution of r.v.X is identical to _________
distribution.
a) Bernoulli b) Binomial
c) Hypergeometric d) None of these
xiii) The probability generating function of Bernoulli distribution is
a) (s + pq) b) (p + qs)
c) (p + s + q) d) (q + ps)
xiv) Variance of one point distribution is
a) 1 b) 2
c) 0 d) None of these
*SLRC45* -3- SLR-C 45

i) Define expectation of function of r.v.X.
ii) Define second factorial moment.
iii) Suppose a r.v.X takes values 1, 2, 3 with P(X = 2) 0.2 and E(X) = 2, then
find P(X = 1).
iv) In usual notation if

= 3,

= 15 find V(X + 10).
v) If V(X) = 2, V(Y) = K. If X and Y are independent r.v.s. such that V(3x Y) = 27,
find K.
vi) If X and Y are two discrete r.v.s. and a and b are any constants, then in
usual notations state the expression for
a) E(aX + bY) b) V(aX + bY)
vii) State the p.m.f. of hypergeometric distribution with parameters N, M and n
in usual notation.
viii) Define Bernoulli random variable.
ix) Define binomial distribution.

i) State and prove the recurrence relation for probabilities of binomial
distribution.
ii) With usual notation prove that V(aX + b) = a2 V(X).
iii) The joint p.m.f. of r.v. (X, Y) is
P(x, y) = x = 1, 2 ; y = 1, 2

"
=0 otherwise
Discuss the independence of X and Y.
B) A r.v. X has following probability distribution : 4

X : 0 1 2 3
P(x) :
!
$ !
Find E(X) and V(X).

SLR-C 45 -4- *SLRC45*

i) The joint probability distribution of r.v. (X, Y) is
X
Y
!

! !
Find (a) Marginal probability distribution of X and Y (b) E(X + Y).

ii) Define two point distribution and find its mean and variance.
iii) Derive and identify the distribution of sum of independent and identically
distributed n Bernoulli random variables.

i) The joint probability distribution of r.v. (X, Y) is
X
Y

' '

' '
' '
Find E(X/Y= 2)
ii) Find mean and variance of binomial distribution.
iii) Define :
a) A two dimensional discrete r.v.
b) Marginal probability distribution of X and
c) Conditional probability distribution of Y given X = x.

*SLRC46* SLR-C 46
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (New CBCS) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Paper III)
Geometry

1. Choose the correct alternative for each of the following : 14

1) The polar equation of xy = 2 is
a) r = cos b) r = sin
c) r = sin2
d) r2 sin22
=4
2) r = 4 sin is the polar equation of the curve then its Cartesian equation is

a) x2 + y2 4y = 0 b) x2 + y2 4x = 0
c) x2 + y2 = 4 d) x2 + y2 xy = 0
3) The equation x2 + 2xy + y2 2x 1 = 0 represents
a) circle b) parabola c) hyperbola d) an ellipse
4) The general second degree equation represent an ellipse if and only if
a)
, h2 ab = 0
b) ,a+b=0
c) 2
, h ab < 0 d) , h2 ab < 0

5) If by rotation of axes through an angle , the expression

3x2 + 2xy + 3y2 18x 22y + 55 = 0 does not contain the cross product term xy
then =
a) b) c) d)

! " $
6) The tangent plane to the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 14 at the point (1, 2, 3) is

a) x + 2y + 3z = 14 b) x 2y + 3z = 14
c) 2x + y + 3z = 14 d) x + y + z = 14
7) The radius of sphere x2 + y2 + z2 4x 6y + 8z + 4 = 0 is
a) 5 b) 5 c) 4 d) 6
P.T.O.
SLR-C 46 -2- *SLRC46*
8) The centre of sphere x2 + y2 + z2 + 6x + 4y + 4z + 16 = 0

a) (3, 2, 2) b) (3, 2, 2) c) (3, 2, 2) d) (1, 2, 3)
9) The equation of sphere described on (2, 3, 1) and (3, 1, 2) as extremities of
a diameter is
a) x2 + y2 + z2 + 5x 4y 3z + 11 = 0
b) x2 + y2 + z2 + 5x 4y + 3z 11 = 0
c) x2 + y2 + z2 5x + 4y 3z + 11 = 0
d) None of these
10) Intersection of two sphere is
a) circle b) straight line c) plane d) sphere
11) Two planes a1x + b1y + c1z + d1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2z + d2 = 0 are parallel
if
a) a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 0 b)

= > ?

= > ?
= > ?
c) d) None of these

= > ?
12) The angle between the planes 2x y + z = 6 and x + y + 2z = 7 is
a) b) c) d) None of these

" !
13) The distance of the plane 2x 3y + 6z + 14 = 0 from the origin is

a) 2 b) 11 c) 2 d) 13
14) The number of arbitrary constant in the equation Ax + By + Cz = D is

1) Transform the equation 2x2 + y2 4x + 4y = 0 when the origin is shifted to (1, 2).
2) Find the polar coordinates of the points whose Cartesian coordinates given
as A . ( 3 , 1 )
3) Identify the conic given by the equation x2 + xy + y2 + x + y 1 = 0.

4) Find the angle between 11x + 6y + 5z + 86 = 0 and 3x 6y + 2z + 5 = 0.
5) Show that origin and the point A(2, 4, 3) lie on different sides of the plane
x + 3y 5z + 7 = 0.
*SLRC46* -3- SLR-C 46
6) Show that the three points (2, 3, 5), (1, 2, 3), (7, 0, 1) are colinear.
7) Find centre and radius of sphere x2 + y2 + z 2 2x + 4y 6z = 2.
8) Obtain the equation of the sphere described on the join of A(2, 3, 4), B( 5, 6, 7)
as diameter.
9) Find the equation of sphere whose centre is at C(2, 3, 4) and radius 5.

1) If, by rotation of axes, the expression N O changes to

N

O

then
prove that
is invariant.
2) Find the equation of plane passing through (2, 1, 1) and line of intersection
of planes 2x + 3y + 4z = 5 and 3x 2y + z + 1 = 0.
3) Show that the equation of tangent plane to the sphere
x2 + y2 + z2 + 2ux + 2vy + 2wz + d = 0 at a point p(x, y, z) is
xx1 + yy1 + zz1 + u (x + x 1) + v (y + y 1) + w (z + z1) + d = 0.
B) Transforms the equation x2 + 4xy + y2 = a2 when axes are rotated through an
angle . 4

"

1) Find the normal form of the equation of a plane.
2) Show that second degree equation x2 + y2 + z2 + 2ux + 2vy + 2wz + d = 0
represents a sphere with centre ( u, v, w) and radius = K L M @
.
3) If axes are rotated through an angle , the equation ax2 + 2hxy + by2 transform
into then prove that .

1 2 h

= N > O
t a n

2 a b

1) Show that the plane 2x 2y + z + 16 = 0 touches the sphere
x2 + y2 + z2 + 2x 4y + 2z = 3. Find the point of contact.
2) If by rotation of axes, the expression ax 2 + 2hxy + by 2 becomes
=

N

then show that a + b and ab h2 are invariant.
D

N

O

>

O

3) Find the equation of a plane passing through three points

P (3, 4, 2), Q (4, 6, 5), R (8, 2, 9).

Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (CBCS) (New) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Paper – IV)
Differential Equations

1. Choose the correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite the sentence : 14
i) The differential equation Mdx + Ndy = 0 possess a/an _________ number of
integrating factors.
a) One b) Finite c) Infinite d) None
ii) The Homogeneous differential equation can be reduced to variable separable
form by putting __________
a) y = vx2 b) y = v c) y = v x d) y = vx
x2
dy
iii) The solution of = e x − y + x 2e − y is ____________
dx
x3 x3
a) e y = + ex + c b) e − y = + ex + c
3 3
c) e y = x 3 + e − x + c d) e y = − x 3 + e − x + c
dy
iv) The equation of the form + Py = Qy n where P and Q are functions of
dx
x alone or constant is called __________
a) An exact differential equation b) Linear differential equation
c) Bernoulli’s differential equation d) None of these
v) The integrating factor of (x2 + y2 + x)dx + ( xy)dy = 0 is _________
1 1
a) y b) x c) d)
x y
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 47 -2- *SLRC47*
dy y ⎛y⎞
vi) The general solution of = + tan ⎜ ⎟ is __________
dx x ⎝x⎠
y ⎛y⎞ ⎛y⎞
a) sin ⎜⎛ x ⎞⎟ = c b) sin ⎜⎛ y ⎞⎟ = cx c) cos ⎜ ⎟ = cx d) cos ⎜ ⎟ = c
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ x⎠ ⎝x⎠ ⎝x⎠
vii) The differential equation Mdx + Ndy = 0 is an exact equation if ________
∂M ∂N ∂M ∂N ∂N ∂M ∂N ∂M
a) + =0 b) − = 0 c) + =0 d) − =0
∂y ∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y ∂x ∂y ∂x
viii) The solution of (D2 + 1)2y = 0 is __________
a) Acosx + Bsinx
b) ex(Acosx + Bsinx)
c) ( A1 + A 2 x ) cos x + ( A 3 + A 4 x ) sin x
d) ( A1 + A 2 ) cos x + ( A 3 + A 4 ) sin x
d2 y
ix) The solution of − y = k , k = a non-zero constant which vanishes when
dx 2
x = 0 and which tends to finite limit as x tends to ∞ is ________
a) y = k(1 + e − x ) b) y = k(e − x − 1)
c) y = k(e x + e − x − 2) d) y = k(e x + 1)
x) The set of linearly independent solutions of the differential equation
d4 y d2 y
− = 0 is _________
dx 4 dx 2
{
a) 1, x, e x , e − x} { }
b) 1, x, e − x , xe − x
c) {1, x, e , xe }
x x d) {1, x, e , xe }
x −x
1
xi) The value of sin x is __________
D−1
1 1
a) − (sin x + cos x ) b) (sin x + cos x )
2 2
1 1
c) (sin x − cos x ) d) (cos x − sin x )
2 2
*SLRC47* -3- SLR-C – 47
1
xii) The value of 3
x = __________
D − 3D + 2
9 1⎛ 9 ⎞
a) x + b) ⎜x + ⎟
20 2⎝ 10 ⎠
1⎛ 3⎞ 1
c) ⎜x + ⎟ d) (x + 3)
2⎝ 2⎠ 2
xiii) The complementary function of the equation (D2 – 2D + 1)y = x2 – 1
is _________
a) x2 + 4x + 1 b) c1ex + c2ex
c) (c1 + c2)ex + x2 + 4x + 1 d) (c1 + c2x)ex
xiv) The particular integral of (D2 – 4D + 4)y = e2 x x 2 is __________
2x x4 x2
a) e b) e2 x
12 6
2x − x3 x3
x
c) e d) e
4 8

i) Solve : sec2x tanydx + sec2y tanxdy = 0.
ii) Define the term Homogeneous equations of the first order and of any degree
in x and y.
iii) What is meant by exact differential equation ?
iv) Explain how to solve the equation Mdx + Ndy = 0 where M = f(x) and N = φ(y ) .
v) Find the integrating factor of (x2 + y2 + 1)dx – 2xydy = 0.
d3 y d2 y dy
vi) Solve : 3
−5 2 +8 − 4y = 0 .
dx dx dx
1
vii) Evaluate cos x .
D+ 2
1
viii) Evaluate cos ax .
(D + a 2 )2
2
ix) Find the particular integral of (D2 + 4D + 4)y = e–2x.

SLR-C – 47 -4- *SLRC47*
i) Solve (x2 + y2)dx – 2xydy = 0.
dy
ii) Solve = x 3 y 3 − xy .
dx
1
iii) Find the meaning of X.
D−a
dy
B) Show how to solve + Py = Q where P, Q are functions of x. 4
dx

i) What is meant by Non-Homogeneous differential equation ? Explain how to
solve it in detail.
1 ax 1 ax
ii) In the usual notation, prove that e = e , if f(a ) ≠ 0 and modify
f(D) f(a)
the result if f(a) = 0.
iii) Solve :
⎛ 2 xy2 3⎞ ⎛ xy 2 2⎞
a) ⎜ y e + 4x ⎟ dx + ⎜ 2xye − 3y ⎟ dy = 0 .
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
d2 y dy
b) Solve : + 2 + y = x cos x .
dx 2 dx

1 ⎧ 1 ⎫ 1
i) With usual meanings, show that xV = ⎨x − f′(D)⎬ V where V is
f(D) ⎩ f(D) ⎭ f(D)
a function of x.
dy 4x 1
ii) a) Solve + 2 y= 2 .
dx x + 1 ( x + 1)3
⎛ dy ⎞ ⎛ dy ⎞
b) Solve e x + y ⎜ x + y ⎟ − e xy ⎜1 + ⎟ = 0.
⎝ dx ⎠ ⎝ dx ⎠
1 1
iii) With usual notation show that sin ax = sin ax and hence solve
φ(D2 ) φ( −a 2 )
d2 y dy
− 5 + 6y = sin 3x .
dx 2 dx
_____________________
*SLRC48* SLR-C 48
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (New) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS (Paper III)
Semiconductor Devices

4) Use of calculator and log table is allowed.
1. Choose correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentence : 14
i) As temperature increases the leakage current of the diode
c) remains the same d) does not flow
ii) A doped semiconductor is called as
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) extrinsic semiconductor
c) pure semiconductor d) none of these
iii) Color of the light emitted by the LED depends on
a) current b) voltage
c) temperature d) semiconductor used
iv) A zener diode is formed by _____________ impurity.
a) lightly doped b) heavily doped
c) both a) and b) d) none of these
v) For detecting light intensity, we use
a) LED b) Zener diode c) Photodiode d) Tunnel diode
vi) The principle used in varactor diode, is variation of
a) resistor b) inductor c) capacitor d) carriers
vii) The base of a transistor is _____________ doped.
a) heavily b) lightly c) moderately d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 48 -2- *SLRC48*
viii) The BJT generally operate in _____________ region, so it gives amplification.

a) active b) cutoff c) saturation d) none of these
ix) For the proper operation of the JFET gate terminal is _____________ biased.
a) forward b) reverse
c) forward as well as reverse d) none of these
x) In an n-channel JFET, the charge carriers are
a) electrons b) holes
c) both electrons and holes d) none of these
xi) MOSFET is a
a) voltage controlled device b) field controlled device
c) current controlled device d) power controlled device
xii) The control element in SCR is
a) gate b) cathode c) anode d) base
xiii) _____________ is a bidirectional device with three terminals.
a) Triac b) Diac c) SCR d) IGBT
xiv) Which of the following acts like a diode and two resistors ?
a) SCR b) Triac c) Diac d) UJT

i) What is an intrinsic semiconductor ?
ii) A typical diode has the forward current and voltages as : 8 mA at 0.6 V, 18 mA
at 0.7 V and 50 mA at 0.8 V. Calculate the static and dynamic resistance of
the diode.
iii) Compare semiconductor diode and zener diode.
iv) What is a transistor ? Draw the symbol of NPN and PNP transistor.
v) Write diode equation and define volt equivalent of temperature (VT).
vi) State the applications of MOSFET.
vii) Write applications of photodiode.
viii) Compare Diac and Triac.
ix) Draw symbol of enhancement type MOSFET and depletion type MOSFET.
*SLRC48* -3- SLR-C 48

i) What is a LED ? Explain construction and working of LED.
ii) Explain input and output characteristics of a transistor in CE configuration.
iii) Define the terms : drain resistance, transconductance and amplification
factor of JFET. Deduce the relation between them.
B) Due to Vcc = 12 volt, the collector current flowing through transistor is 2 mA

and base current is 100 A. Calculate and .

4

i) What is a tunnel diode ? Explain the V-I characteristics of a tunnel diode.
ii) Describe the formation of PN junction. Explain I-V characteristics of a PN
junction diode.
iii) Explain construction and working of a UJT.

i) Explain the breakdown mechanism in zener diode. List the applications of
zener diode.
ii) Explain with neat circuit diagram of I-V characteristics of N-channel JFET.
iii) Explain construction and working of SCR. Give applications of SCR.

Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (New-CBCS) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS
Digital Electronics (Paper – IV)

4) Draw neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternatives from the following : 14
1) In RS flip-flop if R = 1, S = 0, then this state is called as _____________ state.

a) Set b) Reset
c) Forbidden d) Toggle
2) T flip-flop is constructed by using _______________ flip-flop.

a) RS b) D
c) M/S JK d) None of these
3) For decade counter minimum number of flip-flops requires are ________

a) 10 b) 5
c) 4 d) 2
4) ___________ counter has maximum delay time.

a) Series b) Parallel
c) Series and Parallel d) None of these
5) SISO shift register means ______________

a) Serial In Standard Out b) Serial In Serial Out
c) Standard In Serial Out d) Standard In Standard Out
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 49 -2- *SLRC49*
6) A four bit ring counter is mod _____________ counter.

a) 2 b) 4
c) 8 d) 16
7) A digital system with many inputs and one output is called as _________
a) Flip-flop b) Encoder
c) Multiplexer d) Demultiplexer
8) IC74153 is used as _____________
a) Multiplexer b) Demultiplexer
c) Decade counter d) Decoder driver
9) TTL gate is said to be in current sinking mode when its output state is __________
a) Low b) High
c) Both a & b d) None of these
10) The fan out of TTL device is ____________
a) 10 b) 20
c) 30 d) 40
11) IC 7400 is used as TTL _________________ gate.
a) AND b) OR
c) NAND d) NOR
12) _____________ flip-flop is used to avoid race around condition.
a) RS b) JK
c) M/S JK d) None of these
13) IC 7490 is used as ____________
a) Decade counter b) Flip-flop
c) MUX d) De Mux
14) _____________ shift register operates as parallel to serial data converter.
a) SISO b) PISO
c) SIPO d) PIPO
*SLRC49* -3- SLR-C – 49

1) Give the truth table of TTL NAND gate.
2) What is current sourcing ?
3) Draw the diagram of 2:4 decoder.
4) Mention various types of flip-flops.
5) Give the truth table of M/S JK flip-flops.
6) What is ring counter ?
7) What is Demultiplexer ?
8) Draw the timing diagram of divide by two counter.
9) Draw the circuit diagram of RS flip-flop using NOR gate.

1) Explain 4 to 1 multiplexer with suitable diagram.
2) Explain D flip-flop in detail.
3) Draw the circuit diagram of TTL NAND gate.
B) Explain any two specifications of TTL logic family. 4

1) Explain 3 : 8 decoder.
2) Explain 1 to 4 Demultiplexer.
3) Explain 3-bit synchronous binary counter.

1) Explain decimal to BCD encoder.
2) Explain the SISO shift register.
3) Draw the timing diagram of decade counter.
Calculate the frequency at the output of decade counter, when 1 KHz frequency
square wave is connected at the input.
___________________
*SLRC50* SLR-C 50
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Introduction to Web Designing (New CBCS) (Paper No. III)

2) Figure to the right place indicate full marks.
1. A) Choose correct alternatives : 10

1) HTML stands for
A) Hyper Text Markup Language
B) High Text Markup Language
C) Hyper Tabular Markup Language
D) None of these
2) Which of the following tag is used to mark a beginning of paragraph ?
A) <TD> B) <br> C) <P> D) <TR>
3) From which tag descriptive list starts ?
A) <LL> B) <DD> C) <DL> D) <DS>
4) We may add more than one form tag in web
A) True B) False
5) In a table, the CSS ____________ property can be used to specify the
amount of space between the borders of each cell.
A) border-padding B) padding
C) spacing D) border-spacing
6) What are variables used for in JavaScript Programs ?
A) Storing numbers, dates or other values
B) Varying randomly
C) Causing high-school algebra flashbacks
D) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C 50 -2- *SLRC50*
7) When a visitor clicks the submit button on a form, the _______________

of each form element is sent.
A) label B) name
C) value D) name-value pair
8) Which HTML element do we put the JavaScript ?
A) <js> B) <scripting>
C) <script> D) <javascript>
9) HTML is what type of language ?
A) Scripting Language
B) Markup Language
C) Programming Language
D) Network Protocol
10) The common element which describe the web page, is ?
A) Heading B) Paragraph
C) List D) All of these
B) State the following statements true/false : 4
1) Tags and test that are not directly displayed on the page are written in
head section.
2) HTML tags are surrounded by curly type of brackets.
3) You can write CSS once and then reuse same sheet in multiple HTML
pages.
4) JavaScript is a lightweight, interpreted programming language.

1) What is the use of CSS ?
2) Define Internet.
3) Explain Anchor tag.
4) What is DOCTYPE element ?
5) What is long form of CSS and DOM ?
*SLRC50* -3- SLR-C 50
6) List out data types of JavaScript.

7) List out different operators in JavaScript.
8) Explain need of HTML5.
9) Define Networking.

1) Explain structure of HTML.
2) Explain CSS types in detail.
3) Explain LAN, MAN, WAN in detail.
B) Explain array of JavaScript. 4

1) Explain different types of topology with suitable diagram.
2) Explain table tag with example.
3) Write a JavaScript program to check given no. is odd or even.

1) Write a JavaScript program to check given number is prime or not.
2) Explain text formatting tags in detail.
3) Explain CSS properties in detail.
___________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (New-CBCS) Examination, 2017

COMPUTER SCIENCE (Paper No. – IV)
Introduction to Programming Using ‘C’ – II
Instruction : All questions are compulsory.
1. Choose correct alternatives. 14
1) _______________ operator is used to access the data members of structures.

a) # (Hash) b) _ (Underscore)
c) . (Dot operator) d) ; (Semicolon)
2) Pointer is a special variable which stores___________ of another variable.

a) Value b) Address c) Both a and b d) None of these
3) The function strcat (x1, x2) appends _______________ to _______________

a) x1 to x2 b) x2 to x1 c) x1 to x1 d) x2 to x2
4) ______________ preprocessor directive used if a macro is not defined.

a) # undef b) # ifdef
c) # endif d) # ifndef
5) _____________ function is used to allocate memory dynamically for array.

a) malloc( ) b) calloc( )
c) realloc( ) d) free( )
6) ________________ is only integer value which can be assigned to pointer

variable.
a) – 1 b) 0 c) 1 d) 2
7) Preprocessor directive must be terminated by semicolon.

a) True b) False
8) _____________ defines a macro substitution

a) #define b) #include c) #ifdef d) #if
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 51 -2- *SLRC51*
9) We can operate increment and decrement operator on pointer.

a) True b) False
10) Identify the output of following ‘C’ code :

int p = 65 ;
int *q ;
q = &p ;
printf(“%c”, *q) ;
a) 65 b) A
c) Compile time error d) None of these
11) _______________ is a collection of same as well as different data elements.

a) Structure b) Union
c) Array d) Both a and b
12) In the function rectangle (p, q, r, s) ; ________________ parameter is used

as bottom value.
a) p b) q c) r d) s
13) If two strings are identical, then strcmp ( ) function returns___________

a) – 1 b) 0 c) 1 d) 2
14) Which of the following is not file handling function ?

a) fopen( ) b) feof( ) c) fwrite( ) d) gets( )

1) Define pointer. How to initialize pointer ?
2) Define nesting of structure.
3) Write syntax and use of ‘typedef’ keyword.
4) Define recursion.
5) How to initialize a structure ?
6) List any two string function with its use.
7) List out rules for pointer operations.
8) Write use and syntax of initgraph( ).
9) What is difference between calloc( ) and malloc( ) ?
*SLRC51* -3- SLR-C – 51
3. A) Attempt any two of the followings : 10

1) Explain array of structure with suitable example.
2) What is file ? Explain fopen() and fgetc() functions.
3) Write a program to check entered number is prime or not with using function
with argument without return value.
B) What is difference between array and structure ? 4
4. Attempt any two of the followings : 14

A) What are different storage classes in ‘C’ ? Explain register storage class in
detail with example.
B) What is the pass by address or pass by pointer ? Give one example.
C) What is dynamic memory allocation ? Explain with example.
5. Attempt any two of the followings : 14

A) Explain “pointer to function” concept with example.
B) Write a program to traversing array elements by using pointer.
C) Explain different file opening modes with example.
––––––––––––––––––––
*SLRC52* SLR-C 52
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester II) (New-CBCS) Examination, 2017

PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY (Paper No. III)
Climatology

1) _________ is the science that studies various climates on the earth.
a) Climatology b) Geology
c) Geomorphology d) Bio-geography
2) _________ extends between the tropics of Capricorn and tropic of cancer.
a) Frigid b) Temperature c) Troposphere d) Tropical
3) According to Ferrells law, the winds in the north hemisphere deflect towards
their _________ side.
a) Left b) Right c) Top d) Bottom
4) The proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere is __________%.
a) 20.96 b) 70.80 c) 0.003 d) Trace
5) The heat received from sun and reaches on the earth surface is known as
a) Insolation b) Insulation c) Radiation d) None of them
6) __________ is the lowest layer of the atmosphere.
a) Ionosphere b) Troposphere c) Stratosphere d) Exosphere
7) Equatorial clam belt is called as
a) Horse latitude b) Doldrum c) Sub polar belt d) Polar belt
8) ________ is composed of gases, water vapour, water vapour and dust particles.
a) Atmosphere b) Lithosphere c) Hydrosphere d) Biosphere
9) Amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere is called
a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Humidity d) Precipitation
10) Westerlies blowing along 40° South latitudes is known as
a) Roaring forties b) Furious fifties
c) Shrinking sixties d) None of them
P.T.O.
SLR-C 52 *SLRC52*
11) The lines joining the places of equal atmospheric temperature are called as
a) Isohyets b) Isotherms c) Isobars d) Isoclines
12) In the albedo of earth about _________% of incoming short wave radiation is
reflected from top layer of atmosphere and not reaches upto earth surface.
a) 25 b) 35 c) 51 d) 19
13) The gravitational force is maximum at _________ region on the earth surface.
a) Polar b) Equatorial c) Mid-latitude d) None of them
14) The standard pressure at sea level is __________ milibars.
a) 1013.2 b) 1033.2 c) 1012.3 d) 1034.12

1) Gases in the atmosphere.
2) Daily range of temperature.
3) Horse latitude.
4) Solar constant.
5) Characteristics of polar winds.
6) Difference climate and weather.
7) Ozonosphere.
8) Diagrams of cyclones.
9) State the normal lapse rate.
3. A) Write a short notes (any two) : 10

1) Define weather and state its various elements.
2) Define climatology and state its importance.
3) Describe the composition of atmosphere.
B) Draw the diagram of climatic zone on the earth and state it. 4
4. Write any two answers in brief : 14

1) State the various factors affecting on the distribution of insolation on the earth
surface.
2) State the vertical distribution of temperature on the earth surface.
3) Explain NW Indian monsoon with suitable diagram.
5. Answer any two questions : 14

1) Describe the planetary winds with schematic diagram.
2) State the structure of atmosphere with diagram.
3) State the global heat budget with suitable diagram.

*SLRC53* SLR-C 53
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY (Paper IV) (New)
Oceanography

2) Draw neat diagrams and maps wherever necessary.

1) _________ is a very deep trench in Pacific Ocean.
A) Mariyana B) Sunda C) Tonga D) Qurail
2) _________ is the branch of physical geography.
A) Economic geography B) Political geography
C) Oceanography D) Population geography
3) Isohalines are the lines showing the distribution of
A) Temperature B) Depth C) Salinity D) Height
4) The Gulf Stream ocean current flows in
A) Indian Ocean B) Atlantic Ocean
C) Pacific Ocean D) Arctic Ocean
5) The shallow stretch of ocean floor adjoining land is known as
A) Continental Slope B) Continental Shelf
C) Abyssal Plain D) Ocean Deep
6) Sunda trench is located in _________ ocean.
A) Indian Ocean B) Atlantic Ocean
C) Pacific Ocean D) Arctic Ocean
7) Canary current flows along
A) West Africa B) East Africa
C) North West America D) North Europe
P.T.O.
SLR-C 53 -2- *SLRC53*
8) Salinity is expressed in terms of amount _________ per thousand.

A) Kilometer B) Gram C) Second D) Quintal
9) The top part of sea wave is called as
A) Trough B) Cyclone C) Crest D) Neap tide
10) Great Barrier Reef is found along the _________ coast of Australia.
A) East B) West C) South D) North
11) Glacial control theory of coral formation introduced by
A) Davis B) Murray C) Daly D) Darwin
12) Labrador ocean current is _________ type of current.
A) Cold B) Warm C) Very cold D) Very warm
13) Average salinity of ocean and sea is
A) 35% B) 39% C) 30% D) 45%
14) The salinity of Dead Sea is _________ %.
A) 330 B) 238 C) 240 D) 220
2. Write in brief (any seven) : 14

1) State the currents of the Atlantic Ocean.
2) What is the ocean currents ?
3) What is Sargasso ?
4) State the types of coral reefs.
5) State the types of tides.
6) State the types of the ocean currents.
7) State the types of sea waves.
8) Types of the terrigenous deposits.
9) What is Oceanography ?
3. A) Write in brief answers (any two) : 10

1) Describe the ocean currents in the Pacific Ocean.
2) Write an account of the factors affecting the temperature of sea and oceans.
3) Describe the importance of oceanography.
B) Draw a neat diagram the surface configuration of ocean floor. 4
*SLRC53* -3- SLR-C 53
4. Write in short (any two) : 14

1) Describe the various factors affecting the salinity of sea and ocean.
2) Describe classification of ocean deposits.
3) Explain the theories of coral formation with suitable examples.
5. Write answers of any two questions : 14

1) Describe various types of coral reefs in detail.
2) Explain the distribution of salinity in the sea and ocean water.
3) Describe the factors affecting on ocean currents.
___________

*SLRC54* SLR-C 54
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester II) (New CBCS) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY (Paper III)
Animal Diversity II

1. Select the appropriate answer for each of the following and complete the sentence. 14
1) Amphioxus belongs to phylum
a) Urochordata b) Cephalochordata
c) Herdmania d) Tunicata
2) The larva of Petromyzon is called _________ larva.
a) fusiform b) tadpole c) axolotl d) ammocoetus
3) In Labeo _________ scales are present.
a) Cycloid b) Ctenoid c) Ganoid d) Placoid
4) Heterocircle tail is found in
a) Labeo b) Tilapia c) Scoliodon d) Rohu
5) Bile of frog is _________ in nature.
a) alkaline b) acidic c) both a and b d) neutral
6) __________ are phagocytic in function.
a) Leucocytes b) Thrombocytes
c) Blood platelets d) Erythrocytes
7) __________ respiration in frog is called as cutaneous respiration.
a) Lung b) Gill c) Buccal d) Skin
8) Digestion in stomach is called as _________ digestion.
a) gastric b) hepatic c) renal d) intestinal
P.T.O.
SLR-C 54 -2- *SLRC54*
9) Three chamber heart is present in

a) Amphioxus b) Labeo c) Frog d) Scoliodon
10) Male frog shows presence of
a) Vocal sacs b) neck c) tail d) all the above
11) In _________ jaws and paired appendages are absent.
a) frog b) cyclostomates
c) labeo d) scoliodon
12) All gills in Labeo are
a) Abranch b) Hemibranch
c) Demibranch d) Holobranch
13) Frog is __________ animal.
a) ureotelic b) aminotelic c) iodotelic d) uricotelic
14) Axolotl larva is example of
a) regeneration b) mimicry c) comuflage d) neotany
2. Write short notes on (any seven). 14

1) Salient features of Pisces.
2) Functions of fins in fishes.
3) Sperm of frog.
4) Placoid scales.
5) Pancreatic juice of frog.
6) Tongue of frog.
7) Neotany.
8) WBCs of frog.
9) Parental care in Amphibia.
3. A) Attempt any two of the following. 10

1) Describe the digestion in stomach of frog.
2) External structure of heart of frog.
3) Describe Ammocoetus larva.
B) Functions of liver. 4
*SLRC54* -3- SLR-C 54
4. Answer any two of the following. 14

1) Describe the skin respiration in frog.
2) Give general characters of cyclostomes.
3) Describe the brain of frog.

1) Describe excretory system of frog.
2) Describe the structure of gill in bony fish and add a note on mechanism of
gill respiration.
3) Describe female reproductive system of frog.
_______________
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Paper – IV) (New CBCS Pattern)
(Ecology, Ethology, Evolution and Applied Zoology)
Instructions : 1) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

3) All questions are compulsory and are equal marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct answer from given alternatives. 14
1) The study of animal behavior is called ______________
a) Ecology b) Evolution
c) Ethology d) Applied zoology
2) ______________ mode of communication in honey bees.

a) Migration b) Swarming
c) Waggling d) Wriggling
3) The orderly changes and a modification in an environment is called ______________

a) Procession b) Succession
c) Petrification d) Mutation
4) ______________ are decomposers of an ecosystem.

a) Microorganisms b) Carnivores
c) Herbivores d) Consumers
5) The cultivation of oysters is called ______________

a) Lac-culture b) Apiculture
c) Pearl culture d) Sericulture
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 55 -2- *SLRC55*
6) ______________ is an example of palaeontological evidence of evolution.

a) Long neck in Giraffe b) Limb bones
c) Archaeopteryx d) Vestigial organs
7) The proportion of queen, drone and worker bees in an ideal bee hive
is ______________
a) 1 : 10 : 10 b) 1 : 10 : 100
c) 1 : 1 : 100 d) 1 : 1 : 10
8) The domestication of milk producing animals are called ______________

a) Dairy science b) Goat farming
c) Piggary d) Vermiculture
9) ______________ is a good example of camouflage.

a) Stick insect b) Butterfly
c) Chameleon d) Moth
10) The extract of vermiculture is called ______________

a) Vermicompost b) Vermiwash
c) Vermin d) Vermicomponent
11) ______________ is a social insect.

a) Silk moth b) Butterfly
c) Lac insect d) Honey bee
12) In a food chain ______________ are primary producers.

a) Plants b) Micro organisms
c) Animals d) Higher animals
13) ______________ is basic source of energy in biological world.

a) Temperature b) Sunlight
c) Soil d) Water
14) Silk is valuable product of ______________

a) Sericulture b) Apiculture
c) Lac culture d) Pisciculture
*SLRC55* -3- SLR-C – 55
2. Answer any seven of the followings : 14
i) Ethology.
ii) Groupism in animals.
iii) Biosphere.
iv) Secondary succession.
v) Communication in honey bees.
vi) Lamarckism.
vii) Pearl culture.
viii) Poultry Science.
ix) Fishery.
3. A) Answer any two of the followings : 10
i) Describe camouflage in chameleon.
ii) Describe in brief an anatomical evidences of evolution.
iii) Describe the ecological pyramids.
B) Describe the grass land ecosystem. 4
4. Answer any two of the followings : 14

i) What is vermitechnology ? Describe vermicompost and vermiwash.
ii) Describe interspecific groupism.
iii) What is ecological succession ?

i) Describe the castes and their duties of honey bees in a bee hive.
ii) Define evolution. Describe palaeontological evidences of evolution.
iii) Describe courtship behavior in birds.
___________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (New CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

BOTANY (Paper – III)
Mycology and Phytopathology
N.B.: 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams whenever necessary.
alternatives : 14
1) The branch of botany which deals with the study of _____________ is called
as mycology.
a) Bacteria b) Fungi
c) Algae d) Gymnosperm
2) ____________ is used for commercial production of ethanol.

a) Mushroom b) Yeast
c) Albugo d) Rust
3) Mucor belongs to class ____________

a) Zygomycetes b) Omycetes
c) Ascomycetes d) Basidiomycetes
4) Albugo is ___________ fungi.

a) Obligate parasite b) Facultative parasite
c) Saprophyte d) None of the above
5) Ascospores are produced within sac like structure is called ___________

a) Asci b) Basidium
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 56 -2- *SLRC56*
6) ______________ is popularly called backer’s yeast.

a) Albugo b) Mucor
c) Saccharomyces d) None of the above
7) Lichen is an association of ______________

a) Algae and bacteria b) Fungi and virus
c) Algae and fungi d) Fungi and cycas
8) The fungal component of lichen is called as _____________

a) Mycobiont b) Phycobiont
c) Photobiont d) None of the above
9) ______________ fungi in the association of Roots.

a) Mucor b) Trichoderma
c) Mycorrhiza d) Fusarium
10) The pathogenic fungi used for the control of pest are called _____________
a) Bacterial pesticide b) Viral pesticide
c) Mycopesticide d) Nematode pesticide
11) _____________ fungi used to control citrus mites.

a) Nomuraea sp. b) Verticillium lacani
c) Beauveria bassiana d) Hirsutella thompsoni
12) Pathology related to plant is called _____________

a) Virology b) Bacteriology
c) Mycology d) None of the above
13) Little leaf of Brinjal is _____________

a) Seed born disease b) Air born disease
c) Viral disease d) Graft transmissible disease
14) Plant viruses spread from plant to plant by _____________

a) Human being b) Air
c) Cattles d) None of the above
*SLRC56* -3- SLR-C – 56

1) What are fungi ?
2) Write the classification of Mucor.
3) Sketch and label thallus structure of Saccharomyces.
4) What is Lichen ?
5) What is plant pathology ?
6) What is mycopesticide ?
7) Write the host and causal organism of citrus canker.
8) Write the causal organism of Grain smut of Jowar.
9) Write the symptoms of Little leaf of Brinjal (any four).

1) Write the general characteristics of fungi.
2) Write the Asexual reproduction in Mucor.
3) Write the economic importance of Lichen.
B) Explain the role of fungi in industry. 4

1) Explain the reproduction in Saccharomyces.
2) Write the significance of mycorrhiza.
3) Write the symptoms and control measures of yellow vain mosaic of Bhendi.
1) Explain the reproduction in Albugo.
2) Write the mode of disease transmission.
3) Write the symptoms and control measures of Grain smut of Jowar.

___________________
*SLRC57* SLR-C 57
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Paper IV)
Archegoniate (Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperm)

2) Draw neat and labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
alternatives. 14
1) The root and stem have well developed vascular system in __________ plants.
a) Algal b) Fungal
c) Bryophytic d) Pteridophytic
2) Sporophyte of Riccia is formed only from _____________

a) Foot b) Seta c) Capsule d) Scale
3) Development of sporangium like leptosporangiate nature is start from a

__________ cell.
a) Single b) Two
c) Group of d) Both a and b
4) In coralloid root of Cycas, the blue green algal zone is occurred in __________
cortex.
a) Inner b) Middle c) Outer d) Peripheral
5) Selaginella plant belongs to order _____________

a) Psilophyta b) Lepidophyta
c) Calamophyta d) Pterophyta
P.T.O.
SLR-C 57 -2- *SLRC57*
6) Aquatic member of pteridophyta is a ___________ plant.

a) Psilotum b) Marsilea
c) Lycopodium d) Angiopteris
7) Rhizophor of Selaginella arise from the stem at the point of

a) Dichotomy b) Terminal end
c) Basal region d) Internode
8) In Cycas rachis, vasculae bundles are arranged in ground tissue like

__________ shaped.
a) Horse-shoe b) Omega c) Circular d) Triangular
9) Sexual reproduction in archegoniate plant group is __________ type.

a) Isogamous b) Anisogamous
c) Oogamous d) Both a and b
10) Gametophytic phase of Riccia is __________ stage.

a) Haploid b) Diploid
c) Triploid d) Polyploid
11) Gametophyte of Riccia can not be formed _____________ region.

a) Epidermal b) Photosynthetic
c) Storage d) Conducting
12) Sporophytic phase of archegoniate plant group is start from initial cell like
____________
a) Zygote b) Microspore mother cell
c) Megaspore mother cell d) Egg
13) Riccia belongs to order __________

a) Anthocerotales b) Marchantiales
c) Sphagnales d) Calobryales
14) Selaginella stem shows radially elongated endodermal cells are __________
a) Trabeculae b) Medullary rays
c) Ray initial d) All of these
*SLRC57* -3- SLR-C 57

I) Sketch and label megasporophyll of Cycas.
II) What is sporophyte ?
III) Cyclic representation of alternation of generation in bryophyta.
IV) Give the systematic position of Selaginella.
V) Give the function of scaly leaves of Cycas.
VI) Write occurrence of Riccia.
VII) Give the function of rhizoids in Riccia.
VIII) Comment on rhizophore.
IX) Give the economic importance of bryophyta.

I) Give the outline of classification of gymnosperm proposed by Sporne.
II) Describe the external morphology of Selaginella sporophyte.
III) Explain the structure of antheridium of Riccia.
B) Give the general characters of Pteridophyta. 4
I) Describe the structure of T.S. of Selaginella stem.
II) Explain the structure of male cone of Cycas. Add a note on external
morphology of pollen grain of Cycas.
III) Give unifying general characters of archegoniates.
I) Give economic importance of gymnosperm.
II) Give the outline of classification of pteridophyta proposed by GM Smith.
III) Describe the external morphology of Riccia thallus.

_____________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) (New) (CBCS-Pattern)

Examination, 2017
PSYCHOLOGY
General Psychology (Paper – III)

1) ______________ should not be confused with character.

A) Personality B) Soul
C) Self D) Stress
2) _____________ is the unique way in which each individual throughout life.

A) Personality B) Soul
C) Self D) Stress
3) The ______________ perspective had its beginnings in the work of Freud.

A) Mind B) Psychoanalytic
C) Mental D) Social
4) ___________ getting information that is in storage into a form that can be

used.
A) Memory B) Retrieval
C) Age D) IQ
5) Freud believed that the mind was divided into _______________ parts.
A) Two B) Four
C) Three D) Six
6) Freud developed his ideas about _____________

A) Mind B) Society C) Personality D) Happiness
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 58 -2- *SLRC58*
7) Information is encoding into ________________ as neural message in the
nervous system.
A) Sensory memory B) Explanation
C) Disorder D) Prediction
8) There are _____________ kinds of sensory memory.

A) Two B) Four C) Six D) Eight
9) Icon is the _____________ word for image.

A) India B) Greek C) France D) USA
10) Iconic was studied in several classic experiments by Sperling.

A) Emotion B) Memory
C) Motivation D) Stress
11) _____________ is the ability to access a visual memory for 30 seconds or

more.
A) Acetylcholine B) GABA
C) Eidetic imagery D) Happiness
12) Echoic memories is the brief ________________ of something a person has

just heard.
A) Antagonists B) Cognitions
C) Memory D) Anxiety
13) ______________ saw intelligence as two different abilities.

A) Spearman B) Skinner C) Gardner D) Terman
14) Gardner has theorized that there are three kinds of _____________
A) Emotion B) Motivation
C) Intelligence D) Stress
2. Answer the following (Any seven) : 14

1) Define psychoanalysis.
2) Define psychosexual development.
3) Define forgetting.
4) How many types of memory ?
5) Define selective memory.
*SLRC58* -3- SLR-C – 58
6) Define storage.
7) Define personality.
8) Who developed psychoanalysis ?
9) Who was the founder of IQ test ?
3. A) Short Notes (Any two) 10

1) Parallel Distributed Processing Model.
2) Sensory Memory.
3) Decay theory.
B) Discuss on Long Term Memory. 4
4. Answer the following. (Any two) : 14

1) Discuss on Divisions of mind.
2) Explain the stages of personality development.
3) Explain the Instinct Approach.
5. Answer the following. (Any two) : 14

1) Explain the Humanistic approach.
2) Explain the Arousal Approach.
3) Explain the Short term memory.
––––––––––––––––––––
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (New CBCS) Examination, 2017

GEOLOGY (Paper – III)
Introduction to General Geology

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answers from the given options. 14
1) The solar system travels at a speed of _____________ kps around the centre
of galaxy.
a) 200 b) 240
c) 280 d) 300
2) The core of the galaxy is _____________

a) Corona b) Halo
c) Gas nebulae d) Black hole
3) The first four planets from sun are known as _____________

a) Terrestrial planets b) Outer planets
c) Giant planets d) Minor planets
4) _____________ is the first planet from sun.

a) Earth b) Mars
c) Jupiter d) Mercury
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 59 -2- *SLRC59*
5) ______________ is the largest and massive planet is solar system.

a) Jupiter b) Mercury
c) Mars d) Earth
6) The density of earth is ______________ gm\cc.
a) 5.5 b) 6.5
c) 7.5 d) 8.5
7) On ___________ days and night will be equal in duration.
a) 25 March b) 21 March
c) 21 April d) 21 May
8) The planetesimal hypothesis was postulated by _____________
a) Kant b) Kant and Laplace
c) Chamberlin d) Chamberlin and Moulton
9) The average depth of the ocean below sea level is ____________ km.
a) 3.3 b) 4.3
c) 5.3 d) 6.3
10) ___________ is the third order oceanic feature.
a) Island arc b) Continental margin
c) Continental slope d) Stable platform
11) The volcanic liquid product may be ___________
a) Acidic lava b) Intermediate lava
c) Basic lava d) All of these
12) The example of fissure eruption is the ____________
a) Archean trap b) Deccan trap
c) Cuddapah trap d) Dharwar formation
13) About 80% of the worlds earthquake occur in the _____________
a) Circum pacific belt b) Alpine Himalayan belt
c) Rift valley region d) None of these
14) The mantle is the second layer of the earth with a volume of ___________
percent.
a) 60 b) 70
c) 82 d) 90
*SLRC59* -3- SLR-C – 59
1) Equinox.
2) Nebulae.
3) Members of solar system.
4) Rotation of Earth.
5) Lowest and highest point on the earth surface.
6) Name the earthquake belt.
7) Focus.
8) Corona discontinuity.
9) Geysers.

1) Explain Size and Shape of earth.
2) Explain Structure of Galaxies.
3) Explain Biosphere.
B) Write note on : 4
Seismogram.
1) Distribution and description of 3rd order relief features.

2) Explain crust, mantle and core.
3) Explain Fissure and Central type of Volcano.
1) Explain products of Volcano.
2) Describe Nebular hypothesis.
3) Explain effects of earthquake.

___________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (New CBCS) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY
Paper No. – III
Microbial Biochemistry and Physiology
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Draw neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from the given alternatives. 14
1) A pentose sugar is ______________

a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Ribulose d) Lactose
2) Glycosidic bond in maltose is

a) α 1-4 b) β 1-4 c) α 1-2 d) β 1-2
3) An enzyme is generally named by adding _____________ to the end of the

name of the _____________
a) “–ase”. Coenzyme b) “–ase”. cell in which it is found
c) “–ose”. substrate. d) “–ase”. substrate
4) A disaccharide linked by β 1-4 Glycoside linkages is _____________

a) Lactose b) Sucrose
c) Cellulose d) Maltose
5) Proteins contain ____________

a) Only L – α -amino acids b) Only D-amino acids
c) DL-Amino acids d) Both (a) and (b)
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 60 -2- *SLRC60*
6) The bond present in the primary structure of protein is _______________

a) Ester b) Hydrogen
c) Ionic bond d) Peptide
7) All the following are high energy compounds except _____________

a) ATP b) GTP
c) Both ATP and GTP d) Glucose
8) Nitrogen source for growth is provided by _______________ in culture media.

a) Starch b) NaCl
c) Blood d) Peptone
9) The nitrogen base absent in DNA is ______________

a) Thymine b) Adenine
c) Cytosine d) Uracil
10) The anticodon region is an important structural component of _____________

a) m-RNA b) t-RNA
c) r-RNA d) DNA
11) Lag phase is also known as _____________ phase.

a) Latent b) Exponential
c) Steady d) Decline
12) When bacteria are cultured in a medium, ___________ phase occurs first.
a) Death b) Stationary
c) Exponential d) Lag
13) Amylase is an example of _____________

a) Intracellular b) Extracellular
c) Apoenzyme d) Coenzyme
14) Enzymes are largely _______________ in their chemical nature.

a) Lipids b) Steroids
c) Protein d) All a, b and c
*SLRC60* -3- SLR-C – 60
2. Solve any seven of the following (out of 9). 14

1) What are coenzymes ?
2) How temperature affects the enzyme activity ?
3) What is the function of rRNA ?
4) What is apoenzyme ?
5) What is the role of NaCl in media ?
6) Define growth in bacteria.
7) What do you mean by anabolism ?
8) Name the indicators used in culture media.
9) Which monomers are present in lactose sugar ?
3. A) Attempt any 2. 10
1) Growth phases of bacteria.
2) Lock and key hypothesis.
3) High energy compounds.
B) Types of enzymes. 4
4. Attempt any 2. 14
1) Structure of DNA.
2) Nutritional types of microorganisms based on carbon and energy sources.
3) TCA cycle.
5. Attempt any 2. 14
1) Factors affecting enzyme activity.
2) EMP pathway.
3) Structure of proteins.
___________________

*SLRC61* SLR-C 61
Seat
No.

PSYCHOLOGY
Paper IV : Human Development

1. Write multiple choice. 14

1) ________ theory of adult development to the notion of life course.
a) Gould b) Levinson c) Croufer d) Frued
2) _________ age most people developed improved relationship with their
parents.
a) Adult b) Old c) Middle d) Any other
3) The _________ are major traits termed as the NEO model of personality.
a) five b) three c) four d) six
4) A _________ development a life stage theory of career development.
a) Erikson b) Giften c) Super d) Any other
5) Our each of the five senses undergoes change
a) Early adulthood b) Late adulthood
c) Middle age d) Childhood
6) _________ percent of American get married at their lives in early adulthood.
a) 90 b) 95 c) 80 d) 75
7) __________ is equally important to Levinson theory.
a) Life span b) Life structure c) Life style d) Any other
8) The ___________ stage is associated primary with early adulthood.
a) Exploitation b) Exploration c) Observation d) Any other
P.T.O.
SLR-C 61 -2- *SLRC61*
9) The _________ of Erikson crisis is the major issue of young adulthood is

intimacy Vs Isolation.
a) Third b) Sixth c) Fifth d) Seven
10) _________ sensitivity begins to decline at about age 50.

a) Vision b) Taste c) Audition d) Any other
11) According to _________ wisdom defined as the ability to make the best
choices in life.
a) Peak b) Stark c) Troll d) Jung
12) _________ people need more middle care than younger ones.
a) Middle aged b) Older c) Elder d) Children
13) __________ means people should work hard to develop character.

a) Work ethic b) Group ethic
c) Work character d) Any other
14) A job that depends on mature judgement may be better handled by an

a) young person b) older person
c) adult person d) any other
2. Write answer in short (any seven) : 14
1) Which is the main problems of middle aged adult women ?
2) What is meant by Trait theories ?
3) Write types of marriage.
4) What is approximate age of middle age ?
5) Give the name of five senses which change in late adulthood.
6) Which is best indicator of sibling relationship ?
7) Which therapy can be used to after relief to woman in relation to menopause ?
8) Definition Divorce.
9) What is Death of a spouse ?

*SLRC61* -3- SLR-C 61
3. A) Write short notes (any two). 10

1) Sexuality in young adulthood.
2) Smell, Taste, Touch in late adulthood.
3) Cognitive development in late adulthood.
B) Explain health status and problems in middle age. 4

A) Describe physical change in old age.
B) Describe the normative-crisis model in middle adulthood.
C) Explain the pattern work in middle adulthood.
5. Answer any one of the following. 14
A) Explain the Health problem in late adulthood.

OR
B) Explain the physical development in middle adulthood.
_______________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Semester – II) (New – CBCS Pattern) Examination, 2017

GEOLOGY
Paper – IV : Introduction to Physical Geology
1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer given in the options : 14

1) Wind flows from __________ pressure zone.
a) high to high b) high to low
c) low to low d) down
2) Blowing away of large volume of sand from one place to other forming
depression is __________
a) pavement b) deflation
c) flow d) deflation basin
3) Rocks covering the surface of deflation basin is deflation __________
a) armor b) hollow
c) basin d) mushroom
4) Collision of sand particles in air causes __________
a) attrition b) traction
c) saltation d) suspension
5) Pedestal rocks are also called as __________
a) mushroom rocks b) yardangs
c) ventifacts d) piller
6) Major depositional features of wind are ___________
a) dunes b) yardang
c) ventifacts d) mushroom rocks
7) Frost action is type of __________
a) transportation b) weathering
c) agent of weathering d) product of weathering
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 62 -2- *SLRC62*
8) Exfoliation is seen in ____________
a) Garnet b) Basalt
c) Granite d) Spheroidal weathering
9) Basalt commonly shows __________
a) exfoliation b) spheroidal weathering
c) plucking d) striations
10) River piracy is caused due to _________ erosion.
a) forward b) upside
c) downward d) headward
11) Water falling from great heights is called ____________
a) Water falls b) Jog falls
c) Nigera falls d) Rapid
12) In the rocks of river bed, _________ is formed due to water falls.
a) dunes b) bars
c) plunge pool d) holes
13) River water flowing speedily on steep slope forms __________
a) water falls b) cascade
c) rapid d) fall
14) Network of ridges formed due to deposition of sediments by glaciers are
_________
a) Comb b) Kems
c) Drumlins d) Eskers

1) What is soil profile ?
2) What is desert ?
3) What is River ?
4) Define Sea.
5) Define wind.
*SLRC62* -3- SLR-C – 62
6) Define glacier.
7) Define soil.
8) Define Regolith.
9) Define scree.

1) Describe Cliff and Talus. Draw figures.
2) Describe Endogenic earth processes.
3) Describe Exogenic earth process.
B) Write any one of the following : 4
1) Describe Natural Levee. Draw diagram.
2) Describe Mushroom rocks. Draw diagram.

1) Describe depositional features of glaciers.
2) Describe depositional features of river.
3) Describe Erosional features of wind.

1) Describe transportation process of wind.
2) Describe agents of weathering.
3) Describe differential weathering. Draw figure. Give two examples.
__________________
*SLRC63* SLR-C 63
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Sem. II) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper IV)
Applied Microbiology

1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer from given

alternatives : 14
i) The presumptive test for coliforms is done in multiple tubes of ________
broth.
a) Nutrient b) Thioglycolate c) Tryptone d) Lactose
ii) The development of metallic sheen on EMB agar is because of ________
stain.
a) Basic fuchsin b) New fuchsin c) Carbol fuchsin d) Acid fuchsin
iii) _________ test confirms the formation of 2, 3-butanediol from glucose.
a) Indole b) Methyl Red
c) Voges Proskauer d) Citrate
iv) At the pH value of ____________ the resazurin dye shows purple colour.
a) above 6.5 b) 6.5 c) 7.0 d) 7.2
v) _________ is used for the primary treatment of sewage.
a) Settling tank b) Digestor c) Bed d) Trickling filter
vi) The formation of film is characteristic of _________ filtration process.
a) Slow sand b) Trickling c) Membrane d) Rapid sand
vii) _________ protein is chiefly present in milk.
a) Gelatin b) Gluten c) Casein d) Hemoglobin
viii) The non-living objects that are involved in transmission of diseases are
commonly known as
a) Vector b) Vehicle c) Fomites d) Carrier
P.T.O.
SLR-C 63 -2- *SLRC63*
ix) The infection persisting for longer time is called _________ infection.
a) Chronic b) Acute c) Recurrent d) Systemic
x) The LTH method of pasteurisation employes ____________ temperature.
a) 65° C b) 45° C
c) 71° C d) 62.8° C
xi) The time period from entry of pathogen to appearance of symptoms is called
__________ period.
a) Incubation b) Maturation
c) Latent d) Eclipse
xii) An individual carrying a pathogen without showing symptoms is known as
a) Carrier b) Fomite
c) Vector d) Vehicle
xiii) Secondary sewage treatment is _________ process.
a) Chemical b) Physical
c) Physicochemical d) Biological
xiv) The purification of water uses _________ gas.
a) NH3 b) SO2 c) NO2 d) Cl2
2. Answer in short (any seven) : 14

i) Write on sources of microorganisms in water.
ii) Define coliform.
iii) Write full form of IMVIC.
iv) What is B.O.D. ?
v) Define virulence.
vi) What is pandemic disease ?
vii) What is active immunity ?
viii) Write on composition of milk.
ix) Define pasteurisation.
*SLRC63* -3- SLR-C 63
3. A) Answer in short (any two) : 10

i) Give an account of sources of contamination of milk.
ii) Write on transmission of diseases by ingestion method.
iii) Write on primary treatment of sewage.
B) Write on pasteurisation of milk. 4
4. Attempt any two : 14

i) Give an account of purification of water.
ii) Write on prophylactic measures for microbial disease.
iii) Give an account of transmission of diseases by contact and inhalation method.

i) Give an account of IMVIC and Ejkmans test.
ii) Write on microbial examination of milk.
iii) Write on secondary and tertiary treatment of sewage.

*SLRC64* SLR-C 64
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester II) (Old) Examination, 2017

ENGLISH (Compulsory) (CGPA Pattern)
On Track English Skills for Success

1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct alternatives given below them. 14
1) Vivekananda reached Chicago in the month of
a) September b) February c) December d) July
2) J. H. Wright was
a) A Professor at Harvard University
b) A Professor at Oxford University
c) A Professor at Cambridge University
d) None of the above
3) ____________ represented the Buddhists of Ceylon at Parliament of Religion
in Chicago.
a) Annie Besant b) Protap Chunder Mozoomdar
c) Chakravarti d) Dharmapala
4) According to Palkhivala, violations of economic needs occur from
a) Draught b) Natural disaster
c) Ignorance d) Negligence
5) _________ noted that there are more than two hundred definitions of liberty.
a) Paul Sieghart b) Jerome Shestack
c) Isaiah Berlin d) None of the above
6) _________ missile devastated London in World War II.
a) V2 b) Jupiter c) Agni d) None of the above
7) Wernher von Braun became a cult figure in
a) America b) Germany c) France d) Russia
P.T.O.
SLR-C 64 -2- *SLRC64*
8) The poem Full Moon is written by

a) Robert Hayden b) W. B. Yeats
c) Sarojini Naidu d) Ralph Waldo Emerson
9) The phrase bubble house refers to
a) The sun b) The moon c) Mars d) Earth
10) In the poem Brahma, red slayer refers to
a) Member of military in the Kshatriya caste system
b) A member of army of maharaja
c) A member of ministry of state
11) Abhishek is talking about _________ own brother.
a) its b) her c) his d) it
12) The words clockwise and anti-clockwise are
a) Antonyms b) Synonyms
c) Homophones d) Homographs
13) The words meat and meet are
a) Homophones b) Homographs
c) Homonyms d) Antonyms
14) He thinks his car is as _________ as yours.
a) Fast b) Faster
c) Fastest d) None of the above
2. Answer any seven of the following question : 14

1) In Paul Siegharts opinion, which society can be called civilized ?
2) What is the effect of broadbanding of human rights ?
3) What is the vanishing act Palkhivala writes about ?
4) What did Vivekananda discover at Information Bureau of the Exposition ?
5) Describe Vivekanandas journey from Mumbai to Chicago.
6) What did Maharaja of Khetri give Vivekananda ?
7) What advice did Wernher von Braun give to Dr. Kalam ?
8) What does Dr. Kalam mean by flow ?
*SLRC64* -3- SLR-C 64
3. A) Answer any two of the following questions : 8

1) What is the message of the poem Brahma ?
2) Is the moon depicted as a challenge or a threat or a comfort in the poem ?
3) Who were watchers of the moon ? What happened to them ?
B) Answer any two of the following questions : 6

1) Your college is organising an essay competition. Write a notice informing
the students about the competition, giving details such as day, date, time
and venue of the competition.
2) What is an agenda ?
3) What is email ?

A) You are secretary of the Students Union in your college. The Students Union
is organising a blood donation camp in the college. Write a notice and agenda
of the meeting. Imagine all the details.
B) You have got an email letter offering job of probationary officer in a nationalised
bank. Write an email letter accepting the offer.
5. Prepare a suitable C.V. for the post of the lecturer in English in a junior college in
your city. 14

*SLRC65* SLR-C 65
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (CGPA) (Old) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY (Paper II)
Organic Chemistry and Analytical Chemistry

2) Draw neat diagrams and give equations wherever necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic table and calculator is allowed.
[Atomic weight : H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]
SECTION I
(Organic Chemistry)
1. Choose the correct alternatives for each of the following and rewrite sentences. 5
i) Nitrenes are ___________
a) Monovalent b) Divalent c) Trivalent d) Tetravalent
ii) Geometrical isomerism can be shown by compounds having ___________
a) C = C b) C = N c) Ring d) All of these
iii) Cycloalkanes are isomeric with ___________
a) Alkanes b) Alkenes c) Alkynes d) Dienes
iv) The C
C bond length in acetylene is ___________
a) 1.20 b) 1.34 c) 1.54 d) 1.09

) ) ) )
v) Aromaticity is explained by _________ rule.

a) Huckels b) Hunds c) Phase d) Markownikoffs

i) Why alkynes are acidic in nature ?
ii) What is plane polarised light ? How is it obtained ?
iii) Explain ozonolysis reaction of ethene.
iv) State and explain Markownikoffs rule.
P.T.O.
SLR-C 65 -2- *SLRC65*
v) What are dienes? Write their general formula.

vi) Define and explain addition reaction.
vii) Write different types of arrows with their significance.

i) What are reagents ? Discuss different types of reagents with suitable
examples.
ii) What are optical isomers ? Explain optical isomerism in Lactic acid.
iii) What are alkanes ? Write any two methods for preparation of alkanes.
i) What is aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions ? Explain Frieldel Crafts
alkylation and acylation reactions.
ii) Define bond length, bond angle, and bond energy. Describe effect of sp,
sp2 and sp3, hybridisation on bond length, bond angle and bond energy.
SECTION II
(Analytical Chemistry)
i) Parachor is defined as the molecular volume of a liquid when its __________
is unity.
a) dipole b) viscosity
c) surface tension d) none of these
ii) Which of the following is not a quantitative method ?
a) Carius b) Lassaigens c) Kjeldahls d) Liebigs combustion
iii) When salt of calcium and magnesium are present in water it is known as
_________ water.
a) soft b) neutral c) hard d) acetic
iv) The percentage of carbon in cast iron is ____________ %.
a) 2.5 4.0 b) 0.5 2.5 c) 4.0 5.0 d) 5.0 6.5
v) The greenhouse effect is observed due to presence of large amount of
__________ in the atmosphere.
a) CO b) CO2 c) NO2 d) SO2
*SLRC65* -3- SLR-C 65

i) What are the products of blast furnace in the reduction of iron ?
ii) What are the source of oxides of carbon ?
iii) Define the term :
i) Desalination
ii) Biological oxygen demand.
iv) What are additive and constitutive properties ?
v) Give the reaction occurring while testing nitrogen and sulphur together.
vi) What are antacids ? Name four antacid compounds.
vii) Give the classification of air pollutants.

i) Write short note on fresh water.
ii) Froth flotation process.
iii) Explain how the distribution law is modified when the solute undergoes
association and dissociation in one of the solvent.
i) What is surface tension ? Explain the principle of drop weight method and
describe for determination of surface tension.
ii) An organic compound (mol. wt. 180) contains 38.94% carbon and 6.72%
hydrogen find its molecular formula.

Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) (CGPA) (Old) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Paper – II)
Heat and Thermodynamics, Electricity, Magnetism and Basic
Electronics
Time : 2½ Hours Max. Marks : (35+35=70)

4) Use of logarithmic table/calculator is allowed.
SECTION – I
(Heat and Thermodynamics)

i) The zeroth law of thermodynamics leads to the definition of
a) pressure b) volume c) temperature d) entropy
ii) A short straight line distance between two successive collisions is called
a) Mean free path b) Free path
c) Straight path d) Average path
iii) The temperature at which Joule Thomson effect changes its sign is called
a) Critical temperature b) Threshold temperature
c) Low temperature d) Inversion temperature
iv) In refrigerator, liquefied gas used is
a) Ammonia b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen d) Helium
v) The efficiency of heat engine working between temperatures 27°C and 327°C is
a) 0.6 b) 0.5 c) 0.4 d) 0.3
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 66 -2- *SLRC66*
i) State the first law of thermodynamics.
ii) Draw a neat diagram of adiabatic demagnetization.
iii) Give the comparison between diesel engine and otto engine.
iv) Show that the entropy increases during irreversible process.
v) What is air conditioning ? State the factors affecting air conditioning.
vi) Explain the effect of temperature on coefficient of viscosity.
vii) Give the conditions of reversible process.

i) Define isothermal change and obtain an expression for work done during
this change.
ii) Explain Linde’s air liquefier.
iii) Explain refrigeration cycle and obtain an expression for coefficient of
performance.

i) Explain the working of otto engine and obtain an expression for its efficiency.
ii) Define thermal conductivity and obtain an expression for the coefficient of
thermal conductivity.
Calculate the coefficient of thermal conductivity of a gas having specific
heat 104 J/kg°K. (Coefficient of viscosity = 8.6 × 10–5 poise).
SECTION – II
(Electricity, Magnetism and Basic Electronics)

i) Current through LR circuit when it decays is given by the equation
R
− t ⎛ − t⎞
R
a) I = I0 e L b) I = I0 ⎜⎜ 1 − e C ⎟⎟
⎝ ⎠
⎛ − t⎞
R R
− t
c) I = I0 ⎜⎜ 1 + e L ⎟⎟ d) I = I0 e C
⎝ ⎠
*SLRC66* -3- SLR-C – 66
ii) In a purely capacitive circuit, the phase of the alternating current, over the
applied e.m.f. is
a) Lags by π / 2 b) Leads by π / 2
c) Is out of phase d) In phase
iii) The time period of oscillations of a ballistic galvanometer is given by the

formula
a) T = 2 π I0K b) T = 2 πI0K
c) T = 2 πI02K 2 d) T = 2 π I0 / K
iv) What is the breakdown voltage of a diode ?

a) The reverse voltage at which reverse current increases rapidly
b) The forward voltage at which the forward current increases rapidly
c) The voltage at which the diode burns
d) None of these
v) When both the junctions of a transistor are forward biased, the transistor
operates in
a) Cut-off region b) Active region
c) Saturation region d) Forbidden region
i) Define the time constant in LR circuit.
ii) What is j operator ? Find the magnitude of complex conjugate (4+3j).
iii) Distinguish between deadbeat galvanometer and ballistic galvanometer.
iv) Define current and voltage sensitivity of a ballistic galvanometer. What is its
unit ?
v) What is clipping circuit ? Explain how positive clipper works.
vi) Draw the circuit diagram of common emitter amplifier.
vii) State advantage of Bridge rectifier.

SLR-C – 66 -4- *SLRC66*
i) What is clamper circuit ? Explain positive and negative clamper with its
circuit diagram.
ii) Write note on Owen’s bridge.
iii) A transistor connected in common emitter configuration having current

gain α = 0.99. What will be change in the collector current for a change
in base current to be 0.1 mA ? Find the value of β .
i) Obtain the expression for charging and discharging of a condenser through

resistance and time constant of CR circuit.
ii) Derive an expression for the magnetic induction at a point on the axis due
to current carrying circular coil.
————————
*SLRC67* SLR-C 67
S e a t
N o .

(Old) (CGPA Pattern)
STATISTICS (Paper II)
Descriptive Statistics, Probability and Probability Distributions II
N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) Answers of two Sections should be written in same
answer book.
SECTION I
(Descriptive Statistics, Probability)

1) Two independent variables are
a) Positively correlated
b) Negatively correlated
c) Uncorrelated
d) None of these
2) The absolute value of correlation coefficient is
a) Zero b) 1 c) 1
d)
1
3) In a regression line of Y on X, Y = a + bX, b stands for
a) Intercept of the line b) Slope of the line
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
4) If there are two attributes, then the total number of ultimate class frequencies is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 9
5) Laspeyres formula uses the weights of the
a) Base year
b) Current year
c) Average of the weights of a number of year
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 67 -2- *SLRC67*
i) Define Covariance between X and Y. State the effect of change of origin
and scale.
ii) Define product moment correlation.
iii) Define two regression coefficients.
iv) Explain the line of regression of Y on X.
v) Define fundamental set of frequency.
vi) If A and B are independent attributes, then show that =0.
vii) Define Laspeyres and Paasches price index number.

i) Write short note on index number.
ii) What is the effect of change of origin and scale on regression
coefficients ?
iii) Explain the term association and disassociation with examples.
i) Obtain the expression for the acute angle
between the two regression
lines. Interpret the results = 0, .

ii) With usual notation, prove that .

6 d

E
R 1
n n
SECTION II
(Probability Distributions II)
1) For a discrete r.v. X, the moment about mean is called ________ moment.
a) Raw b) Factorial c) Central d) None of these
2) If X is a discrete r.v. with p.m.f. p(x), then is given by

a) b) c) d)
N
F N

N F N
N F N

F N
N

*SLRC67* -3- SLR-C 67
3) If X and Y are two independent random variables, then V(X Y) = ________
a) V(X) + V(Y) 2Cov(X,Y) b) V(X) + V(Y) + 2Cov(X,Y)
c) V(X) + V(Y) d) V(X) V(Y)
4) Suppose a fair dice is tossed and r.v. X is defined as the number on top face.
Then the probability distribution of r.v. can be obtained using _________
distribution.
a) One point b) Discrete uniform
c) Bernoulli d) Binomial
5) Number of parameters of hypergeometric distribution is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) many

i) Define expectation of a function of r.v. X.
ii) Define second factorial moment.
iii) If X and Y are two independent random variables with E(X) = 5, V(X) = 10,
E(Y) = 0, V(Y) = 1, then find V(3X 5Y).
iv) If the joint p. m. f. of r.v. (X, Y) is P(x, y) = K(2x + 5y) x = 1, 2 y = 1, 2
Find K.
v) State the mean and variance of one point distribution.
vi) Let X has Bernoulli distribution with parameter p. Find mean of X.
vii) Give two real life situations of binomial distribution.

i) The joint p.m.f. of r.v. (X, Y) is given by
x y

P x , y x 1 , 0 , 1 , y 1 , 0 , 1
Find :
a) Marginal distribution of X and Y.
b) E(X+Y).
ii) If the p.g.f. of r.v. X is given by find mean and variance

I I
2 5
of X.
iii) Find mean and variance of discrete uniform distribution.
SLR-C 67 -4- *SLRC67*
i) The joint p.m.f. of r.v. (X, Y) is given by
!
+ + ! + " +
+ " + $ + & +
! + $ + ' + +
Find :
a) C
b) P(X = Y)
c) P(X+Y 1)
d) Conditional distribution of X given Y = 2

e) E(X/Y=2).
ii) Define binomial distribution. Find p.g.f. of binomial distribution and hence
obtain its mean and variance. State the relation between them.
_____________________

*SLRC68* SLR-C 68
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (CGPA Pattern) (Old) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Paper II)
Geometry and Differential Equations

SECTION I
(Geometry)
1. Select the correct alternative for each of the following. 5

1) The direction cosine of normal to the plane x + y + z = 3 are
a) 1, 1, 1 b) c) d) None of these
1 1 1
, ,
3 , 3 , 3
3 3 3
2) The centre of sphere 2x2 + 2y2 + 2z2 4x 8y + 4z + 5 = 0 is

a) (1, 2, 1) b) (1, 2, 1) c) (1, 2, 1) d) (1, 2, 1)
3) The angle between the planes 4x y + 2z = 7, 3x + 3y + 6z = 5 is
a) c o s

1
7
8

b) c o s

1
7
8

c) c o s

7 1 8
d) c o s

1 8 7

4) The polar form of Cartesian equation (x2 + y2)2 = a 2(x2 y2) is
a) r = a c o s
b) r a c o s 2
c) r a c o s 2
d) None of these
5) If by rotation of axes through an angle the expression 2x2 + 10xy + 2y2 +
11x 5y + 2 = 0 does not contain cross product terms xy then =
a) b) c) d)

! $ "
P.T.O.
SLR-C 68 -2- *SLRC68*
2. Attempt any five of the following. 10

1) Transform equation x2 4xy + 3y2 10x + 16y + 21 = 0 when the origin is
shifted to (1, 2).
2) Find the polar coordinates of the point whose Cartesian co-ordinates are
given as A(1, 1).
3) Find the angle between the lines whose direction ratios are (3, 6, 2) and
(12, 4, 3).
4) Find the equation of sphere having the join A(1, 2, 3) and B( 3, 1, 2) as a
diameter.
5) Find the centre and radius of sphere x2 + y2 + z2 4x 6y + 8z + 4 = 0.
6) Find the distance of the point (1, 1, 4) from the plane 3x 6y + 2z + 11 = 0.
7) Identify conic given by the following equation
5x2 6xy + 5y2 + 22x 26y + 29 = 0.
1) If by rotation of axes the expression N O changes to

N

O

then
prove that

2) Find the equation of plane passing through three points P(3, 4, 2), Q(4, 6, 5),
R(8, 2, 9).
3) Show that the plane 2x 2y + z + 12 = 0 touches the sphere x 2 + y 2 + z2

2x 4y + 2z = 3 and find the point of contact.
B) Attempt any one of the following. 10

1) If by rotation of axes, the expression ax 2 + 2hxy + by2 becomes
=

N

D

N

O

>

O

then prove a + b = =

>

and ab h 2 = =

>
h2 .
2) Show that the equation of the plane tangent to the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 +

2ux + 2vy + 2wz + d = 0 at the point p(x1, y1, z1) is xx1 + yy1 + zz 1 +
u(x + x1) + v(y + y1) + w(z + z1) + d = 0 hence find the equation of tangent
plane to the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 6x 4y + 10z + 12 = 0 at (2, 1, 1).
*SLRC68* -3- SLR-C 68
SECTION II
(Differential Equations)
1. Choose the correct alternative of the following. 5
1) The integrating factor of the differential equation + 2xy = cosx is

@ O
N
@ N
a) tan1x b)

N
c) 1 + x2 d)
1

t a n
2) The order and degree of the differential equation is

@ O @ O

N

@ N
@ N

a) 2, 2 b) 3, 2
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3
3) If the differential equation is of the form then its integrating

@ N
4 ; 5
@ O
factor is
a) y ( I . F . )

S ( I . F . ) d x c b) x ( I . F . )

S ( I . F . ) d x c
c) x ( I . F . )

( I . F . ) S d y c d) y ( I . F . )

R ( I . F . ) d y c
4) The general solution of (D3 + D2) y = 0 is given by

a) y = c1ex + c2e2x + c3e3x b) y = c1ex + (c2 + c3)x
c) y = (c1 + c2x) + c3ex d) y = c1x + c2x2 + c3x3
5) The equation is the Bernoullis equation where P1 & Q1 are

@ N
2 N 3 N
1 1
@ O
a) Functions of y alone b) Both functions of x & y

c) Functions of x alone d) Constants
SLR-C 68 -4- *SLRC68*
2. Attempt any five of the following. 10
1) Solve (sinx cosy + e2x)dx + (cosx siny + tany) dy = 0.
2) Solve @ O
A
N O
N A
O
.
@ N
3) Solve y(2xy + ex)dx = exdy.
"
4) Solve .
d y
"
m y 0
"
d x
5) Find the particular integral of (D2 5D + 6) y = e4x.
6) Solve .
@ O " N
O
@ N
N N
7) Find the complementary function (D4 2D3 + D2) y = x3.

1) Solve (D3 3D2 + 4D 2)y = ex + cosx.
2) Solve y(xy + 2x2y2)dx + x(xy x2y2)dy = 0.
3) Solve 3ex tany dx + (1 ex) sec2y dy = 0.
B) Attempt any one of the following. 10

1) Explain the method of solving homogeneous differential equation and hence
solve (y2 + 2xy) dx + (2x2 + 3xy) dy = 0.
2) Solve

( D 4 ) ( D 2 )

y c o s x
_______________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) (CGPA) (Old) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS (Paper – II)
Electronic Devices and Digital Electronics

3) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
SECTION – I
(Electronic Devices)
1. Select correct alternative of the following : 5
i) At 0°K, pure semiconducting material acts as __________

a) insulator b) conductor c) semiconductor d) resistor
ii) The Zener diode usually operated in the _______ region

a) break-over b) break-down c) break-through d) all of these
iii) The β of a transistor is 199, then the value of α is _______

a) 0.95 b) 0.99 c) 0.905 d) 0.995
iv) Field effect transistor is a _________

a) High input resistance device b) Unipolar device
c) Voltage controlled device d) All of these
v) The triac is device which conducts during _________ of input voltage when
triggered.
a) Positive half cycle b) Negative half cycle
c) Both positive and negative half cycle d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 69 -2- *SLRC69*

i) Write diode equation and define volt equivalent of temperature (VT).
ii) Draw the symbol of LED and photo-diode with labels.
iii) In a transistor circuit IE = 1 mA, I C = 0.94 mA. What is the value of IB ?
iv) Draw symbols of BJT and UJT with labels.
v) Determine amplification factor ( μ ) of JFET, having drain resistance = 200 K Ω

and trans-conductance = 250 μ . Ω
vi) Draw the I-V characteristics of tunnel diode.

vii) What is SCR ? Draw its I-V characteristics.

i) What is meant by intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductor ? Discuss how
N-type semiconductor is developed.
ii) Explain construction of Triac
iii) Write a note on Varactor diode.

i) Explain how hybrid parameters are utilized for common emitter configuration
of transistor, with its equivalent circuit.
ii) Explain operation, I-V characteristics and transfer characteristics of
N-channel depletion type MOSFET.
SECTION – II
(Digital Electronics)
4. Select correct alternative of the following. 5
1) The decimal to BCD encoder has __________ number of inputs.

a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 10
2) The minimum number of flip-flops required for mod-25 counter are ________
a) 5 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3
3) A flip-flop has toggle condition when

a) J = K = 0 b) J = K = 1 c) J = 0, K = 1 d) J = 1, K = 0
*SLRC69* -3- SLR-C – 69
4) The abbreviation of TTL is

a) Transistor Transistor Logic b) Transistor Transistor Level
c) Transistor Transfer Logic d) Transistor Transfer Level
5) The SISO stands for ___________

a) Serial Interface Serial Output b) Serial Input Serial Output
5. Answer any five of the following. 10

1) Define propagation delay time and noise margine.
2) Draw the diagram of 2 to 4 decoder.
3) Write the truth table of J-K-flip-flop.
4) What is combination counter ?
5) What is meant by encoder ?
6) Draw the diagram of mod-2 counter.
7) Name the four types of shift register.
6. A) Answer any two of the following. 10

1) Explain TTL NAND gate with diagram.
2) Explain 4 to 1 multiplexer with diagram.
3) Explain 4-bit SISO shift register with diagram.
B) Answer any one of the following. 10

1) Explain decade counter using IC 7490 and draw the timing diagram.
2) Explain 1 to 8 demultiplexer. Draw the diagram and truth table.
____________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (Old CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Computer Fundamentals and Programming Using C – II (Paper – II)

2) Figures to the right place indicate full marks.
3) Answer of the two Sections should be written in separate
answer sheet.
SECTION – I
(Computer Fundamentals)
1. Multiple choice questions. 5
i) ___________ was the first WAN and had only four sites in 1969.
a) INTERNET b) ARPANET
c) INTRANET d) All of the above
ii) ____________ is interleaved execution of multiple jobs in a single user system.

a) Multitasking b) Multiprogramming
c) Multithreading d) Multiprocessing
iii) GUI is __________

a) Geology User Interface b) Graphical Unity Interface
c) Graphical User Interface d) None of these
iv) HTML is_______________ Language.

a) Markup b) Programming
c) Object Oriented d) Assembly
v) ______________ tag is used to create hyperlink.

a) < a > b) <href>
c) both d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 70 -2- *SLRC70*
i) What is icon ? List the different types of icons.
ii) Give difference between GET and POST method of form.
iii) Give the lists in html.
iv) Give any four functions in Excel.
v) What is internet ? What are the benefits of internet ?
vi) What is the syntax of Image tag ?
vii) Give the list of dialog boxes in vbscript.

i) Explain Multiprogramming and Multitasking.
ii) Write a program in vbscript to find out given number is Armstrong or not.
iii) What is meant by word processor ? What are the advantages of word
processor ?
i) Explain types of networking in detail.
ii) Explain the main modules of windows operating system in detail.
SECTION – II
(Programming Using C – II)
1) The default value of extern variable is ___________
a) Zero b) One c) Garbage d) None of these
2) What will be the output of the following program ?
void func() ;
void main()
{
fun c();
fun c();
}
void fun()
{
static int i = 25 ;
print f (“ % d”,i) ;
i++;
}
a) error b) 2425 c) 25 25 d) 25 26
*SLRC70* -3- SLR-C – 70
3) Union can handle floating point value.

a) True b) False
4) ftell() accepts ___________ arguments.

5) If there is more than one member in structure and union then union required
more memory than structure.
a) True b) False

1) What is difference between auto and static ?
2) Define :
a) Local variable b) Global variable
3) How pointer is declared and initialize ?
4) Give the syntax for nested macro declaration.
5) Why typedef is used ? Give one example.
6) What is difference between getchar ( ) and gets ( ) ?
7) What is difference between array and structure ?
3. A) Solve any two of the following : 10

1) How to pass one function as an argument to another function ?
2) Explain file opening modes in detail.
3) Explain concept pointer handling an array.
B) Solve any one of the following : 10

1) Why preprocessor directives are used ? Explain preprocessor directives
with its type.
2) Write a program to implement copy con command in file.
___________________
*SLRC71* SLR-C 71
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY (Paper II) (Old)
Climatology

2) Answers to the both Sections should be written in one
answerbook.
3) Neat diagrams and maps must be drawn wherever
necessary.
SECTION I
1. Complete the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives : 5

1) ____________ is the scientific study of the weather conditions over a long
period of time.
a) Oceanography b) Geomorphology
c) Climatology d) Biogeography
2) CO2 gas accounts for _________ % volume of the atmosphere.
a) 20.94 b) 78.08 c) 0.008 d) 0.03
3) In normal lapse rate temperature decreases with increasing height at the rate
of __________ per Km.
a) 5.5 b) 6.5 c) 7.5 d) 10
4) The high rate of depletion of ozone is due to _______
a) Global warming b) CFC c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen
5) __________ is the outermost layer of the atmosphere.
a) Exosphere b) Mesosphere
c) Stratosphere d) Troposphere
P.T.O.
SLR-C 71 -2- *SLRC71*
2. Answer any five questions from the following : 10
1) State any four elements of weather and climate.
2) Name the three major components of the atmosphere.
3) What is meant by insolation ?
4) What is meant by the heat budget of the earth ?
5) Define Isobars.
6) What is Typhoon ?
7) What do you mean by Roaring Fourties ?

