BSCM16

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Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

ENGLISH COMPULSORY
On Track English Skills for Success
Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-3-2016 Max. Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative : 14

1) The name of the policeman on the beat was ___________
a) Jimmy Wells b) Jimmy Porter
c) Jimmy Wel d) Jimmy Pals
2) Twenty years ago, Jimmy and Bob dined at ___________
a) Big John Brady’s Restaurant
b) Big Boss Restaurant
c) Big Joe Brady’s Restaurant
d) Big John Brandy’s Restaurant
3) The writer and Miss Krishna ___________
a) Were at school together
b) Met at an exhibition
c) Met at a tea party
d) Were neighbours
4) From what she tells the writer, it is clear that Miss Krishna’s life with her
mother was ___________
a) Miserable b) Comfortable
c) Very happy d) Difficult
5) According to Binet, a psychologist who developed the ____________ test.
a) G. K. b) I. Q.
c) S. T. S. d) S. T. I.
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6) The word ‘intelligence’ is derived from the Latin word ___________

a) intellegere b) intellect
c) intellectual d) none of the above
7) What does ‘shining loads’ mean ?
a) an unmarried woman’s wrist
b) bunches of bangles
c) the flame of a marriage fire
d) sunlit corn
8) Where are the bangle sellers carrying their wares ?
a) To a married woman’s house
b) To the house of a maiden woman
c) To a temple fair
d) To the streets
9) An Irish Airman Foresees His Death is written by ___________
a) W. B. Yeats b) W. B. Keats
c) John Henry d) Sarojini Naidu
10) The Speaker in the poem ‘An Irish Airman Foresees His Death’ belongs to _______
a) Switzerland b) Ireland
c) Newzealand d) England
11) Salma is a ____________ noun.
a) Proper b) Common
c) Collective d) None of the above
12) They are happy to see her dancing. The underlined word is ___________
a) Nouns b) Pronouns
c) Prepositions d) Conjunctions
13) Prema is fond ____________ dancing.
a) of b) to
c) on d) by
14) Anu is ____________ Sania Mirza of our college.
a) a b) the
c) an d) no article
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2. Answer any seven of the following questions in two or three sentences each : 14
1) What sort of relationship did Bob and Jimmy Share ?
2) Why does Jimmy send another policeman to arrest Bob ?
3) What is the meaning of the title ‘Connoisseur’ ?
4) Why did the narrator consider Miss Krishna an annoying guest ?
5) What are the many facets of intelligence ?
6) What are the merits of artificial intelligence ?
7) Which are the preferred colours for the bangles of a newly married woman ?
8) Who is the Speaker in the poem ‘An Irish Airman Foresees His Death’ ?
3. A) Write short paragraphs on any two of the following : 8

1) My family.
2) Solar energy.
3) My favourite book.
B) Answer any three of the following questions briefly : 6

1) What is the central idea of the poem ‘Bangle Sellers’ ?
2) What is the Irish airman’s attitude towards the war he is fighting in ?
3) What are the myths regarding the intelligence of computers ?
4) What do you understand of Miss Krishna’s childhood from the story ?
4. Write an essay on any one of the following topics. 14

1) The role of women in the modern society.
2) The benefits and drawbacks of mobile phones on the lives of young people in
the present day.
5. Read the following passage carefully and make a note of it. 14

Everyone knows that taxation is necessary in a modern state : without it, it would
not be possible to pay the soldiers and policemen who protect us ; nor the
workers in government offices who look after our health, our food, our water and
all other things that we cannot do for ourselves; nor also the ministers and
members of parliament who govern the country for us. By means of taxation, we
pay for things that we need just as much as we need somewhere to live and
something to eat.
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But though everyone knows that taxation is necessary, different people have
different ideas about how taxation should be assigned. Should each person have
to pay a certain amount of money to the government each year ? Or should there
be a tax on things that people buy and sell ? If the first kind of taxation is used,
should everyone pay the same tax, whether he is rich or poor ? If the second
kind of tax is preferred, should everything be taxed equally ?
In most countries, a direct tax on persons, which is called income tax, exists. It
is arranged in such a way that the poorest people pay nothing and the percentage
of tax grows greater as the tax-payer’s income grows. In England, for example,
the tax on the richest people goes up as high as ninety-five percent !
But countries with direct taxation nearly always have indirect taxation too. Many
things imported into the country have to pay taxes and duties. Of course, it is the
men and women who buy these imported things in the shops who really have to
pay the duties, in the form of higher prices. In some countries, 400, there is a tax
on things sold in the shops. If the most necessary things are taxed, a lot of
money is collected, but the poor people suffer most. If unnecessary things like
jewels and fur coats are taxed, less money is obtained, but the tax is fairer, as
the rich pay it. Probably this last kind of indirect tax, together with a direct tax on
incomes which is low for the poor and high for the rich, is the best arrangement.
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Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY (Paper I) (CGPA Pattern)
Physical and Inorganic Chemistry
Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-3-2016 Max. Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat, labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
4) Use of log table and calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
(Physical Chemistry)
1. Select the correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentences : 5
i) Reaction between K2 S2 O8 and KI is an example of __________ order reaction.
a) First b) Second
c) Zero d) Third
ii) In cyclic process
a) q = 0 b) q = w
c) q = + ve d) q = ve
iii) (v b) = RT is known as __________ equation.

=

2

a) ideal gas b) kinetic gas

c) rate constant d) vander waals
iv) Integration of dx is
a) x b) x + c
c) x c d) log x
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v) The point of intersection of x and y axes in the graph is known as
a) origin b) intercept
c) slope d) quadrant
2. Answer any five of the following : 10

i) Give any two statements of second law of thermodynamics.
ii) What are the requirements for liquefaction of gases ?
iii) Plot the graph of log (a x) against time (t) using equation .
2 . 3 0 3 a
K l o g
Find the value of slope.

t a x
iv) Define the terms ideal and non-ideal gases.

v) Define the term intercept of straight line.
vi) What is molecularity of a chemical reaction ?
vii) What is definite and indefinite integral ?
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

i) Pseudo unimolecular reactions
ii) Spontaneous and nonspontaneous processes.
iii) Simple rules of derivative.
B) Answer any one of the following : 10

i) What is order of reaction ? Derive an equation for second order reaction
with equal concentration of reactants. A second order reaction, where
a = b is half completed in 60 minutes. In how much time it will be 90%
completed ?
ii) What is an isotherm ? Explain Andrews isotherms for CO2. Calculate the
critical temperature of a gas from the following data.
a = 1.406 N m2 dm 6 mol2
b = 9.94 x 105 dm3 mol1
R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
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SECTION II
(Inorganic Chemistry)
4. Select the most correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentences : 5
1) As atomic size increases, ionization potential
a) increases
b) decreases
c) first increases then decreases
d) remains constant
2) Among the halogens _________ is the most reactive.
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
3) The strength of covalent bond depends upon
a) number of electrons b) types of orbitals
c) extent of overlapping d) types of hybridization
4) The bond order of Li2 is
a) 1 b) 1.5
c) 2 d) 0
5) The limiting radius ratio for octahedral geometry is
a) 1.00 b) 0. 732 1.00
c) 0.155 0.225 d) 0.414 0.732

i) Give the importance of Born-Haber cycle.
ii) State and explain Paulis exclusion principle.
iii) Draw the shapes of d-orbitals.
iv) Give the limitations of VBT.
v) Draw orbital diagram of BeCl2 molecule.
vi) Explain S-S overlap.
vii) Give MO diagram of H2 molecule.
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i) What is atomic radius ? Discuss its trends in a period and in a group in the
Periodic table.
ii) Explain the formation of SF6 molecule on the basis of VBT.
iii) On the basis of VSEPR theory explain the formation of H2O molecule.

i) With the help of MO diagram explain bond order, stability and magnetic
character of C2 and NO molecules.
ii) What is ionic bond ? Discuss the structure of NaCl with respect to radius
ratio, unit cell, co-ordination number and stoichiometry.

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Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

COMPUTER SCIENCE (Paper I)
Computer Fundamentals and Programming Using C I

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right place indicate full marks.
SECTION I
(Computer Fundamentals)
1. Choose correct alternative : 5

1) ASCII stands for
a) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
b) American Security Code for Information Interchange
c) American Scientific Code for Information Interchange
d) American Standard Code for Interchange Information
2) The binary system uses power of
a) 2 b) 8 c) 10 d) 16
3) Which of the following is not a binary number ?
a) 001 b) 101
c) 202 d) 110
4) ALU and control unit jointly known as
a) RAM b) ROM
c) CPU d) PC
5) The most common input device is
a) Scanner b) Keyboard
c) Light Pen d) Joystick
P.T.O.
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1) List the applications of computer system.
2) Give the components of motherboard.
3) Differentiate bit and byte.
4) What is multitasking ?
5) What are input devices ?
6) List the internal DOS commands.
7) Define interpreter.
3. A) Write a short notes on any two of the following : 10

1) What is operating system ? Explain various functions of operating system.
2) Explain the basic organization of computer in details.
3) List out the various computer generation along with key characteristics of
the computers of each generation.
1) What is printer ? Explain non-impact printers with suitable example.
2) What is memory ? Explain in detail.
SECTION II
(Programming Using C I)

1) Character constants should be enclosed between double quotes.
a) True b) False
2) Symbolic constants can be defined using
a) # define b) const
c) symbols d) none of these
3) Maximum number of elements in the array declaration int a[5][8] is
a) 28 b) 32 c) 35 d) 40
4) The meaning of break and continue statements are same.
a) True b) False
5) The C language consists of ________ number of keywords.
a) 32 b) 40 c) 24 d) 56
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1) What is a pre-processor ?
2) What are identifier and keywords ?
3) Differentiate with example ++i and i++.
4) Explain printf ( ) and scanf ( ) function with an example.
5) List out applications of C language.
6) Give the syntax and example of switch statement.
7) What is the nested for loop ?

1) What is looping in C ? What are the advantages of looping ?
2) What is array ? How to declare array ? Explain with suitable example.
3) Explain flowchart with the suitable example.
1) Write a program to check given number is prime or not.
2) What is type casting ? Explain it with suitable example.
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Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester I) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS (Paper I) (CGPA Pattern)
Mechanics and Properties of Matter, Optics and Laser
Day and Date : Saturday, 26-3-2016 Max. Marks : 70
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.

ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Neat labelled diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
iv) Use of log table and calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
(Mechanics and Properties of Matter)
1. Select the correct answer from the given alternatives : 5

i) Moment of inertia of the disc about its diameter is ______ of the moment of
inertia of disc about the axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to
its plane.
a) exactly half b) less than that
c) twice that d) greater than that
ii) At minimum time period of compound pendulum, length of equivalent simple
pendulum is equal to
a) L = K b) L = 2K c) l = K d) L = l

+l
iii) The relation between elastic constants y, and k is
a) b) c) d)
1 3 9 9 1 3 9 3 1 3 1 9

y k y k y k y k
iv) If T is surface tension of soap solution then the excess pressure inside its
bubble of radius r is
a) P = b) P = c) P = d) P =
6 6 6 " 6
H " H H H
v) Dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are

a) [M1L1T1] b) [M0L1T1] c) [M1L0T2] d) [M1L1T1]
P.T.O.
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2. Solve any five of the following : 10
i) Write down the dimensions and unit of moment of inertia.
ii) Rectangular lamina of metal sheet having length 40 cm, breadth b = 32cm
and mass per unit area = 6 gm/cm2 is rotated about an axis coinsiding with

one of the longside. Then find its M.I. about that axis.
iii) What is compound pendulum ? Give its formula for periodic time.
iv) Give the SI and CGS unit of Youngs modulus.
v) Define the term Poissons ratio. Give its limiting values.
vi) Define surface tension and give its unit.
vii) Define the term viscosity and give its SI and CGS units.
3. A) Solve any two of the following : 10

1) Write a short note on flywheel.
2) Write a short note on torsional pendulum.
3) If a copper is having bulk modulus k = 14 × 1010 N/m2 and rigidity modulus

= 4.2 × 10 10 N/m2. Then calculate its Youngs modulus.
B) Solve any one of the following : 10
1) What is compound pendulum ? Derive an expression for the length of its
equivalent simple pendulum. Prove that the centre of oscillation and centre
of suspension of the compound pendulum are interchangeable.
"
2) Derive the Poiseulles equation for rate of flow of an ideal liquid V = .

F =
& l
SECTION II
(Optics and Laser)
1. Select and write the most appropriate answer from the given alternatives for
each sub-question : 5
i) By Fermats principle of least time, the time of traverse for a light ray travels
between two points in same medium is
a) maximum b) minimum
c) optimum d) extremum
ii) The condition of destructive interference due to reflected light for parallel
faced thin air film is : path difference is equal to

a) n b) n c) (2n + 1) d) (2n + 1)

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iii) When a point source of light is used then in Fresnels type diffraction the edge
of an obstacle is illuminated by
a) plane wavefront b) cylindrical wavefront
c) spherical wavefront d) elliptical wavefront
iv) In Ruby Laser, the type of pumping used is
a) mechanical b) chemical c) electrical d) optical
v) In Ramsdens Eye-Piece, the field lens and eye lens are co-axially separated
by distance of 8 cm. The focal length of this Eye-Piece is
a) 12 cm b) 9 m c) 6 cm d) 3 cm

i) State the condition for achromatism for a combination of two thin co-axial
lenses kept in contact.
ii) What are the different parts of an optical instrument spectrometer ?
iii) Distinguish between : Ramsdens Eye-Piece and Huygens Eye-Piece.
iv) Describe any two properties of a Laser Source of light.
v) Define Einsteins coefficient of absorption of radiation.
vi) How to prepare a replica of the original plane diffraction grating ?
vii) When in Newtons Rings Experiment airfilm is replaced by liquid film, the
diameter of 5th ring changes from 0.2 cm to 0.17 cm. Calculate refractive
index of the liquid.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : 10

i) Explain the construction of the Huygens Eye-Piece and derive an
expression for the focal length of it.
ii) Describe the construction and working of Helium-Neon Laser.
iii) A parallel beam of monochromatic light is incident normally on a plane
diffraction grating having 15000 lines per inch and 2nd order spectral line
is deviated through an angle of 30°. Calculate the wave length.
i) Using Fermats principle, deduce the Snells law of refraction.
ii) Explain the phenomenon of interference of light in a thin wedge shaped air
film and derive an expression for the fringe width. When the wave length
of monochromatic source of light used is 6000A° then calculate the
thickness of air film where 10th dark fringe is observed.
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Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

GEOGRAPHY
Physical Geography – Geomorphology (Paper – I)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Use of stencils is allowed.
SECTION – I
1. Select the proper answer from the given below and rewrite the sentences. 5
1) The bright planet in our solar system is __________

a) Mars b) Jupiter c) Venus d) Saturn
2) The _______ is the satellite of earth.

a) phobos b) moon c) titan d) deimas
3) The average density of the whole earth is about _________ gm/cm3.

a) 5.5 b) 6.5 c) 7.5 d) 7.9
4) _________ is a example of metamorphic rock.

a) Dyke b) Laccolith c) Marble d) Sills
5) _________ discontinuity is found in between core and mantle.

a) Conrad b) Mohovisic c) Guttenberg d) None of them
2. Answer any five of the following. 10

1) Give the name of all planets sequentially in solar system.
2) Describe the term ‘Lithosphere’.
3) Explain the ‘focus’ and ‘epicentre’ terminology in the earthquake.
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4) Characteristics of primary waves.
5) State the economic importance of igneous rocks.
6) Give the types of Earth movement.
7) E. Suess classification of interior earth.
3. Write a short notes on any two of the following. 10
1) Classification of Vertical forces with examples.
2) State the formation process of sedimentary rocks.
3) Tidal Hypothesis of origin Earth.
4. Answer any one of the following. 10
1) Explain the term ‘Earthquake’ and state its causes with its effects on the
earth surface.
2) Define rock and state its classification with good examples.
SECTION – II
1. Select the proper answer from the given below and rewrite the sentences. 5
1) Whenever the rocks are disintegrated and decomposed due to the living
organisms, then it is known as ___________ weathering.
a) Physical b) mechanical c) chemical d) biotic
2) The removal of soil minerals and colloids from the upper horizons is called
__________ process of soil formation.
a) eluviation b) silication c) salinization d) pe-doturbation
3) _________ are formed in the deposition work of river.

a) Gorges b) Canyon c) Waterfall d) Delta
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4) Zeugen and yardangs are frequently found in arid region due to the erosional
work of ____________
a) river b) underground water
c) wind d) glacier
5) Whenever the proportion of sand particles is more than 70 to 80% with less
than 20% of silt and clay particles in the soil, then it is known as ________
soil.
a) clayey soil b) course sandy loam
c) silt loamy soil d) sandy clay
1) Micronutrient in the soil.
2) Difference between erosion and weathering.
3) Function of soil.
4) Give the name of all landforms formed in the depositional work of river.
5) Types of sand dunes.
6) Draw the neat diagram of ‘flood plain’.
7) Classify the soil on the basis of its colour.
3. Write short notes on any two of the following. 10
1) Define soil and give its significance.
2) State the various landforms in the erosional work of wind.
3) What is meant by texture of soil ? Classify it on the basis of texture.
1) Define weathering and explain any one type of weathering briefly.
2) Describe the various land forms formed in the erosional work of river.
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Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) Examination, 2016

(C.G.P.A. Pattern)
STATISTICS (Paper – I)
Descriptive Statistics, Probability and Probability Distributions – I
Day and Date : Monday, 28-3-2016 Max. Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m
N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) Answers of two Sections should be written in same
answer book.
SECTION – I
(Descriptive Statistics, Probability)
1. Choose the correct alternative : 5

1) Variables are measured using
a) Nominal scale b) Ordinal scale
c) Interval and ratio scale d) None of these
2) In an individual series if each observation have same value, then
a) AM < GM < HM b) AM > GM > HM
c) AM = GM = HM d) None of these
3) In order to compare the variability of different groups, the best measure of
dispersion is
a) Range b) Mean deviation
c) Coefficient of variation d) None of these
4) The second order central moment in terms of raw moments is
a) μ 2 − μ12 b) μ 2 − μ1
c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
5) The measure of kurtosis β 2 for a leptokurtic curve is

a) Less than 3 b) Greater than 3
c) Equal to 3 d) None of these
P.T.O.
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i) Define qualitative data and quantitative data.
ii) Define class limits and mid-points.
iii) Define G.M. and H. M.
iv) State any two properties of A. M.
v) Define mean deviation and standard deviation.
vi) Define mean square deviation and state its minimal property.
vii) Write a note on Skewness.
3. A) Write short note on any two of the following : 10

i) Explain the construction of cumulative frequency curve.
ii) What is the effect of change of origin and scale on arithmetic mean ?
iii) Define coefficient of variation and explain its utility.
i) Define median and derive the formula for finding the median for a grouped
frequency distribution.
ii) Define raw moments and central moments. Obtain the first four central
moments in terms of raw moments.
SECTION – II
(Probability Distributions – I)
1) For a classical definition of probability the sample space must be

a) Discrete
b) Continuous
c) Finite with equiprobable sample space
d) None of these
2) Which of the following is the power set corresponding to sample space

Ω = {1, 2} ?
a) { { }, Ω } b) { {1}, {2}}
c) {{1}, {2}, {1, 2}} d) {{ }, {1}, {2}, {1, 2}}
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3) If A1, A2, A3 form partition of sample space then they are

a) pairwise independent b) mutually independent
c) mutually exclusive d) none of these
4) If A and B are independent events where P(A) = 0.6, P(A ∩ B) = 0.3 then
P(B) =
a) 0.1 b) 0.2
c) 0.3 d) 0.5
5) Which of the following may be a p. m. f. ?

x
a) P(x) = 2 – x, x = 10, 20 b) P(x) = x = 10, 20
15
1 x
c) P(x) = x = 10, 20 d) P(x) = x = 10, 20
2 25
i) Define :
a) Elementary event
b) Compound event
ii) Define :
a) Exhaustive events
b) Equally likely events
(
iii) If A and B are mutually exclusive events prove that P A A
)B = P(AP)(+AP) (B) .
iv) If A and B are independent then prove that A and B are independent.
v) If P (A) = 0.4 p (B) = 0.3 P (A

B) = 0.12. Find P (A
B) and P (A
B ).
vi) Define partition of sample space.
vii) Define probability mass function and distribution function.
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i) For any events show that
i) P (Ac) = 1 – P (A)
ii) 0 < P (A) < 1
ii) For any two events A and B prove that
P(A
B) < P(A) < P(A
B)
iii) A box contains 4 tickets marked with numbers 111, 121, 211 and 221. One
ticket is drawn from the box at random. Let Ai (i = 1, 2, 3) be the event that
the ith digit of the number on ticket drawn is 1. Discuss the independence
of events A1, A2 and A 3.

i) Define conditional probability of B given A. Show that it is a probability
measure.
ii) A r. v. X has following distribution :
X: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
P (x) : k 2k 3k k2 k2 +k 2k 2 4k 2
Find :
i) k
ii) P (X > 3)
iii) P(X < 4)
iv) Distribution function of X
v) Median of X.
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Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Paper – I)
Animal Diversity – I, Cell Biology and Genetics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N. B. : 1) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

3) Two Sections should be written in same answerbook.
SECTION – I
(Animal Diversity – I)
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct alternative given below : 5

1) Paramecium belongs to phylum ___________
a) Coelenterata b) Platyhelminthes
c) Protista d) Annelida
2) In Paramecium contractile vacuoles are _________ in number.
a) One b) Three
c) Four d) Two
3) Spicules of Sycon are secreted by ___________
a) Choanocytes b) Pinacocytes
c) Porocytes d) Scleroblasts
4) _______________ is endoparasitic in nature.
a) Tapeworm b) Sycon
c) Hydra d) Earthworm
5) In earthworm four pairs of __________ are present.
a) Testes b) Spermatheca
c) Ovaries d) Nephridia
P.T.O.
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i) Salient features of Coelenterata.
ii) Looping in Hydra.
iii) Archaeocytes of Sycon.
iv) Gizzard of earthworm.
v) Mature proglottid of tapeworm.
vi) Setae of earthworm.
vii) Budding in Hydra.

i) Describe contractile vacuole in Paramecium.
ii) Describe sexual reproduction in Hydra.
iii) Describe septal nephridium of earthworm.
i) What are adaptations ? Explain morphological and physiological adaptations
in tapeworm.
ii) Describe the nervous system of earthworm.
SECTION – II
(Cell Biology and Genetics)
4. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct alternative given below : 5

1) In incomplete dominance the phenotypic ratio is _______________
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 2 : 1 c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 d) 9 : 3 : 4
2) The person with blood group ___________ is called universal acceptor.
a) A b) B c) AB d) O
3) ____________ is called as power house of cell.
a) Mitochondrion b) Ribosome
c) Nucleus d) Nucleolus
*SLRW7* -3- SLR-W – 7
4) _____________ mechanism of sex determination in man.

a) XX – XY type b) XX – XX type
c) ZZ – ZW type d) ZZ – ZZ type
5) ___________ is father of genetics.
a) C. Stern b) Batson c) Punnet d) Mendel

i) Eukaryotic cell
ii) Lampbrush chromosome
iii) Ribosome
iv) Co-dominance
v) Monohybrid cross
vi) Electron microscope
vii) Nucleolus.

i) Explain Sickle cell anaemia.
ii) Give structure and function of Golgi-complex.
iii) Explain structure and functions of Plasma membrane.
i) What is mean by multiple allele ? Explain it with reference to coat colour in
rabbit.
ii) Describe dihybrid cross.
_____________________
*SLRW8* SLR-W – 8
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

MATHEMATICS
Algebra and Calculus (Paper – I)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory .

iii) Answers to the two Sections should be written in the same
answerbook.
SECTION – I
(Algebra)
1. Select and write the correct alternative for each of the following. 5
1) Find the skew-symmetric matrix
⎡0 −3 ⎤ ⎡ 0 3 ⎤ ⎡ 1 3 ⎤ ⎡2 3 ⎤
a) ⎢ 2⎥ b) ⎢ 2⎥ c) ⎢ 2⎥ d) ⎢ 2⎥
⎢⎣3 0 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 3 0 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ − 3 0 ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣3 2 ⎥⎦
2 2 2 2
2) The system of equations 2x – y = 0, 6x – 3y = 0 have

a) Unique zero solution b) Infinite nonzero solutions
c) No solution d) None of these
3) If z = 1 + i then | z| =
a) 2 b) 2 c) – 2 d) 0
4) The value of cosh(0) =
a) – 1 b) 0 c) 1 d) none of these
⎡3 6 ⎤
5) Rank of the matrix A = ⎢ ⎥ is
⎣4 8 ⎦
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 8 -2- *SLRW8*
2. Attempt any five of the following : 10
⎡2 3 ⎤
1) Find the characteristic equation of the matrix ⎢ ⎥.
⎣1 4⎦
2) Show that the equations x + y = 1, 2x + 3y = 1, 5x – y = 11 are consistent and
solve them.
3) Prove that ii is a real number.
4) Prove that cos(iz) = coshz, z being complex number.
5) If A is square matrix, then that ( A + A ′) is a symmetric matrix and ( A − A ′) is
a skew-symmetric matrix.
6) Express z = 1 + i 3 to its polar form and find its modulus and argument.
1
7) Find all the values of (1) 3.
3. A) Attempt any two of the following : 10
⎡2 − 2 2 ⎤
1) Find the eigen values and eigen vectors of the matrix A = ⎢ 1 1 1⎥.
⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ 1 3 − 1 ⎥⎦
2) Show that the system of equations 2x – 2y + z = λ x, 2x – 3y + 2z = λ y,
– x + 2y = λ z can possess a non-trivial solution if and only if λ = 1,
λ = –3. Obtain the general solution in each case.
3) If sin (α + iβ) = x + iy then prove that
x2 y2
i) + = 1 and
cosh 2 β sinh 2 β
x2 y2
ii) − =1
sin2 α cos2 α
B) Attempt any one of the following. 10
⎡1 1 0 ⎤
1) Verify Cayley-Hamilton’s theorem for the matrix A = ⎢0 0 1 ⎥ and hence
⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣2 1 − 2 ⎥⎦
find A–1 and A4.
*SLRW8* -3- SLR-W – 8
2) State and prove De-Moivre’s theorem. Hence if n is positive integer show

⎛ n+2 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎜ 2 ⎟ nπ
that (1 + i)n + (1 − i)n = 2 ⎝ ⎠. cos .
4
SECTION – II
(Calculus)
4. Select and write the correct alternative for each of the following. 5
1 + log x − x
1) Find the lim
x →1 1 − 2x + x 2
1 1 1 1
a) b) − c) d) −
2 2 3 3
∂u ∂v
2) If u = x3 – 3xy2 and v = 3x2y – y3 then + =
∂y ∂x
a) 0 b) –1 c) 1 d) 2
π
2
3) Value of ∫ sin5 x dx =
0
1 8 4π 7
a) b) c) d)
15 15 15 15
4) If φ = x2i + y 2j + z2k then at (1, –1, –2) the value of grad φ =

a) i + j + k b) i – j – 2k c) 2i – 2j – 4k d) 2i + 2j + 4k
1 1
x 4 +y 4
5) If u = 1 1
and it is homogeneous then its degree =
x 5 + y 5
1 1 1
a) b) c) d) none of these
20 4 5
SLR-W – 8 -4- *SLRW8*
1) Evaluate xlim
→0
x.log (tanx).
x
2) If y = then find y n.
x − a2 2
3) Obtain the series expansion of cosx.

4) Discuss the continuity of the function f(x, y) at (0, 0)
x 2y 2
f(x, y ) = , (x, y) ≠ (0, 0) f(0, 0) = 0
x 2y 2 + (x − y )2
1
x6
5) Find ∫ dx .
2
0 1− x
6) If f = x2z î − 2y 3z2 ĵ + xzy2k̂ then find div f and curl f at (1, –1, 1).