1) Importance of climatology.
2) Horizontal distribution of temperature.
3) Pressure belts over the globe.
B) Answer any one of the following questions : 10
1) Describe various factors affecting the distribution of temperature on the
earth surface.
2) Describe planetary winds in detail.
SECTION II
1. Complete the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives : 5

1) __________ is the scientific study of oceans.
a) Climatology b) Hydrology
c) Meteorology d) Oceanography
2) The average salinity of the ocean water is _________ %.
a) 25 b) 35 c) 45 d) 55
3) __________ is the largest ocean on the earth.
a) Pacific b) Atlantic c) Indian d) Arctic
4) The regular rise and fall of ocean water is known as _________
a) Current b) Wave c) Tide d) EI Nino
5) The deepest trench in the ocean is __________
a) Sunda b) Mariana
c) Labrador d) Tonga
*SLRC71* -3- SLR-C 71
2. Answer any five questions from the following : 10

1) Name four parts of ocean floor.
2) Define ocean currents.
3) Name any two warm ocean currents in Atlantic Ocean.
4) State the three major types of coral reefs.
5) Define ocean deposits.
6) What is meant by spring tides ?
7) What is meant by salinity of ocean water ?

1) Importance of Oceanography.
2) Temperature of ocean water.
3) Coral reefs.
B) Answer any one of the following questions : 10
1) Describe factors affecting on salinity of ocean water.
2) Describe ocean currents in Indian Ocean.
_____________________
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Paper – II) (CGPA Pattern) (Old)
(Animal Diversity – II and Ecology, Ethology, Evolution and Applied
Zoology)

3) Two Sections should be written in separate answer book.
SECTION – I
(Animal Diversity – II)
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct answer from given alternatives : 5
1) The heart of Frog is ______________ chambered.
a) 3 b) 4
c) 2 d) 1
2) The digestion in intestine is called ______________ digestion.
a) Rectal b) Intestinal
c) Oral d) Gastric
3) Gills of bony fishes are covered with ______________

a) Operculum b) Leathery flap
c) Spiracle d) Valve
4) The age of fish can be calculated by counting the lines of growth in

______________ scales.
a) Placoid b) Ctenoid
c) Cycloid d) Glanoid
5) The bunches of egg of frog are called as ______________

a) Clusters b) Bundles
c) Spawns d) Groups
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 72 -2- *SLRC72*
i) Ammocoetus larva.
ii) Paired fins in fish.
iii) Cycloid Scale.
iv) Vocal sacs in frog.
v) Neotony.
vi) Bile.
vii) First vertebra of frog.
i) Describe three germ layers of embryo in frog.
ii) Describe the blood of frog.
iii) Enlist the general characters of Cyclostomata.
i) Describe the brain of frog and its functions of various parts.
ii) Describe the reproductive systems in frog.
SECTION – II
(Ecology, Ethology, Evolution and Applied Zoology)
1) ______________ are also called as tertiary consumers.
a) Tigers b) Elephants
c) Frogs d) Rabbits
2) The study of gradual changes in animals is called as ______________
a) Ecology b) Ethology
c) Economics d) Evolution
3) ______________ is considered as a social insect.

a) Honey bee b) Cockroach
c) Silk moth d) Housefly
*SLRC72* -3- SLR-C – 72
4) The domestication of milk producing animals is called ______________
a) Dairy science b) Apiculture
c) Vermiculture d) Piggary
5) ______________ is an abiotic factor of an ecosystem.

a) Water b) Bacteria
c) Protozoans d) Fish
i) Neutralism.
ii) Ecology.
iii) Food chain.
iv) Sericulture.
v) Succession.
vi) Milk.
vii) Nauptial Flight.
i) Describe the courtship behavior in weaver birds.
ii) Describe the ecological pyramids.
iii) With suitable example explain the phenomenon Camouflage.
i) Describe the abiotic and biotic factors of grassland ecosystem.
ii) Give an account of anatomical evidences of evolution.
__________________________
*SLRC73* SLR-C 73
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (CGPA) (Old) Examination, 2017

BOTANY (Paper II)
Gymnosperms and Angiosperms, Cell Biology, Genetics and Plant
Biotechnology

SECTION I
(Gymnosperms and Angiosperms)

1) In gymnosperms the seeds are
a) Naked b) Enclosed
c) Half enclosed d) Both a) and b)
2) Cycas belongs to class
a) Coniferopsida b) Cycadopsida
c) Gnetopsida d) Conipsida
3) __________ are necessary whorls of flower.
a) Androecium and gynoecium b) Calyx and corolla
c) Androecium and calyx d) Gynoecium and corolla
4) ____________ is a type of aggregate fruit.
a) Pepo b) Pome
c) Regma d) Etario of berries
5) Capsicum annum belongs to the family
a) Annonaceae b) Solanaceae
c) Convolvulaceae d) Caesalpinaceae
P.T.O.
SLR-C 73 -2- *SLRC73*

i) Mention any two demerits of Bentham and Hookers system.
ii) Define complete flower.
iii) Structure of gynoecium.
iv) What is actinomorphic flower ?
v) Sketch and label corymb inflorescence.
vi) Define placentation.
vii) Economic importance of Tamarindus Indica.

i) Sketch, label and describe the T. S. of Cycas leaflet.
ii) Write any ten salient features of Angiosperms.
iii) Define aestivation. Describe any four types of aestivation.

i) Sketch, label and describe the verticillaster and hypanthodium type/forms
of inflorescence.
ii) Give the distinguishing characters and economic importance of any two
following families :
a) Amaryllidaceae
b) Annonaceae
c) Nyctiaginaceae.
SECTION II
(Cell Biology, Genetics and Plant Biotechnology)
4. Rewrite the sentence by choosing correct alternative : 5

1) ______________ is multidisciplinary science.
a) Biotechnology b) Botany
c) Zoology d) Chemistry
2) ______________ character is not expressed in F1 generation.
a) Dominant b) Recessive
c) Complementary d) Subdominant
*SLRC73* -3- SLR-C 73
3) ____________ is the controlling centre of the cell.

a) Nucleus b) Ribosomes
c) E. R. d) Golgi apparatus
4) ____________ is called resting phase.
a) Interphase b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase
5) _________________ is present in prokaryotic cell.
a) Nucleoid b) Mitochondrion
c) Chloroplast d) 80 S ribosomes

i) Write any two functions of mitochondrion.
ii) What happens during G1 phase of cell cycle ?
iii) Define dominant and recessive characters.
iv) Draw neat labeled diagram of chloroplast.
v) Define biofertilizer.
vi) Mention any two applications of biotechnology in agriculture.
vii) Define supplementary genes.

i) Structure of cell membrane (Singer Nicholsons model).
ii) Prophase and Telophase of Mitosis.
iii) Role of BGA in agriculture.

i) What is genetics ? Explain dihybrid cross with suitable example.
ii) Discuss in brief the glyoxylate cycle.
___________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (Old-CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

GEOLOGY (Paper – II)
Introduction to General Geology and Physical Geology

4) Write both the Sections in same answer sheet.
SECTION – I
(Introduction to General Geology)
1. Write a correct answer from given four alternatives. 5
1) Planet Jupiter has ______________ satellites.

a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 2
2) Earthquake waves are of ______________ types.

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
3) Gutenberg discontinuity is at a depth of _____________ km.

a) 5000 b) 6100 c) 2900 d) 7000
4) Average density of earth is ______________ gm/cc.

a) 4.2 b) 5.5 c) 2.8 d) 3.8
5) The radius of earth is ______________ km.

a) 7800 b) 6371 c) 9371 d) 8371
P.T.O.
SLR-C– 75 -2- *SLRC75*

1) Earth planet.
2) Epicenter.
3) Define volcano.
4) What is earthquake ?
5) Rotation of earth.
6) Name the gases product of volcano.
7) Seismograph diagram.

1) Explain hydrosphere.
2) Explain central and fissure eruption.
3) Explain prediction of earthquake.
1) Explain internal structure of the earth and discontinuities.
2) Explain solar system.
SECTION – II
(Introduction to Physical Geology)
1. Fill in the blanks with correct answers from the given options. 5
1) Faceted rocks with polished surfaces are developed by ______________

erosion.
a) Glacier b) River c) Sea d) Wind
2) Wind is active agent in ______________ region.

a) Cold and humid b) Warm and humid
c) Dry and arid d) None of these
3) The glacial drift carried on the surface and deposited along the margins in the
form of Ridges is called _____________ moraines.
a) Medial b) Lateral
c) Terminal d) Downward
*SLRC75* -3- SLR-C– 75
4) Hydration is a process of ______________ H2O.

a) Addition b) Evaporation
c) Removal d) Ionization
5) The surface/level on the earth surface above which snow is present permanently
throughout year, called as ______________
a) Snow cap b) Snow line
c) Snow sheet d) Piedmont

1) Define drumlins.
2) Describe Yardangs.
3) Describe ocean tides.
4) What is exogenous and endogenous processes ?
5) Draw soil profile.
6) What is regolith ?
7) Give the names of types of glaciers.

1) Sand dunes and their types.
2) Mushroom and Pedestal rock.
3) U shaped and Hanging valley.
1) Define weathering. Describe various processes of physical weathering.
2) Describe different erosional features of river.
___________________
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (Old) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY
Microbial Physiology and Applied Microbiology – I (Paper – II)

3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.
SECTION – I
(Microbial Physiology)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct alternative : 5

i) ___________ is an example of inducible enzyme.
a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase
c) Amylase d) Lipases
ii) Starch is ____________
a) Homopolysaccharide b) Heteropolysaccharide
c) Monosaccharide d) Diasaccharide
iii) Proteins contain __________ elements in their structure.
a) C and N b) C and H
c) C, N, H d) C, N, H and O
iv) ____________ is an example of pH indicator used in media.
a) Andrade’s indicator b) Peptone
c) Na taurocholate d) Blood
v) Bacterial cells die out at faster rate during __________ phase of growth.
a) Lag b) Log
c) Stationary d) Decline
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 76 -2- *SLRC76*

i) Define high energy compounds.
ii) Define cofactors of enzyme and give one example.
iii) What is the role of starch in culture media ?
iv) Describe in short energetics of EMP cycle.
v) Define autotroph.
vi) List different complex lipids.
vii) Write the differences between anabolism and catabolism.

i) Primary and secondary structure of proteins.
ii) Different types of enzymes.
iii) Polysaccharides.
i) Write an essay on EMP pathway.
ii) Describe in detail nutritional types of micro-organisms based on carbon
and energy source.
SECTION – II
(Applied Microbiology – I)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer (alternative) : 5

i) _____________ is an indicator of fecal pollution of water.
a) E. coli b) Proteus Vulgaris
c) Pseudomonas spp. d) Klebsiella spp.
ii) _____________ is a milk protein.
a) Pepsin b) Caesin
c) Insulin d) Trypsin
iii) Diseases which affect large number of people within short time are ________
diseases.
a) Endemic b) Epidemic
c) Pandemic d) Sporadic
*SLRC76* -3- SLR-C – 76
iv) If infection is confined to particular organ, it is known as _________ infection.

a) Congenital b) Local
c) Generalized d) Cross
v) Respiratory diseases are transmitted by ________ method.
a) Inhalation b) Ingestion
c) Inoculation d) Contact
2. Answer any five of the following questions : 10

i) What are carriers ?
ii) What is mortality rate ?
iii) What is impaction technique ?
iv) List four diseases transmitted through ingestion method.
v) What do you mean by pandemic diseases ?
vi) What is Ejackman test ?
vii) What is droplet nuclei ?

i) MPN test
ii) Sources of contamination of milk
iii) Inhalation and inoculation as methods of disease transmission.
i) Write an essay on ‘Tests for coliforms’.
ii) Write an essay on ‘Municipal water purification’.
_____________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – III) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Paper – III)

2) Draw neat diagram and give equation wherever necessary.
4) Use of log table or calculator is allowed.
5) Atomic weights : H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, S = 32,
CI = 35.5, I = 127, Ag = 108.
1. Choose most correct alternative from each of the following : 14

i) Cannizzaro reaction is not given by
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde
c) Benzaldehyde d) Trimethyl acetaldehyde
ii) Acrylic acid on reduction with sodium metal and ethanol forms
a) Ethanoic acid b) Methanoic acid
c) Propionic acid d) Butanoic acid
iii) Compounds in which carbon-oxygen bond is in conjugation with carbon-carbon
double bond are known as ____________ group.
a) Dienes b) Carboxy
c) Carbonyl d) Enones
iv) In IUPAC nomenclature system, prefix ‘oxo’ is used for ____________
functional group.
a) Carboxyl b) Alcohol
c) Keto d) Aldehyde
v) Aldehydes and Ketones on reaction with ____________ gives aldoximes and
ketoximes.
a) Methyl amine b) Ethyl amine
c) Carboxyl amine d) Hydroxyl amine
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 77 -2- *SLRC77*
vi) Ethene on epoxidation with per acetic acid gives

a) Dimethyl ether b) Diethyl ether
c) Ethylene oxide d) Methoxy ethane
vii) Glycerol contains ____________ groups.
a) One primary and one secondary alcoholic
b) Two primary and one secondary alcoholic
c) Two primary and two secondary alcoholic
d) One primary and two secondary alcoholic
viii) Citric acid is a
a) Dihydroxy tribasic acid b) Monohydroxy dibasic acid
c) Monohydroxy tribasic acid d) Dihydroxy dibasic acid
ix) The number of carbon atoms present in 2-ethyl pentanal is
a) 5 b) 9
c) 7 d) 6
x) Epoxides are ____________ membered heterocyclic compound.
a) 5 b) 3
c) 7 d) 6
xi) Ethylene glycol on oxidation with lead tetra acetate gives
a) Formic acid b) Formaldehyde
c) Acetic acid d) Acetaldehyde
xii) Benzene 1, 2 dicarboxylic acid is also known as
a) Cinnamic acid b) Succinic acid
c) Benzoic acid d) Phthalic acid
xiii) The general formula of diazonium salts is
a) Ar-N2+X2- b) Ar2-N2+X-
c) Ar-N2+X- d) Ar-N+X2-
xiv) In Kolbe reaction, salicyclic acid is obtained from
a) Alcohol b) Aldehyde
c) Phenol d) Ketone
*SLRC77* -3- SLR-C – 77
i) Write any two methods of preparation of malic acid.

ii) Write the reactions involved in gravimetric estimation of – OCH3 group by
Zeisel’s method.
iii) Explain Sandmayer’s reaction.
iv) What is the effect of soda lime and NH3 on Phthalic acid ?
v) Complete following reactions :
NH
a) Ethylene oxide ⎯⎯⎯
3
→?
CH NH
b) Ethylene oxide ⎯⎯ ⎯
3
⎯
2
→?
vi) Assign E or Z nomenclature to the following compounds :
a) b)
vii) Explain acidic nature of ethylene glycol.

viii) Calculate λmax for following compounds.
a) b)
ix) Write the IUPAC names of following :

a)
b)
SLR-C – 77 -4- *SLRC77*

i) What are products of the following :
aq.NaOH
a) + Br − CH2 − CH = CH2 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ ?
b)
C
aq.NaOH
c) + CH3COCI ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ ?
70°C
d) + CHCI 3 + 3KOH ⎯⎯→ ?
e) aq.NaOH
+ C2H5I ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→ ?
ii) Explain Knoevenagel reaction with its mechanism.

iii) What is trihydric alcohol ? How glycerol is prepared from oil and fat ?
Write uses of glycerol.
B) A compound having the formula C8H10O is subjected to Zeisel’s method for

estimating methoxy group. It was found that 1.147 ×10–4 Kg compound forms
2.21 × 10–4 Kg of silver iodide. Calculate the percentage and number of -OCH3
group in the compound. 4
*SLRC77* -5- SLR-C – 77

i) Define the terms with example : bathochromic shift, hypsochromic shift,
hypochromic shift and hyperchromic shift.
ii) What is the principle of UV spectroscopy ? Explain different types of electronic
transitions involved in UV spectroscopy.
iii) Why phenols are acidic in nature ? Write notes on Claisen rearrangement
and Gattermann synthesis.

i) What are aldoximes ? Explain the geometrical isomerism of aldoximes. How
is the configuration of aldoximes determined ?
ii) Assign R and S nomenclature to the following isomers.
a) b)
c) d)
e)
iii) What happens when

a) Citric acid is reacted with acetic anhydride.
b) Succinic acid is treated with C2H5OH/HCI.
c) Acrylic acid is reacted with Na/C2H5OH
d) Malic acid is reacted with HI.
e) Monochloroacetic acid is reacted with KCN.
SLR-C – 77 -6- *SLRC77*
*SLRC77* -7- SLR-C – 77
_______________
*SLRC78* SLR-C 78
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY (Paper IV)
Inorganic Chemistry
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory.

ii) Draw neat labelled diagrams and write equations wherever
necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite the
sentences : 14
i) ___________ is a complex compound.
a) Ferrous ammonium sulphate
b) Potassium ferrocyanide
c) Potassium aluminium sulphate
d) Sodium cuprous thiosulphate
ii) The word chelate was first time introduced by
a) G.T. Morgan and H.D.A. Drew b) Alfred Werner
c) L. Pauling d) Sidwick
iii) __________ is the paramagnetic.
a) Cu2+ b) Zn2+
c) Ag+ d) Au+
iv) Boron trifluoride is a Lewis acid because, it is
a) Electron pair donor b) H+ donor
c) Electron pair acceptor d) None of these
v) From the following _________ will shows geometrical isomerism.
a) Ma4 b) Ma6
c) M(AA)2 d) M(AB)2
P.T.O.
SLR-C 78 -2- *SLRC78*
vi) _________ does not behave as Lewis acid or base.

a) EDTA b) NH3
c) CH4 d) I
vii) The interaction of hard acid with hard base can form ________ compound.
a) Covalent b) Ionic
c) Co-ordinate covalent d) Non-polar
viii) For the production of ammonia __________ is used as a catalyst.
a) Pt b) Ni
c) V2O5 d) Fe
ix) _________ complex, central metal ion shows dsp2 hybridizations.
a) Fe[(CN)6]3 b) [Cu(CN)4]2
c) Ag[(CN)2] d) Co[(CN)6]3
x) In 8-hydroxyquinoline (oxine) molecule there are __________ acidic donor
groups.
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
xi) HSAB concept was introduced by
a) Lewis b) Arrhenius
c) Pearson d) Bronsted
xii) General electronic configuration of 5d block elements is
a) 5d1-10 6s1-2 b) 5d1-10 6s2
c) [Ar]5d1-10 6s1-2 d) 4f145d1-10 6s1-2
xiii) Every transition metal ion is characterised by two types of valences i.e.
a) Primary and secondary
b) Primary and principal
c) Principal and ionisable
d) Secondary and non-ionisable
xiv) The 3d transition series start with __________ and ends with ____________
element.
a) yttrium, cadmium b) scandium, zinc
c) lanthanum, mercury d) yttrium, zinc
*SLRC78* -3- SLR-C 78
2. Solve any seven of the following : 14

i) Define complex salt with example.
ii) Show the d and l isomers in [Co(en)3]3+.
iii) Draw the structure of CoCl3.5NH3 by using Werner theory.
iv) Define co-ordination number and co-ordination sphere.
v) State any two applications of EDTA.
vi) Give the Lewis acid and base concept.
vii) What are basic characteristics of soft base ?
viii) Calculate magnetic moment of the Cu2+.
ix) Give the oxidation state of Ni in Ni(CO)4 and Fe in [Fe(CO)2(NO)2].
3. A) Write a short note on any two of the following : 10

i) Colour property due to d-d transition.
ii) Geometrial isomerism with CN=4.
iii) Postulates of Werner theory.
B) Compare first transition series with second and third transition series w.r.t.
their reactivity and oxidation state. 4

i) Discuss HSAB principle and its application.
ii) Explain the complex formation of copper with weak field ligands with suitable
example. Comment on stability and magnetic property of the complex.
iii) What do you mean by paramagnetism ? Explain the magnetic character in 3d
transition elements.

i) Define oxidation number. Explain oxidation states of 3d transition elements.
ii) Discuss the applications of DMG as a chelating agent.
iii) Distinguish between double salt and complex salt.

*SLRC79* SLR-C 79
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Paper III)
General Physics, Heat and Sound

ii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iii) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
iv) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.
1. Choose the correct alternative. 14

1) Curl of a vector field is
a) Vector b) Scalar
c) Always zero d) Always one
2) If

is the precessional torque then the rate of precession
is
1
a) =I b) c) d)

1

3) If A .

B C

0 then the vectors ) , * and + are
a) Not coplanar b) Equal c) Coplanar d) All zero
4) If the lower end of loaded spring has extension of x then the C.G. of the spring
is lowered by
a) x b) x/2 c) 2x d) x/4
5) The dimensions of the coefficient of viscosity are
a) [M1 L1 T1] b) [M2 L1 T1] c) [M1 L1 T1] d) [M1 L1 T1]
6) Entropy remains constant in
a) Adiabatic process b) Isothermal process
c) Isochoric process d) Isolated process
P.T.O.
SLR-C 79 -2- *SLRC79*
7) Entropy is maximum in _________ state.

a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Semi solid
8) The frequency of ultrasonics is
a) Below 20 Hz b) Above 20,000 Hz
c) 20 to 20,000 Hz d) 0 to
9) The work done in twisting the wire of a spring is stored in the spring as
a) Kinetic energy b) Shearing energy
c) Potential energy d) Binding energy
10) The rifling of barrels of guns provides the stability in _________ of the bullet.
a) Speed b) Mass c) Direction d) Force
11) For making the hall acoustically good, the reverberation time must be
a) Small b) Optimum c) Large d) Zero
12) The CGS unit of viscosity is
a) Kg/m.s b) Poise c) gm.cm/sec. d) N.Sec/m2
13) Gyrocompass is used to determine
a) Angle of dip b) Geographic north-south direction
c) Distance between two poles d) Magnetic north-south
14) The gradient of scalar field is a
a) Vector b) Scalar c) Constant d) Zero

1) What is precessional motion ?
2) Define scalar triple product.
3) What is a flat spiral spring ?
4) Define coefficient of viscosity.
5) Explain the concept of entropy.
6) What are the properties of ultrasonic waves ?
7) State and explain Lanchesters rule.
8) What do you mean by (a) neutral surface (b) neutral axis.
9) What is a cantilever ?
*SLRC79* -3- SLR-C 79
3. A) Solve any two of the following : 10

1) For a vector triple product, show that

) B C B A . C C A . B

2) Derive an expression for bending moment of an uniformly bent beam.

3) Define entropy. Derive an expression for entropy of a perfect gas in terms
of its pressure, volume and specific heat.
B) Determine the critical velocity of a disc of radius 30 cm rolling over a horizontal
surface (g = 980 cm/sec2). 4

1) Derive an expression for the periodic time of a gyrostatic pendulum.
2) Explain the method of piezoelectric effect for production of ultrasonic waves.
3) Describe Searles method for determining the viscosity of highly viscous
liquid.

1) What is gradient of a scalar ? Explain its physical significance.
2) Explain pressure microphone with neat diagram.
3) Define reverberation time. What are the requirements of good accoustics ?
___________
*SLRC80* SLR-C 80
S e a t
N o .

PHYSICS (Paper IV)
Electronics
N.B. : 1) All the questions are compulsory.

3) Neat diagram must be drawn whenever necessary.
4) Use of logtable and calculator is allowed.

i) The process of injecting a fraction of output energy back to input is known
as ___________
a) Output b) Gain c) Feedback d) Input
ii) In double ended input and output differential amplifier, the output is taken
___________
a) Between collector and base
b) Across two collectors
c) Between either collector and ground
d) Between either base and ground
iii) In RC coupled amplifier, the voltage gain over mid frequency range _________
a) Changes abruptly with frequency
b) Is constant
c) Changes uniformly with frequency
d) None of these
iv) An oscillator employs ____________ feedback.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neither positive nor negative
d) Data insufficient
P.T.O.
SLR-C 80 -2- *SLRC80*
v) In n-channel FET, charge carriers are _________
a) Electrons b) Holes
c) Both electrons and holes d) None of these
vi) Flip-Flop is __________ type of multivibrator.
a) Astable b) Monostable
c) Bistable d) None of these
vii) The logical circuit used to perform addition of two binary bits is called as
__________
a) Half adder b) Full adder
c) J-K flip-flop d) R-S flip-flop
viii) NAND gate is also called as __________ gate.
a) Unique b) Complete
c) Universal d) Logic
ix) The De Morgans first theorem is given by ) *
= __________
a) A . B
b) A . B
c) A . B d) A . B
x) Load regulation is also called ___________

a) Voltage regulation b) Input regulation
c) Line regulation d) Source regulation
xi) IC 78XX provides __________ fixed output voltage.
c) Regulated positive d) Dual
xii) CRO stands for ____________
a) Cathode Ray Oscillogram
b) Cathode Ray Oscillator
c) Cathode Ray Oscilloscope
d) Cathode Ray Oscillations
xiii) A CRO is used to measure ___________
a) Voltage b) Frequency c) Phase d) All of these
xiv) The period of a signal wave observed on CRO is 50
s, then the frequency

of a signal will be __________
a) 200 KHz b) 2 KHz c) 20 KHz d) 20 MHz
*SLRC80* -3- SLR-C 80

i) What is differential amplifier ? State its various modes of operations.
ii) Explain frequency response curve of amplifier.
iii) Draw potential divider circuit.
iv) What is Backhausen criterion for sustained oscillations.
v) What do you mean by AF and RF oscillators ?
vi) In UJT, RB1 = 7K
, RB2 = 5K
.
Find intrinsic stand off ration ( ).
vii) Draw logical diagram of De Morgans second theorem.

viii) State any two uses of CRO.
ix) An unknown AC voltage is fed to the vertical input of CRO. The volts/div
knob on position 8 volt/div. The number of vertical division are 10. Calculate
peak to peak voltage.

i) What is feedback in an amplifier ? Discuss positive and negative feedback
in an amplifier.
ii) Write note on UJT.
iii) What do you mean by line regulation and voltage regulation ? Explain.
B) The Hartly oscillator has L1 = 750 H, L2 = 750 H, M = 75 H and

C = 150PF. Calculate frequency of an oscillator. 4

4. Answer two of the following : 14
i) Describe in detail two stage RC coupled amplifier. What are advantages ?
ii) Draw a neat circuit diagram of Colpitts oscillator. Explain its operation.
iii) Explain the construction and working of FET. How it works as VVR ?
5. Answer two of the following : 14
i) What is flip-flop ? Explain construction and working of J-K flip-flop.
ii) Draw the neat diagram of transistor series voltage regulator. Discuss its
operation. Also explain the need of regulated power supply.
iii) Draw block diagram of digital multimeter and explain its applications.
_____________________
*SLRC81* SLR-C 81
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) (CGPA Pattern) Examination 2017

STATISTICS (Paper III) Continuous Probability Distributions I

i) If the joint p.d.f. of continuous bivariate r.v.(X, Y) is

f(x, y) = (x + y) ; 0 < x, y < 1
= 0 ; otherwise
then the marginal p.d.f. of r.v.X is
a) x + 0.5 b) y + 0.5 c) 2x d) 2y
ii) The conditional expectation of X given Y = y i.e. - : ; O
a) may be a function of y b) always a function of y

c) always a function of x d) may be a function of x
iii) If X and Y are two independent r.v. such that E(X) <
, E (Y) <
then
a) E

X E ( X )

Y E ( Y )

= 0
b) E(XY) = E(X) E(Y)
c) E

X E ( X )

Y E ( Y )

= 1
d) both (a) and (b) are true

iv) Consider the statements

. . . . .

E E X Y = y = E ( X ) ( I )

E

X Y = y

= E ( X )
. . . . . . . . .
( I I ) then
a) always (I) is true
b) always (II) is true
c) always (II) is false
d) (I) is always true and (II) is true if X and Y are independent
P.T.O.
SLR-C 81 -2- *SLRC81*
v) For X to be a continuous r.v. with p.d.f. f(x), which of the following statements
is false ?
a) it can take all possible values between certain limits
b) the different values of X cannot be put in one-to-one correspondence with a set
of positive integers

c) it satisfies two conditions i) B N

; N
ii)
B N @ N

d) it is a real-valued function defined on a sample space, which can take any

integral value
vi) If a r.v.X has mg.f. Mx(t) = (1 2t)1 , then the mean and variance of X are

J
a) (4, 2) b) (2, 4) c) (2, 2) d) (4, 4)

vii) If Y = F(x) is a c.d.f. of a continuous r.v. then distribution of Y is
a) U (0, 1) b) exponential c) discrete uniform d) degenerate at 0
viii) If X has p.d.f. f(x) = 0.5 ; 1<x<1
=0 ; otherwise
then P(X < 0) =
a) P(X >0) b) c) d) none of these

!
" "
ix) A r.v.X has an exponential distribution with mean 6 then P[X > 9 | X > 3]
a) e1.5 b) e 0.5 c) e1.0 d) e 6.0
x) If X is a continuous r.v. then 2

= : >

a) F(a) F(b) b) F(b) F(a) c) 1 F(a) + F(b) d) 1 F(a) F(b)

xi) Let X and Y be i.i.d. exponential r.v. with mean
Let A : (X + Y)/2 is exponential r.v. with mean
B : (X + Y) is exponential r.v. with mean
a) only A is true b) only B is true

c) both A and B are true d) both A and B are false
xii) If the life time of a bulb (X) has the distribution function
F(x) = 0 ; x<0

; A
0
then E(X) =
. 8 x
N
a) b) 0.8 c) d) (0.8)2
1
0 . 8
0 . 8
*SLRC81* -3- SLR-C 81
xiii) The weight of a student is a

a) discrete r.v. b) qualitative type r.v.
c) continuous r.v. d) none of these
xiv) An exponential distribution is
a) +vely skew b) vely skew c) symmetric d) none of these
2. Attempt any seven 14
i) If joint p.d.f. of (X, Y) is
f(x, y) = 4xy ; 0 < x, y < 1
=0 ; otherwise
find P(0 < X < 0.5, 0.5 < Y < 1)
ii) Define independence of continuous r.v.s. X and Y.
iii) If X is a continuous r.v. with p.d.f.
f(x) = e 2x + 1.5e 3x ; N
=0 ; otherwise
find mean of X.
iv) If c.d.f. of a continuous r.v. X is
0 ; x 0
( 2 x )

F ( x ) 1 ; 0 x 2
1 ; x 2
find Q1, the lower quartile of X.
v) Let then find corr (X, Y).

1 y 1 x
E ( X Y y ) , E ( Y X x )
2 2
vi) If X ~ U (3, 2) then find 2 :
vii) Find H.M. of X if its p.d.f. is

f(x) = 6x (1 x) ; 0<x<1
=0 ; otherise
viii) State the distribution of [2 loge X] if X~U (0, 1)
ix) If X ~ exp then state m.g.f. of X.

3. A) Attempt any two. 10

i) Define A.M. and H.M. of a continuous r.v.
ii) If X has a p.d.f. f(x) = x2 ; 1 < x < +1

!
=0 ; otherwise
find p.d.f. of Y = X2
SLR-C 81 -4- *SLRC81*
iii) The joint p.d.f. of a bivariate r.v. (X, Y) is
f(x, y) = 2 ; 0<x<y<1
= 0 ; otherwise
then find the conditional distribution of Y given X = x.
B) If a continuous bivariate r.v. (X, Y) has the joint density function
f(x, y) = 4x ; 0<x< <1 O
=0 ; otherwise
find marginal density of Y 4
i) Find the distribution function of a r.v. X having p.d.f.
1 N #
f ( x ) e ; x
ii) Verify whether X and Y are independent random variables if their joint p.d.f. is
f(x, y) = e (x+y) ; x > 0, y > 0
=0 ; otherwise
iii) Find p.d.f. and median of X if its distribution function is
0 ; x 0
; 0 x 1
F ( x )
2 x 1 ; 1 x 2
1 ; x 2
5. Attempt any two 14

i) The p.d.f. of a r.v. X is
k x ; 0 x 5
f ( x ) k ( 1 0 x ) ; 5 x 1 0
0 ; o t h e r w i s e
find the value of k. Calculate P ( 5 X 1 0 ) a n d P ( 2 X )

.
ii) Define a) marginal probability distribution of a r.v. X
b) conditional probability distribution of X given Y = y.
c) conditional expectation of X given Y = y.
iii) Obtain the distribution of

1
Y l o g X , 0
where X is U(0, 1) r.v. Also define the exponential distribution with scale and
location parameters.
________________
*SLRC82* SLR-C 82
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Paper IV)
Discrete Probability Distributions and Statistical Methods


i) In a Poisson distribution, the second moment about origin is 6, then its third
moment about mean is
a) 6 b) 2 c) 3 d) 3
ii) If X is a Poisson variate with P[X = 3] = P[X = 4], then the variance of a
Poisson variate is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
iii) If :
~
2 , then its
a) Mean > Variance b) Mean = Variance
c) Mean = 2 Variance d) Mean < Variance
iv) If X is a geometric r.v. then 2

: %
is equal to
: "
a) P[X 7] b) P[X 3]
c) P[X 7]/P[X 4] d) P[X 4]
v) Negative binomial distribution NB (r, p) reduces to geometric distribution with r

equal to
a) 0 b) 1
c)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 82 -2- *SLRC82*
vi) If X
~
N B ( r , p ) such that E(X) = 12 and V(X) = 36, then
a) b) c) d)
1 1 1 1
r 3 , p r 3 6 , p r 1 2 , p r 6 , p
3 2 4 3
vii) Let (X1, X2, X3) be a random vector follows multinomial distribution with
usual notations, then V(X2) is
a) nP2 b) 3P2 c) nP2(1 P2) d) P2(1 P2)
viii) In the usual notations, r21.3 is equal to
H H H H H H
! ! ! !
a) b)
H H H H

! ! ! !
H H H H H
! ! !
c) d)
H H H H
! ! !
ix) The order of residual X2.13 is

x) The range of partial regression coefficient is
a) 0 to 1 b) 1 to 1 c) 0 to
d)
to
xi) With usual notations, the regression equation X2 on X1 and X3 is

a) X2 = b12.3X1 + b32.1X3 b) X2 = b21.3X1 + b23.1X3
c) X2 = b12.3X3 + b32.1X1 d) X
2
= b
1
2
2 . 3
X
1
+ b
2
2 3 . 1
X
xii) If R1.23 = 0, then

a) r12 = r13 = 0 b) r23 = 0
c) r12 = 0, r13 0 d) r12 = r13 = r23 0
xiii) If R2.13 = 0, then all total and partial correlation coefficients involving X2 are
a) 1 b) 0 c) 1 d)

xiv) In usual notations

a) b12.3 + b21.3 = r12.3 b) b12.3 × b21.3 = r12.3
c) b12.3 × b12.3 = r12.3 d) b
1 2 . 3
× b
2 1 . 3
= r
1
2
2 . 3
*SLRC82* -3- SLR-C 82

i) If X follows Poisson distribution with parameter
such that P(X = 1) = 2 P(X = 2),
find the p.m.f. of X.
ii) Find mean of negative Binomial distribution.
iii) Obtain moment generating function of a multinomial distribution.
iv) Find probability generating function of geometric distribution.
v) Define the residual X1.23 and state its mean.
vi) Define partial regression coefficient b12.3.
2
vii) If r12 = r13 = r23 = r 1, then show that .

H
4
1 . 2 3
H
viii) With usual notations, prove that 4
1
2
. 2 3
H
1
2
2

H
1
2
3 . 2

.
ix) Show that >
1 2 . 3
>
2 1 . 3
H
1
2
2 . 3
.
i) Let X be a Poisson variate with parameter . If P[X=5] = p[X=4], then

find (i) P(X>3) (ii) P(|X| 2).
ii) Let X be geometric variate with parameter p, then (a) show that P[X x] =
(1 p)x (b) find the distribution of X + 1.

iii) Obtain the variance of residual x1.23.
B) With usual notations, prove that b12.3 × b23.1 × b31.2 = r12.3 × r23.1 × r31.2. 4

i) If X and Y are two independent Poisson variates, then show that the conditional
distribution of X given (X + Y) = n is a Binomial. Also obtain p.g.f. of Poisson
distribution.
ii) State the properties of residual and prove any two of them.
iii) If X1 and X2 are two independent variables with unit variances, then find
multiple correlation coefficient of X1 on X1 + X2 and X1 X2.
SLR-C 82 -4- *SLRC82*

i) Define Geometric distribution with parameter p and obtain its mean, variance
and distribution function.
ii) A discrete random variable X has the probability mass function (p.m.f.)
N
K 2
P ( X x ) , x 1 , 2 , . . .
x !
Find (i) Constant K, (ii) P(1 X 3 (iii) P(X>2).
iii) Define partial correlation coefficient. Derive an expression of partial correlation

coefficient in terms of simple correlation coefficients.
_______________
*SLRC83* SLR-C 83
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Paper III)
Differential Calculus

1. Choose and write correct answer from given four alternatives : 14

1) The curvature of a straight line at every point thereof is
a) Zero b) One c) Two d) None of these
2) The intrinsic formula for the radius of curvature is
a) b)
@ I
@ O

@ N @
c) d)
@
@ I
I

@ I
I @
3) Radius of curvature of the curve y = ex at the point (0, 1) is

a) b) !
c) 0 d) None of these
4) The Pedal formula for the radius of curvature is
a) b) c) d)
@ H @ H
@ F
@ H
H
H
H
@ F H @ F
@ H
@ F
5) The radius of curvature at the point (r,

) on the curve r = a is
3 / 2
a) a b) a2 c) a3/2 d)
=

6) The necessary condition for a function f(x) to have a maxima at x = c is that :

a) B
b) ?
c)
d) None of these
B

? B

?
P.T.O.
SLR-C 83 -2- *SLRC83*
7) f(c) is an extreme value of f if and only if B

N
a) Changes sign as x passes through c

b) Does not change sign
c) Remains constant
d) Exists only
8) The maximum value of sinx + cosx is
a) 2 b) c) 1 d) 22
9) The minimum value of the function f(x) = is

N N "
N N "
a) 1 b) 1 c) 9 d)

'
10) Function u = sinx siny sin (x + y) at x = y =
!
is
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Neither maximum nor minimum
d) None of these
11) If each u, v, w is a function of the variables x, y, z then the Jacobian

u , v , w

x , y , z

is determinant of order
a) 9 b) 3 c) 1 d) n
12) If x = rcos , y = rsin , then × is equal to

r , x , y

x , y r ,

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d)
13) If u = x (1 + y), v = y(1 + x), then =

u , v

x , y

a) 1 + xy b) 1 xy c) 1 + x + y d) 1 x + y
14) If u = excosy, v = exsiny, then =

u , v

x , y

a) ex b) e2x c) ex d) sinx

*SLRC83* -3- SLR-C 83

1) Define the term curvature of a curve.
2) Find the radius of curvature of s = c logsec
at any point.
3) Find for the curve y = cosh .

@ I

@ N
4) If u = x2, v = y2 then find .

u , v

x , y

5) If u = 3x + 2y z, v = x 2y + z, w = x + 2y z, find .
u , v , w

x , y , z

6) If x = uv, y = , find .
x , y
K

u , v

7) Define the term minimum value of a function.

8) Find the greatest and least values of the function x4 4x3 2x2 + 12x + 1 in
the interval [2, 5].
9) State the condition for stationary value of a function of two variable.

1) Find the points on the surface z2 = xy + 1 which are at the least distance
from the origin.
2) If x and y are roots of a quadratic equation in p given by
(p u)2 + (p v)2 = 0, then prove that .

x , y

u v
u , v x y

3) Show that the curvature of the point on the folium

3 a 3 a

2 2

x3 + y3 = 3axy is 8 2 / 3 a
.
B) Find the expression for the radius of curvature for y = f(x). 4
SLR-C 83 -4- *SLRC83*

1) Show that the radius of curvature for the cycloid x = a(
+ sin ),

y = a(1 cos ) is 4 a cos ( /2).
2) If u, v, w are implicit functions of x, y, z i.e. fi (u, v, w, x, y, z) = 0, i = 1, 2, 3.
f , f , f

!
Then prove that = (1)3 .

x , y , z

u , v , w

f , f , f

!
x , y , z

u , v , w

3) Discuss the maximum and minimum value of u given by u = x3y2(1 x y).

1) Explain the Lagranges method of undetermined multipliers for two variables
subject to single condition.
2) If , , , show that u, v, w are not independent

y x y z

x y y z
w
u v
x z
z x
and find the relation between them.

3) Derive the expression for the radius of the curvature for the curve given by
r = f( ).
_______________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Paper – IV)
Real Analysis

1) Every non-empty subset of natural numbers has a first element is called
_____________
a) The well-ordering principle b) The property of order-completeness
c) The Archimedean property d) The Dedekinds property
2) The infimum of the set { : n ∈ N} is _____________
1
a) 0 b) 1 c) d) None of these
2
3) Every non-empty set of real numbers which is bounded below has
_____________
a) The supremum in R
b) The infimum in R
c) Neither infimum nor supremum in R
d) The greatest member in R
4) If a and b are any two positive real numbers then there exists a positive
integer n such that _____________
a) na ≤ b b) na < b c) na > b d) a > nb
1
5) If a ≤ b + , for all n ∈ N and a, b ∈ R then _____________
n
a) a = b b) a > b c) a ≥ b d) a ≤ b
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 84 -2- *SLRC84*
∞
⎧ n ⎫
6) The sequence ⎨ ⎬ is _____________
⎩n + 1⎭1
a) Bounded below only b) Bounded above only
c) Bounded d) Unbounded
∞
⎧⎪ (− 1)n ⎫⎪
7) The limit point/s of the range set of the sequence ⎨1 + n ⎬ is/are
⎪⎩ ⎪⎭1
_____________
a) 1 b) 1 and –1 c) 0 and 2 d) –2
⎛n π⎞
8) If an = Sin ⎜ ⎟ , n ∈ N, then lim an = 0 _____________
⎝ 3 ⎠
3 3
a) –1 b) 1 c) d) −
2 2
1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n
9) lim = _____________
n→∞ n2
1
a) b) 1 c) 0 d) Does not exist
2
S1 t n + S2 t n − 1 + ... + Sn t1
10) If nlim Sn = l , lim tn = m , then lim = lm is
→∞ n→∞ n→ ∞ n
called _____________
a) Sandwich theorem
b) Cesaro’s theorem
c) Cauchy theorem
d) Bolzano-Weirstrass theorem
⎛ an ⎞
11) The series ∑ n
a of +ve terms is convergent if lim n ⎜ − 1⎟ = L then
n→ ∞ ⎜ an + 1 ⎟
⎝ ⎠
_____________
a) L = 1 b) L < 1 c) L ≤ 1 d) L > 1
*SLRC84* -3- SLR-C – 84
1
−3n 2
⎛ 1 ⎞
12) lim ⎜1 + ⎟ = _____________
n→ ∞ ⎝ n⎠
1 1
a) e b) c) e3 / 2 d)
e e3
∞
13) The series ∑ (−1)n is _____________
n=1
a) Convergent b) Divergent c) Oscillatory d) None of these

∞
14) If the series ∑ an converges, then lim an = 0 is _____________
n→ ∞
n=1
a) a necessary condition but not sufficient

b) a sufficient condition but not necessary
c) both necessary and sufficient condition
d) none of these
1) Find the g.l.b. and l.u.b. of the set S = {x ∈ Z/x2 ≤ 16}.
2) Define the term order structure.
3) If S ⊆ T ⊆ R, where S ≠ φ , then show that if T is bounded above,
then Sup S ≤ Sup T.
4) Write down the formula for the sequence 1, –3, 5, –7, 9, –11, 13, –15, .....
2n − 3
5) Show that nlim = 2.
→∞ n+1
xn
6) Show that for any real number x, lim = 0.
n→ ∞ n!
1 2 n
7) Show that the series + + ... + + ...... does not converge.
2 3 n+1
8) State the Raabe’s Test.
∞
1
9) Test for convergence the series ∑ 2 .
n=1 n
SLR-C – 84 -4- *SLRC84*

1) Show that Supremum and infimum for a set, if exists are unique.
2) Show that every convergent sequence is bounded.
3) State and prove Pringsheim’s theorem.
∞
1
B) Show that the series ∑ n
is divergent. 4
1

1) Prove that the Dedekinds property is equivalent to completeness property
in R.
n
⎛ 1⎞
2) Show that the sequence {Sn}, where Sn = ⎜1 + ⎟ , is convergent and that
⎝ n⎠
n
⎛ 1⎞
lim ⎜ 1 + ⎟ lies between 2 and 3.
n→ ∞ ⎝ n⎠
3) State and prove D’Alemberts Ratio Test.

1) If f : A → B and if X ⊂ A and Y ⊂ A then prove that
f (X ∩ Y ) ⊂ f ( X) ∩ f (Y) . Is converse true ? Justify your answer.
2) State and prove Cantor’s Intersection theorem for real line.
1.3.5 .... (2n − 1) x 2n

∞
3) Discuss the convergence of ∑ 2.4.6 .... (2n) . 2n .
n=1
_______________
*SLRC85* SLR-C 85
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS
Electronics Circuits (Paper III)

4) Use of log-table and calculator is allowed.

i) The efficiency of full wave rectifier is ___________ %.
a) 40.3 b) 81 c) 121 d) 50
ii) DC level and low level frequency signal is amplified by ___________ amplifier.
a) RC coupled b) DC coupled
c) Transformer coupled d) LC coupled
iii) Colpitts oscillator uses ___________ tank circuit.
a) Inductor tapped b) Capacitor tapped
c) RC tapped d) LC tapped
iv) Gain of feedback amplifier is given by Avf =
a) Av/1 KAv b) Av(1 + KAv) c) Av(1 KAv) d) KAv
v) In multi stage amplifier voltage gain
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Not affected d) Becomes zero
vi) ___________ bias is the best method of transistor biasing.
a) Emitter b) Collector to base
c) Fixed d) Voltage divider
vii) Emitter follower amplifier is also called as ___________ amplifier.
a) Common emitter b) Common base
c) Common collector d) Common source
P.T.O.
SLR-C 85 -2- *SLRC85*
viii) Feedback factor k is always

a) Equal to one b) Greater than one
c) Less than one d) Zero
ix) Cross over distortion is eliminated in ___________ push pull amplifier.
a) Class-A b) Class-B c) Class-AB d) Class-C
x) In phase shift oscillator phase angle across each network is ___________
degree.
a) 60 b) 120 c) 180 d) 360
xi) Conversion of AC into DC is called
a) Regulator b) Filter c) Amplifier d) Rectifier
xii) Stability factor of fixed base bias common emitter amplifier is
a)
b) 1 c) 1 +
d) 2
xiii) Current gain of Darlington pair amplifier is

a)

+
b)
/

c)

.
d)

xiv) In Wein-bridge oscillator expression for frequency of oscillation is f =
a) b) c) d)

4 + $ 4 + 4 + 4 +
2. Answer any seven (two marks each) : 14

i) What is rectification ? What are its types ?
ii) Define operating point and stability factor.
iii) What is need of cascading of amplifier stages ?
iv) What is power amplifier ? Give its classification.
v) What is Barkhausen criterion for sustained oscillations in the tank circuit ?
vi) Draw the circuit diagram of complimentary-symmetry amplifier.
vii) In an amplifier with negative feedback Av = 20 and = 0.2. Calculate gain
with feedback.
viii) Draw the circuit diagram of Colplitts oscillator.
ix) Enlist the methods of transistor biasing.
*SLRC85* -3- SLR-C 85
3. A) Answer any two (five marks each) : 10

i) Explain half wave rectifier circuit.
ii) Explain fixed baise-bias method of biasing BJT.
iii) Explain Darlington pair amplifier.
B) Design Wein-bridge oscillator to get frequency of 725 Hz with C = 0.1 F.
4
4. Answer any two (seven marks each) : 14

i) Explain full wave center tapped rectifier with derivation of ripple factor and
efficiency.
ii) Explain voltage divide biasing with derivation of stability factor.
iii) What is feedback in amplifier ? What are its types ? Explain how negative
feedback decreases gain.
5. Answer any two (seven marks each) : 14

i) Explain Hartley oscillator with neat circuit diagram.
ii) Discuss AC analysis of common emitter configuration amplifier.
iii) Explain Piezo electric crystal with its equivalent circuit. Explain Pierce crystal
oscillator.
___________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) Examination, 2017

GEOGRAPHY
Paper – III : Biogeography – I (CGPA Pattern)

2) Draw neat maps and diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Use of map stencil is allowed.
1. Choose and write a correct from given four alternative. 14
1) Biogeography is the sub branch of _____________ geography.

A) Human B) Historical
C) Settlement D) Physical
2) The study of biogeography is very _______________ in nature.

A) Complex B) Easy C) Simple D) Unique
3) ___________ is considered as father of plant Geography.

A) Robinson B) Taylor C) Humboldt D) Alexander
4) _____________ has considered geographical factors which explain the

distribution of plants and animals.
A) Darlington B) Taylor
C) Humboldt D) Alexander
5) ______________ tried to established relationship between age and range of

species
A) Darlington B) J C Willies
C) Humboldt D) Taylor
6) Plants provided the primary source food energy for all living organisms including
_____________
A) Monkey B) Rat C) Man D) Bat
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 86 -2- *SLRC86*
7) The nutrients serve as a store of ___________ energy in the form of
Carbohydrates proteins of fats.
A) Chemical B) Physical C) Solar D) Lunar
8) The _____________ are classified as herbivores, carnivores and omnivores.

A) Decomposer B) Produces C) Autotrophs D) Consumers
9) The ___________ ecosystems are specially studied due to change in salinity.

A) Marine B) Tidal C) Tundra D) Terrestrial
10) The animals are called as ______________ they are unable to produce their
own food.
A) Herbivorous B) Carnivorous
C) Heterotrophs D) Autotrophs
11) The ________________ ecosystem is considered as richest in biodiversity.

A) Desert B) Taiga C) Tundra D) Tropical Forest
12) ___________ is one of the methods of conservation of biodiversity.

A) Genetic bank B) Reserve Bank
C) Central Bank D) Blood Bank
13) There are two _____________ spots of biodiversity in India.

A) Cool B) Cold C) Warm D) Hot
14) The term ___________ is used to describe the number, variety and variability
of living organization.
A) Biodiversity B) Plantdiversity
C) Animaldiversity D) Racialdiversity

1) Define biogeography.
2) What is environment ?
3) Name physical factors of biogeography.
4) State the law of energy exchange.
5) What is biomass ?
6) What is biodiversity ?
*SLRC86* -3- SLR-C – 86
3. Answer any three of the following : 15

1) Describe the branches of biogeography.
2) Explain the importance of Physiography in biogeography.
3) Describe the characteristics of grass land ecosystem.
4) Explain the hot spot of biodiversity.
4. Write any three of the following : 15

1) Explain the nature of biogeography.
2) State the influence of anthropogenic factor on biogeography.
3) Explain the carbon cycle.
4) Describe the types of biodiversity.
5. A) Answer any one of the following long answer question. 6

1) Explain the food chain and food web.
2) Describe the types of ecosystem.
B) Answer any one of the following long answer question. 5
1) Explain the importance of climate in biogeography.
2) What is conservation of biodiversity ?
––––––––––––––––––––
*SLRC87* SLR-C 87
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS
Pulse and Switching Circuits (Paper IV)

2) Draw the neat diagram wherever necessary.
4) Use of log tables or calculators are allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative for the following. 14
i) _______ circuit produces narrow positive and negative pulses from a

rectangular wave input.
a) Integrator b) Differentiator c) Clipper d) Clamper
ii) The criteria for a good differentiating circuit is that its time constant (T = R.C)
should be
a) much larger than the period of the input waveform
b) less than or equal to the period of the input waveform
c) much smaller than the period of the input waveform
d) none of these
iii) The clamper circuit is used to

a) introduce a dc level to ac signal
b) suppress variations in amplitude of the input signal
c) obtain an output which is integral of the input signal
d) none of these
iv) The sweep speed of simple RC circuit is given by
a) I/C b) It/C c) d)
6 V . T
I I
4 + R C
P.T.O.
SLR-C 87 -2- *SLRC87*
v) If UJT oscillator circuit is provided by a constant voltage source then _______

type of wave forms are generated.
a) triangular b) square c) positive ramp d) sawtooth
vi) A monostable multivibrator has

a) one stable state and one quasistable state
b) two stable states
c) two quasistable states
d) three states
vii) In a Schmitt trigger circuit the UTP is +2.5V and LTP is +1.0V then hysteresis
voltage will be
a) 3.5 V b) 2.5 c) 1.0V d) 1.5V
viii) An astable multivibrator is widely used as the generator of

a) sine wave b) square wave
c) triangular wave d) all of these
ix) If TON = 1m sec and TOFF = 4m sec, then the duty cycle of astable multivibrator
is
a) 20% b) 25% c) 33.33% d) None of these
x) If a bistable multivibrator is triggered at 500Hz input signal frequency, then

output frequency will be
a) 500 Hz b) 250 Hz c) 1KHz d) 2KHz
xi) If the sweep time of general sweep voltage is gusec and the fly back time is 1
usec, then the sweep frequency is approximately
a) 1 MHz b) 1.5 MHz c) 100 KHz d) 10 KHz
xii) Application of IC 555 are

a) astable multivibrator b) monostable multivibrator
c) battery charger d) all of above
xiii) In application of IC 555 as voltage controlled oscillator, the frequency sweeping

voltage is applied to pin number
a) 5 b) 4 c) 2 d) 6
xiv) The average output voltage of negative clipper circuit will always be
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Infinity
*SLRC87* -3- SLR-C 87
2. Answer any seven of the following. 14

i) Explain the need of wave shaping circuits.
ii) Differentiate between linear and nonlinear wave shaping circuits.
iii) Draw labelled pin diagram of IC 555.
iv) Give the applications of multivibrator.
v) Draw the circuit of negative clipper.
vi) Write the equations for frequency and percent duty cycle of an astable
multivibrator using IC 555.
vii) Explain in brief working of transistor as switch.
viii) Determine the gate width of monostable multivibrator using IC 555, where
R = 10K and C = 0.01 F.

ix) Draw labelled pin diagram of IC 74121.

i) Explain RC integrator circuit.
ii) Explain Miller integrator circuit.
iii) Explain astable multivibrator using NAND gates.
B) Explain application of IC 555 timer as voltage controlled oscillator. 4
4. Attempt any two of the following. 14

i) With neat circuit diagram explain the working of UJT relaxation oscillator.
ii) Explain astable multivibrator using BJT. Calculate output frequency when
timing resistor is 10K and capacitor at 0.1 F are connected.

iii) Draw the functional block diagram of IC 555 timer and explain in brief.

i) Explain monostable multivibrator using BJT obtain an expression for gate
width.
ii) Explain monostable multivibrator using IC 555 write an expression for gate
width.
iii) With neat circuit diagram explain the operation of Schmitt trigger. Give its
applications.

Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Computer Science) (Semester – III) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

Paper – III : OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING USING C++
Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Choose correct alternatives : 14
1) ___________ is also called as variable of class.

a) Constructors b) Object
2) Binding the data and functions into single unit is called as ____________
a) Polymorphism b) Data Abstraction
c) Data Encapsulation d) Class
3) Friend function is member function of class.

a) True b) False
4) _______________ operator cannot be overloaded.

a) New b) <<
c) >> d) None of these
5) In private derivation of class, the public data of base class becomes

______________ in derived class.
a) Public b) Private
c) both a & b d) Protected
6) Pass by reference is a default parameter passing technique in C++.

a) True b) False
7) Single class has multiple destructors.

a) True b) False
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 89 -2- *SLRC89*
8) When member function is defined inside class body then compiler treats
that function as __________ function.
a) inline b) friend
c) non inline d) both b and c
9) In POP, ______________ communicates with each other.

a) Object b) Function
c) Operators d) Both b and c
10) In inheritance, constructors are executed from derived class to base class.
a) True b) False
11) ++ a → p increments the value of ______________

a) p b) a
12) Dynamic polymorphism is achieved by ______________

a) Function overloading b) Operator overloading
c) Virtual function d) Both a and b
13) ‘this’ can be used within ______________ member function of class.

a) Non b) Non-static
c) Static d) Both a and b
14) In C++, the maximum range value of character data type is ______________
a) – 128 b) 128
c) –127 d) 127

1) What is C++ ? List out its applications.
2) What is reference variable ? Write its use in C++.
3) What is dynamic memory allocation ? How it is achieved in C++ ?
4) Write syntax and use of ‘typedef’ keyword.
5) Define : Nesting of member function.
6) Write difference between structure and class.
7) Explain “Data Abstraction” as OOP’s concept.
8) What is Delegation ?
9) What is Abstract class ?
*SLRC89* -3- SLR-C – 89

1) Write an object oriented program that prints all perfect numbers between
1 to 100.
2) Explain ‘Function overloading” in detail.
3) Write a program that demonstrates overloading of constructor.
B) How will you store multiple records in single object ? Explain it with suitable
example. 4
1) Write a program to overload + as binary operator that concatenates two

strings together.
2) What is constructor ? Explain all types of constructor’s in detail.
3) Write a program to implement Hierarchical inheritance.
1) What is type conversion ? Explain implicit and explicit type conversion with
one example.
2) Write a program that demonstrate the use of ‘this’ keyword.
3) Write an object oriented menu driven program that performs following bank
transactions.
1) Create account
2) Deposit amount
3) Withdraw amount
4) Account summary.
___________________
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
RDBMS (Paper – IV)

1. Choose correct alternative : 14

1) Which person is responsible for overall activities for database ?
a) Database Designer b) Database Analyst
c) Database Administrator d) Database Manager
2) The function of a database is ______________

a) To check all input data b) To check all spelling
c) To collect and organize data d) All of the above
3) DML language is used to ______________

a) Define schema b) Define internal level
c) Modify schema d) Access of data
4) ______________ is the attribute that uniquely identify occurrence of each

entity.
a) Foreign key b) Primary key
c) Relation key d) All of the above
5) ______________ are unsophisticated users.

a) Naive users b) Application programmers
c) DBA d) Specializes users
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 90 -2- *SLRC90*
6) ______________ is responsible for fetching data from disk storage into main
memory.
a) Integrity Manager b) Transaction Manager
c) File Manager d) Buffer Manager
7) Select ‘database’ from dual where 1 = NULL ; result is ______________

a) Database b) False
c) True d) No row selected
8) ______________ character represents zero or more characters while matching

the pattern.
a) * b) – c) + d) %
9) What is the degree of a table with 25 rows and 7 columns ?

a) 175 b) 25
c) 7 d) None of the above
10) Raw is used to store ASCII data

a) True b) False
11) A table with columns and rows is called as a

a) Table b) Relation
c) Key d) None of the above
12) To substitute any NULL value with a user specified value, we use
a) TO CHAR function b) NVL function
c) DATE function d) None of the above
13) Oracle provides a special table that can be used to test any function. This
table is
a) DUAL table b) EMPLOYEE table
c) SALARY table d) None of the above
14) PL/SQL is a
a) Non-procedural DML b) Procedural DML
c) Formal Query Language d) None of the above
*SLRC90* -3- SLR-C – 90
1) List the clause in SQL.

2) Data types in PL/SQL.
3) Character functions in SQL.
4) Explain Case Expression in SQL.
5) Write simple PL/SQL block.
6) Define Trigger. List it’s type.
7) List types of parameters in PL/SQL.
8) List cursor attributes in PL/SQL.
9) Define Attribute, Tuple.

1) List and explain aggregate functions used in SQL.
2) What is meant by Exception ? Explain it’s type in PL/SQL.
3) What are the advantages and disadvantages of DBMS.
B) Create table student. Use 4 attributes and 2 constraints. 4

1) Write note on components of a DBMS.
2) What is sub query ? Explain it’s type with example.
3) What is package in PL/SQL ? Create procedure inside package.

1) Create a function to check given number is palindrome or not.
2) Write a trigger on emp table which shows the old and new value of ename
after any updation on ename of emp table.
3) Explain explicit cursor with suitable example.
___________________
Seat
No.

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper – I)
Bio molecules

2) Write chemical reactions where involved.
3) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
4) Draw labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the given
options. 14
i) Thiamine deficiency causes ____________

a) Pellagra b) Beriberi
c) Burning feet d) Night blindness
ii) In general, each enzyme name is ending with word ____________

a) Ose b) Ate
c) Ase d) One
iii) α1→ 4 glycosidic linkage is present in ___________

a) Maltose b) Lactose
c) Sucrose d) Isomaltose
iv) Chemically lipids are ____________ of long chain fatty acids.

a) Esters b) Alcohols
c) Amines d) Ketones
v) Vitamin B1 is also called as ___________

a) Riboflavin b) Pyridoxine
c) Thiamine d) Niacin
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 91 -2- *SLRC91*
vi) Reduction of aldehyde or ketone group of monosaccharide gives

______________
a) Amine b) Amide
c) Alcohol d) Acid
vii) Fibrous proteins are also called as ______________

a) Peptones b) Scleroproteins
c) Albumins d) Globular proteins
viii) Chitin contains _____________

a) L-ascorbic acid b) Glucosamine
c) Deoxyribose d) Myoinositol
ix) Vitamin A structure contains ______________ double bonds.

a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
x) Aspartic acid has _____________ groups.

a) 2 carboxylic acid and 2 amino b) 2 carboxylic acid and 1 amino
c) 1 carboxylic acid and 2 amino d) 1 carboxylic acid and 1 amino
xi) In amylopectins, the two glycosidic bonds present are _____________

a) α1 → 4 & β 1 → 4 b) α1 → 6 & β 1 → 6
c) α1 → 4 & α 1 → 6 d) α1 → 4 & β 1 → 6
xii) Holoenzyme contains _____________ plus coenzyme.

a) Vitamin b) Apoenzyme
c) Zymogene d) Isoenzyme
xiii) IN phospholipids a phosphate group is attached to _____________

a) – NH2 group b) C=O group
c) – OH group d) – COOH group
xiv) Deficiency of vitamin B6 results _____________

a) Night blindness b) Oedema
c) Pellagra d) Burning feet
*SLRC91* -3- SLR-C – 91

i) Differentiate between myoglobin and haemoglobin.
ii) Why sucrose is a non reducing sugar ?
iii) Draw the structures of thiamine and riboflavin.
iv) Define coenzyme and holoenzyme.
v) Write two differences between amylose and cellulose.
vi) Name three subclasses of fibrous proteins.
vii) Draw structures of palmitic acid and lauric acid.
viii) What are deficiency disorders of pyridoxine ?
ix) Write names of various prosthetic groups involved in the formation of compound
lipids.

i) What are the salient features of induced fit hypothesis ?
ii) Write down ninhydrin reaction for amino acids.
iii) Classify derived lipids with example.
B) Explain Secondary structure of protein. 4

i) Explain in detail with sub classification of complex proteins.
ii) Explain monosaccharide and classify types of monosaccharide with example.
iii) What are oligosaccharides ? Write structures of maltose, cellulose, lactose,
sucrose and isomaltose.

i) Explain the structure of pantothenic acid as structure, source, biochemical
role and deficiency disorder.
ii) What is induced fit hypothesis ? Explain 3 factors affecting enzyme activity.
iii) What are enzymes ? Write note on Line weaver Burk spot.
___________________
*SLRC92* SLR-C 92
Seat
No.

PLANT PROTECTION
Paper I : Major Crops and Methods of Integrated Plant Protection
Instructions : I) All questions are compulsory.

II) All questions carry equal marks.
III) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
IV) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Choose and write the correct answer from the given alternative : (1×14=14)
1) ________ are concerned with the methods of integrated plant protection.
a) Cereals b) Vegetables
c) Pulses d) All the above
2) Jowar belongs to the class
a) Dicotylidonae b) Monocotylidonae
c) Tricotylidonae d) None of these
3) Sunflower is the example of ________ crop.
a) Oil seed b) Cereals c) Fruit d) Floriculture
4) Crop hygiene is the example of ______ methods.
a) Mechanical b) Physical
c) Biological d) Cultural
5) Shaking of plants is the examples of _______ methods.
a) Mechanical b) Physical c) Cultural d) Chemical
6) Wheat has the origin from _______ region of India.
a) North-South b) North-East
c) North d) North-West
7) Groundnut is native of South
a) Africa b) India c) America d) Europe
P.T.O.
SLR-C 92 -2- *SLRC92*
8) Sugarcane requires _______ temperature for its growth.

a) 20 27°C b) 20 26°C c) 20 28°C d) 20 29°C
9) Cajanus cajan belongs to the family
a) Papilionaceae b) Myrtaceae
c) Liliaceae d) Palmae
10) Pests of Cicer arietinum are controlled with the help of
a) BHC 10% b) BSC 10% c) BMC 10% d) DHC 10%
11) Brinjal belongs to the family
a) Meliaceae b) Solanaceae
c) Poaceae d) Zygophylaceae
12) ________ are used for preventing the movement of the crawling insect.
a) Micky bands b) Sicky bands
c) Sticky bands d) All of these
13) _______ control of insect pest is based on the exploitation of mutual
antagonism.
a) Chemical b) Mechanical
c) Biological d) Cultural
14) Coffee rust came to India from
a) Japan b) China c) Thialand d) Shri Lanka
2. Attempt any seven of the following : (7×2=14)

i) Write the scientific name and family of Gerbera.
ii) Give the morphology of rose.
iii) Describe the fertilizers required for cabbage.
iv) Explain the economic importance of mango.
v) Define organic farming.
vi) What is crop rotation ?
vii) Define tillage.
viii) What are physical methods of plant protection ?
ix) Define rope dragging.
*SLRC92* -3- SLR-C 92
3. A) Attempt any two of the following : (2×5=10)

i) Give the role of organic farming in agriculture.
ii) Explain the soil type and fertilizers requirements for the wheat.
iii) Describe the netting and bagging studied by you.
B) Give the general account of resistant varieties. 4
4. Attempt any two of the following : (2×7=14)

i) Explain the domestic quarantine studied by you.
ii) Describe the acaricides and molluscicides in disease management.
iii) Give the cultural practice of cotton with respect to soil types, fertilizers and
disease management.
5. Attempt any two of the following : (2×7=14)

i) Give the physical methods of heat and soil solarization for pest control.
ii) Explain the types of biofertilizers and their applications.
iii) Write the cultural practice of wheat with respect to soil types, fertilizers and
disease management.
_____________
Seat
No.

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper – II)
Biochemical Techniques

2) Write chemical reactions where involved.
3) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
4) Draw labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the following : 14
i) Indian patent act came into force in the year __________

a) 1950 b) 1960 c) 1970 d) 1980
ii) In SDS-PAGE electrophoresis separation depends on _____________ of the

protein molecule.
a) Charge b) Concentration c) Size d) pH
iii) TLC is the type of ___________ chromatography.

a) Partition b) Adsorption c) Gas d) Column
iv) Western blotting technique is used for blot transfer of ___________

a) DNA b) Protein c) Lipids d) Carbohydrates
v) Glutaraldehyde is used to immobilise enzymes by ___________

a) Adsorption b) Intermolecular cross linking
c) Covalent bonding d) Entrapment in agar gel
vi) ELISA technique is used to detect presence of ____________ in small amounts.

a) DNA b) RNA c) Antibodies d) Lipoproteins
vii) According to Beer’s law absorbance of coloured solution depends on its

____________
a) Length of cuvette b) pH of solution
c) Nature of colour d) Concentration of colouring solution
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 93 -2- *SLRC93*
viii) In partition chromatography stationary phase is a _____________
a) Liquid b) Solid
c) Gas d) Mixture of gases
ix) In electrophoresis, the rate of migration can be controlled by controlling

____________
a) Pressure b) Temperature
c) pH d) Heat
x) When haemoglobin combines with oxygen, the colour of blood changes to

____________
a) Yellow b) Colourless
c) Bright red d) Bright purple
xi) Whole cells are immobilised by _____________ method.

a) Physical adsorption b) Gel entrapment
c) Ionic bonding d) Covalent bonding
xii) Sephadex is prepared by cross linking of a ___________ dextran of bacterial

origin.
a) Monosaccharide b) Disaccharide
c) Trisaccharide d) Polysaccharide
xiii) Schiff’s base linkage is also known as ___________ binding method.

a) Aldehyde b) Aldimine
c) Amino d) Acyl
xiv) The logarithm of ratio of intensity of incident light to the intensity of transmitted
light is called as _______________
a) Transmittance b) λ max
c) Molar extinction coefficient d) Absorbance

i) How is the elution volume found out in gel permeation chromatography ?
ii) Define transmittance and specific absorbance.
iii) What is the characteristics of primer used in PCR ?
iv) Why guard column is used in HPLC ?
*SLRC93* -3- SLR-C – 93
v) What is the role of stacking gel in SDS-PAGE ?

vi) What is the principle of column chromatography ?
vii) What is the trade secret ?
viii) Why the enzymes immobilised in column adsorption gradually lose their
activity ?
ix) Name the chemicals used for preparation of polyacrylamide gel.

i) What is the effect of ionic strength, pH and buffer on electrophoretic
mobility ?
ii) What are the limitations of colorimetric measurement ?
iii) Explain applications of enzyme immobilisation.
B) What is the function of detectors used in HPLC ? 4

i) What is patent ? Write the procedure, advantage and disadvantage of patent.
ii) What is hybridoma ? Explain hybridoma technology.
iii) Write the industrial applications of immobilised enzymes.

i) Write the principle, preparation of plate, working and uses of TLC.
ii) What is electrophoresis ? Explain three factors affecting electrophoretic
mobility.
iii) Explain colorimeter with suitable diagram. What are limitations of colorimeter ?
––––––––––––––––––––
*SLRC94* SLR-C 94
Seat
No.

PLANT PROTECTION
Paper II : Crop Diseases and their Management

1. Select the correct answer and rewrite the sentences. (1×14=14)
1) Structural abnormalities associated with host plant is called

a) disease resistance b) disease tolerance
c) disease triangle d) plant disease
2) _________ are the necrotic symptoms.

a) Death of plant tissue b) Decay of plant tissue
c) Excess of cell division d) Both a and b
3) Root knot disease is caused by _______ pathogen.

a) viral b) bacterial c) fungal d) nematode
4) _______ of microbes is carried out in aseptic conditions.

a) Inoculation b) Isolation c) Incubation d) All the above
5) Transmission of plant pathogen is carried out by _______ agencies.

a) water b) air c) insects d) all the above
6) Kochs postulates are very useful in

a) Environment b) Host
c) Finding exact cause of disease d) Disease dispersal
P.T.O.
SLR-C 94 -2- *SLRC94*
7) Downy mildew of grape disease is caused by the sp. of

a) Plasmopara b) Sphacelotheca
c) Sclerospora d) Alternaria
8) Grain smut of Jowar disease is primarily
a) air borne b) seed borne
c) soil borne d) both b and c
9) _______ is viral disease.
a) Leaf curl of chilli b) Powdery mildew
c) Smut of jowar d) Wilt of tomato
10) Rogueing includes
a) Destruction of the diseased part b) Training
c) Burning of diseased part d) Both a and c
11) The secondary source of Rust of groundnut disease is
a) uredospores b) teleutospores
c) basidiospores d) none of these
12) Entry of pathogen in to the host plant is called
a) incubation b) inoculation c) isolation d) sporulation
13) Infection is affected by
a) Moisture b) Temperature
c) Physical nature of host d) All the above
14) Citrus canker is _______ disease.
a) bacterial b) fungal c) viral d) nematode
2. Answer any seven of the following. (2×7=14)

i) What is meant by isolation ?
ii) Define disease triangle.
iii) What is susceptibility ?
iv) Give the symptoms of yellow vein mosaic of bhendi.
v) What is meant by eradication of pathogen ?
vi) Give the control measures of GSD.
vii) Define hypertrophy.
viii) Suggest the control measures of powdery mildew disease.
ix) State the different Kochs postulates.
*SLRC94* -3- SLR-C 94
3. A) Answer any two of the followings. (2×5=10)

i) Classify plant diseases based on modes of dispersal.
ii) Describe any two methods of isolation of pathogen.
iii) Give the symptoms and control measures of rust of soya bean.
B) Explain the symptoms and disease cycle of powdery mildew of cucurbits. 4
4. Answer any two of the followings. (2×7=14)

i) Add a note on concept of plant disease.
ii) Describe any two methods of inoculation.
iii) Describe the mode of infection.

i) Classify plant diseases based on pathogens.
ii) Give an account of quantitative methods of crop disease assessment.
iii) Give symtoms, pathogen and control measures of early blight of Tomato.

Seat
No.

GEOCHEMISTRY (Paper – I)
Introduction to Geochemistry

1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 14

i) The mathematical equation of Gold Schmidt’s Minerological phase rule is
____________
a) p = c b) p = F
c) c = f d) p ≠ c
ii) Water is ___________ component system.
a) Two b) Three
c) Zero d) One
iii) The stoichiometry of NaCl is ___________
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 1
c) 1 : 3 d) 2 : 1
iv) If co-ordination number is eight, then geometry of crystal is
a) f-c-c b) b-c-c
c) H-C-P d) None of these
v) Complex order is present only in perfect crystal at __________ temperature.
a) Room b) Zero
c) Normal d) High
vi) In co-valent bonding, there is ____________ of electrons.
a) Transfer b) Acceptance
c) Sharing d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 96 -2- *SLRC96*
vii) The atomic substitution is higher at higher

a) Temperature b) Pressure
c) Density d) Volume
viii) The polymorphous of CaCO3 is
a) Calcite b) α -quartz
c) β -quartz d) Kyanite
ix) The ratio of Si : 0 in single chain silicate structure is
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 3
c) 2 : 3 d) 3 : 1
x) The basic unit of silicate structure is
a) (SiO4)–1 b) (SiO4)–2
c) (SiO4)–3 d) (SiO4)–4
xi) The radius ratio of Zinc blende is
a) 0.1 b) 0.2
c) 0.3 d) 0.4
xii) CaCO 3( s ) CaO( s ) + CO 2(g) is a ____________ component system.

a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
xiii) In diamond, there is ___________ hybridization.
a) Sp b) Sp2
c) Sp3 d) None of these
xiv) In Sulphur System, there are ____________ triple points.
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four

i) Define component of a system. Give one example.
ii) Define lattice energy of a crystal.
iii) Define radius ratio.
iv) Draw a single chain structure of silicate.
v) Define the states of matter.
*SLRC96* -3- SLR-C – 96
vi) Define ionic bond. Give one example.

vii) Draw the structure of Calcium chloride.
viii) Discuss phase rule with respect to decomposition of calcium carbonate.
ix) Define transition temperature. Give one example.

i) State and explain Gibb’s phase rule.
ii) Give the general rules of three dimensional structure with the help of solid
geometry.
iii) Draw the structure of NaCl.
B) Write a short note on polymorphism. 4

i) Discuss sulphur system.
ii) Give the general rules of bond type.
iii) Discuss the principle of crystal structure.

i) Discuss water system.
ii) Write a short note on radii of common ions in rock forming minerals.
iii) Discuss Isomorphism.
_____________________
*SLRC97* SLR-C 97
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY
Animal Diversity III (Paper III)

1. Choose and write a correct answer from given four alternatives. 14
1) Common salivary duct opens at the base of ___________

a) Hypopharynx b) Mandible
c) 2nd maxilla d) Labrum
2) Numbers of teeth present in gizzard of cockroach are ____________

a) 7 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
3) Glosa and paraglosa are the parts of ___________

a) Mandible b) Hypopharynx
c) 1st maxilla d) 2nd maxilla
4) Swimming types of foots are present in ___________

a) Aplysia b) Pila
c) Sepia d) Mytilus
5) Anal styles are found _____________

a) Female cockroach b) Male cockroach
c) Butterfly d) Both a and b
P.T.O.
SLR-C 97 -2- *SLRC97*
6) In Pila statosyst is organ for ______________

a) Hearing b) Vision
c) Olfactory d) Equilibrium
7) Malaria is caused by _____________

a) Aedes aegypti b) P.vivax
c) P. ovalis d) Culex
8) Bipinnaria is the larval stage of ___________

a) Annelida b) Echinodermata
c) Mollusca d) Hemichordata
9) In radula of pila ____________ teeth are present in single row.

a) 7 b) 6 c) 5 d) 9
10) Presence of pallial cavity is a characteristic feature of phylum __________

a) Mollusca b) Arthropoda
c) Echinodermata d) None of the above
11) Malpighian tubules in cockroach are used for _____________

a) Excretory b) Reproductive
c) Digestion d) Nervous
12) Arial respiratory organ of Pila is ____________

a) Mantle b) Pulmonary Sac
c) Ctenidium d) Branchial
13) Sponging type of mouth parts are present in ___________

a) House fly b) Cockroach
c) Honey bee d) Butterfly
14) For control of mosquito population ______________ fish is used as biological

agent.
a) Mrigal b) Labeo
c) Gambusia d) Catla
*SLRC97* -3- SLR-C 97

1) Salient features of phylum Mollusca.
2) Gizzard of cockroach.
3) Functions of foot in mytilus.
4) Mandibles of cockroach.
5) Osphradium of Pila.
6) Bipinnaria.
7) Symptoms of dengue disease.
8) Storage excretion.
9) Mushroom gland in cockroach.

1) Explain nervous system of cockroach.
2) Excretory system of Pila.
3) Explain foot in cephalopoda.
B) Mouth parts of butterfly. 4
1) Circulatory system of cockroach.
2) Female reproductive system of Pila.
3) Symptoms and control measures of malaria disease.
1) Digestive system of cockroach.
2) Affinities of hemichordata.
3) Describe nervous system of Pila.

_____________
Seat
No.

GEOCHEMISTRY
Introduction to Solar System and Geosphere (Paper – II)

1) In the cosmic abundances, the elements show a rapid exponential decrease

for elements of the ___________ atomic numbers.
a) Lower b) Higher
c) Medium d) No relation with atomic numbers
2) Which planets revolve in retrograde motion ?

a) Neptune and Pluto b) Earth and Mars
c) Uranus and Venus d) Mercury and Jupiter
3) The composition of terrestrial water is _______________

a) Ca > Mg > Na b) Ca > Na > Mg
c) Mg > Na > Ca d) Na > Ca > Mg
4) In seawater composition ______________

a) Mg >Na >Ca b) Ca > Na > Mg
c) Ca > Mg > Na d) Na > Mg > Ca
5) The uppermost atmospheric layer is ______________

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 99 -2- *SLRC99*
6) __________ are involved in photosynthesis and balances each other.

a) (H2O, CO2) b) (N2, O2)
c) (O2, CO2) d) (N2, O3)
7) __________ protects troposphere from the UV radiations.

a) O2 b) O3
c) O4 d) O5
8) Nitrogen from atmosphere is removed by __________ processes.

a) Organic and inorganic b) Only organic
c) Only inorganic d) None of the above
9) The photochemical dissociation of water vapour in the upper atmosphere

added ______________ gas.
a) NH3 b) H2
c) CO2 d) O2
10) The addition of 40Ar in the atmosphere by the radioactive decay of __________
took place throughout geologic time.
a) 38 K b) 40 K
c) 40 Na d) 38 Na
11) Loss of hydrogen and helium in the atmosphere took place by ______________
from the earth.
a) Formation of coal and petroleum b) Combustion of coal
c) Escape in space d) Locked in carbonate sediments.
12) The main gaseous constituents of present day atmosphere are _____________
a) (H2O, H2, CO2) b) (N2, O2, Ar)
c) (N2, O2, CO2) d) (N2, O2, O3)
13) In the primeval atmosphere, at the first stage of its evolution _____________
was major constituent.
a) (O2, N 2, CH4) b) (CH4, H2, H 2O2)
c) (H2O, CO3, N2) d) (CH3, N2, CH4)
14) The upper limit of the tropophere is called ______________

a) Stratopause b) Tropopause
c) Mesopause d) Thermopause
*SLRC99* -3- SLR-C – 99

i) What is the thickness of transition zone present in the upper mantle ?
ii) At what depth lower mantle occurs ?
iii) What is the average composition of mantle + crust ?
iv) What is the composition of Cohenite ?
v) Who coined the concept of geochemical classification of the elements ?
vi) Contribution of volcanoes in evolution of atmosphere.
vii) Names of variable constituents of the atmosphere.
viii) What are the compositions of Sial and Sima ?
ix) Define pollution.

i) Describe variable constituents of the atmosphere.
ii) Structure of atmosphere.
iii) Salinity and chlorinity of oceanic water.
B) What is composition of the crust ? 4

i) Describe meteorites. What are their types ?
ii) The atmosphere in second stage of its evolution.
iii) How primary differentiation of metals takes place ?
i) Explain in brief, geochemical classification of the elements.
ii) Describe atmospheric additions and losses during geologic time.
iii) Describe in detail, composition of sea water.
___________________
*SLRC100* SLR-C 100
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY
Paper IV : Cell Science, Genetics, Biological Chemistry
and Economic Zoology

1. Select the correct alternatives and rewrite the sentences. 14
1) The product of milk after drying is called as ____________

a) Milk butter b) Curd
c) Milk powder d) Rabadi
2) Silk contains protein ____________

a) Glucose b) Lactose
c) Albumin d) Fibroin
3) Ratio of supplementary factor

a) 9:7 b) 9:3:4 c) 9: 6 :1 d) 9 : 3 :3 :1
4) Rearing of birds for production of egg and meat is known as _________

a) Poultry Science b) Dairy Science
c) Silk Science d) Milk Science
5) Jamunapuri goat are commonly found in ____________

a) Kashmir b) Bengal
c) Uttar Pradesh d) Kerala
P.T.O.
SLR-C 100 -2- *SLRC100*
6) DNA contains _______________ sugar.

a) Ribose b) Deoxyribose
c) Glucose d) Starch
7) In Incomplete linkage F2 generation ratio will be ___________

a) 1:1 b) 1:1 :1 :1 c) 1:2 :1 d) 2 :1:1
8) Lipids are formed from _____________

a) Amino acids b) Fatty acid
c) Glucose d) Fructose
9) Scientific and commercial method of bee keeping for production of honey and
wax is called _____________
a) Apiculture b) Sericulture
c) Silviculture d) Pisciculture
10) Catla is _____________ feeder.

a) Surface b) Middle
c) Bottom d) None of these
11) Silk gland of silkworm is a modification of ___________

a) Salivary gland b) Gastric gland
c) Mucus gland d) Intestinal gland
12) Cytosine and thymine are ______________

a) Purine b) Pyrimidines
c) Phosphate d) Sugar
13) ______________ division maintains diploid number of chromosomes in all the

generations.
a) Mitotic b) Meiotic c) Amitotic d) Double
14) Which of the following is the longest __________ cell.

a) Muscle b) Nerve c) Blood d) Skin
*SLRC100* -3- SLR-C 100

i) Anaphase.
ii) Importance of linkage.
iii) Nerve cell.
iv) Importance of crossing over.
v) Egg.
vi) Queen of honey bees.
vii) Food value of honey.
viii) Gold fish.
ix) Biological significance of Lipids.
3. A) Answer any two of the followings : 10

i) Describe the complete linkage with example.
ii) Significance of meiosis.
iii) Rearing of Silkworm.
B) Give an account on Milk and Milk by-products. 4
i) Economic importance of dairy farming.
ii) Give an account on buffalo breeds.
iii) Give the structure and function of DNA.
i) Describe fresh water fish farming and its importance.
ii) Give an account on poultry farming.
iii) Describe the complementary interaction.

_____________
*SLRC101* SLR-C 101
S e a t
N o .

BOTANY (Paper III)
(Structural Botany and Taxonomy of Angiosperms)
Time : 21/2 Hours Total Marks : 70

2) Draw neat and labeled diagram wherever necessary.

1) Phellogen is _____________ meristem.
a) apical b) intercalary
c) primary d) lateral
2) Apical meristem is responsible for increase in ___________
a) height b) thickness
c) width d) girth
3) ____________ forms root cap.
a) Pleurome b) Periblem
c) Dermatogen d) Calyptrogen
4) Collenchyma is _____________ tissue.
a) simple b) compound
c) meristimatic d) none of these
5) Sieve tubes are present in _____________ tissue.
a) phloem b) xylem
c) sclerenchyma d) parenchyma
6) Living elements of xylem are ____________
a) vessels b) tracheids
c) fibres d) xylem parenchymas
7) Water secreting glands are known as ____________
a) nectaries b) hydathodes
c) digestive glands d) epithelial glands
P.T.O.
SLR-C 101 -2- *SLRC101*
8) Digestive glands are present in _____________

a) Drosera b) Hibiscus
c) Pinus d) Cycas
9) Floral nectary is present in ___________
a) Ficus b) Neem
c) Euphorbia d) Pinus
10) Buliform cells are present in the leaves of ____________
a) Maize b) Sunflower
c) Cycas d) Bignonia
11) Multilayered epidermis is present in the leaves of ____________
a) Sunflower b) Nerium
c) Maize d) Euphorbia
12) Lateral cambium is absent in _____________
a) monocot b) dicot
c) gymnosperms d) all of them
13) Tunica corpus theory was proposed by ______________
a) Hofmeister b) Hanstein
c) Schmidt d) Strasburger
14) _____________ is absent in the conjoint collateral closed vascular bundles.
a) xylem b) phloem
c) cambium d) none

1) What is meristem ?
2) What is permanent tissue ?
3) What is simple tissue ?
4) Define stomata.
5) What is secondary growth ?
6) What is heartwood ?
7) List any two distinguishing characters of Meliacae.
8) What is porous wood ?
9) What is amphivasal vascular bundle ?
*SLRC101* -3- SLR-C 101

1) Apical cell theory with suitable diagram.
2) Structure and function of lenticels with suitable diagram.
3) Distinguishing characters of Fabaceae with suitable diagram.
B) Give an account of normal secondary growth in Dicot stem with suitable
diagram. 4

1) Give an account of mechanical tissue system with suitable diagram.
2) Discuss Tunica corpus theory with suitable diagram.
3) What is vascular bundles ? Discuss different types of vascular bundles.

1) Explain complex tissue with suitable diagram.
2) Discuss abnormal secondary growth in bignonia.
3) Give an account of family asclepiadaceae with suitable example.
_____________________
*SLRC102* SLR-C 102
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) Examination, 2017

BOTANY (Paper IV) (CGPA)
Plant Ecology

alternatives. 14
1) Assemblage of plants in a habitat is called
a) Biological community b) Animal community
c) Plant community d) All of these
2) _________ is the top consumer in grassland ecosystem.
a) Grasshopper b) Rabbit c) Cow d) Lion
3) Gradual replacement of one type of community by other is called
a) Formation b) Succession c) Adaptation d) Stabilisation
4) _________ are the light loving plants.
a) Sciophytes b) Heliophytes
c) Chamaephytes d) Obligate sciophytes
5) The pyramid of number for single tree ecosystem is ________ in nature.
a) Inverted b) Upright
c) Quadrangular d) Circular
6) The ___________ are the terrestrial plants with underground perennating buds.
a) Geophytes b) Hydrophytes
c) Helophytes d) Chamaephytes
P.T.O.
SLR-C 102 -2- *SLRC102*
7) The atmosphere contain ____________ oxygen.

a) 18% b) 21% c) 23% d) 25%
8) __________ is the character of xerophytes.
a) Air chambers b) Multiple layer epidermis
c) Single layer epidermis d) Root pockets
9) Peeling of ozone is due to
a) CO2 b) NO2 c) CFC d) O2
10) Soil porosity refers to the space between the
a) Soil structure b) Soil permeability
c) Soil particles d) Soil density
11) __________ is the stage of xerosere.
a) Amphibian b) Submerged c) Floating d) Crustose lichen
12) Secondary consumers are the
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores
c) Decomposers d) All of these
13) Presence of air chambers is the character of
a) Xerophytes b) Hydrophytes c) Mesophytes d) Geophytes
14) _______ is qualitative character of plant community.
a) Species diversity b) Density
c) Frequency d) Abundance

i) Enlist any four air pollutants.
ii) Define ecosystem.
iii) What is sciophytes ?
iv) Define ecological pyramids.
v) Xerosere.
vi) What is humus ?
vii) Floating hydrophytes.
viii) Acid rain.
ix) Define cryptophytes.
*SLRC102* -3- SLR-C 102

i) Control measure of pollution.
ii) Comment upon the soil profile.
iii) Explain the pyramid of energy.
B) Describe stratification. 4

i) What is hydrosere ? Explain the stages of hydrosere.
ii) What is biogeochemical cycles ? Add a note on Nitrogen cycle.
iii) Describe the impact of light and wind on plant life.

i) What is pollution ? Describe the causes of water pollution.
ii) Discuss the qualitative characters of plant community.
iii) What is meant by adaptation ? Add a note on xerophytic adaptation.
_______________
*SLRC103* SLR-C 103
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester III) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

PSYCHOLOGY
Experimental Psychology (Paper III)

1. Choose and write a correct answer of the following four alternatives : 14
1) Psychology is the science of

A) Behaviour B) Cognition C) Self D) Stress
2) Experiments provide the experimenter with new data for describing and
interpreting human
A) Behaviour B) Mind C) Society D) Soul
3) ________ was an anatomist and physiologist.

A) Weber B) Maslow C) Skinner D) Adler
4) In _________ psychology, there are four goals.

A) Experimental B) Sociology C) Economics D) Philosophy
5) __________ being scientific in nature is highly factual.

A) Experimental Psychology B) Sociology
C) Economics D) Philosophy
6) _________ law has come in for a lot of criticism.

A) Webers B) Maslows C) Skinners D) Adlers
7) _________ proceeded to restate the Webers law by applying the methods of

calculus.
A) Fechner B) Maslows C) Skinners D) Adlers
P.T.O.
SLR-C 103 -2- *SLRC103*
8) ________ developed the psychophysical procedures.

A) Fechner B) Maslows C) Skinners D) Adlers
9) _________ is usually the first step in understanding behaviour.

A) Description B) Control C) Prediction D) Explanation
10) Explanation is the second goal of _________ psychology.

A) experimental B) social C) cognitive D) abnormal
11) _________ is the third goal of experimental psychology.

A) Prediction B) Cognition C) Self D) Stress
12) The __________ tends to make a prediction of behaviour of winner and loser
of fights in general.
A) Psychologist B) Physician C) Antagonists D) Sociologist
13) __________ psychology as practiced by Wundt.

A) Experimental B) Maslow C) Skinner D) Adler
14) __________ psychology is scientific in nature.

A) Experimental B) Physics C) Economics D) Marathi
2. Answer the following (any seven) : 14

1) Define Psychology.
2) Who was founder of Psychophysics ?
3) Who was developed first psychological laboratory ?
4) Who was a German physicist and physiologist ?
5) Who was the founder of the school of behaviorism ?
6) Who published psychometric Investigation ?
7) Define experimental psychology.
8) Who was founder of experimental psychology ?
9) Who made major contribution to the field of experimental psychology ?
*SLRC103* -3- SLR-C 103
3. A) Short notes (any two) : 10

1) Application in the clinical settings.
2) Application in the field of education.
3) Explanation and Controlling.
B) Discuss on application in the research on motivation. 4
4. Answer the following (any two) : 14

1) Explain the application in organization.
2) Discuss on the Fechners law.
3) Explain the Webers law.

1) Explain the method of constant stimuli.
2) Explain the Average error.
3) Explain the meaning and nature of sensation.
______________
*SLRC104* SLR-C 104
S e a t
N o .

GEOLOGY (Paper III)
Optics and Mineralogy

1) Which one of the following minerals is not a member of Garnet family ?

a) Pyrope b) Almandine
c) Andalusite d) Grossularite
2) What is refractive index of Canada balsam ?

a) 1.537 b) 1.516 c) 1.658 d) 1.536
3) Orthoclase and microcline are ___________ of KAISi3O8.

a) Pseudomorphs b) Isomorphs c) Polymorphs d) None of these
4) The charge on SiO4 tetrahedron is ___________

a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3
5) ___________ of the minerals can be measured by keeping cleavages

parallel to cross wires and then rotation of the stage till extinction.
a) Birefringence b) Twinning
c) Twinkling d) Extinction angle
6) Red coloured cryptocrystalline variety of silica is ___________

a) Jasper b) Chalcedony
c) Agate d) Opal
P.T.O.
SLR-C 104 -2- *SLRC104*
7) The mineral, which has refractive index very near to the refractive index
of Canada balsam shows ___________ property.
a) Pleochroism b) Twinning
c) Twinkling d) Anisotropism
8) Labradorite is the member of ___________
a) K-felspar b) felspathoid
c) Plagioclase series d) None of these
9) Cleavage angle in the pyroxenes is about ___________ degrees.
a) 45 b) 60
c) 90 d) 180
10) ___________ mineral is product of low grade metamorphism.
a) Chlorite b) Plagioclase
c) Quartz d) Orthoclase
11) Fibrous variety of tremolite is ___________
a) Asbestos b) Chlorite
c) Gypsum d) Actinolite
12) Olivine alters into ___________ mineral.
a) Spessartine b) Serpentine
c) Sillimanite d) Silica
13) When difference between refractive indices of mineral and Canada balsam
is highest, then the mineral has ___________ relief.
a) Low b) Medium
c) High d) Very high
14) Infiltration is one of the methods of ___________
a) Isomorphism b) Polymorphism
c) Pseudomorphism d) None of these

i) What is upper polariser called as ?
ii) What is pleochroism ?
iii) How to distinguish between isotropic and anisotropic minerals using
a petrographic microscope ?
*SLRC104* -3- SLR-C 104
iv) Difference between double and single refraction.

v) What is extinction ?
vi) What is the relationship between the vibration direction of ordinary ray and
extra-ordinary ray ?
vii) Which mineral shows twinkling ?
viii) What are K-Felspars ?
ix) What is composition of Andalusite, Sillimanite and Kyanite ?

i) What is isomorphism ? Describe it with examples.
ii) Why mica group of minerals show phyllosilicate structure ?
iii) Describe olivine group of minerals.
B) Distinguish between pyroxenes and amphiboles. 4

i) Describe plagioclase series with its members, percent compositions and
occurrences.
ii) How felspathoid minerals are formed ? Describe physical, chemical and
optical properties of members of this group.
iii) How polarisation of light takes place in nicols prism ?

i) Why the minerals show relief ? Give types and examples.
ii) Explain different types of twinnings.
iii) Describe soro and tecto silicates.
_____________________
*SLRC105* SLR-C – 105
Seat
No.
B.Sc – II (Semester – III) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper – III)
Cytology and Physiology of Microorganisms

1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing correct answer from the alternatives given
below : 14
1) Volutin granules are
a) acidophilic b) Neutral c) Basophilic d) Barophilic
2) Spore coat is rich in amino acids like
a) Cystein b) Proline c) Leucine d) isoleucine
3) Peptidoglycan is absent in
a) Lactobacillus b) Staphylococcus
c) Micrococcus d) Halobacterium
4) ________ is the example of phage showing lysogeny.
a) T4 b) λ c) T2 d) TMV
5) In Gram negative bacteria inner layer of cell wall is made up of
a) Protein b) Phospholipid
c) Peptidoglycan d) Lipopolysaccharide
6) _______ is an example of mesophilic organism.
a) E.Coli b) B. Psychrophilus
c) Thermus aquaticus d) B. Stearothermophilus
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 105 -2- *SLRC105*
7) The Helmstetter and cummings technique is used obtain ________ culture.

a) Continuous b) Diauric c) Synchronous d) Batch
8) Organisms loving high salt concentration are called
a) Barophiles b) Halophiles c) Thermophiles d) Acidophiles
9) The effective bartericidal wavelength of U.V. light is
a) 2650 A° b) 2750 A° c) 2680 A° d) 2630 A°
10) Streptomycin acts on

a) Cell wall b) Capsule c) Ribosome d) Mesosome
11) Reverse transcriptase enzyme is present in _________ virus.

a) HIV b) TMV c) Hepatitis d) T4 phage
12) Lock and key hypothesis was discovered by
a) Jacob and Monod b) Watson and Crick
c) Koshland d) Emile Fisher
13) Small solutes like H2O, CO2, O2 enters in cell by way of

a) Passive diffusion b) Group translocation
c) Active transport d) Facilitated diffusion
14) Pili are chemically composed of
a) Protein b) Lipoprotein c) Nucleoprotein d) Lipids
i) Define acidophiles.
ii) Define generation time and growth rate.
iii) Define ligases.
iv) Group translocation.
v) Define sex pili.

*SLRC105* -3- SLR-C – 105
vi) Structure of T4 phage.
vii) Magnetosomes.
viii) Define chemotaxis.
ix) Carboxysomes.

i) Cyclic photophosphorylation.
ii) Structure and function of endospore.
iii) PHB and Volutin granules.
B) Effect of temperature on growth of microorganisms. 4

i) Synchronus growth.
ii) Oxidative phosphorylation.
iii) Effect of osmotic pressure on growth of microorganisms.

i) Explain cell membrane of barterial cell.
ii) Describe continuous growth.
iii) Explain in detail tactic behaviour in bacteria.
_______________
*SLRC106* SLR-C 106
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester III) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

PSYCHOLOGY
Social Psychology (Paper No. IV)


1) The term ____________ was coined in 1798.
A) stereotypes B) cognitive C) abnormal D) experimental
2) ____________ opposed the concept of group minds.
A) Jung B) Miller C) Allport D) Skinner
3) There are eight key areas in _____________ psychology.
A) abnormal B) testing C) social D) cognitive
4) _____________ is the worlds largest democracy.
A) India B) China C) Japan D) America
5) Social psychologist proposed three models of __________ life.
A) urban B) city C) villages D) town
6) Social psychology is the study of the individuals ____________ in the context
of society.
A) personality B) behaviour C) cognition D) emotion
7) _____________ as a mental and neural state of redness, organizes through
experience.
A) Learning B) Explanation C) Attitude D) Prediction
8) William ____________ published the first English book, An Introduction to
Social Psychology.
A) McDougall B) Bladwin C) Le Bon D) Adler
9) Prejudice refers to a negative attitude towards ___________
A) anxiety B) people C) stress D) stereotypes
10) ____________ identity theory developed by Tajfels.
A) Emotional B) Educational C) Social D) Marital
P.T.O.
SLR-C 106 *SLRC106*
11) ____________ term was coined by Robert Butler.

A) Ageism B) Sexism C) Racism D) Normal
12) ____________ proposed the balance theory.
A) Festinger B) Fritz C) Tajfels D) Maslow
13) The term stereotype was coined in ____________
A) 1998 B) 2009 C) 1798 D) 1891
14) Boqardus developed _____________ distance scale.
A) Social B) Educational C) Emotional D) Psychological

1) Explain the concept of prejudice.
2) Explain the cognitive measures.
3) Explain the discrimination.
4) Explain the physiological measurements.
5) Explain the Re categorization.
6) Explain the xenophobia.
7) Explain the term of xenophobia.
8) Explain the term of tokenism.
9) Explain the balance theory.
3. A) Short notes (any two) : 10

1) Cognitive distance
2) Rating scales
3) The behavioral components.
B) Discuss on nature of prejudice. 4

1) Explain the attitude formation.
2) Explain the process of attitude change.
3) Explain the relationship of social psychology and other social sciences.

1) Discuss on the cognitive component of prejudice.
2) Describe the contributing of Stanley Milgram.
3) Discuss on the factors influencing conformity.
_____________________
*SLRC107* SLR-C 107
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Paper IV)
Structural Geology

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answers from the given options : 14
1) The _________ are boundaries along which plates move away from each
other.
a) convergent boundaries b) divergent boundaries
c) transform boundaries d) destructive boundaries
2) Major breaks in sedimentation are called _________.
a) confirmable b) unconformities
c) stratification d) none of these
3) The width of outcrop of a bed depend/s on _________.
a) the thickness of bed b) the angle of dip
c) topographic scale d) all of these
4) A _________ is an upright fold in which both the limbs are overturned.
a) fan fold b) recumbent fold
c) open fold d) close fold
5) An _________ is the area where the bed rock is exposed on the ground
surface.
a) outcrop b) land scape
c) land form d) none of these
6) In __________ fold the hinge line is inclined.
a) horizontal b) non plunging
c) plunging d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 107 -2- *SLRC107*
7) _________ substances undergo a large plastic deformation before rupture.

a) Ductile b) Soil c) Brittle d) None of these
8) The term _________ is used if beds are dipping in one direction.
a) homocline b) anticline
c) monocline d) structural terrace
9) _________ joints in folded rocks are perpendicular to the axis of folds.
a) release b) extension c) strain slip d) shear
10) Limbs in the isoclinal fold are _________ to each other.
a) parallel b) perpendicular
c) inclined d) tangential
11) Offset of streams are found along _________ fault.
a) normal b) reverse c) graben d) strike slip
12) A series of faults that have the same strike and dip are called the _________.
a) parallel fault b) gravity fault
c) oblique slip fault d) tension fault
13) Joints can be developed by _________.
a) Tectonic stresses b) Residual stresses
c) Surfacial movement d) all of these
14) Sheet joint are often seen in the exposure of _________.
a) Basalt b) Sandstone c) Granite d) Shale

1) Bedding plane.
2) Axial plane.
3) Difference between fault and joint.
4) What is Strike ?
5) What is fault plane ?
6) What is limb in fold ?
7) Define joint.
8) What is Footwall ?
9) What is crest and trough of fold ?
*SLRC107* -3- SLR-C 107

1) Explain open and close fold.
2) Explain horst and graben fault.
3) Explain columnar joints and feather joints.
B) Explain outliers and inliers. 4

1) Geometrical classification of joints.
2) Explain concept of rock deformation.
3) Explain recognition of fold in the field.

1) Explain width of outcrop.
2) Explain terminology of fault.
3) Explain types of unconformity.
_____________

*SLRC108* SLR-C 108

Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY
Paper IV : Bacterial Genetics

1. Rewrite the sentences after choosing correct answer from the given alternatives. 14
1) _________ are the repeating units of nucleic acids.
a) phosphate molecules b) nucleotides
c) bases d) sugar molecules
2) The enzyme which builds a mRNA strand complimentary to the DNA
transcription unit is called
a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase
c) Helicase d) DNA ligase
3) Nonsense codons are
a) Amber b) Ochre c) Opal d) All a, b and c
4) Process of genetic information flowing from DNA to RNA to proteins is called
a) gene annealing b) gene mutation
c) gene expression d) gene therapy
5) The term plasmid was coined by
a) Tautum b) Ochoa c) Lederberg d) Delbruck
6) Anti codon describes triplet bases on
a) mRNA b) rRNA c) tRNA d) DNA
7) Messenger RNA is synthesized during
a) translation b) transcription c) replication d) DNA synthesis
P.T.O.
SLR-C 108 -2- *SLRC108*
8) In prokaryotes initiation codons always codes for

a) N-Formyl methionine b) Cytocine
c) Glutamate d) Methionine
9) When mutation in codon may not produce any change in translation then it is
called
a) point mutation b) silent mutation
c) missense mutation d) nonsens mutation
10) DNA replication by semiconservative mode in E.coli was experimentally
proved by
a) Watson and Crick b) Neselson and Stahl
c) Zinder and Lederberg d)Delbruck and Delbruck
11) Messenger RNA is
a) single stranded b) double stranded
c) forms a sheet d) none of above
12) The enzyme required for synthesis of DNA from RNA template is
a) RNA polymerase b) Reverse transcriptase
c) DNA polymerase d) Transferase
13) Different forms of the same gene are called as
a) gamets b) alleles c) phenotypes d) genotypes
14) The initial source for all genetic variation is
a) mutation b) conjugation c) transduction d) transformation

i) Define exogenote
ii) Define is mutation
iii) Define recon
iv) Define transduction
v) Define phenotypes
vi) Define plasmid
vii) What is photo reactivation ?
viii) Define Interrupted genes.
*SLRC108* -3- SLR-C 108
a) Describe briefly replica plate technique.
b) Discuss the replication of bacterial genetic material.
c) Briefly explain transformation.
B) Discuss in brief properties types and applications of plasmids. 4
i) Explain in detail mechanism of mutagenesis.
ii) Discuss the chemical nature of DNA and add a note on its function.
iii) Give the detailed account of properties of genetic code.
i) Explain in detail basic concept of genome.
ii) Give the detailed account of fate of Exogenote.
iii) Describe briefly Frame shift mutations.
_______________
*SLRC109* SLR-C 109
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester IV) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY
Paper V : Physical Chemistry (CGPA)

1. Choose the most correct alternative of the following and rewrite the sentences : 14
1) Which of the following molecule is expected to have finite dipole moment ?
a) CH4 b) H2 c) CO2 d) NH3
2) In an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas
a) q = 0 b) dT = 0 c) dE = 0 d) w = 0
3) Following are the four solutions of NaCl. Which will have the highest value of
specific conductance ?
a) 0.001 M b) 0.01 M c) 0.1 M d) 1.0 M
4) Each Na+ ion in NaCl crystal lattice is surrounded by __________ Cl ions.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6
5) Body centered cubic lattice consists of __________ points at corners.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
6) Unit of specific resistance is
a) ohm cm1 b) mho cm c) ohm1 cm1 d) ohm cm
7) sin i/sin r is known as __________ law.
a) Raoults b) Henrys c) Snells d) Hooks
8) Which of these is sparingly soluble salt ?
a) Silver halides b) Lead iodide
c) Barium sulphate d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 109 -2- *SLRC109*
9) Three dimensional array of points in space is called as
a) Crystal lattice b) Unit cell
c) Lattice plane d) Crystal structure
10) Braggs diffraction law is
a) n 2 d s i n
b) n d s i n
c) n / 2 2 d s i n
d) n d s i n 2
11) Entropy is a __________ function.

a) State b) Non-state
c) Path dependent d) All of these
12) The entropy of perfect crystalline substance at absolute zero Kelvin is
a) infinite b) zero c) non-zero d) all of these
13) Molar polarization and molar refractivity values for __________ molecules
are same.
a) polar b) non-polar
c) both polar and non-polar d) none of these
14) Which of the following is a good conductor of electric current ?
a) glass b) copper c) mica d) wood

1) How entropy and probability relates with each other ?
2) What do you mean by specific conductance ?
3) Write Clausius-Mossotti equation.
4) State the law of constancy of interfacial angles.
5) Define Miller indices.
6) Give the relationship between ionic mobility and ionic conductance.
7) Define dipole moment. Give its unit.
8) Give the statement for third law of thermodynamics.
9) How the conduction phenomena occur in metallic conductors ?
*SLRC109* -3- SLR-C 109
1) Give physical significance of entropy.
2) Derive the expression for Braggs equation.
3) Discuss optical exaltation with suitable example.
B) Solve : 4
Calculate the entropy of mixing when Neon and Xenon gases mixed together
with mole fractions 2/5 and 3/5 respectively.

1) Explain the application of Kohlrauschs law for the determination of solubility
of sparingly soluble salts.
2) Describe the entropy change for physical transformations.
3) Give the principle of moving boundary method. In a moving boundary experiment
with 0.1 N NaCl solution using 0.5 N CdCl2 as an indicator solution. A constant
current of 0.06 amp was passed for 10 min. The boundary was moved by
5 cm in a tube having cross section area 0.2 cm2. Calculate the transport
numbers of Na+ and Cl ions.

1) Describe principle, construction and working of Abbes refractometer.
2) Explain the laws of crystallography in detail.
3) What do you mean by ionic product of water ? Explain how Kohlrausch law is
used in deriving the ionic product of water.
___________
*SLRC110* -1- SLR-C – 110
SLR-C – 110
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY (Paper – VI)
Analytical and Industrial Inorganic Chemistry

1. Select the most alternative and rewrite the following sentences : 14

1) The colour of the quinoid form of methyl orange is ____________
a) red b) yellow
c) pink d) colourless
2) Phenolphthalein is ____________
a) neutral b) strong base
c) weak organic acid d) weak inorganic acid
3) pH range of methyl orange indicator is ____________
a) 3.1 to 4.4 b) 2.9 to 4.6
c) 6.3 to 7.1 d) 5.2 to 6.3
4) BaSO4 is mostly ____________ precipitate.
a) gelatinous b) amorphous
c) crystalline d) curdy
5) Al(OH)3 is a ____________ precipitate.
a) Gelatinous b) Curdy
c) Crystalline d) Amorphous
6) The oxine is a ____________ chelating agent.
a) Unidentate b) Tridentate
c) Bidentate d) Polydentate
7) The catalytic reactions caused by ____________ are called acid catalysis.
a) Water b) Acid
c) Base d) Alcohol P.T.O.
SLR-C – 110 -2- *SLRC110*
8) A biological catalyst is ____________

a) N2 b) Amino acid
c) Zymase d) C6H12O6
9) The unit of hardness is ____________
a) a.m.u b) g/cm2
c) ppm d) N/m2
10) Sedimentation is a ____________ process.
a) Chemical b) Biological
c) Coagulation d) Settling
11) In Haber’s process, the manufacturing plant was developed by ____________
a) Carl Bosch b) Fritz Haber
c) Claude d) Mont Cenis
12) For the best yield of ammonia, the concentration of N2 : H2 is ____________
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 1
c) 1 : 3 d) 3 : 2
13) The critical temperature of iron is ____________ °C.
a) 850 b) 230
c) 300 d) 725
14) In the Bessemer process, ____________ is used as a scavenger.
a) Fe b) Al
c) Mn d) C

1) What are the advantages of L.D. process ?
2) Which catalyst used in the Haber process for NH3 ?
3) Give the types of water pollutants.
i) Catalyst
ii) Positive catalyst.
5) Give the examples of homogeneous catalysis.
6) What are characteristics of a good precipitate ?
*SLRC110* -3- SLR-C – 110

i) Precipitation
ii) Coagulation.
8) What is Acid-Base indicator ?
9) Give the types of EDTA Titrations.

1) State and explain criteria of catalysis.
2) Draw a neat labeled diagram of manufacturing plant for ammonia by Habers
process.
3) Give the merits and demerits of Bessemer process.
B) Explain, why L.D. process is superior to Bessemer process. 4

1) What are the types of EDTA titrations ? Explain in detail direct titration.
2) Discuss the conditions for good precipitation in gravimetric analysis.
3) Explain physics-chemical principle of contact process.

1) Explain in detail ion exchange method.
2) Discuss the mechanism of precipitate formation.
3) Explain in brief theory of acid-base indicator.
_____________________
*SLRC111* SLR-C – 111
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Sem. – IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS
Optics (Paper – V)

ii) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Near diagrams must be draw wherever necessary.
iv) Use of logarithmic table and calculator is allowed.

i) The idea of cardinal points was put forth by
a) Newton b) Gauss
c) Lagrange d) Abbe
ii) Lagrange’s law for magnification is given by

a) μ1h1 tan θ1 = μ 2h2 tan θ 2 b) μ1h1 sin θ1 = μ 2h2 sin θ 2
c) μ1h1 tan θ1 = μ 2h2 sin θ 2 d) μ1h1 tan θ 2 = μ 2h2 sin θ1
iii) Newton’s formula for an optical system is
a) x1/x2 = f1f2 b) f1/f2 = x1/x2
c) x1x2 = f1/f2 d) x1x2 = f1f2
iv) In F-P interferometer fringes are obtained by the principal of
a) Internal multiple reflection b) Diffraction
c) Double refraction d) Polarization
v) For given monochromatic light a zone plate has

a) No focal length b) Only one focal length
c) A number of focal lengths d) All a), b) and c)
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 111 -2- *SLRC111*
vi) According to Rayleigh’s criterion resolving power of optical instrument is

a) λ dλ b) d λ λ
c) λ ⋅ dλ d) 1 λ ⋅ dλ
vii) For negative crystal
a) VE < VO b) VE > VO
c) VE = VO d) None of the a), b) and c)
viii) In Q-plate the path difference produced between E ray and O ray is
a) λ 2 b) 4 λ
c) λ 4 d) λ
ix) The basic principal of optical fibre is
a) Refraction b) Reflection
c) Total internal reflection d) Diffraction
x) In Michelson’s interferometer two mirrors M1 and M2 are kept
a) Inclined b) Perpendicular
c) Parallel d) None of the a), b) and c)
xi) In Fresnel’s diffraction the area of each half period zone is
a) 4πbλ b) 3πbλ
c) 2πbλ d) πbλ
xii) For 2nd order grating spectra 390 lines are present in grating then R.P. of
grating is
a) 195 b) 390
c) 780 d) 262
xiii) The LCD device is application of ____________ phenomenon.
a) Reflection b) Polarization
c) Interference d) Diffraction
xiv) The numerical aperture =
a) sin θ b) cos θ
c) tan θ d) sec θ
*SLRC111* -3- SLR-C – 111

i) What are principle points and principle planes of lens system ?
ii) Define lateral and angular magnification.
iii) What is diffraction of light ? Give its types.
iv) Compare geometrical and spectral resolution.
v) Draw the neat labeled diagram of Nicol prism.
vi) Define plane of polarization and specific rotation.
vii) What is optical fibre ? Give its types.
viii) What is superiority of F-P interferometer over Michelson interferometer ?
ix) What is the relation for visibility of fringes ?

i) Derive expression for Lagrange’s law.
ii) What is Rayleigh’s criterion for resolution ? Distinguish between
magnification and resolution.
iii) Describe polarimeter experiment to determine the specific rotation.
B) Find the radius of first zone of the zone plate having focal length 20 cm with
0
light of wavelength 5000 A . 4

i) Derive an expression for the resolving power of a prism.
ii) Explain the formation and working of fibre optics communication system.
iii) Describe construction of image and obtain Newton’s formula for lens system.

i) For the zone plate prove that the principal focal length is given by fn = rn2 nλ .
ii) What is double refraction ? Give the Huygens wave theory of double refraction
in uniaxial crystal.
iii) Explain construction and working of Michelson’s interferometer.
_____________________
*SLRC112* SLR-C 112
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Paper VI)
Modern Physics

ii) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
iii) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
iv) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.

i) A clock will appear to run more and more slow if the relative velocity between
clock and observer
a) Decreases b) Remains same
c) Becomes zero d) Increases
ii) According to special theory of relativity, the velocity of light in free space is
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Constant d) Zero
iii) The wavelength of matter waves is independent of
a) Mass b) Velocity c) Charge d) Momentum
iv) Radiations exhibits __________ nature.
a) Only particle b) Only wave c) Dual d) Massive
v) Spin quantum number associated with single electron is
a) Zero b) One half c) One d) Two
vi) Anomalous Zeeman effect produces when external magnetic field applied to
spectral lines is
a) Weak b) Strong c) Zero d) Infinity
vii) In compton scattering, the frequency of scattered photon is __________ the
frequency of incident photon.
a) Equal to b) Less than c) Greater than d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-C 112 -2- *SLRC112*
viii) The value of change in compton wavelength d =
a) 0.0242 A.V. b) 0.242 A.V. c) 2.42 A.V. d) 24.2 A.V.

ix) In chain reaction if the effective multiplication factor K = 1, then the size and
mass of core is
a) Critical b) Super critical c) Sub critical d) Infinity
x) The magnitude of energy released per fission is about
a) 100 MeV b) 200 MeV c) 300 MeV d) 400 MeV
xi) Mass of moving object always
c) Remains the same d) Becomes zero
xii) According to Hundts rule, the electrons in sub shell have __________ spin
whenever possible.
a) Parallel b) Perpendicular c) Antiparallel d) Crossed
xiii) Maximum number of electrons in any shell is given by
a) 2n b) 2n2 c) n2 d) 2n3
xiv) The common material used as a fuel in nuclear reactor is
a) Cadmium b) Lanthanum c) Lithium d) Uranium

i) Write Lorentz transformation equations.
ii) Write note on time dilation.
iii) State any one hypothesis of matter waves.
iv) Write four properties of matter waves.
v) What is L-S coupling ?
vi) State Paulis exclusion principle.
vii) What is compton effect ?
viii) Write any one neutron induced nuclear reaction.
ix) What is nuclear fission ?
*SLRC112* -3- SLR-C 112

i) Deduce an expression for relativistic variation of length with velocity.
ii) A particle is moving with velocity 150 m/s. Calculate group velocity and
phase velocity of matter waves.
iii) Describe experimental study of Normal Zeeman effect.
B) At what speed will the mass of body be 1.25 times its rest mass ? 4

i) Derive Einsteins mass energy relation.
ii) Explain construction and working of Stern and Gerlach experiment.
iii) Explain experimental verification of compton effect.

i) Derive relativistic velocity addition theorem and prove the postulate of
constancy of velocity of light.
ii) Explain quantum numbers associated with vector atom model.
iii) Explain construction and working of nuclear reactor.
___________
*SLRC113* SLR-C – 113
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Paper – V)
Continuous Probability Distributions and Exact Probability
Distributions


1) If m.g.f of a continuous r.v. X is (1 – 4 λ )–7 then the probability distribution of
X is
(
a) G 7, 1
4
) b) G 1 , 7
4
( ) c) G (4, 7) d) G (7, 4)
x
2) If X ~ G (1/2, 1) then probability distribution of is
2
a) G (1, 1) b) Standard exponential
3) If X ~ β2 (m, n) 1/X is
a) β1 (m, n) b) β 2 (n, m) c) β 2 (m, n) d) β1 (n, m)
4) If X ~ β1 (2, 3) then E (X) =_____________

a) 0.4 b) 0.04 c) 0.25 d) 0.15
5) If X ~ N (0, 1), Y ~ N (0, 1) are independent random variables then
E (X2 + Y2) =
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
25 2
−5t + t
6) The m.g.f. of X is e 2 , then the distribution of X is
a) N (0, 1) b) N (5, 5) c) N (–5, 5) d) N (–5, 25)
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 113 -2- *SLRC113*
7) The variance of Chi square distribution with 10 d.f. is

a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40
8) The relation between mean and variance of Chi square variate with n.d.f. is
a) mean = 2 variance b) 2 mean = variance
c) mean = variance d) None of these
9) If X is a t variate with 5 d.f. then variance of X is
a) 3/5 b) 5/3 c) 4/3 d) 3/4
10) Let X1, X2, X3 be i.i.d. N (0, 1) variates and Y = 2 X 3 / ( X12 + X 22 ) then
E (Y) =
a) √ (2) b) 1 c) 2 d) 0
11) If X is a t variate with n.d.f. then E (X) is
a) n b) n/(n – 2) c) 0 d) None of these
12) The t distribution is
a) +vely skewed b) –vely skewed
c) Symmetric d) None of these
13) If F ~ F (10, 11) then E (1/F) is
a) 11/10 b) 11/9 c) 5/4 d) 11/8
14) If mode of F (5, n2) = 0.4 then n2 is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
2. Attempt any seven : 14

1) Define gamma distribution with two parameters.
2) State m.g.f. of G ( α, λ ).
3) State mean of β1 (m, n) .
4) State H.M. of β 2 ( 3, 4 ) .
1
5) State mean and variance of X if f (x) = 1 2 −∞ < x < ∞.
2 Π exp (– 2 (x – 5) ) ;
*SLRC113* -3- SLR-C – 113
6) If X ~ N (1, 4), Y ~ N (2, 4) are independent variates then state p.d.f. of

Z = X + 2 Y.
7) State mode of F (n1, n2).
8) Define t-variate with n.d.f.
9) State additive property of Chi square distribution with n.d.f.
3. A) Attempt any two : 10
⎛ 1⎞
1) If X1 ~ N (0,1), X2 ~ N ⎜ 0, ⎟ and are independent then find the distribution
⎝ 2⎠
of ( X12 + 2 X 22 ) .
2) If X ~ β1 (m, n) then find distribution of (1 – X).

3) Find mode of Chi square variate with n.d.f.
B) If X is a t-variate with n.d.f. show that Y = X2 follows F distribution with
(1, n) d.f. 4

1) If X ~ β 2 (m, n) distribution of X/(1 + X).
( ) ( )
2) If X ~ N μ1, σ12 , Y ~ N μ 2 , σ22 and are independent then find distribution of
Y = AX + BY + C, where A, B and C are constants.
3) Derive the p.d.f. of Chi square variate with n.d.f.

1) Prove that sum of i.i.d. exponential variates is a gamma variate.
2) Let the p.d.f. of a normal variate be
f (x) = K exp [–1/18 (x2 – 10x + 25)]; K > 0, − ∞ < x < ∞
find the values of K, mean and variance of X.
3) Find mode of F – variate with (n1, n2) d.f.
_______________
*SLRC114* SLR-C 114
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Paper VI)
Applied Statistics

ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

i) Sampling is unavoidable in the situation(s)
a) Blood test of a person b) When the population is infinite
c) Testing of life of a dry battery cell d) a), b) and c)
ii) Probability of drawing an unit at any draw remains same in
a) SRSWOR b) SRSWR
iii) An unordered sample of size n can occur in
a) n ways b) n! ways c) one way d) n2 ways
iv) The number of all possible samples of size 3 from a population of 5 units in
SRSWR
a) 100 b) 243 c) 125 d) 10
v) If the null hypothesis of test statistic Z is N(0, 1) then for testing against a
two sided alternative at = 0.05, reject H0 if

a) |Z| > 1.96 b) |Z| < 1.64 c) |Z| < 1.96 d) None of these
vi) Rejecting H0 when it is true is
a) Type II error b) Type I error
c) Not committing error d) None of these
vii) Whether a test is one sided or two sided depends on
a) Alternative hypothesis b) Composite hypothesis
c) Null hypothesis d) Simple hypothesis
P.T.O.
SLR-C 114 -2- *SLRC114*
viii) For testing population proportions which of the following test to be used ?
a) Z-test b)
-test c) t-test d) F-test

ix) Paired t-test is applicable when the observations in the two samples are
a) Paired b) Correlated
c) Equal in number d) a), b) and c)
x) Degrees of freedom for statistic
in case of contingency table of order 2 × 2 is

a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
xi) For testing a population variance which of the following test to be used ?
a) Z-test b) t-test c) Chi-square test d) F-test
xii) Control charts consist of
a) Three control lines b) Upper and lower control limits
c) The level of the process d) All of these
xiii) The faults due to assignable causes
a) Can be removed
b) Cannot be removed
c) Can sometimes be removed without increase production cost
d) None of these
xiv) The value of Gross Reproductive Rate (GRR) > 1 is indicative of
a) Increase in population b) Reduction in population
c) Population remains constant d) None of these

i) Define the term statistic.
ii) Describe sample survey.
iii) Define composite hypothesis.
iv) Define critical region.
v) Explain one-tailed test.
vi) Explain the term defective.
vii) Explain the term assignable causes.
viii) Define GRR.
ix) Explain the need of vital statistics.
*SLRC114* -3- SLR-C 114

i) State advantages of sampling method over census method.
ii) What is the meaning and purpose of Statistical Quality Control (SQC) ?
iii) State the procedure to test the equality of means for paired observations
by using t-test.
B) Define Crude Death Rate (CDR). State the merits and demerits of CDR. 4

i) Show that in case of SRSWOR, expected value of the sample mean is
population mean.
ii) Explain the criteria of detecting lack of control in :

and R charts.
iii) Explain Age-specific Fertility Rate and Total Fertility Rate (TFR). Also state
the limitations of TFR.

i) With usual notations, prove that in SRSWOR,
N n
V ( y ) S
N n
ii) Explain clearly the control limits of R-chart when standards are not given.
iii) Describe the procedure for testing
a) H0 : P = P0 against H1 : P P0 and
b) H0 : P1 = P 2 against H 1 : P1 P2 based on normal distribution.

___________
*SLRC115* SLR-C 115
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Paper V)
Differential Equation (CGPA Pattern)


1) The solution of the differential equation y = px + f(p) is
a) y = cx f(c) b) y = cx + f(x) c) y = cx + f(c) d) None of these
2) The solution of the differential equation p2 9p + 18 = 0 is
a) (y 6x c) (y 3x c) = 0 b) y = 3x + c
c) y = 6x + c d) (y + 6x + c) (y + 3x + c) = 0
3) The solution of differential equation y = px + (1 p)2 is
a) y = cx + (1 c)2 b) y = cx (1 c)2
c) y = cx + (1 x)2 d) None of these
4) By the substitution of z = log x in homogeneous equation x2 @ O
has the
@ N
value
a) b)
d y d y d y
z z z
d x
d x d x
c) d)
d y d y
d y d y
d z
d z
d z
d z
P.T.O.
SLR-C 115 -2- *SLRC115*
5) C.F. of the differential equation x2 @ O
4x @ O
+ 6y = x is
@ N
@ N
a) c1x + c2x3 b) c1x2 + c2x2 c) c1x2 + c2x3 d) c1x + c2

6) Homogeneous linear differential equation with variable coefficient can be
reduced to linear differential equation with constant coefficient by changing
the independent variable x to z by substitution
a) x = ez b) x = ez c) z = ex d) z = ex
7) If P + Qx = 0, then the solution of the equation @ O
+P @ O
+ Qy = 0 is
@ N
@ N
a) y = ex b) y = ex c) y = e2x d) y = e2x

8) If 2 + 2Px + Qx 2 = 0, then the solution of the differential equation
@ O
+P @ O
+ Qy = 0 is
@ N
@ N
a) y = 2x b) y = 2x c) y = x2 d) y = x2
9) If u = ex is known solution of the differential equation
x2 @ O
2(x + 1) @ O
+ (x + 2)y = (x 2)e2x is obtained by the inspection

@ N
@ N
a) 1 + P + Q = 0 b) 1 P + Q = 0 c) P + Qx = 0 d) 2 + 2Px + Qx2 = 0
10) The complete solution of the equation d x
= d y
= d z
is
z x
y z x y
a) ( x y , y z ) 0
b) ( x y , y z ) 0
c) ( x y , y z ) 0
d) ( x y , y z ) 0
11) The general solution of the differential equation 4xdx 3y2dy + 4zdz = 0 is
a) 4x2 3y3 + 4z2 = c b) 2x2 y3 + 2z2 = c
c) 2x2 + y3 + 2z2 = c d) 4x2 + y3 + 4z2 = c
*SLRC115* -3- SLR-C 115
12) The one solution of the equation = = is

d x
d z
d y
x z
y z
( x y )
a) log
N

= c1 b) log (xy) = log c1

c) log (xyz) = log c1 d) log (x2y2) = log c1

13) A differential equation of the type _________ is called total differential equation.
a) P + Q + R = 0 b) Pdx + Qdy Rdz = 0
c) P + Qdy + Rdz = 0 d) Pdx + Qdy + Rdz = 0
14) The general solution of the equation dx + dy + dz = 0 is
a) x + y z = c1 b) x y + z = c1
c) x y z = c1 d) x + y + z = c1

1) Solve x2p2 + 3xyp + 2y2 = 0.
2) Solve p2 5p + 6 = 0.
3) Solve p = log (px y).
4) Solve x3 @ O
2x2 @ O
+ 2xy = 1.
@ N
@ N
5) Obtain the known solution of the differential equation
x @ O
2(x + 1) @ O
+ (x + 2) y = (x 2) e2x.
@ N
@ N
6) Obtain the Q1 of the linear differential equation of the second order
+ 2x + (x2 8)y = x2 .
N
@ O
@ O
@ N
@ N
7) Solve = = .
d z
d y
d x
z x x y
y z
8) Solve = = .
d z
d x
d y
x y
y z
z x
9) Write the condition of integrability of the total differential equation

Pdx + Qdy + Rdz = 0.
SLR-C 115 -4- *SLRC115*

1) Solve p2 2p coshx + 1 = 0.
2) Solve x2 @ O
+x @ O
9y = 0, if y = x3 is its known integral.

@ N
@ N
3) Define homogeneous linear differential equation of order n and explain the

method of solving it.
B) Define Clairauts differential equation and explain the method of its general
solution. 4

1) Explain the method of solving simultaneous differential equation
= = and solve = = .
@ N @ O d z
d z
d x d y
2 3 R
z z
z ( x y )
2) Explain how to solve the second order differential equation @ O
+P @ O
+ Qy = R,
@ N
@ N
Where P, Q, R are the functions of x only when one solution belonging to C.F.
is known.
3) Solve (yz + 2x) dx + (zx 2z) dy + (xy 2y) dz = 0.

1) Explain the method of solving the differential equation
(a + bx)n + P1 (a + bx)n1 + ... + Pn1 (a + bx) + Pny = X.

n 1
@ O
@ O
@ O
n 1
@ N
@ N
@ N
Where P1, P2, ..., Pn are constants and X is a function of x only.
2) Explain the method of solving the equation @ O
+ P @ O
+ Qy = R,
@ N
@ N
where P, Q, R are the functions of x only, by changing the dependent variable y to v.
3) Solve a d x

b d y

c d z
.
( b c ) y z ( c a ) z x ( a b ) x y
_______________
*SLRC116* SLR-C – 116
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Paper – VI)
Abstract Algebra – I
N.B. : 1) All questions carry equal marks.

1. Choose the correct alternative of the following. 14
1) A cycle of length two is called ___________

a) Permutation b) Transposition c) Combination d) None of these
2) A non-empty set together with binary operation * which satisfies closure as

well as associative property is called _________
a) Groupoid b) Semi group c) Monoid d) None of these
3) (N, •) is not group since it does not satisfy following property __________
a) Closed b) Associative c) Inverse d) None of these
4) Congruent modulo n is defined as __________

a) p = q (modn) b) p~q (modn) c) p ≡ q (modn) d) none of these
5) In division Algorithm P = mq+r __________

a) 0 ≤ r< p b) 0 ≤ r<m c) 0 ≤ r ≤ q d) None of these
6) A relation ‘~’ is symmetric if for p, q ∈ s _________

a) p ~q ⇒ p ~p b) p~q ⇒ q ~p c) p ~ q ⇒ q~q d) None of these
7) The following element is not the generator of Z9 ___________

. [4] in Z5 is __________
8) The value of expression [2] O
a) [2] b) [4] c) [3] d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 116 -2- *SLRC116*
9) The product of g.c.d. and l.c.m. of 20 and 15 are _________

10) A sub group containing only the identity element of the group G is called
__________
a) Trivial b) Non-trivial c) Abelian d) None of these
11) A finite group of prime order is ________

a) cyclic b) not cyclic c) normal d) none of these
12) Let I be the set of all integers with operation defined by a*b = a+b+1 then
identity is ________
a) 1 b) –1 c) 0 d) None of these
13) x (1, 3, 2) = (1, 3) in S3 then x = __________

a) (2, 3) b) (1, 2) c) (3, 1) d) None of these
14) Let f : G → G′ be a homomorphism then ker f = ___________

a) {x ∈ G / f( x ) = e′} b) {x ∈ G / f( x ) = e}
c) {x ∈ G / f(x) = x} d) None of these
2. Attempt any seven of the following. 14
⎛ 1 2 3 4 5 6⎞ ⎛1 2 3 4 5 6⎞
1) For permutation σ = ⎜ ⎟ and T = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ .
⎝3 1 4 5 6 2⎠ ⎝2 4 1 3 6 5⎠
Compute T 2σ .
2) Write a Cayley table of the group (G, •) where G = {1, w, w2}.
3) Define quotient group.
4) Determine the right cosets of <[4]> in Z8.
5) Define group.
6) If a, b are any two elements of group G then equation ax = b have unique

solution.
7) Find order of all elements of group {1, 2, 3, 4} under X5.

*SLRC116* -3- SLR-C – 116
8) If a, b, c ∈ G and ab = ac then show that b = c.
. [3]) ⊕ [[3] O
9) Compute [[3] O . [4]) in Z .
5

⎛1 2 3 4 ⎞ ⎛ 1 2 3 4⎞
1) If α = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ and β = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ ∈ S 4 .
⎝ 1 4 3 2 ⎠ ⎝ 3 1 4 2 ⎠
Compute :
i) α.β ii) α −1 β−1 iii) β.α
2) Find G.C.D. of 616 and 427 and express (616, 427) = 616 m + 427 n.
3) Show that every cyclic group is abelian.
B) Does the following set forms a group ? 4
(I, * ) and * is defined by a*b = a + b +1
1) If G and H are groups and θ : G → H is a homomorphism then ker θ is normal

subgroup of G.
2) Show that if H and K are subgroup of a group G such that HK = KH then HK is

subgroup of G.
3) If R is additive group of positive numbers prove that the mapping f : R → R +

defined by f (x) = ex ∀ x ∈ R is an isomorphism.
1) State and prove Lagrange’s theorem.
2) State and prove Cayley’s theorem.
3) Prove that for every element in a group G a2 = e then G is abelian.
____________
*SLRC117* SLR-C 117
Seat
No.

GEOGRAPHY
Paper No. V : Biogeography

1. Choose and write a correct from given four alternatives. 14
1) The book entitled The origin of life is authored by ________ in 1936.
(Uprin, Orgel, Darwin, Tayler)
2) _______ islands show distinct species of plants and animals.
(Isolated, Connected, Linked, Grouped)
3) Invertebrates had their origin in
(Lakes, Rivers, Ponds, Oceans)
4) Extreme climate is one of the reasons for _____ migration of birds.
(Seasonal, Gradual, Rapid, Forceful)
5) _______ is a type of conservation of forest resources.
(Gardening, Lumbering, Social Forestry, Cutting)
6) ______ prevention and control act was enforced in 1981.
(Water, Air, Noise, Environment)
7) The paleo records of life history are well preserved in _______ rocks.
(Sedimentary, Intrusive, Extrusive, Weathered)
8) ________ is prohibited in areas of wildlife sanctuary.
(Walking, Running, Hunting, Watching)
9) The ______ grasslands best support the activity of livestock farming in the
world.
(Tropical, Temperature, Polar, Mansoonal)
10) The history of the ________ of forest is as old as man himself.
(Conservation, exploitation, Aforestation, Distortion)
11) The water born diseases are caused by _______ water.
(Polluted, Purified, Oxygenated, Rain)
P.T.O.
SLR-C 117 *SLRC117*
12) ________ is the valuable tree in tropical deciduous forest.

(Teak, Oak, Pine, Rosewood)
13) The increasing number of automobiles has become a cause of ______ pollution.
(Water, Air, Land, Soil)
14) Sanjay Gandhi National Park is located in
(Gohatti, Borevali, Chandrapur, Bandipur)

1) Water pollution effects.
2) Commercial fishing.
3) Dispersal of birds.
4) Define the migration.
5) Name any four of organic resources.
6) Causes of migration.
3. Answer any three of the following. 15

1) Evolution of animals.
2) Causes of pollution.
3) Use of marine resources.
4) Effects of air pollution.
4. Answer any three of the following. 15

1) Environmental protection of laws.
2) Effects of human activities on animals.
3) Acid rains.
4) Different uses of forest products in industry.
5. A) Answer any one of the following long answer questions. 6

1) Write the Darwin theory of life evolution.
2) Geological time scale and life evolution.
B) Answer any one of the following long answer questions. 5

1) Barriers of migration.
2) Classification of resources.

*SLRC118* SLR-C 118
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2017
ELECTRONICS (Paper V)
Fundamentals of Operational Amplifier

2) Draw the figures wherever necessary.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from the given alternatives : 14

i) A current mirror bias is used to __________
a) increase gain b) decrease gain
c) increase CMRR d) decrease CMRR
ii) The input impedance of an ideal Op-Amp is __________
a) 0 b) infinity c) 10 K
d) none of these
iii) The op-amp can amplify __________
a) DC signals only b) AC signals only
c) Both AC and DC signals d) None of these
iv) In IC 741 op-amp differential inputs are applied to pins
a) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 5 c) 4 and 7 d) 6 and 8
v) An op-amp multivibrator employs __________ type of feedback.
a) + ve b) ve c) Both d) None of these
vi) CMRR is defined as CMRR = __________
a) Ad + Acm b) Ad Acm c) Acm/Ad d) Ad/Acm
vii) Astable multivibrator can be used to generate __________
a) a sine wave b) only square wave
c) only triangular wave d) both triangular and square wave
viii) An op-amp comparator with positive feedback results into __________
a) Schmitt trigger b) Active filter
c) An integrator d) A differentiator
P.T.O.
SLR-C 118 -2- *SLRC118*
ix) In ideal differential amplifier, common mode gain is __________

a) zero b) unity c) high d) infinity
x) An input bias current IB is __________
1 1
a) IB + IB b) IB IB c) IB IB d)

* *
1 2 1 2 2 1
xi) In op-amp inverting amplifier circuit, the inverting terminal voltage equal
to __________
a) input voltage b) zero voltage
c) supply voltage d) output voltage
xii) In phase shift oscillator op-amp is used in __________
a) Non inverting mode b) Inverting mode
c) Differential mode d) None of these
xiii) Zero crossing detector is a comparator having __________
a) Vref = 0V b) Vref = VCC
c) Vref = VEE d) None of these
xiv) In wien bridge oscillator the gain should be __________
a) 29 b) 3 c) 10 d) 30

i) Draw and label the schematic symbol for op-amp.
ii) What are the non-linear applications of op-amp (any four).
iii) In differential amplifier V1 = 100 mV, V2 = 200 mV, Ad = 100, calculate output
voltage.
iv) What is virtual ground ?
v) Draw the equivalent circuit of an op-amp.
vi) Draw circuit diagram of precision halfwave rectifier.
vii) Define the terms slew rate and CMRR.
viii) State any four ideal characteristics of an op-amp.
ix) Explain need of differential amplifier.
*SLRC118* -3- SLR-C 118

i) Explain the action of basic comparator.
ii) Explain current mirror bias.
iii) Explain op-amp as an adder.
B) Design a weinbridge oscillator using op-amp for frequency f = 965 H.
Given C = 0.05 F.

4

i) Explain op-amp used as an integrator.
ii) Explain Schmitt trigger using op-amp.
iii) Explain the need of constant current source in differential amplifier.

i) Explain astable multivibrator using op-amp. Derive the expression for
frequency of oscillator.
ii) Explain phase shift oscillator using op-amp. Design the phase shift oscillator
for frequency f0 = 200 Hz. Given C = 0.1 F.

iii) Explain op-amp used as differential amplifier (subtractor).
_____________________
*SLRC119* SLR-C 119
Seat
No.

GEOGRAPHY
AGRICULTURAL GEOGRAPHY (Paper No. VI) (CGPA Pattern)
1. Choose and write a correct from given four alternatives. 14

1) Agricultural geography is the sub branch of ______ geography.
A) Social B) Political C) Economic D) Historical
2) ________ is believed to be an area of origin of agriculture.
A) S. E. Asia B) N. America C) Taiga D) Steppes
3) The word agriculture comes from a Latin term
A) Agra B) Agercultura C) Ager D) Agro
4) Capital is a ________ factor affecting agriculture.
A) Physical B) Economic C) Social D) Historical
5) ________ is a social factor affecting agriculture.
A) Capital B) Climate C) Irrigation D) Land Holding
6) Shifting cultivation is called __________ in North-East India.
A) Chena B) Ladang C) Zoom D) Penda
7) Plantation Agriculture is mainly practiced in __________ area.
A) Temperate B) Tropical C) Equatorial D) Polar
8) __________ farming agriculture involves crops and animals.
A) Mixed B) Subsistence C) Plantation D) Extensive
9) The phenomenal growth in agriculture has been called as
A) Evolution B) White Revolution
C) Blue Revolution D) Green Revolution
10) __________ approach is known as universal approach.
A) Deterministic B) Regional C) Systematic D) Ecological
P.T.O.
SLR-C 119 *SLRC119*
11) Alkaline soils are formed due to ___________ of water in the fields.
A) Logging B) Flowing C) Running D) Freezing
12) pH value of a soil is related with its
A) Fertility B) Salinity C) Texture D) Colour
13) __________ ranks first in the production of dairy products in the world.
A) Pakistan B) Denmark C) Kazakstan D) India
14) In India Swaminathan is the founder of __________ revolution.
A) Green B) Blue C) White D) Red

1) Define agriculture geography.
2) What is intensive agriculture ?
3) Name any three physical determinants of agriculture.
4) Any three characteristics of subsistence agriculture.
5) What is Biotechnology ?
6) Define sustainable agriculture.
3. Answer any three of the following : 15

1) Explain the nature of agriculture geography.
2) Describe the social determinants of agriculture.
3) Write a note on organic farming.
4) Write a note on green revolution in India.
4. Write any three of the following : 15

1) Give a brief account of plantation agriculture.
2) Explain the scope of agriculture geography.
3) Describe the economic determinants of agriculture.
4) Importance of dairy farming.
5. A) Answer any one of the following long answer question. 6

1) State the major problems of agriculture in India.
2) Importance of fruit processing industry.
B) Answer any one of the following long answer question. 5
1) Explain the characteristics of extensive agriculture.
2) Explain various approaches to the study of agriculture geography.
_____________

*SLRC120* SLR-C – 120

Seat
No.

(Paper – VI) ELECTRONICS
Digital Techniques and Microprocessor

1. Choose correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 14
1) The memory chip IC 6264 is a

a) SRAM b) EEPROM c) DRAM d) UVEPROM
2) A 4 bit binary weighted digital to analog converter, if 8K Ω resistor is connected

at LSB position, then the value of resistor at MSB position is
a) 32K Ω b) 16K Ω c) 1K Ω d) 4K Ω
3) __________ IC is a tri state Uni-directional buffer.

a) 74244 b) 74245 c) 74138 d) 74373
4) The address bus capacity of 8085 microprocessor is ______ bit.

a) 8 b) 32 c) 16 d) 12
5) __________ instruction is a single byte instruction.

a) IN 03 b) LXI H, 2345 c) ADD B d) MVI A, 07
6) A memory cell in DRAM includes

a) Flip-flop b) Capacitor
c) Fuse d) Magnetic domain
7) In R-2R ladder network DAC, the input resistance for each input is
a) R b) 3R c) 4R d) 2R
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 120 -2- *SLRC120*
8) __________ consists of programmable AND gates and OR gates.
a) PLA b) PAL c) PROM d) PGM
9) __________ interrupt has highest priority in maskable interrupt of 8085.

a) RST 5.5 b) INTR c) RST 6.5 d) RST 7.5
10) The width of program counter is _______ bit.

a) 16 b) 8 c) 12 d) 4
11) __________ instruction is a logical group of instruction.

a) MOV M, A b) INR D c) CMA d) ADI 05
12) The suitable crystal frequency for 8085 microprocessor is

a) 8 MHz b) 6 MHz c) 12 MHz d) 10 MHz
13) __________ IC is called as trans-receiver.

a) 74245 b) 74373 d) 8085 d) 74244
14) __________ instruction is a machine control group of instruction.

a) RAL b) RST c) CMA d) RAR

1) Give the basic difference between RAM and ROM.
2) Define Accuracy and settling time for DAC.
3) Explain in brief the concept of programmable logic array.
4) Define fetch cycle and execution cycle of instruction.
5) Enlist interrupt related pins of 8085 processor.
6) Enlist any four 2 byte instructions of 8085 processor.
7) Write note on role of Program Counter.
8) What happens when 8085 get reset ?

1) What is flow chart ? Draw four symbols used in flow chart with their
meaning.
2) Explain in brief the concept of FPGA.
3) Compare IO mapped IO scheme with memory mapped IO scheme (five
point).
B) Find out the analog output for 4 bit R-2R ladder network DAC if 0 = 0 volt and
1 = 5 volt for digital input 1) 1011 and 2) 0110. 4
*SLRC120* -3- SLR-C – 120
i) Explain with suitable diagram how multiplexed address/data bus is
de-multiplexed with the help of IC 74373.
ii) Write the functions of following pin.
1) ALE 2) IO / M 3) READY
4) S0 and S1 5) RESET IN 6) WR
iii) Write assembly language program to transfer the block of 10 memory location
starting from 2050, to memory location 2070 with flow chart.

i) What is addressing mode ? Explain different types of addressing modes
supported by 8085 Processor with suitable examples.
ii) Draw the internal block diagram of 8085 processor and explain ALU, with
Accumulator, Flag register and General Purpose Register.
iii) Explain the working principle of SAR type ADC.
————————
*SLRC121* SLR-C – 121

COMPUTER SCIENCE (Paper – V)
Data Structures

1. A) Choose the correct alternatives : 6

1) _____________ is the postfix form of infix expression : A + (B*C).
a) ABC+* b) AB+C* c) ABC*+ d) AB*C+*
2) Array element are stored in memory by ___________ manner.
a) Random b) Non-sequential
c) Sequential d) None
3) Double circular linked contains __________ NULL links.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Zero
4) __________ algorithm is frequently used when the total number of elements
is small.
a) Heap sort b) Insertion sort c) Bubble sort d) Quick sort
5) _____________ algorithm is used to arrange the data elements.
a) Searching b) Sorting c) Merging d) Arranging
6) The root is processed before its subtrees in ________ traversal.
a) Preorder b) Inorder c) Postorder d) All of these
B) Fill in the blanks : 4
1) A mathematical model with the collection of operation defined on that model
is called ___________
2) In AVL Tree, the Balance Factor of each node is either _________
3) In ________ type of BST traversal we get the sorted data.
4) __________ searching requires sorted data.
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 121 *SLRC121*
C) State True/False : 4
1) Queue works in LIFO manner.
2) Linked list provides sequential access.
3) In array we can store multiple types of data.
4) We can implement queue by using linked list.
2. Solve any seven from the following : 14

1) Define stack. Give its examples.
2) Define the term overflow and underflow.
3) What is strictly binary tree ? Give its example.
4) What is hashing ?
5) Define height of tree. Give its example.
6) Define the term predecessor and successor.
7) What is sorting ? What are the methods of sorting ?
8) What are the applications of stack ?
9) What is advantage of circular queue over linear queue ?

1) Explain the various operations on linear queue.
2) Write a program to accept an array of integers and display in reverse order.
3) Explain abstract data type with example.
B) Explain the difference between stack and queue. 4
4. Solve any two : 14

1) Write a program to implements stack using array.
2) What is linked-list explain the various types of linked-list ?
3) Explain threaded binary tree with example.
5. Solve any two : 14

1) Write a program to implement different tree traversal techniques.
2) Write a program to implement insertion sort.
3) Explain the technique of binary searching with example.
_____________________
*SLRC122* SLR-C 122
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
System Analysis and Design (Paper VI)


1) _________ provides the controller with information for action.
a) Interface b) Environment
c) Feedback d) None of these
2) A television is _______ system.
a) Open b) Expert c) Closed d) TPS
3) Context diagram contains single process.
a) True b) False
4) White box testing is also called
a) Glass box testing b) Green box testing
c) Functional testing d) None
5) _________ are sometimes referred as Bubble Diagram.
a) Flowchart b) ER- Diagram
c) Decision table d) DFD
6) Record review is performed only in beginning of the study of the system.
a) True b) False
7) If system is in routine in nature then it gives positive feedback.
a) True b) False
P.T.O.
SLR-C 122 -2- *SLRC122*
8) FFT stands for

a) Fact For Technique b) Fact Finding Technique
c) Future Function Technique d) None of these
9) A graphical representation of an information system is called
a) Data flow diagram b) Pictogram
c) Histogram d) Decision table
10) Open system does not interacts with environment.
a) True b) False
11) The longest method of conversion is
a) Direct b) Parallel c) Pilot d) Phased
12) In an ER-Diagram to represent an attribute we use
a) Rectangle b) Ellipse
c) Diamond d) Line
13) __________ symbol is used to show any printed document input or output.
a) b) c) d)
14) ___________ includes review of the existing procedure and information flow.
a) Feasibility study b) Feasibility report
c) System analysis d) System design

1) Write the characteristics of a system.
2) Draw the symbols of DFD.
3) What is Implementation ?
4) State the principles of flowcharting.
5) Define white box testing.
6) Write the difference between open and closed system.
7) What is system analysis ?
8) Define Decision tree.
9) What is Feedback ?
*SLRC122* -3- SLR-C 122

1) Explain various types of system.
2) Draw an ER-diagram for College Admission System.
3) Explain the different roles of system analyst.
B) Explain feasibility study in detail. 4

1) Define the term Entity, Attribute and Relationship with example.
2) What is decision table ? State the merits and demerits of decision tables.
3) What is file ? Explain different types of files.

1) What is normalization ? Explain 1NF, 2NF and 3NF in brief.
2) Draw a CLD and first level DFD for Payroll System.
3) Explain Top-down incremental implementation. State its advantages and
disadvantages.
_______________
*SLRC123* SLR-C 123
Seat
No.

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper III)
Nutrition and Metabolism

3) Write biochemical reactions wherever necessary.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the given
options : 14
1) Transamination reaction involves transfer of amino group from amino acid to

__________ acid.
a)
keto b) keto c)
keto d)
keto
2) All spontaneous reactions proceed with __________ in free energy.

a) increase b) decrease c) equilibrium d) zero value
3) Metabolic acidosis results due to __________ concentration in free energy.

a) increase in HCO3 b) decrease in HCO3
c) increase in H2CO3 d) decrease in H2CO3
4) One mole of ATP on hydrolysis gives __________ Kcal energy.

a) 7.3 b) 3.7 c) 8.3 d) 3.8
5) __________ amino acid is involved in urea cycle.

a) valine b) tyrosine c) arginine d) glycine
6) __________ are non-essential food components in diet.

a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Vitamins d) Lipids
P.T.O.
SLR-C 123 -2- *SLRC123*
7) Oxidative phosphorylation means production of ATP by __________

a) glycolysis b) glycogenolysis
c) calvin cycle d) respiration
8) Krebs cycle takes place in __________ of the cell.
a) mitochondria b) cytoplasm c) nucleus d) lysosomes
9) An adult human contains about __________ water.
a) 50% b) 60% c) 30% d) 40%
10) Basal metabolic rate is __________ in colder climates.
a) zero b) lower c) higher d) normal
11) The glycogenesis process occurs in __________
a) lung b) pancreas c) kidney d) liver
12) In animals, nitrogen which is not required in the body is excreted in the form
of __________
a) ammonia b) urea c) amino acid d) amines
13) The synthesis of fatty acids is catalysed by __________ enzymes.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
14) __________ regulate the blood pH.
a) kidney b) lung c) liver d) spleen

1) How are the carbohydrates in food estimated ?
2) Define and explain nitrogen balance in body.
3) What is phosphoenol pyruvate ?
4) Write ethanol fermentation.
5) Write the reaction for synthesis of malonyl CoA required for fatty acid
biosynthesis.
6) Define respiration quotient and Basal metabolic rate.
*SLRC123* -3- SLR-C 123
7) Write free energy concept.

8) How -amino butyrate is obtained from L-glutamate by using PLP ?

9) Explain phosphate buffer system in the body.

1) Write a note on respiratory quotient.
2) Discuss energetics in glycolysis.
3) Write note on cytochromes.
B) Draw a labelled diagram of constant volume adiabatic bomb colorimeter. 4

1) What is TCA cycle ? Write and explain in brief the reaction of TCA cycle.
2) What is -oxidation ? Write and explain reactions of -oxidation of fatty acid

palmitic acid.
3) Explain compounds involved in electron transport (respiratory) chain.

1) Define nutrition and balanced diet. Discuss the importance of proteins in diet.
2) What is blood buffers ? How is the pH of blood buffered ?
3) Define urea cycle. Write and explain the reactions of urea cycle.

*SLRC124* -1- SLR-C – 124
SLR-C – 124
Seat
No.

PLANT PROTECTION (Paper – III)
Introduction to Weeds and Non-Insect Pests

II) Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
III) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
IV) All questions carry equal marks.
1. Rewrite the correct answer from the given alternatives : (1×14=14)

1) Any unwanted plant present in field is called as ____________
a) weed b) keed c) feed d) seed
2) Classification of weeds is based on ____________
a) Cytology b) Ecology c) Genecology d) All of these
3) ____________ seeds are light in weight.
a) Arachis b) Cicer c) Parthenium d) Cajanus
4) The example of parasitic weed is ____________
a) Albugo candida b) Cercospora personata
c) Casia auriculata d) Cuscuta reflexa
5) Alternanthera tenella weed controlled with the help of ________ weedicide.
a) 2,4-D b) 2,4-Z c) 2,4-C d) 2,4-G
6) Cynodon dactylon weed belongs to the family ____________
a) Myrtaceae b) Poaceae c) Apocynaceae d) Liliaceae
7) There are ____________ main methods of weed management.
a) Seven b) One c) Three d) Five
8) In ____________ method, superficial weeds are cut down from the field.
a) Hoeing b) Ploughing c) Mulching d) Harrowing
9) Biological methods of weed management is done by using ____________
a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Mycoplasma d) All of these
10) The sodium salt is also known as ____________
a) Bladex G b) Bladex B c) Dicotox d) Bladex C
11) Gordian worms locally known as ____________ worms.
a) thread b) bread c) tape d) earth P.T.O.
SLR-C – 124 *SLRC124*
12) Snails and slugs chemically controlled with the help of ____________
a) Methyldehyde b) Acetyldehyde
c) Butyldehyde d) Both a) and c)
13) Rat belongs to the phyllum ___________
a) Arthropoda b) Nematoda
c) Chordata d) Pseudopodia
14) Mites are controlled with the help of ____________ powder.
a) BHC b) BSC c) BZC d) BMC
2. Answer any seven of the following : (7×2=14)

i) Define non-insect pest.
ii) Give the two control methods of birds.
iii) What is nematode ?
iv) Define chemical method of weed control.
v) What is weed ?
vi) Define aquatic weed.
vii) What are mites ?
viii) Define reproduction.
ix) What is crop association ?

i) Explain the classification of weed based on ontogeny.
ii) Define dispersal and explain the mode of dispersal of weeds.
iii) Describe the root parasite weed studied by you.
B) Write damage and control of Parthenium hysterophorous. 4

i) Describe the losses caused by weed studied by you.
ii) Explain the Argemone maxicana weed studied by you.
iii) Explain the ploughing, hand weeding and crop rotation cultural methods of
weed management.

i) Explain the biological method of weed management.
ii) Describe the mode of action and formulation of weedicides.
iii) Explain the non-insect pest mites studied by you.
_____________________
*SLRC125* SLR-C 125
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Sem. IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper IV)
Molecular Biochemistry and Diseases

3) Draw Biochemical reactions/labelled diagrams wherever
necessary.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from given options : 14
1) First restriction map was obtained in _________ using Hin d II enzyme.
a) 1970 b) 1971 c) 1972 d) 1973
2) __________ is not a termination codon.
a) UAG b) UAA c) AUG d) UGA
3) Normal insulin concentration in plasma is
a) 20 30
U/ml b) 10 20
U/ml
c) 30 40
U/ml d) 40 50
U/ml
4) Natural UV rays from sun can cause cancer of
a) Blood cells b) Skin c) Lungs d) Bones
5) Translation means the process of biosynthesis of
a) Protein b) RNA
c) DNA d) Fats
6) The lac operon consists ________ as three structural genes.
a) K, L, M b) P, Q, R c) D, E, F d) Z, Y, A
7) Ampicillin and tetracycline resistant genes are present in _________ vector.
a)
phase b) Modified -phage

c) Plasmid pBR 322 d) M 13 virus
P.T.O.
SLR-C 125 -2- *SLRC125*
8) Immunity transferred from mother to baby is called ________ immunity.

a) Natural active b) Natural passive
c) Innate d) Artificial passive
9) In acute phase the body response to HIV infection within
a) 2 to 5 years b) 3 to 6 weeks
c) 1 to 2 years d) 1 to 2 weeks
10) In 1953, Watson and Crick explained structure of DNA using
a) X-ray diffraction b) IR
c) NMR d) UV
11) Insulin hormone is formed in
a) Liver b) Kidney c) Pancreas d) Small intestine
12) m-RNA has poly A tails at its __________ end.
a) b) !

c) "

d) #

13) In IgG structure, L chain is attached to H chain by __________ bond.

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen
c) Disulphide d) Dioxide
14) The total genetic information present in a cell is called
a) Codon b) Operon
c) Cistron d) Genome

1) Draw the double helix structure of DNA.
2) Write note on Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM).
3) Discuss natural passive immunity.
4) Write the steps involved in the preparation of recombinant DNA.
5) What is the difference between nucleoside and nucleotide ?
6) What is direct effect radiant energy in DNA ?
7) Write three applications of genetic engineering.
8) How attachment of amino acid to tRNA occurs ?
9) Write about chronic phase of HIV interaction with the immune system.
*SLRC125* -3- SLR-C 125

1) Explain production of insulin using gene cloning technique.
2) Write note on tumor marker.
3) Draw a labelled diagram of HIV and describe in brief.
B) Describe pBR 322 as a cloning vector. 4

1) What are the salient features of genetic code ?
2) Discuss the structure of immunoglobulin G(IgG).
3) Explain the concept of lac operon.

1) Explain types of diabetes mellitus.
2) Explain Lambda phage vector of E. Coli.
3) Explain three steps involved in transcription.

*SLRC126* SLR-C 126
Seat
No.

PLANT PROTECTION (Paper IV)
Insect Pests and their Management

1. Rewrite the correct answer from the given alternatives. (1×14=14)

1) The quantitative loss is _____________ in yield of crop.
a) reduction b) production c) increase d) all of these
2) _____________ worm of cotton reduces the quality and quantity of crops.
a) Red boll b) Pink boll c) Green boll d) Brown boll
3) The Jassids are the pests of
a) Gram b) Sugarcane c) Mango d) Jowar
4) Classification of insect pests is based on
a) leg b) finger c) hand d) mouth
5) The gross hopper defoliates crop and causes to ________ area.
a) photosynthetic b) chemosynthetic
c) phytosynthetic d) synthetic
6) _____________ is done by the mouth parts.
a) Soring b) Boring c) Goring d) Moring
7) Moth larvae is also called as
a) cutworms b) wiveworms c) catterpillars d) grub
8) __________ is a type of sprayer.
a) Navigator b) Magigator c) Agitator d) Fumigator
9) Wooly aphids were recorded in India at Dehradun in ______ on bomboo plants.
a) 1910 b) 1909 c) 1908 d) 1907
10) Jowar plant is attacked by ____________ borer.
a) leaf b) seed c) stem d) bark
P.T.O.
SLR-C 126 *SLRC126*
11) Stem borer is chemically controlled by spraying _____ endrin.

a) 20% b) 30% c) 50% d) 90%
12) Pod borer is chemically controlled by spraying malathion
a) 10% b) 5% c) 6% d) None of the above
13) Classification of insecticides is based on _______________ nature.
a) physical b) biological c) chemical d) cultural
14) ____________ eugenol chemical is used for attracting the specific pests.
a) Butyl b) Acetyl c) Copper d) Methyl

i) Define insect pest.
ii) Give the two characters of mouth part.
iii) What is damage ?
iv) Write the scientific name of jowar and sugarcane.
v) Define pulse beetle.
vi) What are carbamets ?
vii) Define dusts.
viii) What is management ?
ix) Define pheromones.

i) Explain the attractant studied by you.
ii) Describe the plant origin insecticides.
iii) Write a note on principle of insect pest control.
B) Explain the host range and control of thrips. 4
4. Answer any two of the followings : (2×7=14)

i) Explain the tomato-red spider studied by you.
ii) Describe the losses caused by insect pests.
iii) Give the general characters of typical insect with respect to wings and
abdomen.
5. Answer any two of the followings : (2×7=14)

i) Describe the classification of insect pests based on metamorphosis.
ii) Explain the brinjal-fruit borer studied by you.
iii) Write on precautionary measures used during pesticide applications.

*SLRC127* SLR-C – 127
Seat
No.

METEOROLOGY (Paper – III)
Applied Climatology
Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.

4) Use of stencils is allowed.

1) Thick fog along the coast of New Found land is due to _____________
(Warm and cold currents, Cold and cold currents, Iceberg, Warm current)
2) The weight of the atmosphere above the height of an observer indicates
atmospheric _____________
(Pressure, Humidity, Isostasy, Temperature)
3) The primary purpose of clothing is to protect man against _____________
and improve his physical comfort.
(Temperature, Humidity, Winds, Weather)
4) The centrifugal force is operating only when the air moves in a _____________
path.
(Parallel, Curved, Vertical, Horizontal)
5) The body comfort zone ranges between 18.9° _____________ ° Celsius.
(22.4, 23.9, 25.6, 27.4)
6) Runways have the best location along the _____________ winds.
(Prevailing, Local, Cyclonic, Seasonal)
7) The heat islands are mostly located at the _____________ of an urban centre.
(Heart, Margins, Outside, Fringe)
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 127 -2- *SLRC127*
8) _____________ transport has most complex relationship with atmosphere.

(Aviation, Rails, Road, Ships)
9) As per world meteorological observations there should be one _____________

center at each180 Km interval.
(Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary)
10) Satellites help in _____________ forecasting.
(Weather, Climate, Paleoclimate, Projected climate)

11) Hot and humid climate of _____________ region is worse for human
settlements.
(Equatorial, Monsoonal, Polar, Alpine)
12) Bombay high is a _____________ production centre.

(Petroleum, Natural gas, Petroleum natural gas, Crude oil)
13) The summer isotherms of the northern hemisphere generally show a tread
towards _____________
(North pole, South pole, Equator, Parallel to equator)

14) Numerical method of weather forecasting was first suggested by
_____________ in 1912.
(Chrichfield, Robinson, Richardson, Bjerknes)
2. Write in short (any 5) : 15

1) Define applied climatology.
2) What is an isobar ?
3) What is body comfort ?
4) What are the green buffers zones ?
5) What is air pollution ?
6) What is ‘off shore’ ?
*SLRC127* -3- SLR-C – 127
3. Answer any three questions : 15

1) State the effects of carioles force.
2) What is costal fishing ?
3) Explain the Body Comfort zone.
4) Describe the concept ‘Agro Climate’.
4. Write in short (any 3) : 15

1) Explain the Heat Islands.
2) Explain the interrelations between telecommunications and air.
3) Describe the historical background of weather forecasting.
4) Describe the importance of pressure gradient.
5. A) Write any one answer : 6

1) Explain the importance of climate in transportation.
2) Describe the effects of climate on agriculture.
B) Write any one brief answer : 5

1) Write the effects of urban climate on ‘Body Comfort’.
2) State the elements of weather and explain any one of them.
_______________
*SLRC128* SLR-C 128
Seat
No.

GEOCHEMISTRY
Principles of Geochemistry (Paper III)
Time : 2½ Hours Max.Marks : 70

1. Choose the most correct alternative each of the following : 14

1) The law of mass action is applicable for _________ reaction.
a) Irreversible b) Reversible
c) Fast d) None of these
2) According to Bronsted theory, acid is _________ donar.
a) Electron b) Neutron
c) Proton d) Particle
3) The formation of petroleum is from _________ rock.
a) Sedimentary rock b) Basalt
c) Metamorphic rock d) Igneous
4) Dispersion of liquid in liquid is called as
a) sol b) gel
c) emulsion d) colloidal solution
5) When equilibrium constant is one. Then
a) Rf > Rb b) Rf < Rb
c) Rf = Rb d) None of these
6) The basic rock contains high % of
a) FeO b) NaO
c) CaO d) MgO
P.T.O.
SLR-C 128 -2- *SLRC128*
7) The example of aromatic compound is
a) methane b) ethane
c) toluene d) propane
8) An electrophoresis is an example of _________ property.
a) optical b) electrical
c) mechanical d) chemical
9) Olivine is unstable when it is react with
a) Coal b) Silica
c) Iron d) Magnesium
10) pH =
a) log(H)+ b) log(H)+
c) (H)+ d) 1/(H)+
11) Alkanes contains _________ bonds.
a) Single b) Double
c) Triple d) None of these
12) Silica is a _________ sediments.
a) Physical b) Mechanical
c) Chemical d) Electrical
13) The purest form of coal is
a) wood b) peat
c) anthracite d) none of these
14) The functional group of alcohol is
a) NH2 b) OH
c) C = O d) COOH

i) State the law of mass action.
ii) Define acid and base according to Arrhenius theory.
iii) Write the structure of a) Glycine b) Cyclohexane.
iv) Distinguish between true solution and colloidal solution.
*SLRC128* -3- SLR-C 128
v) Define equilibrium constant.
vi) Define hydrolysis.
vii) Define functional group.
viii) Draw the structure of Olivine.
ix) Write the names of a) CH3OH b) C2H2.

i) Show that chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature for the reaction
A + B = C + D.
ii) How the concentration of (HCO3) is estimated from hydrolysis of Na2CO3 ?
iii) Discuss the occurrence of carbon in rock.
B) Discuss Tyndall effect. 4

i) State and explain Lechateliers principle.
ii) Discuss the geological uses of acids and bases.
iii) Write a short note on origin of coal.

i) Write a short note on origin of charge on colloidal particle.
ii) Distinguish between reversible and irreversible process.
iii) Discuss the origin of petroleum.
___________
*SLRC129* SLR-C – 129
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY (Paper – V)
Animal Diversity – IV

1. Select the appropriate answer and rewrite the sentences. 14
1) In case of ___________ endoskeleton is pneumatic.

a) amphibians b) aves c) reptiles d) mammals
2) In rat digestion takes place in stomach is called as _________ digestion.

a) duodenal b) gastric c) intestinal d) rectal
3) The liver of rat secretes __________

a) Bile b) Pancreatic juice
c) HCl d) Enzymes
4) The pulmonary vein carry _________ blood to the heart.

a) Deoxygenated b) Impure c) Oxygenated d) Mixed
5) In Poisonous snakes teeth are termed as ____________

a) Fangs b) Canines c) Molars d) Diastema
6) Dentition in human is __________

a) Monophyodont b) Acrodont c) Polyphyodont d) Diphyodont
7) Latitudinal migration of birds is from _________ and vice-versa.

a) North to South b) East to West c) Top to Bottom d) West to South
8) Among the mesozoic reptiles the body of ___________ was fish like.
a) Brontosaurus b) Stegosaurus c) Ichthyosaurus d) Appatosaurus
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 129 -2- *SLRC129*
9) Wood chiselling beak is found in ___________

a) Wood pecker b) King fisher c) Duck d) Owl
10) Monotreme includes ___________ mammals.

a) Viviparous b) Egg laying c) Pouched d) Modern
11) WBCs of rat are also known as __________

a) thrombocytes b) erythrocytes c) blood platelets d) leucocytes
12) In Heron __________ types of feet are present.

a) perching b) swimming c) raptorial d) wadding
13) In birds the body is covered with _________

a) feathers b) scales c) hair d) scutes
14) The brain of vertebrates shows presence of hollow spaces known as _______
a) ventricles b) sinuses c) ampullae d) nodes

i) Salient features of Aves
ii) RBCs of rat
iii) Seed eating beak
iv) Ovary in rat
v) Any one terrestrial mesozoic reptile
vi) Archaeopteryx
vii) Beak in Parrot
viii) Functions of kidney in rat
ix) Systematic position of rat.

i) Enlist different types of migration in birds
ii) Describe dentition in mammals
iii) Explain in brief the monotremes
*SLRC129* -3- SLR-C – 129
3. B) Describe the functions of liver of rat. 4
4. Answer any two of the following . 14

i) Describe the brain of rat.
ii) Describe the poison apparatus of snake.
iii) Describe the different types of leg modifications found in birds.

i) Describe respiratory system of rat.
ii) Describe aerial adaptations in birds.
iii) Describe the ear of rat as a sense organ.
____________
*SLRC130* SLR-C 130
S e a t
N o .