2 dz π
7) If z = e xy , x = t cost, y = t sint find at t = .
dt 2
1) If z = f(x, y) and x = r cos θ , y = r sin θ then prove that
2 2 2 2
⎛ ∂z ⎞ + ⎛ ∂z ⎞ = ⎛ ∂z ⎞ + 1 ⎛ ∂z ⎞
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ .
⎝ ∂x ⎠ ⎝ ∂y ⎠ ⎝ ∂r ⎠ r 2 ⎝ ∂θ ⎠
∞
x2
2) Evaluate ∫ (a 2 + x 2 )4
dx .
0
1
3) Prove that ∇ 2 (log r ) = .
r2
sin−1 x
1) State and prove Leibnitz’s theorem and hence if y = then prove that
1− x2
(1 − x 2 )yn+1 − (2n + 1)y nx − n2y n−1 = 0 .
2) State and prove Euler’s theorem on homogeneous function of nth degree.
⎛ x3 − y3 ⎞ ∂u ∂u
Hence if u = tan −1⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ then prove that x +y = sin 2 u .
⎝ x + y ⎠ ∂ x ∂ y
————————
*SLRW9* SLR-W 9
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

BOTANY (Paper I)
Microbiology and Cryptogams, Plant Physiology and Horticulture
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
SECTION I
(Microbiology and Cryptogams)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives : 5

1) The shape of coccus bacterium is
a) Spherical b) Rod like
c) Spiral d) Filamentous
2) Spirogyra is a _________ alga.
a) Sea water b) Fresh water
c) Terrestrial d) None of these
3) Mode of nutrition in Mucor is
a) Autotrophic b) Symbiotic
c) Saprophytic d) Both a) and b)
4) ________ moss is used as surgical dressings.
a) Nostoc b) Riccia
c) Anthoceros d) Sphagnum
5) Ligulate leaves are found in
a) Selaginella b) Spirogyra
c) Nostoc d) Riccia
P.T.O.
SLR-W 9 -2- *SLRW9*

i) What is virus ?
ii) Sketch and label the cell structure of Spirogyra.
iii) Write long form of PPLO and MLO.
iv) Give systematic position of Albugo.
v) What is lichen ? Mention the types of lichens.
vi) Give economic importance of algae (any four).
vii) Give the functions of heterocysts in Nostoc.

i) Economic importance of bryophytes.
ii) General character of mycoplasma.
iii) Describe scalariform conjugation in Spirogyra.

i) Describe asexual and sexual reproduction in Albugo.
ii) Describe the anatomy (T.S.) of stem and L.S. of strobilus in Selaginella.
SECTION II
(Plant Physiology and Horticulture)

1) The branch of horticulture which deals with cultivation, processing and
marketing of vegetables is called
a) Pomiculture b) Olericulture
c) Floriculture d) Ornamental
2) Floribunda is a variety of
a) Rose b) Marigold
c) Tagets d) Gerbera
3) ________ is a microelement.
a) N b) P
c) Cu d) Ca
*SLRW9* -3- SLR-W 9
4) ________ is a Day Nutral Plant (DNP).

a) Sunflower b) Maize
c) Wheet d) Rice
5) In holoenzyme, the protein part is called
a) Apoenzyme b) Prosthetic group
c) Co-enzyme d) Co-factor

i) Define growth.
ii) What is meant by co-enzyme ?
iii) What is vernalization ?
iv) Enlist any two roles of nitrogen.
v) What is meant by floriculture ?
vi) Enlist the types of roses.
vii) Define budding.

i) Describe the various phases of growth.
ii) Explain whip grafting with suitable example.
iii) Write a note on branches of horticulture.

i) Define enzyme, add a note on mechanism of enzyme action.
ii) What is vegetative propagation ? Explain any four methods of natural
propagation.

*SLRW10* SLR-W – 10
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (C.G.P.A. Pattern) Examination, 2016

ELECTRONICS (Paper – I)
Electronics Fundamentals and Digital Fundamentals

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
(Electronics Fundamentals)
1. Select the correct alternative for the following : 5

i) The unit of inductance is
a) ohm b) mhos c) Farad d) Henry
ii) Parallel resonance circuit is also known as

a) Acceptor circuit b) Rejector circuit
c) Both a and b d) None of these
iii) Kirchoff’s current law is conservation of
a) current b) charge c) voltage d) power
iv) A super position theorem is applied to a network containing
a) One current source b) One voltage source
c) More than one energy source d) Without energy source
v) A sine wave has period of 5 m.s. the frequency is
a) 200 Hz b) 2 Hz c) 20 Hz d) 0.2 KHz
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 10 -2- *SLRW10*
2. Answer any 5 for the following : 10

i) Define quality factor and selectivity.
ii) State Thevenin’s theorem.
iii) Define node and network.
iv) Calculate equivalent capacity of a capacitor of each capacity 10 μ F are
connected in series.
v) Define I and II network.
vi) Define h-parameters and give their formulaes.
vii) Write the colour code of 1M Ω carbon composition resistance.

i) Constant current and voltage source.
ii) Fuse
iii) Mash-Analysis

i) Explain LCR series resonance circuit. Derive the expression for resonance
frequency and quality factor.
ii) Obtain z-parameters for two port network.
SECTION – II
(Digital Fundamentals)
1. Select correct alternative for the following : 5

i) Hexadecimal number B is equivalent binary number is
a) 1010 b) 1011 c) 1110 d) 1101
ii) Gray code of 1011 is
a) 1110 b) 1010 c) 1100 d) 1101
iii) The IC 7404 is a gate of
a) AND b) OR c) NOT d) XOR
*SLRW10* -3- SLR-W – 10
iv) Which gate is called universal gate ?

a) NAND b) NOR
c) Both a and b d) None of these
v) Full adder adds number of bits at a time
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
i) Draw logic diagram for logic equation Y = A + B.C .
ii) Draw pinout diagram of IC 7432.

iii) State AND laws.
– to its equivalent binary number.
iv) Covert the decimal number (25)10 m
v) What is negative logic ?
vi) Draw logic diagram for half adder.
( )
vii) A. A + B = AB. Simplify using laws of Boolean algebra.

i) Full adder
ii) Demorgan’s theorem
iii) NOR as a universal gate.

i) Explain parallel binary adder.
ii) Explain with Block diagram digital computer and its organization.
__________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

PSYCHOLOGY (Paper – I)
General Psychology and Human Development

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
(General Psychology)

i) Thyroid glands produce the ______________ hormones.
A) Cortin B) Thyroxin
C) Adrenalin D) Oxygen
ii) The ______________ step in understanding anything is to give it a name
description.
A) First B) Second C) Sixth D) Fourth
iii) ______________ refer to all the internal, covert activity of our mind.
A) Mental process B) Society
C) Psychology D) Prediction
iv) Skinner developed ______________ conditioning theory.
A) Operant B) Classical
C) Experimental D) Case study
v) The types of sleeps given by ______________
A) Dement B) Spindle C) Wundt D) Maslow
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 11 -2- *SLRW11*
2. Answer the following (any five) : 10

1) What are the principles of All-or-None ?
2) What is the prediction ?
3) How many types of Psychological Goals ?
4) Who proposed the Psychoanalysis ?
5) Who proposed the behaviorism ?
6) What is pituitary gland ?
3. Write the short note (any two) : 10

1) Psychoanalysis Perspective
2) Humanistic Perspective
3) Role of EAR.
4. A) Explain the nervous system. 10

OR
B) Discuss on types of Psychological Professionals.
SECTION – II
(Human Development)
1. Fill in the blanks (Multiple choice) : 5

1) Adolescence is generally considered to began or about ______________ and
end in the late teen or early twenties.
a) 12 or 13 b) 11 or 12 c) 13 or 14 d) Any other
2) Adolescents speed their lot of time with ______________
a) Peer’s b) Mother c) Father d) Grand Father
3) The heterosexually is a love of the member of ______________ sex.
a) Opposite b) No
c) One own sex d) One’s self
*SLRW11* -3- SLR-W – 11
4) ______________ glands located on either side of the vagina.

a) Bartholin’s b) Cervix c) Hymen d) Others
5) Alcohol Marijuna and tobacco are the three drugs most popular with
______________
a) Adolescence b) Middle age c) Any other d) Old age
2. Write the answer of the following (any five) : 10

1) Define adolescence.
2) What is the main function of pituitary state ?
3) What are the Seven Forms of Love ?
4) Define the cholesterol.
5) What is the anorexia nervosa ?
6) What is human development ?
3. Write short notes (any two) : 10

1) Perry’s Approach
2) Depression and suicide in adolescence
3) Passionate and Companionate Love.
4. Answer any one of the following : 10

A) Explain the stages of sexuality in adolescence.
OR
B) Explain the function of peer group in adolescence.
_____________
*SLRW12* SLR-W 12
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

GEOLOGY
Paper I : Mineralogy and Palaeontology and lgneous, Sedimentary
and Metamorphic Petrology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
SECTION I
(Mineralogy and Palaeontology)
1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from given options : 5

1) Luster of diamond is
a) Pearly b) Silky c) Admantine d) Vitreous
2) Mineral calcite shows presence of __________ sets of cleavages.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Many
3) Pecten belongs to __________ Class.
a) Lamellibranchia b) Cephalopoda
c) Trilobita d) Echinoidea
4) The exoskeleton of phylum mollusca, made up of hard, secreted, calcareous
material is called as
a) Hinge b) Umbo c) Shell d) Lunule
5) The colour of powder of the mineral obtained by scratching it on porcelain
plate is called as
a) Luster b) Streak c) Fracture d) Cleavage
P.T.O.
SLR-W 12 -2- *SLRW12*

1) Define mineral.
2) Describe physical properties and chemical composition of Muscovite and
Biotite Minerals.
3) State the conditions of preservation of fossils.
4) Draw figure of co-valent bonding in minerals.
5) Give any two uses of fossils.
6) Give the names of any two species of cephalopod.
7) Define fossil.

1) Thorax and head of trilobite
2) Mohs scale of hardness
3) Amphibole group minerals.
1) Describe different modes of preservation of fossils.
2) Describe feldspar group minerals with their physical properties, chemical
composition and occurrence.
SECTION II
(Igneous, Sedimentary and Metamorphic Petrology)

1) The solidification of lava forms __________ Igneous rocks.
a) Intrusive b) Extrusive c) Injected d) None of these
2) The bun shaped igneous intrusion in unfolded region is called
a) Lopolith b) Phacolith c) Laccolith d) Sill
3) __________ is the abundant element in magma.
a) Copper b) Nickel c) Carbon d) None of these
4) The __________ rocks are the insoluble products of rock weathering.
a) Rudaceous b) Arenaceous c) Argillaceous d) Residual
5) The directed pressure plays predominant role in __________ metamorphic rocks.
a) Dynamothermal b) Thermal c) Contact d) Cataclastic
*SLRW12* -3- SLR-W 12

1) Define pyrogenetic mineral.
2) What is magma and lava ?
3) Laterite formation.
4) Differentiate between Shale and Claystone.
5) Schistose structure.
6) Formation of marble.
7) Vesicular structure.

1) Explain Discordant igneous intrusions.
2) Explain graded bedding and rain prints.
3) Explain depth zones.
1) Explain in detail Rock Cycle.
2) Explain Cross bedding, Ripple marks, Mud cracks and Pisolitic Structure.

Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper – I)
Fundamentals of Microbiology and Microbial Techniques

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION – I
(Fundamentals of Microbiology)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answers from given

alternatives. 5
1) Major component of cell wall of Gram Positive bacteria is __________
a) Phospholipid b) Polysaccharide
c) Peptidoglycan d) Lipid
2) Actinomycetes is link between bacteria and _________
a) Viruses b) Fungi c) Algae d) Protozoa
3) Mesosomes are invaginations of _________
a) Cell membrane b) Cell wall
c) Ribosome d) Flagella
4) Rabies vaccine was developed by _________
a) Louis Pasteur b) Joseph Lister
c) Alexander Flemming d) Ed. Jenner
5) Study of fungi is called _________
a) Anatomy b) Morphology c) Mycology d) Cytology
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 13 -2- *SLRW13*

i) Contributions of Alexander Flemming.
ii) Define virology.

iii) Define Taxonomy.
iv) Functions of Ribosomes.
v) Morphological types of bacteria.

vi) Contribution of John Tyndall.
vii) Define endospore.
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following. 10

i) Structure and functions of flagella.
ii) General characteristics of Actinomycetes.
iii) Difference between procaryotic and eucaryotic cell.
B) Answer any one of the following. 10

i) Discuss in detail general characteristics and cultivation of fungi.
ii) With neat labelled diagram describe the different parts of bacterial cell.
SECTION – II
(Microbial Techniques)

alternatives. 5
1) _______ is used for gaseous sterilization.

a) Alcohol b) Lysol c) Phenol d) Ethylene oxide
2) For capsule staining _________ method is used.

a) Chance’s b) Albert’s c) Maneral’s d) Gram’s
3) Refractive index of cedar wood oil is _________

a) 1 b) 1.5 c) 2.5 d) 0.5
*SLRW13* -3- SLR-W – 13
4) __________ is selective medium for coliforms.

a) Nutrient agar b) Blood agar
c) MacConkey’s agar d)Sabouraud’s agar
5) Effective germicidal wavelength of U.V. rays is
a) 2650 A° b) 250 A° c) 1550 A° d) 650 A°

i) Define basic Stains.
ii) Define Natural Media.
iii) Types of objective lenses.
iv) Define disinfection.
v) Stains used in capsule staining.
vi) List of gaseous sterilizing agents.
vii) Examples of living media.
3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following. 10

i) Compound Microscope
ii) Cell wall staining
iii) Autoclave.
B) Answer any one of the following. 10

i) Define sterilization and describe in detail sterilization by chemical agents.
ii) Define differential staining and describe in detail Gram Staining.
_______________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

ENGLISH COMPULSORY
On Track : English Skills for Success
Day and Date : Thursday, 31-3-2016 Max. Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative given below

each : 14
1) The Parliament of Religions was to be held in ___________
a) America b) Singapore
c) Canada d) South Africa
2) ________________ is not passed by Swami Vivekananda travelling to
America.
a) Ceylon b) Singapore
c) Penang d) Australia
3) Jain was represented by _______________
a) Vivekananda b) Chakravarthi
c) Gandhi d) Annie Besant
4) ‘The world’s most dangerous animal.’ Inside the cage there is no animal but
a ___________
a) Nothing b) Man c) Mirror d) None
5) The main reason of the serious economics problems of the majority is
___________
a) Famine b) Negligence
c) Ignorance d) All
6) Wernher Von Braun was ___________ scientist who produced Jupiter missile.
a) an American b) a Russian
c) a Roman d) a German
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 14 -2- *SLRW14*
7) Brahma is a ____________ Deity.

a) Hindu b) German c) American d) Japanese
8) The poem ‘Full Moon’ is written by ____________
a) Kamala Das b) Robert Hayden
c) Nani Palkhivala d) Toru Dutta
9) Today the moon is merely an attraction for ____________
a) the poets b) the children
c) the scientists d) the lovers
10) Keats takes apostrophe ____________
a) Keats’ b) Keat’s c) Keats’s d) All
11) She took _____________ laptop. (belong to Gita)
a) Gitas’ b) Gita’s c) Both d) None
12) Pune is ___________ to my village than Nagpur.
a) big b) bigger c) biggest d) all
13) Die and dye are the examples of _____________
a) Homonyms b) Homophones
c) Homographs d) Synonym
14) ____________ is the antonym of literate.
a) Illiterate b) Semiliterate
c) Aliterate d) Hyperliterate
2. Answer any seven of the following questions in two or three sentences : 14

1) What is Dr. Kalam’s opinion of Wernher von Braun ?
2) What had Dr. Kalam tested successfully in France ?
3) When did Swami Vivekananda Left Bombay for ?
4) What is human rights summed up ?
5) What are the primary ideas of human rights ?
*SLRW14* -3- SLR-W – 14
6) Who were the Indians to represent various religions ?

7) Who wrote ‘Brahma’ ?
8) Which poem refers the garden of Gethsemane ?
3. A) Write short answers on any two of the following : 8

1) What do you learn of Dr. Kalam’s dedication to team work through the
essay “work brings solace” ?
2) What is the history of human rights in the world ?
3) Describe the appearance of Swami Vivekananda.
B) Answer any two of the following briefly : 6
1) What is an agenda ?
2) What is CC ?
3) What should be avoided in C.V. ?
4. Write a suitable C.V. for the post of secondary school teacher. 14

OR
Write a notice, agenda and minutes for college gathering meeting.
5. Write an e-mail application letter for an accountant. 14

_____________________

Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester – II) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY (Paper – II) (CGPA Pattern)
Organic and Analytical Chemistry
Day and Date : Friday, 1-4-2016 Max. Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat diagrams and give equations wherever necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic table and calculator is allowed.
(Atomic weights : H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, Na = 23,
Cl = 35.5)
SECTION – I
(Organic Chemistry)
1. Select the correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite sentences: 5
i) Electrophiles are ________ species.
a) electron loving b) nucleus loving
c) nucleus hating d) none of these
ii) Maleic and fumaric acids are ______
a) optical isomers b) geometrical isomers
c) conformational isomers d) enantiomers
O O
|| ||
AlCl3
iii) The reaction C 6H6 + CH3 − C − Cl ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ → C 6H5 − C − CH3 + HCl is an
anhydrous
example of _______
a) Grignard reaction b) Wurtz reaction
c) Friedel-Crafts reaction d) Kolbe’s reaction
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 15 -2- *SLRI20*
iv) Acidic hydrogens are present in ______
a) benzene b) ethane
c) ethene d) ethyne
v) Hyper conjugation effect involves the delocalization of ______
a) σ electrons b) π electrons
c) σ and π electrons d) lone pair of electrons
i) What is the meaning of curved arrow and half headed arrow ?
ii) Define :
a) Homolytic bond fission.
b) Heterolytic bond fission.
iii) Define :
a) Enantiomers
b) Diastereoisomers.
iv) Predict the product of following :
CH3
|
H3C − Cu − Li + CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − Br → ?
v) Complete the following reaction.
Con. H SO 4
+ con. HNO3 ⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯2⎯ ⎯ ⎯→ ?
50 −60 °C
vi) Explain Pseudo aromatic compounds.
vii) What is Huckel’s rule of aromaticity ? Explain it with respect to pyrrole.

*SLRA136* -3- SLR-W – 15
3. A) Write short note on any two of the following : 10

i) Substitution reactions.
ii) Optical isomerism in tartaric acid.
iii) Halogenation of methane.

i) What are dienes ? Describe different types of dienes with suitable
examples. Discuss any two methods of preparation of 1, 3- butadiene.
ii) What is hybridisation ? Explain the formation of CH4 and C2H4 on the
basis of hybridisation.
SECTION – II
(Analytical Chemistry)
4. Select the most correct alternative for the following and rewrite the sentences: 5
i) The liquids with high coefficients of viscosity is said to be ______ liquids.

a) mobile b) viscous c) ideal d) non ideal
ii) In Lassaigne’s test, an organic compound is fused with ___

a) CuO b) CuSO4 c) Na d) FeSO4
iii) Sodium carbonate react with gastric acid to form ______ chloride.
a) Potassium b) Aluminium c) Ferric d) Sodium
iv) Aluminium is economically extracted from _______ ore.

a) bauxite b) haematite
c) dolomite d) pyrolusite
v) Smoke is _______ air pollutant.

a) Organic gases b) Inorganic gases
c) Aerosols d) Particulate
SLR-W – 15 -4- *SLRA136*
i) What are common methods for adulteration of milk ?
ii) Explain the importance of cis-platin.
iii) State Nernst distribution law.
iv) Define the terms :

a) Minerals
b) Flux.
v) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of blast furnace.
vi) What are the sources of oxides of nitrogen ?
vii) Explain health effect of oxides of sulphur.

i) Electrodialysis.
ii) Distribution indicators.
iii) Magnetic separation.

i) State the Macleod’s equation. How it is modified to get Sugden’s equation ?
ii) Describe the Liebig’s method for estimation of carbon and hydrogen in an
organic compound. 1.8×10–4 kg of an organic compound when subjected
to combustion method produced 1.08×10–4 kg of water and 2.64×10–4 kg
of carbon dioxide. Determine percentage of hydrogen and carbon in the
compound.
_____________
*SLRW16* -1- SLR-W – –16
SLR-W 16
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Computer Science) – I (Semester – II) (CGPA Pattern)

Examination, 2016
COMPUTER FUNDAMENTALS AND PROGRAMMING USING ‘C’ – II
(Paper – II)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
(Computer Fundamentals)
1. Multiple choice questions : 5

i) URL means _______________
a) Universal Resource Locator
b) Uniform Resource Locator
c) Unity Resource Locator
d) None of these
ii) __________ is interleaved execution of two or more different and independent
programs by a computer.
a) Multiprogramming b) Multiprocessing
c) Multitasking d) Multithreading
iii) A ____________ is a collection of related information.
a) Icon b) Folder
c) File d) Drive
iv) ____________ keyword is used to declare variable in javascript.
a) declare b) var
c) dim d) none of these
v) ____________ function is used to written positive integer value.
a) int b) positive
c) abs d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 16 -2- *SLRW16*

i) Give the types of CSS.
ii) Give the list of data types in vbscript.
iii) Give the features of operating system.
iv) List the types of networking.
v) Difference between “Downloading” and “Uploading” of information.
vi) Give disadvantages of Internet.
vii) What is GUI ?

i) Write a program in javascript to find out given number is prime or not.
ii) Explain difference between HTML and DHTML.
iii) What is operating system ? Explain types of operating system.

i) Explain process management in detail.
ii) What is hyperlink ? Explain internal and external hyperlink with example.
SECTION – II
(Programming Using ‘C’ – II)
1. Choose correct alternatives : 5
1) The default value of auto variable is ____________
a) Zero b) One c) Garbage d) None of these
2) What is the output :
# define SQR(X) X*X
void main ()
{
printf(“\n%d”,SQR(5+2));
}
a) Error b) 25 c) 49 d) 17
3) We can handle may members at a time using structure.
a) True b) False
4) The command line argument accept ________ number of parameters.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
5) The macro accepts arguments.
a) True b) False
*SLRW16* -3- SLR-W – 16

1) What is difference between macro and function ?
2) What is difference between call by value and call by address ?
3) What is pointer to pointer ?
4) What is difference between structure and union ?
5) Give the syntax for creating text file.
6) Why sizeof() is used ?
7) Give the syntax of putch() and putche().

1) Write a program to find out given number is even or odd using complier
control macros.
2) Explain the nested function with example.
3) Explain how to create file with example.
B) Solve any one of the following : 10

1) How to pass structure as an argument to function ? Write a program to
pass whole structure to function.
2) Explain dynamic memory allocation with example.
_____________________
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Paper – II)
Heat and Thermodynamics, Electricity, Magnetism and Basic
Electronics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

4) Use of logarithmic table is allowed.
SECTION – I
(Heat and Thermodynamics)
1. Select correct alternative : 5
i) Clausius expression for mean free path is

1 3
a) λ = b) λ =
πσ 2n 4 πσ 2n
4 1
c) λ = d) λ =
3 πσ 2n 2 πσ 2n
ii) Coefficient of thermal conductivity of any gas

a) increases with increase of temperature
b) decreases with increase of temperature
c) remains constant with increase in temperature
d) reduces to zero with increase in temperature
iii) During irreversible process ; entropy
a) decreases b) increases
c) remains constant d) none of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 17 -2- *SLRW17*
iv) Coefficient of performance of refrigerator working between temperature 300°K

and 400°K is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
v) Efficiency of heat engine is always

a) less than one b) negative
c) greater than one d) all of the above
i) Define isothermal change.
ii) Give the comparison between otto engine and diesel engine.
iii) Give the principle of air conditioning.
iv) Define free path and mean free path.
v) What is magnetocaloric effect ?
vi) Give the examples of irreversible process.
vii) Calculate the coefficient of performance of refrigerator machine working

between the temperatures – 15°c and 30°c.
i) Obtain adiabatic relation pv r = constant.
ii) Obtain an expression for coefficient of viscosity on the basis of transport

phenomena.
iii) Explain the working of Linde’s air liquefier.
i) Describe the working of diesel engine and obtain an expression for its
efficiency.
ii) Describe vapour compression refrigerator and obtain an expression for its
coefficient of performance.
*SLRW17* -3- SLR-W – 17
SECTION – II
(Electricity, Magnetism and Basic Electronics)
i) In parallel resonance LCR circuit, the resonance frequency is given by
1 1 XL − X C
a) fr = b) fr =
2 π LC 2π R
1 1 1 R2
c) f r = d) fr = −
2 πLC 2π LC C 2
ii) _________ circuit converts the G.C. into pulsating d.c.

a) Transistor b) Transmitter
c) Rectifier d) LCR circuit
iii) In transistor ________ region is heavily doped.
a) emitter b) base c) collector d) all the above
iv) In common emitter configuration the current amplification factor β is
Δ IB Δ IC Δ IC Δ IE
a) β = b) β = c) β = d) β =
ΔI C ΔIE ΔIB Δ IB
v) In the process of charging of condensor through resistance in the d.c. circuit

containing resistance and capacitor, the instantaneous current equation have
the form
−t −t
a) i = i0 b) i = − i0
e RC e RC
−t t
⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞
c) i = i0 ⎜ 1 − e ⎟
RC d) i = i0 1 − e ⎟
⎜ RC
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

i) Define the term impedance and reactance.
ii) Calculate the current amplification factor of CE configuration if current
amplification factor for CB configuration is 0.99.
SLR-W – 17 -4- *SLRW17*
iii) What is clamper ? Draw the circuit diagram for positive clamper.
iv) What is the significance of time constant is LR circuit ?
v) Define the Q-factor for series LCR circuit.
vi) State Biot and Savart law.
vii) Define ripple factor.

i) Explain with neat circuit diagram, working of transistor as common base
amplifier.
ii) Describe Own’s bridge.
iii) Write a note on π filter.

i) Derive an expression for growth and decay of current in LR circuit.
ii) Draw neat labelled diagram of moving coil galvanometer and write its
construction and working.
_______________
*SLRW18* SLR-W 18
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester II) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY (Paper II)
Climatology
Day and Date : Saturday, 2-4-2016

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. Max. Marks : 70

2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Use of map stencils is allowed.
SECTION I
1. Complete the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives. 5

1) An average atmospheric condition for a long period of time in a particular, is
called
a) Climate b) Weather c) Atmosphere d) None of them
2) __________ gas absorbs the ultraviolet rays from the incoming solar radiation.
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Ozone d) Argon
3) At 40° South latitudes, Westerlies blows without disturbance with greater
velocities known as
a) Roaring forties b) Furious fifties
c) Shrienking sixties d) None of them
4) The proportion of oxygen gas in the atmosphere is __________ % by volume.
a) 78.08 b) 20.94 c) 0.03 d) Trace
5) __________ is the lowest layer of atmosphere.
a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere d) Exosphere
P.T.O.
SLR-W 18 -2- *SLRW18*
2. Answer any five questions from the following : 10

i) State the importance of oxygen in the atmosphere.
ii) Give the name of climatic zones on earth.
iii) Define isobars.
iv) Explain the land breezes.
v) Explain ozonosphere.
vi) Explain doldrum belt on earth.
vii) State the various layers of atmosphere.

i) Importance of water vapour in the atmosphere.
ii) Classification of planetary winds.
iii) Heat budget of earth.
i) Describe the air pressure belts on the earth with neat diagram.
ii) Define climatology and state its scope and importance in all fields.
SECTION II
1. Complete the following sentences by choosing correct alternatives. 5

1) North pole is surrounded by __________ ocean.
a) Indian b) Atlantic c) Arctic d) Pacific
2) Oceanography is the branch of __________ geography.
a) Physical b) Human c) Economic d) Agricultural
3) The average salinity of seas and oceans are __________ %.
a) 15 b) 35 c) 70 d) 34
4) Littoral ocean deposits found on __________ in between high and low tide line.
a) Continental shelves b) Continental slope
c) Abyssal plain d) Ocean deeps
5) Non subsidence theory of coral formation postulated by
a) R.A. Daly b) Charles Darwin c) Murray d) W.M. Davis
*SLRW18* -3- SLR-W 18
2. Answer any five questions from the following : 10

i) Explain the types of tides.
ii) Explain the barrier reefs.
iii) Give the name of warm current in the world.
iv) State the latitudinal oceanic temperature in the world.
v) Classify the palegic deposits.
vi) Define oceanography.
vii) Define coral reefs.

i) Factors affecting on the oceanic temperature.
ii) Formation process of fringing reefs.
iii) Surface configuration of ocean bottom.
i) Describe the ocean currents in Atlantic ocean.
ii) What is meant by tides ? Classify it with schematic diagram.
___________
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Paper – II)
Descriptive Statistics, Probability and Probability Distribution – II

Time :10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : Figures to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION – I
(Descriptive Statistics, Probability)

1) If the variables X and Y are changes in same direction, then cov(X, Y) is
a) zero b) positive c) one d) negative
2) If there are n attributes, then the total number of ultimate class frequencies is
a) 2n b) 2n – 1 c) 2n + 1 d) 3n
3) The data are consistent if M is
a) less than (A) b) greater than (A)
c) one third of (A) d) none of these
4) If r = 0, the angle between two regression lines is
π π π
a) 0 b) c) d)
2 3 6
5) In Paasche’s price index, _____________ is used as a weight.
a) Quantity in base year b) Quantity in current year
c) Price in base year d) Price in current year

i) Define Fisher’s price and quantity index number.
ii) What are the lines of regression ?
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 19 -2- *SLRW19*
iii) With usual notation prove that :

a) r = byx ⋅ bxy
b) byx + bxy ≥ 2r .
iv) State the conditions of consistency of two attributes A and B.
v) If A and B are two attributes, then prove that coefficient of association Q lies
between – 1 and + 1.
vi) Explain linear and non-linear correlation.
vii) Write short note on scatter diagram.
i) A random sample of n observation gives the coefficient of correlation r
and σ x = σ y . Show that correlation coefficient between x and x + y is
1+ r
.
2
ii) What is time reversal test of consistency ? Verify the same for Fisher’s
index number.
iii) If two attributes A and B are independent show that
i) A, β and
ii) α, β are independent.
i) Derive the conditions of consistency in case of three attributes A, B and C.
ii) Obtain the expression for the acute angle θ between the two regression
lines. Interpret the results for θ = 0, θ = π 2 .
SECTION – II
(Probability Distributions – II)
⎡X − A⎤
1) If X is a discrete r.v. then E ⎢ ⎥ is
⎣ n ⎦
⎡X⎤ 1 A
a) E ⎢ ⎥ b) E( X) − c) E(X – A) d) E(X)
⎣n⎦ n n
*SLRW19* -3- SLR-W – 19
2) Given the following joint p.m.f. of (X, Y) what is the value of F(1, 2) ?
Y
1 2
X
1 0.1 0.4
2 0.2 0.3
a) 0.1 b) 0.3
c) 0.5 d) Cannot be determined
3) If (X, Y) are uncorrelated r.v. then
a) Corr. (X, Y) = 0 b) X and Y are independent
c) P(X, Y) = P(X) P(Y) d) All the above
4) If X and Y are independent Binomial random variables with parameters (n1, p1)
and (n2, p2) respectively, then X + Y is Binomial if
a) p1 = p2 b) n1 = n2
c) n1 = n2 and p1 = p2 d) cannot be applied
5) If X is a random variable having
P(X) = 1 if X = 1
=0 otherwise
then the distribution of X is
a) One point b) Two point c) Bernoulli d) Uniform

i) Define mathematical expectation of r.v. X.
ii) Define one point and two point random variables.
iii) Let V(X) = 25 then, find
⎛X 5−X⎞
Cov ⎜ , ⎟
⎝5 5 ⎠
iv) The joint pmf of (X, Y) is given by
P(x, y) = K (x2 + y2) x = – 1, 1
y = – 2, 2
Obtain the constant K.
SLR-W – 19 -4- *SLRW19*
v) State and prove the relation between mean and variance of Binomial
distribution.
vi) Construct the joint p.m.f. of (X, Y).
vii) Let X and Y are independent r.v. with means 10 and 20 and variances 2 and 3
respectively. Find the variance of 3X + 4Y.

i) Define discrete uniform distribution and obtain its mean and variance.
ii) State and prove additive property of Binomial distribution.
iii) State :
a) rth central moment of r.v. X.
b) Multiplication theorem of expectation.
i) Define probability generating function (pgf) of a r.v. X. Show that it is not
independent of change of origin and scale.
ii) The joint p.m.f. of (X, Y) is given by
Y
–1 0 1
X
–1 0 0.2 0
0 0.1 0.2 0.1
1 0.1 0.2 0.1
i) Show that X and Y are uncorrelated.

ii) Obtain conditional distribution of X given Y = 0.
iii) Obtain E[X|Y=0].
_____________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Paper – II) (CGPA Pattern)
(Animal Diversity – II and Ecology, Ethology, Evolution and Applied
Zoology
Day and Date : Monday, 4-4-2016 Total Marks : 70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

SECTION – I
(Animal Diversity – II)
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing alternative given below. 5
1) Petromyzon has _________ pairs of gills.

a) Six b) Seven c) Eight d) Nine
2) The fertilization in frog is

a) Internal b) External c) In uterus d) None of these
3) The age of fish can be calculated by counting lines of growth in ________

scales.
a) Cycloid b) Ctenoid c) Ganoid d) Placoid
4) The common openings for digestive, genital and excretory systems in frog is
called as
a) Anus b) Cloaca c) Uterus d) Rectum
5) Ventricles of brain are filled with a fluid known as

a) Lymph b) Mucous
c) Cerebrospinal fluid d) Pericardial fluid
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 20 -2- *SLRW20*

i) Excretion in frog.
ii) Sexual dimorphism in frog.
iii) Paired fins in fish.
iv) Tadpole of frog.
v) Red blood corpuscles of frog.
vi) Ammocoetus larva.
vii) Pelvic girdle of frog.

i) Comment on parental care in amphibia.
ii) Draw a neat labelled diagram of internal structure of heart of frog.
iii) Enlist the salient features of Cyclostomes.

i) Describe the brain of frog and its functions of various parts.
ii) What is cleavage ? Describe the blastula stage and its fate map.
SECTION – II
(Ecology, Ethology, Evolution and Applied Zoology)
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing alternative given below. 5
1) The fossil study is called as

a) Palaeontology b) Litoentology
c) Osteoentology d) Paleogeography
2) ___________ is considered as a social insect.

a) Honey bee b) Cockroach c) Silkmoth d) Housefly
3) _________ are also called as primary consumers.

a) Carnivores b) Decomposers
c) Scavengers d) Herbivores
*SLRW20* -3- SLR-W – 20
4) Decomposers are also called as

a) Micro consumers b) Macro consumers
c) Microorganisms d) Macroorganisms
5) The culture of earthworm is called

a) Sericulture b) Apiculture c) Vermiculture d) Silviculture

i) Ethology.
ii) Symbiosis.
iii) Biome.
iv) Biosphere.
v) Herbivores.
vi) Pearl culture.
vii) Ecological pyramid.

i) Describe the courtship behavior in birds.
ii) Describe the foodchain of an ecosystem.
iii) Describe the phenomenon mimicry with a suitable examples.

i) What is Vermiculture ? Describe Vermicompost and Vermiwash.
ii) Describe the abiotic factors of a typical ecosystem.
————————
*SLRW21* SLR-W 21
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (C.G.P.A. Pattern) Examination, 2016

MATHEMATICS (Paper II)
Geometry and Differential Equation
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(Geometry)
1. Select the correct alternative for each of the following. 5

1) The direction cosine of normal to the plane x + y + z = 3 are ________
a) 1, 1, 1 b) !
, !
, !
c) , , d) none of these

! ! !
2) The radius of spheres x y z 4 x 1 2

= 0 is ________
a) 2 b) 4 c) 12 d) 3
3) Every equation of first degree in x, y, z represents ________
a) a circle b) a line c) a plane d) sphere
4) The polar form of cartesian equation N O = N

is ________
a) r 3 a c o s
b) r 2 a c o s
c) r a s i n
d) none of these
5) If, by rotation of axes through an angle the expression
3x + 2xy + 3y 18x 22y + 50 = 0 does not contain cross product term xy

2 2
then = ________
a) b) c) d)

! $ "
P.T.O.
SLR-W 21 -2- *SLRW21*
2. Attempt any five of the following 10
1) Transform the equation 2x2 + y2 4x + 4y = 0 parallel axes through (1, 2).
2) Find the polar co-ordinates of the points whose cartesian co-ordinates are
given as A( , 1). !
3) Find the angle between the lines whose direction ratios are
(5, 12, 13) and ( 3, 4, 5).
4) Find the equation of the sphere having the join of A(1, 2, 3) and B(1, 3, 4)
as its diameter.
5) Find the centre and radius of the sphere 2x2 +2y2 + 2z2 4x 8y + 4z + 5 = 0.
6) Find the distance of the point P(3, 4, 2) from the plane 6x 2y + 3z + 7 = 0 .
7) Identify the conic given following equation 4x2 12xy + 9y2 + 4x + y 5 = 0.
3. A) Attempt any two of the following. 10

1) Show that the second degree equation x2 + y2 + z2 +2ux + 2vy + 2wz + d = 0
represents a sphere with centre ( u, v, w) and radius = K L M @
2) Find the equation of the plane through three points A(1, 1, 1), B(1, 1, 1)
and C( 7, 3, 5).
3) Find the angle through which the rectangular axes are rotated so that
ax2 + 2hxy + by 2 transform into . =

N

>

O


1) If,by rotation of axes of the expression ax2 + 2hxy + by2 becomes
=

N

then prove that a + b =
D

N

O
and ab h2 =

>

O

=

>
=

>

D

2) a) Show that the plane Ax+By+Cz = D touches the sphere

x2 + y2+ z2+ 2ux + 2vy + 2wz + d=0 if and only if (Au + Bv + Cw + D)2
= (A2 + B2+ C2) (u2 +v2 + w2 d).
b) Obtain the equation plane through the point ( 1, 3, 2) and perpendicular
to the two planes x + 2y + 2z = 5 and 3x + 3y + 2z = 8.
SECTION II
(Differential Equation)
1) The differential equation (2x + 3y + 1)dx + (3x +4y 1)dy = 0 is of the form
__________
a) Non-homogeneous b) Homogeneous
c) Variable separable d) None of these
*SLRW21* -3- SLR-W 21
2) The general solution of is _________

@ O @ O
# " O
@ N
@ N
a) y = c1ex + c2e4x b) y= c1ex + c2e4x

c) y = c1ex + c2e4x d) none of these
3) If f(D)y =eax.V where V is a function of x and f(D) is polynomial in D =

@
@ N
then particular integral = _________

1
= N
e . V
f ( D )
= N
a) b)

= N
A 8
B =
B , =
c) d) none of these

= N
A 8
B , =
4) The differential equation Mdx + Ndy = 0 is exact differential if ________
a) b)
M N M N

N x y x
c) d) none of these
M N
x y y x
5) The value of is _________

"
N ! N
$ $ !
a) b)
N N N N

! ! !
c) d) none of these
N
!
2. Attempt any five of the following. 10

!
1) Solve
@ O @ O @ O
! ! O
@ N
@ N @ N
2) Solve
@ O O

@ N
N
SLR-W 21 -4- *SLRW21*
3) Solve (2x +4y + 3) = (2y + x + 1)

@ O
@ N
4) Find the value of

5) Solve (D3 3D + 2)y = x
@ O " N
6) Solve @ N
O
N N
7) Find the integrating factor for the differential equation
@ O N
O
@ N
N
N

1) Explain the method of solving homogeneous differential equation of 1st
order and 1st degree.
2) Solve .
d y
( 1 x ) 2 x y c o s x
d x
3) Solve .
@ O @ O
! N
! O A
@ N
@ N

1) Explain the method of solving the Bernoullis differential equation
where P and Q are functions of x only, hence solve

@ O
2 O 3 O
@ N
.
@ O
N N O N O
@ N
2) With usual notation prove that , hence solve

1 1
s i n a x s i n a x
f ( D ) f ( a )
.
d y
y s i n 2 x
d x

Seat
No.
B.Sc. – I (Semester – II) Examination, 2016

BOTANY (Paper – II) (CGPA)
Gymnosperm and Angiosperm, Cell Biology, Genetics and Plant
Biotechnology
Day and Date : Tuesday, 5-4-2016 Total Marks : 70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full mrks.
SECTION – I
(Gymnosperms and Angiosperms)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct answer from the given
alternatives : 5
1) Pollination is gymnosperms is ______________
a) Entomophilous b) Anemophilous
c) Hydrophilous d) Malcophilous
2) ________________ system of classification is accepted in gymnosperms.
a) Seward’s b) Arnold’s
c) Sporne’s d) None of these
3) In the floral formula ‘K’ stands for ____________
a) Calyx b) Corolla c) Perianth d) Androecium
4) _______________ vegetation is dominant on Earth.
a) Angiospermic b) Gymnospermic
c) Algal d) Lichens
5) Cassia ariculata belongs to family ___________
a) Amaryllidaceae b) Nyctaginaceae
c) Solanaceae d) Caeasalpinaceae
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 22 -2- *SLRW22*

i) Mention two economic importances of gymnosperms.
ii) Write two salient features of gymnosperms.
iii) Mention the leaf types in Cycas.
iv) Enlist any two type methods you have studied in ICBN.
v) What is meant by perigynous flower ?
vi) Write on fleshy drupe.
vii) Mention two economic importance of Solanaceae family.

i) Write on internal structure of coralloid root of Cycas.
ii) Give the merits of Bentham and Hooker’s system of classification.
iii) Write on cymose type of inflorescence.
i) Write in brief the leaflet anatomy of Cycas.
ii) Give the distinguishing characters of any two families :
a) Annonaceae
b) Convolvulaceae
c) Nyctaginaceae
d) Amaryllidaceae.
SECTION – II
(Cell Biology, Genetics and Plant Biotechnology )
alternatives : 5
1) In eukaryotic cell __________ of ribosomes are present.
a) 60S b) 40S c) 70S d) 80S
2) Enzyme catalyse is present in ___________
a) Iysosomes b) Glyoxysomes
c) Peroxysomes d) Ribosomes
*SLRW22* -3- SLR-W – 22
3) The ____________ protects and supports the entire plant body.

a) Cell wall b) Plasmamembrane
c) Plasmodesmata d) Cell membrane
4) The application of living organisms to industrial processes is known as
________
a) Biology b) Microbiology c) Algalogy d) Biotechnology
5) The ___________ is known as father of genetics.
a) Bartener b) John Gregor Mendel
c) Naudin d) Goss

i) Sketch and label the prokaryotic cell.
ii) State any two functions of nucleus.
iii) Define Microbodies.
iv) Give any two functions of cell membrane.
v) What are complementary genes ?
vi) Define alleles.
vii) What are biofertilizers ?

i) Write the significance of mitosis.
ii) Describe the structure of mitochondrion.
iii) State the functions of glyoxysomes.
i) Describe Mendel’s Law of Dominance and Segregation with suitable
example.
ii) Describe the scope of Biotechnology.
_____________________
*SLRW23* SLR-W 23
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester II) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

ELECTRONICS (Paper II)
Electronic Devices and Digital Electronics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(Electronic Devices)

i) When pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains same d) may increase or decrease
ii) A zener diode is used as
a) an amplifier b) an oscillator
c) a voltage regulator d) a rectifier
iii) The
of a transistor is 0.99, then value of is
a) 9 b) 99 c) 999 d) 90
iv) In an n-channel JFET, the charge carriers are
a) electrons b) holes
c) both electrons and holes d) ions
v) A TRIAC can be triggered into conduction by applying _________ at the gate.
a) Only positive voltage (pulse)
b) Only negative voltage (pulse)
c) Both positive or negative (pulse) voltage
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W 23 -2- *SLRW23*

i) Explain, why intrinsic semiconductor acts as an insulator at absolute zero
temperature.
ii) Draw symbols of zener diode and photo diode with labels.
iii) State in which way transistor is biased.
iv) Draw symbols of PNP and NPN transistors with labels.
v) State any four applications of JFET.
vi) State any four applications of UJT.
vii) Calculate the value of transconductance (gm) of a JFET, if
= 80 and
rd = 400 K .

i) Write short note on N-type semiconductor.
ii) Explain avalanche and zener breakdown in zener diode.
iii) Explain construction and working of SCR.
i) Explain output characteristics of transistor in CB configuration and explain
how to determine the .
ii) Explain construction and working of N-channel JFET.
SECTION II
(Digital Electronics)

i) In TTL maximum value of sourcing current is
a) 80 )
b) 16 mA c) 1.6 mA d) 1 mA
ii) T-flip-flop can be used to construct
a) Counter b) Decoder c) Encoder d) Multiplexer
iii) IC 7447 is
a) Encoder b) Decoder c) Counter d) Multiplexer
iv) _________ counter is applied clock input simultaneously.
a) Asynchronous b) Synchronous
c) Combination d) None
v) IC 7495 contains ________ flip-flops.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
*SLRW23* -3- SLR-W 23

i) Explain noise margin in TTL.
ii) Draw MOD-5 counter diagram using IC 7490.
iii) What is decoder ?
iv) State types of shift registers.
v) Compare multiplexer and demultiplexer.
vi) What is meant by synchronous counter ?
vii) Give truth table of RS flip flop using NOR gates.

i) Explain following specifications of TTL logic family - Fan-in, Fan-out,
Propagation delay, sourcing and sinking current.
ii) Write a note on decimal to BCD encoder.
iii) Explain ring counter using IC 7495.
i) Explain operation of JK flip-flop with timing diagram.
ii) Describe 1 : 8 demultiplexer.
_____________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – II) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

PSYCHOLOGY (Paper – II)
General Psychology and Human Development
Day and Date : Wednesday, 6-4-2016 Total Marks : 70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

SECTION – I
(General Psychology)
1. Choose the correct alternative. 5

i) A _________holding onto information for some period of time.
A) storage B) memory C) S.M.T. D) retrieval
ii) The first step in the memory system is to get _________ information.
A) sensory B) mental C) behavioral D) emotional
iii) The _________ stage of memory is sensory.
A) first B) third C) fourth D) sixth
iv) __________ theory talk about need.
A) Drive reduction B) Need
C) Arousal D) Self
v) The final _________ need proposed by McClelland is the need for power.
A) psychological B) sociological C) economical D) incentive
2. Answer the following (any five) : 10
1) Define intelligence.
2) Define personality.
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 24 -2- *SLRW24*
3) How many types of memory ?
4) Who proposed the Hierarchy of need theory ?
5) Define emotion.
6) Who introduce self theory of motivation ?
3. Write the short note (any two) : 10
1) Instinct Approaches
2) Decay Theory
3) Schechter-Singer and cognitive arousal theory.
4. A) Discuss on the Maslow’s Hierarchy of need theory. 10

OR
B) Explain the three stages of memory.
SECTION – II
(Human Development)
1. Fill in the blanks (Multiple Choice). 5
1) The __________ of Erikson crisis in the major issues of young adulthood in

intimacy vs Isolation.
a) One b) Third c) Sixth d) Fifth
2) Middle age is the years between age

a) 35 to 65 b) 20 to 35 c) 40 to 65 d) any other
3) _________ sensitivity begins to decline at about age 50.

a) All b) Vision c) Teste d) Audiction
4) ______ is major health problem in middle age.

a) Obesity b) Hypertension c) Blood pressure d) Any other
5) _________ people need more medical care than younger ones.

a) Middle aged b) Older c) Elder d) All
*SLRW24* -3- SLR-W – 24

I) What is approximate age of middle adulthood ?
II) What are the type of marriage ?
III) What subject Lewis Terman began his study in 1920 ?
IV) What is meant by Trait theories ?
V) Which is the main problem of middle age of adult women ?
VI) What is meant by monogamy ?
3. Write short notes (any two) : 10
1) Smell, Taste, Touch in late adulthood.
2) Physical development in Middle adulthood.
3) The female climacteric and menopause.
4. Answer in any one of the following. 10
A) Explain the health problem in late-adulthood.

OR
B) Explain the four type of death.
___________
*SLRW25* -1- SLR-W – –25
SLR-W 25
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Paper – II)
Introduction to General Geology and Physical Geology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

3) Draw neat diagrams wherever needed.
SECTION – I
(Introduction to General Geology)
1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer given in the options. 5

1) Galaxy is ___________ parsecs in diameter.
a) 10,000 b) 1,000 c) 100 d) 10
2) Neptune is the ___________ planet from the Sun.
a) Eighth b) Fifth c) First d) Second
3) In equinox on ___________ day and night will be equal in duration.
a) 21 March b) 21 April c) 21 May d) 21 June
4) The core has a volume of ___________ percent.
a) 46 b) 36 c) 26 d) 16
5) The focus of shallow earthquake is, surface to ___________ km.
a) 70 b) 90 c) 110 d) 120
2. Answer any five of the following 10

i) Shape of the Earth.
ii) Solstices.
iii) Hydrosphere.
iv) Seismograph (fig.)
v) Solfatras.
vi) Volcanic belt.
vii) Mesosphere.
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 25 -2- *SLRW25*

i) Explain solar system.
ii) Explain mesosphere and lithosphere.
iii) Explain causes of volcano.

i) Explain 1st, 2nd and 3rd order relief features on the earth.
ii) Predictions and precautions of earthquakes.
SECTION – II
(Introduction to Physical Geology)
1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the given options. 5
1) The removal of loose materials by the blowing action of wind is called _________
a) Deflation
b) Cave rock
c) Ventifacts
d) Desert Pavements
2) Condition for the formation of Dune is ___________
a) Strong and constant wind
b) A source of sand
c) Obstacles that can initiate the dune formation
d) All of these
3) ________ are smaller depressions found on bedrock of streams.
a) Plunge pools b) Pat holes
c) Terrace d) Rapids
4) _______ are rounded mounds of till with elliptical bases.
a) Eskers b) Drumlin
c) Kames d) Kettles
5) Sea cliff retreats leaving flat platform which is called ___________
a) Wave cut terrace
b) Sea caves
c) Cove
d) Headlands
*SLRW25* -3- SLR-W – 25

i) Rapids
ii) Sea notch

iii) Grooves
iv) Varves
v) Earth pillars
vi) Deflation armors
vii) Talus.

i) Explain chemical weathering.
ii) Explain erosional features of stream-cascades and river terraces.
iii) Explain erosional features of ocean-head land and stacks.

i) Explain exogenic and endogenic forces acting on the earth.
ii) Explain depositional features of glaciers as erratics, moraines, drumlines
and kems.
_____________________
*SLRW26* SLR-W 26
Seat
No.
B.Sc. I (Semester II) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper II)
Microbial Physiology and Applied Microbiology I

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(Microbial Physiology)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting the correct alternative : 5

i) __________ is an example of coenzyme.
a) NAD b) Zn++ c) Fe++ d) Mg++
ii) Because of presence of _________ MacConkeys agar becomes selective.
a) Na-citrate b) Sodium formate
c) Sodium chloride d) Na-taurocholate
iii) _________ is not nutrient for bacteria.
a) Peptone b) Nacl
c) Yeast extract d) Meat extract
iv) In protein amino acids are linked by _________ bond.
a) Peptide b) Disulphide
c) Ester d) Hydrogen
v) _________ is an example of homopolysaccharide.
a) Starch b) Glucose
c) Lactose d) Sucrose
P.T.O.
SLR-W 26 -2- *SLRW26*

i) Define active site.
ii) Role of peptone in culture media.
iii) Define autotrophs.
iv) Lag phase.
v) Heteropolysaccharide.
vi) Define catabolism.
vii) Define inducible enzymes.

i) Explain classification of sugars on the basis of number of carbon atoms.
ii) Give an account of structural levels of proteins.
iii) Explain photoautotrophs and photoheterotrophs.
i) Give an account of TCA cycle.
ii) Explain in brief common components of media and their role.
SECTION II
(Applied Microbiology I)
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answers from the given
alternatives : 5
i) ________ are smaller than 0.1 mm in diameter.
a) Droplets b) Droplet nuclei
c) Dusts d) Infections dust
ii) _________ is main protein present in milk.
a) Casein b) Gelatin c) Albumin d) Globulin
iii) Tuberculosis is transmitted by
a) Water b) Animals c) Air d) Food
iv) _______ is used for disinfection of water.
a) HCl b) H2SO4 c) NaOH d) Chlorine
v) EMB agar is used for __________ test.
a) Confirmed b) Presumptive c) Completed d) MPN
*SLRW26* -3- SLR-W 26

i) Define pandemic diseases.
ii) What is significance of MBRT test ?
iii) What is infections dust ?
iv) Define acute diseases.
v) List the components in milk.
vi) Why the E.Coli is considered as an indicator of fecal pollution of water ?
vii) Give the normal flora of water.

i) Sources of microorganisms in milk.
ii) MPN test.
iii) Microbiological examination of air.

i) Describe in detail modes of transmission of diseases.
ii) Describe in detail differentiation of coliforms by IMViC test.
_______________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – III) (New-CGPA)Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Paper – III)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat diagram and give equation wherever necessary.
4) Use of log table or calculator is allowed.
5) Atomic weights : H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Cl = 35.5,
I = 127, Ag = 108.
6) Spectroscopic chart is supplied.
1. Choose correct alternative from each of the following. 14

i) Which of the following electronic transitions require maximum energy ?
a) σ → σ ∗ b) π → π∗
∗
c) n → σ∗ d) n → π
ii) In ethane when the dihedral angle is zero then the configuration is known
as __________
a) skew b) staggered
c) eclipsed d) none of these
iii) Glycerol react with KHSO4 to give _________
a) oxalic acid b) formaldehyde
c) tartaric acid d) acrolein
iv) Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves __________ intermediate.
a) free radical b) carbocation
c) carbanion d) carbene
v) Ethylene oxide on treatment with C2H5Li forms
a) 1-butanol b) 2-butanol
c) methanol d) ethanol
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 27 -2- *SLRW27*
vi) Malic acid is

a) mono carboxylic acid
b) unsaturated acid
c) monohydroxy dicarboxylic acid
d) halo acid
vii) Diazotisation reaction is carried out at low temperature because ___________
is unstable and decomposes.
a) HNO2 b) diazonium salt
c) both a) and b) d) none of these
viii) Shift of absorption maxima (λ max ) to longer wavelength is known as
__________ shift.
a) hypsochromic b) bathochromic
c) hyper chromic d) hypochromic
ix) __________ is an example of homoannular diene.
a) b) c) d)
x) Which of the following is the dihydric alcohol ?

a) catechol b) resorcinol
c) ethylene glycol d) glycerol
xi) D and L nomenclature is also known as
a) absolute configuration b) relative configuration
c) conformation d) none of these
Δ
xii) The reaction 2HCHO + NaOH ⎯⎯→ CH3OH + HCOONa is known as
a) benzoin condensation b) Perkin reaction
c) aldol condensation d) Cannizzaro’s reaction
xiii) Anisole on heating with conc. HI gives
a) Iodobenzene b) Phenol
c) Benzyl alcohol d) Benzene
xiv) Among the following which is unsaturated acid ?
a) citric acid b) acrylic acid
c) phthalic acid d) chloroacetic acid
*SLRW27* -3- SLR-W – 27
2. Solve any seven of the following : 14

i) Calculate the λ max of the following diene and enone using Woodward-Fieser
rules.
a)
b)
ii) Assign E or Z configuration to the following compound.
Cl Br
a) C=C
H3 C COOH
H3 C H
b) C=C
H CH3
iii) Complete the following reactions.
O
|| AlCl 3
a) O − C − CH3 ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ → ?
25 C
200 C
b) O − CH 2 − CH = CH 2 ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯ ⎯→ ?
iv) Discuss the reactivity of carbonyl group.

v) Give the preparation of anisole by Williamson’s synthesis.
vi) What happens when cinnamic acid is reacted with
a) Br2 and
b) Chromic acid
vii) Starting from Benzene diazonium chloride how will you prepare a) Benzene
and phenyl hydrazine.
SLR-W – 27 -4- *SLRW27*
viii) Give one method of preparation of succinic acid.

ix) Complete the following reaction.
a) + NH 3 ⎯⎯→ ?
b) + HBr ⎯⎯→ ?

i) Explain the applications of uv spectroscopy.
ii) Write note on Beckmann transformation.
iii) Write synthesis and uses of congo-red.
B) During Ziesel’s method 2.52 × 10–5 kg of dry AgI was formed by 2.18 × 10–5 kg
of organic compound having molecular formula C11HgNO3. Calculate the
percentage and number of –OCH3 groups per molecule. 4
4. Attempt any two of the following : 14

i) Discuss the effect of conjugation on the position of absorption bands of uv
spectra.
ii) What is conformational isomerism ? Explain conformational isomerism in
n-butane.
iii) What are pinacols ? How are they prepared ? Give the pinacol-pinacolone
rearrangement reaction with mechanism.

i) Discuss the mechanism of Perkin’s reaction.
ii) Give one method of preparation of ethylene glycol. What is the action of
following on it ?
a) HCl
b) Lead tetra acetate.
c) Per iodic acid
d) Sodium
e) HNO3.
iii) Give two methods of preparation of phthalic acid. Give their uses. What is
the action of heat and ammonia on phthalic acid.
*SLRW27* -5- SLR-W – 27
Spectroscopic Chart
Woodward’s-Fieser’s rules for calculating ultraviolet absorption maxima

A) For substituted dienes (Ethanol solution)
λ mas
No. Basic Value
(nm)
1) Acyclic and heteroannular dienes 214
2) Homoannular dienes 253
3) Addition for each substituent
a) – R alkyl (including part of carbocyclic ring) 5
b) – OR (alkoxy) 6
c) – Cl, –Br 5
d) – OCOR (acyloxy) 0
e) – NR 2, (N – alkyl) 60
f) – SR (S – alkyl) 30
g) – CH = CH – additional conjugation i.e. extending conjugation 30
h) If one double bond is exocyclic to one ring 5
i) If exocyclic to two rings simultaneously 10

SLR-W – 27 -6- *SLRW27*
B) Rules for α, β – Unsaturated Enones (Ethanol Solution)
λ max
No. Basic value
(nm)
β α
1) Ketones : − C = C − CO −
| |
a) Acyclic or 6 – membered ring 215
b) 5 – membered ring 202
| |
2) Aldehydes − C = C − CHO 207
3) Extended Conjugation 30
δ γ β α
− C = C − C = C − CO − etc.,
| | | |
4) Homodiene component 39
5) a) If one double bond is exocyclic to one ring 5
b) If exocyclic to two rings simultaneously 10
6) Addition for substituents

*SLRW27* -7- SLR-W – 27
Substituents Position
α β γ δ
a) – R alkyl (including part of carbocyclic ring) 10 12 18 18
b) – OR (alkoxy) 35 30 17 31
c) – OH (hydroxy) 35 30 – 50
d) – SR (thioether) – 85 – –
e) – Cl (chloro) 15 12 – –
f) – Br (bromo) 25 30 – –
g) – OCOR (acyloxy) 6 6 – 6
h) – NH 2, – NHR, – NR 2 – 95 – –
Solvent correction
Solvent
a) Ethanol 0
b) Methanol 0
c) Dioxan –5
d) Chloroform –1
e) Ether –7
f) Water +8
g) Hexane – 11
h) Cyclohexane 11
_____________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Computer Sci.) (Semester – III) (New CGPA)

Examination, 2016
(Paper – III) : OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING USING C++

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct alternative. 14
1) __________ are implicity executes whenever an object is created.

a) Constructors b) Destructor c) Both a and b d) None of these
2) _________ is a process of hiding data without knowing its back ground details.
a) Polymorphism b) Data Abstraction
c) Message Passing d) Class
3) Private member functions of class can be accessible within non-member

function.
a) True b) False
4) _________ operator cannot be overloaded.

a) new b) sizeof c) >> d) None of these
5) In protected derivation of class, the public data of base class becomes

_________ in derived class.
a) public b) private c) both a and b d) protected
6) In C++, we cannot convert one data type into another data type.
a) True b) False
7) Constructor can be virtual whereas destructor not virtual.
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 28 -2- *SLRW28*
a) True b) False
8) _________ function works like Macros in C++.

a) inline b) friend c) non inline d) both b and c
9) In OOP, ________ communicates with each other.

a) Object b) Function c) Operators d) both b and c
10) Creating new class from exiting class is called as __________
a) Encapsulation b) Delegation c) Inheritance d) Polymorphism
11) _________ operator is overloaded with ‘cin’ object.
a) Insertion b) Extraction c) Both a and b d) None of these
12) Many function having same name with different signature called ________
a) function overloading b) operator overloading
c) virtual function d) both a and b
13) ‘this’ can be used within static member function of class.
a) True b) False
14) ________ variable creates alise for existing variable.
a) Value b) Pointer c) Reference d) both a and b
2. Answer any seven of the following: 14
1) What is type conversion ?
2) Write syntax and use of reference variable.
3) Write use of ‘new’ and ‘delete’ operator.
4) Write syntax and use of ‘enum’ keyword.
5) Differentiate between POP and OOP.
6) Write situation where we make function as virtual.
7) What is inline function ?
8) What is Delegation ?
9) What is Nested class ?