METEOROLOGY (Paper IV)
Meteorological Instruments

4) Use of scientific calculator and log table is allowed.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from given alternatives : 14
i) The float gauge is used to measure ___________

a) Temperature b) Pressure c) Humidity d) Rainfall
ii) Which of the following instrument automatically records the quantity
measured ?
a) Thermometer b) Barometer
c) Hygrometer d) The automatic siphon gauge
iii) Boiling point of pure water at sea level is ___________
a) 100°R b) 100°C c) 100°F d) 100K
iv) A temperature of 0°C is equal to ___________ °F.
a) 0 b) 32 c) 80 d) 273
v) At what temperature do the Celsius and the Fahrenheit scales coincide ?
a) 0° b) 40° c) 80° d) 273°
vi) Celsius and ___________ scales show the same reading at minus 40 degrees.
a) Fahrenheit b) Reaumur c) Kelvin d) Rankin
vii) C.G.S. unit of pressure is ___________
a) N/m b) N/m2 c) dynes/cm2 d) dynes/cm
P.T.O.
SLR-C 130 -2- *SLRC130*
viii) The lines of constant ___________ are called isobars.

a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Entropy d) Humidity
ix) Air in motion is known as ___________
a) Spinning b) Wind c) Rotation d) Revolution
x) ___________ is a flowing wave of air, moving hither and thither indefinitely.
a) Sunshine b) Wind c) Radiation d) Coriolis force
xi) The isotach is line of equal ___________
a) Entropy b) Temperature c) Wind direction d) Wind speed
xii) Wind results from ___________ heating of different parts of the earth.
a) Over b) Even c) Equal d) Uneven
xiii) ___________ is the measure of amount of water vapors present in the
atmosphere.
a) Temperature b) Pressure c) Humidity d) Radiation
xiv) Thermocouple is based on the principle of ___________ generated due to
difference of temperature between two metal junctions.
a) resistance b) heat c) e.m.f. d) none of the above

i) Distinguish between ordinary rain gauge and self recording rain gauge.
ii) Establish the relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit scales of temperature.
iii) Why mercury is used in thermometer ?
iv) How atmospheric pressure is measured using Fortins barometer ?
v) How a barograph is set for automatic recording of atmospheric pressure ?
vi) What is wind vane ?
vii) How wind velocity is measured using cup anemometer ?
viii) Define absolute humidity.
ix) What is a hygrometer ?
*SLRC130* -3- SLR-C 130

i) With neat diagram explain construction and working of float gauge.
ii) Draw neat labeled diagram of aneroid barometer. Describe its
construction and working.
iii) Explain construction and working of dry and wet bulb thermometer.
B) Two unknown wind velocities 40 km/hr and 60 km/hr are measured using a
cup anemometer and the respective linear velocities of rotating cups are
25m/s and 40 m/s. Determine constants of the cup anemometer. 4

i) With neat diagram explain construction and working of minimum and
maximum thermometer.
ii) Draw neat labeled diagram of mercury barometer. Describe its construction
and working.
iii) Explain Seebeck effect.

i) With neat diagram explain the construction and working of automatic siphon
gauge.
ii) With neat diagram explain anemograph.
iii) Write a note on Ether thermoscope.
_____________________
*SLRC131* SLR-C 131
Seat
No.

GEOCHEMISTRY
Chemistry of the Earth (Paper IV)

4) Answer to both Sections should be written in same answer
book.
1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from given options. 14

1) The reaction of H2O with mineral is ____________.
a) Hydrolysis b) Hydration c) Carbonation d) Oxidation
2) The major source of air pollution is ____________.
a) Transportation b) Industrial processes
c) Solid waste d) Liquid waste
3) The most common mineral in the soil is ____________.
a) Quartz b) Clay c) Calcite d) Felspar
4) The size of clay minerals is less than ____________ mm.
a) 0.002 b) 0.02 c) 0.0002 d) 0.00002
5) The most susceptible mineral to chemical weathering is ____________.
a) Muscovite b) Topaz c) Olivine d) Quartz
6) ____________ soil horizon consists of partially altered and partially unaltered
parent rock.
a) A b) B c) C d) R
7) If pH of the soil is 5 then the soil is said to be ____________.
a) Neutral b) Alkaline c) Basic d) Acidic
8) ____________ is responsible for green house effect.
a) NO2 + H2O b) SO2 + H2O c) CO2 + H2O d) Ar + H2O
P.T.O.
SLR-C 131 *SLRC131*
9) Mantle is mainly made up of ____________ silicates.
a) Mg-Fe b) Ni-Fe c) Mn-Fe d) Na-Fe
10) Soil, whose dimensions are between ____________ mm is silty soil.
a) 2 and 0.2 b) 0.2 and 0.02 c) 0.02 and 0.002 d) < 0.002
11) The process involving loss of electrons is
a) Oxidation b) Reduction c) Potential d) Redundant
12) The composition of soil is
a) Solids b) Organisms c) Air d) All of these
13) The most soluble atmospheric gas in water is
a) NO2 b) SO2 c) Ar d) CO2
14) Shape of clay particle is
a) Rounded b) Tabular c) Scaly d) Angular
i) What is mollisol soil ?
ii) Define pollution.
iii) Name the water pollutants.
iv) Susceptibility sequence of minerals to chemical weathering.
v) What is hydrogen ion concentration in pure water at 25° C ?
vi) What is gravitational differentiation ?
vii) How illite clays are formed ?
viii) What is pedalfer soil ?
ix) Explain roll of particulate matter in air pollution.
i) Explain oxidation/reduction potential.
ii) Describe carbonation and hydration processes.
iii) Describe Eh and pH diagram.
B) What are factors controlling soil formation ? 4
i) Explain porosity of soil.
ii) Describe soil horizon.
iii) Explain Kaolinite structure with diagram.
i) Explain geochemical cycle.
ii) Describe the process of formation of clay minerals.
iii) Explain soil pollution.
___________

*SLRC132* SLR-C 132

Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY
Histology and Physiology (Paper VI)

1. Complete the sentence, selecting appropriate answer : 14

1) The outer most the hardest covering of tooth is ____
a) enamel b) dentine c) cementum d) gum
2) _______ tissue functions for the protection of body.
a) bone b) cartilage c) squamous d) nervous
3) The area between two lines is known as sarcometer
a) A b) I c) Z d) D
4) Graafian follicle secrete the hormone
a) estrogen b) oxytocin
c) progesterone d) vasopressin
5) Malphigian body is situated in _____ part of kidney.
a) cortex b) both cortex and medulla
c) medulla d) loop of Hanle
6) Glisson capsule is observed in
a) bone b) kidney c) liver d) testes
7) Hormones oxytocin is secreted by
a) Neurohypophysis b) Graafian follicle
c) Corpus luteum d) Adenohypophysis
8) Acromegaly is a effect of
a) hyposecretion of G.H b) hypersecretion of G.H
c) hypersecretion of STH d) hyposecretion of ACTH
P.T.O.
SLR-C 132 -2- *SLRC132*
9) Sensitied T. cell are known as

a) B-cells b) Macrophages
c) Killer T. cells d)
- cells
10) _____ cell immunity as humeral immunity.
a) B b) T c) A d) D
11) Hormone progesterone is secreted by
a) Corpus luteum b) Graafian follicle
c) Interstitial cells d) Leydigs cells
12) The endocrine part of testes is called as
a) interstitial cells b) corpus luteum
c) islets of langerhans d) choroidplexus
13) Normally full term pregnancy is lasts for _______ days.
a) 130 b) 140 c) 200 d) 280
14) Copper-T- is
a) IUD b) Stomic device
c) Intestinal device d) Oral device

i) Loop of Henle.
ii) Draw neat labelled diagram of liver.
iii) Non-Striated muscle fiber.
iv) Androgens.
v) Pitocin.
vi) Podocytes.
vii) Kupffer cells.
viii) Enamel.
ix) Amniocentesis.
*SLRC132* -3- SLR-C 132

i) Describe the V.S. of mammalian tooth.
ii) Describe the T.S. of uterus.
iii) Describe the hormonal control of pregnancy.
B) Describe the oral pills as contraceptives. 4

i) With suitable diagram describe the structure and functions of striated muscle.
ii) Describe the histology of mammalian testis.
iii) Describe the menstrual cycle in mammals.

i) What is immunology ? Describe the humoral immunity and its mechanism.
ii) Give an account of hormones secreted by the anterior part of pituitary gland.
iii) Describe the invitro fertilization.
_________________
*SLRC133* SLR-C 133
S e a t
N o .

BOTANY
Paper V : Plant Physiology and Cytogenetics (CGPA Pattern)
Instructions : 1) All questions carry equal marks.

2) Question 1 is compulsory.
4) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences, choosing the correct answer : 14

1) The transfer of organic substances from cytoplasm to cytoplasm of another
cell through plasmodesmata is called ____________
a) Apoplast b) Symplast
c) Leucoplast d) Amyloplast
2) C4 Cycle is known as ____________
a) Calvin Cycle b) HSK Pathway
c) CAM Pathway d) None of these
3) ____________ is an example of symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacterium.
a) Rhizobium b) Clostridium
c) Aerobacter d) Azotobacter
4) ____________ algae is present in cycas corrolloid root.
a) Nostoc b) Spirogyra
c) Oedogonium d) Both a and b
5) ____________ is an example of CAM plant.
a) Opuntia b) Jawar c) Rice d) Rose
6) The atmosphere contains ____________ percent nitrogen.
a) 0.03% b) 78% c) 79% d) 70%
7) The chromosome bear genetic material in the form of ___________
a) DNA b) Histone-1
c) Histone-2a d) Histone-4
P.T.O.
SLR-C 133 -2- *SLRC133*
8) In the process of meiosis chromosome number in the cell is ___________

a) Reduced to half b) Remains constant
c) Get doubled d) None of these
9) The Meiosis is divided into _____________
a) 1-phase b) 2-phases
c) 3-phases d) 4-phases
10) The chromosome theory of heredity is given by _____________
a) Walter and Sutton b) Sutton and Bateson
c) T. Boveri and Mendel d) Sutton and Mendel
11) The crossing over is ____________
a) Same as translocation
b) Directly proportional to linkage
c) Inversely related to linkage
d) None of these
12) The number of chiasmata depend on _____________ of chromosomes.
a) Length b) Width
c) Breadth d) None of these
13) The quatasomes are present in _____________
a) Cristae b) Stroma
c) Granum d) None of these
14) During photosynthesis ________________ gas enters through stomata of
leaf.
a) O2 b) CO2 c) N2 d) CO
2. Attempt any seven of the following questions. 14

1) What is the role of heterosyst in BGA Nostoc ?
2) Define photosynthesis.
3) What is apoplastic transport ?
4) What is the role of Xanthophyll pigment ?
5) Describe V shaped chromosome.
6) Describe the events that are taking place in Meiosis anaphase I.
7) What is Hill reaction ?
8) What is significance of crossing over ?
*SLRC133* -3- SLR-C 133
3. A) Attempt any two of the following questions : 10

1) Comment up on chloroplast dimorphism.
2) Explain nitrogen cycle.
3) Explain incomplete linkage.
B) Describe the types of chromosomes. 4
4. Answer any two of the following questions. 14

1) Explain the noncyclic photophosphorylation.
2) Explain the mechanism of biological nitrogen fixation.
3) Define linkage and comment up on its significance.
5. Answer any two of the following questions. 14

1) Explain the CAM pathway of photosynthesis.
2) Comment up on Meiosis-I.
3) What is crossing over ? Explain the mechanism of crossing over.
_____________________
*SLRC134* SLR-C 134
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Paper VI) (CGPA)
Utilization of Plant

1. Rewrite the correct answer from the given alternatives : (1×14=14)

1) Cicer arietinum is the botanical name of
a) harbhara b) tur
c) vilayati gavat d) shevari
2) Gossypium arboreum plant has origin from
a) Myanmar b) India
c) Australia d) Keniya
3) The botanical name of Soyabean is
a) Cajanus cajan b) Indigo tinctoria
c) Glycine max d) Medicago sativa
4) In Zingiber officinales drug is obtained from
a) root b) bark c) seed d) rhizome
5) Hevea brasiliensis plant grows upto ____________ feet.
a) 60 160 b) 60 130 c) 60 120 d) 60 150
6) The example of botanical pesticide is
a) neem b) mango c) tur d) jowar
7) The dyes Kutch belongs to the family
a) Mimosaceae b) Verbenaceae c) Rubiaceae d) Fagaceae
P.T.O.
SLR-C 134 -2- *SLRC134*
8) Indian vernacular name of Log wood is
a) Khair b) Patang c) Palas d) Henna
9) Celosia is an example of ____________ plant.
a) Oil yielding b) Fibre yielding
c) Ornamental d) Dye yielding
10) Crossandra is _______________ plant.
a) Seasonal b) Biennial
c) Perennial d) Climber
11) Aloe barbadense is a native of ____________ Indies.
a) West b) South
c) North d) East
12) _____________ is an example of Cosmetic and Perfumes.
a) Neem b) Tobacco
c) Custard d) Rose
13) Quisqualis indica plant is
a) Seasonal b) Perennial
c) Cactus d) Prostrate
14) Shevari is an example of ______________ legume.
a) Food b) Fodder c) Fibre d) Oil

i) What is legume ?
ii) Define plant fibres.
iii) Give the botanical name of groundnut and soyabean.
iv) Write three uses of Syzygium arromaticum.
v) Define pesticides.
vi) What is plant dyes ?
vii) Give the uses of turmeric.
viii) Define seasonal plant.
ix) Write the sources of Citronella and Jasmine.
*SLRC134* -3- SLR-C 134
i) Explain the Chrysanthemum ornamental plant studied by you.
ii) Write the cultural practice of groundnut.
iii) Describe the origin, morphology and uses of cotton.
B) Explain the plant dyes Indigo and Heena studied by you. 4

i) Describe the plant perfumes and cosmetics plant Aloe studied by you.
ii) Explain the red gram food legume.
iii) Write the Emblical officinales medicinal plants studied by you.

i) Explain the physical and chemical properties of rubber.
ii) Describe the custard apple as botanical pesticides studied by you.
iii) Write an essay on Bougainvillea and Quesqualis plants.
___________
*SLRC135* SLR-C 135
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

PSYCHOLOGY
Cognitive Psychology (Paper V)

1. Choose and write a correct answer of the following four alternatives : 14

1) ___________ is the internal interpretation of stored information.
A) Health B) Cognition C) Self D) Stress
2) The scientific study of mental activity with the establishment of the first
modern psychology laboratory in ____________
A) 1879 B) 1832 C) 1920 D) 1932
3) ___________ was focused on understanding the nature of consciousness.
A) Wundt B) Titchener
C) Rene D) Akron
4) _________ guiding idea was that the contents of consciousness.
A) Maslow B) Wundt
C) Skinner D) Adler
5) The scientific psychology was developed primarily in ___________
A) William James B) Wundt
C) Darwin D) Grafen
6) Today the study of ___________ activity is again respectable.
A) Mental B) Social
C) Objective D) Happiness
P.T.O.
SLR-C 135 -2- *SLRC135*
7) _____________ also failed to provide insights into the nature of perception.
A) Behaviorism B) Functionalist
C) Evolutionary D) Socialist
8) ____________ theories specify ways in which stimuli lead to responses.
A) Behaviorist B) Functionalist
C) Evolutionary D) Socialist
9) The ____________ approach produced firm foundations for future studies.
A) Functionalist B) Behaviorist C) Evolutionary D) Socialist
10) Evolutionary proposed by ___________
A) Wundt B) Darwin
C) Allport D) Akron
11) ____________ activities are like computer programs is a leap.
A) Mental B) Social
C) Objective D) Happiness
12) The __________ revolution led a detailed conception of the form of a theory
of mental activity.
A) Social B) Cognitive
C) Evolutionary D) Abnormal
13) _________ psychologists try to specify how information is internally
represented.
A) Social B) Cognitive
14) ____________ psychology can be undermined by structure-process-trade-
offs.
A) Cognitive B) Social
2. Answer the following (any seven out of ten) : 14

1) Define Cognitive Psychology.
2) Who developed a method to examine how information is accessed in
memory ?
*SLRC135* -3- SLR-C 135
3) Where was first psychological laboratory ?
4) Who formulated alternative theories ?
5) Which theories are limited by facts about the brain ?
6) Define cognition.
7) Which method measures directly observable behavior ?
8) How many methods we can evaluate the correlation ?
9) Full form of MRI.
10) Who won the 2003 Nobel Prize in Physiology for their roles in developing
MRI ?
3. Short notes (any two out of four) : 14

1) The contents of consciousness.
2) The cognitive revolution.
3) Mental representation.
4) Top-Down and Bottom-Up Processing.
4. Answer the following (any one) : 14
1) Explain the Feature-Matching Models.
OR
2) Explain the Correlational Neural Methods.
5. Describe the context effects for feature and group processing. 14
_____________________
*SLRC136* SLR-C 136
S e a t
N o .

GEOLOGY (Paper V)
Igneous Petrology

4) Write both the Sections in same answersheet.
1. Write a correct answer from the given four alternatives. 14

1) Diorite rock is a ____________ rock.
a) Basic b) Acidic
c) Intermediate d) Ultrabasic
2) ___________ occurs as an essential mineral only in basic and ultrabasic
rocks.
a) Augite b) Olivine c) Quartz d) Biotite
3) When a rock is made up entirely of crystals, its texture is described as
_____________
a) holocrystalline b) holohyaline
c) merocrystalline d) none of these
4) Acid rocks are also called as _____________ rocks.
a) mafic b) felsic
c) ultramafic d) none of these
5) Granite rock is a ___________ rock.
a) Basic b) Acidic
c) Intermediate d) Ultrabasic
6) If the grains of igneous rock show, well developed crystal faces, then it is
called as _____________
a) anhedral b) euhedral
c) subhedral d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 136 -2- *SLRC136*
7) The magma which is rich in ca, mg and fe and poor in Si, Na and K is called
____________ magma.
a) Acidic b) Basic
c) Ultrabasic d) None of these
8) The first mineral crystalise in continuous reaction series is ___________
a) olivine b) plagioclase
c) orthoclase d) microcline
9) The abundant minerals in basalt rocks are ____________
a) Plagioclase-Augite b) Quartz-Augite
c) Quartz-Olivine d) Quartz-Plagioclase
10) The hypabyssal group includes the rocks of ___________
a) dyke b) sills c) laccoliths d) all of these
11) Minerals which are present in small amount and whose presence or absence
is disregarded in defining the rock type, are called ___________ minerals.
a) accessory b) essential
c) secondary d) tertiary
12) The salic minerals are ___________
a) Quartz and orthoclase b) Orthoclase and albite
c) Albite-anorthite d) All of these
13) The mixture of ice and salt in certain proportions freezes at __________ °C.
a) 22 b) 12 c) 2 d) +12
14) The unicomponent crystallisation of magma studied by ____________
a) Lehman b) Tamman and Ostwald
c) Clark d) Washington

1) Define eutectic point.
2) What is filter pressing process in differentiation of magma ?
3) What is metastable region ?
4) What is meant by essential minerals in igneous rocks ?
5) Mineral composition and texture of Basalt rock.
6) What is gaseous transfer process in magma ?
7) Name any four femic minerals.
8) Define texture in igneous rock.
9) Formation of granite rock.
*SLRC136* -3- SLR-C 136

1) Explain porphyritic texture.
2) Explain intergrowth texture.
3) Explain orbicular microstructure.
B) Explain xenolith structures. 4

1) Explain differentiation process by liquid immiscibility.
2) Classification of igneous rocks based on mode of occurrence and mineralogy.
3) Explain crystallisation of binary magma.

1) Explain crystallisation process of unicomponent magma.
2) Explain reaction relationships in magma.

3) Explain formation of glass and crystals.
_____________________
*SLRC137* SLR-C – 137
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY
Immunology and Medical Microbiology (Paper – V)

2) Figures to the right indicates full mark.

alternatives : 14
1) Widal Test is the best example of _____________

a) Precipitation b) Agglutination
c) Neutralization d) Haemagglutination
2) Coagulase contributes to virulence of_____________ organism.

a) E. coli b) S. aureus c) S. typhi d) S. dysenteriae
3) _____________ is major antibody produced in primary immune response.

a) Igm b) IgG c) IgA d) IgD
4) Tears contains _____________ as an antibacterial agent.

a) Properdin b) Complement
c) Interferon d) Lysozyme
5) Chemically antibodies are _____________

a) Lipids b) Carbohydrates
c) Proteins d) Phospholipids
6) _____________ is clinical specimen for tuberculosis.

a) Blood b) Urine c) Pus d) Sputum
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 137 -2- *SLRC137*
7) _____________ spreads by mosquito.

a) Dengue b) Typhoid c) Gastero d) Cholera
8) _____________ is called secretary antibody.
a) IgM b) IgG c) IgD d) IgA
9) _____________ is primary lymphoid organ.
a) Lymph node b) Spleen c) Stem cell d) Thymus
10) Blood group antigens are the example of _____________
a) Autoantigen b) Heteroantigen
c) Isoantigen d) Hapten
11) The reaction between a soluble antigen and a solution of antibody is known
as _____________
a) Agglutination b) Precipitation
c) Neutralization d) Haemagglutination
12) Enteric Fever is caused by _____________
a) E. coli b) S. aureus
c) S. typhi d) V. cholerae
13) The smallest unit present on the surface of antigen is known as
_____________
a) Epitope b) Hapten c) Antibody d) Adjuvant
14) _____________ lymphocyte is involved in the humoral immune response.
a) B b) T c) T helper d) T killer
2. Answer in short any seven of the following : 14

1) Define innate immunity.
2) What are the adjuvants ?
3) What is clinical specimen ?
4) What is meaning of H antigen ?
*SLRC137* -3- SLR-C – 137
5) Define autoantigens.
6) What is function of Natural Killer Cell ?
7) What is phagocytosis ?
8) Define vaccines.
9) What is serum ?

1) Active immunity.
2) Microscopic examination of clinical specimen.
3) Mechanism of bacterial invasion.
B) With diagram describe basic structure of antibody. 4

1) Describe the first line of defense mechanism.
2) Discuss the types and factors affecting antigenicity.
3) Describe with example agglutination reactions.

1) Describe the urinary tract infections.
2) Describe in detail immune response.
3) Discuss the biochemical methods of diagnosis of diseases.
_______________
*SLRC138* SLR-C 138
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

PSYCHOLOGY
Positive Psychology (Paper VI)


1) _____________ description of the three pillars of positive psychology.
A) Seligmans B) Parks C) Rashid D) Singer
2) A ____________ life is focused on going beyond our own self-interest and
preoccupations.
A) meaningful B) cultural C) engage D) pleasant
3) The concept of post traumatic growth as a counterpoint to post traumatic
____________ disorder.
A) stress B) anxiety C) depression D) personality
4) ______________ is a central component of peoples conception of a good
life and good society.
A) Mood B) Subjective C) Objective D) Happiness
5) Ryff and Keyes described ________________ aspects of positive
functioning.
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
6) Fredrickson developed broaden and build theory of positive __________
A) emotion B) motivation C) IQ D) health
7) ____________ focused coping involves behaviors directed at altering the
source of stress.
A) Problem B) Emotion C) Proactive D) Active
8) Aspinwall and ____________ suggested proactive coping.
A) Taylor B) Fredrickson C) Tellegen D) Salovey
9) Positive reappraisal refers to a ______________ strategy.
A) social B) emotion C) cognitive D) motivation
10) Two dimensional representation of ____________ goals.
A) 10 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13
P.T.O.
SLR-C 138 *SLRC138*
11) ____________ motives involve negative emotions.

A) Internal B) External C) Identified D) Interjected
12) Emmonss research on ______________ striving.
A) personal B) social C) economical D) mental
13) Grouzet suggested the content of human goals across _____________
cultures.
A) 10 B) 11 C) 14 D) 15
14) ______________ motives refer to the rewards approval praise or situational
demands.
A) Internal B) External C) Identified D) Interjected

1) Define subjective well-being.
2) Meaning of the pleasant life.
3) Meaning of hedonic happiness.
4) Define positive affect.
5) Define positive emotion.
6) Meaning of ordinary magic.
7) Define positive psychology.
8) What is happiness ?
9) Meaning of interjected motives.
3. A) Write the short note (any two) : 10

1) Life tasks.
2) Clinical perspectives of resilience.
3) What are the positive emotions ?
B) Health psychology. 4
4. Answer the following any two : 14

1) Describe the psychology of well-being.
2) Explain the psychological resources.
3) Explain the measuring personal goals.
5. Answer the following any two : 14

1) Discuss on happiness and success in college.
2) Explain the physical resources.
3) Describe two tradition of happiness.
_____________________
*SLRC139* SLR-C 139
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Paper VI) (CGPA)
Sedimentary and Metamorphic Petrology

4) Answer to both sections should be written in separate answer
book.
1. Choose and write correct answer from given alternatives. 14
1) The concentric coating of calcium carbonate can be seen in

a) limestone b) fossiliferous limestone
c) oolitic limestone d) dolomite
2) Composition of dolomite is
a) CaCO3 b) MgCO3
c) CaCO3 MgCO3 d) none of these
3) Which of the following shows non-foliated fabric ?

a) Marble b) Schist c) Gneiss d) None of these
4) The sedimentary rock with rounded to sub-rounded pebbles is called

a) breccia b) conglomerate c) shale d) limestone
5) The rock formed by a process of pulverization and rolling of minerals from

pre-existing rocks by cataclastic metamorphism is called as
a) mylonite b) duricrust c) migmatite d) charnockite
6) Omphacite is representative mineral of _______ facies.

a) zeolite b) greenschist c) eclogite d) amphibolite
P.T.O.
SLR-C 139 -2- *SLRC139*
7) Evaporite rocks are

a) halite b) gypsum c) anhydrite d) all of these
8) The ______ facies rocks are formed at low temperature and low pressure
conditions.
a) amphibolites b) granulite c) eclogite d) zeolite
9) Eolian deposits occur in ______ environment.

a) transitional b) lacustrine c) terrestrial d) marine
10) Gneiss represents ______ Foliated fabric.
a) strongly b) non c) weakly d) none of these
11) A tendency of metamorphic rock to split easily along thin, smooth planes is
called
a) slaty cleavage b) lamination c) stratification d) none of these
12) The process of chemical alteration of a rock by hydrothermal and other fluids
is called
a) anatexis b) polymetamorphism
c) metasomatism d) pyrometamorphism
13) The sediments having size > 256 mm are called
a) gravels b) pebbles c) silt d) boulders
14) The example of residual deposits is
a) shale b) conglomerate
c) limestone d) bauxite
2. Solve any seven of the following. 14

i) What is anatexis ?
ii) Define Scarn deposits.
iii) Write a note on migmatites.
iv) Describe lacustrine environment.
v) Give the names of minerals present in eclogite facies.
vi) Define metamorphic facies.
vii) What is deltaic environment ?
viii) Write a note on sedimentary marine environment.
ix) What is Arkose ?
*SLRC139* -3- SLR-C 139

i) Describe different processes involved in sedimentary rock formation.
ii) Explain textural characters of sediments.
iii) Write notes on mylonite and gneiss.
B) Define rudaceous rocks. Add a note on its verities. 4

i) Define sedimentary rocks. Describe in detail calcareous sedimentary rocks.
ii) Explain in detail greenschist and granulite facies.
iii) Describe in detail different types of metamorphic fabric.

i) Describe process of poly-metamorphism and retrograde metamorphism.
ii) Describe in detail characters of residual sedimentary deposits with reference
to laterite and bauxite.
iii) What is sedimentary environment ? Add a note on transitional environment.

*SLRC140* SLR-C 140
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Sem. IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper VI)
Applied Microbiology II

3) Draw neat, labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct option : 14

i) _________ confirmed the role of microorganisms in fermentation.
a) Pasteur b) Liebig c) Berzelius d) Leeuwenhock
ii) The detection and isolation of organism of interest is done by
a) Enumeration b) Elimination
c) Animal inoculation d) Screening
iii) The presence of an inhibitory zone around growth primarily indicates ________
production.
a) Amino acid b) Antibiotic c) Vitamin d) Enzyme
iv) The long term preservation of culture is achieved by
a) Soil culture b) Oil overlay
c) Nitrogen storage d) Subculture
v) A rise in temperature during fermentation is controlled by
a) Baffles b) Sparger c) Impeller d) Cooling coils
vi) The minimum capacity of pilot plant fermentor is ________ litres.
a) 10 b) 50 c) 100 d) 1000
vii) P. chrysogenum is used in production of
a) Streptomycin b) Amylase
c) Alcohol d) Penicillin
P.T.O.
SLR-C 140 -2- *SLRC140*
viii) The optimum temperature for alcohol production is __________ °C.

a) 10 b) 28 c) 20 d) 5
ix) __________ is an example of probiotic food.
a) Butter b) Buttermilk c) Milk powder d) Kefir
x) High levels of _________ are required for cultivation of hydrogen utilising
bacteria as SCP.
a) O2 b) CO2 c) NH3 d) Trace elements
xi) _________ are used for adequate mixing of medium and air.
a) Sparger b) Vacuum pump
c) Baffles d) Cooling coils
xii) The strain improvement increases __________ of organism.
a) Production capacity b) Stability
c) Size d) Growth rate
xiii) The freezing mixture used in lyophilisation contains alcohol and
a) Salt b) Sugar
c) Nitrogen d) Dry ice
xiv) Penicillin is recovered by __________ method.
a) Distillation b) Solvent extraction
c) Centrifugation d) Flocculation
2. Answer any seven : 14

i) What is industrial microbiology ?
ii) Mention few examples of raw materials used in fermentation.
iii) What is the objective of agitation ?
iv) Describe in short surface culture method.
v) Describe single stage recycle continuous fermentation.
vi) What is soil culture ?
vii) Define mode.
viii) Mention the ways to control foam formation.
ix) Define assay.
*SLRC140* -3- SLR-C 140
3. A) Answer any two : 10

i) Write on scope of industrial microbiology by listing the products.
ii) Give an account of primary screening.
iii) Write on probiotics.
B) Give an account of dual fermentation. 4
4. Answer any two : 14

i) Describe industrial production of alcohol.
ii) Describe strain improvement.
iii) Describe measures of central tendency. Write on applications of biostatistics.

i) Describe preservation methods.
ii) Give an account of assay procedures.
iii) Write on SCP as fermentation product.

*SLRC141* SLR-C – 141
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2017

ENGLISH (Compulsory)
Breakthrough
Time : 21/2 Hours Max. Marks 70

1. A) Choose the correct alternative : 10

1) Which of the following statements about the Press is not true ?
a) The newspapers are owned by rich men
b) People get their opinions from the newspapers
c) The Press is free
d) Honest editors and journalists are replaced by subservient ones
2) According to G. B. Shaw,the ___________ is a despoiler and oppressor
of the poor.
a) Parson b) Peasant
c) Journalist d) Squire
3) The Gettysburg Address was delivered by Abraham Lincoln on __________
a) 19 November 1863 b) 19 November 1683
c) 19 July 1863 d) 19 July 1683
4) Abraham Lincoln and other Americans gathered at Gettysburg battlefield to
a) To celebrate their victory in a civil war
b) To dedicate a cemetery for the soldiers who died there
c) To mourn the death of soldiers who died there
d) To thank American people for their support in the civil war
5) The flower mentioned in the poem “Abou Ben Adhem” is ___________
a) Rose b) Lily
c) Jasmine d) Lotus
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 141 -2- *SLRC141*
6) The poem “O Captain! My Captain!” is

a) A sonnet b) A lyric
c) An elegy d) A ballad
7) Which of the following statements about women is not true ?
a) In the 19th century women were encouraged to be an artist
b) Anonymity runs in the blood of women
c) A Woman must have money and a room of her own if she is to write fiction
d) Even in the 19th century, women were slapped, lectured and exhorted
8) According to Virginia Woolf, chastity had then a __________ importance
in a woman’s life.
a) Political b) Social
c) Economical d) Religious
9) Abou Ben Adhem was blessed by God because ____________
a) He loved God b) He loved his fellow men
c) He offered gold to an angel d) He loved an angel
10) The Captain in the poem is also called a dear ___________
a) Brother b) Leader
c) Father d) Revolutionary
B) Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct modal auxiliary from the
brackets : 2
1) I __________ swim hours in my childhood. (can, could, may, should)
2) ___________ you mind giving me your bike ? (Would, Must, Might, Shall)
C) Write the following sentences in indirect speech : 2
1) Kavita said to Rita, “Where are you going ?”
2) He said to me, “Post this letter at once.”
2. Answer any seven of the following questions in brief : 14

1) Why does G. B. Shaw call the parson an ally of the squire ?
2) How does the rich contribute to the corruption in the field of education ?
3) What are the principles on which the U.S.A. was founded ?
*SLRC141* -3- SLR-C – 141
4) What responsibility does Lincoln assign to the people assembled at the

Gettysburg ?
5) What was the fate of the gifted woman in the 16th century ?
6) How does society erode the talents of women writers ?
7) What does G.B. Shaw say about the Religion ?
8) Why do Judith’s parents keep her from nurturing her talent ?
9) What was the cause of the American civil war ?

1) Give two examples of metaphors used in the poem O Captain! My Captain!.
2) What did Abou Ben Adhem see in his dream ?
3) What is the central idea of the poem O Captain! My Captain! ?
B) Write short reports on any two of the following : 6
1) The inaugural function of Science Association of your college.
2) Farmers’ suicides in Maharashtra.
3) Your visit to National Chemical Laboratory, Pune.

1) Prepare a presentation consisting of five charts or slides to promote a
“Roti Maker” in the market.
2) Write a presentation on the topic “Safety of Women” using charts,
transparencies or slides.
5. Write a transcript of group discussion on the topic “Foreign Direct Investment

(FDI) in retail – good or bad?”. 14
_____________________
*SLR-C-142* SLR-C – 142
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Special Paper – VII) (New CGPA Pattern)
Mathematical Physics and Statistical Physics
N.B. : I) All questions are compulsory.

II) Draw diagrams whenever necessary.
III) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
IV) Use of logtable or calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative from following : 14
i) The microstates which are allowed under given restriction are called
_______________
a) Accessible microstates b) Allowed microstates
c) Disallowed microstates d) Permitted microstates
ii) The entropy has its maximum value for thermodynamic assembly in
_______________ state.
a) An inequilibrium b) An equilibrium
c) A normal d) Non homogeneous state
iii) In orthogonal curvilinear co-ordinate system, the co-ordinate surfaces are in

general _______________
a) Spherical b) Plane
c) Curved d) Cylindrical
iv) The three co-ordinates of spherical polar co-ordinates system are

_______________
a) (r, θ , z) b) (u1, u2, u3)
c) (x, y, z) d) (r, θ , φ )
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 142 -2- *SLR-C-142*
v) The highest of the orders of the differential coefficients occurring in a

differential equation is called ___________ of the differential equation.
a) Order b) Linearity
c) Degree d) homogeneity
vi) Maxwell Boltzmann law of distribution depend on following conditions, for a

system ______________
a) Total volume of assembly is constant
b) Temperature of system is constant
c) Total entropy is constant
d) Total number of molecules and total energy of assembly is constant
vii) The relation between vmp, v and vrms of the gas molecules in a system is
_____________
a) vrms < v < vmp b) vrms ≤ v ≤ vmp
c) vmp < v < vrms d) v < vmp < vrms
viii) The energy distribution in the spectrum of black body radiation is

_____________
a) Uniform b) Non-uniform
c) Not continuous d) Straight line
ix) Photon obeys _____________

a) M.B. statistics b) B.E. statistics
c) F.D. statistics d) a) and c)
x) Rayleigh-Jean’s formula agrees well with the experimental results at

_____________ wavelengths.
a) All b) Shorter
c) Longer d) Lesser
xi) Energy of the highest filled quantum state is _____________

a) Electron energy b) Free energy
c) Fermi energy d) Zero point energy
*SLR-C-142* -3- SLR-C – 142
xii) Fermi-Dirac distribution law is widely applied in the _____________

a) Band theory of solids
b) Debye’s theory of specific heat
c) Free electron theory of metals
d) Classical theory
xiii) According to Fermi Dirac statistics, the resulting electronic specific heat is
approximately given by _____________
3 ⎛ KT ⎞ 3 ⎛ KT ⎞
a) ⎜ ⎟R b) ⎜ ⎟ UF
2 ⎝⎜ UF ⎟⎠ 2⎝ R ⎠
3 ⎛ UF ⎞ 3⎛ K ⎞
c) ⎜ ⎟R d) ⎜ ⎟R
2 ⎝ KT ⎠ 2 ⎜⎝ UF ⎟⎠

xiv) According to Gauss divergence theorem, ∫∫∫ div F dv = _____________
v

a) ∫ F.n ds b) O∫ F.n ds c) ∫∫ F.n ds d) ∫∫ × n ds
F
S
S
i) Define microstate and macrostate.

ii) Write Laplacian operator D2 in orthogonal curvilinear co-ordinates.
iii) What is phase space ?
iv) Deduce the Wein’s displacement law from Planck’s radiation formula.
v) Define most probable speed and give its relation.

vi) Define thermodynamic probability.
vii) Define Fermions.
viii) Define order and degree of differential equation with example.

SLR-C – 142 -4- *SLR-C-142*

i) Explain microcanonical and canonical ensemble.
ii) Obtain relation for average speed of gas molecules.
iii) Explain electronic specific heat.
B) Derive an expression for total probability of a particular distribution. 4
i) Derive Planck’s radiation formula in terms of frequency and also in terms

of wavelength.
ii) Deduce the Fermi-Dirac distribution law.
iii) What are thermodynamic functions ? Express them in terms of the boltzmann
partition function.
i) Write Legendre’s and Bessel’s differential equation. State and prove Stoke’s
theorem.
ii) Obtain the gradient of scaler field in orthogonal curvilinear co-ordinates and
derive the expression for curl of vector field.
_____________________
*SLRC143* SLR-C 143
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY
Physical Chemistry (Special Paper No. VII)

3) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic table/scientific calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentence. 14
i) P + F = _________ is called phase rule equation.
a) c + 1 b) c + 2 c) c +3 d) all of these
ii) The cell which converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called
________ cell.
a) electrolytic b) galvanic c) anodic d) cathodic
iii) The light emitted from fire-fly is an example of __________
a) fluorescence b) phosphorescence
c) chemiluminescence d) delay-fluorescence
iv) The point at which three phases remain in equilibrium is known as __________
a) triple point b) transition point c) eutectic point d) all of these
v) Removal of electrons will take place at __________ electrode.

a) + ve b) ve c) both d) none of these
vi) ________ will play the effect on the rate of photochemical reaction.
a) Temperature b) Pressure c) Catalyst d) Light radiation
vii) For a system SM SL SV, the degree of freedom is ____________

a) zero b) one c) two d) three
viii) emf of the cell at equilibrium is _________
a) one b) two c) three d) zero
P.T.O.
SLR-C 143 -2- *SLRC143*
ix) = KIC is the mathematical representation of _____

@ 1
@ N
a) Lamberts law b) Beers law c) Einsteins law d) Stark law
x) In equation ln Qa, Qa represents ________

R T
E E
c c
n F
a) Quantum value b) Einstein value

c) Reaction quotient d) All of these
xi) The quantity (2s+1) is known as _________

a) spin b) spin multiplicity
c) orbit d) spin pairing
xii) In concentration cells, emf is produced due to decrease in ___________
accompanying the cell reaction.
a) free energy b) enthalpy c) entropy d) all of these
xiii) Metal in contact with solution of metal ions containing mercury is called
________ electrode.
a) amalgam b) metal insoluble salt
c) metal-metal ion d) silver
xiv) At 298 K, the value for 2 . 3 0 3 R T

__________
F
a) 0.0295 b) 0.0395 c) 0.0591 d) 0.0191

i) State Gibbs phase rule and explain the terms involved in it.
ii) What is congruent melting point ?
iii) Explain with suitable example the metal-metal ion electrode.
iv) Write the electrode reaction for reduction and expression for emf of the
O-
electrode .
C l , C l
C
| P t
v) What are the equations for the determination of enthalpy and entropy change
from the measurement of cell emf ?
vi) What is reversible cell ?
vii) What is Lamberts law ?
viii) Define quantum efficiency.
ix) What is chemiluminescence ?
*SLRC143* -3- SLR-C 143
3. A) Write notes on any two of the following : 10

i) Discuss the application of phase rule to water system.
ii) Deduce Nernst equation for electrode potential.
iii) What are photosensitized reactions ? Explain with suitable example.
B) Calculate emf of the concentration cell made up of cadmium in mercury

amalgams using CdCl2 as electrolyte solution at 298 K. One amalgam contains
20 mg of cadmium per gm of mercury and the other containing 0.4 mg per gm
of mercury. . 4
2 . 3 0 3 R T

0 . 0 5 9 1

i) What is reduced phase rule ? Discuss the application of phase rule to

lead-silver system.
ii) Derive expressions for the determination of thermodynamic parameters

G,
H and
S from emf measurements.
iii) Discuss in detail Jablonski diagram.
i) Derive an expression for emf of an electrode concentration cell without

transference.
ii) The emf of a cell

-
O
Ag | Ag I in 0.05 m KI || 0.05 m Ag NO3 | ) C

is 0.788 V at 298 K. Calculate the

solubility of silver iodide in water if AgNO3 and KI are dissociated to the
extent of 90%. .
2 . 3 0 3 R T

0 . 0 5 9

iii) Define Stark-Einstein law. Calculate the energy in joules per quantum and
joules per mole of photons of wavelength 400 nm.
_______________
*SLRC144* SLR-C 144
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

BOTANY
Special Paper VII : Biology of Cryptogams

1. Select the correct alternatives and rewrite the sentences. (1×14=14)

1) Sex organs develop on the primary laterals in _______ sp.
a) Chara b) Ectocarpus
c) Batrachospermum d) Sargassum
2) _______ type of sexual reproduction in algae is of very primitive type.
a) Anisogamous b) Isogamous c) Oogamous d) Both a and b
3) Basidiocarp is the fruiting body of ____ sp.
a) Uncinula b) Albugo c) Polyporus d) Puccinia
4) Uncinula reproduces asexually by
a) zoospores b) oospores c) ascospores d) conidia
5) The gametophyte of Marchantia bears
a) gemma cups b) gametangiophore
c) scales and rhizoids d) all the above
6) The genus Marchantia belongs to the class
a) Anthocerotopsida b) Bryopsida c) Hepaticopsida d) None of these
7) Mushrooms are ______ fungi.
a) fleshy b) edible c) saprophytic d) all the above
8) Monophasic life cycle is also known as
a) haplontic b) monomorphic
c) monogenetic d) all the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C 144 -2- *SLRC144*
9) The plant body of Chara is deposited with

a) Calcium carbonate b) Sodium bicarbonate
c) Calcium sulphate d) Other plants
10) Ectocarpus belongs to the division
a) Chlorophyta b) Phaeophyta c) Rhodophyta d) Cyanophyta
11) Fruiting body of Uncinula is
a) cleistothecium b) perithecium c) apothecium d) both b and c
12) Flagellated one celled motile forms of algae include
a) Chromulina b) Chlamydomonas
c) Carteria d) all the above
13) ______ are provided with flagella.
a) Conidia b) Chlamydospores
c) Zoospores d) Aplanospores
14) According to progressive evolution theory, the gametophyte of ____ is much
evolved.
a) Riccia b) Marchantia c) Funaria d) Pellia
2. Answer any seven of the followings. (2×7=14)

i) Define algae.
ii) What are stipulodes ?
iii) Sketch and label the antheridium of Marchantia.
iv) Classify Marsilea giving reasons.
v) State the occurrence of polyporus.
vi) Define somatogamy.
vii) Sketch and label the cell structure of Ectocarpus.
viii) State the requirements for Mushroom cultivation.
ix) Define the alternation of generation in pteridophyte.
3. A) Answer any two of the followings. (2×5=10)

i) Describe the asexual reproduction in fungi.
ii) Describe the vegetative methods of reproduction in Chara.
iii) Describe the haplobiontic life cycle in algae.
B) Describe the colonial forms of algae. 4
*SLRC144* -3- SLR-C 144

i) Describe the anatomy of rhizome of Marsilea.
ii) Describe the sporophyte of Marchantia.
iii) Describe the sex organs of Chara.

i) Describe the sexual reproduction in Ectocarpus.
ii) Describe the morphology of Marsilea sporophyte.
iii) Describe the steps involved in Mushroom cultivation.

*SLRC145* SLR-C 145
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (New) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper VII)
Non-Chordates

1. Select appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence. 14
i) Autotrophic type of nutrition is found in
a) Amoeba b) Paramoecium
c) Trypanosoma d) Euglena
ii) Sexual reproduction in paramoecium by ________ method.
a) budding b) plasmotomy
c) binary fission d) conjugation
iii) In sycon canal system found is _________ type.
a) Ascon b) Syconoid c) Leuconoid d) Rhagon
iv) In coelenterates _______ zooids are concerned with reproduction.
a) Gastrozoids b) Gonozoids
c) Dactylozoids d) Skeletozoids
v) ___________ is the earliest and the basic larval stage in crustacea.
a) Naupleus b) Metanaupleus
c) Zoea d) Mysis
vi) In insects metamorphosis is regulated by
a) Pheromone b) Juvenile hormone
c) Ecdysome d) Brain hormone
P.T.O.
SLR-C 145 -2- *SLRC145*
vii) Larva of silk moth is

a) oligopodus b) apodus c) polypodus d) naid
viii) In sea star, the function of pedicellariae is

a) Excretion b) Locomotion
c) Capture and removal of debaries d) Feeding
ix) Water entering into sea star body through madreporite passes into ________
water vascular system.
a) ring canal b) lateral canal c) stone canal d) radial canal
x) Lingula belongs to minor phylum

a) Phoronida b) Chactognatha
c) Ectoprocta d) Branchiopoda
xi) The salivary glands of Leech secrete an anticoagulant known as

a) Heparin b) Hepatic c) Hirudin d) Haemoglobin
xii) Polymorphism is not seen in _______ coelenterata.

a) Physalia b) Obelia c) Hydra d) Porpita
xiii) Locomotion in sea-star is by

a) Cilia b) Flagella c) Parapodia d) Tube foot
xiv) In leech female genital opening is present in segment number

a) 9th b) 10th c) 11th d) 12th
i) Apodus larva.
ii) Jaws of leech.
iii) Tube foot.
iv) Coral reef.
v) Bipinaria larva.
*SLRC145* -3- SLR-C 145
vi) Sycon type canal system.

vii) Cyclosis in paramoecium.
viii) Affinities of lingula.
ix) Epidermal glands in leech.

i) Polymorphism in physalia.
ii) Holozoic nutrition in protozoa.
iii) Zoological importance of peripatus.
B) Describe parasitic adaptations in leech. 4

i) Describe conjugation in paramoecium.
ii) Describe with suitable diagram male reproductive system of leech.
iii) Describe haemal and perihaemal system in sea-star.

i) Describe with suitable diagram excretory system of leech.
ii) Describe various insect larvae.
iii) Describe with suitable diagram digestive system of sea-star.

*SLRC146* SLR-C 146
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (New)
Algebra II (Special Paper VII)

1) The characteristic of the ring 2Z × Z7 is
a) 14 b) 2 c) 7 d) 0
2) If u = (1, 1, 2) R3. Then =

u
| | u | |
a) b) c) d) (1, 1, 2)
( 1 , 1 , 2 )
( 1 , 1 , 2 )
( 1 , 1 , 2 )
5 6
3) Let T : V3 V3 be a linear map defined by T(x1, x2, x3) = (x1, x2, 0). Then N(T) =

a) [(0, 0, 0)] b) [(1, 0, 0)] c) [(0, 1, 0)] d) [(0, 0, 1)]

4) Let x = (2, 1+ i, i). Then ||x|| =
a) 7 b) %
c) 5 d) '
5) Let V and W be finite dimensional vector spaces and T : V

W is linear.
If dim(V) < dim(W) then
a) T cannot be onto b) T cannot be one-one
c) T cannot be both 1-1 and onto d) None of these
6) The span of is
a) b) {0} c) V d) W
7) Let T : V W be linear, V and W are vector spaces then rank (T) + nullity (T) =

a) dim(V) b) dim(W)
c) dim(V) dim(W) d) dim(V) + dim(W)
P.T.O.
SLR-C 146 -2- *SLRC146*
8) The zero-divisors in Z6 are

a) {0} b) {2, 3} c) {0, 2, 3, 4} d) {2, 3, 4}
9) T : R2
R3 be linear transformation defined by T(x, y) = (x + y, x y, 2x 5y),
and are standard ordered basis for R2 and R3 then

6

a) b) c) d)

# #

#

10) The vector space M
n n
( F ) has dimension
a) 0 b) n2 c) n d) 2n
11) Let V be a vector space and let 5

5 8
and p) S1 is linearly dependent
q) S2 is linearly dependent then
a) p q b) q

p
c) p
q d) None of these
12) The number of ideals in the ring of rational number is
a) 1 b) 2 c) Infinite d) 5
13) Which structure is not a field ?
a) (R, +, ) b) (C, +, ) c) (E, +, ) d) (Q, +, )
14) If x = (1, 2, 3)
R3, then !
a) x , x
b) x , x
c) x , x
d) ||x||2

1) Define the term integral domain and give one example.
2) Show that the following is a subring of M(Z,
).
a b

S : a , b , c Z

0 c
3) Show that the set S = {(1, 1, 0), (1, 1, 1), ( 1, 1, 2)} is an orthogonal set.
4) Let x = (2, 1 + i, i) and y = (2 i, 2, 1 + 2i) be vectors in C3. Compute x , y
and ||x + y||.

5) Find all ideals of Z18.
6) If T be a linear map on R2 defined by T(x1, x2) = (2x1 + 3x2, x1 x2). Show that
T is one-one and onto.
*SLRC146* -3- SLR-C 146
7) Show that S = {(1, 2, 4), (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), (0, 0, 1)} is a linearly dependent.
8) Let T1, T2 : R3
R2 be the linear transformations given by
T1(x, y, z) = (2x, y + z) and T2(x, y, z) = (x z, y). Find T1 + T2 and 2T1 + 3T2.
9) Show that = {(2, 5), (1, 1)} is a basis of R 2.

1) Show that every field is an integral domain.
2) Determine whether the following sets are linearly dependent or linearly
independent {(1, 1, 2), (1, 2, 1), (1, 1, 4)}.
3) Let T : P 3(R) P 2(R) be the linear transformation defined by
T[f(x)] = . Let and be standard ordered basis for P3(R) and P2(R) B

N

then find .

B) Let V be an inner product space then for x, y, z

V and c
F then prove that 4
a) x , y z x , y x , z
b) x , c y c x , y .

1) Let V be the vector space over F prove that polar identities for all x, y
V.
1 1
x , y | | x y | | | | x y | |
4 4
2) T : R2 R3 is linear map defined by T(1, 1) = (1, 0, 2), T(2, 3) = (1, 1, 4).

Find T(a, b). In particular find T(8, 11).

3) Let V and W be vector spaces over a field F and Let T : V
W and
U:V W are linear then show that for all a F, aT + U is linear.


1) State and prove Dimension theorem.
2) Show that the set of member of a + b with a, b as rational number is a field.
3) Show that the polynomial 2x 2 + 3x + 5 belongs to span (S), where
S = {x2 + 1, x , 2x + 3}.
_____________
*SLRC147* SLR-C – 147
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

STATISTICS
Statistical Inference – I (Special Paper – VII)
N.B. : All questions carry equal marks.

1) Which of the following is an estimation procedure ?
a) Point estimation b) Interval estimation
2) Parameter is
a) Sample characteristic b) Population characteristic
3) An estimator Tn is said to be sufficient statistic for parameter θ if it contains
all the information which is contained in
a) Population b) θ c) Sample d) None of these
4) If T is consistent estimator of θ then
a) T is also consistent estimator of θ 2
b) T2 is also consistent of θ
c) T2 is also consistent of θ 2
d) None of these
5) By the method of moments one can estimate
a) All constants of a population
b) Only mean and variance of a distribution
c) All moments of population parameters
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 147 -2- *SLRC147*
6) If the variance of an estimator attains the Cramer-Rao lower bound then the
estimator is
a) Most efficient b) Sufficient c) Consistent d) Admissible
7) If Tn and Tn* are two unbiased estimators of parameter θ such that

V(Tn) = V( Tn* ) then
a) Tn and Tn* may not be same b) Tn = Tn*

c) Tn is more efficient d) None of the above
8) The maximum likelihood estimators which are obtained by maximizing the
function of joint density of random variables are generally
a) Unbiased and inconsistent b) Unbiased and consistent
c) Consistent and invariant d) Invariants and unbiased
9) If Tn is consistent estimator of θ then e Tn is

a) Unbiased estimator of eθ
b) Consistent estimator of eθ
c) Minimum variance unbiased estimator of eθ
10) For a random sample x1, x2, .... xn from a population N(μ, σ2 ) the maximum
likelihood estimator of σ2 is
1 1
a)
n
Σ(xi − x )2 b)
n −1
Σ(xi − x )2
1 1
c) Σ(xi − μ)2 d) Σ(xi − μ)2
n n −1
11) If E( Tn ) > θ then Tn is said to be

a) Unbiased b) Positively biased
c) Negatively biased d) None of these
12) Let X1, X2 is random sample from U(0, θ ) then MLE of θ is
a) X1 + X2 b) X1X2
c) Max(X1, X2) d) Min(X1, X2)
*SLRC147* -3- SLR-C – 147
13) If X is a single observation from N(0, σ2 ) then the sufficient statistic for σ2 is
a) | X | b) X c) X2 d) None of these
14) A sample constant representing a population parameter is known as
a) Estimate b) Estimator c) Statistic d) None of these

1) Define parameter, parameter space.
2) Give one example of unbiased estimator but not consistent.
3) Define sampling distribution of an estimator.
4) If X1, X2, ... Xn be a random sample from U(0, θ ), show that T = 2 X is
unbiased estimator of θ where X is the sample mean.
5) Find the estimate of the parameter λ of the Poisson distribution by the method
of moments
X: 0 1 2 3 4
f: 16 10 8 2 1
6) Define maximum likelihood estimator.
7) Write down the expression for the likelihood function of a random sample
x1, x2, .... xn drawn from the distribution f(x, θ ) = θ ⋅ e − θx x > 0.
8) Prove that sample SD is always biased estimator of population SD.
9) Explain relative efficiently.

1) Show that the estimator Tn such that E( Tn ) = θn + θ and V( Tn ) = σn2 then
Tn is consistent estimator of θ if θn → 0 and σn2 → 0 as n → ∞ .
2) Show that sample mean X is sufficient statistic for parameter λ of Poisson

distribution.
3) Obtain estimator of θ by the method of moments :
f(x, θ ) = (1 + θ ) x θ 0 < x < 1.
B) Prove that two distinct unbiased estimators of φ(θ) gives rise to infinitely
many unbiased estimators of φ(θ) . 4
SLR-C – 147 -4- *SLRC147*

1) If X1, X2, X3 are independent sample values from Poisson distribution with
X + 2X2 + 3X3 T = X 1 + X 2 + X 3
parameter λ and if T1 = 1 , 2 ,
6 3
X1 + X 2
T3 = + X 3 . Find
2
a) Which of these statistics are unbiased ?
b) Which is more efficient ?
2) Let L is likelihood function of random sample X1, X2, .... Xn from f(x, θ ) show
2
⎛ ∂ logL ⎞ ⎛ ∂2 log L ⎞
that E ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ = − E ⎜⎜ 2 ⎟
⎟.
⎝ ∂ θ ⎠ ⎝ ∂ θ ⎠
3) Obtain the estimates of α and β by the method of moments
βα − β x α − 1
f(x, α, β) = e x .
α

1) State and prove Cramer-Rao inequality.
2) Let X1, X2, .... Xn be a random sample from N (μ, σ2 ) population obtain
sufficient statistic for
a) μ when σ2 is known
b) σ2 when μ is known
c) μ and σ2 both are unknown.
3) Define Uniformly Minimum Variance Unbiased Estimator (UMVUE) and
show that it is unique when it exists.
_____________________
*SLRC148* SLR-C 148
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper VII)
Earths Physics and Dynamics


1) ____________ provides the global distribution of mountains, seismicity,
volcanism etc.
a) Isostacy b) Plate tectonics
c) Continental Drift d) None of these
2) The magnetic normals and reversals are well documented in the rocks flanking
the
a) Mid-ocean ridges b) Oceanic trenches
c) Transform faults d) dip-slip faults
3) Lithosphere constitutes
a) Crust and upper mantle b) Sial and Sima
c) Upper and lower mantle d) Mantle and core
4) ____________ postulated his hypothesis of isostasy considering the uniform
density of the outer crust.
a) Pratt b) Airy
c) Heiskanen d) Hess
5) ____________ refers to the origin of the continents.
a) Isostasy b) Orogenesis c) Epeirogenesis d) Erosiogenesis
6) Mid Oceanic Ridges (MOR) are an example of ____________ plate boundary.
a) Conservative b) Distractive
c) Constructive d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 148 -2- *SLRC148*
7) Formation of zebra like magnetic stripping takes place at

a) Mid oceanic ridges b) Sea face
c) On continent d) On mountains
8) Sea floor spreading can be evidenced with presence of
a) Plate boundaries b) Zebra like magnetic stripping
c) Volcano d) Marine trenches
9) Continents moves mainly due to
a) Volcano b) Earthquakes
c) Rocks d) Convection currents
10) Two plates moves away in ____________ type of movement.
a) Convergent b) Divergent
c) Uplift d) Plume formation
11) Which one of the following plates is larger plate ?
a) China plate b) Arabian plate c) Cocoas plate d) Indian
12) Epeiros means
a) Ocean b) Crust c) Sea floor d) Continent
13) Height of mountain is greater than ____________ m.
a) 510 b) 610 c) 810 d) 1010
14) Mid-Atlantic oceanic ridge is an example of ____________ plate boundary.
a) Transform fault b) Divergent c) Convergent d) Passive

i) Draw figure, representing Pratts hypothesis.
ii) Volcanic mountain.
iii) Wegeners concept of continental drift.
iv) Define the mountain.
v) What are two types of plate boundaries ?
vi) What are types of orogenic forces ?
vii) What is tectonics ?
viii) What is orogeny ?
ix) What is Sea floor ?
*SLRC148* -3- SLR-C 148

i) Characters of plate.
ii) Pratts hypothesis.
iii) Describe concept of plate tectonics. Draw diagram.
B) Describe supporting evidences for continental drift. 4

i) Describe hot plumes.
ii) Convergent plate and their characters.
iii) Observations on the sea floor for tectonic evidences.

i) Benioff zone.
ii) Describe divergent plate boundaries.
iii) Distinguish between plate margin and plate boundary.
___________
*SLRC149* SLR-C 149
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY
Special Paper VII : Virology, Extremophiles and Bioinformatics

1. Rewrite the sentences after choosing correct answer from the given
alternatives. 14
1) ________________ phage contain 12 capsomers in its capsid.
a) phage b) T4 phage c) MS2 phage d)
X-174 phage
2) On denaturation of DNA, panhandle structures are produced in ___________
virus.
a) Papiloma b) Adeno
c) Influenza d) SV40
3) One step Growth Experiment was devised by
a) Watson b) Crick
c) Lederberg d) Ellis and Delbruck
4) Multiplication of influenza virus occurs in
a) Cytoplasm b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria d) Ribosome
5) The phage
X-174 contain _________________ as its genome.
a) Circular DS DNA b) Linear SS DNA
c) Circular SS DNA d) Linear DS RNA
6) ____________ is DNA containing oncogenic virus.
a) Rous Sarcoma virus b) Mammary Tumor virus
c) Epstein-Barr virus d) Leukemia virus
P.T.O.
SLR-C 149 -2- *SLRC149*
7) In the reproductive
phage cycle the gene N product acts as
a) Repressor b) Activator
c) Terminator d) Antiterminator
8) In Pock assay, viral dilution is inoculated onto the surface of
a) Allantoic cavity b) Amniotic cavity
c) Yolk sac d) Chorioallantoic membrane
9) The naturally occurring alkaline environment on earth is
a) Hot spring b) Deep ocean
c) Soda lake d) Deep wells
10) Hemagglutination assay is suitable for enumeration of __________ viruses.
a) Nacked b) Enveloped
c) Complex d) All
11) E. coli K-12 is host for __________________ bacteriophage.
a) T4 b) T1 c)
d) T3
12) Genome of ____________ virus is segmented.
a) TMV b) Influenza
c) Adeno d) Mammary tumor
13) The time from infection by phage until intracellular accumulation of progeny
virus in cell is called
a) Eclipse period b) Latent period
c) Rise period d) Plateau
14) ____________ grows at extreme acid pH of acid mine drainage.
a) Vibrio spp. b) Hydrogenomonas spp.
c) Thiobacillus spp. d) Proteus spp.

i) How influenza virus attaches to its host cell ?
ii) Define repression and induction.
iii) Define bioinformatics.
iv) Explain latent period.
*SLRC149* -3- SLR-C 149
v) What is psychrophile ? Give its example.
vi) Define antigenic shift and drift.
vii) What is Cro repressor ? Give its role.
viii) What is DDBJ and EMBL ? Give their role.
ix) What is PDB ? Give its importance.

a) Describe briefly different methods used for cultivation of animal viruses.
b) Give brief account of PDB and GenBank.
c) Discuss in detail the reproduction in Adenovirus.
B) Discuss the adsorption and penetration of T4 phage. 4

i) Describe the immunity operon and discuss the maintenance of lysogeny.
ii) Briefly explain intracellular development of influenza virus.
iii) Give brief account of extremophiles.

i) Describe in detail the Pock and Plaque assay method of enumeration of viruses.
ii) Give the detailed account of characteristics of cancerous cells.
iii) Describe briefly use of bioinformatics in major research areas.
___________
*SLRC150* SLR-C 150
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (New C.G.P.A.) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper VII)
Linear Integrated Circuits and Applications

1. Select the correct alternative for the following : 14

i) The component which is not possible to fabricate in IC is
a) Diode b) Resistor c) Inductor d) Capacitor
ii) _______ filter has maximum flat pass and stop bands.
a) Butterworth b) Chebyshev
c) Ellipic d) None of these
iii) A chip having more than 3000 logic gate is known as ______ chip.
a) SSI b) MSI c) LSI d) VLSI
iv) In second order low pass filter the number of RC combination is
a) one b) two c) three d) four
v) For a wide band stop filter using LPF and HPF, the cut off frequency of HPF
must be _________ cut off frequency of LPF.
a) less than b) equal to c) greater than d) none of these
vi) In IC regulator _______ is used to increase the current capacity of the regulator.
a) reference voltage source b) pass transistor
c) error amplifier d) none of these
vii) IC 7805 is a ______ voltage regulator.
a) fixed positive b) fixed negative
c) adjustable positive d) adjustable negative
P.T.O.
SLR-C 150 -2- *SLRC150*
viii) In PLL lock range is ____ capture range.

a) less than b) equal to c) greater than d) none of these
ix) _______ is not the part of PLL.
a) Phase detector b) Error amplifier
c) High pass filter d) None of these
x) The main job of voltage regulator is to provide a nearly _______ output voltage.
a) Sinusoidal b) Constant c) Smooth d) None of these
xi) Which of the following IC is used for audio amplifier ?
a) LM 386 b) IC 565 c) IC 0808 d) IC 0809
xii) IC ________ is a phase locked loop.
a) 565 b) 556 c) LF 198 d) LF 356
xiii) _______ filter is also known as notch filter.
a) Low pass b) High pass
c) Narrow band-pass d) Narrow band-reject
xiv) ________ can be used to have direct dB display on digital voltmeter and
spectrum analyser.
a) Log amplifier b) Antilog-amplifier
c) S/H Circuit d) Precision rectifier
2. Answer any seven from the following (2 marks each) : 14

i) What do you mean by passive and active filters ?
ii) Give the different methods of fabricating resistor in IC.
iii) What are the advantages of IC voltage regulator ?
iv) Define lock range and capture range in PLL.
v) List the basic building blocks of PLL.
vi) What is the purpose of having input and output capacitors in three terminal IC
regulators ?
vii) In second order low pass filter R1 = R2 = 1 K and C1 = C2 = 0.1 .

.
Calculate cut off frequency.
*SLRC150* -3- SLR-C 150
viii) Draw block diagram of IC regulator.

ix) In regulated power supply calculate the value of Rac for a load current of 500 mA.
Given Vsense = 0.5 Volt.
3. A) Answer any two (5 marks each) : 10

i) Explain sample and hold circuit.
ii) Draw the pin configuration of IC LM 317 and state the expression for its
output voltage.
iii) Derive the expression for lock range of PLL.
B) Explain second order low pass filter. 4
4. Answer any two (7 marks each) : 14

i) Draw and explain F to V converter using LM 331.
ii) Explain peak clamper circuit using op-Amp and draw I/P-O/P waveforms.
iii) Explain the use of PLL as
a) Frequency multiplier
b) FSK demodulator.
5. Answer any two (7 marks each) : 14

i) What is epitaxial process ? Explain epitaxial process used in IC fabrication.
ii) Explain log and Antilog amplifier using op-Amp.
iii) Explain principle and working of PLL.
_____________
*SLRC151* SLR-C 151
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (New CGPA) (Semester V) Examination, 2017

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Visual Programming
(Special Paper VII)

1. Choose the correct alternatives : 14

1) ___________ is predefined reference type structure.
a) Structure b) Object
c) Enumeration d) Class
2) Which of the following operator cannot be overloaded ?
a) true b) = = c) & d) + =
3) ___________ constructor is called before any object of class is created.
a) Copy b) Default c) Static d) Private
4) ___________ class helps us to perform tasks such as creating and setting
priority of thread.
a) Thread b) Monitor c) Mutex d) Thread Pool
5) The thread can be synchronized by using method such as ___________ of
thread class.
a) sleep and join b) start and suspend
c) join and resume d) none
6) ___________ block can have one or more statement that are necessary to
process exception.
a) try b) catch c) finally d) none
7) The ___________ defines a set of rules that enables interoperability on the
.Net platform.
a) CLR b) CLS c) CTS d) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-C 151 -2- *SLRC151*
8) The ___________ is a user defined integer type which provides a way for
attaching names to numbers.
a) structure b) class c) enumeration d) union
9) ___________ represents a kind of relationship between two classes.
a) Inheritance b) Abstraction c) Interface d) Class
10) ___________ is location indicators and are used to access class object.
a) Indexer b) Properties c) Array d) None
11) A local variable___________
a) Can be used anywhere in program
b) Represents a class object
c) Is declared within method
d) None
12) The virtual may be used as method modifier.
a) true b) false
13) ___________ classes supports binary file.
a) Binary Writer b) File c) File Stream d) None
14) A property that omit get clause is referred to as write only.
a) True b) False

1) Explain Garbage collection.
2) Explain try and catch block.
3) Explain boxing and unboxing.
4) Explain Abstract class.
5) Define method overriding.
6) Explain File class.
7) Explain read only fields.
8) Command line argument.
9) Define Thread.
*SLRC151* -3- SLR-C 151

1) What is Constructor ? Explain type of constructors with examples.
2) Define namespaces. Explain nested namespace.
3) Write difference between method overloading and method overriding.
B) Explain Thread Life Cycle with suitable diagram. 4

1) Write a program to implement custom exception where user will take ACNO
and amount as input if amount> balance raise custom exception out_of_bal.
2) Explain CLR, CTS, CLS.
3) What is operator overloading ? List the operators that can be overloading and
cant be overloaded.

1) Write a program to copy content of one file to another.
2) Write a program to implement thread synchronization.
3) Explain indexer with suitable example.
_____________________
*SLRC152* -1- SLR-C – 152
SLR-C – 152
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Special Paper – VIII) (New)
Solid State Physics
1. Select correct alternatives : 14

i) Total number of atoms in HCP cell are ______________
ii) Total number of atoms in unit cell of BCC structure is/are ______________
iii) The coordination number of simple cubic structure is ______________
a) Three b) Six c) Nine d) Twelve
iv) Band gap energy of Germanium is ______________
a) 1.1 eV b) 0.7 eV c) 7 eV d) 0 eV
v) For pure metals, electrical conductivity ( σ ) is proportional to ______________
a) T b) T2 c) 1/T d) T3
vi) Wiedmann-Franz relation is ______________
a) (K/ σ ) α T b) (K/ σ ) α T–1
c) (K/ σ ) α T2 d) ( σ /K) α T
vii) Infinite potential well type model proposed by______________
a) Drude-Lorentz b) Sommerfields
c) Kronig d) Hall
viii) Below Fermi energy state, all the energy states are ______________
a) Completely filled b) Completely empty
c) Always empty d) None of these
ix) The quantum states E122 and E221 are ______________
a) Degenerate energy states
b) Non-degenerate energy states
c) Degenerate as well as non-degenerate energy states
d) Some times non-degenerate energy states
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 152 -2- *SLRC152*
x) Pure semiconductors are insulators at______________

a) 273 K b) 0 K
c) 0°C d) 100 K
xi) Band gap energy of diamond is ______________
a) 7 eV b) 0.7 eV
c) 1.7 eV d) 0 eV
xii) At the point of inflection, the value of effective mass of electron is __________
a) Zero b) Infinity
c) Very small d) Same as that of rest mass
xiii) If the sign of Hall coefficient is positive then the charge carriers are _________
c) Excitons d) Electrons as well holes
xiv) The magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic materials is ______________
a) Infinity b) Zero
c) Negative d) Positive

i) Define coordination number.
ii) Define packing fraction.
iii) Draw body centered cubic structure and give example.
iv) Write the formula of interplaner distance dhkl for orthorhombic crystal system.
v) Define Fermi-Dirac distribution function.
vi) Sate Hall effect.
vii) State Curie law for paramagnetic materials.
viii) Define Neel point.

i) Show that the packing fraction of simple cubic structure is 0.52.
ii) Show that the volume of unit cell of reciprocal lattice is inversely
proportional to the volume of unit cell of direct lattice.
iii) Explain effect of magnetic field on superconductivity.
B) Write note on ferrites. 4

*SLRC152* -3- SLR-C – 152
i) Explain the principle of powder method of X-ray diffraction and draw the
experimental arrangement and traces obtained from X-ray diffraction by crystal.
ii) Write short note on hysteresis.
iii) Differentiate type-I and type-II superconductors from each other.
i) A) Derive the expression for electrical conductivity ( σ ), thermal conductivity (K)

and Wiedmann-Franz relation for any metal.
B) Draw the planes (100), (010), (001) and (111).
ii) A) Distinguish between metals, semiconductors and insulators on the basis

of band theory of solids.
B) Problem : In a sodium chloride crystal (a = 2.814 A.U.), the second order

reflection is observed from the plane (100) by using monochromatic
X-ray beam of wavelength 0.71 A.U. Calculate the angle of diffraction to
observe the above reflection.
_____________________
*SLRC153* SLR-C 153
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester V) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY
(Special Paper VIII) : Inorganic Chemistry

2) Draw neat labelled diagram and give equation wherever
necessary.
1) Complex having CN = 6 have ______________ shape.
a) Octahedral b) Square Plannar
c) Tetrahedral d) Linear
2) [Co(NH3)6]+3 is _________ complex.
a) High Spin b) Low Spin
c) Tetrahedral d) Paramagnetic
3) CFSE for d6 octahedral complex in weak field ____________ is Dq.
a) 4 b) 6 c) 4 d) 12
4) In [Fef6] 3 complex HOMO is
a) t2gn b) eg* c) a1g* d) eg
5) The principle of atom bomb is a
a) Nuclear fusion
b) Natural radioactivity
c) Chain reaction
d) Uncontrolled chain reaction
6) The isotope emitting radioactivity is called as __________ isotopes.
a) Radio b) Recoil
c) Daughter d) Non-radioactivity
P.T.O.
SLR-C 153 -2- *SLRC153*
7) In fast breeder reactors ____________ material is used.
a) Fertile b) Fissile c) Radioactivity d) All of these
8) _____________ is essential metal for biological process.
a) Ca b) Ni c) Co d) Cr
9) Metalloporphyrins are
a) Simples Salt b) Metal Complex
c) Metal Chelates d) Double Salts
10) Myoglobin contains ________________ heme units.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 0 d) 1
11) ______________ is a natural polymer.
a) Terylene b) Wool c) PVC d) PE
12) In Silicon polymers, Si-o linkage is more stable due to presence of __________
bonding.
a) p p
b) d p
c) d d
d) d d
13) The Backbone in Fleocarbans consists of _____________ structural unit.

a) F F b) C H c) C F d) C C
14) The particle size of nano materials is in the range of ___________ nm.
a) 1 to 100 b) 100 to 200 c) 100 to 1000 d) 0.1 to 1

1) Define the terms :
a) Exothermic reaction b) Endothermic reaction.
2) What is induced reaction ?
3) What are homoatomic and heteroatomic polymer ?
4) What is the function of hemoglobin ?
5) Explain copolymer.
6) What are the applications of silicones ?
7) Explain the use of nano materials in energy field.
8) Show the crystal field splitting in [COF6]3 complex.
9) What are high spin and low spin complexes ?
*SLRC153* -3- SLR-C 153
1) What is crystal field spitting ? Explain it for octahedral complex with suitable
example.
2) Describe the nature of oxygen binding curves of hemoglobin and myoglobin.
3) Discuss the applications of nanotechnology.
B) Explain in brief dating of carbon-14 4

1) With is the help of MO diagram, explain the formation of [Co(NH3)6]+3 complex.
Comment on its magnetic property.
2) Describe in detail nuclear fusion.
3) Explain function, structure and working of myoglobin.

1) What is the chain reaction ? Explain in detail uncontrolled chain reaction.
2) Distinguish between organic and inorganic polymers.
3) What is the crystal field stabilization energy ? Calculate CFSE for d4 case for
octahedral complex in weak field and strong field with neat diagram.
___________
*SLRC154* SLR-C 154
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) Examination, 2017

BOTANY (Special Paper VIII) (New CGPA)
Gymnosperm and Palaeobotany


1) In Zamia the subterenean stem is ________ shaped.
a) Conical b) Cylindrical c) Turnip d) Rhizomatic
2) The leaves of Zamia are
a) Unipinnately compound b) Bipinnately compound
c) Tripinnately compound d) Needle like
3) In Zamia rachis the xylem is
a) Centripetal b) Centrifugal
4) The phyllotaxy in Gnetum is
a) alternate b) opposite
c) whorled d) deccusate and opposit
5) The pollination in Zamia is
a) Entemophilous b) Hydrophilous
c) Anemophilous d) Ornithophylous
6) Most of the characters of Gnetum are homologous with
a) Dicot angiosperms b) Monocot angiosperm
c) Bryophytes d) Pteridophytes
P.T.O.
SLR-C 154 -2- *SLRC154*
7) Calamite is a name for

a) stem b) pith cast c) leaf d) root
8) The flowers of fossils group ___________ born in axil of leaf bases
a) Cycadeoidea b) Calamite
c) Lyginopteris d) Enigmocarpon
9) Mesozoic era is called as age of
a) Pteridophytes b) Gymnosperms
c) Algae and Fungi d) Angiosperms
10) ________ is used to calculate the geological age of fossil specimen.
a) S14 b) N14 c) C14 d) P14
11) Coal is ___________ type of fossil.
a) Impression b) Compression
c) Petrification d) Amber
12) __________ is a separate generic name for each organs of fossil plants.
a) Organ genera b) Specific genera
c) Plant genera d) Group genera
13) Fibrous bands are seen in cortex of __________ stem.
a) Calamite b) Cycadeoidea
c) Lyginopteris d) Enigmocarpon
14) _________ play important role in oil exploration.
a) Microfossils b) Chemical fossils
c) Pseudofossils d) Amber

i) Give systematic position of Gnetum.
ii) Sketch and label sporophytic plant body of Zamia.
iii) Give economic importance of Gnetum.
iv) Characters of spermatozoids in Zamia.
*SLRC154* -3- SLR-C 154
v) Define geological time scale.

vi) Enlist periods of Mesozoic era.
vii) What are form genera ?
viii) Define Amber.
ix) What is oil exploration ?

i) Give fossil flora of Mesozoic era.
ii) Sketch, label and describe female strobili of Gnetum.
iii) Describe the male frutification of Lyginopteris.
B) Describe the process of carbon dating. 4

i) Describe sexual reproduction in Zamia.
ii) Describe any three types of fossil studied by you.
iii) What are fossils ? Describe the process of fossilization.

i) What is anomalous secondary growth ? Describe the anomalous growth in
Gnetum ula stem.
ii) Describe the fossil fruit genera Enigmocarpon, comment up on its taxonomical
position.
iii) Explain the evidence that prove coal and oil are biotic in origin.

*SLRC155* -1- SLR-C – 155
SLR-C – 155
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (CGPA Pattern) (New) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – VIII)
(Biostatistics, Bioinformatics, Medical Zoology and Evolutionary
Genetics)

1) The systematic arrangement of data in column in the graph is called _________
a) Frequency curve b) Histogram
c) Ogive curve d) Frequency distribution
2) In the perfect +ve correlation the value of ‘r’ is ____________
a) +01 b) +1
c) 0.5 d) –1
3) The applications of statistics in the biological science is called ____________
a) Bioinformatics b) Biotechnology
c) Biostatistics d) Biochemistry
4) The systematic arrangement of data in a table is called as ____________
a) Standard deviation b) Histogram
c) Coefficient correlation d) Classification and tabulation
5) ____________ is defined as a systematic arrangement of data in rows and
sentences.
a) Tabulation b) Frequency distribution
c) Co-relation d) Histogram
6) The command Ctrl+A is used for ____________ in the bioinformatics.
a) to delete all b) to save all
c) to select all d) to cut all
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 155 -2- *SLRC155*
7) The pathological agent _____ is responsible for the disease, tuberculosis (TB).
a) Bacteria b) Virus
c) Mosquito d) Plasmodium
8) The profused salivation in man is due dog bite is called as ____________
a) TB b) Swine flue
c) Dengue d) Rabies
9) _____________ are the tools in bioinformatics.
a) Research microscopes b) Search engines
c) Computer appliances d) CPU
10) A mathematical relationship was developed to explain the equilibrium
frequencies and allele is called ____________
a) Genetic law b) Hardy-Weinberg law
c) Mendel’s law d) Darwin’s law
11) ____________ is a measurement of central tendency.
a) Standard deviation b) Frequency distribution
c) Mean d) Dispersion
12) The disease tuberculosis is caused by the pathogenic agent ____________
a) Bacteria b) Virus
c) Fasciola d) Mosquito
13) The term used in population genetics to refer the statistical drift is called _________
a) Genetic drift b) Gene pool
c) Genetic net d) Genome bank
14) ____________ is an output device in computer appliances.
a) Pen drive b) Monitor
c) UPS d) CPU

i) Mode
ii) Classification
iii) Standard error
iv) Scatter diagram
v) BLAST
*SLRC155* -3- SLR-C – 155
vi) Ebola
vii) Malaria
viii) Genetic drift
ix) Computer processing unit.

i) Describe the disease tuberculosis.
ii) Give an account of pathogenesis and treatment of fasciolasis.
iii) Describe applications of search engines in bioinformatics.
B) Define median. Calculate median from following data : 4
No. of
5 – 9 10 – 14 15 – 19 20 – 24 25 – 29 30 – 34
students
Marks 3 5 6 4 3 4

i) Give an account of dengue disease.
ii) Describe the Hardy-Weinberg law of equilibrium.
iii) Explain Spearman’s correlation coefficient.

i) Describe the three levels of bioinformatics.
ii) What are the measurements of central tendency ? Describe the mean.
iii) Define statistical table. Describe its different parts.
_____________________

*SLRC156* SLR-C 156

Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper VIII)
Complex Analysis

1. Choose the correct alternative of the following : 14
1) If harmonic function u and v satisfy Cauchys Riemann equations then u + iv is

a) closed b) not closed
c) an analytic d) not analytic
2) Two families are orthogonal then the product of slope is

3) Construct the analytic function, if u = y3 3x2y

a) (z3 + c) b) i (z3 + c) c) (z2 + c) d) i (z2 + c)
4) If u = x3 3xy2 then analytic function f (z) =

a) z3 + c b) z2 + c c) z + c d) none of these
5) If z = z (t) on the interval = J >
. An arc L is said to be differentiable, if

a) z

( t )
exist and not continuous b) z

( t ) does not exist but continuous
c) z

( t )
exist and continuous d) none of these
6) The inequalities a = t 0 < t1< t 2 < .... <tn1< tn = b and greatest of the
numbers, t1 t0, t2 t1, .... tn tn 1 is called ______ of the partition.
a) Closed curve b) Norm c) Arc d) Partition
7) An arc L is simple or a Jordan arc if z (t1) = z (t2) only when ____
a) t1 = t2 b) t1
t2 c) t1 t2 d) t1 + t2
P.T.O.
SLR-C 156 -2- *SLRC156*
8) The equation z = z (t) = x (t) + iy (t), and x (t), y (t) are continuous = J >
function of t represent on ______ in the complex plane.

a) Closed curve b) Arc c) Partition d) Norm
9) If C is the circle |z a| = r then is

d z
z a
a) 2 E
b) 2 E
c) E
d) 0
10) If f (z) = u + iv is analytic function in a finite region and u = x2 y2 then v is ____

a) 2xy + c b) 3xy + c c) 4xy + c d) xy + c
11) If z = a is simple pole of f (z), then the residue at z = a is ___
a) l
z
i

m
a
( z a )
b) l
z
i

m
a
f ( z )
c) l
z
i

m
a
( z a ) f ( z )
d) None of these
12) The residue of at z = i is

1
z 1
a) b) c) d)

E
E
13) The residue of at is

1
z
! #
z z
a) 1 b) 0 c) 1 d) 2
z
14) If then residue of f (z) at z = 0 is

e
f ( z )
2 2
z ( z 9 )
a) 1 b) c) d)

' !
1) Expand when 1<|z|<3.