*SLRW28* -3- SLR-W – 28

1) Write an object oriented program that prints all prime numbers between 1
to 100.
2) What is polymorphism ? How compile time polymorphism is achieved in
C++ ?
3) Write a program that demonstrates execution of constructor in inheritance.
B) What is Operator overloading ? Explain it with suitable example. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : 14
1) Write a program that shows different parameter passing techniques in C++.
2) What is constructor ? Explain all types of constructor’s in detail.
3) Write a program to implement Multi-path inheritance.
1) What is virtual and pure virtual function ? Explain both with suitable example.
2) Write a program that demonstrate use of common friend function for two
different classes.
3) Write a program to overload + as unary operator that checks entered number

is Armstrong or not.
__________________
*SLRW29* SLR-W 29
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY (New CGPA Pattern)
Inorganic Chemistry (Paper IV)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite the
sentence. 14
1) In [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 , ammonia are present in
a) ionisable sphere b) coordination sphere
c) non- ionisable sphere d) outer sphere
2) Chelating agent are always _________ ligands.
a) monodentate b) polydentate
c) ambidentate d) bridging
3) Hydride ion ( 0

) is
a) hard base b) soft acid
c) hard acid d) soft base
4) In the production of sulphuric acid _________ catalyst is used.
a) Mo b) Ni
c) V2O5 d) Fe
5) The hybridization of cobalt ion in [Co(F)6]3- is
a) d2sp3 b) sp3
c) dsp2 d) sp3d2
6) DMG is the selective and sensitive reagent for
a) Fe b) Mo
c) Cu d) Ni
P.T.O.
SLR-W 29 -2- *SLRW29*
7) Mg2+ is
a) Hard acid b) Soft base
c) Soft acid d) Hard base
8) 5-d transition series start with ________ and ends with ________ element.
a) yttrium, cadmium b) scandium, cadmium
c) lanthanum, mercury d) yttrium, zinc
9) Coordination number of Ni2+ in the complex [Ni(en) 3]Cl3 is
a) 2 b) 4
c) 6 d) 8
10) Chelates are used in
a) analytical chemistry b) water softening
c) removal of Pb2+ from blood d) all of these
11) Pearson principle used to explain _________ concept of acid and bases.
a) chelate b) HSAB
c) HASB d) hybridisation
12) KMnO4 is dark and intense colour due to _________ transition.
a) Charge transfer b) d-d c) d)

*
*

13) The IUPAC nomenclature of K4[Fe(CN)6] is

a) Potassium hexacynoferrate(II)
b) Potassiumhexacynoferrate(II)
c) Potassium hexacyno ferrate(II)
d) Potassium hexa cyno ferrate(II)
14) Colour of Zn2+ ions is
a) blue b) brown
c) red d) colourless

1) Define ligand with suitable example.
2) State and explain term coordination number with example.
3) Draw the structure of optical isomers of [Co(en)3]3+.
4) Give the structure of Ca-EDTA chelate.
5) Give the name and structure of two bidentate chelating agents containing
both acidic donor groups.
*SLRW29* -3- SLR-W 29
6) Define acid and base according to Lewis concept, with example.
7) What are the limitations of Pearsons acid-base concept ?
8) Explain the catalytic properties of 3d transition elements.
9) Write the observed electronic configuration of chromium and copper.

1) Distinguish between double salt and complex salt.
2) Write note on geometrical isomerism.
3) Compare the first transition series with second and third transition series
w.r.t. electronic configuration and stability of oxidation state.
B) What are the limitations of Valence bond theory ? 4

1) Explain the applications of hard and soft acid base principle.
2) Explain the complex of Cu(II) on the basis of VBT with cyanide ligands.
Comment on the stability and magnetic property of the complexes.
3) What are transition elements ? Discuss the colour property of 3d transition
elements.

1) Define metal chelate with examples. Discuss the structural requirement of
chelate formation.
2) Write a detail note on magnetic property of the 3d block element.
3) Define coordination number. According to Werners theory, Explain in details
of CoCl3.5NH3 and CoCl3.3NH3.
_______________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (New) Examination, 2016

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Paper – IV : RDBMS (CGPA)
Day and Date : Saturday, 9-4-2016 Total Marks : 70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

ii) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from given four alternative : 14

1) A ______________ in a table represents a relationship among a set of values.
a) Column b) Key c) Row d) Entry
2) For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of permitted values, called the
______________ of that attribute.
a) Domain b) Relation c) Set d) Schema
3) A domain is atomic if elements of the domain are considered to be
______________ units.
a) Different b) Indivisible c) Constant d) Divisible
4) Student(ID, name, dept name, tot_cred) in this query which attribute form the
primary key ?
a) Name b) Dept c) Tot_cred d) ID
5) Which one of the following provides the ability to query information from the
database and to insert tuples into, delete tuples from and modify tuples in the
database ?
a) DML (Data Manipulation Language)
b) DDL (Data Definition Language)
c) Query
d) Relational Schema
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 30 -2- *SLRW30*
6) The ______________ clause is used to list the attributes desired in the result
of a query.
a) Where b) Select c) From d) Distinct
7) ______________ operator is used for appending two strings.
a) & b) % c) || d) _
8) Aggregate functions are functions that take a ______________ as input and
return a single value.
a) Collection of values b) Single value
c) Aggregate value d) Both a) and b)
9) All aggregate functions except ______________ ignore null values in their
input collection.
a) Count(attribute) b) Count(*) c) Avg d) Sum
10) ______________ are useful in SQL update statements, where they can be
used in the set clause.
a) Multiple queries b) Sub queries
c) Update d) Scalar subqueries
11) The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a table is
a) Alter b) Update c) Create d) Select
12) Which of the following is not a function of DBA ?
a) Network Maintenance b) Routine Maintenance
c) Schema Definition d) Authorization of data access
13) Which of the join operations do not preserve non matched tuples ?
a) Left outer join b) Right outer join
c) Inner join d) Natural join
14) The variables in the triggers are declared using
a) - b) @ c) / d) /@
*SLRW30* -3- SLR-W – 30

1) What is attribute ?
2) Write types of view with its example.
3) Explain DDL command.
4) What is cursor ?
5) What is trigger ?
6) State any two aggregate function used in SQL.
7) Explain alter command.
8) Write different data types in SQL.
9) What is tuple ?

1) Explain classification of SQL command.
2) Explain block structure of PL /SQL, with example.
3) Write PL /SQL block to test gives number is Armstrong or not.
B) What is DBA ? Explain its function. 4

1) Explain loop statement with example.
2) Write difference between procedure and function with example.
3) Write PL/SQL block to display prime number upto 1 to 100.

1) Explain types of Cursor with example.
2) What is join ? Explain its types.
3) Create table emp(eid, ename, eadd, jdate, salary, job) solve following
queries :
a) To display emp in to who having maximum salary.
b) To display ename, whose name starting with ‘s’.
c) To display eid, ename, salary, from table emp whose job title as ‘manager’.
d) Change the employee name ‘Rahul’ to ‘Suresh’ from table emp.
_____________
*SLRW31* SLR-W 31
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc II (Semester III) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS (Paper III) (New CGPA Pattern)
General Physics, Heat and Sound

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

ii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iii) Draw neat diagram whenever necessary.
iv) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from given four alternatives. 14
i) The scalar triple product represents volume of ___________

) * +
enclosed by the vectors and as its edges.

A , B
a) Parallelo piped b) Triangle c) Cube d) Square

ii) Curl of vector field is ___________
a) Vector b) Scalar c) Always zero d) One
iii) In general motion of gyroscope consist of __________
a) Rotation b) Rotation and Precession
c) Only precession d) Rotation, precession and nutation
iv) Critical velocity is the minimum velocity at which the disc can roll along
linear path with its plane _________
a) Horizontal b) Vertical
c) Inclined at 30° vertical d) Inclined at 60° with vertical
v) In flat spiral spring, the plane of each spiral is _________ to the axis of the
cylinder of spring.
a) Perpendicular b) Parallel c) Inclined d) Zero
P.T.O.
SLR-W 31 -2- *SLRW31*
vi) A beam fixed at one end and loaded at other end is known as _________
a) Cantilever b) Loaded beam
c) Column d) Centrally loaded beam
vii) If height of liquid in a rotation viscometer is increased the rotational torque

will __________
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remain constant d) Zero
viii) The viscosities of two liquids may be compared with the help of
a) Searles viscometer b) Ostwald viscometer
c) Rotation viscometer d) Rankines method
ix) The unit of entropy is ____________
a) Joule/K b) K/Joule c) Joule d) Erg
x) A piece of ice added to water then entropy is __________
a) Increased b) Decreased c) No change d) Constant
xi) Decay of sound energy in the hall is __________
a) Constant b) Linear c) Exponential d) Zero
xii) Ultrasonic can be heard by ___________
a) Man b) Women c) Bat d) All of these
xiii) The coefficient of absorption of an open window is __________

a) Zero b) One half c) Infinity d) One
xiv) The gradient of scalar function is _________ rate of change of the function
in space.
a) Minimum b) Slow c) maximum d) Constant
2. Attempt any seven of the following : 14

i) Define scalar triple product.
ii) What is precessional motion ?

iii) State any two applications of gyroscopic motion.
*SLRW31* -3- SLR-W 31
iv) What is del operator ?

v) What is flat spiral spring ?
vi) Define coefficient of viscosity.
vii) What is T-S diagram ?

viii) What is transducer ?
ix) Write any two properties of ultrasonic waves.

i) What is curl of a vector ? Explain the physical significance of the curl of
vector field.
ii) What is cantilever ? Obtain an expression for depression of free end of a
cantilever.
iii) What are the requirement of good acoustics ?
B) . Find curl at a point (1, 1, 0). 4

I f A 2 x y i 3 y z j x y z k
i) Define divergence of vector field and give physical significance of divergence

of vector field.
ii) Obtain expression for angle of lean of the rolling disc and velocity of disc.
iii) Obtain expression of Youngs modulus of material of wire of flat spiral spring.

i) Derive the expression for coefficient of viscosity with the help of rotating
cylinder method.
ii) Define entropy. Derive an expression for the entropy of perfect gas in terms
of temperature and pressure.
iii) What is pressure microphone ? Explain construction and working of carbon
microphone.
_____________________
*SLR-W32* SLR-W 32
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester III) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper I)
Biomolecules
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

ii) Write chemical reactions where involved.
iii) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the following : 14
i) ________ is a disaccharide.
a) Galactose b) Fructose c) Sucrose d) Glyceraldehyde
ii) Vitamin B1 is also called as
a) Riboflavin b) Thiamine c) Pyridoxine d) Niacin
iii) Terpenes with _______ number of carbon atoms are called monoterpens.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20
iv) _______ is not a fibrous protein.
a) Collagen b) Elastin c) Keratin d) Phosphoprotein
v) Terpenes are the lipids derived from
a) Isoprenes b) Waxes c) Phospholipids d) Sterols
vi) ______ is an aromatic amino acid.
a) Glutamic acid b) Glycine c) Tyrosine d) Methionine
vii) Vitamin A structure contains ______ double bonds.
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 6
viii) ________ is a ketose sugar.
a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Lactose d) Ribose
ix) Thiamine deficiency causes
a) Pellagra b) Burning feet
c) Night blindness d) Beriberi
x) ______ is a fat soluble vitamin.
a) Pantothenic acid b) Retinol
c) Niacin d) Pyridoxine
xi) Galactose is a component of
a) Sucrose b) Cellulose c) Lactose d) Amylose P.T.O.
SLR-W 32 *SLR-W32*
xii) Haloenzyme contains ______ plus coenzyme.
a) Apoenzyme b) Isoenzyme c) Vitamin d) Zymogen
xiii) Fructose is a
a) Aldohexose b) Ketohexose c) Aldopentose d) Ketopentose
xiv) The type of enzymes which specificity catalyse only one reaction is known
as ______ specificity.
a) Optical b) Absolute c) Geometric d) Group

i) Explain keratins and elastins.
ii) What are deficiency disorders of niacin ?
iii) Define the terms :
a) Isoenzyme
b) Unit of enzyme
iv) Write two examples each of saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids.
v) Write two differences between amylase and cellulose.
vi) Draw structures of palmitic acid and lauric acid.
vii) Draw the structures of pyridoxine and riboflavin.
viii) What are enantiomers ? Explain with suitable examples.
ix) Write one example each of aromatic amino acid and heterocyclic amino acid.

i) Explain lipid bilayer fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane.
ii) Describe tertiary structure of protein.
iii) Write note on factors affecting enzyme activity.
B) What are the forces involved in stabilizing native structure of protein ? 4

i) What are carbohydrates ? Write the classification of carbohydrates.
ii) Write structure, biochemical role, deficiency disorders of thiamine.
iii) What are oligosaccharides ? Explain maltose, cellobiose, isomaltose, lactose
and sucrose.

i) Write note on specific activity of the enzyme.
ii) Explain in detail simple proteins with sub-classification.
iii) Write note on classification of enzymes.
_________________

Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) Examination, 2016

PLANT PROTECTION (New CGPA Pattern)
Paper – I : Major Crops and Methods of Integrated Plant Protection

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Draw neat and labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
4) All questions carry equal marks.
1. Select the correct answer and rewrite the sentences. (1×14 = 14)
i) _______________ sp. came to India along with wheat from America.
a) Parthenium b) Striga c) Cynadon d) Argemone
ii) Agents involved in biological control measures belong to phyllum __________
a) Nematoda b) Arthropoda c) Both a and b d) Pseudopoda
iii) Soil solarization is an examples of _____________ method of plant protection.
a) biological b) chemical
c) physical d) mechanical
iv) In netting and bagging, grapes are seriously distributed in fruiting stage by
__________
a) Crow b) Sparrow c) Eagle d) Parrot
v) Crop hygiene is a example of ___________ method of plant protection.
a) mechanical b) cultural c) physical d) biological
vi) Name of the species of brinjal plant is __________
a) hysterophorus b) dactylon
c) melanjana d) indica
vii) ______________ has to tap root system.
a) Maize b) Bajra c) Jowar d) Gram
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 33 -2- *SLRW33*
viii) Sugarcane is originated in ____________ India.
a) North-East b) North-West
c) North-South d) South-East
ix) Sunflower is an example of ____________ crop.
a) Pulse b) Oil seed
c) Vegetables d) Floriculture
x) Gerbera is an example of __________ plant.
a) Cereal b) Oil seed c) Floriculture d) Fruit
xi) Cultivation season of wheat is ___________
a) spring b) winter c) summer d) rainy
xii) Applications of Acaricides is __________ method of plant protection.
a) physical b) chemical c) biological d) cultural
xiii) Crop hygiene belongs to the __________ method of plant protection.
a) chemical b) physical c) cultural d) mechanical
xiv) Groundnut is known as __________ crop.
a) pulse b) oil seed c) fruit d) vegetable
2. Answer any seven of the following : (7×2 = 14)

i) What is introduction of plant ?
ii) Give the morphology of cotton.
iii) Write the economic importance of cabbage.
iv) State the physical barriers.
v) Give any four applications of inseticides.
vi) Write the agronomical condition of Jowar.
vii) What are trap crops ?
viii) Define plant pathology.
ix) Give the morphology of Gerbera.
3. A) Answer any two of the followings : (2×5 = 10)

i) Give the types of biofertilizers and their application.
ii) Explain the morphology and uses of grapes.
iii) Describe the cultural methods and uses of groundnut.
B) Explain the sowing and planting dates of cultural methods. 4

*SLRW33* -3- SLR-W – 33
4. Answer any two of the following : (2×7 = 14)
i) Explain the physical methods of plant protection.
ii) Give the morphology and uses of Tur.
iii) Give the need of plant quarantine in India.
5. Attempt any two of the following : (2×7 = 14)

i) Explain the biocontrol of pests, Physical methods.
ii) State the types and applications of bactericides.
iii) Explain the uses of sticky bands in plant protection.
—————————
*SLRW34* SLR-W 34
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester III) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS (Paper IV) (New) CGPA
Electronics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

4) Use of log tables and calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative from the following : 14

i) An amplifier circuit is employed with negative feedback then its frequency
response curve shows _____________ in bandwidth than the amplifier without
feedback.
a) increment b) decrement c) no change d) fluctuations
ii) A differential amplifier can amplify
a) d.c. signals b) a.c. signals
c) both a.c. and d.c. signals d) none of these
iii) The phase shift due to single RC network in phase shift oscillator is
a) 360° b) 180° c) 120° d) 60°
iv) Crystal oscillator works on
a) Piezo-Electric effect b) Inverse Piezo-Electric effect
c) Magnetostriction effect d) Magnetocaloric effect
v) The frequency of oscillations in the tank circuit is given as f =
a) b)
2
2 L C L C
c) d)
1 L
2 L C
P.T.O.
2 C
SLR-W 34 -2- *SLRW34*
vi) The relation between FET parameters namely, a.c. drain resistance (rd),
transconductance (gm) and amplification factor ( ) is
a) b) c) d)
C

H C C H
d m m d
vii) In UJT, RB1 = 7 K

, RB2 = 5 K
, then intrinsic stand off ratio ( ) is
a) 0.583 b) 1.4 c) 0.714 d) 0.41

viii) In UJT, voltage sweep generator, the frequency of sawtooth wave depends on
a) external resistance R
b) external capacitor C
c) external resistance R and external capacitor C
d) applied voltage
ix) The De Morgans second theorem is given by the relation A . B
a) ) *
b) ) *
c) A + B d) A . B
x) RS flip-flop can be set or reset when both inputs are

a) high b) low
c) complement of each other d) zero
xi) The logical circuit employed for the addition of three binary bits is
a) flip-flop b) counter
c) half adder d) full adder
xii) IC 7906 is ____________ volt regulator.
a) 9 b) 9 c) 6 d) 15
xiii) ____________ diode is usually used in transistor voltage regulator.
a) Ordinary b) Zener
c) Tunnel d) Photo
xiv) The time period (T) of a signal wave observed on CRO is 50
s then the
frequency of a signal will be
a) 200 KHz b) 2 KHz c) 20 KHz d) 20 MHz
*SLRW34* -3- SLR-W 34
2. Answer any seven of the following : 14
i) What is differential amplifier ? State its various modes of operation.
ii) What is Barkhausens criterion for sustained oscillation ?
iii) What do you mean by AF and RF oscillators ? Give its example.
iv) How the FET can acts as VVR ?
v) What is the half adder ?
vi) Draw the logic diagram of RS flip-flop using NOR gates.
vii) What do you mean by fixed voltage regulator ? Give an example of IC based
voltage regulator.
viii) A power supply gives 20 V output for no load condition. Find the percentage
of voltage regulation, if the full load voltage is 15 V.
ix) What are the uses of digital multimeter ?

i) What is feedback in an amplifier ? Discuss positive and negative feedback
in an amplifier.
ii) Write note on UJT.
iii) State and prove De Morgans first theorem.
B) The Hartly oscillator circuit has L1 = 2 mH, L2 = 2 mH, M = 0.1 mH and
C = 250 pF. Find the frequency of an oscillator. 4

i) Describe in detail two stage RC coupled amplifier. What are its advantages ?
ii) Draw the neat circuit diagram of Colpitts oscillator and explain its operation.
iii) Explain the construction of FET. Discuss its characteristics.

i) What is a flip-flop ? Explain the construction and working of JK flip-flop.
ii) Draw the neat circuit diagram of transistor series voltage regulator. Discuss
its operation. Also explain the need of regulated power supply.
iii) Draw the block diagram of CRO and explain the function of each block.
___________
*SLRW35* SLR-W 35
S e a t
N o .
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester III) Examination, 2016

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper II) (New CGPA)
Biochemical Techniques

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Write chemical reactions where involved.
3) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the following : 14
i) In colorimetric analysis when length of cuvette is constant, the absorbance
changes according to ____________
a) Lamberts law b) Beers law
ii) The total volume of a column of gel is calculated by equation ____________
a) VT = V0 + Vi Vg b) VT = V0 Vi + Vg
c) VT = V0 + Vi + Vg d) VT = V0 Vi Vg
iii) In starch gel electrophoresis proteins are separated according to their
__________
a) Concentration of buffer b) Charge and size
c) Only charge d) Only molecular weight
iv) Lymphocytes from ____________ sensitised mouse are used to produce
hybridoma cells.
a) Liver b) Thymus
c) Spleen d) Bone marrow
v) In spectrophotometer ____________ converts light signal into electrical signal.
a) Galvanometer b) Diagonal mirror
c) Photocell d) Mercury lamp
P.T.O.
SLR-W 35 -2- *SLRW35*
vi) In thin layer chromatography, glass is used as ____________
a) an adsorbent b) a stationary phase
c) a support d) a binder
vii) Sephadex gel beads are prepared from ____________
a) acrylamide b) starch gel
c) agarase d) dextran
viii) Diazo bonding method is prepared by treating aromatic amino group with
____________in acidic medium.
a) nitrate b) nitrile
c) nitrite d) nitro
ix) ELISA technique is used to immobilise to detect presence of ____________in
small amounts.
a) Antibodies b) DNA c) Lipoprotein d) RNA
x) In electrophoresis, the effect of the electrophoresis can be minimised by
____________
a) applying low voltage
b) applying high voltage
c) passing more current
d) increasing buffer concentration of electrolytes
xi) The logarithm of ratio of intensity of incident light to the intensity of transmitted
light is called as ____________
a) absorbance b) transmittance
c) molar extinction coefficient d)
max
xii) CONH type of covalent bond is formed during immobilization by ___________
method.
a) diazotisation b) peptide binding
c) physical adsorption d) gel entrapment
xiii) Time period for patent for food, drug or medicine is _______________ years
from the date of sealing of patent.
a) 5 b) 7 c) 10 d) 14
xiv) Saccharomyces cereviceae is used for production of _________________
using immobilization technique.
a) penicillin b) ethanol c) steroids d) vitamins
*SLRW35* -3- SLR-W 35
i) Define chromatography. Give the formula of Rf value.
ii) How are proteins stained after starch gel electrophoresis ?
iii) What is the use of PCR technique ?
iv) What is trade mark ? Give two examples.
v) Why guard column is used in HPLC ?
vi) What is the effect of electric cloud on electrophoretic mobility ?
vii) State and explain Beers law.
viii) What is the principle of column chromatography ?
ix) Explain production of antibiotics.

i) What is the effect of ionic strength, pH and buffer on electrophoretic mobility ?
ii) What are the limitations of colorimetric measurements ?
iii) Explain any four applications of enzyme immobilisation.
B) Draw a labelled block diagram of HPLC. 4

i) What is patent ? Discuss about patent and their registration.
ii) State Beer-Lamberts law. Write note on spectrophotometer with diagram.
iii) Explain starch gel electrophoresis and write its uses.

i) What is hybridoma ? Explain hybridoma technology.
ii) What is covalent bonding to carriers ? Explain types of covalent bonding.
iii) Which detectors are used in HPLC ? How do they function ? Write uses of
HPLC.
_____________________

Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – III) (New) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

STATISTICS (Paper – III)
Continuous Probability Distributions – I

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

x
1) For exponential distribution with p.d.f. f(x) = 1 e 2 x ≥ 0 its mean and
−
2
variance are
a) (2, 4) b) (1/2, 1/4) c) (2, 1/4) d) (1/2, 2)
2) The joint p.d.f. of (X, Y) is
f (X, Y) = kXY ; 0 < X, Y < 1
= 0 ; otherwise
Then the value of k is

a) 4 b) 1/4 c) 8 d) 12
3) If X is an exponential variate with parameter θ then

a) mean = variance b) mean = std. dev.
c) mean > variance d) mean = mode
⎧⎪1, 0< x <1

4) If f (x) = ⎨ , is the p.d.f. of a r.v. X then P [X = 0.5] = ____
⎪⎩0, otherwise
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 0 d) 0.25
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 37 -2- *SLRW37*
⎧ 0; x<5
⎪
5) A continuous r.v. X has distribution function F(x) ⎨ ,
25
⎪1- 2 ; otherwise
⎩ x
then P [X> 10] is
a) 3/4 b) 1/25 c) 24/25 d) 1/4
6) Let F be the distribution function of a random variable X having p.d.f. f (x) = 3x

12
(
for 0 < x < 2 3 ) . The value of F (1.5) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2/3 d) 0.5
7) E [Y|X = x] is the
a) function of x alone b) function of y alone
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
8) If X1, X2, X3 are independent r.v.s with m.g. f’s M1 (t), M2 (t) and M 3 (t)
respectively; then m.g.f. of X1 + X2 + X3 is
a) M1(t). M2(t). M3(t) b) M1 (t) + M2 (t) + M3 (t)
c) M (t1 + t2 + t3) d) M (t1, t2, t3)
9) Let (X, Y) be a continuous bivariate r.v. with joint p.d.f.
⎧x + y ; 0 < x < 1 and 0 < y < 1 then the marginal p.d.f. of Y is

⎪
f(x, y) = ⎨
⎪ 0 ; otherwise
⎩
a) 2y – 1 b) 2y c) 2y + 1 d) (2y + 1)/2
10) If X ~ U (a, b) then μ 2 = _______

a) (b – a)4/80 b) (b – a)2/80
c) (b – a)2/12 d) (a + b)/2
11) For standard exponential distribution, m.g.f. is
a) (1 – t)–1 b) (1 + t)–1
c) (1 – t) d) (1 + t)
12) If X ~ U (– a, a) such that P (|X| > 1) = 6/7 then value of a is
a) 7 b) 6 c) 14 d) 12
*SLRW37* -3- SLR-W – 37
13) If X ~ U (3, 8) then the distribution function of X at 5 i.e. F (5) is

a) 5/11 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 3/11
14) A r.v. X has m.g.f. MX (t) = (1 – 2t)–1; t < 1/2
then the mean of X is

a) 2 b) 1/2 c) 4 d) 1
2. Attempt any seven : 14

a) Define continuous uniform distribution.
b) Define mode of a continuous r.v.
c) State the forgetfulness property of an exponential distribution.
d) If E (X|Y = y) = (1 + y)/2 and E (Y|X = x) = (1 + x)/2 find Corr (X, Y).
e) Define rth central moment of a continuous r.v.
f) Define H.M. of a continuous r.v.
g) Define exponential distribution.
h) Define expectation of a function of a bivariate continuous r.v.
i) Define conditional expectation of X given Y = y.
3. A) Attempt any two : 10

a) A continuous r.v. X has p.d.f.
2
f( x ) = 3 x ; 0 < x <1
=0 ; o th erw ise
find a and b such that
i) P( X ≤ a) = P(X ≥ a),
ii) P (X > b) = 0.05
b) If X and Y are two r.v.s of continuous type, prove that
E [E(Y|X)] = E (Y)
c) If X is a r.v. with p.d.f. f (x) = θ e − θx ; x > 0, θ > 0
= 0 ; otherwise
find the distribution of Y = θX .
SLR-W – 37 -4- *SLRW37*
B) Let X and Y be two continuous random variables, then show that 4
E (X + Y) = E (X) + E (Y).
4. Attempt any two : 14

a) A continuous r.v. X has p.d.f.
2
f(x) = (3 / 2)x ; −1 < x < 1
= 0 ; otherwise
Obtain probability distribution of Y = |X|.
b) If (X, Y) is a bivariate continuous r.v. with joint p.d.f.

− x (y +1)
f(x, y) = x e ; x > 0, y > 0
= 0 ; otherwise
Obtain
i) marginal p.d.fs of X and Y
ii) are X and Y independent ?
c) Obtain three quartiles of exponential variate with parameter θ .

a) If X ~ U (1, 2), find mean of X and also find K such that P[ X > (K + μ′1)] = 1 / 4 .
b) The joint p.d.f. of (X, Y) is
f (x, y) = 21x2 y3 ; 0 < x < y <1
= 0 ; otherwise
Find :
i) conditional distribution of X given Y = y.
ii) conditional mean of x given Y = 0.5.
iii) conditional variance of X given Y = 0.5.
c) Define M.G.F. of a continuous r.v. and explain how to find rth raw moment
using it.
__________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – III) Examination, 2016

METEOROLOGY Paper – I (New CGPA Pattern)
Climatology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) The ____________ are the lines which are drawn on map to join the places of
equal temperature.
(Isohytes, Isobars, Isotherms, Isosaline)
2) ____________ is the science which studies atmosphere.

(Climatology, Hydrology, Phytology, Pedology)
3) The inter tropical convergence zone is also known as

(sirocco, blizzards, doldrums, cells)
4) Cold and dry winter air masses of _________ region are strong.
(Pm, Pc, Em, Ec)
5) Convergence of two _____ air masses is a prerequisite condition for

frontogenesis.
(similar, contrasting, equal, identical)
6) An _________ is an immense body of air with uniform characters.

(cloud, airmass, storm, anticyclone)
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 38 -2- *SLRW38*
7) The term monsoon is derived from an ______ word.

(French, Greek, Spanish, Arabic)
8) Monsoon is a wind system of _______ regions.

(tropical, subtropical, polar, temperate)
9) Due to the south ward migration of the sun, the ITCZ is also shifted to
(north, east, south, west)
10) The 60° south latitude winds are called as ___________ sixties.
(roaring, furious, screaming, running)
11) The cyclones are known as _____ in China.

(Hurricane, Storm, Tornado, Typhoon)
12) The secondary circulations are consist of

(trade winds, local winds, cyclones, breezes)
13) The lowest atmospheric pressure is recorded at _________ of a cyclone.

(centre, fringe, outer, inner)
14) Indian subcontinent receives nearly __________ percent of its annual rainfall
by monsoonal winds.
(100%, 90%, 80%, 70%)
2. Write in short (any 5) : 15
1) What is ‘Meteorology’ ?
2) Define a ‘polar front’.
3) What is a ‘typhoon’ ?
4) State the types of planetary winds.
5) What is a ‘maritime’ airmass ?
6) State the elements of climate.

*SLRW38* -3- SLR-W – 38
3. Write answers in short (any 3) : 15

1) Describe the primary circulations.
2) State the characters of tropical maritime airmasses.
3) State the characters of tropical cyclones.
4) Describe ‘pressure’ as an element of climate.
4. Answer any 3 questions : 15
1) Describe the types of airmasses.
2) Explain the importance of local winds.
3) Write in brief the scope of Meteorology.
4) Explain the north east monsoon of India.
5. A) Answer any one question : 6

1) Describe the vertical structure of atmosphere.
2) State the patterns of tropical circulations.
B) Answer any one question : 5

1) Describe the origin of an anticyclone.
2) Describe in brief the upper air circulations.
_______________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

GEOCHEMISTRY (Paper – I)
Introduction to Geochemistry

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose and write correct answer from given four alternatives : 14

1) Water system is __________ component system.
a) zero b) one c) two d) three
2) If the co-ordination number of certain compound is four, its geometry is _______
a) linear b) tetrahedral
c) octahedral d) planner
3) In a crystal of NaCl, each sodium ion is surrounded by _________ chloride
ions.
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
4) Gibb’s phase rule is
a) P + F = C + 1 b) P + F = C + 2
c) P + F = C – 2 d) P – F = C + 2
5) Cadmium sulphide show __________ bonding structure.
a) ionic b) polar
c) covalent d) none of these
6) The bond in a mineral shows ________ characteristics.
a) polar b) electronegative
c) covalent d) non polar
7) In a framework silicate structure, the ratio of Si : O is __________
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 3 c) 1 : 4 d) 2 : 1
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 39 -2- *SLRW39*
8) The _________ solution are mixed crystals.

a) liquid b) gaseous
c) solid d) none of these
9) In Ice water, the number of phases is _________
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
10) If the co-ordination number of certain crystal is eight, its geometry is _________
a) tetrahedral b) bodycentre cubic
c) octahedral d) planer
11) The radius ratio of Na+ ion to Cl– ion in NaCl is _________
a) 0.425 b) 0.625 c) 0.525 d) 0.125
12) The atomic substitution is _________ at higher temperature.
a) same b) lower
c) not observed d) higher
13) Sulphur rhombic convert into sulphur monoclinic, the process is called as
_________
a) melting b) transition
c) sublimation d) vapourization
14) The degree of freedom at triple point in sulphur system is _________

1) Define polymorphism.
2) Draw the structure of NaCl crystal.
3) Define radius ratio.
4) State and explain electronegativity.
5) Draw the framework structure of silicate.
6) Define :
a) Phase
b) Component.
7) Define covalent bond. Give one example.
8) Explain the term isomorphism.
9) Define atomic substitution.
*SLRW39* -3- SLR-W – 39
1) Discuss the single chain structure of silicate.

2) Define lattice energy. Give one example.
3) State and explain Gibb’s phase rule.
B) Give the general rules of bond type. 4

1) Discuss water system with respect to Gibb’s phase rule.
2) Give the general rules of three dimensional structure with the help of solid
geometry.
3) Discuss the principles of crystal structure.

1) Discuss sulphur system with respect to Gibb’s phase rule.
2) Write a short note on : The states of matter.
3) State and explain Goldschmidt’s mineralogical phase rule.
_____________________
*SLRW40* SLR-W 40
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) (New C.G.P.A.) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY
Paper III : Animal Diversity III
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose and write a correct answer from given four alternatives : 14

1) Water vascular system is a characteristic feature of phylum
a) Mollusca b) Arthropoda
c) Echinodermata d) Annelid
2) The chambers of heart in cockroach are
a) 15 b) 13 c) 12 d) 14
3) Ctenidium of Pila is ____________ organ.
a) Locomotory b) Reproductive
c) Respiratory d) Excretory
4) Mandibles are well developed and toothed in
a) Sponging type b) Biting and chewing type
c) Piercing and sucking type d) Siphoning type
5) In radula of pila ___________ teeth are present in single row ?
a) 7 b) 6 c) 5 d) 9
6) Upper lip of cockroach is called
a) Mandible b) Hypopharynx
c) 1st maxilla d) Labrum
7) Tornaria is the larval stage of
a) Annelida b) Arthropoda
c) Mollusca d) Hemichordata
P.T.O.
SLR-W 40 -2- *SLRW40*
8) Filaria is caused by
a) Wuchereria bancrofti b) Plasmodium vivax
c) Plasmodium ovalis d) Aedes aegypti
9) In cockroach number of ovariols are
a) 3 b) 4 c) 16 d) 9
10) Byssus threads are present in
a) Pila b) Sepia c) Mytilus d) Unio
11) Vision in cockroach is
a) Binocular b) Monocular c) Mosaic d) Trinacular
12) Tactile function in Pila is
a) Osphradium b) Nuchal lobe c) Tentacles d) Statocyst
13) Glosa and paraglosa are the part of
a) Antenna b) Mandible c) 2nd maxilla d) 1st maxilla
14) Anticoagulant secretion is essential for
a) Piercing and sucking mouth parts
b) Biting and chewing mouth parts
c) Sponging mouth parts
d) Siphoning mouth parts

1) Salivary gland of cockroach
2) Shell of Pila
3) Sexual dimorphism in cockroach
4) General characters of phylum Echinodermata
5) Foot in Sepia
6) Osphradium of Pila
7) Symptoms of dengue fever
8) Economic importance of Pila
9) Habit and habitat of cockroach.
*SLRW40* -3- SLR-W 40

1) Digestive system of cockroach.
2) Describe nervous system of Pila.
3) Mouth parts of house fly.
B) Describe foot in gastropoda. 4

1) Describe female reproductive system of cockroach.
2) Describe digestive system of Pila.
3) What is dengue ? Describe its treatment and control measure.

1) Describe nervous system of cockroach.
2) Affinities of hemichordata with annelid and echinodermata.
3) Describe reproductive system of Pila.

*SLRW41* -1- SLR-W – –41
SLR-W 41
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (New) (C.G.P.A. Pattern) Examination, 2016

STATISTICS (Paper – IV)
Discrete Probability Distributions and Statistical Methods

Time : 10.30 a.m to 1.00 p.m.

ii) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

i) If X is a Poisson variate with P[X = 3] = P[X = 4], then the variance of a
Poisson variate is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
ii) If X and Y are two independent Poisson variates such that X ~ P(1) and
Y ~ P(2) then P[X + Y < 3] is ___________
a) e–3 b) 3e–3
c) 4e–3 d) 8.5e–3
iii) A manufacturer produces switches and experiences that 2 percent switches
are defective. The probability that in a box of 50 switches, there are at most
two defective is
e −1
a) 2.5e–1 b) e–1 c) 2e–1 d)
2
iv) If X is a geometric r.v. then P ⎡X ≥ 5 ⎤ is equal to

⎢⎣ X ≥ 2⎥⎦
a) P[X ≥ 5] P[X ≥ 2] b) P[X ≥ 5]
c) P[X ≥ 5] P[X ≥ 3] d) P[X ≥ 3]
v) Negative binomial distribution NB(r, p) reduces to geometric distribution when

r equal to
a) 0 b) 1 c) ∞ d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 41 -2- *SLRW41*
vi) if X ~ Geo(0.6), then the variance of waiting time distribution is

10 10
a) b)
6 4
10 3
c) d)
9 2
vii) Let (X1, X 2 , X 3 , X 4 ) be a random vector follows multinomial distribution with

usual notations, then E(X3) is
a) 4P3
b) 4P3(1 – P3)
c) P1P3
d) nP3
viii) In the usual notations, r21.3 is equal to
2
r12 − r13r23
a)
(1 − r )(1 − r )
2
13
2
23
2
r13r23 − r12
b)
(1 − r )(1 − r )
2
13
2
23
r12 − r13r23
c)
(1 − r )(1 − r )
2
13
2
23
r13 − r12
d)
(1 − r )(1 − r )
2
13
2
12
ix) The order of residual X2.13 is

a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
x) The range of partial regression coefficient is
a) 0 to 1 b) –1 to 1
c) 0 to ∞ d) – ∞ to ∞
*SLRW41* -3- SLR-W – 41
xi) With usual notations, the regression equation X2 on X1 and X3 is

a) X2 = b12.3X1 + b32.1X3
b) X2 = b21.3X1 + b23.1X3
c) X2 = b12.3X3 + b32.1X1
2 X + b2 X
d) X2 = b12.3 1 23.1 3
xii) If R1.23 = 0, then
a) r12 = r13 = 0 b) r23 = 0
c) r12 = 0,r13 ≠ 0 d) r12 = r13 = r23 ≠ 0
xiii) If R2.13 = 0, then all total and partial correlation coefficients involving X2 are
a) 1 b) 0
1
c) –1 d)
2
xiv) In usual notations
a) b12.3 + b21.3 = r12.3
b) b12.3 × b21.3 = r12.3
c) b12.3 × b12.3 = r12.3
d) b12.3 × b21.3 = 2
r12.3
2. Attempt any seven of the following 14

i) Define Poisson distribution, state its mean and variance.
ii) Let X be geometric variate with parameter p, then show that P[X ≥ x ] = (1 − p )x .
iii) Define multinomial distribution.

iv) Obtain the probability generating function of waiting time distribution.
v) State the two properties of residual.
2
vi) If r12 = r13 = r23 = r ≠ 1, then show that R12.23 = 2r .
(1+ r )
vii) Define the residual X1.23 and state its mean.

2
viii) If r13.2 = 0, then prove that r12.3 = r12 1 − r23 .
2
1 − r13
ix) If r12 = r13 = r23 = r ≠ 1, then show r12.3 = r .

1+ r
SLR-W – 41 -4- *SLRW41*

i) Define negative binomial distribution with parameters r and p. Find its
mean and variance.
ii) If X and Y are independent Poisson variates with means 2 and 4 respectively,
then find
⎛X+ Y ⎞
a) P⎜ < 1⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
b) P (3(X + Y) ≥ 9)
iii) Prove that the necessary and sufficient condition for the three regression
2 2 2
planes to coincide is r12 + r13 + r23 − 2r12r13r23 = 1.
B) With usual notations, prove that b12.3 × b23.1 × b31.2 = r12.3 × r23.1 × r31.2. 4
4. Attempt any two of the following 14

i) Derive Poisson distribution as a limiting case of a binomial distribution.
ii) Define the residual of variable X1 with respect X2 and X3 and obtain its
variance in terms of simple correlation coefficient.
iii) Define multiple correlation coefficient R1.23 and obtain an expression for
R1.23 in terms of simple correlation coefficients.
5. Attempt any two of the following 14

i) Define Geometric distribution with parameter p and obtain its mean, variance
and distribution function.
ii) Obtain probability generating function of the Poisson distribution, Hence or
otherwise find mean and variance.
iii) Define partial correlation coefficient. If the relation aX1 + bX2 + cX3 = 0 holds
for all sets of values X1, X2 and X3 find r12.3.
_____________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (CGPA Pattern) (New) Examination, 2016

METEOROLOGY
Paper – II : General Meteorology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

iii) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from given alternatives. 14

i) The Earth’s radiations lie in the _________ region.
a) micro wave b) UV c) visible d) IR
ii) By Rayleigh’s law of scattering the intensity of scattered light is inversely
proportional to _________ power of wavelength of light.
a) Fourth b) Fifth c) Sixth d) Eighth
iii) Red appearance of sun at sunrise and sunset is due to
a) scattering of sunlight b) diffused reflection of sunlight
c) absorption of sunlight d) refraction of sunlight
iv) In adiabatic process __________ remains constant.
a) temperature b) pressure c) entropy d) volume
v) The ‘tephigram’ is generally called as _________ diagram.
a) T – T b) T – φ c) φ – φ d) T – V
vi) Ozone concentration is measured in
a) Dobson units b) Doppler units c) Decibels d) Thomson units
vii) A line on map joining places of equal pressure is known as
a) Isobars b) Isotherms c) Isentropic d) Isotach
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 42 -2- *SLRW42*
viii) The inertial frame of reference is ________ frame of reference.

a) an accelerated b) un-accelerated
c) a rotating d) constant
ix) Centrifugal force is given by F = ...
1 dp
a) – mr ω 2 b) –2m ω V sin φ (
c) − 2m ω × V ) d) −
ρ dl
x) The man made satellite which have been launched in orbit round the earth is
known as ________ satellite.
a) Natural b) Artificial
c) Natural or Artificial d) None of the above
xi) Period of geo-synchronous satellite is equal to _______ hour.
a) 3 b) 6 c) 12 d) 24
xii) A photovoltaic cell converts solar energy into ________ energy.
a) Mechanical b) Thermal c) Electrical d) Kinetic
xiii) __________ nuclei are necessary for the formation of water droplets.
a) Evaporation b) Central c) Condensation d) Peripheral
xiv) For the formation of water droplets _____ nuclei are necessary.
a) hygroscopic b) central c) evaporation d) peripheral
2. Solve any seven of the followings : 14

i) What is a solar cell ?
ii) Explain in short ‘Tephigram’.
iii) What are properties of radiations ?
iv) Mention effects of scattering of sunlight.
v) Mention effects of Coriolis force in nature.
vi) Write photochemical reactions of ozone formation.
vii) What is open circuit voltage (Voc) of a solar cell ?
viii) What is a condensation nucleus ?
ix) What is a pseudo force ?
*SLRW42* -3- SLR-W – 42

i) Explain Collision theories.
ii) Explain Rayleigh’s scattering.
iii) How is an ozone molecule broken and depletion of ozone layer in the
stratosphere takes place ?
B) What is a polar orbiting satellite ? 4

i) How do the local winds occur ? Explain Buys-Ballots law.
ii) Explain terrestrial re-radiation. What is green house effect ?
iii) Explain the formation of ozone in the stratosphere. What are the effects of
depletion of ozone ?

i) Explain launching of satellite.
ii) Write a note on condensation nuclei.
iii) Explain in detail earth’s rotation and Coriolis force.
————————
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

GEOCHEMISTRY (Paper – II)
Introduction to Solar System and Geo-Spheres

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) ___________ are involved in photosynthesis and balances each other.
a) H2O, CO2 b) N2, O2 c) O2, CO2 d) N2, O3
2) In the primeval atmosphere, at the first stage of its evolution __________
was major constituent.
a) CH4 b) N2 c) O2 d) CH3
3) ___________ constituent is locked in sedimentary rocks and reduced in its
content in the atmosphere.
a) SO2 b) H2O c) CO2 d) CH4
4) The upper most atmospheric layer is ____________
a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere
5) The upper limit of stratosphere is called _____________
a) Tropopause b) Stratopause
c) Mesopause d) Thermopause
6) Sulphur compounds in the atmosphere are added due to combustion of ______
a) Petrol b) Trees
c) Gaseous fuels d) Coal
7) The photochemical dissociation of water vapour in the upper atmosphere
added ________ gas.
a) O2 b) H2 c) CO2 d) NH3
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 43 -2- *SLRW43*
8) The average salinity of sea water is __________ parts per thousand.

a) 30 b) 35 c) 40 d) 41
9) The major gases ‘insolution’ content in sea water is _________
a) O2 and CO2 b) CO2 and N2
c) O2 and N2 d) O2 and O3
10) The groundwater passing through limestone and dolomitic area is rich in
_________
a) Ca and CO2 b) Ca and Na
c) Ca and Mn d) Ca and Mg
11) When inflow of rivers and rainwater decreases, then the salinity of ocean
____________
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remain constant d) None of these
12) In sea water composition ______________
a) Na > Mg > Ca b) Na > Ca > Mg
c) Ca > Mg > Na d) Na < Mg < Ca
13) In the cosmic abundances, the elements show a rapid exponential decrease
for elements of the ___________ atomic numbers.
a) Higher b) Medium
c) Lower d) None of these
14) The Sun’s major constituents are __________
a) H and He b) O2 and N2
c) NH3 and CO2 d) All of these

1) What are the compositions of Sial and Sima ?
2) What is composition of upper mantle ?
3) What is average composition of the crust ?
4) Alloys of which metals are found in most of the meteorites ?
*SLRW43* -3- SLR-W – 43
5) What is composition of Cohenite ?

6) Names of variable constituents of atmosphere.
7) Pallasites and meso-siderites are types of which meteorite ?
8) Distinguish between compositions of oceanic and terrestrial waters.
9) What is pyrolite ?

1) Structure of atmosphere.
2) Composition of primeval atmosphere.
3) Gains and losses of the elements in the oceanic water.
B) What is composition of crust ? 4

1) Describe in brief zonal structure of the earth.
2) How primary differentiation of metals takes place ?
3) Describe atmospheric addition and losses during geologic time.

1) Geochemical classification of the elements.
2) Composition of the earth as a whole.
3) Nature of solar system.
_____________________
*SLRW44* SLR-W 44
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester III) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Paper IV) (New)
Cell Science, Genetics, Biological Chemistry and Economic Zoology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Complete the sentence selecting appropriate answer. 14

1) Crossing over occurs at __________ stage.
a) Leptotene b) Pachytene c) Zygotene d) Diplotene
2) Incomplete linkage is found in
a) Male Drosophila b) Female Drosophila
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
3) During meiosis chromosomal number
a) remain constant b) get doubled
c) get triple d) reduced to half
4) Ratio of supplementary factor is
a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 b) 9 : 7 c) 9 : 3 : 4 d) 9 : 6 : 1
5) Sucrose is ___________ sugar.
a) Cane b) Milk c) Tea d) Malt
6) Lipids are formed from
a) amino acids b) fatty acids c) glucose d) fructose
7) DNA contains ____________ sugars.
a) starch b) glucose c) deoxyribose d) ribose
8) Rearing of bees is called as
a) Apiculture b) Sericulture c) Fish culture d) Pearl culture
9) Larva of silk-moth is known as
a) Apodus b) Oligopodus c) Polypodus d) Nymph
P.T.O.
SLR-W 44 *SLRU44*
10) ________ is prepared by rapid evaporation of water from milk with constant sterring.
a) Butter b) Curd c) Ice-cream d) Khoa
11) Ranikhet is common disease in
a) Fishery b) Poultry c) Piggery d) Sericulture
12) Jaffarabadi is breeds of
a) Cow b) Goat c) Buffalo d) Poultry
13) Which of the following is ornamental fish ?
a) Gold fish b) Scoliodon c) Labio d) Dog fish
14) Nerve cell is useful for
a) Transport of excretory product b) Transport of digestive products
c) Transport of blood d) Transport of impulses

i) Anaphase ii) Muscle cell
iii) Coupling iv) Diasaccharides
v) Nutritional value of fish vi) Mulberry silk moth
vii) Drone bee viii) Buffalow breeds
ix) Meat

i) Explain complementary interaction.
ii) Describe complete linkage.
iii) Give mechanism of crossing over.
B) Explain larval stages of silk worm. 4

i) Give economic importance of apiculture.
ii) Describe breeds of goat.
iii) Explain housing of dairy animals.

i) Give the structure of DNA.
ii) Explain mitosis-cell division.
iii) Describe milk and milk product.

*SLRW45* SLR-W 45
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester III) (New C.G.P.A. Pattern) Examination, 2016
MATHEMATICS (Paper III)
Differential Calculus
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

I. Choose and write a correct answer from given four alternatives : 14

1) The radius of curvature at any point (s,
) on the curve s = 4a sin
is
a) 4a cos
b) 4a sin
c) 4a sin 2
d) None of these
2) Radius of curvature for the curve y = ex at the point (0, 1) is
a) b) 0 c) !
d) None of these
3) The radius of curvature for the curve y = 4 sin x sin 2x at x =
is
a) b) c) d) None of these
#
# # " "
" "
" #
4) for the polar curve r = f( ) is

@ I
@
a) b)
@ H @ N @ O

H

@ @ @

c) d) None of these
@
H
@ H
5) for the curve x = a (cost + tsin t), y = (a sint t cost) is

@ I
@ J
a) a cost b) at c) a sint d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W 45 -2- *SLRW45*
6) If x = r cos , y = r sin then

( r , )

( x , y )
a) x b) y c) r d)
7) If x = u(1 + u), y = v (1 + u) then

( x , y )
( u , v )
a) u + v b) 1 + u + v c) 1 u + v d) 1 u v
8) If u = x2 y2, v = xy then =
( u , v )
( x , y )
a) x2 + y2 b) 2(x2 + y2) c) x + y d) 2(x + y)
9)
( u , v ) ( x , y )
.
( x , y ) ( r , t )
a) 1 b) c) d)
( x , y ) ( x , y ) ( u , v )
( r , t ) ( u , v ) ( r , t )
10) If u, v are functions of x, y then Jacobian of u, v with respect to x, y is a

determinant of order
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) n
11) A function f(x, y) has extreme value at (a, b) then
a) fx(a, b) > 0 b) fy(a, b) > 0
c) fx(a, b) = fy(a, b) = 0 d) None of these
!
12) The maximum value of f(x) = 2x2 + 3x + 1 is

N
a) !
b) %
!
c) 1 d) 7
%
13) The maximum value of sinx + cosx is

a) 2 b) c) 1 d) None of these
14) A function f(x, y) has an extreme value at (a, b) then
a) AC B2 > 0 b) B2 AC > 0
c) AC B2 = 0 d) None of these
*SLRW45* -3- SLR-W 45
II. Solve any seven from the following : 14
1) Find for r = a(1 + cos ).

@ I
@
2) Define total curvature, average curvature and curvature.
3) Find
for s = c log [sec

].
4) If x = uv and y = find .
( x , y )
L
( u , v )
5) Show that the functions u = x + 2y + z, v = x 2y + 3z and w = 2xy xz + 4yz 2z2

are not independent.
6) If x + y + z = u, y + z = uv, z = uvw then find .

( x , y , z )
( u , v , w )
7) Find maximum and minimum values of a polynomial 2x3 15x2 + 36x + 10.
8) Show that the maximum value of is e1.

9) Find extreme value of x2 + 2xy + 2y2 + 2x + y.
III. A) Attempt any two of the following : 10
1) Find the minimum value of x2 + y2 + z2 subject to the condition x + 2y 4z = 5.
2) Show that curvature of a circle is constant.
3) If , and then find .

x z ( u , v , w )
y z x y
v
u w
y ( x , y , z )
x z
B) If J be a Jacobian of u, v with respect to x, y and J

be a Jacobian of x, y with
respect to u, v then show that . J . J

1
4
SLR-W 45 -4- *SLRW45*
IV. Attempt any two from the following : 14

1) Define the radius of curvature and obtain an expression for radius of curvature
for the curve r = f( ).
2) If

and
are radii of curvature at the extremities of two conjugative
diameters of an ellipse then show that .

= >
!
!
N O

= >
= >
3) Find extreme values of the function f(x, y) = 2x3 + xy2 + 5x2 + y2.
V. Attempt any two from the following : 14

1) Discuss the Lagranges method of undetermined multipliers to find the extreme
values of u = f(x, y, z) subject to the conditions

( x , y , z ) 0 and ( x , y , z ) 0 .
2) If u, v, w are implicit functions of x, y, z i.e. fi (u, v, w, x, y, z) = 0 for i = 1, 2, 3
then show that
( f , f , f )

!

( u , v , w )
( x , y , z )
( 1 )

( f , f , f )
( x , y , z )
!

( u , v , w )

3) If

and
are the radii of curvature at the extremities of a focal chord of a

parabola x = at , y = 2at then prove that 2

.
!
!
!
=

Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester-III) Examination, 2016

BOTANY Paper – III (New CGPA)
Structural Botany and Taxonomy of Angiosperms

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) Motor cells are found in the epidermis of __________ plants.

a) gymnosperm b) monocot c) dicot d) none of these
2) The parenchyma which contains air cavities are called as

a) aerenchyma b) sclerenchyma
c) collenchyma d) fibres
3) Multiple epidermis found in _________ plants.
a) hydrophytic b) mesophytic c) xerophytic d) epiphytic
4) Rubiaceous stomata is also known as __________ stomata.

a) anomocytic b) anisocytic c) paracytic d) diacytic
5) Hydathodes are found in ____________ angiospermic plants.

a) herbaceous b) thorny c) woody d) all
6) In square stem the mechanical tissues are present at

a) center b) corners c) lateral side d) apex
7) On the basis of origin the meristems are classified into _________ groups.
a) one b) two c) three d) four

P.T.O.
SLR-W – 46 -2- *SLRW46*
8) The lateral meristem is responsible for increase in
a) height b) width c) both d) none of these
9) The Tunica Corpus theory was proposed by
a) Hofmeister b) Nageli c) Hanstein d) Schmidt
10) Open vascular bundles are present in
a) monocot root b) dicot root c) monocot stem d) dicot stem

11) Tracheids are found in
a) meristem b) phloem c) xylem d) parenchyma
12) The phelloderm is also known as
a) cork cells b) secondary cortex
c) non vascular cambium d) none of these
13) In the monocotyledone the anomalous secondary growth is found in
__________ stem.
a) Dracaena b) Bignonia c) Nerium d) Maize
14) Amaranthus spinosus belongs to family
a) combretaceae b) asclepidacee c) amranthaceae d) liliaceae
2. Solve any seven of the following. 14

i) Give the functions of chlorenchyma.
ii) Sketch and define Osteroclereids.
iii) Give the functions of stomata.
iv) Sketch and define Latex Cells.
v) Give the characteristic features of permanent cells.
vi) Give the functions of Xylem.
vii) Describe the Duramen.
viii) Give the reason behind anomalous growth of root.
ix) What are pollinia ?
*SLRW46* -3- SLR-W – 46
3. A) Answer any two of the following. 10

i) Describe the difference between tracheids and vessels of xylem.
ii) Describe the mechanical tissues in square stem.
iii) Classification of meristem based on functions.
B) Mention economic importance of family liliaceae. 4
4. Attempt any two of the following. 14

i) Describe the different types of Trichomes.
ii) Define the mertistematic tissues and give its functions.
iii) Describe the internal primary structure with reference to tissues and functions in
monocotyledonous stem.

i) Describe anomalous sencodary growth in Bigninia stem and mention the
anomalies found in it.
ii) Describe normal secondary growth in dicotyledone stem.
iii) Give the distinguishing characters of any one of following family and mention
two plants of economic importance from family with their uses.
a) Amaranthaceae b) Combretaceae
–––––––––––––––––
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (New – CGPA) Examination, 2016

MATHEMATICS (Paper – IV)
Real Analysis

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) If a, b ∈ R and a < c for each c > b then
a) a < b b) b < a c) a = b d) a ≤ b
2) If x is real then x =
a) max {x, – x} b) min {x, – x}
3) For any two elements a, b ∈ S one and only one of the following is true, a > b,
a = b, a < b this property is known as
a) Law of trichotomy
b) Transitivity
c) Compatibility of order relation with addition
d) Compatibility of order relation with multiplication
4) Any non empty subset of real number which is bounded below has
a) infimum b) supremum
5) The sequence of partial sums of a series with negative terms is
a) monotonic decreasing b) monotonic increasing
n
1
6) lim ⎛⎜ 1+ ⎞⎟ lies between
n→∞ ⎝ n⎠
a) 0 and 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) – 1 and 1
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 47 -2- *SLRW47*
7) Consider the following two statements.

i) every bounded sequence is convergent
ii) every convergent sequence is bounded
a) only (i) is true b) only (ii) is true
c) both (i) and (ii) are true d) both (i) and (ii) are false
8) Every bounded monotonic sequence is
a) convergent b) divergent
c) both (a) and (b) d) none
9) The sequence {(– 1)n} is
a) bounded above but not bounded below
b) bounded below but not bounded above
c) bounded
d) unbounded
10) The series ∑ n1p converges for
a) p > 1 b) p < 1 c) p = 1 d) None

11) A series obtained from a given convergent series by grouping of terms
a) diverges b) converges to same limit
c) both converges and diverges d) none of these
un + 1
12) If ∑ un is a positive term series such that lim = l then the series
n →∞ u n
converges if
a) l > 1 b) l = 1 c) l < 1 d) l = ∞
13) A convergent series of positive monotonic decreasing terms satisfies the
condition
a) n2 un → 0 b) nun → 0 c) un → 0 d) un → ∞
⎛ u ⎞
14) If ∑ un is a positive term series such that nlim ⎜⎜ n log n ⎟⎟ = l then series
→∞ ⎝ un + 1 ⎠
diverges for
a) l > 1 b) l < 1 c) l = 1 d) none of these
*SLRW47* -3- SLR-W – 47
1) Define the terms interval, open interval, closed interval.
2) State the Dedekind’s property.
3) For all real numbers x, y show that x + y ≤ x + y .
3+2 n
4) Show that lim =2.
n→∞ n
5) Show that an infinite series ∑ un is convergent then nlim u = 0.