1
f ( z )
( z 1 ) ( z 3 )
2) Define Isolated Essential singularity.

3) Let f (z) be continuous a counter L of length l and let |f (z) | < Ml then prove
that
L
f ( z ) d z M l
.
*SLRC156* -3- SLR-C 156
4) Find the residue of at z = i.

1
( z 1 )
5) Find the nature of singularity of function .

1
f ( z )
z ( e 1 )
6) Prove that .
d d d
( f ( z ) . g ( z ) ) f ( z ) g ( z ) g ( z ) . f ( z )
7) Prove that u = ex [(x2 y2) cosy + 2xy siny] is harmonic function.
d z d z d z
8) Evaluate residue of at z = 2, 3 and .

z
( z 1 ) ( z 2 ) ( z 3 )

1) Explain Mittne Thomsons method of regular function.

2) Show that if a > b > 0.

d 2
a b s i n
a b
3) State and prove Cauchys fundamental theorem.
B) If l i m ( z a ) f ( z ) A
and if c is the arc

of the circle |z a| = r then
z =
prove that l
H
i

m

+
f ( z ) d z i A (

)
. 4

(if a2 < 1).

c o s 2 a
1) Show that 1 2 a c o s a

1 a
2) Show that sin can be expanded in a series of the type

1

c z

in which coefficient of both zn and zn are

n n
a z b z
n n
n 0 n 0
.
1
s i n ( 2 c c o s ) c o s n d
2
3) Prove that the polar form of Cauchy Riemann equations and

K L
H H
.
L K

H H
where r x y , t a n

y
x
SLR-C 156 -4- *SLRC156*
1) State and prove Cauchy Residue theorem.
2) Evaluate
z d z
from z = 0 to z = 4 + 2i along the curve L defined by
i) z = t2 + it.
ii) The line from z = 0 to z = 2i and then from
z = 2i to z = 4 + 2i.
3) Prove that necessary and sufficient condition that w = F (z) = u + iv be

regular in region R is that C R equations ux = vy and uy = vx are sufficient
in R where it is supposed that D is partial derivative continuous in R.
__________________
*SLR-C-157* SLR-C – 157
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) Examination, 2017

STATISTICS (Special Paper – VIII) (New CGPA Pattern)
Sampling Techniques
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

ii) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is
allowed.
1. Choose most appropriate alternative : 14
i) Suppose ρ wst= corr.coef. between deviations from stratum means of pairs

of items that are in the same systematic sample. Then systematic sampling
will be better than stratified random sampling if ____________
a) ρ wst < 0 b) ρ wst = 0
c) ρ wst > 0 d) Population consists of linear trend
ii) In presence of linear trend of the form Yi = I for I = 1, 2 , _________ , N ;

which of the following is correct ?
a) V( y sy) > V( y n)SRS b) V( y st) < V( y n)SRS
c) V( y st) > V( y n)SRS d) V( y sy) < V( y st)
iii) In ___________ sampling all the units in the selected groups of sampling
units are used as sample.
a) Stratified b) Systematic c) Cluster d) Multistage
iv) What will you suggest when N ≠ nk in systematic sampling ?

a) Think another method
b) Adopt circular sampling method
c) Eliminate some units so that N= nk
d) Add some units so that N = nk
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 157 -2- *SLR-C-157*
v) In usual notations V( y st)Ney is given by ______________
⎛1 1⎞ 2 1 1
a) ⎜ − ⎟S
⎝n N⎠
b)
n
∑ (PiSi)2 − ∑ PiSi2
N
1 1 1 1
c)
n
∑ PiSi2 − ∑ PiSi2
N
d)
N
∑ (PiSi)2 − ∑ PiSi2
n
vi) The formula for sample size to be taken from each stratum by proportional
allocation is due to ____________
a) Neyman b) Fisher c) Pearson d) Bowley
vii) Non-response errors contribute to _____________ errors.

a) Non-sampling b) Sampling c) Random d) Standard
viii) In stratified random sampling total number of distinct samples may be

_____________
⎛ N⎞ ⎛ Ni ⎞ ⎛N ⎞
a) ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ b) ⎜⎜ n ⎟⎟ c) ∑ ⎜⎜ ni ⎟⎟ d) None of these
⎝n⎠ ⎝ i⎠ ⎝ i ⎠
ix) Aggregate data on auxiliary variable is used in ___________

a) Two-stage sampling b) Ratio method
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) nor b)
x) Stratification is done in such a way that ___________

a) Units in each stratum are homogeneous
b) Stratum variability is maximum
c) Units in each stratum are heterogeneous
d) Stratum means are minimum
xi) Regression method of estimation will be efficient than ratio method if

___________
a) The regression of Y on X is linear and the intercept is zero
b) The regression of Y on X is linear and the intercept is non-zero
c) The regression of Y on X is not linear
d) X and Y are independent
*SLR-C-157* -3- SLR-C – 157
xii) Sampling error can be reduced by ___________

a) Selecting a sample of adequate size
b) Using suitable formula for estimation
c) Choosing proper sampling scheme
d) All of these
xiii) When frame is not available and costly ___________ sampling method can
be effectively used.
a) Cluster b) Two-stage c) SRSWOR d) Systematic
xiv) Sampling frame is a list of sampling units that are ___________

a) Exclusive b) Exhaustive
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) nor b)

a) State any two non-sampling errors.
b) State the situation where stratified random sampling is superior to systematic
sampling.
c) State the expression for V( y st) in case of proportional allocation.
d) State ratio estimator for population mean and population total.
e) State any two characteristics of a good questionnaire.
f) State any two situations where systematic sampling is applicable.
g) State the formula for ni i.e. the number of units to be selected from ith stratum,
in case of Neyman allocation.
h) When do you go for sampling for attributes ?
i) State an unbiased estimator for total number of units in the population
possessing given attribute and its standard error.

i) Describe ratio and regression methods of estimation.
ii) Describe the method of determining the sample size in case of SRSWOR,
so as to meet desired margin of error and confidence coefficient, stating
the assumptions made.
iii) What do you understand by proportional allocation ? Derive the expression
for ni i.e. the number of units to be selected from ith stratum, in case of
proportional allocation.
B) Show that ratio estimator is a biased estimator. Obtain expression for the bias. 4
SLR-C – 157 -4- *SLR-C-157*

A) Derive the expression for V( y sy) in terms of ρ , where ρ = corr. Coeff. Between
pairs of units that are in the same systematic sample. Obtain lower and upper
bounds for ρ so that systematic sampling will be efficient than SRSWOR.
B) Establish the theoretical result which will justify the following statement “In a
given stratum take a large sample if i) the stratum is larger and ii) stratum is
more variable.” Obtain V( y st) using these ni.
C) Show that y lr = y n + bo ( XN − xn ) is unbiased regression estimator for

population mean. Find its variance and under certain condition to be stated
w.r.t. bo find the minimum variance.

A) Describe sampling for proportions and obtain unbiased estimator for population
proportion also find its standard error.
B) Describe cluster sampling. Obtain an unbiased estimator for population mean
and its variance.
C) Write a note on sampling and non-sampling error.
_____________________
*SLRC158* SLR-C 158
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper VIII)
Geomorphology


1) The concept The present is the key to the past is given by
a) Steno b) James Hutton
c) W.M. Davis d) W.D. Thornbury
2) Which of the following causes mass movement ?
a) gp + g + shear strength > gt
b) gp + g + shear strength < gt
c) gp < g + shear strength + gt
d) gp + g + shear strength = gt
3) Choose the incorrect statement about Himalayan rivers.
a) Their tributaries are engaged in headward erosion
b) Pot holes are normal features
c) They are more sinous and develop numerous meanders
d) Long profiles of rivers are characterized by rapids and water falls.
4) No river can erode vertically beyond _________
a) Mean Sea Level b) Local base level
c) Valley floor d) Interfluve
5) The slope can be considered as stable when it has angle _________
a) 20° to 47° b) 35° to 37°
c) 20° to 27° d) 30° to 37°
6) ______ is the only agent responsible for mass movement.
a) Water b) Gravity c) Slope d) Weathering
P.T.O.
SLR-C 158 -2- *SLRC158*
7) Which of the following has indefinite surface of failure ?

a) Flowage b) Subsidence c) Sliding d) All of these
8) Which of the following type is stable at angle more than angle of repose ?
a) Dry sand b) Slightly wet sand
c) Sand saturated with water d) All of these
9) A high land between two streams known as _________
a) Point bars b) Spits c) Subtracts d) Drainage divide
10) In the old stage valley side shows ______ slope.
a) Convex b) Rectilinear
c) Concave d) Level to very gentle
11) Knick point can be indicated by presence of _________
a) Water fall b) Meandering c) Delta d) None of these
12) Elevation measured from mean sea level is _________
a) Relative relief b) Absolute relief
c) Initial relief d) None of these
13) Removal of upper deposition causes exposure of old landscape is known as
________ topography.
a) Exhumed b) Resurrected c) Both d) None of these
14) Alluvial fans and alluvial cones, meanders and loops and natural levees are
characteristics of ________ stage in the fluvial evolution.
a) Youth b) Mature c) Old d) All of the above

i) What is multicyclic landscape ?
ii) What is wanning slope ?
iii) What is peneplain ?
iv) What is rejuvenation ?
v) What is lahar ?
vi) Define mass wasting or mass movement.
vii) What is angle of repose ?
viii) What is soil creep ?
ix) Ox-bow lakes and meandering are characteristics of which stage of
development of river ?
*SLRC158* -3- SLR-C 158

i) Explain in detail types of rapid flowage.
ii) What are characters of mature stage in cycle of erosion ?
iii) Explain dynamic rejuvenation.
B) What is monitoring and control of mass movements ? 4

i) Explain topographic expressions of rejuvenation.
ii) Describe slope elements in detail.
iii) Explain role of water in mass movement.

i) Explain in detail mature stage of river cycle.
ii) Describe quantitative classification of slopes.
iii) Describe effects of joints and bedding planes on mass movement.
_____________
*SLRC159* SLR-C – 159
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY
Industrial Microbiology (Special Paper – VIII)


alternatives. 14
i) _________ is an example of hard cheese.
a) Cheddar b) Brick c) Roquefort d) Cottage
ii) _________ is used as an antifoam agent in fermentation media.
a) HCl b) NaCl c) Octadecanol d) MgSO4
iii) Interferon produced by rDNA technology is an _________ product.
a) Antibacterial b) Antiviral c) Antifungal d) Antimalarial
iv) _________ is waste from dairy industry.
a) Molasses b) CSL c) SWL d) Whey
v) _________ enzyme is used for cheese production.
a) Amylase b) Caseinase c) Lipase d) Renin
vi) _________ is symbiotic nitrogen fixer.
a) Rhizobium b) Azotobacter
c) Nitrobacter d) Nitromonas
vii) Allergy testing of product is carried out on
a) Mice b) Cat c) Rabbit d) Monkey
viii) Bitterness to beer is developed by addition of
a) Hops b) Malt c) Barley d) Adjuncts
ix) Lysine production is carried out by using
a) B. Subtilis b) Proteus
c) Vibrio d) Corynebacterium glutamicum
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 159 -2- *SLRC159*
x) _________ wine does not contains CO2.

a) Still b) Sparkling c) Dry d) Diabetic
xi) Incubation period for streptomycin fermentation is _________ days.
a) 1 – 2 b) 2 – 3 c) 5 – 7 d) 10 – 12
xii) _________ is used for bread production.
a) Algae b) Bacteria c) Yeast d) Protozoa
xiii) Distillation is used for recovery of
a) Alcohol b) Streptomycin
c) L-lysine d) rDNA product
xiv) Barley malt is used for production of
a) Wine b) Streptomycin c) Cheese d) Beer
i) Define crude media.
ii) List organism in Idli fermentation.
iii) Types of cheese.
iv) Define screening media.
v) Types of beer.
vi) List organisms used for L-lysine production.
vii) Define starter culture.
viii) What is centrifugation ?
ix) What is precursor ?
i) Describe the tests for sterility of product.
ii) Spoilage of wine.
iii) Production of insulin by rDNA technology.
B) Describe the bread production. 4
i) Describe various raw material used for designing of fermentation media.
ii) Describe the production of bioinsecticides.
iii) Describe in detail streptomycin production.
i) Describe in detail production of grape wine.
ii) Describe the process of manufacture of cheese.
iii) Describe in detail production and applications of biofertilizers.
———————
*SLRC160* SLR-C 160
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (CGPA Pattern) (New) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper VIII)
Fundamentals of Communication

4) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

1) Two way communication is called
a) Simplex b) Half duplex c) Full duplex d) Complex
2) The noise figure in radio receiver is the ratio of
a) b) S/N
S / N i n p u t
S / N o u t p u t
c) d) N/S
S / N o u t p u t
S / N i n p u t
3) For an ideal AM modulation index ma =

a) 0 b) 1 c) > 1 d) < 1
4) The amplitude of modulating signal is 10 mv and that of carrier is 50 mv. The
percentage modulation will be
a) 0.2 b) 20 c) 5 d) 50
5) Detection is used in
a) Transmitter b) Receiver
c) Both a) and b) d) None
6) The amount of frequency deviation from the center carrier frequency in FM
is proportional to
a) Frequency b) Phase c) Amplitude d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 160 -2- *SLRC160*
7) A half wave dipole of frequency of 100 MHz having length of

a) 100 m b) 3 m c) 1.5 m d) 0.75 m
8) The propagation of radiowaves near the surface of the earth is called
__________ wave.
a) Ground b) Sky c) Space d) Radio
9) The D layer of the ionospher occurs only during
a) Day time b) Night time c) Summer time d) Both a) and b)
10) The FM broadcast band is from
a) 550 to 1650 KHz b) 88 to 108 KHz
c) 16 to 45 MHz d) 88 to 108 MHz
11) The main purpose of interlacing in TV scanning to
a) Reduce flicker b) Brighter the TV picture
c) Sharpen the picture outline d) Increase the channel bandwidth
12) _________ colours are used in colour TV transmitter and receiver.
a) Red, Gray, Black b) Red, Green, Blue
c) Red, Gray, Blue d) Red, Green, Black
13) Incoming call can be directed to any other local telephone of our choice is
called
a) Call queuing b) Call transfer c) Primary call d) Conference call
14) ___________ is not an internal unit of telephone handset.
a) Hybrid b) Ringer
c) Transmitter and Receiver d) Local loop
2. Answer any seven for the following : 14

1) Define noise in communication. What are types of noise ?
2) What is need of modulation ?
3) List four benefits of SSB over DSB in AM.
4) What is line of sight communication ?
5) State the modulation used on video carrier and sound carrier in TV signal.
*SLRC160* -3- SLR-C 160
6) What is meant by skip distance ?

7) Define directive gain and power gain for an antenna.
8) Define viewing distance.
9) What is FDM ?

i) Discuss the different characteristics of radio receiver.
ii) Explain PWM technique used in digital communication.
iii) Explain interlaced scanning used in TV system.
B) Explain the operation of envelop detector using neat circuit diagram. 4

1) Give principle of telephone and explain with suitable block diagram of telephone
set.
2) What are the different types of propagation of radiowave ? Explain propagation
of radiowaves by ionospheric waves.
3) Explain with block diagram the action of FM receiver.

1) Explain concept and block diagram of black and white television transmitter.
2) Explain frequency modulation and derive mathematical expression for FM
wave.
3) Explain in detail Dish antenna used for receiver.

*SLRC161* SLR-C – 161
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (Computer Science) Examination, 2017

CORE JAVA (Special Paper No. – VIII)
(New CGPA Pattern)

1) Which will legally declare, construct and initialize an array ?

a) int[] myList = {“1”, “2”, “3”}
b) int [] myList = (4, 5, 6)
c) int myList [] [] = {8, 9, 10}
d) int myList [] = {2, 5, 1}
2) Which is a valid keyword in Java ?

a) Interface b) String
c) Float d) Unsigned
3) Java source files are compiled and converted to ______________

a) Object code b) Machine code
c) Bytecode d) Executable file
4) Which of the following is a method having same name as that of its class ?
a) Finalize b) Delete
c) Class d) Constructor
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 161 -2- *SLRC161*
5) Which of these is used to access member of class before object of that class
is created ?
a) Public b) Private
c) Static d) Protected
6) The use of final keyword with method definition
a) Supports method overriding
b) Implements dynamic method dispatch
c) Prevents method overriding
d) None of these
7) Which of these keywords is used to refer to member of base class from a sub
class ?
a) Upper b) Super
c) This d) None of the mentioned
8) Which of these keywords must be used to monitor for exceptions ?

a) Try..catch b) Finally
c) Throw d) Throws
9) Classes and methods required for event handling in Java.

a) Java.applet b) Java.awt
c) Java.event d) Java.awt.event
10) The default layout manager of an Applet is

a) Flowlayout b) Gridlayout
c) BorderLayout d) BoxLayout
11) Class increment {

public static void main(String args[]) {
int g = 3 ;
System.out.print(++g* 8);
}}
a) 25 b) 24
c) 32 d) 33
*SLRC161* -3- SLR-C – 161
12) Which of the following is true in the case of abstract class ?

a) Abstract constructors cannot be created
b) Abstract classes cannot be inherited
c) An abstract class contains only abstract methods
d) All of the above
13) Which is the super class of all exception classes ?

a) Exception b) Object
c) Error d) Throwable
14) Which of these interfaces define a method itemStateChanged() ?

a) ComponentListener b) ContainerListener
c) ActionListener d) ItemListener

1) Explain in short any two adapter classes.
2) What is Java compiler ?
3) Structure of Java program.
4) What is throws keyword ?
5) What is Thread Priority ?
6) What is Event ?
7) What is Garbage Collection in Java ?
8) Short explanation of main method in Java.
9) Short explanation of MouseMostionListener.

1) What is Dynamic Dispatch ? Give an example.
2) What is Layout ? Explain different types of layout in awt.
3) Explain uses of final keyword.
B) Write a program to design a frame to perform arithmetic operations (use Tex
Fields, Labels, Button). 4
SLR-C – 161 -4- *SLRC161*
4. Solve any two. 14

1) Write a program to create custom exception in Java.
2) Explain Applet Life Cycle.
3) What is Thread ? Explain thread sychronization.
5. Solve any two. 14

1) Write a program to design a frame to handle mouse related events.
2) Explain the uses of Super keyword with an example.
3) Explain ByteStream classes in Java.
___________________
*SLRC162* SLR-C 162
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS
Classical Mechanics (Special Paper IX)

iii) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
iv) Use of log table and calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct answer from the given alternatives : 14

1) For a rigid body the distance between any two of its constituent particle is
a) Constant b) Infinite c) Unity d) Zero
2) The energy transfer from an oscillator to its coupled partner is periodic and
takes place with the period T =
a) b) c) d)

! "

3) In the rotational motion of a rigid body the directions of the angular velocity
vector and the angular momentum vector are
a) Same b) Different
c) Antiparallel to each other d) At right angle to each other
4) If T and T0 are time of flight of projectile in resistive medium and non resistive
medium respectively then the relation between T and T0 is
a) T = T0 b) T > T0 c) T < T0 d)

6
5) The Lagrangian function L is expressed as L =

a) T + V b) T/V c) T V d) TV
P.T.O.
SLR-C 162 -2- *SLRC162*
6) A rigid body moving freely in space has ________ degrees of freedom.

a) 6 b) 9 c) 3 d) 4
7) When a particle moves through a force free space its ________ energy is
zero.
a) Pressure b) Potential c) Kinetic d) Total
8) The part which deals with the motion of bodies without any reference to the
force or forces causing the motion is called
a) Statics b) Dynamics c) Kinetics d) Kinematics
9) In a cyclon in northern hemisphere the wind whirls in the ________ direction.
a) Clockwise b) Opposite c) Anticlockwise d) Same
10) The maximum horizontal distance covered by a projectile is called the
a) Range of the projectile b) Altitude of the projectile
c) Flight of the projectile d) Trajectory of the projectile
11) A tower at the equator the horizontal displacement of the stone due to earths
rotation will be in _________ direction.
a) South b) North c) West d) East
12) If the amplitude of oscillations remains the same then the motion is called
a) Damped b) Overdamped c) Undamped d) Critically damped
13) The curve for which the surface of revolution is ________ called a catenary.
a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Same d) Extremum
14) The most general displacement of the rigid body is _________ about the
same axis.
a) Translation plus vibration b) Translation plus rotation
c) Vibration plus rotation d) Translation plus axial

1) What are constraints ?
2) What are the difficulties introduced by constraints in the mechanical problems ?
3) State Eulers theorem.
4) State Hamiltons principle.
5) Explain in short motion of rigid body in space.
*SLRC162* -3- SLR-C 162
6) State conservation theorem for energy of a particle.

7) What is pseudo force ? Give one example.
8) A particle of mass m moves under a force F = Cx3 where C is a positive
constant. Find the potential energy function.

1) Derive an expression for total energy of a system of two coupled pendulums.
2) Show that shortest distance between two points in a plane is along a
straight line.
3) Prove the conservation theorem of angular momentum for a system of
particles.
B) What is coriolis force ? 4

1) Derive the Eulers equation of motion of rigid body.
2) Derive an expression for two angular frequencies involved in the coupled
oscillator.
3) Show that the transit time of a particle from higher to lower point under the
influence of gravity is minimum along a cycloid through the two points.
5. Solve any one of the following :

1) a) Obtain Lagranges equation from DAlemberts principle. 10
b) Using Lagranges equation obtain an expression for acceleration in the
Atwoods machine. 4
2) a) Obtain an expression for angular acceleration of a particle in rotating
co-ordinate system. 10
b) Particles of masses 1 kg and 2 kg move under a force such that their
position vectors at time t are r1 = i
and r2 =
4 t k
respectively.
" t i k
Find the angular momentum of the system about the origin at t = 1s. 4
_______________
*SLRC163* SLR-C 163
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper IX)
Organic Chemistry

2) Draw neat labelled diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.
5) Spectroscopic data is supplied.
1. Choose the correct alternative from each of the following : 14

i) For a non-linear molecule the number of fundamental modes of vibrations are
calculated by relation
a) 3N 6 b) 3N 2 c) 3N 5 d) 3N 7
ii) According to Bayers strain theory, deviation in cyclopropane is
a) '

" "

b) "

" "

c)

" "

d) #

$

iii) Nuclei with an odd atomic mass and even or odd atomic number have
a) Zero spin b) Integral spin
c) Half-integral spin d) None of these
iv) In boat conformation of cyclohexane the flag pole hydrogen atoms are
separated by ______________ distance.
a) 1.56 b) 1.83 c) 2.31 d) 1.20

) ) ) )
v) The peak arising due to reactions that occur outside the ionisation chamber
but before the magnetic analyser of the mass spectrometer is known as
a) Isotope peak b) Base peak
c) Molecular ion peak d) Meta stable peak
P.T.O.
SLR-C 163 -2- *SLRC163*
vi) Among the following which base is used to carry out the Stobbe condensation ?
a) NaOH b) Pyridine c) NaH d) KOH
vii) In mass spectrum, the intensity assigned to base peak is
a) 50% b) 70% c) 90% d) 100%
viii) In NMR spectroscopy _______________ radiations are used.
a) Ultra-violet b) Infra-red
c) Radio frequency d) Visible
ix) Number of fundamental modes of vibrations in case of carbon dioxide are
a) 6 b) 3 c) 4 d) 9
x) The reverse reaction of MPV reduction is known as
a) Oppenauer oxidation
b) Claisen condensation
c) Witting reaction
d) Wagner-Meerwein rearrangement
xi) Among the following which is reactive methylene compound ?
a) CH3CH2CH2CH3 b) CH3COCH2COOC2H5
c) CH3CH2CH3 d) H2N CH2 COOH
xii) Hofmann rearrangement is ___________ rearrangement.
a) Intramolecular b) Intermolecular
xiii) ______________ conformer of methylcyclohexane is more stable.
a) Axial methyl cyclohexane
b) Equatorial methylcyclohexane
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
xiv) Organozinc compound is formed as an intermediate in __________ reaction.
a) Reformatsky b) Wittig
c) Stobbe d) Hofmann
*SLRC163* -3- SLR-C 163

i) Explain basic principle of IR spectroscopy.
ii) Explain pressional motion of the nuclei.
iii) State the nitrogen rule. What is its importance in the determination of structure
of molecule ?
iv) Draw boat conformation and label the hydrogen as Ha, He, H f and H b.
v) Complete the reaction and suggest the name.
H C P ( C H )
! $ # !
?
vi) Give the synthesis of ethyl 2, 2 dimethyl malonate.
vii) How will you prepare -amino pyridine from nicotinamide and -alanine from

succinamide ?
viii) Define magnetic and non-magnetic nuclei.
ix) Explain two types of stretching vibration.

i) Sketch the NMR spectrum of ethanol. How would you account for peaks in
pure ethanol ?
ii) What is meant by reactive methylene group ? How will you prepare
butanoic acid from ethylacetoacetate ?
iii) How will you distinguish between following pairs of compounds by IR
spectroscopy ?
a) Methanol and acetic acid.
b) Benzyl alcohol and benzaldehyde.
B) Explain the use of mass spectroscopy in
i) Determination of molecular formula.
ii) Determination of molecular weight. 4
SLR-C 163 -4- *SLRC163*

i) Write a note on applications of IR spectroscopy.
ii) Discuss the relative stabilities of conformations of methylcyclohexone with
suitable diagrams.
iii) Discuss Reformatsky reaction with its mechanism. Give any two applications
of Reformatsky reaction.

i) How will you prepare
a) alanine
b) -methyl crotonic acid
c) barbituric acid from diethyl malonate.
ii) Explain Stobbe condensation with the help of suitable example and mechanism.
Give any two applications of Stobbe condensation.
iii) a) Explain spin-spin coupling.
b) Assign structure to the compound having following spectral data. Name
the compound.
i) Molecular formula C7H8O
ii) IR 3500, 1600, 1500 cm1
iii) PMR 3.7 (singlet 1H), 4.4 (singlet 2H), 7.2 (singlet 5H)
*SLRC163* -5- SLR-C 163
SLR-C 163 -6- *SLRC163*
___________
*SLRC164* SLR-C – 164
Seat
No.

BOTANY – (Special Paper – IX) (CGPA) New
Genetics

ii) Draw neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct alternatives. 14
1) Multiple alleles occupy the same locus within the _____________ chromosome.
a) Homologous b) Heterologous
c) Heterozygous d) Homozygous
2) The dominant gene ‘W’ is stand for wild type of _____________ eye color in
Drosophila.
a) Red b) Blood
c) Perl d) White
3) Antigen ___________ is present in B blood group.

a) A b) B
c) AB d) O
4) ____________ propose that inheritance of A, B, AB, and O blood types of

man in series of multiple three alleles.
a) Bern Stein b) Land Steiner
c) Fisher d) Wiener
5) Self incompatibility is observed in ___________ plant.

a) Zea maize b) Nicotiana tobacum
c) Coffia arabica d) Pisum sativum
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 164 -2- *SLRC164*
6) The chromosomes which are related with determination of sex as a character

are called ______________
a) Sex chromosomes b) Autosomes
c) Polysomes d) Polytene chromosomes
7) ______________ chromosome is found in salivary glands of Drosophila.

a) Giant b) Bended
c) Straight d) Flexible
8) _____________ genes are present on non-homologous pair of ‘Y’ chromosome,

which passed directly from father to son.
a) Hologenic b) Diandric
c) Holandric d) Monadric
9) Colorblindness disease is an example of ______________

a) Jumping genes b) Autosomes
c) Sex linked genes d) None of these
10) The value of sex index (x/a) is in between 0.5-1.0 which gives _____________
a) Male b) Female
c) Inter sex d) Super male
11) The loss of one single chromosome creates a condition called _____________
a) Trisomy b) Nullisomy
c) Monosomy d) Haploid
12) Which of the cytoplasm is responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance ?

a) Egg b) Sperm
c) Pollen d) None of these
13) Polytene chromosome first time observed by _____________

a) Balbiani b) Painter
c) Bridge d) Belling
14) A state or conditions of occurrence of more than two sets of chromosome in

nucleus is called _____________
a) Monoploidy b) Diploidy
c) Polyploidy d) All of these
*SLRC164* -3- SLR-C – 164

1) What are the autosomes ?
2) What is nullisomy ?
3) Define aneuploidy ?
4) What are the multiple alleles ?
5) What is difference between x and y chromosome ?
6) What is the maternal inheritance ?
7) Give the statement of Hardy-Winberg law.
8) What are the holandric genes ?
9) Enlist blood groups in man.

1) Describe the origin of aneuploidy.
2) Describe mitochondrial inheritance.
3) Describe in brief hemophilia in man.
B) Blood groups in man. 4

1) What is the sex determination ? Describe the mechanism of sex determination
in man.
2) What is maternal inheritance ? Explain it in plastids.
3) Describe in brief Hardy-Winberg law in population genetics.

1) What is polyploidy ? Describe in brief types of polyploidy.
2) What is the sex linked inheritance ? Describe in brief colorblindness in man ?
3) Describe in brief multiple allelism in eye color of Drosophila.
___________________
*SLRC165* SLR-C – 165
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY (New) (Special Paper – IX)
Comparative Anatomy of Chordates

3) Draw a neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

1) Oily secretion produced by ________ glands, keeps the skin soft and leathery
in mammals.
a) Scent b) Sweat c) Mucous d) Sebaceous
2) Rhinocoel is present in ____________
a) Olfactory lobe b) Optic lobe
c) Cerebellum d) Medulla Oblongata
3) ____________ is one of the contributory bone of pectoral girdle of vertebrates.
a) Pubis b) Scapula c) Ischium d) Ilium
4) Mesonephros kidney is present in ___________
a) Fish b) Reptiles c) Aves d) Amphibians
5) Three chambered heart is found in _________
a) Fishes b) Amphibians c) Mammals d) Birds
6) Horn of Rhinoceros is formed of modified _________
a) Scales b) Hairs c) Glands d) Muscles
7) ____________ of pigeon secrete pigeon milk.
a) Stomach b) Pancreas c) Crop d) Intestine
8) Gills of __________ have filiform gill lamellae.
a) Cartilage fish b) Bony fishes
c) Ascidian tadpole d) Frog tadpole
9) Gastric juice is secreted by ____________
a) Intestinal gland b) Liver
c) Gastric gland d) Salivary gland
10) Pecten is found in the eyes of ___________
a) Birds b) Fishes c) Mammals d) Amphibians
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 165 *SLRC165*
11) Uropygial glands are present in __________

a) Fishes b) Aves c) Reptiles d) Mammals
12) Corpora quadrigemina are seen in __________
a) Fish b) Frog c) Rat d) Lizard
13) Lungs of pigeon are provided with ___________ airsacs.
a) Two b) Five c) Nine d) Ten
14) Down feather is present in ______________
a) Bony fish b) Rat c) Hen d) Frog

i) Eye of rat
ii) Down feather
iii) Gills of cartilage fishes
iv) Heart of rat
v) Skin of rat
vi) Pelvic girdle of frog
vii) Brain of frog
viii) Mesonephros kidney
ix) Alimentary canal of frog.
i) Give an account on lungs of birds.
ii) Give an account on Internal ear of Dog fish.
iii) Explain soft derivatives in mammals.
B) Describe metanephros kidney. 4

i) Explain evolutionary changes in brain of fishes.
ii) Describe alimentary canal of frog.
iii) Give an account on respiratory organs in amphibia.
i) Describe the evolution of aortic arches in vertebrates.
ii) Describe the evolution of kidney in vertebrates.
iii) Give an account on different types of feathers in birds.
_____________________
*SLRC166* SLR-C 166
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Sem. V) (CGPA) (New) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper IX)
Integral Calculus

1. Choose the most correct alternatives for the following and rewrite the sentence : 14
>
1) is convergent if
@ N
N =
a) p > 1 b) p = 1 c) p
1 d) p < 1

2)
s i n x d x
is _________ integral.

a) Improper integral of first kind b) Improper integral of second kind

c) Improper integral of third kind d) Proper integral
3) If m > 0, n > 0 then the integral is

m 1 n 1
x . ( 1 x ) d x
a) Convergent b) Divergent c) Oscillatory d) None of these

4) is convergent when
x n 1
e . x d x
a) n > 0 b) n = 0 c) n < 0 d) None of these
5)
t a n x d x
is an improper integral of

a) First kind b) Second kind c) Third kind d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 166 -2- *SLRC166*
2 ½
6) Value of
O @ O @ N
is equal to
1 0
a) %
$
b) !
c) %
!
d) &
a c o s
7) The value of
r s i n d d r is
0 0
a) b) c) d)
= = # =
$ $
8) Area lying between the parabola y = 4x x2 and the line y = k is _________

units.
a)
b) !
c) #
d) '
9) For the transformation x + y = u, y = uv the value of dxdy =
a) du dv b) u2 du dv c) du dv d) u du dv

10) The value of

N O @ N @ O
where R is the region in xy-plane bounded by

4
x2 + y2 = 4 and x2 + y2 = 9 is
a) b)
' '
$ !
c) d)
' '
"
11) The value of " !
N N @ N
a)
&
b)
&
c)
! &
d)
&
*SLRC166* -3- SLR-C 166
12) The value of !
& "

# !
13) Value of is
"
" N
" N A @ N
a) #
b) !
c)
d) #
" " " "
14) Value of is
!
" N @ N
a)
b) 2
c) 3
d)
2. Solve any seven from the following : 14
N

1) Evaluate
O @ O @ N
.

2) Evaluate .
a ( 1 c o s )

H @ H @

0 0
3) Evaluate .
@ N @ O

N O

4) Define Beta and Gamma function.
5) Show that ( p , q ) ( q , p )
.
6) Evaluate
c o t d .

7) Define improper integrals of two kinds with suitable examples.

@ N
8) Test the convergence of
!

!
.
N N
9) Evaluate .

@ N
N

SLR-C 166 -4- *SLRC166*
1) Show that the improper integral converges if and only if p > 1.

@ N
N

n 1
2) Show that .
y
( m , n ) d y
m n
( 1 y )
3) Evaluate
O @ N @ O over the area bounded by y = x2 and x + y = 2.
N
#
B) Change the order of integration and evaluate

@ N @ O . 4
N
O
" =
1) Express in polar co-ordinates and evaluate .

N O
@ N @ O

N O
O

" =

2) Evaluate
e
a x
x
m 1
c o s b x d x
and
e
a x
. x
m 1
s i n b x d x
, m > 0.
0 0
3) If f and g are two positive functions with a as point of singularity in [a, b]
such that , where l is nonzero finite number then show that

f ( x )
l i m l
N = g ( x )
>
>

B N @ N
and
C N @ N
behaves alike.
=
1) State and prove Dirichlets test for convergence of improper integral of first
kind.
2) State and prove Duplication formula for Gamma functions.

N O
3) Using the transformation x + y = u, x y = v, evaluate over

N O

A @ N @ O

the region bounded by x = 0, y = 0, x + y = 1.

*SLRC167* SLR-C 167
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester V) Examination, 2017

STATISTICS (Special Paper IX) (New CGPA Pattern)
Probability Distributions and Stochastic Process

ii) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is
allowed.
1. Choose most appropriate alternative. 14
i) If X is Cauchy (10, 20) then Q3 =

ii) For Cauchy distribution coefficient of skewness
a) is positive b) is negative
c) is equal to 0 d) does not exists
iii) If a r.v. X is truncated below 5 then P

X < 5

=
a) 2P(X < 5) b) P(X > 5) c) 1 d) 0
iv) Mean of truncated binomial distribution truncated at X = 0 is
a) b) c) d) np
n p n p n p
n n
q q 1 q
v) For Laplace distribution

a)

= 0 , = 6 b)

= 0 , = 3
c)

> 0 , > 6 d)

< 0 , = 3
vi) If X Laplace with p.d.f.

N
!
f ( x ) = e 0 , , x ; t h e n E ( X ) i s

a) 2 +
b) 2 +
c)
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 167 -2- *SLRC167*
vii) A stochastic matrix is

a) a square matrix with no negative elements
b) column sums add up to 1
c) diagonal elements always add up to 1
d) none of these
viii) If P denotes one step T.P.M. then 4 step T.P.M. is given by

a) 4P b) (P2)3 c) P4 d) P 4
ix) In stochastic process the state space may be

a) discrete b) continuous c) a and b d) a or b
x) Let (X, Y) is BN and suppose and V = Y then the marginal

X
U =
( 0 , 0 , , ,
distribution of V is
a) Cauchy b) Normal c) Lognormal d) Laplace
xi) Let (X, Y) is BN (1, 2, 3, 4, 0) then P (3 < x < 8 | Y > 5) =

a) P[(3 < x < 8)
(Y > 5)]/P(3 < x < 8)
b) P(3 < x < 8)
c) P[(3 < x < 8)
(Y > 5)]
d) P[(3 < x < 8)
(Y > 5)]
xii) Let (X, Y) is BN (3, 2, 4, 9, 0.5) then Cov (X, Y) =

xiii) Let X is LN (0, 1) r.v. then V (logX + k) =

a) e(e 1) b) e(e + 1) c) e d) 1
xiv) If X is LN
then P(X = Q2) is =
a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) e1
*SLRC167* -3- SLR-C 167

a) State the relationship between Cauchy and student t distribution.
b) Define absorbing state.
c) State Chapman Kolmogrov equation.
d) Obtain the p.d.f. of truncated exponential (1) r.v., truncated below .
e) If X is C

write expressions for quartile deviation.
f) Draw a probability curve for C

distribution.
g) If X is L

find

when r is odd.
h) Let (X, Y) is BN (2, 4, 6, 8, 0.8) then write the expressions for E[X2] and
E[XY].
i) Let (X, Y) is BN (

, ,

, ,
then write the distribution of aX + by + c.

i) Write down the one step TPM for the following Markov chain :
Following are the dietary habits of a creature who eats only grapes, cheese
or lettuce with following rules
It eats exactly once a day
If it ate cheese today, tomorrow it will eat lettuce or grapes with equal
probability
If it ate grapes today, tomorrow it eats grapes with probability 0.1 and
cheese with probability 0.6
If it ate lettuce today, tomorrow it will eat grapes with probability 0.4
and cheese with probability 0.6
ii) Let X is LN then find the distribution of .

iii) Define L

distribution and find its mean.
B) Find the p.d.f. of truncated normal distribution, truncated below a and find its
mean. 4
SLR-C 167 -4- *SLRC167*

A) If X is C(0, 1) r.v. then find the distribution of X2.
B) Suppose the probability that a dry day (state 0) following a rainy day (state 1)
is 1/3 and that the probability of rainy day following a dry day is 0.5. Find the
probability that June 29 is a rainy day given that June 27 was a dry day.
C) Let (X, Y) is BN (

, ,

, , then find its mgf.
A) If X is L show that KX + C is L .

K ,

B) State and prove relationship between Cauchy and uniform distribution.

C) Let X is LN
then find its CDF and hence median.

*SLRC168* SLR-C 168
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper IX)
Environmental Geology


1) Increased temperature of spring water is indicator of ______ hazard.
a) Volcano b) Cyclone c) Landslide d) Flood
2) Slides are more likely where rock layers dip _______
a) Parallel to slope b) Into the slope
c) Steeply d) Gently
3) The main effect of human activities that produces sinkhole collapse is ______
a) Vibrations from highways b) Increasing runoff by paving
c) Lowering the water table d) Removing vegetation
4) Low porosity and permeability of sediments covered with vegetation on slope
promotes ______
a) Stability to mass b) Transpiration
c) Sure slide d) Subsidence
5) Which of the following methods can reduce subsidence associated with
underground mining ?
a) Make sure that at least 10 m of hard rock overlies the mine
b) Make rooms wider to reduce amount of vibration associated with digging
c) Use grout columns
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C 168 -2- *SLRC168*
6) Which of the following means of stabilizing slopes does so by reducing the

shear stress ?
a) Draining the subsurface b) Installing piles
c) Reducing the slope angle d) Increasing slope angle
7) The most destructive landslides generally occur on _________
a) Gentle slopes b) Intermediate slopes
c) Steep slopes d) Leveled ground
8) Gabian structure reduces hazard of ___________
a) Cyclone b) Tsunami c) Landslide d) Volcano
9) Fire is common hazard in _________ mining.
a) Gold b) Iron c) Coal d) Asbestos
10) Disposal of __________ is main problem in open cast mining.
a) Ore b) Dump c) Mineral d) Heavy machinery
11) The solid material falls down under influence of gravity in ________ hazard.
a) Volcano b) Landslide c) Tsunami d) Flood
12) Sinkhole collapse in karst areas commonly occurs because of _________
a) Collapse of cavern roofs
b) Collapse of supporting materials over a cavity
c) Rapid solution of limestone near the surface
d) Temperature
13) Deafness is caused due to _______ in mines.
a) Ground water b) Fire c) Roof collapse d) Blasting
14) Artillery firing activity in Military range present in mountainous regions may
trigger _______
a) Remote sensing cameras b) Platforms
c) Objects d) Sensors

1) Role of Mangroves in hazard prevention.
2) Explain Fluorosis.
3) Explain Bolting.
4) Explain Asbestosis.
*SLRC168* -3- SLR-C 168
5) Explain Retention Wall.

6) Hazards of gaseous products of volcano.
7) Explain Hazard.
8) What is mitigation ?
9) What is preparedness ?

1) Water contamination due to mining activity.
2) Hazard due to heavy machinery in mining activity.
3) Hazard due to blasting in mining activity.
B) Hazardous effects of Tsunami and Cyclone. 4

1) Effects of sea level changes.
2) Causes of subsidence.
3) Natural causes of sea level changes.

1) Role of vegetation in flood and landslide hazards.
2) Hazard of fire in coal mining.
3) Precautions of volcanic hazard.
_______________
*SLRC169* SLR-C 169
S e a t
N o .

MICROBIOLOGY
Special Paper IX : Agricultural Microbiology

2) Figures to the right indicate marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer from given

alternatives. 14
i) Podzol soil is the type of soil from area where rainfall is ___________
a) Abundant b) Limited
c) Average d) Nil
ii) ____________ group of organisms dominate in soil.
a) Fungi b) Bacteria
c) Algae d) Actinomycetes
iii) ___________ is the most abundant compound of plant cell wall.
a) Hemicellulose b) Lignin
c) Cellulose d) Pectin
iv) Phenol oxidase enzymes are involved in the oxidation of __________
a) Cellulose b) Pesticides
c) Hydrocarbons d) Lignin
v) In vermicomposting on an average __________ number of adult earthworms
are necessary.
a) 2000 b) 1000 c) 20000 d) 20
vi) Nitrites are oxidized to nitrate by ___________
a) Nitrosomonas b) Nitrobacter
c) Nitrosococcus d) Azotobacter
vii) In soil the dominant nitrifying bacteria are __________
a) Rhizobium b) Azotobacter
c) Nitrosomonas d) Nitrosospira
P.T.O.
SLR-C 169 -2- *SLRC169*
viii) The percentage of CO2 in the atmosphere is ___________

a) 21% b) 0.2% c) 5% d) 0.03%
ix) Oilyspots on pomegranate are caused by member of ____________
a) Bacillus b) Xanthomonas
c) Erwinia d) Pseudomonas
x) ____________ is the symbiotic N2 fixer.
a) Azotobacter b) Penicillium
c) Frankia d) Bacillus
xi) In Farm Yard Manure the proportion of cattle dung and urine is ____________
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 1 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 2
xii) Bordeux mixture contain ____________, lime and water.
a) Silver nitrate b) Copper sulphate
c) Calcium carbonate d) Magnesium sulphate
xiii) Melting of ice caps is due to _____________
a) Depletion of ozone
b) Green house effect
c) Acid rain
d) Eutrophication
xiv) The importance of ecosystem lies in ____________
a) Flow of energy
b) O2 production
c) CO2 production
d) Bacterial degradation

i) What is nitrification ?
ii) Common symptoms of soft rot of potato.
iii) List pesticide degrading microorganisms.
iv) Define plant pathology.
v) What is composition of farm yard manure ?
vi) What is canker ?
vii) What are the sources of sulphur in atmosphere ?
viii) Give significance of vermicompost.
ix) Give reaction of cellulose degradation.
*SLRC169* -3- SLR-C 169

i) Explain use of Bordeaux mixture for control of plant diseases.
ii) Explain biological nitrogen fixation.
iii) Explain structure and properties of soil.
B) Write a note on modes of transmission of plant diseases. 4

i) Write an essay on carbon cycle.
ii) Write an essay on town compost.
iii) Write an essay on role of soil microrganisms.

i) Write an essay of green manure.
ii) Write in brief soil as an ecosystem.
iii) Discuss in detail causative agent, symptoms and control of oily spots of
pomegranate.
_____________________
*SLRC170* SLR-C 170
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS (New CGPA Pattern)
Fundamentals of Microcontroller (Special Paper IX)


i) __________ version of
C 8051 family has no internal ROM.
a) /8751 b) 8052 c) 8031 d) 8951
ii) Which of the following port is not having dual functions ?
a) Port 0 b) Port 1 c) Port 2 d) Port 3
iii) __________ instruction can be used to SET the bit P1.2.
a) CLR P1.2 b) SETB 92H c) SETB 82H d) SETB 90H
iv) In 8051 microcontroller, by default __________ bank is selected.
a) Bank 0 b) Bank 1 c) Bank 2 d) Bank 3
v) To generate the square wave __________ instruction must be executed
continuously.
a) SETB bit, CLR bit b) SETB bit
c) CLR bit d) None of these
vi) The microcontroller 8051 has __________ timers.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
vii) The number of programmable bits available in bit addressable RAM are
__________
a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 128
viii) Which of the following is not timer SFR ?
a) TCON b) TMOD c) TH0 d) DPTR
P.T.O.
SLR-C 170 -2- *SLRC170*
ix) In the instruction MUL AB, after execution, the high order and low order
bytes are present in
a) PSW and PCON b) Stack memory
c) A and B registers d) Registers R0 and R1
x) __________ instruction in C 8051 represents unconditional absolute jump.

a) SJMP b) DJNZ c) AJMP d) CJNE

xi) __________ is the pin used for serial data transmission.
a) RxD b) TxD c) INT0 d) INT1
xii)
C 8051 supports __________ mode of serial communication.
a) Simplex b) Half Duplex c) Full Duplex d) None of these
xiii) The number of address lines required to interface C 8051 to EPROM 2764

is __________
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13
xiv) The instruction used to access the data from external data memory ROM
like 6264, is __________
a) MOV b) MOVX c) MOVC d) all of these

i) Enlist different addressing modes.
ii) Draw any four symbols for flow chart.
iii) Enlist any four SFR.
iv) Write different instructions for Addition.
v) Why PORT-0 needs external pull-up ?
vi) Write instructions to copy data from bank register R1 to internal RAM
address 35 H.
vii) How P S E N
signal is used in memory interfacing ?
viii) At which internal RAM address result of following instructions will be obtained
a) SETB 07
b) CLR 17
ix) Give the role of ALE.
*SLRC170* -3- SLR-C 170

i) Draw the block diagram of
C 8051.
ii) Draw CLOCK circuit for
C 8051 and explain.
iii) Explain the role of SCON register in serial communication.
B) Write an Assembly Language Program to generate square wave at port

pin P1.0. 4

i) Draw the pin distribution diagram of
C 8051.
ii) Write an Assembly Language Program to transfer ten bytes of data from one
memory block to another memory block.
iii) With neat diagram explain the interfacing of EPROM 2764 to
C 8051.

i) Discuss Data transfer group of instructions with suitable example.
ii) What are different types of jump instructions ? Explain the relative address
system for jump instructions with suitable example.
iii) Write the Assembly Language Program to execute AND, OR, EX-OR operation
on data stored in memory 20 H and 21 H. The answers will be in 22 H, 23 H
and 24 H internal RAM.
_____________________

*SLRC171* SLR-C 171

Seat
No.

(New CGPA Pattern)
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Operating System I (Special Paper No. IX)

1. Choose and write correct answer from given four alternatives. 14

1) In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is
completed, the process goes from the running state to the
a) Blocked state b) Ready state
c) Suspended state d) Terminated state
2) The process that are residing in the main memory and are waiting to execute
are kept on a list called
a) job queue b) ready queue c) wait queue d) device queue
3) In memory management, a technique called as paging, the physical memory
is broken into fixed sized blocks called
a) pages b) frames c) blocks d) segments
4) Virtual memory is
a) An extremely large main memory
b) An extremely large secondary memory
c) An illusion of extremely large main memory
d) A type of memory used in supercomputers
5) The mechanism that bring a page into memory only when it is needed is
called
a) Segmentation b) Fragmentation
c) Demand paging d) Page Replacement
P.T.O.
SLR-C 171 -2- *SLRC171*
6) In a multi-programming environment
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time
7) Which of the following is an example of spooled device ?
a) The terminal used to enter the input data for a program being executed
b) The secondary memory device in a virtual memory system
c) A line printer used to print the output of a number of jobs
d) None of these
8) When a process terminates
i) It is removed from all queues
ii) It is removed from all, but the job queue
iii) Its process control block is deallocated
iv) Its process control block is never deallocated
a) Both i and iii b) Both i and ii c) Only iv d) Only ii
9) Safe state is
a) deadlock state b) non-deadlocked state
c) polling state d) spooling state
10) Semaphore can be used for solving
a) wait and signal b) deadlock
c) synchronization d) priority
11) To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the
a) system calls b) API
c) library d) assembly instructions
12) Which scheduler controls the degree of multiprogramming ?
a) Short term scheduler b) Long term schedular
c) Middle term scheduler d) Pre term schedular
*SLRC171* -3- SLR-C 171
13) As OS program module that selects the next job to be admitted for execution
is called as
a) scheduler b) compiler c) throughput d) dispatcher
14) The code that changes the value of the semaphore is
a) remainder section code b) non critical section code
c) critical section code d) none of these
2. Solve any seven of the following. 14

1) What do you mean by best fit and first fit ?
2) Define mutual exclusion and circular wait.
3) What is process control block ?
4) What is Compaction ?
5) What is resource allocation graph ?
6) What are threads ? Its types.
7) What is Operating System ?
8) What is TLB and Hit-Ratio ?
9) What is meant by External Fragmentation and Internal Fragmentation ?

1) Explain distributed and multiprocessor operating system.
2) Explain process scheduling concept.
3) Explain cooperating process with message passing and shared memory.
B) Consider the following page reference string. 4

1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 2, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6. How many page fault would occur for the
following page replacements algorithms, assuming an allocation of 3 frames ?
By using FIFO.

1) Explain different services provided by operating system.
2) Discuss various deadlock detection and recovery techniques in brief.
3) Explain demand paging.
SLR-C 171 -4- *SLRC171*

1) Explain the basic concepts of segmentation.
2) Discuss classical problem of synchronization for Reader Writer problem.
3) Consider the following example
P r o c e s s E x e c u t i o n t i m e
2 '
2 %
2 ! #
To solve by using FCFS scheduling Algorithm

a) Draw Gantt Chart
b) To calculate average waiting time
c) To calculate average turnaround time.
_______________
*SLR-C-172* SLR-C – 172
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – X) (CGPA Pattern) (New)
Nuclear Physics

iii) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
iv) Use of log table or calculator is allowed.

1) Betatron works on principle of ______________
a) ionization b) transformer
c) induction coil d) condensation
2) In cyclotron resonance condition breaks due to relativistic ______________
a) increase in velocity b) increase in mass
c) decrease in mass d) decrease in velocity
3) The GM counter works on the principle of ______________
a) ionization b) light sensing
c) photoelectric effect d) bubble formation
4) The element having same mass number but different atomic number are
called ______________
a) isotopes b) isobars c) isomers d) isotropic
5) The energy equivalent to 1 amu = ______________
a) 931 MeV b) 831 MeV c) 921 MeV d) 731 MeV
6) The liquid used in bubble chamber must be ______________
a) non-conducting b) highly conducting
c) semi-conducting d) super conducting
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 172 -2- *SLR-C-172*
7) Neutrino hypothesis was postulated by ______________

a) Einstein b) Rutherford
c) Pauli d) J. J. Thompson
8) Hydrons means ______________
a) heavy b) bulky
c) light in weight d) zero in weight
9) In endothermic reaction Q value is ______________
a) negative b) positive c) zero d) infinite
10) Photons obey ______________
a) BE statistics b) MB statistics
c) FD statistics d) FE statistics
11) The particles having ______________ spin quantum number are called
fermions.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 1/2
12) Negative packing fraction indicates ______________
a) greater stability b) less stability
c) total stability d) nothing about stability
13) The bombarding particle in nuclear reaction is called ______________
a) target b) projectile c) product d) striker
14) Nucleus of an atom consists of ______________
a) protons and electrons
b) protons, electrons and neutrons
c) neutrons and electrons
d) protons and neutrons

1) Draw neat diagram of synchrocyclotron.
2) Define : Packing fraction.
3) State principle of scintillation.
4) Define : Mass defect.
*SLR-C-172* -3- SLR-C – 172
5) What is stripping reaction ?

6) Explain continuous β -ray spectrum.
7) What are types of interactions ?
8) What is pick up reaction ?

1) Explain α -ray spectra.
2) Explain binding energy curve.
3) Obtain equation for threshold energy of nuclear reaction.
B) Calculate Q-value of the following reaction and indicate type of reaction. 4
4
+ 7N14 ⎯⎯→ 8O17 + 1H1
2He
Given : mass of 2He4 = 4.0038727 a.m.u.
Mass of 7N14 = 14.003074 a.m.u.
Mass of 8O17 = 16.999133 a.m.u.
Mass of 1H1 = 1.007825 a.m.u.

a) Explain classification of elementary particles.
b) Explain liquid drop model of nucleus.
c) What is β -decay ? Explain the experimental study of β -decay.
5. A) Explain construction and working of GM counter. Explain Geiger Plateau,

dead time and recovery time. 10
B) Explain principle of phase stable orbit. 4
OR
5. A) Describe construction and working of cyclotron. Obtain equation of velocity

of ion in cyclotron. 10
B) Write note on cross section of nuclear reaction. 4
_____________________
*SLRC173* -1- SLR-C – 173
SLR-C – 173
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper – X)
Analytical and Industrial Physical Chemistry

1. Choose the most correct alternative of the following and rewrite the sentences. 14
1) If ultraviolet light is used then vessels and other optical parts of the colorimeter
are made up of ____________
a) plastic b) glass c) ebonite d) quartz
2) In potentiometric titration, the potential of the electrode changes due to change
in ____________
a) ionic concentration b) pressure
c) temperature d) volume
3) The conductivity water is obtained by redistillation of distilled water with
alkaline ____________
a) NaOH b) KOH c) KMnO4 d) HCl
4) In the equation, λ = hc /E2 – E1, where h is known as ____________
a) Gas constant b) Planck’s constant
c) Boltzmann constant d) Rydberg’s constant
5) Generally _________ of the metal to be deposited is used during electroplating.
a) Insoluble cathode b) Soluble anode
c) Soluble cathode d) Insoluble anode
6) In a calorimeter, the reciprocal of thickness ‘x’ required to reduce the light to
1/10th of its intensity is known as ____________
a) Extinction coefficient
b) Specific extinction coefficient
c) Molecular extinction coefficient
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 173 -2- *SLRC173*
7) In aqueous solution, quinhydrone breaks into equimolecular quantities of ________

a) quinone and hydroquinone
b) quinone and quinhydrone
c) quinone and acetone
d) quinone and hydrocarbon
8) For measurement of conductance, an alternating current source having audio
frequency range ____________ cycles per second is used.
a) 20 – 50 b) 200 – 500
c) 500 – 2000 d) 2000 – 5000
9) In a flame photometry, the measurement of concentration of metals relatively
____________ intensity of radiation is obtained from the metal atoms.
a) Low b) High
c) Zero d) None of these
10) The process of removal of oxide or dust on the article by the action of mineral
acids like HCl, H2SO4 and HNO3 is known as ____________
a) electrolysis b) electrophoresis
c) anodising d) pickling
11) The weights of the substances deposited are depends on the ____________
efficiencies.
a) cathode b) anode
c) cathode and anode d) None of these
12) Optical density at unit path length and unit concentration is known as _______
a) Specific extinction coefficient b) Absorbency index
c) Absorptivity d) All of these
13) The glass electrode is made up of a special glass of relativity low melting
point and ____________
a) Low electrical conductivity
b) High electrical conductivity
c) Low ionic conductivity
d) None of these
14) The molecular conductance ( μ ) of the solution is given by μ = ____________
a) 1000 × M/k b) 1000 × k/M
c) 100 × k/M d) 100 × M/k
*SLRC173* -3- SLR-C – 173

1) Define Beer’s law.
2) Give the advantages of glass electrode.
3) Represent the nature of graph for determination of end points by first derivative
method.
4) Draw basic circuit of direct reading potentiometer.
5) Why alternating current is used in conductometric measurements ?
6) Give the principle of conductometric titration.
7) What do you mean by anode efficiency ?
8) What are the difficulties arises in qualitative analysis of flame photometry ?
9) Give the advantages of Lundergraph burner.

1) Causes of deviations from Beer’s law.
2) Potentiometric acid-base titrations.
3) Laminar flow burner.
B) Solve the following : 4

Cleaning of articles in electroplating.

1) Discuss in detail barrier layer photocell.
2) Sketch and explain the different types of conductivity cells.
3) Discuss the general principle of flame photometry.

1) Describe construction and working of quinhydrone electrode.
2) Give different types of conductometric titrations. Discuss conductometric
titration between HCl and NaOH.
3) Describe bright nickel plating. Give its applications.
_____________________
*SLRC174* SLR-C – 174
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Special Paper – X) (CGPA) (New)
Plant Biochemistry

alternatives. 14
1) The epimers of Ribulose is ___________

a) Xylulose b) Erythrose c) Glucose d) Fructose
2) Cellulose is made up of molecules of ___________

a) α -glucose b) β -glucose c) Both a and b d) None of these
3) Lactose is an example of _____________

a) Disaccharides b) Monosaccharides
c) Polysaccharides d) All of above
4) Starch is made up of ______________

a) Amylose b) Amylopectine c) Both a and b d) None of these
5) _______________ is the unsaturated fatty acid.

a) Palmetic acid b) Stearic acid
c) Linoleic acid d) All of these
6) ______________ is an compound lipid.

a) Fatty acid b) Oil c) Wax d) Phospholipid
7) The synthesis of glucose from fat is called as ________________

a) Gluconeogenesis b) Kreb cycle
c) Saponification d) Glycolysis
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 174 -2- *SLRC174*
8) Triacyl glycerols are ______________ in water.
a) Soluble b) Insoluble
c) Partially soluble d) Both a and b
9) Amino acids are joined by ______________ Bonds.

a) Hydrogen b) Ionic
c) Glycosidic d) Peptide
10) The conversion of Acetyl CoA to Melonyle CoA require enzyme _____________
a) Biotene b) ADP
c) NADPH d) H2O
11) α -Helix is stabilized by __________ bond.

a) Hydrogen b) Disulphide
c) Salt d) Non-Polar
12) The ______________ codon is responsible for protein synthesis.

a) ACU b) AUG
c) ATG d) UGA
13) The binding of mRNA to 40s ribosomal subunit requires the presence of
__________________
a) IF3 b) IF5
c) IF6 d) IF7
14) The general formula of polysaccharides _________________

a) (C6H12O6)n b) (C6H10O5)n
c) (C6H12O4)n d) (C6H10O6)n

i) Any four properties of unsaturated fatty acids.
ii) Role of mRNA in protein synthesis.
iii) Define monosaccharide.
iv) What is β -oxidation.
v) Define epimers with example.
vi) General structure of amino acids.
*SLRC174* -3- SLR-C – 174
vii) Define saturated fatty acids.

viii) Any four chemical properties of polysaccharide.
ix) Secondary structure of protein.

i) Explain essential amino acids with example.
ii) Explain properties of saturated fatty acid.
iii) Describe Maltose and their properties.
B) Describe tertiary structure of protein. 4

i) Describe the biosynthesis of sucrose.
ii) Explain the protein synthesis in prokaryotes.
iii) Write a note on gluconeogenesis.

i) What is lipids ? Describe classification of lipid with example.
ii) Explain the degradation of starch.
iii) Brief outline of protein synthesis in eukaryotes.
––––––––––––––––––––
*SLRC175* SLR-C 175
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester V) (CGPA) (New) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper X)
Developmental Biology

1. Select appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentences. 14
1) The process of formation of sperm is called as
a) Oogenesis b) Spermatogenesis
c) Ovulation d) Fertilization
2) The egg of chick is
a) A lecithal b) Homolecithal c) Macrolecithal d) Isolecithal
3) After fertilization the vitelline membrane of egg is converted into ___________
membrane.
a) Basement b) Plasma
c) Extra embryonic d) Fertilization
4) The egg shell of chick embryo is made up of
a) Calcium carbonate b) Glycoprotein
c) Protein d) Carbohydrate
5) The embryo of about 72 hrs, incubation shows presence of ___________
pairs of somites.
a) 12 b) 36 c) 20 d) 15
6) Determinate type of cleavage is also called as ___________ cleavage.
a) Irregular b) Regular c) Mosaic d) Superficial
7) Major nutritive foetal membrane in chick embryo is
a) Amnion b) Chorion c) Allantois d) Yolk sac
P.T.O.
SLR-C 175 -2- *SLRC175*
8) Chalazae in hens egg are useful

a) To keep the ovum in centre
b) For development of ectoderm
c) For development of mesoderm
d) For development of endoderm
9) The smallest spermatozoan is found in
a) Human b) Amphioxus c) Chick d) Frog
10) Placenta is found in
a) Birds b) Fishes c) Mammals d) Aves
11) In Amphioxus, neurogenesis is the process of formation of
a) Coelom b) Notochord c) Gut d) Nerve cord
12) ___________ of chick embryo is called primitive knot.
a) Hensens node b) Cephalic fold c) Neural arch d) Somite
13) Somites of chick embryo develop into
a) Lungs b) Endoskeleton c) Gut d) Kidney
14) Acrosome of sperm is responsible for ___________ during fertilization.
a) Maturation of sperm b) Migration of sperm
c) Piercing vitelline membrane d) Carry the haploid nucleus

1) Fertilization membrane.
2) Primitive streak.
3) Somites in chick.
4) Structure of sperm.
5) Grey crescent.
6) Cleidoic egg.
7) Blastula of Amphioxus.
8) Centrolecithal egg.
9) Internal fertilization.
*SLRC175* -3- SLR-C 175

1) Structure of Hens egg.
2) Fertilizin and antifertilizin reaction.
3) Gut formation in amphioxus.
B) Describe significance of foetal membranes. 4

1) Describe heart formation in chick embryo.
2) What is placenta, describe any one type of placenta.
3) Describe different types of cleavages.

1) Describe the chick embryo of 48 hrs. of incubation.
2) Give an account of oogenesis.
3) Describe development of amphioxus upto 3 germinal layers.
___________
*SLRC176* SLR-C – 176
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New-CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – X)
Partial Differential Equations
Instruction : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Choose correct alternative for each of the following : 14

1) The solution of Lagrange’s auxiliary equation xp + yq = z is __________
a) φ ( x / y , x / z ) = 0 b) φ ( xy , xz ) = 0
c) φ ( y x , x z ) = 0 d) None of these
2) In a first order partial differential equation f(x, y, z, p, q) = 0 is linear in

p and q then the equation is known as _________
a) linear equation b) semilinear equation
c) quasi-linear equation d) non linear equation
3) The first order partial differential equation p = P(X, Y), q = Q(X, Y) are
compatible if and only if __________
∂P ∂Q ∂P ∂Q ∂P ∂Q
a) = b) = c) =− d) None of these
∂Y ∂Y ∂Y ∂X ∂Y ∂X
4) The partial differential equation obtained by eliminating the arbitrary function

from φ from z = φ (x – y) is _________
a) p + q = 0 b) pq = 1 c) pq = 0 d) p = q
5) If number of arbitrary constant are less than the number of independent
variables then by eliminating arbitrary constant we get ___________
a) More than one partial differential equation of order one
b) Unique partial differential equation of order one
c) Partial differential equation of order greater than one
d) None of these P.T.O.
SLR-C – 176 -2- *SLRC176*
6) The partial differential equation (2x + 3y) p + 4xq – 8pq = x + y is ___________

a) linear b) non-linear c) quasilinear d) semilinear
7) The complete integral of f(p, q) = 0 is ___________

a) z = ax – φ (a) y + c b) z = ax + φ (a) y + cx2
c) z = ax + φ (a) y + c d) z = ax + φ (a) + c
8) The complete integral of p2 + q2 = m2 is ________________

1 1
a) z = ax + y (m2 – a2) 2 + c b) z = ax – y (m2 – a2) 2 + c
1 1
c) z = ax + y (m2 + a2) 2 + c d) z = ax + (m2 – a2) 2 + c
1
9) The particular integral of f(x, y) = ___________
D − mD′
a) ∫ f( x, c + mx) dx b) ∫ f( y, c − mx) dx
c) ∫ f( x, c − mx) dx d) ∫ f( y, c + m y ) d y
10) Auxiliary equation of r – 2s + t = sin (2x + 3y) is ___________
a) m2 – 2m + 1 = sin (2x + 3y)
b) m2 + 2m + 1 = sin (2x + 3y)
c) (m – 1)2 = 0
d) (m +1)2 = 0
11) The general solution of 4r – 4s + t = 0 is _____________
a) z = φ 1 (2y + x) + x φ 2 (2y + x)
b) z = φ 1 (y + 2x) + φ 2 (y + 2x)
c) z = φ 1 (2y – x) + x φ 2 (2y + x)
d) None of these
*SLRC176* -3- SLR-C – 176
1
12) The P.I. of 2 2 12 xy is _________
D + D′
a) (x + y)4 b) (x + y)3 c) (x – y)3 d) (x + y)2
13) The general solution of (D – D′ ) z = 0 is ___________
2 x + Ky 2 x − Ky 2x + y
a) Σ A e K b) Σ A e K c) Σ e K d) None of these
14) The particular integral of (D2 – D′ 2 + D − D′ ) z = e2x + 3y is __________
1 2x + 3y 1 2x + 3y 1 2x + 3y
a) e b) e2x + 3y c) – e d) e
6 6 16

1) Form partial differential equation by eliminating arbitrary constant a, b from
2 2
x y
the relation 2z = 2
+ 2 .
a b
2) Prove that the complete integral of the equation

1
(px + qy – z)2 = 1 + p2 + q 2 is ax + by + cz = (a2 + b 2 + c 2) 2 .
3) Find a complete integral of p2 – 3x2 = 92 – y.
x
4) Show that p = 1 + ex/y , q = 1 + ex/y (1 – ) are compatible.
y
5) Solve p tan x + q tan y = tan z.
6) Solve (D2 + 3D D′ + 2 D ′2 ) z = 0
7) Solve (D2 – D D′ + D′ – 1) z = 0
8) Solve (D2 – D′ 2 + D – D′ ) z = ex + 3y
9) Solve r + t + 2s = 0.
SLR-C – 176 -4- *SLRC176*
1) Form a partial differential equation by eliminating the arbitrary function φ

from φ (x + y+ z, x2 + y2 – z2) = 0.
2) Solve (D3 – 4D2 D′ + 4D D′ 2 ) z = cos (2x + y).
3) Find complete and singular integral from z = px + qy + c 1 + p 2 + q2 .
B) Explain the method of solving the equation of the form f(p, q, z) = 0. 4

1) Find the integral surface of the linear partial differential equation
x (y2 + z) p – y (x2 + z) q = (x2 – y2) z
which contains the straight line x + y = 0, z = 1.
2) Solve (D2 + D D′ + D′ – 1) z = sin (x + 2y).

3) For homogenous linear partial differential equation with constant coefficient.
n
1 X
Then prove that n
φ(ax + by) = n
φ(ax + by) .
(bD − a D′) b n!

1) Explain Charpit’s method of solving partial differential equation
∂z ∂z
f(x, y, z, p, q) = 0 where p and q are independent variables and p = ,q=
∂x ∂y
and hence solve q = 3p2.
2) Explain the Lagrange’s method of solving Pp + Qq = R when P, Q and R are
functions of X, Y, Z and hence solve p + 3q = z + cot (y – 3x).
3) Solve (D2 – 3D D′ + 2 D ′2 ) z = e2x – y + ex + y + cos (x + 2y).
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRC177* SLR-C 177
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester V) (New) (CGPA Pattern)Examination, 2017

STATISTICS (Special Paper X)
Operations Research and Applied Statistics

ii) Use of simple or scientific calculator is allowed.
iv) Graph papers will be supplied if required.
1. Select most correct alternative : 14

i) In a LPP having the objective function in minimization, optimal solution yields the
a) mean value of z b) highest value of z
c) lowest value of z d) mid value of z
ii) In graphical solution the feasible region is where
a) only the first constraint is satisfied
b) any one constraint is satisfied
c) all the constraints are satisfied simultaneously
d) all of these
iii) Which of the following is not associated with any LPP ?
a) feasible solution b) optimum solution
c) basic solution d) quadratic equation
iv) In graphical solution the feasible solution is any solution to a LPP which
satisfies
a) only objective function
b) non-negative restriction
c) only constraint
d) all of these
v) The objective function of transportation problem is to
a) maximize the total cost
b) minimize or maximise the total cost
c) minimize the total cost
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 177 -2- *SLRC177*
vi) The cells in the transportation problem can be classified as

a) assigned and occupied cells
b) occupied and unoccupied cells
c) unoccupied and empty cells
d) none of these
vii) In assignment problem if number of columns is greater than number of rows
then
a) dummy column is added b) dummy row is added
c) any column is deleted d) none of these
viii) The slack for an activity in network is equal to
a) LS-ES b) LF-LS c) EF-ES d) EF-LS
ix) The expected sample size required to arrive at a decision about the lot is
called
a) a random variable b) average sample number
x) When there is no defective in the lot, the OC function for p = 0 is
a) L(p) = 0 b) L(p) = 1 c) L(p) =
d) none of these
xi) The probability of accepting a lot with rejectable quality level p is known as
a) Consumers risk b) Type I error
c) Producers risk d) None of these
xii) In standard form of LPP
a) The constraints are inequalities of type
b) The constraints are inequalities of type
c) The constraints are strict equations

d) The decision variables are unrestricted in sign
xiii) The solution to a transportation problem with m-sources and n-destinations is
non-degenerate, if the number of allocations are
a) m + n + 1 b) m + n c) m + n 1 d) m × n
xiv) An assignment problem can be
a) Designed and solved as a transportation problem
b) Of maximization type
c) Solved only if number of rows equals the number of columns
d) All of the above
*SLRC177* -3- SLR-C 177

i) Define a LPP.
ii) Define a surplus variable.
iii) What is an unbalanced assignment problem ?
iv) When a transportation problem is said to be balanced ?
v) Define a dummy activity.
vi) Define a critical path.
vii) What is a producers risk ?
viii) Define an A.Q.L.
ix) Define a pessimistic time of an activity.

i) Define assignment problem and write its mathematical form.
ii) Differentiate between CPM and PERT.
iii) Convert the following L.P.P. in its standard form.
Min Z = x1 + 1.5x2
subject to
x1 + x2 1

100x1 + 10x2 50
10x1 + 100x2 10
x1 0, x2 0

B) In a Single Sampling Plan if N = 15000, n = 50, c = 2, p = 0.01 and

Pa = 0.986183, then calculate the average total inspection per lot and average
outgoing quality. 4

i) Find IBFS to the following transportation problem by using Vogels
Approximation Method.
To
I II III IV Available
A 5 1 3 3 34
From B 3 3 5 4 15
C 6 4 4 3 12
D 4 1 4 2 19
Demand 21 25 17 17
SLR-C 177 -4- *SLRC177*
ii) Explain Simplex Method of finding an optimum solution of a LPP.

iii) A project schedule has the following activities and the time (in hours) of
completion of each activity is as follows :
Activity 12 24 13 34 45 56 36
Time 70 55 15 26 30 40 85
Draw the network diagram. Use only forward pass and find the minimum time
of completion of the project.

i) The following assignment problem shows the costs of assigning four jobs to
four machines. Determine the optimum assignment schedule.
Machines
1 2 3 4
A 80 40 20 60
Jobs B 0 90 50 50
C 30 80 90 20
D 40 30 10 0
ii) Find an optimum solution to the LPP given below by using graphical method.
Max Z = 6x1 + x2
subject to
2x1 + x2 3
x 2 x1 0

x1 0, x2 0

iii) Give the procedure of Double Sampling Plan.
_____________
*SLRC178* SLR-C 178
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY
Hydrogeology and Remote Sensing (Special Paper X)


1) Seasonal fluctuation is caused in ___ of a well.
a) surface runoff b) transpiration c) sediment d) water table
2) Porosity of rock promotes ____
a) infiltration b) transpiration c) precipitation d) cone of depression
3) Low porosity/permeability of rock promotes _____
a) precipitation b) transpiration c) surface runoff d) cone of depression
4) _____ water is trapped in the sedimentary rocks at the time of its deposition.
a) Juvenile b) Connate c) Magmatic d) Volcanic
5) __________ is an impermeable formation, which may contain water but is
incapable of transmitting significant water quantities.
a) aquifer b) aquifuge c) aquiclude d) voids
6) Arrange the sequence of vertical distribution of groundwater starting from
surface of the earth : i) zone of intermittent saturation, ii) zone of saturation
and iii) zone of aeration
a) iii), ii) and i) b) i), ii) and iii) c) ii), iii) and i) d) iii), i) and ii)
7) _________ is the capacity of a rock to transmit fluids through it.
a) permeability b) porosity c) permittivity d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 178 -2- *SLRC178*
8) Satellites, Balloons, Airplane, Helicopters and pigeon are ______

a) sensors b) platforms c) objects d) cameras
9) When wavelength of electromagnetic waves increases, their frequency ____
a) decreases b) increases c) remain same d) none of these
10) The ultraviolet (UV) portion of the electromagnetic spectrum has range between
wavelengths __________ m.
a) 0.300 and 0.446 b) 0.0300 and 0.0446

c) 3.00 and 4.46 d) 30.0 and 44.6
11) _________ in the atmosphere absorbs large amount of radiation energy of
various wavelengths.
a) O3 b) H2O c) CO2 d) all of these
12) ________ is a science branch dealing with surveying and mapping using the
aerial photographs.
a) Photointerpretation b) Photogrammetry
c) Photorecognition d) Photosynthesis
13) In _______ aerial photographs, the optical axis is not perpendicular to the
ground surface.
a) Oblique b) Vertical c) Horizontal d) Parallel
14) The ________ is the geometric centre of a photograph.
a) Principal point b) Fiducial mark c) Centre point d) Focal point

i) What is forward overlap ?
ii) How to identify natural vegetation and artificial turf in aerial photographs ?
iii) What is spectral range of microwave ?
iv) What is passive remote sensing ?
v) What is Nadir point ?
vi) Define water table.
vii) Define surface runoff.
viii) Define transpiration.
ix) What are sensors ?
*SLRC178* -3- SLR-C 178

i) What are primary and secondary porosity ?
ii) What are advantages of photogeology ?
iii) Explain various sources of groundwater.
B) Describe in detail hydrological cycle. 4

i) Describe types of air photographs based on optical axis position.
ii) Describe atmospheric windows.
iii) Describe perched aquifer.

i) How rocks and soil types are identified on aerial photographs ?
ii) Describe in detail errors occur during flying.
iii) Describe the utilization of ground water.

*SLRC179* -1- SLR-C – 179
SLR-C – 179
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper – X)
Immunology
Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks.

3) Draw neat diagram wherever required.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from the given alternatives : 14

1) Complement component C3 is cleaved by ____________
A) C3b B) C3bBb
C) Factor B D) Factor D
2) During humoral immune response B cells differentiate into _________ cells.
A) Plasma and memory
B) Dentritic and memory
C) Plasma and cytotoxic
D) Mast and memory
3) Clonal selection hypothesis was put forth by ____________
A) Kohler and Milstein B) Burnet
C) Fenner D) Landsteiner
4) Monoclonal antibodies are used in ____________
A) Gene therapy B) Immunotherapy
C) Blood transfusion D) Both A) and B)
5) The person with O blood group lack ____________ on his RBCS.
A) A antigen
B) B antigen
C) A) and B) both
D) H antigen
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 179 -2- *SLRC179*
6) Graves disease is an example of ____________

A) Organ specific autoimmune disease
B) Non organ specific autoimmune disease
C) Type I hypersensitivity
D) Type II hypersensitivity
7) Antibodies involved in anaphylactic reactions are ____________ class.
A) IgG B) IgE
C) IgM D) IgD
8) MHC class I molecules are present on surface of ____________
A) All nucleated cells B) Only antigen presenting cells
C) Only platelets D) R.B.C.S.
9) Cytokines secreted by some leukocytes and act on other leukocytes are
called ____________
A) Monokines B) Lymphokines
C) Interleukins D) Chemokines
10) Graft between genetically identical individuals (i.e. twins) ____________
A) Are rejected
B) Are not rejected if a kidney is grafted but skin grafts are rejected
C) Are not rejected
D) Are subject to hyper acute rejection
11) The failure to reject or inactivate self reactive cells results in ____________
A) Autoimmunity B) Positive selection
C) Negative selection D) Suppression
12) Atopy is ____________ hypersensitivity reaction.
A) Type I B) Type III
C) Type IV D) Type II
13) B cell receptor is ____________
A) IgM B) IgG
C) IgA D) CD3
14) Macrophages secrete ____________
A) Histamine B) TNF α
C) Serotonin D) Antibodies
*SLRC179* -3- SLR-C – 179
2. Solve any seven of the following (out of 9) : 14

1) Which are the activators of alternate complement activation pathway ?
2) Give reasons for atopic sensitivity.
3) What are the symptoms associated with incompatible blood transfusion ?
4) Which cells produce interleukin – 1 ? Give its role.
5) What is thrombocytopenic purpura ?
6) What is xenograft ?
7) Give two differentiate features between humoral and cell mediated immune
response.
8) Name secondary mediators of anaphylaxis.
9) What are the properties of myeloma cells used for Hybridoma technique ?
3. A) Attempt any 2 : 10
1) Cytokines
2) Burnets clonal selection theory
3) Hemocytolytic autoimmune diseases.
B) Rh blood group system. 4
4. Attempt any 2 : 14
1) Immunological tolerance.
2) Classical complement activation pathway.
3) ABO blood group system.
5. Attempt any 2 : 14
1) Anaphylaxis.
2) MHC.
3) Hybridoma technique.
_____________________
*SLRC180* -1- SLR-C – 180
SLR-C – 180
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New-CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper – X)
Sensors and Instrumentation

4) Use of log-table and calculator are allowed.
1. Select correct alternative : 14

i) The expected output of LM35 temp. sensor at 60°C was______________
a) 0.6 volts b) 60 milli-volts
c) 45 milli-volts d) 0.45 volts
ii) The isolation is essential in a measuring instrument design to ___________
a) Improve CMRR of device b) Reduce loading effect
c) Provide higher gain d) Improve signal to noise ratio
iii) The normal stepper motor, completes one rotation within 200 steps, then its
stepping angle is ______________
a) 2.0° b) 0.9°
c) 0.2° d) 1.8°
iv) The basic objectives of data acquisition system is ______________
a) to acquire the data
b) to process the data
c) to provide human interface
d) all of these
v) The circuit, in which low frequency d.c. signal converts in to a.c., amplified
and the re-converted into d.c. signal are called as ______________
a) inverter b) d.c. amplifier
c) chopper amplifier d) modulator
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 180 -2- *SLRC180*
vi) Which of the following statement is true for LCD ?

a) External illumination is required
b) Self illuminated device
c) Alpha-numeric display is not possible
d) Quartz-crystals are used
vii) The degree of exactness of measurement compared to the expected value
is ______________
a) Error b) Resolution
c) Precision d) Accuracy
viii) The principle of operation of an LVDT sensor is based on change in _________
a) Self-inductance b) Mutual-inductance
c) Reluctance d) None of these
ix) The power consumption of LED with respect to LCD is ______________
a) Less b) More
c) Same d) Can’t say
x) The instrument designed to measure minimum value zero to maximum value
of input signal is known as ______________
a) Hysteresis b) Sensitivity
c) Range of span d) Input-variable
xi) The electro-magnetic relay coil is also know as ______________
a) Pivot b) Yoke-coil
c) Reluctant d) Armature
xii) The lock-in-amplifier is nothing but ______________
a) Phase-sensitive detector
b) Phase corrector
c) Phase-lag-network
d) Phase-lead-network
xiii) The grounding and shielding technique are used to reduce ______________
a) Power consumption b) Noise in the circuit
c) Cost and size d) Signal level
xiv) The instrumentation amplifier is having ______________
a) Low value of CMRR b) High value of CMRR
c) Low value of gain d) High impedances
*SLRC180* -3- SLR-C – 180

i) Enlist the different types of errors.
ii) Give the principle of thermo-couple.
iii) Write the applications of piezo-electric sensor.
iv) What do you understand by compensating techniques ?
v) Give the objectives of DAS.
vi) Write the role of proper grounding of the circuit.
vii) Distinguish between LED and LCD.
viii) Draw the circuit diagram of instrumentation amplifier.
ix) Explain briefly gas sensors.

i) Write a note on X-T recorder.
ii) Explain single channel DAS with block diagram.
iii) Explain construction and operation of strain gauge.
B) Explain the working of weighing scale with the help of block diagram. 4

i) Explain the data logger system in details.
ii) Explain the operation of Hall-effect sensor. How it can used to measure
hall-voltage ?
iii) Explain X-Y recorder.

i) Explain the suitable signal conditioning system, to measure temperature of
the range 1000°C.
ii) What are the actuators ? Explain the electro-magnetic relay as an on-off
controller.
iii) What is signal conditioning ? Explain the basic elements of the signal
conditioning system.
_____________________
*SLRC181* SLR-C 181
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Special Paper X : Data Communications and Networking I


1) __________ OSI layer incorporates the MAC address.
a) Data Link b) Network c) Physical d) Application
2) Many low speed channels are interwoven into one high-speed transmission
by
a) TDM b) FDM c) CDM d) None
3) The transport layer does
a) Multiplexing b) Segmentation c) Splitting d) All
4) __________ device introduces maximum delay into the network.
a) modem b) gateway c) switch d) all
5) __________ transmission methods is suitable for five T.V. transmissions.
a) Synchronous b) Isochronous c) Asynchronous d) None
6) Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery ?
a) Network layer b) Transport layer
c) Session layer d) Data link layer
7) CRC stands for
a) cyclic redundancy check b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check d) cyclic repeat check
P.T.O.
SLR-C 181 -2- *SLRC181*
8) Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer
design ?
a) shortest path algorithm b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing d) all of these
9) __________ topology requires multipoint connection.
a) Star b) Mesh c) Ring d) Bus
10) What is internet ?
a) a single network
b) a vast collection of different networks
c) interconnection of local area networks
d) none of these
11) Packet switching uses __________ transmission.
a) queuing b) store and forward
c) master-slave d) polling and selection
12) Congestion is caused by
a) Slow links b) Slow processors
c) Packets from many lines d) All
13) _________ involves grouping many separate wires into a common cable
enclosure.
a) SDM b) TDM c) FDM d) All
14) Cordless telephone uses ________ characteristic.
a) Unidirectional b) Omni directional
c) Bidirectional d) Focused beam

1) What is fiber optics ?
2) State difference between analog and digital signal.
3) Which are the components of the network ?
4) What is shortest path routing ?
5) Explain framing.
*SLRC181* -3- SLR-C 181
6) Define standards.
7) What is flooding ?
8) What is synchronous and a synchronous transmission ?
9) What is amplitude modulation ?