→∞ n
1 + 2 + 3 + ...
6) Show that the series is not convergent.
2 3 4
7) If nlim
→ ∞ an = a and a n ≥ 0 ∀n prove that a ≥ 0 .
1
8) Test the convergence of the series ∑ 1+ 1
.
n n
9) Define bounded and unbounded sequences.
1) Show that there is no rational number whose square is 2.

1 1 1 1
2) Show that the sequence {Sn} where Sn = + + + ... + ∀n ∈N is
1! 2! 3! n!
convergent.
1 + 1 + 1 + ... + 1 + ...
3) Show that the series P P P P
(log 2) (log 3) (log 4 ) (log n)
diverges for p > 0.
B) Prove that every bounded sequence with unique limit point is convergent. 4
SLR-W – 47 -4- *SLRW47*

1) Prove that the set of rational numbers is not order complete.
2) If F = {Fn} is a countable class of non-empty closed and bounded sets such
∞
that F1 ⊃ F2 ⊃ F3 ... ⊃ Fn then prove that
Fn is non empty.
n =1
3) State and prove D’Alembert’s ratio test.

1) State and prove Cauchy’s root test.
2) Prove that a necessary and sufficient condition for the convergence of a
sequence {Sn} is for each ∈ > 0 there exist a positive integer m such that
Sn + p − S n < ∈ ∀n ≥ m and p ≥ 1 .
3) Show that 8 is not a rational number.
—————
*SLRW48* -1- SLR-W – –48
SLR-W 48
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

BOTANY
Plant – Ecology (Paper – IV)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentence by choosing correct alternative : 14

1) The total amount of water present in soil is called ____________
a) Holard b) Echard
c) Creshard d) Combined water
2) Green plant are
a) Secondary consumer
b) Primary consumer
c) Tertiary consumer
d) Producers
3) Energy flow is always
a) Unidirectional b) Multidirectional
c) Circular motion d) All above
4) The plant succession which starts in aquatic environment is called
a) Xerosere b) Hydrosere
c) Halosere d) Psammosere
5) ____________ are called shade loving plant.
a) Heliophytes b)
c) Cryptophytes d) Xerophytes
6) Increasing concentration of ____________ in air causes green house effect.
a) SO2 b) NO2
c) CO2 d) O2
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 48 -2- *SLRW48*
7) ____________ stomata is character of Xerophytes.

a) Sunken b) Superficial
c) Water d) External
8) Phenology is ____________ character of community.
a) Qualitative
b) Quantitative
c) Natural
d) Complex
9) Aloe is the example of
a) Hydrophytes b) Xerophytes
c) Mesophytes d) Epiphytes
10) The base of ecological pyramid of energy is always occupied by
a) Primary consumers
b) Secondary consumers
c) Producers
d) Decomposers
11) The ____________ ecosystem show types of food chain.
a) Ponds b) Mangrove
c) Lakes d) Grass land
12) ____________ show poorly developed root system.
a) Mesophytes
b) Hydrophytes
c) Xerophytes
d) Epiphytes
13) ____________ is a water pollutant.
a) NO2 b) Detergents
c) SO2 d) CO2
14) The heliophytes are the plants which can tolerate and grow in
a) Low intensity of light
b) Full bright sunlight
c) Under shade
d) Dark
*SLRW48* -3- SLR-W – 48

1) Define density.
2) Write fundamental character of community.
3) Define primary and secondary succession.
4) What are food chain ? Give the outline of detritus food chain.
5) Define pollution and write any two sources of air pollution.
6) What is qualitative character ? Write name of qualitative character of
community.
7) What is physiognomy ?
8) Write sources of water pollution.
9) What are hydrophytes ? State any two external adaptation of hydrophytes.

1) Define succession. Write general processes of succession.
2) What is life form ? Write brief account of phanerophytes.
3) General characters of ecosystem.
B) Describe food web with examples. 4

1) What is species diversity ? Explain α , β , γ diversity by giving suitable example.
2) What is Biogeochemical cycles ? Explain oxygen cycle.
3) Carrying capacity.

1) Describe the morphological and physiological peculiarities in xerophytes.
2) General characters of ecosystem.
3) Define water pollution ? Write sources and effect of water pollution.
_____________________
*SLRW49* SLR-W 49
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2016

ELECTRONICS (Paper III)
Electronics Circuits
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Draw the figures wherever necessary.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from given alternatives : 14

i) The PIV of full wave rectifier is
a) Vm b) 2Vm
c) d) 4 Vm
8
ii) Conversion of ac to dc is called as

a) Rectification b) Amplification
c) Regulation d) None of the above
iii) Stability factor of CE amplifier is
a) b) 1
c) 1 + d) 2
iv) __________ bias is the most stable method of transistor biasing.

a) Voltage-divider b) Fixed
c) Emitter d) Collector to base
v) The input impedance of _________ amplifier is highest.
a) CE b) CB
c) CC d) All of the above
vi) In CB amplifier the current gain is
a) Zero b) Nearly equal to one
c) Medium d) High
P.T.O.
SLR-W 49 -2- *SLRW49*
vii) The current gain of Darlington amplifier is
a) b) c) d)

.

viii) In multistage amplifier A1 = 10, A2 = 5. Overall voltage gain =

a) 50 b) 15 c) 5 d) 2
ix) Gain of amplifier with feedback is given by Avf =
)
a) b) c) d)
L
) ) ) ) )
L L L L L
)
x) In Wein Bridge oscillator the RC network introduces _________ phase shift.

a) 0° b) 60° c) 180° d) 270°
xi) The efficiency of _________ power amplifier is maximum.
a) Class-A b) Class-B c) Class-C d) Class-AB
xii) __________ is an example of current series feedback.
a) Emitter follower
b) CE amplifier with emitter resistor
c) CE amplifier with bypass capacitor
d) None of these
xiii) Distortion in amplifier _________ with negative feedback.
a) Increases b) Remains same
c) Decreases d) None of these
xiv) Capacitor is tapped in _________ oscillator.
a) Wein Bridge b) Phase-shift c) Hartley d) Colpitts

i) Draw the circuit diagram of bridge rectifier.
ii) Enlist different methods of transistor biasing.
iii) Give important characteristics of CE amplifier.
iv) What is cross-over distortion ?
v) Draw circuit diagram of complementary symmetry amplifier.
vi) What is multi-stage amplifier ? Give its different types.
vii) What is the effect of negative feedback on gain and bandwidth ?
viii) In an amplifier with negative feedback Av = 10 and = 0.4. Calculate gain
with feedback.
ix) Draw the circuit diagram of Hartley oscillator.
*SLRW49* -3- SLR-W 49

i) Explain capacitor filter circuit.
ii) Explain emitter bias circuit.
iii) Explain direct coupled amplifier.
B) Explain Zener regulator circuit. 4

i) Draw the equivalent circuit of CC amplifier. Derive the expression for Ai, Av
and Ri of CC amplifier.
ii) Explain full wave rectifier with center-tapped transformer. Determine its
efficiency.
iii) What is power amplifier ? Explain Class-B push pull amplifier.

i) Draw equivalent diagram of piezoelectric crystal. Explain crystal oscillator.
ii) What are the types of negative feedback ? Explain current series feedback
circuit. Obtain expression for gain of CE amplifier with emitter resistor.
iii) Explain FET CS amplifier. Obtain expression for voltage gain.

Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – III) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016
GEOGRAPHY (Paper – III)
Biogeography – I

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose and write a correct from given four alternatives. 14

1) The term _____________ was firstly used by Tansley.
(Ecosystem, Ecology, Environment, Ocytology)
2) The planet earth along with air, land and water sustains life, known as
(Hydrosphere, Atmosphere, Biosphere, Litosphere)
3) The variations in the temperature affect the _________ in the air and also
evapotranspiration.
(Mist, Fog, Humidity, Water)
4) Biogeography studies all ________ living things on the earth with respect to
geographical relationship.
(Abiotic, Biotic, Chemical, Mechanical)
5) The functioning of an ecosystem depends upon the pattern of
(Outgoing energy, Incoming energy, Energy flow, Receiving energy)
6) Biogeochemical Cycle is a process of circulation of _________ within the
biosphere.
(Nutrients, Elements, Minerals, Water)
7) ____________ has written book entitled geography of livings thing.
(Anderson, Taylor, Haggett, Semple)
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 51 -2- -2- *SLRW51*
8) Broadly speaking the world is divided into __________ major biomes.

(2, 3, 5, 7)
9) The term _________ is used to described the number variety and variability
of living organism.
(Species diversity, Genetic diversity, Floral diversity, Biodiversity)
10) Von Humbolt is considered as father of ________ geography.
(Plant, Bio, Zoo, Soil)
11) The _____________ of exploitation of forests is as old as man himself.
(Ecology, Geography, History, Geomorphology)
12) The _________ is the main source of heat and light energy for the environment.
(Galaxy, Sun, Star, Moon)
13) The inter linking of number of food chains form _________ in the given
ecosystem.
(Food net, Cob web, Inter web, Food web)
14) _____________ is an example of desert ecosystem.
(Sahara, Grassland, Marine, Pond)

1) Define the term biogeography.
2) Nature of biogeography.
3) Nature the physical factor influencing biogeography.
4) Define the food chain.
5) Explain the term energy flow.
6) State the importance of Hot-Spot of biodiversity.
3. Answer any three of the following. 15

1) Scope of biogeography.
2) Anthropogenic factors influencing biogeography.
*SLRW51* -3- -3- SLR-W – 51
3) State the laws of energy exchange.

4) State the concept of Ecosystem.
4. Answer any three of the following. 15

1) Distinguish between environment and ecosystem.
2) Climatic factors influencing on biogeography.
3) State the concept of food web.
4) Discuss the characters of tropical ecosystem.
5. A) Answer any one of the following long answer question. 6

1) Write the concept of an ecosystem.
2) Describe the types of biodiversity.
B) Answer any one of the following long answer question. 5

1) State the nitrogen cycle in the biosphere.
2) State the concept of biodiversity conservation.
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRW52* SLR-W 52
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (New)
Optics and Mineralogy (Paper III) (CGPA Pattern)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


1) What is refractive index of Canada balsam ?
a) 1.537 b) 1.516
c) 1.658 d) 1.536
2) Muscovite mineral shows __________ structure.
a) Nesosilicate b) Sorosilicate
c) Inosilicate d) Phylosilicate
3) Orthoclase and microcline minerals are _________ of KAISi3O8.
a) Pseudomorph b) Polymorph
c) Isomorph d) None of these
4) Which one of the following minerals shows simple twinning ?
a) Plagioclase b) Microcline
c) Orthoclase d) Garner
5) _________ of the minerals can be measured by keeping cleavages parallel
to cross wires and then rotation of the stage.
a) Extinction angle b) Birefringence
c) Twinning d) Twinkling
6) The charge on SiO4 tetrahedron is
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
P.T.O.
SLR-W 52 -2- *SLRW52*
7) When the mineral remains black during complete rotation of stage under
crossed nicols condition, then the mineral is said to be
a) Isomorphic b) Anisomorphic
c) Isotropic d) Anisotropic
8) Garnet occurs only in ________ type of rocks.
a) Igneous b) Sedimentary c) Metamorphic d) Secondary
9) Cleavage angle in pyroxene is about __________ degrees.
a) 45 b) 60 c) 90 d) 180
10) Biotite mica is dark in colour because of its _________ content.
a) K and Al b) Ca and Na c) Al and Ca d) Mg and Fe
11) Violet coloured variety of crystalline silica is
a) Amethyst b) Rock crystal c) Citrine d) Rose quartz
12) Labradorite is member of
a) K-felspar b) Fels pathoid
c) Plagioclase series d) None of these
13) Which one of the following is Mg-carbonate ?
a) Calcite b) Magnesite c) Aragonite d) Siderite
14) Fibrous variety of tremolite is
a) Asbestos b) Chlorite c) Gypsum d) Actinolite

1) What are differences between simple microscope and petrological microscope ?
2) What causes pleochroism ?
3) Which minerals have single refraction ?
4) What is lower nicol called as ?
5) Describe encrystation.
6) Names of crystalline silica minerals.
7) What is fayalite ?
8) Explain plagioclase series.
9) Names of carbonate minerals.
*SLRW52* -3- SLR-W 52

1) Describe chlorite group of minerals.
2) How felspathoid minerals are formed ? Describe physical, optical and
chemical characteristics of members of this group.
3) What are allumino-silicates ? Describe in brief members of this group.
B) What is polymorphism ? Describe with examples. 4

1) What are minerals of pyroxene group ? Add a note on physical, chemical and
optical properties of any five minerals.
2) How polarization of light takes place in nicols prism ?
3) Describe in brief pleochroism with appropriate examples.

1) Describe neso and soro-silicate structures.
2) Describe lower assembly of petrological microscope.
3) Why minerals show relief ? Explain types of relief with examples.

*SLRW53* -1- SLR-W – –53
SLR-W 53
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper – III)
Cytology and Physiology of Microorganisms

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
N. B. : i) All questions are compulsory.

iii) Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever required.
1. Choose the correct answers from given alternatives : 14

1) Teichoic acid are ____________ charged polymers.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Chargeless
d) Positive and Negative
2) In-peptidoglycan of gram negative bacteria at 3rd position of tetrapeptide
____________ is present.
a) L-alanine b) D-alanine
c) Meso-DAP d) D glutamic acid
3) Fimbriae consists of at least _________ amino acids which occur in L-forms.
a) 160 b) 100
c) 163 d) 153
4) The magnetosomes contain chain of ____________ particles.
a) Ferrite b) Nitrite
c) Magnetite d) Sulfite
5) Peptidoglycan is absent in ____________ organisms.
a) Halobacterium and Halococens
b) Lactobacillus
c) Corynebacterium
d) Gram positive bacteria
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 53 -2- *SLRW53*
6) In ________ molecules move across the membrane along with concentration

gradient without carrier molecule.
a) Simple diffusion
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Group translocation
d) Active transport
7) The rigidity of spore cortex is due to pressure of
a) Protein b) Carbohydrates
c) Peptidoglycan d) Lipids
8) ____________ are acellular in nature.
a) Bacteria b) Algae
c) Viruses d) Fungi
9) Plasmolysis takes place when cells are suspended in ____________ solution.
a) Hypotonic b) Hypertonic
c) Isotonic d) Water
10) Diauxy was discovered by
a) Watson and Cnck
b) Lederberg
c) Jacob and Monod
d) Alexander
11) Enzymes are classified into ____________ classes by enzyme commission.
a) 2 b) 4
c) 6 d) 8
12) Thymine dimer formation is due to
a) High temperature b) High salt concentration
c) Heavy metals d) U. V. light
13) ____________ granules are more prominent in lactobacilli.
a) Volutin b) Lipid
c) Sulfur d) PHB
14) Final electron acceptor is aerobic respiration is
a) CO2 b) NH3
c) SO4 d) O2
*SLRW53* -3- SLR-W – 53
2. Solve any 7 of the following : 14

i) Halophiles.
ii) Gas vacuoles.
iii) Functions of pili.
iv) Define oligodynamic action.
v) Define lysogeny.
vi) Structure of HIV.
vii) Plasmolysis.
viii) Group translocation.
ix) Transferases.

i) Structure and function of peptidoglycan.
ii) Diauxie growth.
iii) Components of electron transport chain.
B) Write on structure and functions of endospore. 4

i) Describe Homolactic and heterolactic fermentation.
ii) Write on various methods of measurement of growth.
iii) Explain lytic cycle of infection.

i) Write in detail sporulation process.
ii) Explain active transport.
iii) Describe cell wall of gram negative bacteria.
_____________________
*SLRW54* SLR-W 54
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

ELECTRONICS
Paper IV : Pulse and Switching Circuits
Day and Date : Friday, 22-4-2016

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Max. Marks : 70
4) Use of log-table and calculator is allowed.
1. Select correct alternative from the following : 14

1) If the input to a differentiating circuit is a triangular wave, then the output will be
a) Square wave b) Rectangular wave
c) Sawtooth wave d) None of the above
2) The clamper circuit is used to
a) Introduce a d.c. level to a.c. signal
b) Suppress variations in amplitude of the input signal
c) Obtain an output which is integral of the input signal
d) None of the above
3) IC 74121 can be used as
a) Decoder b) Multiplexer c) Multivibrator d) Memory
4) The sweep speed of a simple circuit is given by
a) 1
+
b) I .
t
C
c) 6 I
4 +
d) V .
T s
R C
5) A transistor used as a switch is operated in

a) Active region
b) Cut off region
c) Saturation region
d) Cut off and saturation region
P.T.O.
SLR-W 54 -2- *SLRW54*
6) A bistable multivibrator
a) has two stable states
b) has two unstable states
c) oscillates between two stable states without any trigger pulse
d) is used for generating square wave
7) In monostable multivibrator using BJT the timing components are 47 K and
0.01 F then the gate width obtained will be

a) 32 sec.

b) 3.2 m sec. c) 32 m sec. d) 0.32 m sec.
8) As per functional block diagram of IC 555 _____________ flipflop is used.
a) D b) JK c) RS d) All of the above
9) Pulse width of monostable multivibrator using IC 555 is given by
a) W = 1.1 RC b) W = 0.11 RC c) W = 11RC d)

9
4 +
10) In astable multivibrator if the period of the wave is twice to that gate width the
duty cycle is
a) 100% b) 75% c) 50% d) 25%
11) A capacitor of 100 F is charged to 10V through resistance of 10 K

will be
fully charged in _____________ second.
a) 5 b) 0.1
c) 1 d) None of the above
12) In schmitt trigger circuit the UTP is + 3.5 V and LTP is +1.0 V, then the
hysteresis voltage is
a) 2V b) 2.5 V c) 3V d) 4.5 V
13) The multivibrator that do not require external trigger for its operation is
a) Astable multivibrator
b) Monostable multivibrator
c) Sawtooth
d) All of the above
14) The transmission error is defined as difference between
a) The input and output divided by the input
b) The output and input divided by the input
c) Input and output divided by the output
d) Output and input divided by output
*SLRW54* -3- SLR-W 54
2. Solve any seven of the following (2 marks each) : 14

1) Draw the circuit of positive clipper with input output waveforms.
2) Define following terms with reference to a time base signal (a) sweep time
(b) flyback time.
3) What is non linear wave shaping ? Give one example.
4) Define turn on and turn off time of a switching transistor.
5) Draw circuit diagram of astable multivibrator using NAND gates.
6) Draw circuit diagram of voltage controlled oscillator using IC 555.
7) Show the input and output waveforms for schmitt trigger circuit when sine
wave input is applied to it.
8) In astable using IC 555, if TON is three times TOFF. Obtain percent duty cycle.
9) Draw the circuit diagram of monostable multivibrator using BJT.

1) Show how an RC circuit can be used as integrator.
2) Explain working of monostable multivibrator using IC 74121.
3) Explain general features of time base signal.
B) An IC 555 timer connected in astable mode of operation, for which RA = 6.8 K ,
RB = 3.3 K , C = 0.1 F. Calculate output frequency and duty cycle of the

circuit. 4

i) Explain working of bistable multivibrator using BJT with neat diagram.
ii) Explain working of combination clipper with neat diagrams.
iii) With neat diagram explain the working of UJT relaxation oscillator with constant
current source.

1) With neat labelled circuit diagram explain the working of Miller integrator.
2) Using functional block diagram of IC 555 explain its operation as astable
multivibrator.
3) With neat diagram, explain working of a stable multivibrator using BJT. Draw
the waveforms.
___________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (New) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

GEOGRAPHY (Paper – IV)
Soil Science – I

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Choose and write a correct from given four alternatives : 14
1) Soil are formed about the parent rock in due course of ___________
(Time, Tide, Wind, Rain)
2) De composed organic material in the soil is called as _______

(Soil solution, Soil particle, Humas, Sand)
3) Texture of a soil determines _________ of the soil.

(Porosity, Permeability, Acidity, Alkali content)
4) Absence of soil air _____________ supports plant growth.

(Do, Does not, Frequently, Rarely)
5) A typical soil horizon is developed in ____________ climate.

(Wet, Dry, Semi-acid, Moist)
6) Black cotton soil is included in the group of __________ soils.

(Verti sols, Histo sols, Ulti sols, Oxi sols)
7) The process of laterisation is associated with ________________ forests.

(Polar, Temperate, Tropical, Semi-arid)
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 56 -2- *SLRW56*
8) ___________ is one of the methods of soil conservation.

(Grazing, Forestry, Lumering, Talibunding)
9) Soil orders are classified on the basis of __________ major factors.

(2, 4, 6, 8)
10) Soil depth depends upon ____________

(Age of the soil, Slope of the land, Bacterial Activities, Temperature
of the area)
11) Which of the ___________ soil does not develop in situ.

(Podzol, Laterite, Saline, Alluvial)
12) Porosity of the soil is a function of its ____________

(Texture, Depth, Chemical composition, Colour)
13) ___________ soils have well differentiated horizon resulting from a strong
climatic and biological influences.
(Zonal, Azonal, Intrazonal, Transported)
14) In desert climates deposition of salts on the surface of the soil take place
due to ______________
(Transpiration, Evaporation, Illuviation, Condensation)

1) What is soil texture ?
2) What is soil pH ?
3) What is a pedocal ?
4) What is a soil horizon ?
5) What is soil erosion ?

6) Classify the soil according to colour.
*SLRW56* -3- SLR-W – 56
3. Answer any three of the following : 15

1) Define the term soil.
2) Explain biotic factors of soil formation.
3) Describe the red soils.
4) Discuss causes of soil degradation.

1) Describe the soil profile.
2) Explain influence of climate on soil formation.
3) Describe the estimation of soil erosion.
4) Explain the role of check dams in soil conservation.
5. A) Answer any one of the following long answer question : 6

1) Explain the importance of soil as a resource.
2) Write in brief the characteristics of Padzol soil.
B) Answer any one of the following long answer question : 5
1) Explain the methods of soil conservation and management.
2) Describe the causes of soil degradation.
_____________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc.-II (Semester – III) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

GEOLOGY (Paper – IV) (New)
Structural Geology
Day and Date : Friday, 22-4-2016 Total Marks : 70

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Write a correct answer from given four alternatives : 14

1) Limbs in the isoclinal fold are _________ to each other.
a) parallel b) perpendicular
c) inclined d) tangential
2) In ____________ folds deformation was sufficiently intense to cause flowage
of mobile beds and form thick hinges and thin limbs.
a) closed b) open c) chevron d) monoclinic
3) __________ joints in folded rocks are perpendicular to the axis of folds.
a) Release b) Extension c) Strain-slip d) Shear
4) Offset of streams are found along _______ faults.
a) Normal b) Reverse c) Graben d) Strike-slip
5) The rock block present above the fault plane is called __________
a) Foot wall b) Hanging wall c) Heave d) Throw
6) Angle made by faults plane with vertical surface is called __________
a) dip b) throw c) heave d) hade
7) Columnar joints are the result of __________ of Basic lava.
a) Release b) Cooling c) Expansion d) Shearing
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 57 -2- *SLRW57*
8) The outcrop pattern of plunging fold is ________

a) zigzag b) linear c) parallel d) rectangular
9) The _________ are boundaries along which plates move towards each other.
a) Convergent Boundaries b) Divergent Boundaries
c) Transform Boundaries d) None of these
10) Over thrust is a reverse fault that dips less than _________ degree.
a) 45 b) 30 c) 60 d) 10
11) A series of faults that have the same strike and dip are called the __________
a) Parallel faults b) Gravity faults
c) Oblique slip fault d) Tension fault
12) ___________ in which both limbs are overturned.
a) Box fold b) Chevron fold
c) Fan fold d) None of these
13) Rocks in the core of anticline fold are _________
a) younger b) older c) a and b both d) none of these
14) An ________ is the area where the bed rock is exposed on the ground surface.
a) outcrop b) landscape c) landform d) none of these

1) Define unconformity.
2) Strike.
3) Define joints.
4) Define fault.
5) What is heave in fault ?
6) Foot wall.
7) Axis of fold.
8) Throw of fault.
9) Define lineation.
*SLRW57* -3- SLR-W – 57

1) Explain Horst and Graben fault.
2) Explain Outliers and Inliers.
3) Explain recumbent and chevron fold.
B) How to determine width of outcrop ? 4

1) Explain criteria for the recognition fold in the field.
2) Explain genetic classification of joints.
3) Explain types of unconformities.

1) Explain normal, reverse and step faults.
2) Explain concept of plate tectonics.
3) Explain recognition of unconformities in the field.
————————
*SLR-W58* SLR-W 58
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper No. IV)
Bacterial Genetics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks.

2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever required.
1. Rewrite the sentences after choosing correct answer from the given alternatives. 14
i) Z form of DNA consists of _______ loop per turn of helix.
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 9
ii) _______ is small, soluble and adaptor RNA molecule.
a) t-RNA b) r-RNA c) m-RNA d) Sn RNA
iii) A minimal genetic unit capable to form functional product called
a) Recon b) Intron c) Mutan d) Cistron
iv) There are ______ codons which specify 20 amino acids.
a) 64 b) 61 c) 16 d) 20
v) The observable properties of organism is called
a) Genome b) Genotype c) Phenotype d) Haplotype
vi) Irradiation of DNA by UV radiation forms ______ diamers.
a) T = T b) A = G c) T = A d) G
C
vii) ______ is alkylating agent most commonly used in mutagenesis.
a) 5BU b) EMS c) HNO2 d) U.V. light
viii) Mutation in a codon specifying for one amino acid to codon specifying another
functionally equivalent amino acid is called ______ mutation.
a) missense b) nonsense c) silent d) neutral
ix) The process of conjugation discovered by _______ and ______.
a) Lederberg, Tatum b) Beadle, Tatum
c) Zinder, Leaderberg d) Watson, Crick
x) ______ phage mediate generalised transduction.
a) 80
b) P22 c)
d) T4 P.T.O.
SLR-W 58 *SLR-W58*
xi) _______ carry out unwinding of DNA during replication.
a) Helicase b) Primase c) DNA-ligase d) DNA polymerase
xii) The high copy number of plasmid is called _____ plasmid.
a) Stringent b) Degenerative c) Relaxed d) Virulent
xiii) The uptake and transfer of bacteriophage DNA into recipient cell is called
a) Transfection b) Transduction
c) Transformation d) Conjugation
xiv) _______ plays an important role in photoreactivation.
a) Methylase b) Exonuclease c) Photolyase d) Endonuclease
2. Answer in one or two sentences (any seven) : 14

i) Define semiconservative replication.
ii) Forms of DNA
iii) Define gene and genome.
iv) Draw a neat labelled diagram of cloverleaf model of t-RNA.
v) Missense mutation.
vi) T = T dimer.
vii) Split genes.
viii) Base analogue.
ix) Exogenote.

i) Define Spontaneous mutation. Add a note on fluctuation test.
ii) Describe in brief specialised transduction.
iii) Discuss in brief rolling circle model of replication.
B) What is genetic code ? Explain properties of genetic code. 4

i) Describe in detail of chemical nature and structure of B form of DNA.
ii) Define Transformation. Describe in detail process of transformation.
iii) Define plasmid. Describe in detail types of plasmid.

i) Define Replication. Describe in detail mechanism of semiconservative and
rolling circle replication.
ii) Define conjugation. Describe in detail process of conjugation.
iii) Describe in detail dark excision repair.
_________________
*SLRW59* SLR-W 59
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Paper V) (Old)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

2) Draw neat diagram and give equations wherever necessary.
5) Atomic weight : H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Cl = 35.5,
I = 127, Ag = 108.
6) Spectroscopic chart is supplied.
1. Choose correct alternative from each of the following : 10

i) Pinacol is the reduction product of
a) Diethyl ketone
b) Pinacolone
c) Acetone
d) Ethyl methyl ketone
ii) When succinic acid heated above its m.p. gives
a) succinaldehyde
b) acetaldehyde
c) succinic anhydride
d) acetic anhydride
iii) The wavelength range for uv region of the electromagnetic radiation is
a) 100 400 nm b) 400 800 nm
c) above 800 nm d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W 59 -2- *SLRW59*
iv) If the two first higher priority atoms or groups are on opposite side of double
bond then the configuration is known as
a) R b) E
c) S d) Z
v) Methyl orange has __________ colour in alkaline solution.
a) Orange b) Pink
c) Red d) Yellow
vi) Malic acid on reduction with HI gives
a) Malonic acid b) Succinic acid
c) Phthalic acid d) Citric acid
vii) ___________ and diazomethane in presence of HBF4 forms anisole.
a) Aniline b) Toluene
c) Benzene d) Phenol
viii) Which type of electronic transitions requires least energy ?
a)

b)

c) n

d) n

ix) In D and L nomenclature system the standard reference molecule taken as

a) Lactic acid
b) Glyceraldehyde
c) Glycerol
d) Acetaldehyde
x) Glycerol is present as a triester in
a) Petroleum
b) Kerosene oil
c) Vegetable oils and fats
d) Naphtha
*SLRW59* -3- SLR-W 59

i) What is diazotisation ? How will you prepare iodobenzene from benzene
diazonium chloride ?
ii) Write the structures of following :
a) methyl phenyl ketone
b) 2-methyl butanal
iii) Define (a) Bathochromic shift (b) Hyperchromic shift.
iv) Complete the following reactions :
a) Oxirane
C

H

O H

/ H

?
b) Oxirane
N H

!
?
v) Write the method of preparation of benzene diazonium chloride.

vi) Define
a) Geometrical isomerism
b) Conformational isomerism.

i) Calculate
m a x
of the following compounds by using Woodward Fieser
rule.
a)
b)
c)
SLR-W 59 -4- *SLRW59*
ii) Assign R and S nomenclature to the following compounds.
C H O
C H O H C H
|
|
a) H
C
N H b) H
C
O H
c) H
C
C
$
H
|
|
N H
C H O C H
iii) How will you prepare phthalic acid from naphthalene ? Write uses of phthalic
acid.
B) In Zeisels estimation of methoxy group, 0.364 × 103 Kg of an organic
compound having molecular weight 182 gave 0.940 × 103 Kg of AgI. Calculate
the percentage and number of methoxy groups in the organic compound. 4

i) Explain the different types of electronic transitions involved in UV
spectroscopy.
ii) How will you prepare monochloroacetic acid ? What is the action of
(a) KI (b) KCN (c) Moist AgOH (d) 2NH3 on monochloro acetic acid ?
iii) Explain the reaction with mechanism of aldol condensation.

i) Write any two methods of preparation of ethylene glycol. Write uses of ethylene
glycol.
ii) Draw structures for different conformations of n-butane. Comment on their
stability with potential energy diagram.
iii) Explain :
a) Fries rearrangement
b) Claisen rearrangement.
*SLRW59* -5- SLR-W 59
Spectroscopic Chart
Woodwards-Fiesers rules for calculating ultraviolet absorption maxima
A) For substituted dienes (Ethanol solution)
m a s
N o . B a s i c v a l u e
( n m )
1 ) A c y c l i c a n d h e t e r o a n n u l a r d i e n e s 2 1 4
2 ) H o m o a n n u l a r d i e n e s 2 5 3
3 ) A d d i t i o n f o r e a c h s u b s t i t u e n t
a ) R a l k y l ( i n c l u d i n g p a r t o f c a r b o c y c l i c r i n g ) 5
b ) O R ( a l k o x y ) 6
c ) C l , B r 5
d ) O C O R ( a c y l o x y ) 0
e ) N R , ( N - a l k y l ) 6 0
f ) S R ( S - a l k y l ) 3 0
g ) C H = C H a d d i t i o n a l c o n j u g a t i o n i . e . e x t e n d i n g c o n j u g a t i o n 3 0
h ) I f o n e d o u b l e b o n d i s e x o c y c l i c t o o n e r i n g 5
i ) I f e x c y c l i c t o t w o r i n g s s i m u l t a n e o u s l y 1 0
SLR-W 59 -6- *SLRW59*
B) Rules for ,
Unsaturated Enones (Ethanol Solution)
No. Basic value
m a x
(nm)
1) Ketones : C C C O
| |
a) Acyclic or 6 membered ring 215

b) 5 membered ring 202
| |
2) Aldehydes C C C H O
207
3) Extended Conjugation 30
etc.,

C C C C C O
| | | |
4) Homodiene component 39
5) a) If one double bond is exocyclic to one ring 5
b) If exocyclic to two rings simultaneously 10
6) Addition for substituents
*SLRW59* -7- SLR-W 59
Substituents Position

a ) 1 0 1 2 1 8 1 8
R a l k y l ( i n c l u d i n g p a r t o f c a r b o c y c l i c r i n g )
b ) 3 5 3 0 1 7 3 1
O R ( a l k o x y )
c ) 3 5 3 0
O H ( h y d r o x y )
#
d ) 8 5
S R ( t h i o e t h e r )
e ) 1 5 1 2
C l ( c h l o r o )
f ) 2 5 3 0
B r ( b r o m o )
g ) 6 6 6
O C O R ( a c y l o x y )
h ) N H , N H R , N R 9 5
Solvent correction
S o l v e n t
a ) E t h a n o l 0
b ) M e t h a n o l 0
c ) D i o x a n
5
d ) C h l o r o f o r m
1
e ) E t h e r
7
f ) W a t e r + 8
g ) H e x a n e
1 1
h ) C y c l o h e x a n e 1 1
_______________
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Old)
Inorganic Chemistry (Paper – VI)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

2) Draw neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite the
sentence : 10
1) In [Co(NH3)6]CI3, effective atomic number of Cobalt is ________

a) 36 b) 35 c) 34 d) 27
2) Hardness of water determined by using standard solution of _____________

a) Oxalic acid b) Na2EDTA c) DMG d) All of these
3) Lithium ion (Li+) is ________

a) hard base b) soft acid c) hard acid d) soft base
4) The ___________ elements are act as bridge between s and p block elements.
a) inner transition b) non-transition
c) metallic d) transition
5) The substances do not loss their identities in aqueous medium are generally
___________
a) salts b) ionic compound
c) complex salts d) coordinate compound
6) The chelating agents must be ____________ ligands.

a) monodentate b) covalent c) polydentate d) acidic
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 61 -2- *SLRW61*
7) The H+ is called hard acid, whereas H– is called ___________
a) soft acid b) soft base c) hard base d) none of these
8) 4-d transition series start with atomic number ___________ and ends with
__________ atomic number.
a) 21, 30 b) 39, 48 c) 21, 48 d) 57, 80
9) In the formation of NH4+, H + is act as ____________
a) Lewis acid b) Lewis base c) Donor d) Chelating agent
10) _____________ is selective and sensitive reagent for nickel.
a) 8-Hydroxy quioline b) Glycine
c) EDTA d) DMG
1) Define complex salt with suitable example.
2) State and explain term coordination number with example.
3) Define chelation with example.
4) Define acid and base according to Lewis concept, with example.
5) As compare to 4d and 5d transition series elements 3d transition series

elements are reactive, why ?
6) Write the observed electronic configuration of chromium and copper.
1) Discuss the position of d-block elements in periodic table.
2) What are the postulates of Werner theory ?
3) 3-d block elements can easily forms complex, explain in brief.
B) Write the various limitations of valence bond theory. 4

*SLRW61* -3- SLR-W – 61
4. Solve any two of the following : 10
1) Discuss the classification acids and bases on bases of Pearson’s concept.
2) Explain the formation of [Fe(CN)6]3 – on the basis of VBT.
3) Discuss the magnetic property of 3d transition elements.
1) Distinguish between metal chelate and metal complex.
2) Give the atomic number, name and symbol of 4-d transition elements.
3) Define geometrical isomerism. Show the geometrical isomerism in complex
compound with CN = 4.
______________
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Paper – V) (Old)
General Physics, Heat and Sound

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory.

iii) Use of log table or scientific calculator is allowed.
iv) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
1. Select correct alternative. 10

i) By Lanchester’s rule the relation between the precessional torque τ1,
gravitational torque τ 2 and centripetal torque τ 3 is _________
a) τ1 − τ 2 = τ 3 b) τ 2 − τ 3 = τ1
c) τ1 + τ 2 = τ 3 d) τ 2 + τ 3 = τ1
ii) a . (b × c ) = 0 , the vectors a, b and c are _________

a) equal b) not coplanar
c) all zero d) coplanar
iii) The Curl of a vector field V is always _________
a) Scalar b) Zero
c) Vector d) None of these
iv) In pure precessional motion nutation is _________
a) Very small b) Large
c) Absent d) None of these
v) The rate of precession φ is _________
τ1 Iω Iτ1
a) b) τ c) Iω τ1 d)
Iω 1 ω
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 63 -2- *SLRW63*
vi) If the lower end of loaded spring has extension x then the C.G. of the spring
is lowered by _________
x x
a) x b) c) 2x d)
2 4
vii) The viscosities of two liquids may be compared with the help of _________
a) Searle’s viscometer
b) Rotation viscometer
c) Rankine’s viscometer
d) Ostwald viscometer
viii) Entropy is maximum in __________ state.
a) gas b) solid
c) liquid d) semi-solid
ix) The frequency of ultrasonic is _________
a) below 20 Hz
b) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
c) above 20 kHz
d) 0 to ∞
x) ∇ × (∇ φ ) = _________
a) ∇ 2 φ b) φ c) ∞ d) 0

i) Define divergence of a vector field.
ii) What do you mean by
a) Precession
b) Nutation.
iii) What is entropy ? Give physical significance of entropy.
iv) What are transducers ?
v) Define coefficient of viscosity.
vi) A metal wire with geometrical moment of inertia 2 × 10–6 cm4 is bent to form
a circle of 10 cm radius. What is bending moment ?
(Y for metal wire = 5 × 1011 dyne/cm2).
*SLRW63* -3- SLR-W – 63
A) i) Compute a . (b × c ) where
a = i + 2j – 3k b = 2i + 3j – k c = i – j + 2k
ii) Explain T-S diagram.
iii) Write various applications of gyroscopic motion.
B) Write a note on moving coil loudspeaker. 4

i) Obtain an equation for period of gyroscope.
ii) Describe Searle’s method of determining the viscosity of highly viscous liquid.
iii) If φ = 2y2 – x3z find ∇φ at (1, –1, 2).

i) What is a flat spiral spring ? Deduce an expression for Young’s modulus of
the material of flat spiral spring.
ii) What is reverberation time ? Derive Sabine’s formula for reverberation time.
_____________________
Seat
No.

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper – I) (Old)
Biomolecules

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

2) Figure to the right indicate full mark.
3) Draw structural formulae wherever necessary.
1. Write following sentences selecting most correct answer from given options : 10
1) Fructose is a ________ monosaccharide.

a) aldohexose b) ketohexose c) ketotetrose d) aldotetrose
2) ________ has α 1→ 6 bond linking two monosaccharides.

a) Sucrose b) Maltose c) Isomaltose d) Cellobiose
3) ________ is an imino acid.
a) Valine b) Lysine c) Glycine d) Proline
4) Glycoproteins contain ________ as prosthetic groups.
a) carbohydrates b) lipids c) nucleic acids d) metal ions
5) Thiamine deficiency causes
a) pellagra b) beriberi c) burning feet d) night blindness
6) Dehydrogenases enzymes belong to ________ class of enzymes.
a) hydrolases b) transferases c) lyases d) oxidoreductases
7) Terpenes are the lipids derived from
a) triglycerides b) waxes c) isoprenes d) sterols
8) For enzyme catalysed reaction, its rate is maximum and constant at
a) high pH b) high temperature
c) high substrate concentration d) high enzyme concentration
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 64 *SLRW64*
9) Rhodopsin present in retina of eye contains vitamin ________ plus protein in

its structure.
a) retinal b) riboflavin c) pyridoxin d) niacin
10) Carotenes belong to a class of
a) waxes b) triglycerides c) terpenes d) steroids
2. Answer any five from below : 10

1) Differentiate between albumin and globulin.
2) What is Zwitterion ?
3) Explain peptones.
4) What are isoenzymes ? Give one example.
5) How are monosaccharides further classified ?
6) Write down structural formula for NAD+.

1) Define Km. What is its significance ?
2) What are deficiency disorders of thiamine ?
3) Write one reaction catalysed by niacin coenzyme.
B) Write a note on Waxes. 4
4. Solve any two from below : 10

1) What is biochemical role of vitamin A ?
2) Define and classify carbohydrate. Give detailed account of disaccharides.
3) Classify enzymes with suitable examples.
5. Answer any two : 10

1) Write a role of pyridoxal phosphate in amino acid metabolism.
2) What is active site of enzyme ? Add a note on Induced fit hypothesis.
3) Classify proteins. Give detailed account of conjugated proteins.
_______________
*SLRLW66* SLR-W – 66
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – III) (Old) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS (Paper – VI)
Electronics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

iii) Use of logtable or calculator is allowed.
iv) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternative from the following. 10
i) In Colpitt’s oscillator _______ feed back is used.

a) positive b) negative c) zero d) one
ii) Two stage amplifier contains _________ number of transistors.

iii) Intrinsic standoff ratio of an UJT is always

a) equal to one b) equal to zero
c) greater than one d) less than one
iv) FET is ___________ terminal semiconductor device.

v) The logic circuit used to perform addition of two binary bits is called as
a) J-K flip-flop b) R-S flip-flop
c) Half adder d) Full adder
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 66 -2- *SLRW66*
vi) The Demorgan’s first theorem is given by the relation A + B =
a) A.B b) A .B c) A . B d) A . B
vii) The time period of waveform measured on CRO is 10 ms the unknown

frequency of wave is
a) 50 Hz b) 100 Hz c) 150 Hz d) 200 Hz
viii) Voltage regulator is used to provide a nearly __________ output.

a) fluctuating b) smooth c) sinusoidal d) constant
ix) IC 78 XX provides _______ fixed output voltage.

a) positive b) negative
c) regulated positive d) dual
x) A cathode ray oscilloscope is used to measure

a) frequency b) voltage c) phase d) all a, b and c

i) What is feed back ? Give its type with definitions.
ii) Give any two uses of CRO with details.
iii) Define
a) Transconductance and
b) Amplification factor in FET.
iv) Draw neat block diagram of CRO.
v) Define non-sinusoidal waves with types.
vi) What is flip-flop ? Give its types.

i) Explain the working of full adder.
ii) Discuss construction of UJT.
iii) What is line and load regulation ? How it can be measured ?
*SLRW66* -3- SLR-W – 66
B) A transistor phase shift oscillator uses three identical sections in the feed
back network. The values of components are R = 320 K Ω and C = 400 pF.
Calculate the frequency of oscillations. 4
4. Answer any two of the following. 10
i) Write a short note on DMM.
ii) State and prove Demorgan’s second theorem.
iii) Describe with neat circuit diagram the operation Colpitt’s oscillator.
i) Describe regulated power supply with block diagram. Explain its need.
ii) What is multistage transistor amplifier ? Explain two stage RC coupled
transistor amplifier in detail.
___________
*SLRW67* SLR-W 67
Seat
No.

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper II) (Old)
Biochemical Techniques
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

3) Draw labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Write following sentences selecting most correct answer from given options : 10
1) In spectrophotometer _________ is used to resolve a single beam of light
into different rays of different wavelengths.
a) Refracting mirror b) Mercury lamp
c) Prism d) Collimating mirror
2) In calorimeter photocell is used to
a) Provide radiations
b) Split radiations
c) Reflect radiations
d) Convert light signal into electrical signal
3) For electrophoresis of proteins _________ is used as a marker dye.
a) Oil red O b) Amido black IOB
c) Bromophenol blue d) Ethidium dibromide
4) Viable cells are immobilised by __________ method.
a) Ionic binding b) Physical adsorption
c) Covalent binding d) Entrapment in a gel
5) The technique used for blot transfer of protein is called _________ blotting
technique.
a) Western b) Southern
c) Northern d) Eastern
P.T.O.
SLR-W 67 -2- *SLRW67*
6) _________ can be patented.
a) Land
b) Table
c) Ornament
d) Genetically modified microorganism
7) Large amount of same DNA can be produced using
a) ELISA technique
b) Polymerase chain reaction
c) Hybridoma technology
d) Western blotting technique
8) DNA polymerase chain reaction was invented by
a) Karry Mullis
b) G. Kohler and C. Milstein
c) Southern
d) Alwin, Kemp and Stark
9) For industrial manufacture of insulin, its A and B chains are prepared
separately in
a) E. Coli b) S. Cereviceae
c) Thermophilus furiosus d) Thermophilus aquaticus
10) In gel permeation chromatography void volume means
a) Volume of gel b) Volume of water inside the gel
c) Total volume of gel + water d) Volume of water outside the gel
2. Attempt any five from below : 10

1) Define partition chromatography and distribution ratio.
2) What are the precautions taken in selecting the primer for PCR technique ?
3) What is the meaning of intellectual property ?
4) What are disadvantages of CNBr activated enzyme immobilisation method ?
5) What is difference between Souther blotting and Northern blotting techniques ?
6) State and explain Beers law.
*SLRW67* -3- SLR-W 67
3. A) Answer any two : 6
1) Explain about copyright.
2) State and explain the principles of gel permeation chromatography.
3) What is DNA finger printing ? What is its use ?
B) Draw a labelled diagram of spectrophotometer. 4
4. Answer any two from below : 10

1) Discuss industrial manufacture of insulin hormone.
2) Explain immobilisation of enzyme by covalent binding methods.
3) Write an account of DNA polymerase chain reaction.

1) Write an essay on patents.
2) Discuss preparation of slab gel plate for SDS-PAGE.
3) Write the mechanism of separation by gel permeation chromatography. What
are its applications ?

*SLRW69* SLR-W 69
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester III) (Old) Examination, 2016

STATISTICS (Paper V)
Continuous Probability Distributions I
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) If X is an exponential variate with mean 5 then second order raw moment is
a) 5 b) 25 c) 50 d) 100
2) E [X-E(X)]2 is called
a) Mean of X b) Variance of X
c) Covariance of X d) None of these
3) If X is a continuous r.v. then P[X > Q2] =
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 0.75 d) 0.25
4) Uniform distribution is
a) +vely skewed b) vely skewed
c) symmetric d) none of these
5) If X~exp ( ); then mean = variance only when

a)
=1 b)
>1 c)
<1 d) none of these
6) If a r. v. X has exponential distribution with parameter
= 0.5, then P [X > 1] is
a) e2 b) c) d)

P.T.O.
SLR-W 69 -2- *SLRW69*
7) For exponential variate with parameter , the co-efficient of variation is
a) 1 b) 100 c) 0 d) 10
8) For the joint p.d.f. f(x, y) the marginal p.d.f. of Y is given by
a) b)

f x , y d x
f x , y
N

c) d) none of these

f x , y d x

9) With usual notations E [(XE(X)) (YE(Y))] is called

a) Variance of X b) COV (X,Y)
c) Variance of Y d) None of these
10) If X is continuous r.v. with c.d.f. F(x) then Y = F (x) is
a) U (1, 1) b) U (0, 2)
c) U (0, 1) d) U (1, 2)

a) Define m.g.f. of a r.v. X. Hence obtain m.g.f. of AX + B. Where A and B are
constants.
b) Let (X, Y) be a bivariate continuous r.v. then define expectation of a function
g (X, Y).
c) Obtain M.G.F. of exponential distribution with parameter .
d) Let (X, Y) be a bivariate continuous r.v. then define conditional variance of X

given Y = y.
e) Let (X, Y) be a bivariate continuous r.v. then define Independence of X and Y.
f) If X~exp ( ) find the c.d.f. of X.

a) The p.d.f. of a continuous r.v. is
f(x) = 2x ; 0 < x < 1
= 0 ; otherwise
Find mean and variance of X.
b) Define marginal distributions of X and Y.
c) Define exponential distribution with parameter . Obtain its median.
B) If X~U (a, b), find its c.d.f. and hence find median. 4
*SLRW69* -3- SLR-W 69

a) Define uniform distribution over (a, b). Find mean and variance of the
distribution.
b) Let X and Y are two independent continuous random variables, then show
that E(XY) = E(X). E(Y)
c) Define c.d.f. of a continuous r.v. State its properties.
5. Attempt any one of the following : 10

a) Let X and Y be two independent r.v.s. having pdfs as
f (x) = ex ; x > 0 and f (y) = ey ; y > 0 find the distribution of X + Y.
b) If X is a r.v. with p.d.f.
f (x) = 2e2x ; x > 0
= 0 ; otherwise
Find m.g.f. of X and hence find mean and variance.

*SLRW71* SLR-W 71
Seat
No.

GEOCHEMISTRY
Introduction to Geochemistry (Paper I)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
Instructions : i) All questions carry equal marks.

iii) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Choose the correct alternative each of the following. 10

1) Water system is _________ component system.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
2) The radius ratio of CsCl is
a) 0.8 b) 0.93 c) 0.5 d) 0.1
3) The number of atoms per unit cell in F.C.C. crystal is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
4) In covalent bonding, these is ________ of electrons.
a) Sharing b) Transfer
c) Acceptance d) None of these
5) The ratio of Si : O in a single chain silicate structure is
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 3 c) 1 : 4 d) 2 : 3
6) P = C is ______ phase rule.
a) Gibbs b) Avogadros
c) Goldschmidts d) None of these
7) If the co-ordination number of molecule is three, its geometry is
a) Linear b) Tetrahedral
c) Pyramidal d) Octahedral
P.T.O.
SLR-W 71 *SLRW71*
8) In NaCl, each sodium ion is surrounded by _______ chloride ions.

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
9) The atomic substitution _____ at higher temperature.
a) Increase b) Decreases
c) Remains constant d) None of these
10) The temperature at which rhombic sulphur converts into monoclinic sulphur
is called as
a) Melting point b) Transition temperature
c) Boiling point d) None of these

1) Define (a) phase (b) component of a system.
2) Explain ionic radii of common ion in rock forming minerals.
3) Define lattice energy.
4) Explain frame structure of silicate.
5) Define covalent bond.
6) State Gibbs phase rule.

i) State and explain electronegativity.
ii) Explain states of matter.
iii) Discuss the structure of NaCl.
B) Show that CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) is two component system. 4

i) Discuss sulphur system.
ii) Give the general rules of bond type.
iii) Explain Polymorphism.

i) Discuss water system.
ii) Discuss the sheet structure of silicate.
iii) Discuss NaCl structure with respect to lattice energy, radius ratio.
_____________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – III) (Old) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Paper – V)
Animal Diversity – III

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Select the appropriate answer from those given below each question and rewrite
the sentence. 10
1) Anal styles are found
a) Female cockroach b) Male cockroach
c) Butterfly d) Both a and b
2) Numbers of teeth present in gizzard of cockroach are
a) 7 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
3) Glosa and paraglosa are the parts of
a) Mandible b) Hypopharynx c) 1st maxilla d) 2nd maxilla
4) Swimming types of foots are present in
a) Aplysia b) Pila c) Sepia d) Mytilus
5) Bipinnaria is the larval stage of
a) Annelida b) Echinodermata
c) Mollusca d) Hemichordata
6) In Pila, statosyst is organ for
a) Hearing b) Vision c) Olfactory d) Equilibrium
7) For control of mosquito population _________ fish is used as biological agent.
a) Mrigal b) Labeo c) Gambusia d) Catla
8) Malpighian tubules in cockroach are used for
a) Excretory b) Reproductive c) Digestion d) Nervous
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 72 -2- *SLRW72*
9) Malaria is caused by
a) Aedes aegypti b) P. vivax c) P. ovalis d) Ascaris
10) In radula of pila __________ Teeth are present in single row ?
a) 7 b) 6 c) 5 d) 9
1) Mushroom gland in cockroach.
2) Functions of foot in mytilus.
3) Salient features of phylum Mollusca.
4) Symptoms of malaria disease.
5) Statocyst of pila.
6) Gizzard of cockroach.
7) Leg of cockroach.
1) Salivary gland of cockroach.
2) Osphradium of pila.
3) Symptoms and control measures of filarial disease.
B) Radula of Pila. 4
4. Write answer any two of the following : 10
1) Explain nervous system of cockroach.
2) Female reproductive system of Pila.
3) Describe the mouth parts of housefly.
5. Write answer to one of the following : 10
1) Digestive system of cockroach.
2) Describe nervous system of Pila.
————————
*SLR-W73* SLR-W 73
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Paper VI) (Old)
Discrete Probability Distributions and Statistical Methods

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.


i) If X is a Poisson variate with P[X = 3] = P[X = 4], then the variance of a
Poisson variate is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
ii) If X and Y are two independent Poisson variates such that X~ P(1) and Y~P(2)
then P[X + Y < 3] is
a) e3 b) 3e3 c) 4e3 d) 8.5e3
iii) If X~Geo(0.6), then the variance of waiting time distribution is
a) b) c) d)
!
$ " '
iv) If X~Geo(0.9), then the distribution of X+1 is _______ distribution.

a) Poisson b) Geometric c) Waiting time d) None of these
v) Negative binomial distribution NB(r, p) reduces to geometric distribution when
r equal to
a) 0 b) 1 c)
d) None of these
vi) Let (X1, X2, X3, X4) be a random vector follows multinomial distribution with
usual notations, then E(X3) is
a) 4P3 b) 4P3(1 P3) c) P1P3 d) nP3
vii) A measure a linear association of a variable say X1 with number of other
variables X2, X3,...Xk is
a) Partial correlation b) Simple correlation
c) Multiple correlation d) Auto correlation P.T.O.
SLR-W 73 -2- *SLR-W73*
viii) If R1.23 = 1, then R 2.13 is equal to
a) 0 b) 0 to 1 c) 1 d) None of these
ix) The partial correlation coefficient r13.2 is called
a) First order partial correlation
b) Zero order partial correlation
c) Second order partial correlation
d) None of these
x) In the usual notations, r21.3 is equal to
H H H H H H
a) b)
! ! ! !

H H H H
! ! ! !
H H H H H
c) d)
! ! !

H H H H
! ! !

i) Define Poisson distribution, state its mean and variance.
ii) Let X be geometric variate with parameter p, then show that P[X x] = (1 p)x.
iii) Define multinational distribution.

iv) Obtain the probability generating function of waiting time distribution.
v) State the two properties of residual.
2
vi) If r12 = r13 = r 23 = r 1, then show that .

H
4
1 . 2 3

H

i) Define negative binomial distribution with parameters r and p. Find its
mean.
ii) If X and Y are independent Poisson variates with means 2 and 4 respectively,
then find P .
: ;

iii) Find mean and variance of waiting time distribution.