1) What is modulation ? Explain its types.
2) Which are the services of network layer ?
3) Explain data representation.
B) Explain various applications of internet. 4

1) What is multiplexing ? Explain frequency division multiplexing.
2) What is stop and wait ARQ protocol ? Explain.
3) Explain TCP/IP reference model.

1) What is routing ? Explain multicast routing.
2) Explain CSMA/CA in detail.
3) Explain message switching in detail.
______________
*SLRC182* SLR-C 182
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (Old) Examination, 2017

ENGLISH COMPULSORY
Breakthrough

1. A) Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct options given below. 6
1) G.B. Shaw says, in revolutions, it is the respectful _________ who burn
the country houses and parsonages.
a) rich b) lords c) warriors d) peasants
2) The Gettysburg Address is the famous speech delivered by President
Lincoln at Gettysburg in
a) 1861 b) 1863 c) 1860 d) 1862
3) Shaw asserts that the poor are kept poor by their
a) poverty b) knowledge c) ignorance d) craft
4) In A Room of Ones Own Virginia Woolf imagines a ________ of
Shakespeare.
a) cousin b) sister c) daughter d) disciple
5) Abu Ben Adhem was blessed by the __________ of God.
a) hatred b) curse c) love d) angel
6) O Captain ! My Captain ! Our fearful ____________ is done.
a) trip b) job c) task d) dream
B) Rewrite the following bits by selecting the correct modals. 2
1) If he works hard, he ___________ succeed.
a) could b) might c) may d) had to
2) The team took a decision that it ___________ do more net-practice.
a) will b) might c) shall d) would
C) Do as directed. 2
1) Radhika said, I am going to work hard from today.
(Change into Indirect Speech)
2) Karim asserted that he would see his teacher the next day.
(Change into Direct Speech).
P.T.O.
SLR-C 182 *SLRC182*
2. Answer any five of the following questions in 2 to 3 sentences each. 10

a) How has Shaw brought out the corruption in Church ?
b) What did Lincoln say about the sacrifice of the brave men ?
c) How does the society destroy the talents of women writers ?
d) Give the definition of democracy according to Lincoln.
e) What was the opinion of the old Bishop about women ?
f) How would the peasants behave during a revolution ?
3. A) Answer any two of the following questions in about fifty words each. 6
1) What did Abu Ben Adhem see in his vision ?
2) Why is the poet making an appeal to the Captain to rise ?
3) How did Abus name lead all the rest in the book of gold ?
B) Write reports in brief on any two of the following : 4
a) Making veg pulaav.
b) Visit to a zoo in your city.
c) A road accident you saw.
4. Prepare a presentation script on any one of the following using charts or slides. 10
I) Merits of democracy.
II) Promotion of a newly launched hatch-back car.
5. Ramesh, Sara, Manila and James participate in a group discussion on Twenty-twenty

Cricket Matches, write a script of the discussion by using points in favour of and
against the subject. 10

*SLRC183* SLR-C 183
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester V) (Old) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Special Paper IX)
Mathematical Physics and Statistical Physics

4) Use of log tables and calculator is allowed.

i) Integration of a vector along a curve is called
a) volume integral b) closed integral
c) line integral d) surface integral
ii) In orthogonal curvilinear coordinate system, the coordinate surfaces are
mutually __________ everywhere.
a) curved b) parallel c) perpendicular d) none of these
iii) In spherical polar coordinate system, h3 is
a) rsin
b) sin c) r
d) cos
iv) If W is the probability of state of system then which of the following is the
statistical definition of entropy ?
a) S = kw b) S = W lnk c) S = lnk d) S = klnw
v) What is the volume of cell in phase space is
a) h b) h2 c) h3 d) h4
vi) Maxwell Boltzmannstatistics applicable to
a) he atoms b) electrons c) bosons d) gas molecules
vii) The ratio of most probable speed and average speed of gas molecule is
a) b) c) 1 d)

"
viii) Wines displacement law is expressed by the equation

a) m T
= constant b) m T
= constant
c) m T
= constant d) m T
"
= constant
P.T.O.
SLR-C 183 *SLRC183*
ix) Paulis exclusion principle applies to

a) M.B. statistics b) B.E. statistics
c) F.D. statistics d) All of the above
x) Bosons are particles with ________ spin.
a) half b) one c) negative d) integral

i) State Gauss divergence theorem.
ii) Write Laplacian operator

in orthogonal curvilinear co-ordinates.
iii) Define :
i) Macrostate
ii) Microstate of a system.
iv) Define microcanonical and canonical ensembles.
v) What are bosons ? Which statistics is used to study them ?
vi) Write basic postulates of Fermi-Dirac statistics.

i) Explain the concept of orthogonal curvilinear coordinates.
ii) Define thermodynamic probability and obtain its expression.
iii) Compare M.B, B.E and F.D statistics.
B) For given volume V, prove that r . d s 3 V
where r is position vector. 4

i) Deduce Stefans law from Planks radiation formula.
ii) Obtain expression for average speed of gas molecules.
iii) Explain electronic specific heat.

i) Obtain the expression for divergence of vector field in orthogonal curvilinear
co-ordinates and extend the expressions in orthogonal curvilinear coordinates
to Cartesian coordinates.
ii) Describe experimental study of black body radiation. What are the results of
the experiment ?

*SLRC184* SLR-C 184
S e a t
N o .

CHEMISTRY
Physical Chemistry (Special Paper IX) (Old)
N. B. : i) All questions are compulsory.

iii) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
iv) Use of logarithmic table/scientific calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentence : 10
i) In photosynthesis ___________ acts as sensitizer.
a) Water b) Moisture c) Heat d) Chlorophyll
ii) The quantity (2S + 1) is known as ___________ of state.
a) Spin pairing b) Spin multiplicity
c) Singlet d) Excited
iii) The energy associated with a photon is given by equation ___________
a) E = h
b) E = hc c) E = D ?

d) E = hc2
iv) When single phase is present in two component system the degree of
freedom is ___________
a) three b) two c) one d) zero
v) The vapour-pressure of the metastable phase is always ___________ than
that of stable phase.
a) Constant b) Higher c) Lower d) Decreases
vi) What is the emf of a cell,

A A B B ?
Given E

)

0 . 3 4 V
and E

*

0 . 7 7 V
.
)
*
a) 1.11V b) 1.11V c) 0.43V d) 0.43V

vii) In concentration cells, emf is produced due to decrease in
___________ accompanying the cell reaction.
a) Volume b) Temperature c) Free energy d) Entropy
P.T.O.
SLR-C 184 -2- *SLRC184*
viii) The entropy change of the cell reaction is given by,

S = ___________
a) n F
d E

b) n E
?
F

@ -
@ 6

d T
c) d)
d E

@ -
n F

n E F

@ 6
d T

ix) Which of the following electrode can be used to measure pH ?

a) Silver b) Glass c) Platinum d) Cadmium
x) The relation between standard free energy change and equilibrium constant
is given by equation ___________
a) b)

G R T l n k
G R T l n k
c) G
d)
R t l n k
G R T l n k

i) Give reduced phase and indicates the terms involved in it.
ii) Define : a) Polymorphism b) Allotropy
iii) Write the half cell reactions for zinc and copper electrodes.
iv) Write electrode reaction and potential equation for silver-silver chloride
electrode.
v) Mention different laws of photochemistry and state Beers law.
vi) State Nernst equation for emf of cell and indicates the terms involved in it.

i) Describe photo sensitized reaction with suitable example.
ii) Describe the application of emf measurement in determination of pH of
solution.
iii) Draw neat diagram of water system and explain the degree of freedom
is zero.
B) Calculate emf of the concentration cell made up of cadmium in mercury
amalgams and using cdcl2 as electrolyte solution at 298K. One amalgam
contains 12 mg of cadmium per gram of mercury and other containing 0.25 mg
of cadmium per gram of mercury.
Given : R = 8.314JK1mole1, F = 96500 Coulombs. 4
*SLRC184* -3- SLR-C 184
i) Discuss the applications of phase rule to Pb Ag system.
ii) Calculate the energy in joules per quantum and joules per mole of photon of
wavelength 650 nm.
Given : h = 6.626×1034Js, c = 3.0×108ms1, N = 6.023×1023mole1
iii) Derive an expression for the emf of a concentration cell without transference;
which is reversible to cation.
5. Answer any two of the following 10

i) Explain photodimerization of anthracene.
ii) Calculate equilibrium constant for the following reaction at 298 k.
Cu(s) + 2Ag(aq) Cu++(aq) + 2Ag(s)

E°cell = 0.537V; R = 8.314JK1, F = 96500 Coulombs.

iii) The emf of the cell,
Ag(s) | AgCl(s)| KCl solution | Hg2Cl2(s) | Hg(l) | Pt; is 0.0345V at 298K. The
temperature coefficient the cell is 2.98×104 Vk1 calculate the values of

G and
H. Given : F = 96500 Coulombs.
_____________________
*SLRC185* SLR-C 185
S e a t
N o .

BOTANY
Special Paper IX : Biology of Cryptogams
Time : 2 Hours Total Marks : 50

1. Select the correct answer and rewrite the sentences : (1×10=10)

1) Amylum stars are formed in ______________ sp.
a) Chara b) Ectocarpus
c) Batrachospermum d) Sargassum
2) Chara reproduces sexually by __________ type.
a) Isogamous b) Anisogamous
c) Oogamous d) Both a) and b)
3) Oospores are formed in _______________ sp.
a) Uncinula b) Albugo c) Polyporus d) Puccinia
4) Uncinula belongs to the subdivision _________
a) Basidiomycotina b) Ascomycotina
c) Deuteromycotina d) Mastigomycotina
5) Haplontic life cycle in algae is dominated by ___________ generation.
a) Haploid b) Diploid c) Triploid d) Tetraploid
6) The capsule of Marchantia encloses _________
a) Spores b) Pseudoelaters
c) Columella d) Both a) and b)
7) Basidiocarp is the fruiting body of ___________
a) Albugo b) Uncinula
c) Polyporus d) Alternaria
P.T.O.
SLR-C 185 *SLRC185*
8) Spawn of mushroom consists of __________
a) Substrate b) Fungal mycelium
c) Fungal spores d) All the above
9) Cryophytic algae grow on ____________
a) Soil b) Rock
c) Snow covered mountain d) Other plants
10) _________ is a heterosporous fern.
a) Psilotum sp b) Ophioglossum sp
c) Marsilea sp d) All the above
2. Answer any five of the following : (2×5=10)

i) Define pteridophytes.
ii) What is meant by origin of sex in algae ?
iii) Define triphasic life cycles in algae.
iv) Classify Polyporus giving reasons.
v) State the occurrence of Ectocarpus.
vi) Define planogametic copulation in fungi.
vii) Sketch and label sporophyte of Marchantia.

i) Describe the fruiting body of Uncinula.
ii) Describe the female sex organ of Chara.
iii) Give the economic importance of Polyporus.
B) Describe the sexual reproduction in Ectocarpus. 4
i) Describe the sporocarp of Marsilea.
ii) Describe the multicellular forms of algae.
iii) Describe the steps involved in Mushroom cultivation.
i) Describe the evolution of sex in algae.
ii) Describe the gemma body of Marchantia.
iii) Describe the basidiocarp of Polyporus.
_____________________
*SLRC186* SLR-C 186
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper IX)
Non-Chordates

1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence.10
1) __________ type of canal system is found in Sycon.
a) Leucon b) Sycon c) Ascon d) Rhagon
2) __________ is an asexual reproduction in paramoecium.
a) Conjugation b) Automixis c) Binary fission d) Syngamy
3) Polymorphism occurs in
a) Termites b) Certain ants c) Snails d) Coelenterates
4) Autotrophic type of nutrition is found in
a) Amoeba b) Euglena c) Entamoeba d) Paramoecium
5) In Hirudinaria, the space between body wall and alimentary canal is filled
with
a) Haemal fluid b) Air space
c) Botryoidal tissue d) Haemocoel
6) __________ is the larva of sea star.
a) Bipinnaria b) Doliolaria c) Ophiopluteus d) Echinopluteus
7) __________ number of crop chambers are present in leech.
a) 7 b) 11 c) 10 d) 8
8) The larva of butterfly, moth is __________ larva.
a) Polypod b) Oligopod c) Apodus d) Nymph
P.T.O.
SLR-C 186 *SLRC186*
9) __________ is a good example of living fossil.

a) Limulus b) Lingula c) Peripatus d) Sagitta
10) Sea star has great power of
a) Morphogenesis b) Histolysis c) Haemolysis d) Regeneration

i) Cyclosis in paramoecium.
ii) Course of water current in Sycon.
iii) Apodus larva.
iv) Jaws of leech.
v) Systematic position of Sea star.
vi) Holometabolous metamorphosis.

i) Salient features of lingula.
ii) Zoological importance of peripatus.
iii) Tube-foot of sea star.
B) Describe Locomotion in leech. 4

i) Describe conjugation of paramoecium.
ii) Describe testicular nephridium of leech.
iii) Describe polymorphism in Coelenterata.

i) Describe digestive system of leech.
ii) Describe water-vascular system in sea-star.
___________
*SLRC187* SLR-C 187
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper IX)
Algebra II
1. Choose the correct alternative of the following : 10

1) Which structure is not a field ?
a) (R, +, .) b) (C, +, .) c) (E, +, .) d) (Q, +, .)
2) The characteristic of the ring 3z is
a) 0 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
3) The number of ideals in a field F is
a) 0 b) 2 c) 1 d) infinite
4) Over the field of real numbers the vector space of complex numbers has
dimension
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) i
5) Let T : V W is linear. Then the null space N(T) of T is

a) {x V/T(x) = 0}

b) {T(x)/x V}
c) {x W/T(x) = 0}

d) {x V/T(x) = e}
6) The span {(0, 1, 0), (0, 0, 1)} contains all the points in
a) xy plane b) yz plane c) xz plane d) z plane
7) If x = (a, b, c)
R3, then x , x =
a) = > ?
b) a2+b2+c2 c) = > ?
d) (a2+b2+c 2)2
8) If x = (1 + i, 4) and y = (2 3i, 4 + 5i) in C2, then <x, y>
a) 15 15i b) 15 + 15i
c) 15 + 15i d) 15 15i
P.T.O.
SLR-C 187 -2- *SLRC187*
9) T : Pn(R) Pn 1 (R) defined by T(f(x)) =

, where denotes the B

N
B

N
derivative of f(x). Then T is

a) Linear transformation b) Not a linear transformation
c) Other data are required d) None of these
10) If T : R3 R2 be the linear transformation defined by

T(a1, a 2, a 3) = (a 1 a 2, 2a3). Then N(T) =

a) {(a, a, 0) : a R} b) {(a, 0, 0) : a

R}
c) {(0, 0, 0)} d) {(0, a, 0) : a
R}
2. Attempt any five : 10

1) If Z12 is a ring under addition and multiplication modulo 12, then find its all
maximal ideal.
2) Verify the distributive law
[(I + a) + (I + b)] (I + C) = (I + a) (I + c) + (I + b) (I + c)
3) Let T : R2 R3 be a linear defined by T(x1, x 2) = (x1 x2, x2 x1, x 1).

Show that T is one-one.

4) Let V be an inner product space. Then for x, y, z V and C F. Then prove
that <x, y + z> = <x, y> + <x, z>.

5) If T be a linear transformation on R2 defined by T (x1, x2) = (2x1 + 3x2, x1 x2).
Then find R(T).
6) If x and y are vectors in a real inner product space and if ||x|| = ||y|| then x + y
and x y are orthogonal.
1) Show that S = is a subring of M(z, ).

a b

: a , b Z

0 0
2) Verify the relation

u , a V

b V a u , v b u , v .
3) Let V and W be vector spaces and T : V
W be linear. Then prove that

R(T) is subspace of W.
4) Show that a linear map T : R3 R3 defined by
T(x1, x2, x3) = (x 1 + x2, x2 + x3, x1 + x2 + x3) is non-singular.
B) Determine whether or not the set

= {(1, 1, 2), (1, 2, 5), (5, 3, 4)} forms a
basis for R3. 4
*SLRC187* -3- SLR-C 187

1) Prove that the set of integers
R = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} forms a field under addition and multiplication modulos.
2) Let V and W be vector spaces over a field F and let T, U : V
W be linear.
Then prove that for all a F, a T + U is linear.
3) If x and y are vectors in an inner product space then show that

N O N O N O
.
5. Attempt any one : 10

1) State and prove dimension theorem.
2) Let V be the vector space of polynomials with inner product given by

f , g

f ( t ) g ( t ) d t
.

Let f(t) = t + 2 and g(t) = t2 2t 3. Find

a) f , g b) B c) C
___________
*SLRC188* SLR-C 188
Seat
No.

STATISTICS
Statistical Inference I (Special Paper IX)
N.B. : 1) All questions carry equal marks.


1) If x1, x2 is a random sample from U (0, ) then MLE of

is
a) x1 + x2 b) x1 x2 c) Max (x1, x2) d) Min (x1, x2)
2) Which of the following is an estimation procedure ?
a) Point estimation b) Interval estimation
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
3) Which kind of values of a sample size n is concerned to consistency property ?
a) small values b) infinitely small values
c) large values d) any value
4) Fishers information based on a random sample of size 1 from a geometric (p)
distribution is
a) b) c) d)

F F F F F F F F
5) If x is a single observation from N (0,

) then the sufficient statistic for
is
a) N b) x c) x 2 d) none of these
6) Parameter is
a) Sample characteristic b) Population characteristic
7) Efficiency is a property associated to
a) Sample size b) Variance of the estimator
P.T.O.
SLR-C 188 -2- *SLRC188*
8) Cramer-Rao inequality is based on

a) Stringent condition b) Mild conditioning
c) No condition d) None of the above
9) Generally the estimators obtained by the method of moments as compared to
maximum likelihood estimators are
a) less efficient b) more efficient
c) equally efficient d) none of the above
10) The denominator in the Cramer-Rao inequality is known as
a) information limit b) lower bound of variance
c) upperbound of variance d) all of the above

i) Find unbiased estimate of p for binomial distribution.
X: 0 1 2 3 4
Frq : 3 4 10 8 6
ii) Define uniformly minimum variance unbiased (UMVUE) for a parameter.
iii) Define relative efficiency of T1 with respect to T2.
iv) Define Pitman-Koopman form of sufficient statistic.
v) Show that sample mean is an unbiased estimator of population mean.
vi) Define Fisher information function in a statistic T about the parameter .
vii) State invariance property of maximum likelihood estimator.

i) Prove that if T1 and T2 are two distinct unbiased estimators of parameter

then there exists infinitely many unbiased estimators of .
ii) Explain the concept of sufficient statistic. State Neyman factorization

criterion.
iii) Let x1, x2, x 3 .... xn be a random sample from a distribution with pdf
.

B N N
Obtain the estimator of

by the method of moments.
B) Obtain the maximum likelihood estimator of p in the following distribution.
f (x, p) = q p(x 1) x = 1, 2, ...... 4

*SLRC188* -3- SLR-C 188

i) Let x1, x2, x3 be random sample from Poisson distribution with parameter
.
If and Show that T1 and T2 are unbiased

: : :
: : :
!
!
6
6
estimators of
.
ii) Let x1, x2, x3, ..... xn be random sample from
f ( x , ) x

0<x<1
Obtain sufficient statistic for
.
iii) If I ( ) is information function of unknown parameter of

of a distribution.
2 l o g f
Show that .

1 -

@

i) State and prove Cramer-Rao inequality for the variance of an unbiased
estimator for a parameter .
ii) Prove that uniformly minimum variance unbiased (UMVUE) is unique for a
parameter .
iii) Let x1, x2, x3, .... xn be random sample from Poisson distribution with parameter .
Obtain
a) Likelihood function L
b) Fisher information function I ( ).

*SLRC193* SLR-C 193
Seat
No.

PHYSICS
Solid State Physics (Special Paper X)

3) Neat diagram must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of calculator and log table is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternatives : 10
1) a b c and

'
are the characteristics of _________ crystal

system.
a) Orthorhombic b) Cubic c) Monoclinic d) Trigonal
2) Packing fraction of simple cubic crystal structure is
a) 0.34 b) 0.52 c) 0.74 d) 0.99
3) Volume of unit cell in reciprocal lattice is _________ proportional to the volume
of unit cell in direct lattice.
a) Directly b) Inversely c) Not d) Equally
4) The ratio of thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity is proportional to
a) T b) 1/T c) T2 d) T3
5) Metals are good conductor of
a) Heat b) Electricity
c) Both heat and electricity d) Magnetism
6) Insulators have band gap energy of
a) 0 eV b) 1 eV c) 7 eV d) 0.7 eV
7) At the point of inflection, the value of effective mass of electron is
a) Zero b) Positive c) Infinity d) Negative
P.T.O.
SLR-C 193 *SLRC193*
8) If the sign of hall coefficient is positive then charge carriers are
c) Both holes and electrons d) Positrons
9) In case of diamagnetism, the magnetic susceptibility is
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Maximum
10) Superconductor shows
a) Zero resistivity
b) Perfect diamagnetism
c) Both zero resistivity and perfect diamagnetism
d) Paramagnetism

i) Define packing fraction.
ii) Give any four properties metal.
iii) Define band gap energy.
iv) Draw the energy band diagram for metal, semiconductor and insulator.
v) Give the examples of semiconductors and insulators.
vi) Define magnetic susceptibility.

i) State Wiedmann-Franz relation and define Lorentz number in terms of
Boltzmann constant.
ii) Explain effective mass of electron.
iii) Write short note on ferrites.
B) Explain Meissner effect. 4

i) Derive an expression for electrical conductivity.
ii) Write note on hysteresis.
iii) Explain the destruction of superconductivity by applied magnetic field.

i) What is Bravis lattice ? Explain in detail about seven crystal systems. Calculate
Miller indices for the plane intercepting at 2a, 3b and 2c on crystallographic axes.
ii) Explain powder method of X-ray diffraction. The lattice constant for unit cell
of Lead is 4.03 A°. Calculate the interplanar spacing of (211) plane.
_____________
*SLRC194* SLR-C 194
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
Inorganic Chemistry (Special Paper X)

1. Select the most correct alternative from the following and rewrite the sentences. 10
1) According to MOT bonding between metal and ligand may be
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Metallic d) Ionic as well as covalent
2) 7N15 + 1H1
6C12 +
a) 1H1 b) 2 He4 c)
-rays d) 1H2
3) Haemoglobin contain iron in _______ oxidation state.
a) +2 b) +3 c) +5 d) zero
4) In polymers formation of chain of _______ atoms is called catenation.
a) same b) different c) small d) large
5) The solid materials having particle size _________ is called nanoparticles.
a) 1 to 100 nm b) 1 to 100 m
c) 1 to 100 cm d) 1000 nm
6) In low spin octahedral complex
0 is ________ than pairing energy.
a) very low b) more c) less d) intermediate
7) The isotope emitting the radiations is called ________ isotope.
a) radio b) recoil c) daughter d) none of these
8) During crystal field splitting in octahedral complex eg orbital goes to higher
energy level by ___________ q.
a) +6 b) +4 c) 6 d) 4
P.T.O.
SLR-C 194 -2- *SLRC194*
9) If degree of polymer is above 100 then it is known as

a) smaller polymer b) lower polymer
c) high polymer d) none of these
10) In nuclear reaction projectile is
!
A l ( , n ) P
a) 27Al b) c) n d)
!

1) Calculate CFSE for strong and weak field complex with d3 configuration in
terms of 10 q.

2) Define essential element and trace element.

3) What is CFSE ? And what is its effect on the stability of the complex ?
4) What is nuclear fusion reaction ?
5) Explain the polymer back-bone.
6) Write the properties of nanoparticles.

1) Mention the parameters affecting the crystal field splitting of d orbitals.
Explain any one in detail.
2) Discuss the important applications of nanoparticles.
3) Give brief account of homoatomic polymer containing phosphorous.
B) Distinguish between haemoglobin and myoglobin. 4

1) How will you account the positions occupied by all Cl in PCl5 are not equivalent ?
2) What is the biological role of Na + and K + ?
3) Distinguish between organic and inorganic polymer.

1) Mention different types of nuclear reactions. Explain one nuclear reaction in
detail with example.
2) Draw the molecular orbital diagram of [ Ti(H2O)6] +3. Comment on its magnetic
properties.
3) What are the limitations of CFT ?

*SLRC196* SLR-C – 196
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – X) (Old)
Biostatistics, Bioinformatics, Medical Zoology and
Evolutionary Genetics

1) ____________ is defined as sum of all the values derived by the total number
of value.
a) Mean b) Variable
c) Median d) Mode
2) The disease malaria is caused by

a) Plasmodium b) Endamoeba
c) Vorticella d) Euglena
3) Ctrl + A is a command used for ____________ the file in Bioinformatics.

a) To select all b) To delete all
c) To copy all d) To create all
4) The term used in population genetics to refer the statistical drift overtime
gene frequency is called as
a) Genetic drift b) Gene net
c) Gene pool d) Gene bank
5) The pathogenic agent _______ is responsible for the disease Tuberculosis (TB).
a) Polio virus b) Bacterium
c) Plasmodium d) Fungi
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 196 -2- *SLRC196*
6) In statistical table the lower limit of first class should be

a) Ten b) Five
c) Zero d) Either zero or multiple of five
7) CPU is ____________ device of bioinformatics.

a) Storage b) Print
c) Input d) Output
8) Ctrl+X command used to ____________ in computer used to.

a) Paste b) Delete
c) Select d) Save
9) The use of statistics in biological science is known as

a) Bioinformatics b) Biostatistics
c) Biometry d) Biotechnology
10) Profuse salivation in dog bite man is due to

a) Poliovirus b) H1V1 virus
c) Rabies d) Antivirus
2. Write short notes on following (any five) 10
i) Classification
ii) Entrez search engine
iii) Rabies virus
iv) Key Board
v) Importance of bioinformatics
vi) Student’s ‘T’ test.

i) Give an account of symptoms of disease malaria.
ii) Describe genetic drift.
iii) Describe the different parts of statistical table.
*SLRC196* -3- SLR-C – 196
B) Form a discrete frequency distribution from following data, in which marks

obtained by 23 students in the examination.
10, 35, 20, 30, 20, 40, 25, 30, 10, 15, 40, 20, 25, 25, 35, 30, 35, 13, 15, 20, 25,
25, 20. 4
i) Describe Hardy-Weinberg’s law.
ii) Give an account of pathogen and treatment of disease rabies.
iii) Give an account of pathogen and symptoms of disease elephantiasis.
i) Define the types of measurements of central tendency. Describe the mean

and median.
ii) Describe the various search engines used in Bioinformatics. Also add a note
on their applications.
_____________________
*SLRC197* SLR-C – 197
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (Old) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – X)
Complex Analysis


1) If f(z) = u + iv is an analytic function whose real part is u = sinx coshy then
the imaginary part v = __________
a) cosx coshy + c b) cosx sinhy + c
c) coshx coshy + c d) coshx siny + c
2) Which of the following is correct for w = f(z) ?
dw ∂ w dw ∂w dw ∂ w dw ∂w
a) = b) =− c) = d) =−
dz ∂ x dz ∂x dz ∂ y dz ∂y
3) An analytic function with constant modulus is ____________
a) Variable b) Constant
c) May be variable or constant d) None of these
4) If u = x3 – 3xy2 is harmonic function then their corresponding analytic function
f(z) = _________
a) z + c b) z2 + c c) z3 + c d) –z4 + c
5) The inequalities a = t0 < t1 < t2 < .... < tn – 1 < tn = b, then the set
p = (t0, t1, t2, ...., tn} is called __________
a) Arc b) Closed curve
c) Partition d) Norm
6) ∫ f(z) dz is called the _________ of function f(z).

L
a) Line integral b) Indefinite integral

c) Proper integral d) Improper integral
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 197 -2- *SLRC197*
7) If C is the circle |z| = 1 then ∫ z dz is

C
a) πi b) 2πi c) 0 d) None of these
z3
8) The residue of at z = 1, 2, 3 are respectively.
(z − 1) (z − 2) (z − 3)
1 27 27
a) , − 8, b) 1, − 8,
2 2 2
1 27
c) , 0, d) None of these
2 2
z3
9) The residue of 2 at z = ∞ is _________
z −1
a) –1 b) 1 c) 0 d) 2
sin πz 2 + cos πz 2
10) The residue of at z = 2 is
(z − 1)2 (z − 2)
a) –1 b) 0 c) 2 d) 1

1) Prove that the function |z|2 is continuous everywhere but nowhere differentiable
except at origin.
2) Find whether the function f(z) = z is analytic.
3) Evaluate ∫ dz .
L
( 2, 5 )
2
4) Evaluate ∫ (3x + y)dx + (2y − x)dy , along the curve y = x + 1.
( 0, 1)
5) Define residue at a pole.
1
6) Find the residue of at z = i.
(z + 1)3
2
*SLRC197* -3- SLR-C – 197
1) If the real part of an analytic function f(z) is a given harmonic function
⎛z z ⎞
y(x, y), then to prove that f(z) = 2u ⎜ , ⎟ − u(0, 0) .
⎝ 2 2i ⎠
1
2) Expand f(z) = in a Laurent’s series valid for the region
(z + 1) (z + 3)
|z| < 1.
3) If C is an arc θ1 ≤ θ ≤ θ2 of the circle |z| = R and if lim z f(z) , then
R→∞
lim
R→∞ ∫ f(z) dz = i (θ2 − θ1)A .
C
B) Compute the residue of f(z) at infinity. 4
sin 2x
1) Find the analytic function of which the real part is u = .
cosh 2y − cos 2x
2) State and prove Cauchy’s Fundamental Theorem.
z 2 − 2z
3) Find the residues of , at all its poles in the finite plane.
(z + 1)2 (z 2 + 4)

1) Prove the Cauchy Riemann equations in polar form.
1+ i
2
2) Find the value of the integral ∫ (x − y + ix ) dz .
0
i) Along the straight line from z = 0 to z = 1 + i.

ii) Along the real axis from z = 0 to z = 1 and then along a line parallel to the
imaginary axis from z = 1 to z = 1 + i.
π
1 + 2 cos θ
3) Prove that ∫ 5 + 4 cos θ dθ = 0 .
0
_____________________
*SLRC203* SLR-C 203
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper XI)
Classical Mechanics


i) Mechanics of a particle is contained in the Newtons __________law of motion.
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Zero
ii) The physical quantity, moment of inertia is a tensor of rank
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
iii) In a cyclone in the northern hemisphere the wind whirls in the________ sense.
a) Anticlockwise b) Clockwise
c) Opposite d) Same
iv) In the symmetric mode of oscillation, the particles are oscillating always
a) In opposite phase b) With constant 45° phase
c) With constant 90° phase d) In phase
v) When constraints are introduced into a system, its number of degrees of
freedom
a) is reduced b) is increased
c) remains the same d) become zero
vi) If all forces of a system are generated from a single function, the system is
called ____________ system.
a) Conservative b) Monogenic
c) Non-conservative d) Multigenic
P.T.O.
SLR-C 203 -2- *SLRC203*
vii) The maximum horizontal distance covered by a projectile is called the
________ of the projectile.
a) Flight b) Trajectory c) Range d) None of these
viii) If a particle is at rest in a rotating frame of reference the Coriolis force acting
on it is
a) Minimum b) Maximum c) Extremum d) Zero
ix) Which of the following is the action integral ?
J J
a)
L d t
b)
8 @ J
J J

c) d)
B B
B @ B

O
O @ J
O
E O
E
x) A rigid body have ____________ degrees of freedom.

a) 9 b) 6 c) 3 d) 2
2. Attempt any five : 10

i) Define scleronomous and rheonomous constraints.
ii) What are coupled systems.
iii) State the principle of conservation of angular momentum for a system of particles.
iv) What are advantages of Hamiltons formulation ?
v) What is a rigid body ?
vi) Explain in brief the concept of centre of mass.

i) State and prove the Eulers theorem about the motion of a rigid body.
ii) Set up the Lagrangian for a simple pendulum and hence obtain the equation
describing its motion.
iii) What are symmetric and anti symmetric normal modes of oscillations ?
Explain why the frequency in anti symmetric mode is greater than that in
symmetric mode.
B) Derive an expression for the total energy of a system of two coupled pendulums
in terms of normal coordinates. 4
*SLRC203* -3- SLR-C 203
i) State and prove the conservation theorem for energy of system of particles.
ii) Derive an expression for the kinetic energy of a rigid body in the components
form.
iii) Show that the shortest distance between two points in a plane is along a
straight line.
5. Attempt any one : 10
i) What are the inertial and non-inertial frames of reference ? Show that the
angular acceleration of a particle is the same in fixed and rotating coordinate
systems.
ii) What do you mean by virtual displacement ? State the principle of virtual
work. State DAlemberts principle. Convert it into the generalized coordinates.
___________
*SLRC204* SLR-C 204
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Special Paper XI)

2) Draw neat diagram and give equation wherever possible.
5) Spectroscopic chart is supplied.
1. Choose correct alternative from each of the following : 10

i) Smaller values implies _________

a) resonance b) downfield c) upfield d) flipping

ii) Bayer calculated distortion in bond angle and strain in cycloalkanes by
_________ formula.
a) d = (109.5 bond angle) b) d = (208 bond angle)

c) d = (310 bond angle) d) d = (180 bond angle)

iii) ______________ exhibits keto-enol tautomerism.

a) acetic acid b) acetophenone
c) acetamide d) acetoacetic acid
iv) Strainless rings are ______________
a) planar b) linear c) biplanar d) puckered
v) The state of equivalence between precessional frequency of proton and
irradiated radio frequency is called _________
a) flipping b) resonance c) chemical shift d) coupling constant
vi) Bayers strain theory fails to explain the stability of cycloalkanes beyond
______________
a) cyclopropane b) cyclobutane c) cyclopentane d) none of these
vii) Stobbe reaction is shown by aldehydes or ketones with _________
a) primary amine b) organozinc compound
c) diester of succinic acid d) ester of benzoic acid
viii) Diethyl malonate reacts with urea to give ____________
a) barbituric acid b) butyric acid c) butanoic acid d) glutaric acid
P.T.O.
SLR-C 204 -2- *SLRC204*
ix) The deflection of ions in mass spectroscopy depends on ______________

a) shape b) size c) charge d) mass to charge ratio
x) Wittig reagent is ______________
a) Al(O.C.Me3)3 b) Br2 + NaOH c) Ph3P = CR 4

d) NaOC2H5

i) Define magnetic and non-magnetic nuclei.
ii) Define syn elimination and anti elimination.
iii) What is meant by reactive methylene group ? Give examples of
compounds containing this group.
iv) State and explain Hooks law.
v) Complete the following reaction and name the reaction :
CH3CONH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH ?

vi) Illustrate the principle of mass spectroscopy.

i) How will you prepare succinic acid from malonic ester ?
ii) Explain applications of mass spectroscopy.
iii) Illustrate Oppenauer oxidation.
B) Explain synthesis of ethyl acetoacetate with mechanism. 4

i) Write a note on Types of vibrations with suitable figures.
ii) Discuss the relative stabilities of conformations of cyclohexane with energy
potential curve.
iii) Complete the following reaction with mechanism and name the reaction.
O
| |
i ) Z n , e t h e r
C 6 H5 C
CH3 + Br.CH2COOC2H5
?
i i ) H H O

i) Write a note on applications of IR spectroscopy.
ii) Discuss the mechanism of Wagner-Meerwein rearrangement.
iii) Assign the structure to the compound having following spectral data. Name
the compound molecular formula C5H10O.
IR 1715 cm1
PMR 1.0 (triplet, 6 H)
PMR 2.4 (quartet, 4 H)

*SLRC204* -3- SLR-C 204
SLR-C 204 -4- *SLRC204*
_____________________
*SLRC205* SLR-C 205
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Special Paper XI)
Genetics

3) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences choosing correct answer from given alternatives : 10

1) From which animal Rh factor was discovered
A) Horse B) Mouse C) Rabbit D) Monkey
2) Which individuals are called as universal recipients ?
A) O B) A C) AB D) B
3) The number of chromosome in Drosophila melanogaster is
A) Six B) Eight C) Ten D) Twelve
4) The sex chromosome in human male are known as
A) XX B) XY C) XO D) XZ
5) The blood group in man was discovered by
A) Bateson B) Stern C) Landsteiner D) East
6) _______ genes are present on homologuos part of Y chromosome which
passed directly from father to son.
A) Hemophilia B) Holandric C) Hologenic D) Diandric
7) Polytene chromosome first time observed by
A) Balbiani B) Painter C) Bridige D) Both A) and B)
8) 26 Raphanobrassica is a/an
A) Autopolyploid B) Allopolyploidy
C) Hexaploid D) None of the above
9) Monosomy is depicted by
A) n B) n 1 C) 2n 1 D) 2n 2
10) The individuals having one chromosome extra to diploid genome are called
A) nullysomy B) trisomy C) tetrasomy D) monosomy
P.T.O.
SLR-C 205 *SLRC205*
2. Write any five of the following : 10

1) What is self incompatibility in plants ?
2) Why Drosophila is suitable material for genetic experiments ?
3) What are blood groups in man ?
4) What is holandric genes ?
5) What is quantitative inheritance ?
6) Define autosomes.
3. A) Write any two of the following : 6

1) What is Polygene theory ?
2) Describe in brief Haemophilia.
3) Sex chromosome in Drosophila.
B) Explain mechanism of sex determination in man. 4
4. Write any two of the following : 10

1) Describe Hardy-Weinbergs law.
2) Explain plastid inheritance.
3) Mitochondrial inheritance.
5. Write any two of the following : 10

1) Explain Genic balance theory of sex determination by C.B. Bridge.
2) Describe colour blindness in man.
3) What is polyploidy ? What are different kinds of polyploidy explain with suitable
example ?
_____________
*SLRC206* SLR-C 206
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper XI)
Comparative Anatomy of Chordates

iii) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence. 10
1) Heterocochlear vertebrae are found in
a) amphibia b) birds c) reptiles d) mammals
2) _______ have ruminant stomach.
a) Cat b) Dogs c) Tiger d) Cow
3) Pecten is found in the eyes of
a) fishes b) birds c) mammals d) human being
4) Cutaneous respiration found in _______ group of vertebrates.
a) reptilian b) amphibian c) aves d) mammals
5) Heart of _________ shows highly reduced sinus venosus.
a) cartilage fishes b) boney fishes c) reptiles d) amphibians
6) Claws are _______ derivatives of integument.
a) Epidermal hard b) Epidermal soft c) Dermal hard d) Dermal soft
7) Three chambered heart is found in
a) Fisher b) Amphibians c) Aves d) Mammals
8) Lungs of pigeon are provided with _________ air sacs.
a) Eight b) Nine c) One d) Four
9) Central nervous system in vertebrates is derived from
a) basal plate b) neural plate c) blastopore d) pineal body
10) Feathers are present in
a) fishes b) amphibian c) aves d) mammals
P.T.O.
SLR-C 206 *SLRC206*

1) Gills of scoliodon
2) Placoid scaler
3) Skin of birds
4) Metanephros kidney
5) Cutaneous respiration in Amphibia
6) Down feather

1) Air sacs in birds
2) Pelvic girdle of reptiles
3) Heart of scoliodon
B) Evolutionary changes in brain of vertebrates. 4

1) Describe the respiratory organs in reptiles.
2) Describe the fore gut in birds.
3) Describe the mammary glands.

1) Give an account of soft glands in vertebrates.
2) Describe brain of scoliodon and compare with that brain of frog.
_______________
*SLRC207* SLR-C 207
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper XI)
Integral Calculus


b
@ N
1)
N =
m
is convergent if
a
a) m > 1 b) m = 1
c) m 1
d) m < 1

2)
s i n x d x
is an improper integral of

a) First kind b) Second kind

c) Third kind d) Proper integral

s i n x
3)
dx, where a > 0 is
x
a) Convergent b) Divergent
c) Oscillatory d) Proper
1
4) is convergent when
m 1 n 1
N N @ N
a) m > 0 b) n > 0
c) m > 0, n > 0 d) m > 1, n > 1
P.T.O.
SLR-C 207 -2- *SLRC207*
5) The value of is
" !
N N @ N

& ! &
&
6)

!
" "
a) b) c) d)

7)
t a n d
a)
b)
c) d) None of these

8) Value of
O @ O @ N
is equal to

a) b) c) d)
%
& $ ! !
! O
9)
O @ O @ N
=

a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9
10) Area lying between the parabola y = 4x x2 and the line y = k is
a)
unit b) 3 unit
c) !
unit d) '
unit
*SLRC207* -3- SLR-C 207
2. Attempt any five from the following : 10
O

1) Evaluate
N O @ N @ O .

O
l o g y
l o g 8
2) Evaluate
A
x y
@ N @ O
.
1 0
3) Evaluate
N
"
A
N
@ N .

4) Show that .
!
! N

N A @ N
' !
5) Test the convergence of .

@ N
%
6) Define improper integrals of two kinds with suitable examples.

1) Prove that the improper integral of first kind

@ N
F
converges if and only
N
if p > 1.

2) Prove that ( m , n ) 2

s i n
2 m 1
c o s
2 n 1
d .
0
" = = N
3) Change the order of the double integral

f ( x , y ) d y d x
.

" =
B) Show that, every absolutely convergent integral is convergent. 4

SLR-C 207 -4- *SLRC207*
1) If f(x) and g(x) are positive and , where L is non-zero finite number
f ( x )
l i m L
N
g ( x )

then show that

B N @ N
and
C N @ N
behaves alike.
= =
2) Prove that and hence find .

p q
( p , q )
p q
3) Using the transformations , , evaluate

N O
N O
L
K
over the area common to the circles x 2 + y 2 ax = 0 and

N O
@ N @ O

N O
x2 + y2 by = 0.
N
1) Change the order of integration and hence evaluate .

O @ N @ O

O N O

2) State and prove duplication formula for gamma function and hence show that
!
.
" "
3) State and prove Cauchys test for convergence at

and hence show that

is convergent.
s i n x
d x
_____________
*SLRC208* SLR-C 208
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper XI)
Probability Distributions and Stochastic Process

ii) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is allowed.
1. Choose most appropriate alternative : 10

i) If X is Cauchy (10, 20) then Q2 = ___________
ii) For Cauchy distribution coefficient of kurtosis ___________
a) is positive b) is negative c) is equal to 0 d) does not exists

iii) In stochastic process the parameter space may be _______
a) Discrete b) Continuous c) a and b d) a or b
iv) A stochastic matrix is one in which each _____ is 1.
a) Row sum b) Column sum
c) Diagonal element d) Off diagonal element
v) If a r.v.X is truncated below 5 then 2

: #

= _____
a) 2P (X < 5) b) P (X > 5) c) 1 d) 0
vi) If X
Laplace (0, 1) then variance = ________
a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 2 d) none of these
vii) Which of the following distributions is symmetric ?
a) lognormal b) truncated exponential
c) truncated binomial d) Laplace
viii) Let (X, Y) is BN

, ,

, ,

and

then 8

; : N

_______
8

: ; O

.
a) is greater than b) is equal to c) is less than d) is twice
ix) Let (X, Y) is BN (0, 0, 1, 1, ) and then E (U) = _______________

:
7
a) 0 b)
c) 1
d) can not be obtained
P.T.O.
SLR-C 208 *SLRC208*
x) The probability curve of LN distribution inclines up to ____________ ( , )
and then declines.

a) mean b) median c) mode d) Q3

a) Write the pmf of truncated binomial distribution, truncated at X = 0.
b) Write the pdf of lognormal (5, 9) distribution.
c) Define absorbing state.
d) Write the expression for rth raw moment of lognormal (5, 9) distribution.
e) Write the value of second raw moment of L (10, 20) distribution.
f) Write the pdf of standard Cauchy distribution.

i) Show that for L all odd ordered central moments vanish. ( , )
ii) Obtain the p.d.f. of truncated exponential (1) r.v., truncated below k.
iii) Let (X, Y) is BN

, ,

, ,

write down the expressions a) for
regressions of X on Y E (XY), E (X2).
B) Give three features of stochastic matrix with illustration. 4

A) If X is C (0, 1) r.v. then find the distribution of X2.
B) Let X and Y are i.i.d. exponential r.v.s with parameter . Then find the
distribution of X Y.
C) If (X, Y) is a bivariate normal r.v. with pdf. f (x, y) = K exp
find K and all the parameters.

1

( x y ) x , y


A) If X and Y are independent lognormal r.v.s with respective parameters
(10, 25) and (5, 16) then find the distributions of .

:
B) Let (X, Y) is BN

, ,

, ,

then write down the expression for mgf and
hence find E (X), E (Y2), Cov (X, Y).
C) If X is C (0, 1) r.v. then find its CDF.

*SLRC213* SLR-C – 213
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Old) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XII)
Nuclear Physics

1. Select the correct answer from the given alternatives. 10

i) An accelerator is used for increasing ____________ of a charged particles.
a) potential energy b) kinetic energy c) binding energy d) excitation energy
ii) When α -particles strikes on screen coated with ZnS, then flash of light is
produced this principle is used in
a) G-M Counter b) bubble chamber
c) scintillation counter d) proportional counter
iii) The time at which GM tube unable to count pulse is called _________
a) Dead time b) recovery time c) resolving time d) half life time
iv) The value of packing fraction is P =
a) M+A/A b) A/M+A c) M–A/A d) A/M–A
v) Shape of nucleus is
a) spherical b) circular c) semicircular d) cubic
vi) In exothermic nuclear reactions the Q value should be
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) infinity
vii) In nuclear reaction the bombarding particle is called
a) absorber b) projectile c) target d) emitter
viii) Neutrino hypothesis was postulated by

a) Einstein b) Rutherford c) Thomson d) Pauli
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 213 *SLRC213*
ix) β -particles are

a) positrons b) electrons c) protons d) neutrons
x) Photons have ___________

a) positive charge b) negative charge c) both charges d) chargeless

i) Define Mass defect.
ii) Explain stripping reaction.
iii) What is pickup reaction ?
iv) Define α -disintegration energy.
v) Explain Gravitational Interaction.
vi) State betatron condition.
i) Write note on composition of nucleus.
ii) Explain continuous nature of β -ray spectrum.
iii) What is quarks ? Explain types of quark.
B) Calculate Q-value of the following reaction and indicate type of reaction. 4

4 14 17 1
2He + 7N ⎯⎯→ 8 O + 1H
Given : Mass of 2He4 = 4.0038727 a.m.u.
Mass of 7N14 = 14.003074 a.m.u.
Mass of 8O17 = 16.999133 a.m.u.
Mass of 1H1 = 1.007825 a.m.u.
1 a.m.u. = 931 MeV.

i) Explain liquid drop model of nucleus.
ii) Explain β -ray spectrometer and Neutrino hypothesis.
iii) Explain the classification of elementary particles in brief.

i) Explain construction and working of cyclotron. What are the limitations of
cyclotron ?
ii) Explain construction and working of GM counter. Hence explain Geiger plateau
region.
____________
*SLRC214* SLR-C 214
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
(Special Paper XII) : Analytical and Industrial Physical Chemistry (Old)

2) Draw neat diagram and given equations wherever necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative of the following and rewrite the sentences. 10
1) In total consumption burner _______ % of sample is used.
a) 5 b) 25 c) 95 d) 100
2) In electroplating _______ plays an important role.
a) electrolysis b) hydrolysis c) osmosis d) electrophoresis
3) The determination of ______ is the basic requirement of potentiometric titrations.
a) cell constant b) conductance
c) electrode potential d) transmittance
4) In a colorimetric measurements, the best filter is that which gives ______
absorption.
a) maximum b) minimum c) 100% d) none of these
5) The minimum external voltage required for continuous electrolytic deposition
is known as
a) electrode potential b) cell potential
c) decomposition potential d) none of these
6) On dilution, the specific conductance
c) remains constant d) all of these
7) The Beers law is usually represented by the equation
a) I = I0
- c x
b) I = I0
? N
c) I = I0ekx d) I = I0ekx
8) When temperature of the flame increases, the intensity of emitted radiation
c) remains constant d) become zero
P.T.O.
SLR-C 214 *SLRC214*
9) Determination of pH by using quinhydrone electrode is given by the expression

a) pH = Ecell 0.4540/0.0591 b) pH = 0.4540 Ecell/0.0591
c) pH = 0.4540 + Ecell/0.0591 d) pH = Ecell + 0.4540/0.0591
10) In a conductivity cell, the electrodes used are made up of
a) copper b) zinc c) platinum d) gold

i) Give advantages of Laminar flow burner.
ii) Explain the term throwing power.
iii) Give the principle of Wheatstone bridge.
iv) Why alternating current source is used in the conductivity measurements ?
v) Mention advantages of glass electrode.
vi) Give the statement of Lamberts law.

i) Write on Lundergraph burner.
ii) Explain how organic substances like grease and oil removed from the articles
to be plated.
iii) State and explain Beers law.
B) Write the answer of the following. 4
Write advantages and limitations of quinhydrone electrode.

i) Discuss the electroplating equipments.
ii) Describe photovoltaic cell with suitable diagram.
iii) Discuss the applications of flame photometry.

i) Explain different types of conductivity cells used for measurement of
conductance.
ii) Describe in detail the classical and analytical methods for locating end points
by potentiometric technique.

*SLRC217* SLR-C – 217
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (Old) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS
Partial Differential Equations (Special Paper – XII)

1) The general solution of the differential equation yzp + zxq = xy is
_____________
a) φ (x 2 − z2 , y 2 + 4z) = 0 b) φ (x 2 + z 2 , y 2 − 4z) = 0
c) φ (x 2 − z 2 , y − x) = 0 d) φ (x − z, y + x ) = 0
2) If z = f1 (x, a) + f2 (y, a) + b is the complete solution of the equation

_____________
a) f (p, q) = 0 b) f (z, p, q) = 0
c) f (x, p) = 9 (y, q) d) px + qy + f (p, q) = 0
3) The first order partial differential equation
∂z ∂z
( x + y − z) + (3x + 2y ) + 2z = x + y is _____________ equation.
∂x ∂y
a) Linear b) Quasi-linear c) Sem-linear d) Non-linear
4) C.F. of the equation (D2 + 5D D′ + 6 D′2 ) z = 0 is _____________

a) φ1 ( y − 2 x ) + φ2 ( y − 3 x ) b) φ1 ( y + 2 x) + φ2 ( y − 3 x)
c) φ1 ( y − 2 x ) φ φ 2 ( y + 3 x ) d) φ1 ( y + 2 x ) + φ 2 ( y + 3 )
5) If b ≠ 0, then C.F. of the equation of (aD + bD′ + c ) z = 0 is Z = _________

− cy cy
a) e b ψ (ax + by ) b) e b ψ (ay − bx )
− cy
cy
c) e b ψ (ay − bx ) d) e b ψ (ax + by )
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 217 -2- *SLRC217*
6) The complete integral of p + q = 1 is _____________

a) z = ax + (1 – a2) + c b) z = ax + (a – 1)2 y + c
c) z = ax + (1 – a2)y + c d) z = ax + (1 – 2
a) y+c
7) The singular integral of px + qy + 5pq is _____________
a) 5z + x b) 5z + y c) 5z + xy d) z + xy
1 4 5
8) The value of x y is _____________
D′2
x 4y 6 x 5y 5 x 6y 5 x 4y 7
a) b) c) d)
6 6 30 42
9) The particular integral of (D − D′2 ) = e 2 x + 3 y is z = _____________
1 2x + 3y 1 2x − 3y 1 2x + 3y 1 x−y
a) e b) e c) − e d) − e
7 7 7 7
∂2z ∂2z ∂ 2z
10) The equation A + B + C = D is _____________
∂x 2 ∂x∂y ∂y 2
a) Non-homogeneous linear partial differential equation
b) Homogeneous linear partial differential equation
c) Homogeneous linear P.d. equation of order one
d) None of these
1) Eliminate arbitrary constants a and b from z = (x – a)2 + (y – b)2 to form the
partial differential equation.
2) Solve (mz – ny) p + (nx – lz) q = ly – mx.
3) Find the complete integral of pq = 1, by Charpit’s method.
∂z ∂z
4) Show that the differential equations = 5 x − 7y and = 6 x + 8y are not
∂x ∂y
compatible.
*SLRC217* -3- SLR-C – 217
5) Find the complementary function of the equation

(D3 − 6 D2 D′ + 11 D D′2 − 6 D′3 ) z = 0 .
6) Find the complementary function of the equation
(D + D′ − 1) (D + 2 D′ − 2) z = 0 .
1) Form a partial differential equation by eliminating the arbitrary functions
f and g from z = f (x2 – y) + g (x2 + y).
2) Explain the method of solving partial differential equations of the form
∂z ∂z
f (p, q, z) = 0, where p = and q = .
∂x ∂y
3) Solve 2r + 5s + 2t = 0.
B) Solve y2p – xyq = x (z – 2y). 4
⎧(b − c ) ⎫ ⎧ (c − a) ⎫ ⎧ (a − b) ⎫
1) Solve ⎨ ⎬ yzp + ⎨ ⎬ zxq = ⎨ ⎬ xy .
⎩ a ⎭ ⎩ b ⎭ ⎩ c ⎭
2) Find the complete integral, singular solution and general solution of the equation
z = px + qy + pq.
3) If F (D, D′) be homogeneous function of D and D′ of degree n, then
1 1
φ(n) (ax + by ) = φ (ax + by ) , provided F (a, b) ≠ 0, φ(n)
′
F (D, D ) F (a, b)
being the nth derivative of φ w.r.to ax + by.
1) Explain Lagrange’s method of solving Pp + Qq = R where P, Q and R are the
functions of x, y and z and solve p tan x + q tan y = tan z.
2) Explain Charpit’s method of the solving partial differential equation
∂z
f (x, y, z, p, q) = 0, where x and y are independent variable and p =
∂x
∂z
and q = and hence find the complete integral of z = px + qy + p2 + q2.
∂y
_______________
*SLRC218* SLR-C 218
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper XII)
Operations Research and Applied Statistics


i) In a LPP having the objective function in minimization, optimal solution yields the
a) Mean values of z b) Highest value of z
c) Lowest value of z d) Mid values of z
ii) Which of the following is not associated with any LPP ?
a) Feasible solution b) Optimum solution
c) Basic solution d) Quadratic equation
iii) In Graphical solution the feasible solution is any solution to a LPP which
satisfies
a) Only objective function b) Non-negative restriction
c) Only constraint d) All of these
iv) The objective function of Transportation problem is to
a) Maximize the total cost b) Minimize or maximize the total cost
c) Minimize the total cost d) None of these
v) The cells in the Transportation problem can be classified as
a) Assigned and occupied cells b) Occupied and unoccupied cells
c) Unoccupied and empty cells d) None of these
vi) The slack for an activity in network is equal to
a) LS-ES b) LF-LS
c) EF-ES d) EF-LS
P.T.O.
SLR-C 218 -2- *SLRC218*
vii) When there is no defective in the lot, the OC function for p = 0 is
a) L(p) = 0 b) L(p) = 1 c) L(p) =
d) None of these
viii) The probability of accepting a lot with rejectable quality level p is known as
a) Consumers risk b) Type I error
c) Producers risk d) None of these
ix) The solution to a transportation problem with m-sources and n-destinations
is non-degenerate, if the number of allocations are
a) m + n + 1 b) m + n c) m + n 1 d) m × n
x) An assignment problem can be
a) Designed and solved as a transportation problem
b) Of maximization type
c) Solved only if number of rows equals the number of columns
d) All of these

i) Define a LPP.
ii) Define a surplus variable.
iii) What is an unbalanced Assignment Problem ?
iv) Define a critical path.
v) What is a producers risk ?
vi) Define a pessimistic time of an activity.

i) Write mathematical form of Assignment Problem.
ii) Define solution, feasible solution and optimum solution of a L.P.P.
iii) In a Single Sampling Plan if N = 15000, n = 50, c = 2, p = 0.01 and
Pa = 0.986183, then calculate the average outgoing quality.
B) Convert the following L.P.P. in its standard form : 4

Min Z = x1 + 1.5x2
Subject to
x1 + x2
1
100x1 + 10x2
50
10x1 + 100x2
10
x1
0, x2
0
*SLRC218* -3- SLR-C 218

i) Write a procedure of Matrix Minima (Least Cost) method.
ii) The following assignment problem shows the costs of assigning four jobs to
three machines. Determine the optimum assignment schedule.
Machines
!
) & "
Jobs
* ' #
+ ! & '
, " !
iii) Write a procedure of Single Sampling Plan.

i) Find IBFS to the following transportation problem by using Vogels Approximation
Method.
To
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 8
Available
) # ! ! ! "
* ! ! # " #
From
+ $ " " !
, " " '
Demand # % %
ii) A project schedule has the following activities and the time (in days) of
completion of each activity is as follows :
A c t i v i t y ! " ! # " #
T i m e % # $ !
Draw the network diagram. Find the minimum time of completion of the project,
slack time of each activity and critical path.

*SLRC223* SLR-C 223
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2017

Breakthrough

1. A) Choose the correct alternative : 10

1) Who said "Hello, old chap, you got to work, hey" ?
a) Jim b) Ben Rogers
c) Tom d) Billy Fisher
2) Tom promises Jim to give ___________ in exchange of whitewashing
the fence.
a) a jews-harp b) a tin soldier
c) a white alley d) a spool cannon
3) Mathilde does not want to go to the palace at the Ministry for party
because ___________
a) she has no friends
b) she has no car to go by
c) she has no fancy clothes and jewels to wear
d) she is too tired to go
4) Loisel gave Mathilde ___________ to buy a petty dress for the party.
a) four hundred francs b) three hundred francs
c) five hundred francs d) six hundred francs
5) Pyramus and Thisbe live resided in ___________
a) Rome b) Greece c) Sidon d) Babylonia
6) How did Pyramus and Thisbe communicate ?
a) through a crack in the wall
b) by whispering through the windows
c) standing outside
d) via letters and notes P.T.O.
SLR-C 223 -2- *SLRC223*
7) What do maidens grind ?
a) ginger, rosewood, turmeric b) sandalwood, henna, spice
c) beetroot, chilly, mustard d) potatoes, tomatoes, wheat
8) What do magicians chant ?
a) notes into paper b) plate into spoon
c) gold into copper d) spells for the aeons to come
9) Teach me a better strain, a nobler lay,
O Thou, enthroned with ___________ in the realms of day!
a) Cherubs b) God c) Queen d) Virtue
10) According to poet Phillis Wheatley, wisdom is higher than ________
can reach.
a) an angel b) a fool c) a wise d) a man
B) Do as directed : 4
1) My e-mail to Rita bounced back. (Make it a compound sentence)
2) Take care of the pence and the pounds will take care of themselves.
(Change into a complex sentence)
3) She has been cooking all day. (Add a question tag)
4) This is the house. Sachin was born here. (Combine these sentences
using relative adverb)
2. Answer any seven of the following questions in short. 14

1) Compare the myth of Pyramus and Thisbe to Shakespeares Romeo and
Juliet .
2) Do you think that Pyramus, and Thisbe are star-crossed lovers ? Justify
your answer.
3) What action does Pyramus perform when he thinks Thisbe is dead ?
4) Does the story The Necklace have a moral ? What is it ?
5) Do you think that the course of action the Loisels chose after the loss of the
necklace was right ? What other choices were open to them ?
6) Comment briefly on the title of the story The Necklace.
7) Describe the character of Tom in Whitewashing the Fence.
8) What did Toms friends do when they saw him painting the fence ?
*SLRC223* -3- SLR-C 223
1) Compare the bazaar described in the poem In the Bazaars of Hyderabad
with todays shopping malls. What differences do you find between them ?
2) What is the central idea of the poem On Virtue ?
3) What is your own conception of heaven ? How, according to you, can
we attain the kingdom of heaven ?
B) Answer any two of the following : 6
1) Describe the strategies for managing the work stress with a suitable
example.
2) Write an example of a problem you have faced in the past. How did you
solve it ?
3) Write about the biggest change that you had to deal with. How did you
adapt to that change ?
4. Imagine that you are walking through a lovely, dark and deep forest. Write a
detailed description of the forest. 14
OR
Imagine that you are travelling by rail and you come across two orphan girls
begging in the rail. Write an imaginative story of these two begging girls.
5. Read the following passage and write the summary of it. 14

Elimination of illiteracy has been one of the major concerns of our government
since Independence. Illiteracy is a serious obstacle to the establishment of a
social order based on equality. It withholds the development of the individual,
society and the nation.
The position of our country as compared to that of vie literacy today is 90th in the
world of the present trend continues, then we would be entering the twenty-first
century with 55 crore illiterate-55 per cent of the total illiterates in the world or in
other words, India would have a larger body of illiterate people than any other
country in the world.
It was targeted to achieve 100 per cent literacy amongst those in the 15-35 age
group during the Eighth Plan. This means that 10 crore additional people were to
be educated. The Planning Commission in its approach paper to the Ninth Plan
stated, keeping in view the declaration of education as a fundamental right, that
making the nation fully literate by the year 2005 will be the committed goal.
The Hon. Prime Minister had put forward a suggestion that every student should
impart literacy to five persons, including two girls to be able to qualify for the
senior school certificates at the end of the plus-two course.
_____________________
*SLRC224* SLR-C 224
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Special Paper XI)
Electrodynamics

i) Electric field intensity in terms of scalar potential is given by

a) b)

-
-

c) d)

-
-

ii) The trajectory of a charged particle entering an uniform magnetic field is a

a) Straight line parallel to b) Parabola

c) Cycloid d) Circle
iii) The cyclotron frequency ( ) of a charged particle in magnetic field ( )

depends upon
a) Magnetic field strength ( ) b) Specific charge (q/m)

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above

iv) The trajectory of a charged particle in mutually perpendicular crossed electric
and magnetic fields is
a) Cycloid b) Circle c) Helix d) Parabola
v) Self inductance is measured in
a) Ohm b) Farad c) Weber d) Henry
P.T.O.
SLR-C 224 -2- *SLRC224*
vi) Self inductance per unit length of a long solenoid with n turns per unit length
and cross-sectional area A is
a)

n A b) n2A c)

n A
d)

)
vii) Mathematical formulation of empirical laws in electricity and magnetism are

known as
a) Maxwells equations b) Faradays equations
c) Lorentzs equations d) Laplaces equations
viii) Differential form of Amperes circuital law is
a) b) c) d)

c B . d l

I
B

J
) *
*

1
ix) Electric dipole moment per unit volume of polarized medium is called

a) Displacement vector b) Polarization vector

,

c) Magnetization
M

d) Poyntings vector
N
x) Phase velocity of electromagnetic wave in non-conducting material medium

is given by
a) b) c) d)

xi) Propagation constant is given by
a) k = 2 b) c) d)

2
k k
k

2 2
xii) If refractive indices of glass and air are respectively 1.5 and 1 then value of
transmission coefficient at the glass-air interface for normal incidence will be
T=
a) 0.96 b) 0.04 c) 1 d) 1.5
xiii) To obtain total internal reflection, the wave must be incident
a) From denser medium b) From rarer medium
c) Normally d) In any way
xiv) An oscillating charge
a) Radiates b) Does not radiate
c) Nothing can be said d) All of these
*SLRC224* -3- SLR-C 224

i) Write Poissons equation and give meaning of each term.
ii) Explain in brief electromotive force.
iii) Explain Lenzs law.
iv) Define surface current density .

v) State Poyntings theorem.

vi) Sketch the graphical representation of plane electromagnetic wave with usual
notations.
vii) Define reflection coefficient of electromagnetic wave.
viii) What is retarded potential ?

1) State and explain Amperes law.
2) Give an account of total internal reflection.
3) Obtain the expression for total power radiated by an electric dipole.
B) Calculate the radius of circular orbit of an electron of 5 kev in a magnetic field
of 104 T. [Given m = 9.1 × 1031 kg; e = 1.6 × 1019 C and
1 e.v. = 1.6 × 1019 J]. 4

1) Discuss the motion of a charged particle in constant, uniform electric field.
2) State Maxwells equations for vacuum and explain the physical significance
of each equation.

3) Obtain the boundary conditions for electromagnetic field vectors

, , E , B a n d H
at the interface of two media.
1) What is transformer ? Obtain the relation .

N
N

2) Obtain expression for skin depth for good conductor.
For sea water; = 4.2 mho/m at a frequency of 50 kHz. Calculate the skin

depth. Given = 4 × 107 H/m.

_____________
*SLRC225* SLR-C – 225
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (New – CGPA) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper – XI)
Physical Chemistry

4) Use of logarithmic table/scientific calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the most correct alternative and write the sentence : 14

i) Rotational spectra of diatomic molecules are observed in _________ region.
a) Visible b) Far infrared c) Microwave d) X-ray
ii) The energy E0 of a oscillating molecule in its lowest vibration is _________
1 2
a) hc w0 b) hc w 0 c) hcw 0 d) 2 hc w 0
2 3
iii) For rotational transitions selection rule is __________
a) ΔJ = ± 1 b) ΔJ = ± 2 c) ΔJ = ± 3 d) ΔJ = ± 4
iv) Rotational spectrum consists of series of equally spaced lines with a
separation of ___________
a) 4 B b) 3B c) 2B d) 1B
v) The fundamental equation in the spectroscopy is _______
a) ΔV = hν b) ΔJ = hν c) ΔS = hν d) ΔE = hν
vi) In the formation of ideal solution, volume is exactly _____________ to the
sum of the volumes of the components.
a) Half b) Double c) Equal d) Unequal
vii) Liquid mixture which boils at constant temperature without change in its
composition is called ___________ mixture.
a) Zeotropic b) Azeotropic c) Fractional d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 225 -2- *SLRC225*
viii) The equation Wmax = RT ln Kp + Δ n RT represents _________

a) Gibbs-Helmholtz equation b) Van’t-Hoff isochore
c) Clapeyron equation d) Van’t-Hoff isotherm
ix) At constant pressure and temperature change in free energy for non-spontaneous
process is ____________
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) None of these
⎛ dΔG ⎞
x) The equation ΔG = ΔH + T⎜ ⎟ represents ___________ equation.
⎝ dT ⎠P
a) Arrhenius b) Kirchhoff’s
c) Gibb’s-Helmholtz d) Clapeyron
xi) mol – 2 (dm3)2 sec – 1 are the units of __________ order reactions.
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Zero
xii) The half life period of third order reaction is _____________ proportional to
square of the initial concentration of the reactants.
a) Directly b) Inversely c) Indirectly d) None of these
xiii) A + B + C → product is an example of ___________ reaction.
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Pseudo
xiv) Minimum energy required for molecules to react is called __________ energy.
a) Activation b) Potential c) Kinetic d) Nuclear

i) What is isotopic effect in diatomic molecules ?
ii) What are the applications of rotational spectra ?
iii) Define ideal and non ideal solutions.
iv) Discuss vapour pressure of ideal solutions.
v) Define fugacity and activity of a substance.
vi) What is law of mass action ?
vii) What do you mean by chain reactions ?
viii) Discuss the temperature coefficient.
ix) What are side reactions ?
*SLRC225* -3- SLR-C – 225

i) Describe in brief rotational spectra of diatomic molecules.
ii) Discuss the distillation of solutions with the system having boiling point
maximum.
iii) Explain collision theory of energy of activation.
B) One mole of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from a
pressure of 2.295 N-m – 2 to 0.749 N-m– 2. Calculate the change in free energy
for the process. (R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1). 4

i) What are partially miscible liquids ? Explain with an example the partially
miscible liquids with maximum consolute temperature.
ii) Derive thermodynamically Van’t Hoff reaction isotherm.
iii) Explain Arrhenius’s equation and derive the equation of energy of activation.

i) Explain in detail the vibrational spectra of diatomic molecules.
ii) The equilibrium constant Kp for a reaction at 643 K is 3.3 × 10–4 and at
703 K is 8.6 × 10–5. Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction
(R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1).
iii) Derive an expression for third order reactions. What are the units of third
order reaction ? Give example of third order reaction.
_____________________
*SLRC226* SLR-C 226
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

BOTANY (Special Paper XI)
Microbiology and Plant Pathology

III) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative. (1×14=14)

1) Separation of microbes from the mixed culture is known as
a) Isolation b) Incubation c) Dilution d) None of these
2) A culture that contains unknown ingredients is called as __________ medium.
a) Artificial b) Natural c) Synthetic d) Semisynthetic
3) Serial dilution method helps to __________ the microbes.
a) Sterilize b) Isolate c) Incubate d) None of these
4) Prokaryotic microbes include
a) Bacteria b) Mycoplasma c) BGA d) All the above
5) In microbial fermentation, useful __________ are generally used.
a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Mycoplasma d) Both a) and b)
6) Bangadi disease is the example of __________ disease.
a) Bacterial b) Viral c) Fungal d) Phytoplasma
7) __________ is the third largest alcohol producer in the world.
a) India b) Iran c) Kenya d) China
8) Grain smut of jowar disease is caused by __________ sp.
a) Sclerospora b) Sphecelotheca
c) Colletotrichum d) Cercospora
P.T.O.
SLR-C 226 -2- *SLRC226*
9) In India, __________ percent of milk is converted into dairy products.

a) 90 b) 47 c) 70 d) 80
10) Shoyu sauce is the famous food of
a) India b) China
c) Japan d) Both b) and c)
11) Alexander Fleming discovered the famous drug penicillin in
a) 1947 b) 1927 c) 1948 d) 1930
12) Idly is prepared by fermentation from
a) Rice b) Black gram
c) Peanuts d) Both a) and b)
13) There occurs excessive cell divisions and enlargement is the __________
symptoms.
a) Necrotic b) Hypertrophy c) Atrophy d) All the above
14) Curd contains about __________ different antibiotics which are useful for
stomach disorders.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 35

I) Define plant pathogen.
II) Write symptoms of anthracnose of bean.
III) What is incubation ?
IV) Define pesticides.
V) Name any two fungi involved in citric acid production by fermentation.
VI) Define mycoplasma.
VII) Write uses of Gibberellic acid.
VIII) Give the control measures of Tikka disease.
IX) What is seed dressing ?
*SLRC226* -3- SLR-C 226

I) Explain the chemical sterilization studied by you.
II) Give the symptoms and control measures of Bangadi disease of potato.
III) Describe the classification of culture media based on chemical composition.
B) Write the isolation of fungi by serial dilution method. 4

I) Describe the general characters of algae as microbes.
II) Classify plant diseases based on necrotic symptoms.
III) Explain the method of preparation of cheese and uses.

I) Give the symptoms, causal organism and control measures of green ear
disease of bajra.
II) Describe the sources and uses of mycopesticides.
III) Give the method of production of alcohol by fermentation and state its uses.
___________
*SLRC227* SLR-C – 227
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – XI) (New CGPA)
Physiology
N.B. 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Complete the sentence selecting appropriate answer. 14
1) The emulsification of fat is carried by ______________ juice.

a) Bile b) Intestinal c) Gastric d) Pancreatic
2) Blood pressure in healthy person is ______________ mmhg.

a) 90/60 b) 120/80
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
3) One cardiac cycle required ______________ time.

a) 0.4 sec b) 0.2 sec
c) 0.3 sec d) 0.8 sec
4) Hamberger phenomenon is called ______________ Shift.

a) Phosphate b) Nitrate
c) Chloride d) Carbonate
5) O2 is carried from lung to each cell of human body in combination with

_____________
a) Haemoglobin b) Heparin
c) Melanin d) Tannin
6) _____________ is called antisterility vitamin.

a) Vit K b) Vit E
c) Vit A d) Vit D
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 227 -2- *SLRC227*
7) Middle part of kidney is called _____________
a) Cortex b) Medulla
c) Hylns d) Calyx
8) In an ideal man the systolic blood pressure is _____________ mmhg.

a) 100 b) 80 c) 120 d) 140
9) The origin of heart beat from SA node which is also known as ___________
a) Pacemaker b) Dialyzer c) Autolyzer d) Knob
10) Mammalian urine is ______________ to the blood.

a) Isotonic b) Hypotonic
c) Hypertonic d) Dilute
–
11) The movements of Cl from plasma into RBCs in the capillary is known as
______________
a) Chloride shift b) Sodium Shift
c) Potassium shift d) Na+ and K+ shift
12) Exchange of O2 and CO2 at respiratory surface occurs through ___________

a) Diffusion b) Osmosis
c) Active transport d) Passive transport
13) Sliding filament theory of muscle contraction firstly proposed by ____________

a) H.E. Huxley and Hanson b) Necolson
c) Watson d) Robertson
14) _______________ used when kidney function failed.

a) Pacemaker b) Dialyzer
c) Stethoscope d) Cytometer

i) Define neuron.
ii) Describe pacemaker.
iii) Riboflavin.
iv) Define glucogenesis.
v) Diagram of ECG.
*SLRC227* -3- SLR-C – 227
vi) Physiological role of vitamin E.
vii) Transamination.
viii) Dialysis.
ix) Diagram of nerve cell.

i) Vitamin D sources and importances.
ii) Structure of malpighian body.
iii) Cardiac cycle.
B) Give in detailed structure of striated muscle. 4
4. Answer Any two of the following : 14

i) Describe Kreb’s cycle.
ii) Describe normal composition of urine.
iii) Describe the origin and conduction of heart beat.
5. Answer Any two of the following : 14

i) Describe the process of gastric digestion.
ii) Discuss vitamin A- Sources, physiological importance and deficiency.
iii) What is respiration ? How the transport of O2 is carried out in human body ?
––––––––––––––––––––
*SLRC228* SLR-C 228
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper No. XI)
Metric Spaces
N.B : i) All questions are compulsory.

1. Choose correct alternatives for each of the following : 14

1) If
is metric on M then 2
is __________ on M.
a) metric b) metric space c) discrete metric d) usual metric
2) If is convergent sequence converging to _________ in R with the usual

1

metric.
3) If a Cauchy sequence has a convergent subsequence, then whole sequence
is
a) divergent b) convergent c) both a) and b) d) none of these
4) A subset A of X is said to be bounded if there exists a positive real number M
such that
a) d ( x , y ) M x , y A
b) d ( x , y ) M , x , y A
c) d ( x , y ) M x , y A
d) d ( x , y ) M x , y A
5) Finite intersection of open sets of metric space is

a) open b) closed c) open and closed d) none of these
6) The real valued function f is continuous at = 4

if
a) f

( B [ a ; ] ) B [ f ( a ) ; ]
b) f

( B [ f ( a ) ; ] ) B [ a ; ]
c) f

( B [ f ( a ) ; ] B [ a ; ]
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 228 -2- *SLRC228*
7) Let A [ 0 , 1 ) R

then A is
a) open b) closed
c) neither open nor closed d) none of these
8) The metric space <M, > the map
T : M M
is contraction on M is
a) ( T
N
, T
O
) ( x , y )
for
b) ( T
N
, T
O
) ( x , y )
for
c) ( T
N
, T
O
) ( x , y )
for
d) None of these
9) Every compact metric space is
a) complete and not bounded b) complete and not totally bounded
c) complete and totally bounded d) none of these
10) The complement of closed set is
a) closed b) empty c) open d) closed and open
11) If f is a continuous one to one map then f1 is
a) continuous b) need not be continuous
c) open d) closed
12) The union of any finite number of closed set is
a) closed b) open c) open and closed d) none of these
13) The closed subset of complete metric space is
a) compact b) complete c) closed d) open
14) If A and B are compact subset of R, then A x B is
a) compact subset of R2 b) compact subset of R
c) open subset of R2 d) open subset of R

1) Prove that a convergent sequence has a unique limit.
2) Show that every singlton set in R is closed.
*SLRC228* -3- SLR-C 228
3) Prove that the interval [a, b) neither open nor closed.
4) If is defined as Tx = x2 where then prove that T is

1

x 0 ,
T : x x

contraction on .
1

0 ,

5) Define totally bounded set.

6) Show that every finite subset of metric space is totally bounded.
7) Let E be a closed and bounded then set E in R with absolute value metric then
prove that it is compact.
8) If A is a closed subset of compact metric space (x, d) then prove that the
metric space (A, d) is compact.
9) Let A be subset of metric space ( M , )

, if ( A , )
is compact then prove that A
is closed subset of ( M , )
.
1) Let ( M , )
be metric space and let a be point in M. If l
N
i

m
=
f ( x ) L
and
N
i

m
=
g ( x ) N
then prove that l i m ( f ( x ) . g ( x ) ) L . N .

N =
2) If x = (x1, x2), y = (y1, y2) are any two points in R2 we can define metric
( x , y ) m a x

x

y

, x y

. Prove that ( R , )
is metric space.
3) If f and g are real valued function, if f is continuous at a and g is continuous

at f (a). Prove that gof is continuous at a.
B) If E is any subset of metric space M, then prove that -

is closed. 4
1) If G1 and G2 are open subset of metric space M, then prove that /

/ is
also open.
2) Prove that R2 is complete metric space.
3) Let be complete metric space, if T is contraction on M, then prove that

( M , )
their is one and only one point x in M such that Tx = x.

SLR-C 228 -4- *SLRC228*
1) Let be complete metric space for each

( M , ) N I
. Let Fn be the closed and
bounded subset of M, such that
a) F

F
2
F
3
. . . . . . F
n
F
n 1
. . . . . .
b) d i a F
n
0 a s n then prove that

n 1
.
n
contains precisely one point.
2) If F1 and F2 are closed subset of metric space M, then prove that F1 U F2 is

closed.
3) State and prove Schwartz Inequality theorem.
______________
*SLRC229* SLR-C 229
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper XI)
Statistical Inference II


1) If it is known that 95% LCL and UCL to population mean are 48.04 and 51.96
respectively. What is the value of population variance when the sample size
is 100 ?
a) 64 b) 100 c) 144 d) 200
2) If (1 ) is increased, the width of confidence interval is

a) decreased b) increased
c) constant d) cannot be determined
3) A wrong decision about null hypothesis leads to
a) Type I error b) Type II error
c) Both a) and b) d) Cannot be determined
4) The power function of a test is related to
a) Type I b) Type II
5) Critical region provides us the criteria for ______________ of null hypothesis.
a) Acceptance b) Rejection c) No decision d) None of these
6) In a random variable X has N( ,
2), then which of the following is a simple

null hypothesis ?
a)
=0 b) < 0

c)
>0 d)
0
7) Neyman-pearson lemma provides
a) an unbiased test b) most powerful test
c) an admissible test d) minimax test
P.T.O.
SLR-C 229 -2- *SLRC229*
8) The UMP criterion gives the BCR for testing.

a) simple H0 against simple H1
b) simple H0 against composite H1
c) composite H0 against composite H1
d) any type of hypothesis
9) The choice of one tailed or two tailed test depends on
a) null hypothesis b) alternative hypothesis
c) both a) & b) d) none of these
10) Which of the following statement is false ?
a) Parametric test are not applicable to nominal data
b) NP-lemma provides MP-test
c) In SPRT the size of sample is random
d) Mann Whitney test is parametric test
11) Range of likelihood ratio test statistics is
a) ( , )

b) (0, )
c) ( 1, 1) d) (0, 1)
12) If there are 16 symbols of two types in number the minimum possible number
of runs is,
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
13) Ordinary sign test consider the difference of observed values from the
hypothetical median value in terms of
a) signs only b) magnitudes only
c) sign and magnitude both d) none of the above
14) Randomness of a sequence through runs test is decided by comparing the
observed no. of runs with
a) Z value b) t value
c) two critical values d) none of the above

1) Define a simple and composite hypothesis.
2) Define power of a test.
3) State properties of likelihood ratio.
4) What are the merits of nonparametric tests ?
5) What is confidence interval ?
6) What are the critical values of SPRT tests ?
*SLRC229* -3- SLR-C 229
7) What is the test statistics for Wilcoxons signed-Rank test ?

8) Obtain confidence interval for population mean when sample if size 100 is
drawn from N( ,25) with 5% level of significance.


1) A sample of size n from normal distribution N( , ) with 2 2 = 4.95%
confidence interval for was computed from above sample. Find the

value of n if the confidence interval is (9.02, 10.98).

2) Explain in short the sign test for paired sample.
3) Let x 1, x 2 , ....., x n be a random sample from a distribution with pdf
f(x, ) = x 1 0 < x < 1 obtain the best critical region for testing H0 : = 1

against H1 : = 2.
B) An urn contains 10 marbles of which

are white and the rest are black. To
test the hypothesis. 4
H0 : = 5 against H1 : = 4 the following test is suggested. Take two marbles

at random without replacement and reject H0 if they are of different colours.

Determine the size of the critical region.

1) Show that the likelihood ratio test leads to t-test for testing
H0 : = 0 , 0 < 2< against H1 : 2< 2)
0, 0< in case of N( ,

distribution where
0 is specified.
2) State and prove Neyman Pearson Lemma.
3) Explain Median Test for two independent samples.

1) Obtain SPRT for testing H0 :
=
0 against H1:
=
1 Where
is a parameter
of Poisson distribution.
2) Obtain 100(1 ) % confidence interval for

/
when two independent
random samples of sizes m and n drawn from N( 1, ) and N( 2, ) 1, 2

are unknown.

3) Define UMP test. Construct a UMP test of size a for testing H0: = 0 against
H1: > 0 based on a sample of size n from an exponential distribution with

parameter .

*SLRC230* SLR-C – 230
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

GEOLOGY
(Special Paper – XI)
Crystallography, Principles of Stratigraphy and Earth’s History

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the given options. 14
1) There are ______________ elements of symmetry to describe any crystal.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 1
2) Angle between two adjacent faces is ______________ angle.

a) Apex b) Interfacial
c) Acute d) Obtuse
3) Two faces of a crystal meets to form an ______________

a) Corner b) Solid angle
c) Center d) Edge
4) Faces of pyramid essentially ______________ the vertical axis.

a) Parallels b) Cuts
c) Horizontal d) Equals
5) Hexagonal Prism has ______________ faces.

a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 230 -2- *SLRC230*
6) The form with indices (011) is ______________

a) Brachy dome b) Macro-dome
c) Pyramid d) Prism
7) A broad unit which comprises of a thick succession of rock formations, covering

a regional surface of earth is called as a ______________
a) Group b) Member
c) Formation d) Bed
8) Principle of stratigraphy, ‘Uniformitarianism’ was presented by ______________

a) James Hutton b) William Smith
c) James Watt d) Sir Steno
9) The largest time unit in the Geological Time Scale is ______________

a) Era b) Eon
c) Phase d) Bed
10) James Hutton presented the ______________ principle of stratigraphy.

a) Order of super position b) Uniformitarianism
c) Faunal succession d) Time
11) Fossils with distinct morphology, short lifetime and wide geographic distribution
are ______________
a) Index fossil b) Old fossil
c) Microfossil d) Nano-fossil
12) Smallest Litho-stratigraphic unit is ______________

a) Member b) Formation
c) Group d) Bed
13) Largest Litho-stratigraphic unit is ______________

a) Formation b) Group
c) Bed d) Member
14) Stratigraphic unit member’ is sub-classified into ______________

a) Formation b) Group
c) Bed d) Member
*SLRC230* -3- SLR-C – 230

1) What is lithostratigraphy ?
2) What is Unconformity ?
3) What is solid angle of crystal ?
4) Describe pinacoid.
5) Draw and describe tris-octahedron.
6) What is solid angle of crystal ?
7) What is Eon ?
8) Define age.
9) What is stage ?

1) Define and describe dihexagonal prism.
2) Define and describe 1st and 2 nd order pyramids of Orthorhombic System.
3) Describe axes characteristics of Hexagonal System Models.
B) Write answer of any one of the following : 4
1) Describe Trapezohedron, draw figure.
2) Describe use of marker bed in stratigraphy.

4) Describe in detail the elements of symmetry of Tetragonal System.
5) Describe in details Prisms of Hexagonal System Crystals. Draw neat diagrams.
6) Describe the principle of uniformitaranism. Give example.

1) Define Octahedron Draw Hex-octa hedron and describe it.
2) Describe the Geological Time Scale.
3) Draw diagram showing correlation of rocks with the help of Index Fossil, explain it.
___________________
*SLRC231* SLR-C 231
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY (New)
Special Paper XI : Microbial Genetics

1) During transcription synthesis of mRNA takes place in ________ direction.
A) !

#
B) #

!

C) Both 3

5

; 5

3
D) Right to left
2) Mutations arising from insertion or deletion of nucleotides are called

A) Suppressor mutations B) Base pair substitutions
C) Frame shift mutations D) Spontaneous mutations
3) When two mutations in a region of DNA cause negative Cis-trans test that
region is called
A) muton B) cistron C) replicon D) gene
4) Folded fibre model of E.coli chromosome was proposed by

A) Pettijohn & Hetcht B) John Cains
C) Worcel D) Hershy & Chase
5) Helix unwinding during DNA replication is accomplished by

A) DNA helicase B) DNA gyrase
C) DNA polymerase I D) DNA polymerase II
6) DNA replication by semiconservative mode in E.coli was experimentally proved

by
A) Watson and Crick B) Meselson and Stahl
C) Zinder and Lederberg D) Delbruck
P.T.O.
SLR-C 231 -2- *SLRC231*
7) Maxam and Gilbert method is used for

A) DNA finger printing B) DNA sequencing
C) Gene mapping D) Gene cloning
8) The plasmid vectors that are specifically designed to replicate in two different
hosts are called
A) Cosmid B) Plasmid C) Shuttle vector D) Replacement vector
9) Lac-operon has _________ genes.
A) z, y and a B) x, y and z C) z, x and y D) z, y and b
10) _________ enzyme removes phosphate group from 5 end of DS/SS DNA or
RNA.
A) Acid phosphatase B) Phosphatidyl transferase
C) Alkaline phosphatase D) Exonuclease
11) _________ type of gel electrophoresis most commonly used for separation of
large DNA fragments.
A) PAGE B) SDS PAGE C) Agarose D) 2D PAGE
12) DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by
A) Francis crick B) H. Khurana C) Alec Jeffrey D) James Watson
13) Genetic complementation test in the rII region of phage T4 developed by
A) S. Benzer B) S. Altman C) Griffith D) Watson
14) For DNA fingerprinting _________ used as marker.
A) RAPD B) AFLP C) VNTR D) RFLP

i) What are macrolesions ?
ii) What is recombinant DNA ?
iii) Define Cosmid.
iv) What is Electrophoresis ?
v) What are adapters ?
vi) What are frame shift mutations ?
vii) What is cAMP ? Give its significance.
viii) What is intergenic suppression ?
ix) Give the mode of action of DNA polymerase I.
*SLRC231* -3- SLR-C 231

a) Draw a labelled diagram of pBR322.
b) Discuss in detail positive regulation of Lac operon.
c) Give brief account of missense mutations.
B) Write briefly on Applications of protein engineering. 4

i) Discuss briefly the Cis Trans test.
ii) Give brief account of DNA finger printing.
iii) What is role of Sigma factor of RNA polymerase ? Discuss in detail Mechanism
of transcription.
5. Write in short on any two of the following : 14

i) Discuss briefly structural organization of E.coli chromosome.
ii) Discuss briefly Phenotypic lag.
iii) Describe briefly the mechanism of DNA replication.
_______________
*SLRC232* SLR-C 232
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS
Power Electronics (Special Paper XI)

4) Use of logarithmic table and calculator is allowed.

i) Power BJT is ________________ controlled device.
a) Current b) Voltage
c) Field d) Both a) and b)
ii) In case of power diode, reverse recovery time is defined as the time between
instant diode current becomes zero and reverse recovery time decays to
a) 25% Irr b) Zero c) 15% Irr d) 10% Irr
iii) A conducting GTO can be turn off by applying a ____________ to it.
a) Negative gate current b) Positive gate current
iv) Series connections of SCRs is used to improve ______________ ratings.
a) Current b) Voltage
v) Latching current is always ____________ than the holding current.
a) Less b) Greater
vi) A freewheeling diode is used in controlled rectifier in case of ________ load.
a) a resistive b) a capacitive
c) an inductive d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 232 -2- *SLRC232*
vii) In half wave controlled rectifiers the load power can be controlled in only
______________ of the input ac supply.
a) 90° b) 180° c) 270° d) 360°
viii) _______________ is used for DC power to AC power conversion.
a) Inverter b) Chopper c) Rectifier d) Amplifier
ix) The dutycycle of chopper is
6 6 6
a) Ton + Toff b) c) d)
6
o n o n o f f
o f f
6 6 6
6
o n o f f o f f
o n
x) SMPS means ________________ power supply.

a) Single Mode b) Switched Mode
c) Series Mode d) Shunt Mode
xi) A PUT is generally used in
a) A rectifier circuit b) Power amplifier
c) Sawtooth oscillator d) All of these
xii) ______________ is a heart of inverter.
a) Oscillator b) Step up transformer
c) Rectifier d) Filter
xiii) _____________ is used to convert DC power to DC power.
a) Chopper b) Inverter c) Oscillator d) Amplifier
xiv) If firing angle is then conduction angle in case of SCR is ___________
degrees.
a) 0 b) 90 c) 180 d) 180-

i) Explain need of heat sink.
ii) Draw equivalent circuit of IGBT.
iii) Why controlled rectifiers are used ?
iv) State typical applications of inverter.
v) Define chopper.
*SLRC232* -3- SLR-C 232
vi) Draw the constructional diagram and symbol of PUT.
vii) State advantages of power diode.
viii) Draw the output waveforms of single phase half wave rectifier with inductive
load.
ix) State the principle of DC motor.

i) Explain class A commutation method for SCR.
ii) Explain protection circuit for @ L
@ J
of SCR.
iii) Write a short note on UPS.
B) Explain working of series inverter. 4

i) Explain construction and switching characteristics of power MOSFET.
ii) Describe single phase half wave controlled rectifier with inductive load.
iii) Explain working of Mc Murray Bedford inverter.

i) Describe RC triggering method of SCR along with its waveforms.
ii) With the help of neat circuit diagram explain operation of Jones chopper.
iii) Draw circuit diagram of single phase full wave controlled rectifier with resistive
load.
___________
*SLRC233* SLR-C 233
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2017

COMPUTER SCIENCE (Special Paper XI)
Web Technology

1) ___________ method is invoked on the DataAdapter control to load

your generated dataset with data.
a) Load() b) Fill()
c) DataList d) DataBind
2) The first event triggers in an aspx page is ___________

a) Page_Init() b) Page_Load()
c) Page_click() d) Page_Unload()
3) Attribute must be set on a validator control for the validation to work

___________
a) ControlToValidate b) ControlToBind
c) ValidateControl d) Validate
4) An alternative way of displaying text on web page using ___________

a) asp:button b) asp:listitem
c) asp:label d) Asp:Image
5) Default Session data is stored in ASP.Net using ___________
a) StateServer b) Session Object
c) InProcess d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C 233 -2- *SLRC233*
6) ___________ control is used to validate that two fields are equal.

a) RegularExpressionValidator b) CompareValidator
c) equals() method d) RequierdFieldValidator
7) We can have only one Global.asax file per project.
a) Yes b) No
8) The .NET Framework provides a runtime environment called
___________
a) RMT b) CLR
c) RCT d) RC
9) ___________ is the base class from which all Web forms inherits.
a) Master Page b) Page Class
c) Session Class d) None of the Above
10) The default event for textbox control is ___________
a) Textchanged b) CheckedChanged
c) Click d) Command
11) ___________ is the form in which postback occurs.
a) Html b) Web form
c) Win from d) None of these
12) ___________ manages the states in asp.net application.
a) Session and Application object b) View state
c) Cookies d) All
13) The ___________ control provides to display different image on page each
time it is loaded.
a) Repeater b) Image
c) ImageMap d) Adrotator
14) ___________ is an application folder.
a) Bin b) App_theme
c) None d) Both a) and b)
*SLRC233* -3- SLR-C 233

1) Explain Regular Expression Validator.
2) Write short note on CLR.
3) What are Web server controls in ASP.NET ?
4) What are the Asp.net Page structure options ?
5) Explain stored procedure.
6) Explain @Master Directive.
7) List the different Application folders in ASP.NET.
8) Explain Dataset.
9) List various types of server side state management system.
3. A) Answer the following (any two) : 10

1) Explain ASP.NET Page Life Cycle.
2) What is meant by cross page posting explain with example ?
3) Explain login controls.
B) Explain AdRotator control with example. 4

1) Explain various client side state management with example.
2) Explain DataReader and DataAdapter with example.
3) Write a short note on Master page.

1) What are the validation controls available in ASP.NET ? Explain with
example.
2) What is page directives ? Explain different page directives.
3) Explain ASP.Net compilation technique in detail.
_____________________
*SLRC234* SLR-C – 234
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XII)
Material Science

iii) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.

i) Applied force per unit cross sectional area is called
a) Strain b) Stress c) Creep d) Ductility
ii) The dielectric strength is function of
a) Thickness b) Length c) Charge d) None of these
iii) Polymers are long chain organic micromolecule having ________ as a common
element in their structure.
a) Sodium b) Nitrogen c) Chlorine d) Carbon
iv) _________ polymers occurs naturally.
a) Nylon b) Starch c) PVC d) Teflon
v) Ceramics naturally exhibit _____ nature.
a) soft b) hard c) brittle d) elastic
vi) Combination of two or more materials is called ________ material.
a) Composite b) Metal c) Polymer d) Single phase
vii) Ceramics are ________ materials.
a) Organic metallic b) Inorganic non-metallic
c) Inorganic metallic d) Organic non-metallic
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 234 -2- *SLRC234*
viii) The strength of composite is

a) Low b) High c) Zero d) Infinite
ix) 1 nanometer
a) 10–23 m b) 10–12 m c) 10–9 m d) 10–19 m
x) _________ prepared and explained carbon nanotube for first time.
a) Richard Feynmann b) Richard Smalley
c) Eric Drexler d) Sumia Iijima
xi) _________ technique is used o determine the crystal structure of material.
a) SEM b) XRD c) FTIR d) UV-VIS
xii) __________ materials have occupied an important role in bone repairing
material in medical field.
a) Bioactive glasses and glass ceramics
b) Polymers
c) Composites
d) Nanomaterials
xiii) The tanning operations on skin of animal produces
a) Leather b) Cloth c) Wool d) Blood
xiv) Cermets are examples of
a) Micro composites b) Continuous fibre composite
c) Short fibre composite d) Large particle composite

i) Define specific heat.
ii) Define the terms :
a) Hardness b) Fatigue
iii) Define the polymerization mechanism.
iv) Give any four examples of ceramics.
v) What are composites ?
vi) Give any four characteristics of composites.
*SLRC234* -3- SLR-C – 234
vii) Write applications of nanomaterials.

viii) What is biomechanism ?

i) Explain electrical properties of materials.
ii) Give any five applications of polymers.
iii) Write note on ceramic processing.
B) Write note on chemical bath deposition method. 4

i) Explain properties and applications of composite materials.
ii) Discuss various techniques of characterization of nanostructured materials.
iii) Explain classification of biomaterials.

i) Define thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers. Discuss various methods
of Fabrication of polymers in details.
ii) Explain classification of materials in details. Give magnetic and optical
properties of materials.
_______________
*SLRC235* SLR-C – 235
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
Special Paper – XII : Inorganic Chemistry

3) Draw neat labelled diagram whenever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentence : 14
1) Transuranic elements are also called as _________ elements.

a) man made b) lanthanide c) lanthanum d) p-block
2) Actinons have ________ incomplete outermost shells.

a) three b) two c) four d) five
3) In lanthanide series, the differentiating electrons are added in
a) 4f sub shell b) (n – 2) sub shell
c) 3f sub shell d) None of these
4) YBa2Cu3O7 is _________ superconductor.
a) 237 b) 123 c) 231 d) 321
5) When pentavalent impurity is added to silicon crystal _________ type

semiconductor is formed.
a) n – p b) neither n nor p
c) p d) n
6) Crystal structures are

a) fcc b) bcc c) hcp d) all of these
7) Inorganic benzene is
a) Diborane b) Xenondifluride c) Borazine d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 235 -2- *SLRC235*
8) The bond angle in SO3 molecule is

a) 180° b) 109.5° c) 90° d) 120°
9) Diborane is _________ molecule.
a) Electron rich
b) Electron deficient
c) Neither electron rich nor electron deficient
d) None of these
10) Effect of oxygen on corrosion is explained by
a) Whitney principle b) Faraday’s rule
c) Evan’s rule d) Kier’s principle
11) ________ is essential for corrosion.
a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Water
12) Self stifling _________ corrosion.
a) Prevents b) Promotes c) Decreases d) All of these
13) The compound containing at least one metal-carbon bond is
a) Coordinate compound b) Organometallic compound
c) Inorgano metallic compound d) Inorganic polymer
14) In mononuclear carbonyls _________ metal atom is linked with number of
carbonyl groups.
a) one b) two c) more than one d) none of these

1) Write the eletronic configuration of Berkelium and Thorium.
2) What are the applications of superconductors ?
3) Mention any four properties of metallic solids.
4) Draw the structure of YBa2Cu3O7.
5) Distinguish between Diborane and Ethane.
6) Draw the structure of phosphoruspentoxide.
7) Define atmospheric corrosion and immersed corrosion.
8) Write note on oxide film theory.
9) Define the terms :
a) Mononuclear carbonyl b) Terminal carbonyl group.
*SLRC235* -3- SLR-C – 235

1) Explain the separation of lanthanides by ion exchange method.
2) Explain the structure of XeO4.
3) Discuss the structure of alkyl and aryl compounds of Lithium.
B) Discuss electrochemical theory of corrosion. 4

1) Give the detail electronic configuration of lanthanides.
2) Discuss the classification of solids as conductors, insulators and
semiconductors on the basis of band theory.
3) Explain the methods of protection of metals from corrosion.

1) Explain IUPAC nomenclature of super heavy elements with atomic number
greater than 100.
2) What are semiconductors ? Explain extrinsic conductors in detail.
3) Explain the structures of XeF2 and XeF6 with the help of hybridization of the
orbitals and box diagrams.
_______________

*SLRC236* SLR-C 236

Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) Examination, 2017

BOTANY (New) (CGPA)
Systematics of Angiosperms (Special Paper XII)

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative. 14

1) Bennettitalean theory was proposed by ______.
a) Saporta and Marion b) Thomas
c) Stebbins d) Gaussen
2) Engler and Prantel system of classification of angiosperms is _____
a) Natural b) Artificial
c) Phylogenetic d) None of these
3) Dumb-bell shaped stomata occurs in _______type.
a) Dicotyledons b) Monocotyledons
4) _________ cells plays a role of nutrition.
a) Epidermis b) Endothecium
c) Tapatum d) Sporogenous tissue
5) In Bisporic embryo sac, the egg apparatus is made up of _______ cells.
6) The typical embryo sac is made up of ______ cells.
a) Three b) Five c) Seven d) Nine
7) Coenomegaspores occurs in ____ embryo sac.
a) Monosporic b) Tetrasporic c) Bisporic d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 236 -2- *SLRC236*
8) In typical anther, there are _____ microsporangia.
9) The flowers pollinated by insects are called as _______.

a) Malcophelous b) Ornithophelous
c) Entemophelous d) Hydrophelous
10) _____ is the endospermic seed.

a) Jowar b) Castor
c) Groundnut d) None of these
11) The entry of pollen tube in ovule through integument, is known as _____
a) Chalazogamy b) Mesogamy
c) Progamy d) None of these
12) Free nuclear divisions occurs in ______ type of endosperm.

a) Helobial b) Cellular c) Nuclear d) None of these
13) The fruit of Citrus is ______ type.

a) Hypanthodium b) Hespiridium
c) Berry d) Drup
14) Citrus reticulate belongs to family ____.

a) Ranunculaceae b) Myrtaceae
c) Rubiaceae d) Rutaceae

i) Mention the advanced characters of flower.
ii) What is meant by archesporium ?
iii) Describe nutritive role of tapatum.
iv) Sketch and label the circinotropous ovule.
v) Mention the economic importance of Cucurbitaceae.
vi) What is meant by self sterility ?
vii) Sketch and label dicotyledonous stomata.
viii) Mention any endospermic seed.
ix) Give the correct botanical name of Tulasi.
*SLRC236* -3- SLR-C 236

i) Describe Gnetalean theory.
ii) Describe the nuclear endosperm development.
iii) Describe the role of cytology in relation with taxonomy.
B) Give merits and demerits of Engler and Prantls system of classification. 4

i) Describe the process of double fertilization with its significance.
ii) Describe the bisporic embryo sac development with suitable example.
iii) Mention the economic important plants to Capparidaceae with uses.

i) What is meant by microsporogenesis ? Add a note on development of male
gametophyte.
ii) Describe the water dispersal mechanism in fruits.
iii) Give the distinguishing characters of any one of the following families and
mention one plant of economic importance from it.
a) Myrtaceae b) Cannaceae.
_________________
*SLRC237* SLR-C 237
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017
ZOOLOGY
Special Paper XII : Endocrinology, Environmental Biology and Toxicology

1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct answer from given

alternatives : 14
1) Mytilus an intertidal rocky shore marine molluscan fauna has _______
adoption to its habitat.
a) Plough like foot b) Byssal threads
c) Chitin plate d) Hooked oral arms
2) Under Secretion of Adrenal cortex causes ________
a) Sterility b) Addisons c) Cretinism d) Dwarfism
3) Conservations of animal and plants in Zoos, Botanical gardens and laboratories
is known as _________
a) In-Situ b) Ex-Situ c) In Exo d) Ex vivo
4) Excess intake of substance than organisms ability to remove it from the
body is known as __________
a) Contamination b) Bio accumulation
c) Bidynamics d) Bioremediation
5) Exophthalmic goiter is due to __________
a) Hypo secretion of thyroxin b) Hyper secretion of thyroxin
c) Hypo secretion of calcitonin d) Hyper secretion of calcitonin
P.T.O.
SLR-C 237 -2- *SLRC237*
6) Glucagon is secreted by _____________
a)
-Alpha Cell of Islets b)
-Beta Cell of Islets

c)
-Gamma Cell of Islets d)
-Rho Cell of Islets

7) Number of sweat glands in skin of ____________ Mammals much reduced to
avoid water loss through surface.
a) Aquatic b) Wet land
c) Glacier d) Desert
8) ___________ Gland is both exocrine and endocrine gland.
a) Pituitary b) Parathyroid
c) Thyroid d) Pancreas
9) The number of species in a specified area is called __________ diversity.
a) Alfa b) Beta
c) Gama d) Deta
10) The most important reason for decrease in biodiversity is ______________
a) Introduction of exotic species b) Habitat pollution
c) Over evaporation d) Habitat destruction
11) Endemic species are _______________
a) Rare species
b) Species located in the specific region
c) Cosmopolitan in distribution
d) Critically endangered
12) _____________ are the species that can be used to monitor health of an
environment or ecosystem.
a) Ectodegreder b) Biological indicators
c) Ecodestructor d) Biodenatures
13) _____________ is a heavy metal toxicant.
a) DDT b) Malathion c) Endosulphan d) Cadmium
14) Parathormone regulates ______________
a) Increase in blood sugar level b) Decrease in serum calcium level
c) Increase in serum calcium level d) Decrease in blood sugar level
*SLRC237* -3- SLR-C 237
i) Hypo thyroidism.
ii) Grass land habitat.
iii) Heavy metal toxicants.
iv) Biodiversity.
v) Osteoporosis.
vi) Adaptation in desert animals.
vii) Parathormone.
viii) TRH.
ix) Pesticide toxicants.

i) Functions of parathyroid hormone.
ii) Conservation of GIB.
iii) Applications of Toxicology.
B) Rain water harvesting. 4
i) Bio magnification.
ii) Functions of thyroid hormones.
iii) Solid waste management.
i) Describe the characteristics and faunal adaptation of marine water habitat.
ii) Write detail account on histological structure and functions of hormones of
Adrenal gland.
iii) Discuss the functions and disorders of hormones of Islets of Langarhans.
_____________________
*SLRC238* SLR-C 238
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper No. XII)
Numerical Analysis
Instructions : 1) Use of scientific calculator are allowed.


1) If
=
a) b)
c)
d) None of these
2) If the interval of differencing of unity, then =

"
N N ! N
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
3) Given x = 1 2 3 then B
f(x) = 3 8 15
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
4) The value of
n
A
x
______________ the interval of differencing being 1.

a) (e + 1)n ex b) (e 1)n ex c) ex d) nex
5) If y = x2 2x + 2 taking interval differencing as unity O
=
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 0
6) Interpolation is the technique of estimate the value of a function for any
a) Intermediate value of the constant
b) Intermediate value of the variable
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 238 -2- *SLRC238*
7) If y(1) = 4, y(3) = 12, y(4) = 19, find y(x) = 7, find x using Lagranges formula
a) 1.857 b) 1.758 c) 1.578 d) 1.587
8) The exact value of =

@ N
N
a) 1.2056 b) 1.4506 c) 1.5406 d) 1.6540
J D
9) Simsons rule is obtained by n = __________ in general quadrature

!

&

formula.
10) To find value of 2nd order derivative at the tabulated point the value of p is
@ O

11) The expansion for
@ N

using backward difference is

N N
d y 1 1 1

a)
3
y y y . . .
n n n
d x n 2 3

d y 1 1 1

b)
3
y y y . . .
n n n
d x n 2 3
d y 1 1

c)
3
n y y y . . .
n n n
d x 2 3

d y 1 1

d)
3
n y y y . . .
n n n
d x 2 3
12) If

,

,

are real an equal roots then C.F. =
a) b)
n
n n n
c c n c n ( )
? ? ?
1 2 3 1
1 1 2 1 3 1
c) c
1
c
2
n c
3
n
2
(
1
)
n
d) None of these
*SLRC238* -3- SLR-C 238
13) If (E 1) (E + 2) (E 3) = 0 then un =
a) un = c1(1)n + c2(2)n + c3(3)n b) un = c1(1)n + c2(2)n + c3(3)n
c) un = c1(1)n + c2(2)n + c3(3)n d) None of these
14) The particular integral of (E2 4E + 3)yn = 5n is
a) P.I = 5n b) P.I = c) d)
& #

&
n n
& #
# &
1) Evaluate c o s 2 x
.

2) With usual notation prove that .

- -

3) Prove that , the interval of differencing being h.

E e
N N

e e .

e

4) State Newtons backward interpolation formula.

5) State Lagranges interpolation formula for unequal interval.
6) Solve y
n 1
2 y
n
c o s y
n
0
.
7) Solve .
n
O # O $ O "
n 2 n 1 n
8) State Trapezoidal rule.

9) State Newtons-cotes quadrature formula.
1) Prove that .

"

2) Find the polynomial f(x) by using Lagranges formula and hence find f(4)
x: 0 1 2 5
f(x) : 2 3 12 147

3) Evaluate using Simpsons rule.

H @
@ N

N
B) Solve O
N
! O
N
O
N
O
N

. 4
SLR-C 238 -4- *SLRC238*
1) Solve .
N N
y 4 y 4 y 3 . 2 5 . 4
N N N
2) If x : 1.0 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6

f(x) : 7.989 8.403 8.781 9.129 9.451 9.750 10.031
Find and at x = 1.1 and x = 1.6.

@ O @ O
@ N
@ N
3) Using Newtons backward difference formula, construct an interpolating

polynomial of degree three for the data.
f(0.75) = 0.718125, f(0.5) = 0.02475, f(0.25) = 0.3349375, f(0) = 1.10100.
Hence find f .


H @
1) State and prove Simsons rule.

2) State and prove Newtons forward interpolation formula.

3) Prove that with usual notation
a) ) =2+ .

- -

b) .
1 5

y n 1 . . . y
n 1 n

2 1 2
___________
*SLRC239* SLR-C 239
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (New) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017

STATISTICS
Design of Experiments (Special Paper XII)

1. Select most correct alternative. 14

i) An experimental unit in DOE is
a) an animal b) a field plot
c) a group of insects d) all of these
ii) RBD has
a) two-way classification b) one-way classification
c) three-way classification d) no classification
iii) Local control in DOE is to
a) reduce experimental error b) form homogeneous blocks
c) increase efficiency of design d) all of these
iv) CRD is
a) restricted design b) non-restricted design
c) unsystematic design d) none of these
v) Missing value in an experiment is estimated by
a) ANCOVA b) minimising the error mean square
vi) If different effects are confounded in different blocks then it is said to be
a) complete confounding b) balanced confounding
c) partial confounding d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 239 -2- *SLRC239*
vii) RBD is more efficient than CRD unless.

a) block variation is zero b) block variation is greater than zero
c) block variation is less than zero d) none of these
viii) A split plot design can involve only
a) two factors b) three factors c) one factor d) none of these
ix) In RBD with 4 blocks and 3 treatments, the error degrees of freedom are
a) 12 b) 6 c) 9 d) 11
x) The experiments which involve more than one factor are called
a) simple experiments b) balanced experiments
c) factorial experiments d) none of these
xi) In LSD, the number of rows, columns and treatments are
a) all different b) always equal
c) not necessarily equal d) none of these
xii) Randomization is a process in which the treatments are allocated to all
experimental units.
a) with equal probability b) at the will of an investigator
c) in a sequence d) none of these
xiii) Error sum of squares in RBD as compared to CRD using same material is
a) more b) less c) equal d) none of these
xiv) Missing observation in a CRD is to be
a) guessed b) estimated c) deleted d) none of these

i) What is confounding ?
ii) Describe missing plot technique.
iii) Explain the principle of replication.
iv) Define an efficiency of a design.
v) Explain the terms treatment and yield in DOE.
vi) Describe RBD.
vii) Explain ANOVA technique.
viii) Describe Split Plot Design (SPD).
ix) Describe factorial experiments.
*SLRC239* -3- SLR-C 239

i) Define main and interaction effects in 22factorial experiment.
ii) Explain the principle of randomization and local control in DOE.
iii) Describe LSD and give its layout for 4×4 LSD.
B) What is CRD ? Give its ANOVA table. 4

i) Obtain the formula for estimating one missing observation in LSD.
ii) Explain the ANOVA technique for one-way classification.
iii) Explain total confounding with respect to 23factorial experiment.

i) Obtain the formula for estimating efficiency of LSD over RBD when rows are
taken as blocks. Give the formula when columns are taken as blocks.
ii) Give mathematical model, assumptions and ANOVA table in case of RBD.
iii) Give mathematical model, null hypothesis and ANOVA table for a 22factorial
experiment arranged in RBD.

*SLRC240* SLR-C 240
Seat
No.

(New CGPA)
GEOLOGY (Special Paper XII)
Pre-Cambrian Stratigraphy of India


1) Which one of the following series of Vindhyan System show occurrences of
life ?
a) Bhander b) Rewah c) Kaimur d) None of these
2) Diamondiferous sandstone beds occurring at the base of Kurnool series is
known as _____________ beds.
a) Malani b) Palnad c) Banaganapalli d) Pakhal
3) Bhima series is a part of ____________ Vindhyan.
a) upper b) middle c) lower d) none of these
4) Eparchaean unconformity is present between _________ and _________.
a) Archaean; Aravalli b) Archaean; Dharwar
c) Archaean; Cuddapah d) Archaean; Vindhyan
5) Which formation of Saucer group is more important for manganese ore ______
a) Sitasaong formation b) Lohangi formation
c) Mansar formation d) Chorbaoli formation
6) Iron ore series is equivalent to _______
a) Peninsular gneiss b) Upper Dharwar
c) Middle Dharwar d) Lower Dharwar
P.T.O.
SLR-C 240 -2- *SLRC240*
7) The oldest rocks forming the foundation rocks over which all the other rock
systems have been deposited are known as _________ complex.
a) Basement b) Fundamental c) Archaean d) All of these
8) Famous Makrana marble belongs to __________
a) Delhi system b) Bundelkhand gneiss
c) Aravalli system d) Raialo series
9) Dharwarian rocks of manganese deposits occurs in Nagpur, Chhindwara and
Bhandara district have been named as ___________
a) Iron-ore b) Saucer c) Chilpi d) None of these
10) Which one of the following series forms in the upper Cuddapah System ?
a) Papaghani b) Cheyair c) Kistna d) Kurnool
11) Aravalli System is overlain by ___________
a) Bundelkhand gneiss b) Raialo series
c) Bangol gneiss d) Charnokite series
12) The most common rocks in Archaean System are __________.
a) marbles b) slates
c) sandstone d) gneisses and schists
13) The Kurnool Series is ________
a) of carboniferous age and is located in Karaal district of Haryana
b) of Lower Vindhyan age and occurs in Andhra Pradesh
c) of Cuddapah age and occurs in Mysore
14) Which one of the following sentences is true for the Cuddapah System ?
a) It is unfossiliferous
b) It is composed of high grade schists and gneisses
c) It is highly tectonically disturbed
d) It is underlained by Dharwar system
*SLRC240* -3- SLR-C 240

i) What are another names given to the Archaean rocks ?
ii) What are the major rock types found in Archaean System ?
iii) Names of rock types exposed in Charnokite series of Archaean System.
iv) Name of rock type exposed in Bundelkhand gneiss of Archaean System.
v) What is peninsular gneiss ?
vi) What are types of rocks found in Dharwar System ?
vii) What is the name of Dharwarian rocks of the Aravalli region ?
viii) What are Champion gneisses ?
ix) Write stratigraphic succession of Charnokite, Champion and Peninsular
gneisses.

i) Bundelkhand gneisses
ii) Fundamental gneisses
iii) Raialo Series.
B) Describe economic importance of Aravallis of Rajasthan. 4

i) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Kaimur series.
ii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Lower Cuddapah
System.
iii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Upper Vindhyan
System.

i) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Upper Cuddapah
System.
ii) Describe in detail economic importance of Dharwar System.
iii) Describe in brief, stratigraphic sequence, lithology of Kurnool System.
______________
*SLRC241* SLR-C 241
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper XII)
Microbial Biochemistry

3) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever required.
1. Choose the correct answers from given alternatives : 14

1) GOGAT play role in assimilation of nitrogen when intracellular concentration
of __________ is less.
a) NO3 b) NO2 c) NH3 d) N2
2) When Vmax, then km = _____

8
a) [S] b) [E] c) [ES] d) [P]

3) Lux gene is responsible for _______ property of bacteria.
a) N2 fixation b) NH3 assimilation
c) Luminescence d) Translation
4) _________ is used in immobilization.
a) Sodium chloride b) Sodium carbonate
c) Sodium citrate d) Sodium alginate
5) Induced fit hypothesis is related with
a) Activity b) Flexibility c) Rigidity d) Rancidity
6) Movement of ribosome on mRNA by one codon at a time is called _____
a) Transformation b) Transduction
c) Translocation d) Transcription
P.T.O.
SLR-C 241 -2- *SLRC241*
7) ________ is initiation codon.

a) UAG b) UGA c) UAA d) AUG
8) Carboxysomes contain __________ enzyme.
a) Ribose phosphate carboxylase
b) Ribose 1, 5 diphosphate carboxylase
c) Ribulose phosphate carboxylase
d) Ribulose 1, 5 diphosphate carboxylase
9) Bioluminescent organisms are generally found in
a) Hot springs b) Marine water c) Fresh water d) Soil
10) Isocitrate lyase and malate synthase enzymes are present in
a) Glyoxysomes b) Mesosomes
c) Ribosomes d) Carboxysomes
11) _________ play role in catabolite repression.
a) ATP b) AMP c) C-AMP d) ADP
12) _______________ lipid is required in -1, 4 linkage formation between

N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid.

a) C17 b) C54 c) C38 d) C55
13) Aspartate transcarbamolyase is activated by ________
a) ATP b) CTP c) UTP d) AMP
14) _________ acid contain pyridine nucleus and is the key intermediate in
pyrimidine synthesis.
a) Inosinic b) Acetic c) Citric d) Orotic
2. Write on any seven of the following : 14

1) GOGAT.
2) Lux gene.
3) Isoenzyme.
4) Termination codons.
5) Glyoxysomes.
6) Initiation factors.
7) Translation.
8) Nucleotide.
9) List nitrogen bases.
*SLRC241* -3- SLR-C 241
3. A) Explain any two of the following : 10

1) Regulation of allosteric enzymes.
2) Pyruvate as key metabolite.
3) Termination of protein synthesis.
B) Significance of immobilization. 4

1) Arabinose operon.
2) Assimilation of SO4.
3) PK pathway.

1) Biosynthesis of peptidoglycan.
2) Extraction of enzymes.
3) Assimilation of carbon.
_______________

*SLRC242* SLR-C – 242

Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester – VI) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS
Advanced Communication (Special Paper – XII)

4) Use of calculator is allowed.
1) Fiber optic communication is based on the principle of

a) reflection b) refraction
c) total internal reflection d) none
2) The main function of a communication satellite is as a

a) repeater b) reflector c) recorder d) none
3) In mobile communication each cell is connected to

a) control unit b) MTSO c) transmitter d) none
4) __________ is a microwave device.

a) PN junction diode b) Zener diode
c) Gunn diode d) None
5) For high speed data transmission the bandwidth of communication channel

must be
a) zero b) low c) high d) none
6) ________ is the best source of light for fiber optic communication.

a) Bulb b) LED c) ILD d) All of these
7) The most communication satellites operates in _________ bands.

a) L b) C and Ku c) X d) S and P
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 242 -2- *SLRC242*
8) Cellular telephones use _________ type of operation.

a) simplex b) half duplex c) full duplex d) triplex
9) Radar is an acronym for

a) radio detection and ranging
b) radio amplification detection and ranging
c) range detection
d) none
10) The most widely used data communication code is

a) Baudot b) Morse Code c) ASCII Code d) None
11) _________ fiber optic cable has minimum modal dispersion.

a) Single mode step index b) Multimode step index
c) Multimode graded index d) None
12) The satellite whose time period is 24 hours is known as

a) geostationary satellite b) geosynchronous satellite
c) both a and b d) none
13) Wave guide is a

a) transmission line b) hollow metal tube
c) hollow tube of bad conductor d) none
14) ___________ is the most widely used LAN configuration.

a) Star b) Ring c) Bus d) None

1) What is modal dispersion ?
2) Draw the block diagram of transponder.
3) What is velocity modulation ?
4) Define bit rate and baud rate.
5) Give the advantages of optical communication.
6) What is modem ? Give its function.
7) Draw the block diagram of mobile hand set.
8) Give the applications of radar.
9) What is protocol ? Give the protocol used in asynchronous data communication.
*SLRC242* -3- SLR-C – 242
1) Explain the working of LASER diode.
2) Discuss the applications of satellite communication.
3) Write a note on cavity resonator.
B) Draw the general block diagram of cellular phone and explain in brief. 4
1) Explain optical transmitter circuits using LED.
2) Draw the block diagram of earth station and explain in brief.
3) Give the operational procedure of mobile communication.
1) Explain the working of pulsed radar.
2) What is LAN, MAN and WAN ? Explain in brief.
3) What are different network topologies ? Explain star topology.
————————
*SLRC243* SLR-C – 243
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (New CGPA) Examination, 2017

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Advanced Java (Special Paper – XII)

1. A) Choose correct alternatives : 6

1) Java swing components are platform ____________
A) Dependent B) Independent
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
2) Which packages represent interfaces and classes for servlet api. ?
A) javax.servlet.*; B) javax.servlet.http.*;
C) javax.servlet.api.*; D) both A) and B)
3) Which technology is used to create web application just like Servlet
technology ?
A) JSTL B) JSP
C) Applet D) All of these
4) Which of the following invokes servlet ?
A) Web Browser B) JVM
C) Both A) and B) D) Web Server
5) Which of these is/are true about JFrame ?
A) It is a window with title bars and borders
B) Frame is a subclass of Window
C) Container is a super class of Frame
D) All are true
6) Which object can be used to get configuration information from web.xml
file ?
A) ServletConfig B) ServletContext
C) Servlet container D) Both A) and B)
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 243 -2- *SLRC243*
B) True or false : 4
1) executeBatch( ) method is used to execute queries that may return boolean

Result.
2) A JComboBox component displays choices.
3) Cookies is implicit JSP object.
4) DSN related with type-3 JDBC driver.
C) Fill in the blanks : 4
1) ____________ is a small piece of information that is persisted between

the multiple request.
2) ____________ JSP Action tag is forwards the request and response to

another resource.
3) ____________ package contain the JDBC classes and interfaces.
4) The ____________ JSTL core tag catches any exceptions that occurs in
a program body.
1) What is Statement ?
2) What is EJB ?
3) List out JTextField methods.
4) List out advantages of JSP over servlet.
5) Define methods of servlet life cycle.
6) What is session ?
7) Difference between AWT and Swing.
8) List out advantages of JSTL.
9) Describe PreparedStatement.
*SLRC243* -3- SLR-C – 243

1) Explain JSP life cycle with suitable example.
2) Differentiate between GenericServlet and HttpServlet.
3) Write a program to demonstrate use of ‘ServletContext’ Interface.

B) Explain different types of JSP tag elements. 4
1) Write a program to demonstrate that use of ‘CallableStatement’.

2) Explain types of JSTL Formatting tags.
3) What is cookies ? Explain advantages and disadvantages of cookies.

1) Write a program to check given String is palindrome or not using swing
components.
2) Explain different types of JDBC drivers.

3) Explain any five Swing components.
_____________________
*SLRC244* SLR-C 244
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper XIII)
Atomic, Molecular Physics and Quantum Mechanics

4) Neat diagram must be drawn whenever necessary.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from given four alternatives : 14

i) mj can have only _________ values from j to + j, excluding zero.
a) j(j + 1) b) 2j + 1 c) j ( j 1 )
d) ( 2 j 1 )
ii) In strong field Stark effect for n = 2, the degeneracy in fine structure is lifted
to __________ levels.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
iii) Electronic spectra of diatomic molecules occurs in _________ region.
a) uv-vis b) microwave c) infra-red d) X-ray
iv) Quantity is called

a) Probability density b) Probability current density

c) Reflection co-efficient d) Transmission co-efficient
v) The minimum energy of a particle confined to one dimensional rigid box is
obtained by substituting n equal to
a) zero b) one c) half d) two
vi) Momentum operator is given by
a) b) c) d)
@ @ @
@
E E
E @ N @ N @ J
E
@ N
vii) The np 2s transitions of principal series n

2 correspond to ________
series of Li.
a) Diffuse b) Fundamental c) Sharp d) Principal
P.T.O.
SLR-C 244 -2- *SLRC244*
viii) The ratio of magnetic moment to the mechanical moment of orbital motion of
electron is
a) b) c) d)
e e e e
2 2
2 m 2 m m m
ix) The selection rule 8

and
in vibrational rotational spectra
J 1
corresponds to __________ branch.

a) O b) P c) Q d) R
x) A moving particle of matter is always associated with
a) Wave b) Photon c) Radiation d) Charge
xi) For a free particle the potential energy V(r) =
a) 1 b) 0 c) + 1 d) + 2
xii) Most intense line in a doublet corresponds to
a) Maximum j value
b) j and l change in the same way
c) both conditions a) and b) together
d) j and l do not change in the same way
xiii) If the coupling between l

and I

is not broken in an external magnetic field,

then we observe
a) Normal Zeeman effect b) Paschen-Back effect
c) Stark effect d) Anomalous Zeeman effect
xiv) If sin4x is eigen function and @
is operator then eigen value of operator is

@ N
a) 16 b) + 16 c) 4 d) 4

i) Give intensity rules for qualitative analysis. Illustrate with an examples.
ii) Draw necessary energy level diagrams for Zeeman splitting of sodium D line.
iii) What are stokes and antistokes lines ?
iv) Find eigen value of eigen functions e2ix of operator @
.
@ N
v) What is tunnel effect ?

vi) Show that [xn, Px] = n N
n . 1
E .
vii) Give the electronic configuration of K (potassium).
viii) What is an operator ?
*SLRC244* -3- SLR-C 244

i) Discuss quantitative intensity rules used to calculate relative intensity of
spectral lines in doublet. Give simple examples.
ii) Write a note on frank condon principle.
iii) Write a note on zero point energy.
B) Prove that [L2, Lx] = [L2, Ly] = [L2, Lz] = 0. 4

i) What is Paschen back effect ? Obtain an expression for term value.
ii) Derive Schrodingers time dependent wave equation for matter wave in three
dimensions.
iii) Obtain eigen value of operator L2.

i) Obtain an expression for rotational energy of a diatomic molecule and explain
its spectrum with energy level diagram.
In CO, the j = 0
j = 1 absorption line in rotational spectra occurs at a
frequency 1.153 × 1011 Hz. Calculate the moment of inertia of molecule and
bond length.
[Given : Mass of 12C = 1.99 × 1026 kg and Mass of 16O = 2.66 × 1026 kg].
ii) Apply Schrodingers wave equation to a particle in one dimensional rigid box,
give the energy levels.
Calculate ground state energy of a particle of mass 10 gm which is free to
move between two ends separated by 10 × 108 cm.
Given Planks constant h = 6.6 × 1027 erg sec.

*SLRC245* -1- SLR-C – 245
SLR-C – 245
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Special Paper – XIII)

2) Figures to right indicates full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for each of the followings : 14

i) Predict the product of the following reaction :
Al2O 3 / 400°C
+ NH3. ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯→ ?
Steam
a) b)
c) d)
ii) The carbohydrates which do not undergo further hydrolysis are known as
a) Monosaccharides b) Oligosaccharides
c) Polysaccharides d) None of these
iii) Pyridine on nitration with KNO3/H2SO4 at 300°C gives.
a) b)
c) d)
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 245 -2- *SLRC245*
iv) Maltose on hydrolysis gives a mixture of

a) Glucose + Fructose b) Fructose + Fructose
c) Glucose + Galactose d) Glucose + Glucose
v) Adrenaline on fusion with KOH gives
a) Benzoic acid b) Protocatechuic acid
c) Veratric acid d) Phenylacetic acid
vi) The abnormal elongation of thyroid gland leads to disease
a) Goitre b) Myxoedema
c) Xerothalmia d) Cretinism
vii) GD(+) Glucose on acetylation with acetic anhydride forms ____________
a) Diacetyl derivative b) Triacetyl derivative
c) Tetraacetyl derivative d) Pentaacetyl derivative
viii) Which of the following is antidiabetic drug ?
a) Ethambutol b) Tolbutamide
c) Phenobarbitone d) Isoniazid
ix) Name the following drug
CH3
CH – CH2 CH – COOH
CH3 CH3
a) Paracetamol b) Chloromycetin
c) Paludrin d) Ibuprofen
x) Synthetic fibers are dyed with
a) Dispers dye b) Sulphur dye
c) Mordent dye d) Indigo dye
xi) Orange IV dye is synthesised by coupling of sulphanilic with
a) Diethylamine b) Diphenylamine
c) Dimethylamine d) Aniline
xii) Methoxychlor is prepared by condensation of chloral with two molecules of
a) Phenol b) α -naphtol
c) Benzene d) Anisole
*SLRC245* -3- SLR-C – 245
xiii) Name the following pesticide

CH3O
P – O – C = CH – C – NHCH3
CH3O || | ||
O CH3 O
a) Monocrotophos b) Carbaryl
c) Ethophan d) Parathion
xiv) Weerman’s reaction is used for
a) Chain lengthening of carbohydrate
b) Conversion of glucose to fructose
c) Chain shortening of carbohydrate
d) Conversion of fructose to glucose

i) Explain why pyrrole is weak base.
ii) Give any two methods of preparations of pyridine.
iii) Give structure and uses of lactose.
iv) Explain mutarotion with mechanism.
v) Give brief classification of Hormones.
vi) Why phenolphthalein has pink colour in alkaline medium ? Explain with
reaction.
vii) Give synthesis of carbaryl.
viii) Classify the following groups in chromophores and auxochromes :
– CONH2, , –N = N → O, – COOH, – OCH3
C=C C=S – NH2

ix) Give structures of methyl red and disperse red-G.

i) Discuss Skraup’s synthesis quinoline.
ii) Give synthesis of thyroxine.
iii) What are antibiotics ? Give synthesis of chloromycetin.
B) Give synthesis and uses of Indole-3-acetic acid. 4

SLR-C – 245 -4- *SLRC245*

i) Discuss the configuration of D-glucose from D-arabinose.
ii) Discuss the structure of vitamin-A on the basis of analytical ground.
iii) What are antimalarials ? Give synthesis of paludrin.

i) Explain the size of ring structure of D-Glucose by methylation method.
ii) Discuss the applications of Mordant and Vat dyes.
iii) Predict the product following reactions :
a) + I2/KI → ?
b) + Zn/CH3COOH → ?
c) + CrO3/CH3COOH → ?
SO / H SO
d) 3 2 4
⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯→ ?
HgSO 4 , 300 °C
nC4HgL i
e) + ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯→ ?
100°C
SO / H SO
f) + 3 2 4
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ?
220°C
H − Pt
2
g) + ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ?
CH3COOH
_____________________
*SLRC246* SLR-C 246
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Special Paper XIII)
Microbial Genetics, Plant Breeding and Biostatistics

Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.
1) Bacteriophage is essential in the process of
a) Transformation b) Transduction c) Conjugation d) All above
2) Process of genetic transformation was first time demonstrated in bacterium
a) Escherichia coli b) Diplococcus pneumonie
c) Neurospora d) Rhizobium
3) The bacteria which grow on minimal medium are named as
a) Auxotrophs b) Phototrophs c) Chemotrophs d) Autotrophs
4) Adaptation of introduced plant is known as
a) Acclimatization b) Domestication c) Introduction d) Adjustant
5) Genetic material of polio virus is
a) Single stranded DNA
b) Double stranded DNA
c) Single stranded RNA
d) Double stranded RNA
6) Double stranded DNA is found in
a) Poxvirus b) Paravirus c) Reovirus d) TMV
7) In India, Central sugarcane breeding research institute is at
a) Chennai b) Coimbatore c) Mumbai d) Lucknow
P.T.O.
SLR-C 246 -2- *SLRC246*
8) Mutations can be induced experimentally with the help of various physical

and chemical agents which are called
a) Spontaneous mutation b) Mutant
c) Mutagenes d) Polyploidy
9) Somatic chromosome number in Saccharam officinarum is 2n =
a) 60 b) 70 c) 80 d) 90
10) Two cotton varieties 170-Co2 and 134-Co2M were developed by
a) Test cross b) Back cross c) Double cross d) Triple cross
11) Median for arranged data is
a) Mean of first and last value b) Most frequent value
c) Last frequent value d) Middle most value
12) With the help of histogram we can determine
a) Mean, mode and median b) Mean
c) Median d) Mode
13) Clonal selection is practiced in ___________ crops.
a) Self pollinated b) Cross pollinated
c) Vegetatively propagated d) None of all
14) In transformation, non-virulent strain is
a) P-type b) Q-type c) R-type d) S-type

1) Write the merits of mode.
2) What is mutation ?
3) Give the names of DNA viruses.
4) Define conjugation.
5) Write any four disease resistant variety of cotton.
6) Give any two objectives of sugarcane breeding.
7) Enlist the methods of data analysis.
8) Draw neat labeled diagram of bacterial genome.
9) Define mass selection.
*SLRC246* -3- SLR-C 246

1) What is introduction ? Describe in brief types of introduction.
2) Write a note on pure line selection.
3) Explain the process of transduction in bacteria.
B) Write the applications of computer in plant sciences. 4

1) Explain the role of mutation in plant breeding.
2) What is meant by arithmetic mean ? Explain it with suitable example and add
note on its merits.
3) Write the breeding techniques in cotton.

1) What is mean by hybridization ? Explain the steps involved in hybridization.
2) Give an account of DNA viruses studied by you.
3) Explain the breeding technique in self pollinated crop.
___________

*SLRC247* SLR-C – 247

Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017
ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – XIII)
Molecular Biology and Biotechnology

1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the
sentence : 14
1) On heavy DNA damage, E. coli stops to grow and induces DNA repair system
known as
a) Base-excision repair b) Nucleotide excision repair
c) Photoreactivation d) SOS System
2) Replication of DNA occurs by _________ method.

a) Conservative b) Dispersive
c) Semi-conservative d) Semi-dispersive
3) Removal of introns and joining of exons is known as

a) Excision b) Recombination
c) Priming d) Splicing
4) Hershey and Chase performed their experiment using

a) Frog and Lizard b) T2 bacteriophage and Bacteria
c) Monkey and Chimpanzee d) Rat and Rabbit
5) Formation of Hairpin loop is necessary transcription

a) Initiation b) Elongation
c) Termination d) Post-transcriptional modifications
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 247 -2- *SLRC247*
6) __________ enzyme is responsible for the process of transcription.
a) RNA dependent RNA Polymerase
b) DNA dependent DNA Polymerase
c) DNA dependent RNA Polymerase
7) The property of genetic code that a single amino-acid coded by more than
one codon is known as
a) Termination b) Splicing c) Degeneracy d) Wobble
8) ___________ enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific sites.

a) Restriction Exonuclease b) Restriction Endonuclease
c) DNases d) DNA Polymerases
9) ___________ is most common initiation codon in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

a) AGU b) UAU c) AUG d) UUU
10) DNA ligase enzyme is responsible for

a) Cutting of DNA strands b) Copying of DNA strands
c) Joining of DNA strands d) Reverse transcription
11) DNA amplification is carried out using ________ technology.

a) RFLP b) Northern Blotting
c) PCR d) DNA Microarray
12) Kohler and Milstein are credited with the discovery of _________ technology.
a) Hybridoma b) PCR
c) DNA Fingerprinting d) Blotting
13) DNA probes are required during ________ experiments.

a) DNA Footprinting b) DNA Replication
c) Southern Blotting d) PCR
14) __________ is used as vector during recombinant DNA technology.

a) Cosmid b) Primer c) Probe d) Clone
*SLRC247* -3- SLR-C – 247

i) Nucleosome
ii) Capping
iii) Okazaki Fragments
iv) Plasmids
v) Cloning
vi) Taq Polymerase
vii) DNA Probe
viii) Degeneracy
ix) Sigma ( σ ) factor.

i) Explain RNA Polymerase enzyme in prokaryotes.
ii) Discuss the role of restriction enzymes and DNA ligase in recombinant
DNA technology.
iii) Explain cloning as an application of biotechnology.
B) Discuss the process of ELISA. 4

i) Discuss in detail the process of translation.
ii) Explain the process and applications of DNA fingerprinting.
iii) What is hybridoma ? Explain steps in monoclonal antibody production.

i) Define blotting and explain the process of Southern blotting.
ii) Discuss any two experiments as evidences of DNA as genetic material.
iii) Explain post-transcriptional modifications in eukaryotic m-RNA.
—————————
*SLRC248* SLR-C – 248
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XIII)
Integral Transforms


1) L {e–at tn} = _________
n! n! n!
a) n b) n c) n+1 d) None of these
(p + a ) (p − a ) (p + a )
2) L {Sin3t}
3 p p
p +9 p +3 p +9
3) If L{f (t)} = f(p) then L{e– at f(t)} = _________

1
a) af(p) b) f(p + a) c) f(a) d) None of these
a
⎧ f (t ) ⎫
4) If L{f(t)} = f(p) then L ⎨ 2 ⎬ = __________
⎩t ⎭
∞∞ 2
d 1
a) ∫ ∫ f (p ) dpdp
2
b) ( − 1) 2
f (p ) c) 2
f (p) d) None of these
00 dp p
5) If L {f(t)} = f(p) then the initial value theorem states that
a) tlim
→∞
f(t) = plim
→0
f(p) b) tlim
→0
f(t) = plim
→∞
pf(p)
c) tlim lim
→ 0 f(t) = p → 0 Pf(p) d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 248 -2- *SLRC248*
∞
2p −3 t
6) If L{tsint} = 2 2 then value of integral ∫ e tsint dt ___________
(p + 1) 0
3 2 3
100 50 50
7) If L–1{f(p)} = f (t) then L–1{f(kp)} = ___________
1 1 t
a) kf(kt) b) f (kt ) c) f( ) d) None of these
k k k
8) If L– 1 {f(s)} = f(t) then L–1 {f(s – a)} = ___________
a) e–at f(t) b) eiat f(t) c) eat f(t) d) None of these
⎧ 1 ⎫
9) L–1 ⎨ ⎬ = __________
⎩p − 4 ⎭
a) e4t b) e–4t c) e2t d) None of these
10) | * | * | * | .... (n times) = __________

n−1 n −1
t t
a) tn b) c) d) None of these
n! (n − 1)! (n − 1)
⎧ p⎫
11) L– 1 ⎨ 2 ⎬ = ___________
2
⎩p + a ⎭
cos at cos at
a) b) Cosat c) d) None of these
a p
12) F*G = __________

t ∞
a) ∫ F(X) G(t – X) dX b) ∫ F(X) G(t – X) dX

0 0
c) ∫ f(X ) G(X) dX d) None of these

0
*SLRC248* -3- SLR-C – 248
⎧ ∂y ⎫
13) If y(x, t) is function of x and t then L ⎨ ⎬ = ___________
⎩ ∂t ⎭
a) x y (x, p) + y (x, 0) b) p y (x, p) – y (x, 0)
c) p y (x, 0) – y (x, p) d) None of these
⎧⎪ ∂ 2y ⎫⎪
14) If y (x, t) is function of x and t then L ⎨ 2 ⎬ = _________
⎪⎩ ∂t ⎪⎭
a) P2 y (x, p) – py (x, 0) – yt (x, 0) b) P2 y (x, p) + py (x, 0)

c) P2 y (x, p) – pyt (x, 0) – y (x, 0) d) None of these

1) Find L { sintcost}.
⎧⎪sin t 0< t < π

2) Find Laplace transform of the function f(t) where f(t) = ⎨ .
⎪⎩ 0 t> π
3) Find L {t cosh 3t}.

4) State the change of scale property of Laplace transform.
⎧ 1 ⎫
5) Find L–1 ⎨ ⎬.
⎩ p⎭
⎧ 1 ⎫
6) Find L–1 ⎨ n⎬.
⎩(p + a) ⎭
⎧ p+1 ⎫
7) Evaluate L–1 ⎨ 2 ⎬.
⎩p + 6p + 25 ⎭
⎧ p 6p 3 ⎫
⎨ 2 + 2 + ⎬.
8) Find L–1 ⎩ p + 2 p − 16 p − 3 ⎭
9) State linearity property of Laplace transform.

SLR-C – 248 -4- *SLRC248*
⎧⎪F(t − a ) t>a
1) If L{f(t)} = f(p) and G(t) = ⎨
⎪⎩ 0 t<a
then show that L{ G (t)} = e–ap f(p).
⎧ 4p + 5 ⎫
–1
2) Evaluate L ⎨ 2 ⎬
⎩(p − 4) (p + 3) ⎭
3) Solve t y′′ + y′ + 4ty = 0 if y(0) = 3, y′ (0) = 0.
–1 ⎧ p + 3⎫
B) Find L ⎨log ⎬. 4
⎩ p + 2⎭
⎧ sin t ⎫ −1 1 ⎧ sin at ⎫
1) Prove that L ⎨ ⎬ = tan and hence find L ⎨ ⎬.
⎩ t ⎭ p ⎩ t ⎭
⎧ cos at ⎫
Does the L ⎨ ⎬ exist ?
⎩ t ⎭
2) Solve (D2 – 3) x – 4y = 0
x + (D 2 + 1) y = 0 , t>0
if x = y = Dy = 0, Dx = 2 when t = 0.
1
3) If L–1 {f(p)} = F(t) then show that L–1 {f(ap)} = f ( t a ).
a

1) If F(t) is a function of class A and if L{f(t)} = f(p) then
n
d
L{tn f(t)} = (– 1)n n
f (p ) .
dp
2) Solve (D2 + 9) y = cos 2t if y (0) = 1, y (π2 ) = – 1.

3) State and prove convolution theorem for inverse Laplace transform.
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRC249* SLR-C 249
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) Examination, 2017

STATISTICS (Special Paper XIII) (New CGPA)
Limit Theorems, Reliability and Queuing Theory
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory and figures to the right
indicate full marks.
2) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is allowed.
1. Choose most appropriate alternative and rewrite the answers. 14

i) In M / M / 1 : / FIFO model the probability that the server is busy is
___________
a) b) 1 c) d)

ii) If probability of survival for every independent component 0.5 then, reliability
of a series system of 3 components will be r(p) = ____________
a) 0.125 b) 0.250 c) 0.575 d) 1
iii) If Xn
2
x in as n

then ____________ as n

.
a) Xn
2

k b) Xn
2

2x
c) Xn (1 x) d) 7Xn

2
7x
2
iv) In queuing theory steady state condition will be achieved if ___________

a) arrival rate > service rate b) arrival rate = service rate
c) arrival rate < service rate d) calling population is infinite
v) In M / M / 1 : / FIFO model the parameter 1 represents ___________

a) number of customers b) number of service channels

c) number of arrivals d) service rate
vi) Ageing function will be same as reliability function if _____________
a) t < 0 b) t > 0 c) t = 0 d) t = 5
vii) Structure function for a parallel system of two components will be

= _____________
N
a) 1 x1x2 b) x1x2
c) 1 (x1 1) (x2 1) d) (1 x1) (1 x2)
P.T.O.
SLR-C 249 -2- *SLRC249*
viii) If Xi are iid B(1, P) random variables

i = 1, 2, ..., n then with usual notations
converges to ____________ in probability.

1
X X
a) P b) nP c) 0 d) 1
ix) If {Xn} be a sequence of iid Poisson (1) random variables, then for sufficiently
large n, Z = ___________ is N(0, 1).
a) b) c) d)
1
X
n X n X
x) If X is a B(10, 0.2) r.v. then upper bound for will be

N

2

____________
a) 0.1 b) 0.025 c) 0.975 d) 0.004
xi) In usual notations pdf of nth order statistic is given by __________
a) n! F(y) [F(y)](n 1) b) n[F(y)] [1 F(y)](n 1)
c) n! f(y) [1 F(y)](n 1) d) n f(y) [F(y)](n 1)
xii) While deriving the pdf of kth order statistic we used the concept of
___________
a) multinomial distribution b) rectangular distribution
c) normal distribution d) frequency distribution
xiii) In usual notations relation between hazard function and reliability function
is = ____________
J
a) b) c) d)

4 J 4 J 4 J 4 J
4 J 4 J B J 4 J
xiv) In M / M / 1 :
/ FIFO model the probability that there are n customers in the
system is
a)
n
b) 1
n
c) (1
)
( n 1 )
d)

n

a) Define queue discipline.
b) Define service time.
c) State Chebysheves inequality.
d) Let X is Exponential (1) random variable. Find the upper bound for
2

: !

.
*SLRC249* -3- SLR-C 249
e) Define order statistic.

f) For a random sample of size 2 from U(0, 1) distribution, find the pdf of second
order statistic.
g) Obtain structure function of a series system of 3 components.
h) Define minimal cut set and minimal path set.
i) Define convergence in quadratic mean.

i) State and prove weak law of large numbers for a sequence of iid random
variables.
ii) Define hazard rate. Show that hazard rate of a series system of
independent components is a sum of hazard rates of these components.
iii) Define Kth order statistic and obtain its distribution.
B) State any four assumptions of M/M/1 :
/ FIFO model. 4
4. Attempt any two from the following. 14

A) State and prove central limit theorem for iid random variables with common
mean and variance

.
B) Show that hazard rate is constant iff underlying distribution is exponential.

C) Does there exists a random variable X for which
2
= 0.55 ? Where
:
= E(X) and

= V(X). Justify
using B(100, 0.1) distribution.

A) Let Y1 be the first order statistic corresponding to a random sample of size n
from exponential( ) distribution. Find the distribution of Y1 . Discuss

convergence of Y1 in probability as . n
B) Define :
i) a series system of 3 components
ii) parallel system of 3 components. Further obtain the reliability functions
for these systems.
C) At a grocers shop on an average one customer arrives every 5 minutes and
service time is 15 customers per hour. Assume that all the conditions for the
use of M/M/1 : / FIFO model are satisfied. i) Is the queue finite ? If no state

all the reasons and if yes find a) probability that the server is busy b) average
queue length c) average waiting time of a customer in the queue.
_____________________
*SLRC250* SLR-C 250
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper XIII)
Phanerozoic Stratigraphy of India

4) Answer to both Sections should be written in same answer
book.

1) The last upheaval of the Himalayan mountain belt took place in __________
a) Lower-Middle Cretaceous b) Miocene-Pliocene
c) Upper Cretaceous-Eocene d) Pliocene-Pleistocene
2) The middle and upper Jurassic forms _____________
a) Rajmahal b) Jurassic of Cutch
c) Spiti d) Salt range
3) The fossils of Physa occur in ___________ beds underlying Deccan Traps.
a) Umia b) Infratrappean
c) Chari d) None of these
4) Dolomitic layers, containing the fossil brachiopod Neobolus, known as the
Neobolus beds are found in __________
a) Salt range b) Spiti
c) Jurassic of Cutch d) None of these
5) Products shales are found in ___________
a) Ordovician b) Silurian
c) Devonian d) Permian
P.T.O.
SLR-C 250 -2- *SLRC250*
6) Which one of the following stage is youngest ?

a) Utatur b) Ariyalur
c) Trichuiopoly d) Bagh beds
7) The age of Bagh beds found under Deccan Traps is _________
a) Triassic b) Jurassic
c) Cretaceous d) Tertiary
8) Muschelkalk series of Spiti belongs to ___________
a) Permian b) Upper Jurassic
c) Triassic d) Cretaceous
9) Gondwana sediments were deposited in ____________
a) Geosynclines b) Lakes
c) Trough faults d) Estuaries
10) Deccan Traps are younger than _________
a) Laterites b) Intertrappeans
c) Lametas and Bagh beds d) None of these
11) Which one of the following series includes in Jurassic of Cutch ?
a) Katrol b) Boulder bed
c) Rikba d) Barren measures
12) Age of Deccan Traps is ___________
a) Upper Cretaceous to Eocene
b) Upper Cretaceous to Oligocene
c) Upper Cretaceous to Miocene
d) Upper Cretaceous to Pliocene
13) The age of Muth quartzite is __________
a) Ordovician b) Silurian
c) Devonian d) Carboniferous
14) The oldest series in Jurassic of Cutch is ____________
a) Patcham b) Chari
c) Katrol d) Umia
*SLRC250* -3- SLR-C 250

i) What is the age of Siwalik System ?
ii) On which rock Cambrian strata of Spiti lies over ?
iii) Names of series in upper Gondwana.
iv) Write any two characteristic features of Chari Series of Jurassic System.
v) Describe Neobolus beds.
vi) Give the ages of the Saline Series/Salt Marl.
vii) Names of series in upper Gondwana.
viii) Define Raniganj stage.
ix) Stratigraphic position of Bunter series.

i) What is the stratigraphical significance of inter-trappean beds ?
ii) Explain Umaria marine beds of Gondwana System.
iii) Marine transgression during Jurassic period.
B) Flora and fauna found in Upper, Lower, Middle, Gondwana System. 4

i) Write a detailed account on Jurassic of Cutch.
ii) Describe important characters of Deccan Traps of India.
iii) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Siwalik System.

i) Explain nature of Main Boundary Fault.
ii) Describe in detail Marine Transgressions.
iii) Describe in detail Kioto limestones.
___________
*SLRC251* -1- SLR-C – 251
SLR-C – 251
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper – XIII)
Environmental Microbiology

ii) Figures to the right indicate marks.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answer from given alternatives. 14

i) Ozone layer is reduced due to ______________
a) Radioactive waste b) Chlorofluorocarbons
c) PAN d) Hydrocarbons
ii) ______________ are non-biodegradable.
a) Fertilizers b) Crop waste
c) Radioactive substance d) Agrochemicals
iii) Respiratory diseases are caused due to ______________
a) Suspended particulate matter b) Methane
c) H2S d) Fluoride compounds
iv) Most hazardous metal pollution of automobile exhaust is______________
a) Lead b) Iron
c) Mercury d) Copper
v) ______________ play an important role in leaching of uranium.
a) E. coli b) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
c) Bacillus Polymyxa d) Strepto verticillium spp.
vi) Oil and grease are common in waste from ______________ industry.
a) Paper b) Sugar
c) Dairy d) Textile
vii) Bhopal tragedy is a case of ______________ pollution.
a) Soil b) Water
c) Radioactive d) Air
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 251 -2- *SLRC251*
viii) ______________ is the main cause of Eutrophication.

a) Algal mass b) Animal population
c) Reduction in DO d) Pollutants
ix) Marine bacteria have high need for ______________ ions.
a) K+ b) Na+ c) Cl– d) OH–
x) The incubation time for B.O.D. test is ______________ days.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 20
xi) ______________ waste has dark brown colour due to presence of melanoidin
pigment.
a) Paper and pulp b) Textile
c) Dairy d) Distillery
xii) ______________ is used to enumerate the coliform organisms.
a) SPC b) MPN
c) TVC d) DMC
xiii) ______________ protect us from harmful effects of ultraviolet radiations.
a) Clouds b) Ozone
c) Smog d) CO2
xiv) ______________ are the most dangerous pollutants.
a) Nuclear radiations b) Air pollutants
c) Water pollutants d) Noise pollutants

i) Define term ‘COD’.
ii) What is significance of microorganisms in air ?
iii) Write characters of waste of paper and pulp industry.
iv) Give flow sheet for treatment of textile waste.
v) Enlist Bioindicators of fecal pollution.
vi) Define ‘potable water’.
vii) Give significance of ozone.
viii) Define term ‘pollution’.
ix) What is gnotobiology ?
*SLRC251* -3- SLR-C – 251
3. A) Answer any two of the following questions in brief : 10
i) Explain various types of lakes.
ii) Give significance of lead as pollutant.
iii) Explain aeroconiscope.
B) Explain control of Eutrophication. 4
i) Write an essay of biological safety.
ii) Explain characteristics and treatment of dairy waste.
iii) Write a note on germ free animals.
i) Write an essay on municipal water purification.
ii) Explain effects of air pollution.
iii) Explain microbial-enhanced oil recovery.
_____________________
*SLRC252* SLR-C 252
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper XIII)
Embedded System Design
Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.

3) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
4) Use of log table is allowed.
1. Select correct alternatives from the following : 14

1) An electronic system designed for ________ application is called as embedded
system.
a) General b) Dedicated c) Any d) None of these
2) An embedded firmware consists of _________ structure.
a) Superloop b) Only preprocessor
c) Only main () d) None of these
3) The C language consists of ______ keywords.
a) 32 b) 64 c) 8 d) 256
4) __________ statement is the output statement.
a) Printf b) Getch c) Scanf d) None of these
5) Out of following _______ has highest priority in C language.
a) Exponentiation b) Addition
c) Multiplication d) None of these
6) In embedded C program developed for 8951 ?
, ______ must be included.
a) stdio.h b) reg51.h c) conio.h d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 252 -2- *SLRC252*
7) Mode 2 of microcontroller 8951 is _________ mode.

a) 8 bit autoreload b) 16 bit timer
c) 13 bit timer d) None of these
8) R × D line of microcontroller 8951 is used for serial _________ of data.
a) Transmission b) Reception c) Interruption d) None of these
9) For programming the firmware into target 8951 device __________ IDE is
used.
a) Flash magic b) Keil microvision
c) Pony prog d) None of these
10) For serial programming of 8951 ?
, the band rate should be
11) For temperature measurement _________ is the suitable sensor.
a) Transistor b) zener diode c) AD590 d) None of these
12) To generate triangular wave _________ should be interfaced to microcontroller.
a) ADC b) DAC
c) V to F converter d) None of these
13) Clock circuit is essential for
a) LCD b) Keyboard
c) Embedded system d) None of these
14) The data range of integer variable is
a) 2 bytes b) 4 bytes c) 8 bytes d) None of these

1) Mention any four applications of embedded system.
2) Draw the circuit diagram for clock circuit of ?
8951.
3) Define the term constant in C language.
4) Mention the data types of C language.
5) Mention logical operators of C language.
6) Give the function defined for time delay generator.
7) What are the registers in LCD ?
8) What is in system programming ?
9) What is superloop in embedded C ?
*SLRC252* -3- SLR-C 252

1) Explain interfacing of relay with 8951 microcontroller.
2) Explain various types of embedded system.
3) Write embedded C program to toggle all the bits of port P1 with some
delay using timer.
B) Write a short note on structure of embedded C program. 4

1) Describe with suitable diagram interfacing of ADC 0804 to microcontroller 8951.
2) Write a program in embedded C to blink the LED interfaced at P2.0.
3) Discuss steps involved in development of firmware in Kiel microvision IDE.

A) With the help of suitable hardware and software discuss development of
embedded system for measurement of temperature.
OR
B) 1) Describe interfacing of LCD to 8951 microcontroller.
2) Write program in embedded C to generate a delay of 150 s by using timer 0.

____________
*SLRC253* SLR-C 253
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2017
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Operating System II (Special Paper No. XIII)

1. Choose and write correct answer from given four alternatives : 14

1) In Linux a user can load or upload
a) I/O Modules b) I/O Devices
c) Kernel Modules d) File Base I/O
2) Which command reduces the size of a file ?
a) pzip b) gcat
c) pgcat d) gzip
3) Which command is used to find what is in your home directory ?
a) % List b) % Is
c) % home d) Either (a) or (c)
4) Pipe symbol is represented by
a) | | b) | c) ^ d) $
5) Which is used to search files for specified words or patterns ?
a) Less b) Srch c) %src d) Grep
6) The hierarchy of a series of directories branching in a user system starts
from
a) home b) root c) /home d) /root
7) Which command is used to print a file ?
a) print b) ptr
c) lpr d) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-C 253 -2- *SLRC253*
8) Which directory contains device special files ?

a) /etc b) /etc/dev c) /root/bin d) /dev
9) Shell is
a) Command Interpreter
b) Interface between Kernel and Hardware
c) Interface between user and applications
d) Command Compiler
10) Which control character signals the end of the input file ?
a) ctrl + a b) ctrl + b
c) ctrl + c d) ctrl + d
11) How do you rename file new to file old ?
a) mv new old b) move new old c) cp new old d) rn new old
12) Which represents the user home directory ?
a) / b) . c) . . d) ~
13) Which vi editor command copies the current line of the file ?
a) yy b) yw c) yc d) None of these
14) A process is identified by a unique
a) Pid b) Id
c) Processed d) Proid

1) What is shell script ?
2) What is file ? Types of file.
3) Explain cut command.
4) Explain rm command.
5) Explain pwd command.
6) What is standard output operator ?
7) What is inode number ?
8) What is piping ?
9) Write features of Linux ?
*SLRC253* -3- SLR-C 253

1) Explain Is-l command in details.
2) What is Vi Editor ? Explain its mode.
3) Explain X window.
B) Explain Background Process. 4

1) What is a file system ? Explain the steps to mount and unmount the file.
2) Explain grep command with example.
3) Explain chmod command.

1) Explain architecture of linux system.
2) What is shell ? Explain all its type.
3) Explain following linux command.
a) mv b) cd c) In d) lpr
_____________
*SLRC254* SLR-C – 254
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XIV)
Electronics and Instrumentation

3) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.

1) The ideal op-amp has _____________ bandwidth.
a) Infinite b) Finite c) Zero d) One
2) Virtual ground is a point of an op-amp circuit which draws _____________
current.
a) No b) Infinite c) High d) Low
3) The frequency of unsymmetrical rectangular wave form of an astable
multivibrator using 555 timer IC is given by
0.72 1.44 1.44 1.44
a) C R b) C R c) C (R + R ) d) C (R + 2R )
A A A B A B
4) Output of timer is _____________ of supply voltage.

a) Dependent b) Corresponds
c) Constant d) Independent
5) An SCR is turned off when _____________
a) Anode current is reduce to zero
b) Gate voltage is reduced to zero
c) Gate is reverse biased
d) None of these
6) A triac is equivalent of two SCRs _____________
a) In parallel b) In series
c) In inverse parallel d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 254 -2- *SLRC254*
7) The liquid used in LCDs are _____________

a) Nematic b) Tantalum c) Oil d) Electrolytic
8) _____________ is active display.
a) LED b) LCD c) EPID d) Light controller
9) Compared with thermistor, the RTD is _____________
a) Less sensitive but more stable b) More sensitive but less stable
c) Less sensitive but less stable d) All of the above
10) The transducer studied for high temperature and fast response time is a
_____________
a) Thermistor b) RTD
c) Thermocouple d) Photodiode
11) Decreasing the wavelength of electron _____________ the resolution.
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Does not change d) Minimize
12) Maximum magnification that can be obtained by using SEM is _____________
a) x 500000 b) x 100000 c) x 50000 d) x 5000
13) A Triac is a _____________ switch.
a) Bidirectional b) Unidirectional
c) Mechanical d) None of these
14) The feedback path of an Op-amp integrator consists of _____________
a) a resistor b) a capacitor
c) a resistor and inductor d) a resistor and capacitor in series

1) State different characteristics of ideal Op-amp.
2) An op-amp is used in inverting mode with R1 = 2 k Ω and R2 = 20 k Ω ,
calculate gain of non-inverting amplifier.
3) Draw equivalent circuit of SCR.
4) State the applications of IC555.
5) Explain how an SCR can be turn-OFF.
*SLRC254* -3- SLR-C – 254
6) Give the important features of liquid crystal displays.

7) What is principle of resistance temperature transducer ?
8) State the application of Ultra Visible (UV) spectroscopy.

1) An Op-amp is used in non-inverting mode R1 = 1 k Ω , R2 = 12 k Ω ,
calculate the output voltage for the inputs of :
a) Vi = 150 mV and
b) Vi = 2 V.
2) Draw the structure of LED display and explain its operation.
3) Explain principle and working of A.C. servomotor sensor.
B) Derive an expression for voltage gain of non-inverting amplifier by using
op-amp. 4

1) Explain the construction and working of Triac.
2) Explain construction, working and characteristics of photo diode transducer.
3) Write brief note on segmental displays using light emitting diode.

1) Explain astable operation of IC 555 timer. Give its application as a voltage
frequency convertor. Find the values of TOFF and TON if astable mode of
IC 555 timer consists of RA = 1 k Ω , RB = 2 k Ω and C = 1 μ F.
2) Describe principle, construction and working of transmission electron
microscopy.
_______________
*SLRC255* SLR-C 255
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper XIV)
Analytical and Industrial Organic Chemistry

3) Draw neat labelled diagrams and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative from among those given below : 14
i) The general formula of synthetic anionic detergents is
a) ROSO3Na b) RONa c) RCOONa d) RCOOH
ii) The molecular weight of a condensation polymer is ___________ the sum of
the molecular weight of monomeric units condensed to form the polymer.
a) more than b) less than
c) equal to d) both (a) and (c)
iii) Juice heater is used for _____________ of proteins present in the cane juice.
a) Decomposition b) Hydrolysis
c) Coagulation d) Washing
iv) Ethyl alcohol is manufactured by fermentation of
a) Proteins b) Molasses c) Bagasse d) Oils
v) Polyester yarn is dyed with ___________ dyes.
a) Direct b) Vat c) Reactive d) Disperse
vi) Chemically ______________ are crystalline alumino silicates.
a) Zeolites b) Plastics c) Rubbers d) Detergents
vii) In gas chromatographic separations the stationary phase can be
a) Gas b) Liquid
c) Solid d) Both (b) and (c)
P.T.O.
SLR-C 255 -2- *SLRC255*
viii) Cleansing action of soap molecules is due to their ________________ nature.
a) Hydrophobic b) Hydrophilic
c) Amphipathic d) None of these
ix) Phenol is condensed with ______________ to form Bakelite.
a) Acetaldehyde b) Formic acid
c) Formaldehyde d) Acetic acid
x) Polymerisation of 1, 3-butadiene and styrene forms
a) PVC b) Polyethylene
c) Polyurethane d) None of the above
xi) ______________ is a reductive bleaching agent.
a) Sulphur dioxide b) Sodium hydrosulphite
c) Sodium bisulphite d) All the above
xii) The objective of desizing is _____________ from the fabric.
a) to remove starch
b) to remove dust
c) to burn off protruding fibres
d) to remove colour
xiii) ______________ is used as a spraying agent for locating colourless amino
acids.
a) Aniline b) Ninhydrin
c) Diphenyl amine d) HCI
xiv) In gas chromatography ____________ gas is preferred as carrier gas.
a) CO b) N2 c) He d) O2

i) What are saponifying and non-saponifying alkalies ?
ii) Define :
a) Elastomers
b) Thermosettings
iii) Sugarcane is milled immediately after its cutting. Why ?
*SLRC255* -3- SLR-C 255
iv) Explain the importance of scouring of cotton fabric.
v) What is denaturing of alcohol ? How is it done ?
vi) How are fibres classified ?
vii) What are biocatalytic reactions ? Give example.
viii) What is Rf value ? Rf value is less than one why ?
ix) Explain packing and preparation of column as required in GSC.

i) Define Detergents. Explain the terms anionic and cationic detergents
with examples.
ii) Write a note on microwave assisted reactions.
iii) What is chromatography ? Classify chromatographic methods based on
nature of mobile phase and stationary phase.
B) Write synthesis and uses of PVC. 4

i) With a neat labelled diagram, discuss the hot process of manufacture of
soap.
ii) How is ethyl alcohol manufactured by fermentation of molasses ? Explain.
iii) Explain the principle and experimental process of thin layer chromatography.

i) Discuss Ziegler-Natta polymerisation.
ii) Explain in brief the steps involved in refining of raw sugar.
iii) What is bleaching ? Discuss the process of cotton bleaching by using sodium
hypochlorite.
___________
*SLRC256* SLR-C 256
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Special Paper XIV)
N. B. : I) All questions are compulsory.

III) Draw neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct alternative. 14

1) Ti plasmids that is used as a plant vector is obtained from _________
a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens b) Agrobacterium rhizhogenes
c) Agrobacterium radiobactor d) Thermus aquaticus
2) Operon hypothesis is putforth by _________
a) Jacob and Monod b) Watson and Crick
c) Gilbert and Mullar d) None of these
3) Okazaki fragments are produced on the _________ strand of parent DNA.
a) Lagging b) Leading c) On both d) None of these
4) In Southern blotting technique _________ paper is used.
a) Nitrocellulose b) Cellulose
c) Polythene d) Polyprolene
5) In DNA purin bases are _________
a) Adenine and Guanine b) Thymine and Cytocine
c) Adenine and Thymine d) Guanine and Cytocine
6) Totipotency means _________
a) Flowering in culture medium
b) Development of fruit from a flower in a culture
c) Development of an organ from a cell in culture medium
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 256 -2- *SLRC256*
7) Molecular scissor used in genetic engineering is _________

a) DNA Polymerase b) DNA ligase
c) Helicase d) Restriction endonuclease
8) The production of a large number of genetically similar plant through plant
tissue culture is called _________
a) Hybridoma technology
b) Recombinant DNA technology
c) Gene therapy
d) Micropropagation
9) DNA replication takes place during _________ phase.
a) Interphase b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase
10) _________ technique is used to obtain hybrid between two species with
profertilization barrier.
a) Embryo rescue b) Protoplast fusion
c) Ovary culture d) Embryo implantation
11) The lac operon encodes three enzymes required for the metabolism of
_________
a) Glucose b) Maltose
c) Fructose d) Lactose
12) The first step in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is _________
a) denaturation b) primer extension
c) annealing d) cooling
13) cDNA libraries are useful for the study of _________
a) cell specific gene expression
b) developmental stage specific gene expression
c) conditional gene expression
d) all of these
14) Taq polymerase is used in PCR because of its _________
a) Low thermal stability b) High fidelity
c) High speed d) High thermal stability
*SLRC256* -3- SLR-C 256
2. Attempt the following : 14

1) Define denaturation.
2) Name the forms of DNA.
3) What is recombinant DNA ?
4) Define DNA fingerprinting.
5) Define gene.
6) Enlist the enzyme involved in protoplast isolation.
7) Give the names of marker and reporter genes used in the production of
transgenic plant.

1) What is meant by recombinant DNA technology ? Add note on Southern
blotting technique.
2) What is tissue culture ? Briefly explain the Anther culture.
3) Write in brief about DNA libraries.
B) Describe structure of promoter. 4

1) Describe DNA replication by semiconservative method.
2) Describe micropropagation.
3) What is vector ? Describe in brief about vectors.

1) Define genetic engineering. Describe any two physical methods of gene
delivery.
2) Describe polymerase chain reaction.
3) Describe isolation of protoplast.
_____________________
*SLRC257* SLR-C 257
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper XIV)
Biotechniques and Applied Zoology

1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence. 14
1) ____________ is good source of fish oil.
a) Oil Sardine b) Pompret c) Mrigal d) Catla
2) Silk is a secretion of silkworm from its specialized
a) Fat bodies b) Anal horns c) Spiracles d) Salivary gland
3) Pearl is also called as
a) Moti b) Coral c) Hira d) Ratna
4) In biological control of pests ___________ are used.
a) Chemicals b) Fumigants
c) Biological agents d) Pheromones
5) __________ deals with culture and capture of fishes and crustaceans like
lobster, crab, shrimp etc.
a) Silviculture b) Aquaculture c) Pearl culture d) Apiculture
6) The full form of PAGE is
a) Poly Acrylamide Gel Electrophoresis
b) Poly Amyl Gel Electrophoresis
c) Poly Amide Gel Electrophoresis
d) Poly Acyl Gel Electrophoresis
P.T.O.
SLR-C 257 -2- *SLRC257*
7) ___________ deals with fish culture.

a) Apiculture b) Sericulture
c) Silviculture d) Pisciculture
8) The stem cells are ____________ in nature.

a) Nutripotent b) Pleuripotent
c) Totipotent d) Electropotent
9) Tribolium is the pest of _________ crop.
a) Maize corn b) Cotton boll c) Jowar grain d) Pea pod
10) The acidity of given sample is measured from the device
a) pH meter b) Calorimeter
c) Spectrophotometer d) Balance
11) An example of a fish is
a) Lobster b) Cuttle fish c) Sardine d) Shrimp
12) The casting of skin in silkworm is called
a) Hibernation b) Ecdysis
c) Cocoon formation d) Silk production
13) _________ rearing is done in sericulture.
a) Honey bee b) Fish c) Prawn d) Silkworm
14) The media prepared artificially by using several nutrients for the cell culture
are called as _________ media.
a) Synthetic b) Systematic c) Biological d) Physiological

i) Applications of Thin layer chromatography.
ii) pH meter.
iii) Gill net.
iv) Cotton ball worm.
*SLRC257* -3- SLR-C 257
v) Economic importance of silk.

vi) Trap net.
vii) Varieties of silkworms.
viii) Ultracentrifuge.
ix) Silkworm bacterial diseases.

i) Give an account on applications of colorimeter.
ii) Write about the uses of Column Chromatography.
iii) Describe Off Shore Sole Fishery.
B) Describe the biological control of crop pest. 4

i) Define separation technique. Describe the thin layer chromatography.
ii) Write in brief about pearl culture and its applications.
iii) Give an account on Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis and its applications.

i) Describe sericulture and its economic importance.
ii) Give an account on economic importance of fish products and by-products.
iii) Describe cryopreservation of gametes and its application.

*SLR-C-258* SLR-C – 258
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (New) CGPA Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XIV)
Programming in C


1) The C language was developed along with the ______________ operating
system.
a) LINUX b) MS-Office c) UNIX d) XP
2) The preprocessor directives are placed at ______________ of a program.
a) The beginning b) Middle
c) The end d) Any where in the program
3) The C-storage class has ______________ number of specifiers.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 6
4) The qualifier ______________ is used to tell explicitly the compiler that a
variables value may be changed at any time by some external sources from
outside the program.
a) Storage class b) Long
c) Unsigned d) Volatile
5) With usual meanings, C-expression 14% – 3 evaluate the value ________
a) 1.5 b) 5 c) 1 d) – 1
6) The lowest operator of relative precedence of the relational and logical
operators is ______________
a) == b) <<= c) d) ||
7) The ______________ operator is used to link the related expressions together.
a) Comma b) Sizeof c) Pointer d) Member selection
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 258 -2- *SLR-C-258*
8) The ______________ specifier can be used to read strings with blank spaces.
a) %s b) %[ ] c) % wc d) % wsd
9) The ______________ header file contains character function.
a) <math.h> b) <stdio.h> c) <ctype.h> d) <char.h>
10) The conversion specifier ______________ is used to print integers in
hexadecimal form.
a) \o b) \x c) \ox d) None of these
11) The sentinell-controlled loop is also known as ______________ loop.
a) Finite repetition b) Infinite repetition
c) Definite repetition d) Indefinite repetition
12) The ______________ statement is used to skip a part of the statements in
loop.
a) Break b) Continue c) Count d) Struct
13) Multiway selection can be accomplished using an else – if statement or the
______________ statement.
a) if_else b) GOTO c) While d) Switch
14) The expression ! (x! = y) can be replaced by the expression.
a) x= =y b) x>= y c) x > y d) x != y

1) Why and when do we use the # include directive ?
2) What does int main (void) mean ?
3) What are enumeration variables ? How are they declared ?
4) Write the C-arithmetic operators and their meaning.
5) State the general form of scanf function.
6) Explain the term conditional operator ?
7) Write the flowchart of exit controlled loop.
8) Write the general forms of goto and label statements.
9) Define the term multidimensional arrays.
*SLR-C-258* -3- SLR-C – 258

1) Explain the need for one-dimensional arrays.
2) Write a note on the form of C functions.
3) Give full note on the switch statement.
B) Describe the term basic structure of C-programs. 4

1) Name and describe the three looping structures in C.
2) Discuss in detail C-data types.
3) A computer manufacturing company has the following :
Monthly compensation policy to their sales-persons :
Minimum base salary : 1500.00
Bonus for every computer sold : 200.00
Commission on the total monthly sales : 2 percent since the prices of
computers are changing, the sales price of each computer is fixed at the
beginning of every month.
Write a C-program to compute a sales gross salary.

1) Give full information about the formatted output.
2) Discuss the different forms of if statement in detail.
3) a) What are the special operators in C ? Explain each of them.
b) Write a C-program to calculate average of numbers.
_____________________
*SLRC259* SLR-C 259
S e a t
N o .

STATISTICS (Special Paper XIV) (New-CGPA Pattern)
C-Programming

i) Who is called as Father of C Programming Language ?

a) Ken Thompson b) Dennis Ritchie
c) Tennis Ritchie d) Bell
ii) Which of the following is a keyword in C ?

a) what b) of c) for d) than
iii) The C program execution always begin with the function

a) begin() b) main[] c) start() d) main()
iv) The assignment statement a = a + b; is equivalent to

a) b + = a; b) a = +b; c) a = 2a; d) none of these
v) C variable cannot start with

a) An alphabet
b) A number
c) A special symbol other than underscore
d) Both b) and c)
vi) Which of the following shows the correct hierarchy of arithmetic operations
in C
a) * / + b) * / + c) + / * d) / + *
P.T.O.
SLR-C 259 -2- *SLRC259*
vii) In switch statement, each case instance value must be ___________

a) Constant b) Variable c) Special symbol d) None of these
viii) What will be the output of the following statement ?
int a = 10; a = 12%5; printf (%d, ++a);

a) 3.4 b) 2.4 c) 3 d) 11
ix) The operator + + is

a) an unary operator b) a binary operatory
c) a relational operator d) none of these
x) In C, an expression 20% 3 results in

a) 6.66 b) 2 c) 2 d) 6.67
xi) If p is an integer pointer with initial value, say 3032, then after the operation
p = p 1; the value of p will be
xii) For int type variable, ___________ is used as conversion specifier.

a) %d b) %f c) %c d) none of these
xiii) An array elements are always stored in ___________ memory locations.

a) Sequential b) Random
c) Sequential and random d) None of these
xiv) A library function pow(2,3) returns the value


i) What is a keyword in C ?
ii) State the rules for constructing integer constants.
iii) Give the list of C logical operators with their meaning.
iv) What is a getchar() ? What is its use ?
*SLRC259* -3- SLR-C 259
v) How to declare variables in C ?

vi) Give the syntax of ternary operator.
vii) Covert the following algebraic expression into C arithmetic expression :
s i n x
3 k
e
b 1 0
viii) What is pointer in C ?

ix) What is a return statement ?

i) Explain if....else statement.
ii) Explain do....while statement.
iii) Write a C program for finding the remainder when a is divided by b,
where a and b are any two integers.
B) Find the value of the variable y in the following : 4
int a = 10, b = 20, c = 35;
float y;
y = a + b/6-a*27.58/100 + c%7;

i) Explain strlen() and strrev(). Illustrate each by one example.
ii) Write a note on use defined functions.
iii) Explain for loop. Illustrate by one example.

i) Write a note on array.
ii) Write a C program for finding minimum of 3 numbers a, b and c.
iii) Write a C program for finding the addition of the following two matrices
A and B :
! "

) *

# $ % % % %

_____________________
*SLRC260* SLR-C – 260
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XIV)
(Economic Geology)

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the given options. 14
1) The placer deposits along the coastal tract of Maharashtra is _____________

a) Gold b) Zircon
c) Rutile d) Ilmenite
2) The process responsibe for the formation of placer deposits is _____________

concentration.
a) Mechanical b) Residual
c) Magmatic d) Chemical
3) The placer deposits formed by the action of ocean waves are called
___________ placers.
a) Fluvial b) Eluvial
c) Beach d) Wave
4) Tenor value for precious metals is ____________

a) Low b) High
c) Moderate d) Very high
5) Bauxite is ____________ concentration deposit rich in Al.
a) Rudaceous b) Residual
c) Arenaceous d) Hydrothermal
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 260 -2- *SLRC260*
6) Hydrothermal _____________ deposits are mainly produced in carbonate rocks.

a) Replacement b) Vein
c) Cavity filling d) Placer
7) Diamonds occurs as _____________ magmatic deposits.
a) Dissemination b) Segregation
c) Injection d) Placer
8) Sulphide ores are the most common products of ___________ process.
a) Fluvial b) Residual
c) Magmatic d) Supergene enrichment
9) Ilmenite is a common ___________ placer deposit.
a) Eluvial b) Beach
c) Alluvial d) Thermal
10) ____________ plays important role in ores formed due to contact metasomatism.
a) Heat b) Wind
c) Water d) Gravity
11) The process of oxidation and supergene enrichment takes place ____________
a) On surface b) At shallow depth
c) At greater depth d) In atmosphere
12) National Mineral Policy of India was first framed in _____________
a) 1990 b) 1938
c) 1947 d) 1999
13) In ______________ deposits ‘insitu’ gravitational accumulation is the process
of its formation.
a) Eluvial b) Alluvial
c) Hydrothermal d) Placer
14) Major Gold resources in India is located at _____________ gold fields.
a) Jaduguda b) Panna
c) Hutti d) Mangalwedha
*SLRC260* -3- SLR-C – 260
1) Fissure vein deposit.
2) Formation of laterites.
3) Contact metasomatism.
4) Epigenetic ore deposit.
5) Syngenetic ore deposit.
6) Crustification.
7) Laterite.
8) What are metalliferous mineral deposits ?
9) What are non -metalliferous mineral deposits ?

1) Describe Kolar ore deposits.
2) Indian copper deposits.
3) Saddle reef.
B) Write answer of any one of the following : 4
1) Gossan
2) Tenor of ore.

1) Supergene enrichment process.
2) What is hydrothermal replacement deposit ? Give Indian example.
3) Describe any two essential conditions for the formation of hydrothermal
deposits.

1) Explain the concept and need of conservation of minerals, give examples.
2) Late magmatic deposition process.
3) Explain Origin and distribution of Indian copper deposits.
___________________
*SLRC261* SLR-C – 261
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (New -CGPA) Examination, 2017

MICROBIOLOGY
Medical Microbiology (Special Paper No. – XIV)
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal Marks.

2) Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives from given

below : 14
i) The gastric and duodenal ulcer is caused by __________

A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Proteus mirabilis
ii) Leprosy spreads by __________

A) Droplets B) Contacts
C) Mosquitoes D) Blood
iii) Pyocyanin pigment is produced by __________

A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Proteus mirabilis
iv) Cholera toxin increases the activity of __________ enzyme in human intestinal
cells.
A) Urease B) Adenyl cyclase
C) DNase D) Coagulase
v) Levinson-Jonson medium is used for the cultivation of __________

A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Escherichia coli
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 261 -2- *SLRC261*
vi) VDRL test is used for the detection of __________
A) Escherichia coli B) Hepatitis virus
C) Vibrio cholarae D) Treponema palidium
vii) Urinary tract infection is caused by __________
A) Klebsiella pneumoniae B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus vulgaris D) All of these
viii) Genital blisters or ulcer caused by __________ type of virus.

A) HSV–1 B) HSV– 2
C) HIV D) Hepatitis
ix) __________ is a antibiotic which inhibit growth of bacteria by inhibiting

protein synthesis.
A) Penicillin B) Streptomycin
C) Amphotericin B D) Quinolone
x) __________ antibiotic used as antifungal antibiotic.

A) Amphotericin B B) Sulphonamides
C) Cephalosporin D) Fluconazole
xi) Plasmodium reproduces asexually in the__________

A) Mosquitoes B) Human
C) Stagnant water D) Both A & B
xii) Incubation period of Hepatitis B virus is __________

A) 2-6 weeks B) 6-10 days
C) 2-6 years D) 2-6 months
xiii) H1N1 viruses can be transmitted from one person to another person
through __________
A) Blood B) Droplets
C) Food D) All of these
xiv) __________ bacteria used as biological warfare agent.
A) Bacillus anthracis B) Bolivian HF C) Smallpox D) Ricin

*SLRCZ56* -3- SLR-C – 261

i) Define Lepromatous leprosy.
ii) What are negri bodies ?
iii) What is genital herpes ?
iv) Enlist virulence factors that promote protozoan colonization.
v) What is Inactivation and modification of drugs ?
vi) Acid fast staining.
vii) Enlist the antibiotic of nucleic acid inhibitors.
viii) What is oral thrush ?
ix) Enlist ideal characteristics of antibiotics.

i) Describe in brief hospital acquired infection.
ii) Discuss in detail mode of transmission and symptoms of cholarae.
iii) Describe in detail epidemiology and pathogenesis of Herpes virus.
B) Give a detailed account on antibiotic sensitivity. 4

i) Describe in detail rabies.
ii) Discuss in detail mechanism of drug resistance.
iii) What is AIDS ? Discuss in detail modes of transmission, pathogenesis,
symptoms of AIDS. Add a note on its laboratory diagnosis.

i) Discuss in detail modes of transmission, pathogenesis, symptoms and
treatment of HIV.
ii) Describe in detail account on the Swine flue virus.
iii) Give a detailed account on biological warfare.
–––––––––––––––
*SLRC262* SLR-C 262
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (New) Examination, 2017

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper XIV) CGPA Pattern
Measurement Instrumentation and Control System

3) Neat diagrams are drawn wherever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternative of the following. 14
1) The PLC is ________ of microcomputer system.

a) industrial type b) digital type
c) solid-state type d) all of these
2) In the resting state the bio-potential generated is

a) 70 m V b) 20 m V c) +20 m V d) +70 m V
3) The servo motor is ________ of motor.

a) brushed type b) brushless type
c) rotary or linear type d) all of these
4) The basic principle of LCR-Q meter is to measure ______ across the

component under test.
a) resistance b) vector voltage
c) capacitance d) inductance
5) The _______ ion are responsible for development of bio-potential.

a) Na+ b) Cu+ c) OH d) Fe+
6) In case of CRO, the delay line circuit is introduced in ________ channel.

a) horizontal b) vertical c) dual d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 262 -2- *SLRC262*
7) In case of PI control system the output of the controller is linearly proportional

to the
a) the input error signal
b) time integral of the input error signal
c) both a and b
d) rate of change of the input error signal
8) The basic need of digital controller is
a) ADC b) Microcontroller
c) DAC d) None of these
9) The _____ instrument is used to detect the electrical activity of the brain of
human body.
a) EMG b) ECG c) EEG d) EOG
10) The _____ is the example of the open loop control system.
a) traffic light control b) servo-motor
c) room air conditioner system d) automatic iron
11) In case of PID control system the basic component utilized is
a) BJT b) FET c) UJT d) Op-Amp
12) The frequency range employed for the ultrasound imaging is
a) 1 to 15 MHz b) 1 to 15 KHz c) 1 to 15 GHz d) none of these
13) The _____ control system is the composite control system.
a) Proportional b) ON-OFF c) PID d) Derivative
14) The change in pulse width utilize normally for control of
a) Temperature b) DC motor c) Humidity d) Soil moiture

1) Draw the ECG waveform with its label.
2) Give the characteristics of control system.
3) Give the symbols of ladder diagram.
4) Define the resting and action bio-potential.
5) Give the advantages and disadvantages of the PID control system.
6) Draw the block diagram of EMG recorder.
7) Give the salient features of LCR-Q meter.
8) Enlist various knobs of CRO
9) Give the applications of PLC.
*SLRC262* -3- SLR-C 262

1) Explain the ultrasonic imaging system.
2) Explain the conductivity meter with the block diagram.
3) Explain the ON-OFF control system.
B) Explain the digital multimeter (DMM) with the block diagram. 4

1) Explain the pulse oximeter with block diagram.
2) Explain the servo-motor control system in detail with functional diagram.
3) Explain DSO with the help of block diagram.

1) Explain origin of the bio-potentials and explain in detail EEG recording system.
2) a) Explain the detail architecture of the PLC.
b) Explain function generator with its applications.

*SLRC263* SLR-C 263
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Data Communication and Networking II (New CGPA)
Special Paper XIV

2) Figure to the right place indicate full marks.
1. A) Choose correct alternatives. 10

1) ____________ protocol is used for transforming mails on the internet.
a) POP b) IP c) SMTP d) HTTP
2) A repeater take a weakened signal and __________ it.
a) Repeat b) Regenerate c) Resample d) Reroute
3) __________ server uses distributed file service.
a) Print b) File c) Web d) Database
4) Which of the following IP address class is multicast ?
a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D
5) Bridge works in which layer of the OSI model ?
a) Application layer b) Transport layer
c) Network layer d) Data link layer
6) Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is used in
a) browser security b) email security
c) FTP security d) none of these
7) Bluetooth uses
a) frequency hoping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned
P.T.O.
SLR-C 263 -2- *SLRC263*
8) In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by

a) sender
b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network
9) HTTP is __________ protocol.
a) application layer b) transport layer
c) network layer d) none of the mentioned
10) Which of the following is not a valid file type on Linux ?
a) Socket b) Softlink c) Inode d) FIFO
B) State the following statements true/false. 4

1) TCP protocol is connection oriented protocol.
2) ARP protocol used to find the hardware address of a local device.
3) FTP protocols uses both TCP and UDP.
4) 10XXXXXX is the address range of a Class B network address in binary.

1) What is meant by piconet ?
2) What is meant by Plain text and cipher text ?
3) SNMP and SMTP stands for.
4) What is the function of repeater ?
5) TLS and MIME stands for.
6) What is the role of network administrator in Linux ?
7) GPRS and SGM stands for
8) What is encryption and decryption ?
9) What is buffering ?
*SLRC263* -3- SLR-C 263

1) Explain HTTP in detail.
2) Explain Firewall in detail.
3) Explain Samba server in detail.
B) Explain Hub in detail. 4

1) Explain SMTP and POP in detail.
2) Explain Cryptography in detail.
3) Explain SSL Encryption in detail.

1) Explain FTP server of Linux in detail.
2) Explain Authentication Mechanisms in detail.
3) What is compression ? Explain types of compression.
______________
*SLR-C-264* SLR-C – 264
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (Old) Examination, 2017

Breakthrough

1) A great law of human action that Tom discovered to make a person covet a
thing was _____________
a) To make the thing easy to do
b) To make the thing difficult to attain
c) To make the thing simple to attain
d) To neglect the thing
2) The new diamond necklace that Loisel bought to give it to Mme Forester was
priced _____________
a) Forty thousand francs b) Thirty four thousand francs
c) Thirty-six thousand francs d) Five hundred francs
3) Pyramus saw in the sand the footsteps of the _____________

a) Tiger b) Wolf
c) Fox d) Lion
4) Pyramus and Thisbe decided to meet at the foot of a _____________

a) White mulberry tree b) Purple mulberry tree
c) Green mulberry tree d) Pink mulberry tree
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 264 -2- *SLR-C-264*
5) In the poem ‘In the Bazaars of Hyderabad’ the goldsmith makes girdles of
gold for _____________
a) Musicians b) Dancers
c) Kings d) Maidens
6) According to Phillis Wheatley, ____________ is higher than a fool can reach.

a) Knowledge b) Wealth
c) Wisdom d) Glory
7) The tag question for the sentence “Everyone is asleep” is _____________

a) Isn’t he ? b) Isn’t it ?
c) Aren’t they ? d) Isn’t they ?
8) “What you did helped us.” The underlined clause is _____________

a) Adverbial clause b) Adjectival clause
c) Relative clause d) Noun clause
9) “No sooner did it stop raining than Mohit left for work.” This sentence is
a _____________
a) Simple sentence b) Complex sentence
c) Compound sentence d) None of these
10) “I met the woman you spoke to.” The underlined clause is _____________
a) A noun clause b) A relative clause
c) An adverbial clause d) An adjectival clause
2. Answer any five of the following questions in brief : 10

1) How did Tom react after surveying the fence ?
2) What did Mathilde and Loisel do to pay the debt ?
3) Why did Thisbe end her life ?
4) According to classical mythology, why are mulberries purple in colour ?
5) What is the end of the story the Necklace ?
6) What did Tom acquire at the end of the day ?
*SLR-C-264* -3- SLR-C – 264

1) What is the theme of the poem “In the Bazaars of Hyderabad ” ?
2) What is the speaker’s attitude to life on earth in the poem On Virtue ?
3) Who will buy the things the goldsmiths make ?
B) Answer any two of the following in brief : 4
1) Make a list of four ways in which you usually waste your time. How can
you manage your time better ?
2) Mahesh is a young Maharashtrian man working in a multinational company
as a sales manager. He has recently been transferred to Kolkata. He is
unfamiliar with the city and its weather, people, food, language and culture.
Suggest ways in which Mahesh can successfully adapt himself to the new
environment where he has to live and work.
3) You are working as a bank manager in a private commercial bank. You
have been given the target which you are unable to fulfill. You work overnight
and could not sleep. You become irritable and tense. What would you do
to reduce your stress ?

1) Write in detail the description of a cricket player you like most. Give the traits
of his personality.
2) Describe in detail your trip to North India.
5. Read the following passage and summarise it : 10

It is very easy to acquire bad habits, such as eating too many sweets or too
much food, or drinking too much fluid of any kind, or smoking. The more we do a
thing, the more we tend to like doing it ; and if we do not continue to do it, we feel
unhappy. This is called the force of habit and the force of habit should be fought
against.
Things which may be very good when only done from time to time, tend to
become very harmful when done too often and too much. This applies even to
such good things as work or rest. Some people form a bad habit of working too
much and others of idling too much. The wise man always remembers that this is
true about himself and checks any bad habit. He says to himself, “I am now
becoming idle,” or “I like too many sweets,” or “I smoke too much” and then
adds, “I will get myself out of this bad habit at once.”
SLR-C – 264 -4- *SLR-C-264*
One of the most widely spread of bad habits is the use of tobacco. Tobacco is
now smoked or chewed by men, often by women and even by children, almost all
over the world. It was brought into Europe from America by Sir Walter Raleigh,
four centuries ago and has hence spread everywhere. I very much doubt whether
there is any good in the habit, even when tobacco is not used excess; and it is
extermely difficult to get rid of the habit when once it has been formed.
Alcohol is taken in almost all cool and cold climates and to a very much less
extent in hot ones. Thus, it is taken by people who live in the Himalaya Mountains,
but not nearly so much by those who live in the plains of India. Alcohol is not
necessary in any way to anybody. Millions of people are beginning to do without
it entirely : and once the United States of America have passed laws which forbid
its manufacture or sale through out the length and breadth of their vast country.
In Indian it is not required by the people at all and should be avoided by them
altogether. The regular use of alcohol, even in small quantities, tends to cause
mischief in many ways to various organs of the body. It affects the liver; it
weakens the mental powers and lessens the general energy of the body.
_______________
*SLRC265* SLR-C – 265
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) Examination, 2017

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XIII)
Electrodynamics (Old)


i) The drift velocity of a charged particle in crossed fields is independent
of __________
→ →
a) E b) B
→
c) Specific charge (q/m) d) V
ii) The trajectory of a charged particle in mutually perpendicular crossed electric

and magnetic fields is _________
a) cycloid b) circle c) helix d) parabola
iii) The line integral of electric force per unit charge over a closed path is
_________
a) emf b) electric flux
c) magnetic induction d) current
iv) Generation of motional emf is the principle of _________

a) battery b) generator
c) photovoltaic cell d) voltaic cell
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 265 -2- *SLRC265*
v) Electromagnetic wave equations were formulated by _________

a) Newton b) Einstein
c) Goldstein d) Maxwell
vi) Differential form of Ampere’s circuital law for steady current is, _________
→ →
→
∂ρ →
∂ρ
a) ∇ ⋅ J = μ b) ∇ ⋅ J = 0 c) ∇ ⋅ J = − d) ∇ ⋅ J =
0 ∂t ∂t
vii) The electromagnetic energy crossing unit area in unit time is called ________
a) Poynting’s vector b) Polarization vector
c) Energy density d) Momentum
viii) Incident and transmitted waves are, ________
a) always in phase b) out of phase
n v
1 1
c) depends upon the value of n d) depends upon value of v
2 2
ix) When a wave gets reflected from the surface of a denser medium, there
occurs a phase change of _________
a) 0° b) 90° c) 180° d) 270°
x) Static charge can __________

a) radiate b) not radiate
c) nothing can be said d) radiate at some condition

i) Write Gauss law in differential form and give meaning of each term.
ii) Explain Biot-Savart’s law.
iii) Sketch the graphical representation of plane electromagnetic wave with usual
notations.
iv) Compute the wave impedance of free space.
v) What is transmission coefficient of electromagnetic wave ?
vi) Define retarded time.
*SLRC265* -3- SLR-C – 265

1) Define self-inductance and state its unit.
2) State and explain Ampere’s law.
3) Obtain expression for total power radiated by an electric dipole.
B) Find the reflection and transmission coefficients for normal incidence at
glass-air interface. Given : Refractive index of glass = 1.5 and refractive
index for air = 1.0. 4

1) What is mutual inductance ? Derive Newmann formula for mutual inductance.
→ → →
2) Discuss the orthogonality of E , H AND K vectors of EM wave.
3) Explain total internal reflection of cm waves.

1) Show that a charged particle moves along a circular path with constant speed,
⎛ →⎞
in a uniform magnetic field ⎜ B ⎟ .
⎝ ⎠
2) Explain Maxwell’s correction for Ampere’s law. Why correction was needed ?
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRC266* SLR-C 266
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (Old) Examination, 2017

CHEMISTRY
Physical Chemistry (Special Paper XIII)

ii) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
iii) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite the
sentence : 10
i) The relationship between wavelength, frequency and velocity of light is given
by equation
a) c b) c) d)
?

?
ii) For rotational transitions selection rule is

a) J 3
b) J 1
c) J 2
d) J 1
iii) __________ molecule show pure rotational spectra in microwave region.

a) HCl b) N2 c) H2 d) O2
iv) The liquid mixtures which distill with change in composition are called
a) Azeotropic mixtures b) Azeotropes
c) Boiling mixtures d) Zeotropic mixtures
v) Solution which does not obey Raoults law at all concentrations and
temperatures are called
a) Ideal solution b) Non-ideal solution
c) Binary solution d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 266 -2- *SLRC266*
vi) For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)

2 NH3(g) ; vant Hoff reaction isotherm
equation is
a) Wmax = 2.303 RT b) Wmax = 2.303 R
c) Wmax = log KP RT d) Wmax = 2.303 RT log KP 2 RT
vii) For spontaneous process change in free energy is
a) Positive b) Negative c) Both a) and b) d) All of these
viii) The term fugacity has dimensions of
a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Volume d) Length
ix) For third order reaction, half life period

J

=

a) b) c) d)
3
2
0 . 6 9 3 1
3 a k
! = k
2 a k
x) The reactions in which the reactants react in more than one way to give
different products are called ________ reactions.
a) Competing b) Consecutive c) Chain d) Reversible

i) CO2 does not show rotational spectra, but show vibrational spectra. Give
reasons.
ii) Mole fraction of solution is unity. Explain.
iii) Write Gibbs-Helmholtz equation. Give significance of the terms involved
in it.
iv) Define fugacity and activity.
v) Define consecutive reaction.
vi) What is temperature coefficient of reactions.

i) State and explain Raoults law.
ii) Give the significance of Helmholtz free energy.
iii) Explain graphical method to find rate constant of third order reaction.
B) Calculate reduced mass and moment of intertia of HCl ; if bond length is
1.275 A° and atomic masses of H and Cl are 1.008 and 35. [N = 6.023 × 1023] 4
*SLRC266* -3- SLR-C 266

i) Derive thermodynamically law of mass action.
ii) Give in detailed account of collision theory.
iii) Describe vibrational spectra of diatomic molecule.

i) What are azeotropic mixtures ? Explain the distillation of solution with systems
having maximum boiling point.
ii) 1.5 mole of water is vaporised reversibly at 99.5 C° and one atmosphere
pressure. The work done during this process is 2905.4 J and heat of
vaporisation of water is 39458 J. Calculate H, S, A and G for the

process.
iii) Derive Arrhenius equation to calculate energy of activation.
_______________
*SLRC268* SLR-C 268
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) (Old) Examination, 2017

ZOOLOGY
PHYSIOLOGY (Special Paper XIII)

1. Multiple choice questions. 10
1) ________ is used when kidney functions failed.

a) Space maker b) Stethoscope
c) Dialyser d) Sphygmomanometer
2) The synthesis of glycogen from proteins and fat is called as

a) Glycolysis b) Glycogenesis
c) Glycogenolysis d) Gluconeogenesis
3) ________ is called antisterility vitamin.

a) Vit. D b) Vit. K c) Vit. E d) Vit. A
4) Beriberi disorder caused by the deficiency of vitamin

a) B1 b) K c) D d) C
5) The chemical reaction necessary for the food stuff to be utilized by the body
is termed as
a) catabolism b) metabolism c) respiration d) digestion
6) Sliding filament theory of muscle contraction firstly proposed by

a) H.E. Huxley b) Hanson c) Darwin d) Luise
7) Mammalian urine is _________ to the blood.
a) isotonic b) hypertonic c) dilute d) hypotonic
P.T.O.
SLR-C 268 -2- *SLRC268*
8) ________ is called as antifertility vitamin.

a) Vit. D b) Vit. E c) Vit. A d) Vit. K
9) In mouth the salivary amylase enzyme digest starch into

a) fatty acids and glycerols b) amino-acids
c) lactose and galactose d) dextrin and maltose
10) Bowmans capsules are located in ______ region of kidney.

a) Cortex b) Medulla c) Pelvis d) Calyx
1) Definition of respiration
2) Functions of bile
3) Cardiac cycle
4) Draw neat labelled diagram of nerve cell
5) Sarcomere
6) Dialysis.

1) Explain dialysis.
2) Give an account of Vitamin K.
3) Describe glycolysis.
B) Physiology of gastric digestion. 4

1) Describe Vitamin C with reference to its sources, roles and deficiencies.
2) Glycogenesis.
3) Riboflavin.

1) Describe the ultra structure of nephron and add a note on urine formation.
2) Describe the molecular mechanism of the muscle contraction.

*SLRC269* SLR-C 269
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper XIII)
Metric Spaces

1. Choose correct alternative : 10

1) The union of infinite number of closed sets of a metric space is
a) Open b) Closed c) Not closed d) None of these
2) Every convergent sequence in metric space is
a) Cauchy sequence b) Divergent
c) Oscillatory d) None of these
3) If A is the set (0 ,1) then its diameter d(A) =
a) 0 b)
c) 1 d)
4) The function f : (0, 1) R, defined by f(x) = is

a) Uniformly continuous b) Not uniformly continuous

c) Compact d) Continuous on R
5) The mapping : R R R
, defined by ( x , y ) x y ;
x, y R, then

is
called
a) Discrete metric b) Absolute value metric
c) Pseudo metric d) None of these
6) Every compact metric space is
a) Complete and not bounded b) Complete and totally bounded
c) Bounded and not complete d) Complete and not totally bounded
7) Let f(x) = x2 on [0, 2) be a real valued function. Then f attains the maximum
value at the point
a) x = 0 b) x = 1 c) x = 2 d) x = 4
P.T.O.
SLR-C 269 -2- *SLRC269*
8) Let X = R and Fn = then

1

0 ,

a) Fns are closed b)

.
n

n 1
c)
.
n

d) None of these
n 1
9) Let f : R R and a R. If f is not continuous at x = a then
a) W[f ; a] > 0 b) W[f ; a] < 0 c) W[f ; a] = 0 d) None of these
10) Let X = [0, 1] with absolute value metric, then is

1 1

S ;

2 4

a) b)
1 3 3

, 0 ,

4 4 4

c) d)
3

1 3

0 ,

4 4


1) Every convergent sequence is Cauchy sequence.
2) Show that every finite subset of metric space is totally bounded.
3) If A is a closed subset of a compact metric space (X, d), then metric space
(A, d) is compact.
4) Prove that, every singleton set in R is closed.
5) If T : X X is defined as Tx = x2 where X = , then T is contraction on

1

0 ,

.
1

0 ,

6) Let E be a compact subset of R, then it is closed and bounded.

*SLRC269* -3- SLR-C 269

1) The function defined by

x , y

x y
is metric for set R. Prove that

(R, ) is metric space.
2) If T is contraction on X and if N
n
N
then prove that Txn

Tx.
3) Let (M,
) be metric space and let a be point in M. If l i m f ( x ) L
and
N =
l i m g ( x ) N
then l i m

f ( x ) g ( x )

L N .
N =
N =
B) If s = and t = are in l2 then s + t = is in l2 and

I J I J

n n n n
n 1 n 1 n 1

. 4

2 2
I J I J

n n n n

n 1 n 1 n 1


1) If (M, ) is complete metric space and A is closed subset of M then (A, ) is

also complete.
2) If x = (x1, x2), y = (y1, y2) are only two points in R2, we can define metric

(x, y) = max { |x1, y1|, |x2 y2|}. To find : R2 × R2 in R for metric space.
Prove that (R2, ) is metric space.
3) If G1 and G2 are open subset of metric space M, then prove that /

/
is
also open.
1) If f is continuous at a and be any sequence of real number

N

4
n 1
converges to a then show that l i m f ( x
n
) f ( a )
.
n
2) Let (M, ) is complete metric space for each
N I
. Let Fn be the closed
bounded subset of M such that
a) F
1
F
2
F
3
. . . F
n
F
n 1
. . .
b) dia Fn
0 as n

Then
.
n
contains Precisely one point.
n
_______________
*SLRC272* SLR-C 272
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY
Microbial Genetics (Special Paper XIII)

1) In the Lac-operon the genes in the operon are
A) Always expressed
B) Never expressed
C) Only expressed when lactose is present
D) Only expressed when lactose is absent
2) Helix unwinding during replication is accomplished by
A) DNA gyrase B) DNA helicases
C) DNA polymerase I D) DNA polymerase II
3) The plasmid vectors that are specifically designed to replicate in two different
hosts are called as
A) Shuttle vectors B) Plasmids
C) Cosmid D) Replacement vectors
4) Folded fiber model of E.Coli chromosome was proposed by
A) Worcel et al. B) Baltimore
C) Khurana D) Pettijohn and Hetcht
5) When two mutations in a region of DNA cause negative Cis-trans test that
region is called
A) Muton B) Cistron C) Replicon D) Gene
6) Okazaki fragments are synthesized in __________ direction.
A) Opposite B) Same
C) Any D) No relation of the replication fork
P.T.O.
SLR-C 272 *SLRC272*
7) DNA replication by semiconservative mode in E.Coli was experimentally proved
by
A) Delbruck B) Watson and Crick
C) Zinder and Lederberg D) Meselson and Stahl
8) The term plasmid was coined by
A) Tatum B) Ochoa C) Lederberg D) Delbruck
9) The initial source for all genetic variation is
A) Sexual reproduction B) Mutation
C) Conjugation D) Transformation
10) __________ is not a type of RNA.
A) uRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA

i) Write down the corresponding transcript (mRNA) for following DNA sequence
of a gene AAAGTCTGAC.
ii) Define Mutation.
iii) Definition of Cosmids.
iv) What is Electrophoresis ?
v) What is cloning ?
vi) Define phenotype.
vii) What is DNA finger printing ?

a) Describe briefly the enzymes involved in DNA replication.
b) Discuss briefly structural organization of E.Coli chromosome.
c) Briefly explain electrophoresis of DNA.
B) Explain in detail phenotypic lag with diagram. 4

i) Give the detailed account of Lac-operon and its regulation.
ii) Briefly explain methodology and applications of genetic engineering.
iii) Describe briefly protein engineering.

i) Discuss briefly the Cis Trans test.
ii) Describe briefly the process of transcription.
iii) Give the detail account of Missence mutations.
_____________

*SLRC275* SLR-C 275

Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper XIV)
Materials Science

3) Use of the log table or calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative. 10

i) _______ behave as insulator at low temperature but develop significant
conductivity as temperature rises.
a) Metals b) Semiconductors
c) Ceramics d) Glass
ii) _______ is time dependent permanent deformation.
a) Creep b) Elasticity c) Plasticity d) Fatigue
iii) Among the following which is a synthetic polymer ?
a) starch b) silk c) polythene d) wood
iv) The addition polymerisation which is catalysed by acidic catalyst is known
as _____
a) anionic b) cationic c) anphoteric d) neutral
v) Bakelite is the example of _______ polymer.
a) thermosetting b) thermoplastic
c) synthetic rubber d) none of these
vi) Ceramics normally exhibit _____nature.
a) brittle b) soft c) hard d) none of these
vii) The properties of material are highly an isotropic when they are in the form
of ______
a) polycrystalline b) single crystalline
c) liquid d) amorphous P.T.O.
SLR-C 275 *SLRC275*
viii) How small nanometer is ________
a) 109 m b) 1023m c) half million meter d) 1010 m
ix) Size of the nanoparticle is _____.
a) 10 20 nm b) 20 30 nm c) 5 10 nm d) 30 40 nm
x) The materials which are used for structural applications in the field of medicine
are
a) biomaterials b) metals c) composites d) alloys

i) What is malleability and ductility ?
ii) What are polymers ?
iii) State any four applications of ceramics.
iv) What is a composite material ?
v) Define nanophase materials.
vi) What are biomaterials ?

i) Discuss the thermal properties of the materials.
ii) What is meant by thermoplastic polymers ? Explain with example.
iii) What are the properties of composites ?
B) Write a note on applications of nanomaterials. 4

i) What is meant by addition and condensation polymerisation ? Give example
of each.
ii) What are ceramic materials ? Explain electric properties of ceramics.
iii) Explain chemical bath deposition method for thin films.

i) Discuss the classification of materials. Explain in brief mechanical properties
of materials.
ii) a) Explain classification of polymers and
b) Explain applications of biomaterials.
_________________
*SLRC276* SLR-C 276
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper XIV)
Inorganic Chemistry

2) Draw neat diagram and give equation wherever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentences. 10
1) The electronic configuration of Americium is
a) [Rn] 5f76d07s2 b) [Rn] 5f76d17s2
c) [Rn] 5f66d07s2 d) [Rn] 5f65d17s2
2) Idea of super conductors was introduced by
a) Bloch b) Kamerlingh Onnes
c) Pauling d) Drude
3) (3c 2e) bonds are present in
a) B3M3H6 b) XeO3 c) XeO4 d) B2H6
4) Atmospheric corrosion involves __________ heterogeneous system.
a) Solid-solid b) Solid-gas c) Liquid-gas d) Liquid-solid
5) In carbonyl compound M is __________ while CO is
a) Lewis acid, Lewis base b) Lewis base, Lewis acid
c) Acid, base d) Electron donar, electron acceptor
6) The name of the element with atomic number 120 is
a) Un-bi-nilium b) Un-di-nilium c) Bi-un-unium d) Un-bi-unium
7) Germanium doped with acceptor impurity is __________ conductor.
a) Super b) n-type c) P-type d) Mixed oxide
8) In XeF2 molecule Xe shows __________ hybridization.
a) SP b) SP2 c) SP3 d) SP3d
P.T.O.
SLR-C 276 *SLRC276*
9) Corrosion is electrochemical process that involves anodic __________ of

metals.
a) Adsorption b) Dissolution c) Association d) Co-agulation
10) Borarine undergoes __________ reaction.
a) Substitution b) Addition c) Reduction d) Oxidation
2. Answer any five of the following 10

1) Lanthanides are called innertransition elements why ?
2) What are the applications of super conductors ?
3) Draw the structure of P4O 10.
4) Define immersed corrosion.
5) Describe the synthesis of alkyl-beryllium compounds.
6) Mention methods of separation of lanthanides.

1) Explain the factors affecting the corrosion.
2) Discuss the structure SO2 molecule.
3) Write the name, symbol and atomic number of the lanthanides.
B) Explain the different properties of metallic solids. 4

1) What are lanthanides ? Explain the ion exchange method of separation in
detail.
2) What is superconductivity ? Describe the structure of 1-2-3 superconductor.
3) Describe the structure of borazine.

1) Explain IUPAC nomenclature system of super heavy elements and name any
two of the elements having atomic number greater than 100.
2) What is metallic bond ? Discuss the band theory of metals.
3) Draw and explain the structure of diborane.
___________
*SLRC277* SLR-C 277
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Special Paper XIV)
Systematics of Angiosperms
alternatives : 10
1) The elongation of internode between stamens and carpel is called __________
a) Anthophore b) Androphore c) Gynophore d) Carpophore
2) Gnetalean theory was proposed by ________
a) Saporta and Marion b) Wettstein
c) Markgraf d) P. Maheshwari
3) __________ ovary is supposed to be more advanced.
a) Superior b) Half superior
c) Inferior d) Half Inferior
4) __________ includes the study of pollen grains and spores.
a) Morphology b) Anatomy c) Embryology d) Palynology
5) __________ tissue is polyploid.
a) Tapetum b) Parietal
c) Epidermal d) Pollen mother cell
6) Most common type of ovule in angiosperms is __________
a) Orthotropus b) Anatropous
c) Hemianatropous d) Campylotropous
7) Allium type of embryo sac is __________
a) Monosporic b) Bisporic
c) Tetrasporic d) None of these
8) When birds pollinate the flowers it is called __________
a) Entomophily b) Chiropterophily
c) Ornithophily d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 277 *SLRC277*
9) Endosperm tissue is __________

a) Haploid b) Diploid c) Triploid d) Tetraploid
10) Coconut fruit is dispersed by __________
a) Wind b) Birds c) Insect d) Water

1) Give any four primitive characters of flower.
2) What is microsporogenesis ?
3) Sketch and label typical monosporic embryo sac.
4) Define Heterostyly.
5) Give economic importance of family-Rutaceae with example.
6) Give distinguishing character of family Capparidaceae.

i) Describe Bennettitalean theory of Angiosperms.
ii) Write on role of cytology in relation to taxonomy.
iii) Describe Halobial endosperm.
B) Describe monosporic (Polygonum type) embro sac. 4

i) Give salient features of Engler and Prantls system of classification.
ii) Write note on dispersal of fruit and seeds.
iii) Give the distinguishing characters of any one of the following families with
economic importance.
a) Apocynaceae
b) Poaceae.

i) Describe types of ovules studied by you.
ii) Describe the development of embryo in Capsella.
iii) Describe Adaptation for entomophily and ornithophily.
_____________________
*SLRC278* SLR-C 278
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper XIV)
Endocrinology, Environmental Biology and Toxicology

1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence : 10
1) Increase in concentration of toxicants from one link in food chain to another
link is known as
a) Bioaccumilation b) Biocontemination
c) Bioremidiation d) Biomagnification
2) DDT, Aldrin and dia-aldrin are _____ pesticides, which are extremely persistent
and accumulate in various tissue.
a) organo-chlorine b) organo-phosphate
c) carbonate d) pyrethroide
3) Conservation of plants and animals in zoos, botanical gardens and laboratories
is known as __________ conservation.
a) In-situ b) Ex-situ c) In-vivo d) Ex-vivo
4) The process of burning of municipal solid waste is known as
a) Land filling b) Incineration
c) Vermicomposting d) Biocomposting
5) In mytilus the adaptation for attachment to substratum is
a) muscular foot b) cement gland
c) byssus thread d) pedal disc
6) _______ hormone increases the metabolic rate.
a) STH b) Insulin c) Thyroxine d) Testosterone
P.T.O.
SLR-C 278 *SLRC278*
7) Lentic is the term used for

a) Stagnant water b) Running water
c) Streams d) Rivers
8) Hormone responsible for regulation of calcium and phosphorous metabolism
is secreted by ________
a) Pancreas b) Adrenal c) Thymus d) Parathyroid
9) Insulin secreted by _______ cells of Islets.
a)
-alpha b) -beta c)
-gama d)
-delta
10) Aldosterone is secreted by
a) Thyroid b) Parathyroid c) Adrenal d) Islets

I) Diabetes
II) GnRH
III) Biodiversity
IV) LC-50
V) Animal Ethics
VI) Prostaglandins.

I) Adrenal cortex hormone.
II) Disorders of parathyroid hormones.
III) Pesticides.
B) Rain-water harvesting. 4

I) Conservation of Great Indian Bustard.
II) Hormones of thyroid gland.
III) Applications of Toxicology.

I) Describe anatomy and histology of Islets of Langerhans along with hormones.
II) Characteristics and faunal adaptations in Fresh water animal.

*SLRC279* SLR-C 279
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper XIV)
Numerical Analysis
N.B. : 1) Use of scientific calculators are allowed.

1) Which one of the following result is correct ?

a) x
n
n x
n 1
b) x
( n )
n x
( n 1 )
c)
n
A
x
A
x
d) c o s x s i n x
2) t a n

x
_______
a) b)
2 h h

t a n t a n

1 h x x 1 h x x

c) d) None of these
h

t a n

1 h x x

3) If f (x) = ex then
$
A
N

________
a) (eh + 1)6ex b) (eh 1)6ex
c) (eh 1)6ex d) (eh 1)e2x
4) The order of the difference equation yn + 2 2yn + yn 1 = 1 is
a) third b) two c) one d) four
5) If the roots are real and equal (i.e.

) then C.F. = _________
a) (c1 + c2)
1

n
b) (c1 + c2n)
1

n
c) (c1 + c2n)

d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 279 -2- *SLRC279*
6) The solution of (E2 4E + 3)yn = 0 is

a) c1( 1)n + c2 ( 3)n b) c1 + c23n
c) c12n + c2 d) c1 c22n
H @
7) Simpsons rule is obtained by putting n = ___________

8) The exact value of is ____________

@ N
N
a) 0.6931 b) 0.7031 c) 0.3169 d) 0.6831

9) If the given data is not equally spaced and interpolation is near end of the data
then ___________ interpolation formula is used.
a) Lagranges b) Newtons backward difference
c) Newtons forward difference d) None of these
10) Extrapolation is defined as ________________

a) Extrapolation is the process of estimating the value of a function outside the
given range of values
b) Extrapolation is the process of estimating the value of a function inside the
given range of values
c) Both a) and b) are true
d) None of these
1) Evaluate
e
N
l o g 2 x
.

2) With usual notation prove that .

- -
3) Solve un+2 2un+1 + un = 0.

4) State Trapezoidal rule for integration.
5) State Lagranges interpolation formula for the data containing 4 arguments
x0, x1, x2 and x3.
6) From yn = A2n + B ( 3)n, derive a difference equation by eliminating the
constant.
*SLRC279* -3- SLR-C 279

1) Use Lagranges formula to find f (10) given
x 5 6 9 11
f (x) 12 13 14 16
2) Usual notation prove that - - .

J D
3) Evaluate by using Simpsons rule. Take h = 0.25.

N
!

@ N
!
N &

B) Solve y
n 2
2 y
n 1
y
n
n
2
2
n
. 4

1) Find the missing yx values from the first difference provided.
yx 0
O
N
0 1 2 4 7 11
2) Using Newtons backward difference formula, construct an interpolating

polynomial of degree 3 for the data.
f ( 0.75) = 0.0718125, f ( 0.5) = 0.02475,
f ( 0.25) = 0.3349375, f (0) = 1.10100. Hence find .

B

3) Solve O
N
O
N
N O
N
N O
N
N N
.

H @
1) State and prove Simpsons rule. Hence evaluate the integral

N

A @ N

taking the 10 intervals.

2) If y = f(x) takes the values y0, y1, y2 . . . yn corresponding to the values
x0, x1, x2, . . . xn. Then prove that
p ( p 1 ) p ( p 1 ) ( p 2 ) p ( p 1 ) ( p 2 ) . . . ( p n 1 )
2 3 n
y y p y y y . . . y
p 0 0 0 0 0
2 ! 3 ! n !
_______________

*SLRC280* SLR-C – 280

Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (Old) Examination, 2017

STATISTICS (Special Paper – XIV)
Design of Experiments

1. Choose the correct alternative from the following : 10

i) An experimental unit in a research work is
a) an animal b) a field plot
c) a group of insects d) all the above
ii) Randomization is a process in which the treatments are allocated to the
experimental units.
a) at the will of the investigator b) in a sequence
c) with equal probability d) none of the above
iii) Which of the following is a contrast ?
a) 3T1 + T2 – 3T3 + T4
b) T1 + 3T2 – 3T3 + T4
c) – 3T1 – T2 + T 3 + 3T4
d) T1 + T2 + T3 – T4
iv) In a completely randomized design with ‘t’ treatments and ‘n’ experimental
units, error degrees of freedom is equal to
a) n – t b) n – t – 1 c) n – t + 1 d) t – n
v) A Latin square design possesses
a) one way classification
b) two way classification
c) three way classification
d) no way classification
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 280 -2- *SLRC280*
vi) If the same factorial effect is confounded in all the replications, it is known as
a) partial confounding
b) complete confounding
c) conservative confounding
vii) If in a randomized block design having five treatments and four replications,
a treatment is added, the increase in error degrees of freedom will be
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
viii) Large size plots receiving the treatments in a split plot design are called
a) main plots b) whole plots
c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)
ix) Replication in an experiment eliminate

a) human bias
b) competition among neighbouring plots
c) heterogeneity among blocks
x) Local control in experimental designs is meant to

a) increase the efficiency of the design
b) reduce experimental error
c) to form homogeneous blocks
d) all the above
2. Explain any five from the following : 10

i) Situations where missing plot technique is applicable.
ii) Treatment.
iii) Layout of an experiment.
iv) Interaction between factors.
v) Orthogonal contrast.
vi) Main effects in 22 factorial experiment.
*SLRC280* -3- SLR-C – 280
i) Explain the concept of factorial experiment.
ii) Explain the principle of replication in design of experiments.
iii) Give assumptions and mathematical model of CRD.
B) Explain the procedure of obtaining the estimate of one missing value in RBD. 4
i) What is Randomized Block Design (RBD) ? Give its mathematical model

and analysis of variance table (ANOVA).
ii) Explain the Yate’s procedure of obtaining main effects and interactions in 23
factorial experiment.
iii) For analysis of variance with one way classification show that T.S.S = S.S.t + S.S.E.
i) Describe split plot design. Give its mathematical model.
ii) What is confounding ? Distinguish between total and partial confounding.
iii) Describe Latin Square Design (LSD). Give its layout and ANOVA table for
4 × 4 LSD.
—————————
*SLRC285* SLR-C 285
S e a t
N o .

PHYSICS (Special Paper XV)
Atomic, Molecular Physics and Quantum Mechanics

iii) Use of log table or scientific calculator is allowed.
iv) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.

i) Most intense line in a doublet corresponds to ___________
a) Maximum j value b) J and l change in the same way
c) Both conditions a) and b) d) Maximum l value
ii) The separation between two successive energy levels in harmonic oscillator
is ___________
a) M
b) M
/2 c) !
M
d) !
M
iii) In stark effect the number of split energy levels corresponding to a given j
value is given by ___________
a) 2j + 1 b) c) 2(2j + 1) d) 4(2j + 1)
2 j 1
iv) The Hamiltonian operator is given by ___________

a) 0

E
b) 0

E

J
c) d)

H v ( r ) H v ( r )
2 m 2 m
v) To obtain the observed doublet fine structure of spectral lines the concept
introduced is of ___________
a) Spin motion of electron b) Orbital motion of electron
c) Magnetic field produced at the electron d) Space quantization
P.T.O.
SLR-C 285 -2- *SLRC285*
vi) The z component of angular momentum operator is given by LZ =

___________
a) E

b) E

c) E

d) m
vii) Pure rotational spectra occur in ___________

a) Ultraviolet region b) Microwave region
c) Infrared region d) Visible region
viii) Which of the following relation satisfies the Einsteins frequency relation
is ___________
a) E = hw b) E
hw
c) E

w d) E =
w
ix) Raman shift for antistokes lines is ___________
c) Zero d) Fraction
x) If is eigen function and is operator then eigen value of operator

@
O
@ O
is ___________
a)
b)
3
c)
2 d)
y

i) What is an operator ?
ii) What are molecular bonds ?
iii) State selection rule for doublets.
iv) Draw the diagram for potential barrier and state its boundary conditions.
v) State the series of optical spectra in Lithium atom.
vi) Write any two characteristic properties of Raman lines.
*SLRC285* -3- SLR-C 285

i) Obtain the eigen value of Lz.
ii) Discuss eigen functions of linear harmonic oscillator.
iii) Write note on weak field stark effect in hydrogen.
B) Discuss both qualitative and quantitative intensity rules used to calculate
relative intensity of spectral lines in a doublet. 4

i) Write a note on frank condon principle.
ii) Explain zero point energy of harmonic oscillator.
iii) By separation of variables in spherical polar co-ordinates

(r,
,
) = R(r) ( ) ( ) derive three separate equations for R,

and

from Schrondingers equation for hydrogen atom.

i) What is Paschen back effect ? Obtain an expression for term value, explain
Paschen back effect in principle series doublet with energy level diagram.
ii) Derive Schrondingers time dependent wave equation for matter wave in
one and three dimensions.
_____________________

*SLRC286* SLR-C 286

Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Old)
Organic Chemistry (Special Paper XV)

3) Draw neat diagrams and give equations wherever necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for each of the followings. 10
1) Name the following compound
a) Benzoxazole b) Carbazole
c) Benzimidazole d) Benzothiazole
2) Maltose on hydrolysis gives
a) Glucose + Glucose b) Glucose + Fructose
c) Glucose + Galactose d) Fructose + Fructose
3) Pyrrole on oxidation with CrO3/CH3COOH gives
a) Phthalimide b) Maleic imide c) Succinamide d) Pyrrolidine
4) The open chain structure of D-glucose contains __________ asymetric carbon
atoms.
a) Three b) Two c) Four d) Six
5) Name the following compound
C H C H C O O H
N H
a) Thyronine b) Tyrosine c) Adrenaline d) Thyroxine

P.T.O.
SLR-C 286 -2- A *SLRC286*
6)
- naphthol on reaction with methyl isocyanate forms

a) Carbaryl b) Monocrotophos
c) Ethophan d) Endosulphan
7) Which of the following vitamin is insoluble in water and fats and oils ?
a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin H c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin D
8) Which of the following is anti-inflammatory drug ?

a) Tol-butamide b) Isoniazid c) Ibuprofen d) Paludrine
9) Orange IV azo dye is synthesised by condensation of diazotised sulphanic

acid with
a) Diphenyl amine b) Aniline
c) Dimethylaniline d) Benzidine
10) Name the following drug
C H C H C H N H C H C H N H C H C H C H
! !
| |
C H O H C H O H
a) Phenobarbitone b) Ethambutol
c) Tolbutamide d) Ibuprofen
2. Attempt any five of the followings : 10

i) Give structure and uses of methoxychlor.
ii) How will you prove adrenaline is derivative of catechol ?
iii) Give any two methods of preparation of pyrrole.
iv) Predict the products of following reaction.
S O / H S O
?
! "
+
N a N H
?

v) Give the structure and uses of lactose.

vi) Give synthesis of phenolphthalein.
*SLRC286* -3- SLR-C 286

i) Predict the products of following reactions
?
K N O / H S O
! "
! +
N
N a N H / 1 1 0 C
?
Toluene
n C
"
H g L i
?
+
ii) How will you convert fructose into glucose ?

iii) Give synthesis and uses of Isoniazid.
B) Discuss the applications of Vat dyes and Mordant dyes. 4

i) Discuss Skraups synthesis of quinoline.
ii) Discuss the configuration of D-glucose from D-arabinose
iii) Give synthesis and uses of monocrotophos.

i) Discuss structure of vitamin-A on the basis of analytical ground.
ii) Give synthesis and uses of chloromycetin.
iii) Discuss the methylation method for determination of ring size of D-glucose.
_________________
*SLRC288* SLR-C 288
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper XV)

iii) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence : 10
1) Enzymes that catalyzes RNA directed DNA synthesis are known as
a) RNA Polymerase b) DNA Polymerase
c) Reverse transcriptase d) RNA-DNA Polymerase
2) Removal of Introns from eukaryotic m-RNA is known as
a) Capping b) Methylation c) Adenylation d) Splicing
3) Okazaki fragments are formed during
a) Transcription b) Tranalation
c) Replication d) Reverse Transcription
4) ___________ are small, circular, extra-chromosomal genetic materials in
prokaryotes.
a) Cosmids b) Plasmids
c) Yeast Artificial Chromosomes d) Phagemids
5) __________ enzyme seals breaks in DNA.
a) DNA Methylase b) DNA Gyrase
c) DNA topoisomerase d) DNA Ligase
6) __________ polymerase is used in PCR technique.
a) Taq b) Paq c) Baq d) Caq
7) ___________ are used in detection of unknown target molecules such as
DNA and RNA.
a) Probes b) Vectors
c) Introns d) Monoclonal antibodies P.T.O.
SLR-C 288 *SLRC288*
8) __________ discovered Polymerase Chain Reaction.

a) Dr. Alec Jeffreys b) Karry Mullis
c) Kohler and Milstein d) A.R. Wallace
9) _________ of the following codon serves as termination codon.
a) AUG b) GUG c) CUG d) UAG
10) Non-functional parts in eukaryotic DNA and m-RNA are known as
a) Exons b) Vectors c) Introns d) Promoters

1) Capping.
2) Western Blotting.
3) Promoter.
4) DNA Probes.
5) Transduction.
6) Blotting.

1) Discuss the process of conjugation.
2) Elaborate various applications of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
3) Explain the technique of ELISA.
B) Explain the mechanism of DNA replication. 4

1) Describe in short any two DNA repair mechanisms.
2) Discuss the technique and applications of Polymerase Chain Reaction
PCR.
3) Discuss the process of synthesis of Monoclonal Antibodies.

1) Describe in detail the steps involved in translation or protein synthesis.
2) Elaborate the roles of various enzymes and vectors used in recombinant
DNA technology.
_______________
*SLR-C-289* SLR-C – 289
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (Old) Examination, 2017

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XV)
Integral Transform


1) L{sin hat} = _____________
p a p
p − a2
2
p − a2
2
p + a2
2
2) L{f(t)} = f(p) then L{e–at f(t)} = _________

a) af(p) b) f(p + a) c) f(p – a) d) None of these
3) L{t2e2t}
1 6 2
p3 p3 (p − 2 )3
4) If L{f(t)} = f(p) then initial value theorem states that ________
a) lim f( t ) = lim pL { f( t )} b) lim f( t ) = lim pL { f (t )}

t →0 p →∞ t →∞ p→ 0
c) lim f( t ) = lim pf (p) d) None of these

t →0 p→ 0
−1 ⎧ p ⎫
5) L ⎨ 2 2 ⎬ = ___________
⎩p + a ⎭
sin at cos at
a) b) c) cos at d) None of these
a a
P.T.O.
SLR-C – 289 -2- *SLR-C-289*
⎧ 2 ⎫
6) L−1⎨ 2 ⎬ = _____________
⎩ p − 2 ⎭
a) sin 2 t b) 2 sin h 2 t
c) 2 cos h 2 t d) none of these
7) Convolution of two function is always
a) Commutative b) Associative
8) 1 * 1 * 1 = _____________
th t3 t2
n! 3! 2!
9) L{ f′′ (t)} = _________

a) pL{f(t)} – p F′ (0) – F(0) b) p2L{f(t)} – p F′ (0) – F(0)
c) p2L{f(t)} – pL{f(t)} d) None of these
∞
sin t
10) ∫ t
dt = _____________
0
a) π 2 b) π 4 c) π 3 d) None of these

1) Find L{sin at}.
2) Find L{(sin t – cos t)2}.
3) Find L{e–3t (3 cos 5t – 5 sin 6t)}.
⎧ 1 ⎫
4) Find L−1⎨ 5 / 2 ⎬ .
⎩p ⎭
−1 ⎧ 1 ⎫
5) Find L ⎨ 2 ⎬.
⎩p + 8p + 16 ⎭
⎧ e −3P ⎫
6) Evaluate L−1⎨ 4⎬
.
⎩ (p − 2 ) ⎭
*SLR-C-289* -3- SLR-C – 289

1) Solve (D2 – 2D + 2) y = 0 y = Dy = 1 when t = 0.
2) Find L{f(t)} where
⎧0 0 < t <1
⎪
f(t ) = ⎨ t , 1 < t < 2
⎪
⎩0 t>2
⎧ 3p − 7 ⎫
3) Solve L−1⎨ 2 ⎬.
⎩ p − 2p − 3 ⎭
1 ⎛p ⎞
B) If L{f(t)} = f(p) then prove that L{f(at)} = f⎜ ⎟. 4
a ⎝ a⎠
⎧ ⎛ ⎞⎫
1) Find L−1 ⎨log⎜ 1 − 1 2 ⎟⎬ .
⎩ ⎝ p ⎠⎭
2) Prove that L{af1(t) + bf2(t)} = aL{f1(t)} + bL{f2(t)} and hence solve

L{3 cos 6t – 5 sin 3t}.
3) Solve (D + 2)2 = 4e–2t when y(0) = –1, y′(0) = 4 .

1) State and prove convolution theorem and solve by applying the convolution
theorem
⎧ 1 ⎫
L−1⎨ ⎬.
⎩ (p + 1) (p − 2) ⎭
2) a) Let F(t) be periodic function with period T > 0 that is F(u + T) = F(u),
T
e − pt F( t )dt
F(u + 2T) = F(u) etc. Prove that L { f( t )} = ∫ .
0 1 − e −pT
⎧sin (t − π / 3) t > π / 3
b) Find Laplace transform of f(t) if f(t ) = ⎨ .
⎩ 0 t < π/3
_____________________
*SLRC290* SLR-C 290
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper XV)
Limit Theorems, Reliability and Queuing Theory
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory and figures to the right

indicate full marks.
ii) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is allowed.
1. Choose most appropriate alternative from those given in each case : 10

i) If a random sample of size n is drawn from U(0, 1) distribution then the
distribution of first order statistic is identical to
a)
(1, n) b)
1 (1, n) c) U(0, 1) d) None of these

ii) Distribution of ________ cannot be obtained using order statistic.
a) Sample mean b) Sample median
c) Minimum d) Maximum
iii) If X is a r.v. with E(X) = 1 and V(X) = 2, then using Chebyscheves inequality
P[|X 1|>1] is
a)
.25 b)
0.5
c)
0.75 d) cannot be determined
iv) Convergence in probability of sample mean to population mean is implied by
________
a) Central Limit Theorem (CLT)
b) Weak Law of Large Numbers (WLLN)
c) Convergence in quadratic mean
d) Convergence in distribution
P.T.O.
SLR-C 290 -2- *SLRC290*
v) If {Xn}, {Yn} be two sequences of random variables (r.vs) with X n

L

a w
x
and Y n
L a w
a
where X is a r.v. and a is a constant, then
a)
X n Y n

L a w
x a
b)
X n Y n

L a w
x y
c)
X n Y n

L

a w
x
d)
X n Y n

L

a w
a
vi) Reliability of a series system of three components is

a) (1 P1) (1 P2) (1 P3) b) P1 + P2 + P3
c) P1P2P3 d) 1 P1P2P3
vii) In usual notations hazard rate is given by
a) b) c) d)
B J B J B J B J
. 6 . 6 . 6 . 6
viii) Probability of survival of any component at time t will be ________ as J
.
a) 0.5 b) 0 c) 1 d) None of these
ix) In M/M/1 :
/FIFO model, the distribution of service time is
a) Poisson b) Geometric c) Exponential d) Binomial
x) In M/M/1 :
/FIFO model the probability that the server is busy is
a) b) c) d)


a) In M/M/1 : /FIFO model, if on an average one customer arrives every five
minutes and service time is 4 minutes per customer, find traffic intensity.
b) In usual notations write down the CDF of nth order statistic.
c) A coin with P(H) = 0.4 is tossed 50 times. Then find the lower bound for
P(10<X<30).
d) State the relationship between density function and hazard function.
e) For a parallel system of three components say A, B, C obtain all minimal cut
sets and minimal path sets.
f) Let X1, X2, . . ., Xn be a random sample from

distribution. Test whether
W.L.L.N. holds good.
*SLRC290* -3- SLR-C 290

i) Suppose Xi are iid P(0.02) r.vs.i = 1, 2, . . ., 100. Then using CLT obtain
approximately 2

: E #

.
ii) Show that hazard rate of a series system of independent components is
sum of hazard rates of these components.
iii) State the assumptions made for obtaining the distribution of departure in
queuing system.
B) Define convergence in probability of a sequence of r.vs. to a constant.
If as and as then discuss the convergence in

2
X n a
Y n b
n n
probability of 2Xn + 4Yn. 4

A) State and prove Weak Law of Large Numbers for iid r.vs.
B) How large a sample must be taken from N( , 1) distribution so that
P

X
n
0 . 5

0 . 9 6 . What is the actual probability using this sample size ?
C) Customers arrive at a box office window being served by a single person

according to Poisson input process with mean rate 60 per hour. The time required
to serve a customer has an exponential distribution with mean of 40 seconds.
Determine (i) traffic intensity (ii) average number of customers in the queue
Lq (iii) Average number of customers in the system Ls (iv) Ws (v) Wq.
5. Attempt any one from the following : 10

A) Find the distribution of Yr when a random sample of size n is taken from exp ( )
distribution. Further show that U = Yr and V = Ys Yr r < s; are independently

distributed. Hence show that Z = Y(r+1) Yr is exponential r.v. with parameter
(n r) .
B) Let X be B(n, p) r.v. Let Y be standard binomial r.v. defined on X. Show that
limiting distribution of Y is N(0, 1). Hence show that sequence of standard
binomial distributions converges in distribution to standard normal distribution.
_______________
*SLRC294* SLR-C 294
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Operating System II (Special Paper XV)

1. Choose the correct alternatives : 10

1) In Linux file system ___________ is the top level directory.
a) boot b) home c) root d) bin
2) In shell programming user must be declare variables before they are apply.
a) True b) False
3) ___________ command is used to extract a column from a text file.
a) tar b) cut c) get d) read
4) PWD stands for
a) Print Working Directory b) Personal Work Directories
c) Pass Work Directories d) Present Work Dictionary
5) In rm command ___________ option is used to remove file interactively.
a) k b) d c) j d) i
6) ___________ command is used to display first few lines of a file.
a) head b) uniq c) tail d) display
7) Which command is used to display and create files ?
a) cd b) vi c) cat d) create
8) Which command is used to print a file ?
a) pq b) prn c) lpr d) print
9) NIS stands for Network Information System.
a) True b) False
10) Find command can search for files by
a) date b) size c) name d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 294 *SLRC294*
2. Solve any 5 from the following 10

1) What is file command ?
2) List out features of Linux.
3) Explain LILO.
4) What is user account ?
5) Write syntax and example of In command.
6) What is kill command ?

1) What is redirection ? Explain I/O redirection.
2) What is file ? Explain types of file.
3) Explain Is command with option and example.
B) Write a shell script to check given number is palindrome or not. 4

1) Explain chmod command with all permissions and example.
2) Explain filter commands.
3) Write a note on pppd and ezppp.

1) Explain tar command with example.
2) What is shell ? Explain types of shell.
3) Explain modes of vi editor.
___________
*SLRC295* SLR-C 295
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper XVI)
Electronics and Instrumentation

3) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.

i) _______ is the ratio of change in input offset current to the change in
temperature.
a) Input offset current drift
b) Input offset voltage drift
c) Slew rate
d) Common mode input impedance
ii) The non-inverting Op-amp output is _________
a) Constant
b) In phase with input
c) Out of phase with input
d) Reverse
iii) In an IC-555 in astable mode, period of the output waveform is given by _______.
a) 1.1 RAC b) 0.693 RAC
c) 0.693 (RA + 2RB)C d) 1.44/(RA + RB)C
iv) The pulse-width in a 555 monostable multivibrator is given by
a) 0.69 RC b) 1.1 RC c) RC d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 295 -2- *SLRC295*
v) A Triac is a ________ terminal device.

a) Four b) Three c) Two d) None of these
vi) Holding current, in a p-n-p-n diode, is the
a) Normal operating current
b) Current corresponding to break over voltage
c) Minimum current to keep the device ON
d) None of these
vii) LCDs are ______________ displays characterised by very low power
consumption.
a) Active b) Passive
c) Both active and passive d) None of above
viii) A device which converts a current signal into proportional voltage signal is
called as __________
a) Amplifier b) Transducer
c) Rectifier d) Filter
ix) The metal mostly used in RTD is _____________
a) Copper b) Iron c) Platinum d) Silver
x) In a scanning electron microscope, the electron beam can be focussed to a
very small spot size using __________
a) Electrostatic and magnetostatic lenses
b) Optical lenses
c) Diffraction lenses

i) Draw the block diagram of operational amplifier.
ii) State the applications of IC 555.
iii) Give any two method of SCR firing.
iv) Give the important features of liquid crystal displays.
v) What is principle of resistance temperature transducer.
vi) State any two applications of SEM.
*SLRC295* -3- SLR-C 295

i) Explain Op. Amp as an inverting amplifier.
ii) Write note on gas discharge plasma display.
iii) What are the different characteristics of transducer ?
B) Calculate the period of output waveform produced by astable multivibrator
when charging resistance RA is 10 K and RB is 10 K with capacitance of

0.1 F.


i) Give an account of construction and working of Triac.
ii) Explain principle and working of photo diode transducer.
iii) Write note on light emitting diode display.

i) With neat circuit diagram, explain operational amplifier as differentiator and
integrator.
ii) Describe principle, construction and working of transmission electron
microscopy.
_______________
*SLRC296* SLR-C 296
S e a t
N o .

CHEMISTRY
Special Paper XVI : Analytical and Industrial Organic Chemistry

3) Draw neat labelled diagrams and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative from those given below and rewrite the
sentence. 10
i) Hard soaps are formed from ____________
a) grease b) tallow
c) linseed oil d) none of these
ii) The polymer which softens on heating and hardens on cooling is called
a) rubber b) thermosetting
c) elastomer d) thermoplastic
iii) Compound inhibition technique is used to ___________
a) Crystalize sugar from massecuite
b) Concentrate sugarcane juice
c) Extract juice from sugarcane
d) None of these
iv) The catalytic activity of zeolites depends on the presence of ____________
a) crystalline nature b) acid centres
c) amorphous nature d) none of these
v) In paper chromatography the aqueous medium present in paper acts as
____________ phase.
a) solvent b) organic c) mobile d) stationary
vi) Sharing soap is a mixed soap containing ___________
a) glycerol b) excess of stearic acid
c) excess of oil d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-C 296 *SLRC296*
vii) A vulcanizing agent assist ____________ of polymer chain.

a) cross-linking b) branching c) debranching d) softening
viii) Graining, waiting and shock treatment are used for ____________ sugar.
a) dissolving b) crystallizing
c) refining d) purifying
ix) Chemical products should be designed to preserve the efficacy of
function while reducing ____________
a) yield b) utility c) toxicity d) all of these
x) Bleaching of cotton by sodium hypochlorite involves ___________ process.
a) oxidation b) reduction c) hydrolysis d) decomposition

i) What is chromatography ? Mention different types of chromatographies.
ii) What are zeolites ? Give two examples of zeolites.
iii) Explain defecation process in the refining of sugar.
iv) Explain meaning of LDPE and HDPE with suitable example.
v) Explain finishing process in the manufacture of soap.
vi) Write a brief note on reactive dyes.

i) Define elastomers, thermoplastics and thermosetting polymers. Give one
example of each.
ii) Explain use of zeolites in Friedel-Crafts alkylation with suitable examples.
iii) Explain general principles involved in the chromatographic separations.
B) Explain free radical (addition) polymerization using suitable example. 4

i) What are biocatalysts ? Give advantages of biocatalysts.
ii) Discuss principle and experimental technique of paper chromatography.
iii) Describe sizing ingredients with their functions.

i) Compare soaps verses detergents.
ii) Give preparation and uses of PVC and urea formaldehyde resin.
iii) Write note on By products of sugar industry.
_____________________
*SLRC298* SLR-C 298
S e a t
N o .

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper XVI)
Biotechniques and Applied Zoology

1. Select appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence. 10
1) The full form of PAGE is _____________
a) Polyanamide Gel Electrophoresis
b) Polyamide Gel Electrophoresis
c) Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis
d) Polyanalide Gel Electrophoresis
2) Tribolium is the pest of ____________ crop.
a) Cotton b) Jowar c) Pea d) Maize
3) ____________ is a good source of fish oil.
a) Catla b) Mrigal c) Pompret d) Oil Sardine
4) Silk is a secretion of silkworm from its specialized ___________
a) Salivary glands b) Spiracles
c) Fat bodies d) Malpigian tubules
5) In pearl culture ____________ are cultivated for pearl.
a) Bivalves b) Snails c) Oysters d) Mytilus
6) Isinglass is prepared from ___________ of fishes.
a) Fins b) Airbladders c) Skin d) Urinarybladder
7) The very young fishes coming out of eggs are called _________
a) Fingerlings b) Fry c) Milt d) Younglets
8) The pH of given sample is measured by the device ____________
a) Balance b) pH meter
c) Colorimeter d) Spectrometer
P.T.O.
SLR-C 298 *SLRC298*
9) The stem cells are ____________ in nature.

a) Totipotent b) Multipotent c) Pleuripotent d) Apotent
10) In the biological control of pests ____________ are used.
a) Fumigants b) Weedicides
c) Biological agents d) Chemicals
2. Write short note on following (any five) : 10

1) Trawler
2) Stem cells
3) Aquaculture
4) TLC
5) pH
6) Ecdysis.

i) Economic importance of silk
ii) Principle and use of colorimeter
iii) Marine capture Fisheries-Bombay duck.
B) Give an account of polymorphism in termites. 4

i) Write about the viral diseases of the silk moth.
ii) Describe the use of column chromatography.
iii) Give an account and use of crustacean fishery with examples.

A) What are pests ? Describe the various methods of pest control.
B) Give the fish economic importance of various products.
_____________________
*SLRC299* SLR-C 299
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper XVI)
Programming in C


1) C does not have an operator for
a) modulo division b) is not equal to
c) exponential d) decrement
2) White spaces are prohibited between the
a) Characters of the identifiers
b) Characters of the string constants
c) Control string of the scanf
d) Control string of the printf
3) The return statement can take the form
a) return ; only
b) return (expression); only
c) return; or return (expression);
d) none of these
4) The number of evaluation steps in arithmetic expressions are not equal to
the number of arithmetic operators if arithmetic expression has
a) no parentheses b) parenthesis but not nested
c) nested parentheses d) none of these
5) ANSIC allows nesting of for loops upto _____________ level of nesting.
a) 14 b) 15 c) 16 d) 17
P.T.O.
SLR-C 299 -2- *SLRC299*
6) The white space form feed moves cursor to
a) After one blank space of the current line
b) Beginning of the current line
c) Initial position of the next page
d) Initial position of the current page
7) Documentation section in C program is ___________ part.
a) Optional b) Compulsory c) Necessary d) None of these
8) The operator _______________ is used with real operands.
a) modulo division b) logical bitwise
c) division d) shift
9) ____________ is not used for reading a data.
a) putchar( ) b) scanf( )
c) assignment operator = d) none of these
10) It is necessary to put semi-colon at the end of the __________ statement.
a) do b) do . . . while
c) for d) none of these

1) Write a note on reading a character.
2) Explain simple if statement.
3) Write note on basic structure of the C-programs.
4) Compare for, while and do loops.
5) Define comma operator and size of operator.
6) Explain local variable and global variable.

1) Define entry-controlled loop and exit-controlled loop with diagrammatically
illustration.
2) Write note on increment and decrement operator with illustration.
3) Explain nesting of if . . . else statement in detail.
*SLRC299* -3- SLR-C 299
B) The grading of the students follows the following rule. 4
Average Marks Grade
80 to 100 Distinction
60 to 79 First class
50 to 59 Second class
40 to 49 Pass class
0 to 39 Fails
Write C-program by using else if ladder to display the roll number, name,
marks obtained and grade acquired.

1) Define one dimensional array and explain the procedure how to declare and
initialise it.
2) Explain the for statement with illustration.
3) Explain the precedence of the arithmetic operators with rules and examples.

1) Explain the term formatted outputs in details with the illustrations.
2) Explain data type in details.
___________

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*SLRC1* SLR-C  1

B.Sc. I (Semester  I) Examination, 2017

N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Complete the following statements by choosing the correct alternatives from

6) Mr. Binet developed ________

7) Where are the bangle sellers carrying their wares ?

11) ________ Sangoli Rayanna was a great freedom fighter.

13) Prarthana goes to ________ school. (for education)

2. Answer in brief any seven of the following : 14

3. A) Write short answers on any two of the following : 8

B) Write a paragraph on any two of the following : 6

B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) Examination, 2017

Time : 2 12 Hours Total Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Select the correct alternative for each of the following : 14

6) The symbol ∫ represents ___________

7) If one of the reactant in bimolecular reaction is present in large excess, the

2. Answer any seven of the following : 14

vi) What is isotherm ?

3. A) Answer any two of the following : 10

4. Answer any two of the following : 14

5. Answer any two of the following : 14

B.Sc. (Part  I) (Semester  I) Examination, 2017

Time : 2 ½ Hours Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

i) Possible values of spin quantum number are

iii) The electronic configuration of Phosphorous (P) is

iv) The strength of covalent bond depends upon

v) The crystal structure of NaCl is

vi) Critical radius ratio at contact position for CN = 6 is

vii) In H2O molecule, ________ hybridization is present.

viii) The shape of PCI5 molecule is

ix) For H2 molecule, -

x) In BeCl2 molecule, the bond angle is

xi) The bond length in NO molecule is __________ .

a) 1.44 b) 1.06 c) 1.18 d) 1.81

xii) Oxygen molecule contains _________ unpaired electrons.

xiii) MOT is discussed on the basis of

xiv) The bond order of Li2 molecule is

2. Answer any seven of the following : 14

iv) In water molecule, bond angle decreases from   '

v) AICI3 is less ionic than AIBr3, why ?

vii) Give the importance of Born-Haber cycle.

3. A) Write note on any two of the following : 10

B) What is radius ratio ? Calculate radius ratio for octahedral geometry. 4

4. Answer any two of the following : 14

5. Answer any two of the following : 14

B.Sc. (Part  I) (Semester  I) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2017

Time : 21/2 Hours Max. Marks : 70

N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Select the correct alternative from the following : 14

ii) With the increase in temperature, surface tension ____________

vi) Torsional pendulum is used to determine _____________ of the material.

2. Answer any seven of the following : 14

3. A) Attempt any two of the following : 10

4. Attempt any two of the following : 14

5. Attempt any one of the following :

B.Sc. I (Semester  I) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2017

Time : 2½ Hours Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

SLRC1 SLR-C 1

B.Sc. I (Semester I) Examination, 2017

B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester I) Examination, 2017

iv) In water molecule, bond angle decreases from '

B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester I) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2017

B.Sc. I (Semester I) (New) (CBCS) Examination, 2017

B.Sc. I (Semester I) Examination, 2017

then prove that P(B C/A) = P(B/A) + P(C/A) P(B C/A).

B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CBCS Pattern) (New) Examination, 2017

7) If u = x3 3xy2, v = 3x2y y3 then = _________