B) Define the partial regression coefficients b12.3 and give its interpretation. 4
*SLR-W73* -3- SLR-W 73

i) Derive Poisson distribution as a limiting case of a binomial distribution.
ii) Define Geometric distribution with parameter p and obtain its mean and
variance.
iii) State and prove the recurrence relation for probability of negative binomial
distribution.

i) Define the residual of variable X1 with respect X2 and X3 and obtain its variance
in terms of simple correlation co-efficient.
ii) Define multiple correlation coefficient R1.23 and obtain an expression for R1.23
in terms of simple correlation co-efficients.
_________________
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Old) Paper – VI
Cell Science, Genetics, Biological Chemistry and Economic Zoology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1) _________ is the ratio of the suplementary factor.

a) 9 : 3 : 4 b) 9 : 7 c) 13 : 3 d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
2) _________ is process of division of the cytoplasm.

a) Protein synthesis b) Cytosynthesis
c) Cytokinesis d) Glycolysis
3) Incomplete linkage is found in __________

a) Male Drosophila b) Female Drosophila
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
4) Worker bee is _________

a) Sterile male b) Fertile male c) Sterile female d) Fertile female
5) Jaffarabadi is breed of ________

a) Cow b) Buffalo c) Goat d) Poultry
6) Rearing of birds for production of egg and meat is called ___________

a) Dairy science b) Poultry science
c) Pearl science d) Fishery science
7) Which of the following is ornamental fish _________

a) Gold fish b) Scoliodon c) Cat fish d) Dog fish
P.T.O.
8) DNA contains ________ sugars.

a) Starch b) Glucose c) Deoxyribose d) Ribose
9) Milk is secretion of ________

a) Salivary gland b) Mammary gland
c) Gastric gland d) Thyroid gland
10) Silkmoth belongs to phylum _________
a) Arthropoda b) Annilida
c) Echinodermata d) Mollusca.

i) Honey
ii) Food value of fish
iii) Cow breeds
iv) Egg
v) Coupling phase
vi) Metaphase
vii) Significance of crossing over.

i) Complementary interaction.
ii) Economic importance of Goat farming.
iii) Importance of Linkage.
B) Castes of Honey bee. 4

i) Describe housing of poultry.
ii) Life cycle of silkmoth.
iii) Types of RNA.

i) Explain various milk products.
ii) Explain glass Aquarium and ornamental fishes.
–––––––––––––––
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Paper – V)
Differential Calculus

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Select the correct alternative for each of the following : 10
1) The angle of intersection of two curves is defined as the angle between their
a) normals b) radius vectors
c) tangents d) none of these
2) Polar subtangent for curve r = aθ is
r2 a 1
a) b) a c) d)
a r2 a
3) The radius of curvature at the point (s, ψ ) on the curve s = c.logsec ψ is

a) C sin ψ b) C cos ψ
c) C tan ψ d) C cot ψ
π
4) The radius of curvature of y = 4 sinx – sin2x at x = is
2
5 5 5 5
a) 5 5 b) c) d)
4 4 4
5) The radius of curvature for r 3 = a 2p is
a2 3r r3
a) b) 2 c) 2 d) a
3r a a
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 77 -2- *SLRW77*
∂ (u, v )
6) If u = x2 – y2, v = xy then =
∂ ( x, y)
a) x2 + y2 b) 2 (x2 + y2)
c) x2 – y2 d) 2 (x2 – y2)
∂ (r, θ ) ∂ ( x, y )
7) If x = r cos θ , y = r sin θ then × is equal to
∂ ( x, y ) ∂ (r, θ)
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) ∞
8) The necessary condition for a function to have an extreme value at x = c is that
a) f′ (c) < 0 b) f′ (c) > 0
c) f ′ (c ) = 0 d) none of these
9) A function f (x, y) has minimum value at (a, b) if

a) AC – B2 > 0 and A > 0 b) AC – B2 > 0 and A < 0
c) AC – B2 < 0 and A > 0 d) AC – B2 < 0 and A < 0
ds
10) For the curve r = a (1 + cos θ ) the value of =
dθ
a) 2 a cos θ b) 2 a sin θ
( )
c) 2 a cos θ 2 d) 2 a sin θ 2( )
i) Find the tangents and normals to the curve y2 = 4ax at (a, – 2a).
ii) Find the angle between the pairs of curves y = sinx, y = cosx at their point of
intersection.
iii) For the cycloid x = a (t + sint), y = a (1 – cost), prove that ρ = 4a cos t 2 . ( )

∂ (u, v, w )
iv) If u = 3x + 2y – z, v = x – 2y + z, w = x (x + 2y – z), find .
∂ ( x, y, z)
v) Investigate maximum and minimum values of the function given by
u = 2x3 – 15x2 + 36x + 10.
vi) Examine for maximum and minimum values of the function z = x2 – 3xy + y2 + 2x.
*SLRW77* -3- SLR-W – 77

∂ ( x, y, z)
i) If x + y + z = u, y + z = uv, z = uvw, find .
∂ (u, v, w )
⎛ 3a 3 a ⎞
ii) Prove that the radius of curvature at the point ⎜ , ⎟ on the folium
⎝ 2 2 ⎠
3 2 .a
x3 + y3 = 3 axy is .
16
iii) Find the minimum value of x2 + y2 + z2 when x + y + z = 3a.
∂ ( x, y )
B) If x = a (u + v), y = b (u – v) and u = r 2 cos 2 θ , v = r 2 sin 2 θ find . 4
∂ (r, θ )

i) Find the radius of curvature at any point (r, θ ) on the cardioid r = a (1 + cos θ)
ρ2
and show that = constant.
r
ii) Show that the functions u = x + y – z, v = x – y + z, w = x2 + y 2 + z 2 – 2yz are
dependent to each other and find the relation between them.
iii) A rectangular box open at the top, have volume of 32 cubic feet, what must be
the dimensions so that total surface is minimum.

i) If u, v, w are functions of x, y, z having first order partial derivatives and x, y, z
are themselves functions of p, q, r whose first order partial derivatives exists
∂ (u, v, w ) ∂ (x, y, z ) ∂ (u, v, w )
then prove that × = . Also if x, y are roots of a
∂ (x, y, z) ∂ (p, q, r) ∂ (p, q, r )
quadratic equation in p given by (p – u)2 + (p – v)2 = 0, then prove that
∂ ( x, y ) − (u − v )
= .
∂ (u, v ) x−y
ii) Explain Lagrange’s method of un determined multipliers to find extreme values of

u = f (x, y, z) when φ (x, y, z) = 0 . Hence find the minimum value of x2 + y2 + z2
subject to condition x + 2y – 4z = 5.
_______________
*SLRW78* SLR-W 78
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Old)
Structural Botany and Taxonomy of Angiosperms (Paper V)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences, choosing the correct alternative : 10

1) Multiple epidermis is found in ____________ plants.
a) hydrophytic b) mesophytic c) xerophytic d) epiphytic
2) Motor cells are found in the epidermis of ___________ plants.
a) gymnosperm b) monocot c) dicot d) none of these
3) The parenchyma which contains air cavities are called as
a) aerenchyma b) sclerenchyma
c) collenchyma d) fibres
4) Digestive glands are present in ______________ plant.
a) Euphorbia b) Ocimum c) Drosera d) All
5) ______________ is living mechanical tissue.
a) Vesseles b) Tracheids c) Collenchyma d) Sclerenchyma
6) The intercalary meristem is responsible for increase in
a) height of internode b) width of internode
c) both d) none of these
7) On the basis of position the meristems are classified into _____________
groups.
P.T.O.
SLR-W 78 *SLRW78*
8) The scattered vascular bundles are found in the stem of
a) nerium b) sunflower c) maize d) hibiscus
9) Companion cells are found in
a) meristem b) phloem c) xylem d) parenchyma
10) Calotropis procera belongs to family
a) Combretaceae b) Asclepidacee c) Amranthaceae d) Liliaceae

i) Define the anomalous growth.
ii) Give the functions of aerenchyma.
iii) Describe the heart wood.
iv) Mention the functions of collenchyma.
v) Sketch and describe the monocotyledonous stomata.
vi) Give the economic importance of family asclepiadaceae.

i) Describe the different types of parenchyma.
ii) Describe the mechanical tissues in leaves.
iii) Classification of meristem based on origin.
B) Describe the Histogen theory. 4

i) Anomalous secondary growth in Dracaena stem.
ii) Describe the different types of dicotyledonous stomata.
iii) Describe the internal primary structure with reference to tissues and functions
in dicotyledonous root.

i) Describe types of vascular bundles studied by you.
ii) Describe the different elements of Phloem.
iii) Give the distinguishing characters of any one of following family and mention
plant of economic importance from family with their uses.
a) Combretaceae.
b) Fabaceae.
___________
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Paper – VI)
Real Analysis

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative for each of the following : 10

1) Which is not an open set for open sets Ik
n n ∞ ∞
a) Ik b) Ik c) Ik d) Ik
k =1 k =1 k =1 k =1
2) For any real numbers x, a and ε > 0, if x − a < ε iff _________

a) − ε < x < ε b) ε < x < − ε
c) a − ε < x < a + ε d) a + ε < x < a − ε
3) Which set is uncountable ?
a) {2, 4, 9, ...} b) set of rationals
c) (a, b) d) set of primes
4) The set of limit points of {1, 3, 7, 11} is _________
a) {1} b) {11}
c) {1, 3, 7, 11} d) None of these
⎛ a ⎞
5) If ∑ anare positive term series such that lim ⎜⎜ n log n ⎟⎟ = l then the
n→∞
⎝ an +1 ⎠
series converges if _________
a) l > 1 b) l < 1 c) l = 1 d) None of these
6) The decreasing sequence is _________
⎧ 1⎫ ⎧ 1⎫ ⎧ 1⎫ ⎧ 1⎫
a) ⎨2 + ⎬ b) ⎨2 − ⎬ c) ⎨1 − ⎬ d) ⎨− ⎬
⎩ n⎭ ⎩ n⎭ ⎩ n⎭ ⎩ n⎭
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 79 -2- *SLRW79*
⎧ 1⎫
7) The least upper bound of the sequence ⎨1 − ⎬ is _________
⎩ n⎭
a) 0 b) –1 c) 1 d) None of these
1
8) The series ∑ 34
is _________
n
c) oscillatory d) none of these
9) The sequence {(− 1) n} is _________

n
a) bounded below
b) bounded above
c) bounded below as well as bounded above
d) neither bounded below nor bounded above
∞ 1
10) The series ∑ is convergent if _________
n=2 n (log n)p
a) p = 1 b) p < 1 c) p ≤ 1 d) p > 1
1) Show that lim

n→∞
1
n
[1 1 1
1 + 2 2 + 3 3 + ... + n n = 1.]
2) For all real number x, y then prove that x − y ≥ x − y .
3) Show that the series {Sn} where
1 1 1
Sn = + + ... + ∀ n ∈ N is convergent.
n+1 n+2 n+n
1 2 3
4) Show that the series + + + ... is not convergent.
2 3 4
5) If for any ε > 0, b − a < ε then prove that b = a.
⎧ 3 1
3 ⎫
6) Test for convergence the series whose nth term is ⎨ n + 1 − n⎬ .
⎩ ⎭
( )
*SLRW79* -3- SLR-W – 79

1) If {an}, {bn} and {cn} are three sequences such that
i) an ≤ bn ≤ cn ∀ n and
ii) nlim a n = l = lim c n then lim bn = l .

→∞ n→∞ n→∞
2) Show that a set S of real number is bounded if there exist a real number
G > 0 such that x < G ∀ x ∈ S .
1
3) Prove that ∑ is convergent.
n2
B) If A and B are countable set. Prove that A × B is countable. 4
1) If S and T are subset of real number then show that (S ∪ T )′ = S′ ∪ T ′ .

2) Prove that every bounded sequence has limit point.
3) A series ∑ un converges if and only if for each ε > o ∃ a positive integer m
such that.
un + 1 + un + 2 + ... + un + p < ε ∀ n ≥ m ∧ P ≥ 1

un + 1
1) If ∑ un is positive term series such that lim = l then the series :
n→∞ un
i) converges if l < 1
ii) diverges if l > 1 and
iii) the test fail if l = 1.
2) Let a sequence of closed interval [an, bn] is such that [an + 1, bn + 1] ⊆ [an, bn]
and lim (b n − a n ) = 0 , then there is one and only one point common to all
n→∞
the interval of the sequence.
_____________________

Seat
No.

BOTANY (Paper – VI)
Plant Ecology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

iii) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite sentence by choosing correct alternative. 10

1) Production of new individual by birth, germination, Fusion is termed as _____
a) Mortality b) Natality c) Density d) Fertility
2) Green plants are ________

a) Secondary consumer b) Primary consumer
c) Tertiary consumer d) Producer
3) _________ shows poorly developed root system.

a) Mesophyte b) Hydrophy c) Xerophyte d) Epiphyte
4) _________ stomata is character of Xerophyte.

a) Sunken b) Superficial c) Water d) External
5) Aggregation of different types of plant population at a habitat is called _______
a) Plant community b) Animal community
c) Biotic community d) All of these
6) The pioneer stage of hydrosere is represented by _________
a) Phytoplankton b) Hydrilla c) Chara d) Typha
7) The disease Jaundic is caused by _________ pollution.

a) Air b) Water c) Soil d) Land
P.T.O.
8) The plant growing in extremely dry habit are known as _________

a) Hydrophyte b) Mesophyte c) Xerophy d) Oxalophyte
9) __________ is a biotic component of ecosystem.
a) Light b) Soil c) Temperature d) Plant
10) Increasing concentration of __________ in air causes green house effect.
a) SO2 b) NO2 c) CO2 d) O2

i) Define hydrophyte.
ii) What is meant by primary succession ?
iii) State any two morphological adaptation of Xerophyte.
iv) Pollutants of air pollution.
v) Define natality.
vi) Enlist non-living components of ecosystem.

i) Write morphological adaptation of hydrophyte.
ii) Effect of water pollution.
iii) Kinds of succession.
B) Describe the pyramids of biomass. 4

i) What is ecosystem ? Write energy flow in ecosystem.
ii) Describe the quantitative characters of plant community.
iii) What is pollution ? Write causes of air pollution.
5. Write any one of the following. 10

i) What is succession ? Add a note on stages hydrosere.
ii) Define population ecology ? Write natality and mortality.
_______________
*SLRW81* SLR-W 81
S e a t
N o .

ELECTRONICS
Electronics Circuits (Paper V)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
N.B : 1) All questions are compulsory.

4) Use of calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative. 10
i) The efficiency of half wave rectifier is ___________ %.

a) 40.6 b) 81.2 c) 48.6 d) 100
ii) The PIV of diode in fullwave rectifier is _________
a) Vm b) 2 Vm c) d)
8
iii) In transistor amplifier __________ junction is reverse biased.

a) Collector b) Emitter c) Both d) None
iv) The stability factor of CE amplifier with fixed bias is
a) 1 b)
c)
d)
v) In a multistage amplifier A1 = 10 dB and A2 = 5dB. Then overall gain is

________ dB.
a) 15 b) 50 c) 5 d) 2
P.T.O.
SLR-W 81 -2- *SLRW81*
vi) In class B power amplifier transistor conducts for

a) 0° b) 90° c) 180° d) 360°
vii) With negative feedback gain of the amplifier
c) Remains same d) None of these
viii) CC amplifier is an example of _________ feedback.

a) Voltage series b) Current series
c) Voltage shunt d) Current shunt
ix) In Hartley oscillator ____________ is tapped.
a) Resistor b) Capacitor
c) Inductor d) All
x) RC oscillators are suitable for __________ frequency.

a) Low b) High
c) Very high d) None
i) What is multistage amplifier ? Why it is required ?
ii) Draw the circuit diagram for Class B push-pull amplifier.
iii) What are different types of negative feedback ?
iv) Define the terms :
a) PIV
b) Ripple factor.
v) Draw the circuit diagram of emitter biasing method.
vi) What are the conditions for sustained oscillations ?

*SLRW81* -3- SLR-W 81

i) Explain bridge rectifier.
ii) Explain distortion in power amplifier.
iii) What is the effect of negative feedback on gain, bandwidth and distortion ?
B) Write a note on direct coupled amplifier. 4
i) Explain capacitor filter.
ii) Draw equivalent circuit of FET CS amplifier and derive expression for voltage
gain.
iii) Explain crystal oscillator.
i) Explain voltage divider bias and derive expression for the stability factor.
ii) Write notes on :

a) Zener regulator.
b) Phase shift oscillator.
_____________________
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY
Optics and Mineralogy (Paper – V)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1) When Refractive index of minerals is near to refractive index of Canada

balsam, then the mineral has ________ relief ?
a) low b) medium
c) high d) very high
2) What is refractive index of Canada balsam ?

a) 1.537 b) 1.516 c) 1..658 d) 1.536
3) Muscovite mineral shows ______ structure.

a) nesosilicate b) sorosilicate
c) inosilicate d) phylosilicate
4) Orthoclase and microcline are _____________ of KAISi3O8.

a) pseudomorphs b) isomorphs
c) polymorphs d) none of these
5) The charge on SiO4 tetrahedron is _________

a) – 6 b) – 5 c) – 4 d) – 3
6) Biotite mica is dark in colour because of its ____________ content.

a) Mg and Ca b) Ca and Mn c) K and Al d) Mg and Fe
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 84 -2- *SLRW84*
7) Red coloured cryptocrystalline variety of silica is ______________

a) chalcedony b) jasper c) agate d) opal
8) Cleavage angle in the pyroxenes is about ___________ degrees.

a) 45 b) 60 c) 90 d) 180
9) Which one of the following is NOT a member of carbonates ?

a) calcite b) magnesite
c) magnetite d) aragonite
10) Garnets occurs only in _______ type of rocks.

a) igneous b) sedimentary
c) metamorphic d) none of these

i) What is upper polariser called as ?
ii) How to distinguish between isotropic and anisotropic minerals using a
petrographic microscope ?
iii) What is plane polarized light ?
iv) Name any four plagioclases.
v) Name the crystalline silica minerals.
vi) Describe encrustation.

i) Describe in brief pleochroism.
ii) Explain different types of twinnings.
iii) What is extinction ? How extinction angle is measured ?
B) Write answer of any one : 4

i) Describe any four types of pseudomorphism.
ii) What is isomorphism ? Describe with examples.
*SLRW84* -3- SLR-W – 84
i) Describe upper assembly of petrological microscope.
ii) Describe phylo and tecto silicates.
iii) What are alumino-silicates ? Describe their physical, chemical and optical
properties and occurrences.
i) What are carbonates ? Describe their physical, chemical and optical properties
and occurrences.
ii) What are minerals of silicate group ? Add a note on physical, chemical and
optical properties of any five minerals.
iii) Describe chlorite group of minerals.
_______________
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper – V)
Cytology, Physiology of Bacteria and Virology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

iii) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever required.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing correct answer from the alternatives given
below : 10
1) Phospholipids are main components of ______________
a) Cell membrane b) Pili c) Flagella d) Spore
2) Initial phase of growth in which there is no increase in cell number is
called ______________
a) Log b) Death c) Lag d) Stationary
3) Group translocation plays role in transport of ______________
a) Lipids b) Sugars c) Lipoproteins d) Phospholipids
4) The first amino acid in tetrapeptide side chain is mostly ______________
a) D-alanine b) D-glutamic acid
c) L-glutamic acid d) L-alanine
5) Carboxysomes are involved in ______________activity.
a) CO2 evolution b) Photosynthesis
c) CO2 fixation d) Nitrification
6) ______________ virus adsorbs to the host with the help of tail and tail fibres.
a) HIV b) TMV c) Hepatitis d) T4
7) ______________ granules are called sudanophilic granules.
a) PHB b) Volutin c) Starch d) Sulfur
P.T.O.
8) Response of bacteria towards chemical stimulus is called ______________

a) Magnetotaxis b) Aerotaxis c) Phototaxis d) Chemotaxis
9) Lipid A, R-core region and O side chain are components of ______________
a) Phospholipid b) Lipopolysaccharide
c) Glycolipid d) Peptidoglycan
10) Peptidoglycan is absent ______________
a) Halobacterium b) E-coli
c) Lactobacillus d) Salmonella

i) Define growth rate.
ii) Define sex pili.
iii) Lipoprotein.
iv) Define photoreactivation.
v) Define thermophile with example.
vi) Lag phase.

i) Teichoic acid
ii) Chlorobium vesicles
iii) Structure of T4 phase.
B) Structure of endospore.

i) Describe Turbidostata chemostat.
ii) Explain active transport.
iii) PHB and volutin granules.

i) Effect of U.V. light on growth of Merges.
ii) Substrate level phosphorylation.
iii) Mechanism of enzyme action.
_____________
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS
Pulse and Switching Circuits (Paper – VI)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
1. Select correct alternative from the following : 10

1) The Clamper circuit is used to _________
a) Introduce a dc level to ac signal
b) Suppress variations in amplitude of the input signal
c) Obtain an output which is integral of the input signal
2) The sweep speed of a simple RC circuit is given by _________
a) I/C b) I.t/L c) Ts/RC d) V.Ts/RC
3) If the input to a differentiating circuit is a triangular wave, then the output will
be _________
a) Square wave b) Rectangular wave
c) Sawtooth d) None of the above
4) IC74121 can be used as a ________
a) Decoder b) Multiplexer c) Multivibrator d) Memory
5) In monostable multivibrator using BJT, the timing components are 47 k Ω and
0.01 μF then the gate width obtained will be _________
a) 32 μ sec b) 3.2 msec c) 32 msec d) 0.32 msec
6) As per functional block diagram of IC 555 _____________ flip flop is used.
a) D b) JK c) RS d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 86 -2- *SLRW86*
7) A bistable multivibrator ___________________

a) has two stable states
b) has two unstable states
c) oscillates between two stable states without any trigger pulse
d) is used for generating square wave
8) A transistor used as a switch is operated in

a) active region b) cut off region
c) saturation region d) cut off and saturation region
9) In astable multivibrator, if the period of the wave is twice to that of gate width
the duty cycle is
a) 100 % b) 75% c) 50% d) 25%
10) Pulsewidth of monostable multivibrator using IC555 is given by ________
a) W = 1.1 RC b) W = 0.11 RC c) W = 11 RC d) W = 1
11 RC
i) Explain need of wave shaping circuit.
ii) Define following terms with reference to time base signal.
1) Sweep time 2) Flyback time
iii) Draw the circuit diagram of astable multivibrator using NAND gates.
iv) What is the frequency of an astable multivibrator having components of

R1 = R2 = R = 10 k Ω and C1 = C2 = C = 100 PF ?
v) Draw the circuit diagram of positive clipper with input output waveforms.
vi) Draw the circuit diagram of voltage controlled oscillator using IC 555.
*SLRW86* -3- SLR-W – 86
i) Show how an RC circuit can be used as integrator.
ii) Explain working of monostable multivibrator using IC 74121.
iii) Explain general features of time base signals.
B) An IC 555 timer connected in astable mode of operation, for which

RA = 6.8 k Ω , RB = 3.3 k Ω , C = 0.1 μ F. Calculate output frequency and duty
cycle of the circuit. 4
i) Describe with circuit diagram combination clipper.
ii) Explain the use of IC 555 as a battery charger.
iii) With neat circuit diagram, explain operation of Schmitt trigger.
i) With neat circuit diagram, explain the working of UJT oscillator with constant
current source. Also draw the waveforms.
ii) Explain with neat circuit diagram the working of Miller integrator.
________________
*SLRW89* -1- SLR-W – –89
SLR-W 89
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Paper – VI)
Structural Geology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Write a correct answer from given four alternatives : 10

1) Angle made by faults plane with vertical surface is called ____________
a) dip b) throw c) heave d) hade
2) The rock Block between two parallel normal faults is uplifted to form a ridge,
is called ____________
a) Horst b) Graben c) Radial d) Enechelon
3) The highest point on the arch of an anticline is called the ____________
a) Trough b) Crest c) Limb d) None of these
4) The rock block present above the fault plane is called ____________
a) Foot wall b) Hanging wall
c) Heave d) Throw
5) Folds can be recognized in the field by studying the ____________
a) Topography b) Drainage pattern
c) Attitude of strata d) All of these
6) Limbs in the isoclinal fold are ____________ to each other.
a) Parallel b) Perpendicular
c) Inclined d) Tangential
7) Major breaks in sedimentation are called ____________
a) Confirmable b) Unconformities
c) Stratification d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 89 -2- *SLRW89*
8) A series of faults that have the same strike and dip are called the _________
a) Parallel faults b) Gravity faults
c) Oblique slip fault d) Tension fault
9) Columnar joints are the result of ____________ of Basic lava.
a) Release b) Cooling
c) Expansion d) Shearing
10) Subsurface rock beds is to be studied by ____________
a) Drilling b) Mining
c) Geophysical method d) All of these

1) What is foliation ?
2) Define Joints.
3) Overlap.
4) What is Limb in fold ?
5) Define Axial plane.
6) Define heave of fault.

1) Explain Lineation.
2) Explain Outliers.
3) Explain Inliers.
B) Write note on :
How to determine width of outcrop ? 4
4. Write any two of the following : 10

1) Explain criteria for the recognition fold in the field.
2) Explain genetic classification of Joints.
3) Explain any two types of faults.

1) Explain concept of Plate tectonics.
2) Explain recognition of unconformities in the field.
3) Explain any two types of unconformities.
_____________________
*SLR-W90* SLR-W 90
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY
Paper VI : Bacterial Genetics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


alternatives : 10
i) _____ bond connects a nitrogen base and the deoxyribose sugar in DNA
molecule.
a) Peptide b) Hydrogen c) Glycosidic d) Phosphodiester
ii) The initiation codon is represented as

a) UAA b) UAG c) AUG d) UGA
iii) The A form of DNA contains ______ no. of bases.

a) 11 b) 10 c) 9 d) 8
iv) The maleness to bacteria is due to presence of _____ plasmid.

a) R b) Col c) Ti d) F
v) Hydroxylamine reacts specifically to ______ to convert it to hydroxylaminouracil.

a) Guanine b) Cytosine c) Uracil d) Thymine
vi) Lederberg and Lederberg has developed ______ technique.

a) Pure culture b) Replica plate c) Pour plate d) Crowded
vii) ______ phage mediates restricted transduction.

a)
b) P1 c) P22 d) T4
viii) The donor in the process of transfection is ______ molecule.

a) Plasmid b) ds DNA c) Phage d) Exon
P.T.O.
SLR-W 90 *SLR-W90*
ix) The smallest unit that is undergoing mutation is known as
a) Muton b) Cistron c) Recon d) Exon
x) The development of competence is a feature of _______ process.

a) Conjugation b) Transduction
c) Transformation d) Transfection
2. Write in short (any five) : 10

i) Describe C form of DNA.
ii) Define genome.
iii) What is photoreactivation ?
iv) Define interrupted genes.
v) What are Hfr cells ?
vi) What is genetic code ?
3. A) Write in short (any two) : 6

i) Describe effect of alkylating agents.
ii) Write on fate of exogenote.
iii) Describe effect of 2-aminopurine.
B) Write on abortive transduction. 4
4. Write on any two : 10

i) Describe chemical structure and nature of bacterial DNA.
ii) Describe properties of genetic code.
iii) Describe the process of generalised transduction in bacteria.
5. Write on any two : 10

i) Describe physical properties of B form of DNA by drawing neat labelled diagram.
ii) Describe the process of transformation in bacteria.
iii) What are plasmids ? Write their properties.
_________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (Old) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY
Physical Chemistry (Paper – VII)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

ii) Draw neat diagrams and give equations wherever
necessary.
iii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iv) Use of logarithmic tables and scientific calculator is
allowed.
(At.wts. H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
1. Choose the most correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 10
1) Specific conductance is the reciprocal of

a) Conductance b) Specific resistance
c) Resistance d) Equivalent conductance
2) [111] plane of a crystal is called as ______________ plane.

a) Diagonal b) Cube-diagonal
c) Simple d) None of the above
3) The SI Unit of entropy is

a) cm–1 b) m–1
c) J.K–1 d) Cal.mol–1
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 91 -2- *SLRW91*
4) The molecule in which effective centers of +ve and –ve charges coincide is
known as ______________
a) Polar b) Non-polar
c) Active d) None of these
5) Electric current is carried in the solution by

a) Atoms b) Molecules
c) Electrons d) Ions
6) The entropy change in an isothermal irreversible process, entropy change is

______________
a) Less than zero b) Greater than zero
c) Equal to zero d) None of these
7) If transport number of Ag+ is 0.47, then that of NO3– = ___________

a) 0.48 b) 0.53
c) 1.0 d) 0.053
8) Three dimensional arrangement points in space is called ______________

a) Crystal structure b) Unit cell
c) Crystal lattice d) Lattice plane
9) H2O and H2S have finite values of dipole moment hence their structures
should be
a) Angular b) Linear
c) Non-linear d) None of these
10) One faraday is equal to ______________

a) 96.500 coulomb b) 96500 coulomb
c) 9.6500 coulomb d) 9650.0 coulomb
*SLRW91* -3- SLR-W – 91
i) Define the term molecular conductance.
ii) Define the term specific refractivity.
iii) Explain center of symmetry.
iv) What are conductors ?
v) What is absolute entropy ?
vi) State Kohlrausch’s law.

i) Explain how are the specific and equivalent conductances related to each
other.
ii) Explain how the use of dipole moment helps in the study of cis and trans
isomers.
iii) Write a precise note on migration of ions.
B) Calculate the entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion

of 5 moles of an ideal gas from a volume of 5 dm3 to a volume of 40 dm 3 at
300K. (R = 8.314 J mol–1). 4

i) Describe the factors affecting transport number.
ii) State and explain the law of crystallography.
iii) Define dipole moment. Discuss the application of dipole moment in the
determination of structure of benzene.

i) Define entropy. Give its physical significance.
ii) State Kohlrausch law. Explain its importance in the determination of solubility
of sparingly soluble salts.
iii) Describe the structure of NaCl on the basis of Bragg’s equation.
––––––––––––––––––––
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Paper – VII : Data Structures

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1) ___________ is primitive data structure.

a) Stack b) Queue c) Tree d) None of these
2) ___________ data structure is used in simulation application.

a) Stack b) Queue c) Linked list d) Tree
3) To implement ___________ sort method, queue data structure is used.

a) Bubble b) Insertion c) Quick d) Radix
4) Maximum comparing search key with elements arise fast searching process.
a) True b) False
5) Linked list is flexible than stack and queue.

a) True b) False
6) ___________ node in a tree that does not have any ancestors.

a) Leaf b) Terminal c) Root d) External
7) Bubble sort requires ___________ maximum comparisons to sort 7 elements.

a) 21 b) 25 c) 31 d) 35
8) ___________ searching requires data to be sorted first.

a) Linear b) Binary c) Sequential d) Hashing
P.T.O.
9) If preorder traversal of binary tree is ZPSQRTU then its post order is ___________
a) SRPQUTZ b) SRQPTUZ c) SQRPUTZ d) SRQPUTZ
10) Stack is LIFO data structure.

a) True b) False
2. Answer any five of the followings : 10

1) What is Data structure ?
2) Why queue is called FIFO data structure ?
3) What is drawback of sequential access ?
4) Define : ‘Sorting’ and ‘Searching’.
5) Define : ‘Multi-dimensional array’. Write its declaration syntax.
6) Write working of PUSH() and POP() operations of stack.
3. A) Attempt any two of the followings : 6

1) Explain priority queue in details.
2) Write algorithm to search node in binary search tree.
3) Write a program that reverses each element of one dimensional array.
B) Write a program to implement insertion sort method. 4
4. Answer any two of the followings : 10

1) Define “Doubly circular linked list” and implement the function that reverses it .
2) Write a program which converts infix expression into postfix form.
3) What is ADT ? Explain ADT for ‘Queue’ data structure.

1) What is Traversal ? Explain tree traversal methods in details.
2) Write a program to implement linear queue.
3) What is Hashing ? Explain different Hash functions.
_____________________
*SLR-W93* SLR-W 93
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) (Old) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY
Analytical and Industrial Inorganic Chemistry (Paper VIII)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

2) Draw neat labelled diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative and rewrite the following sentences : 10
1) A chemical reaction between a titrant and titrand is called as
a) End point b) Titration curve
c) Titration d) Titrand
2) Activated sludge process belongs to _______ treatment.
a) Pre-primary b) Primary c) Tertiary d) Secondary
3) Digestion is nothing but process of
a) Ageing b) Ignition c) Nucleation d) Coagulation
4) The optimum temperature for maximum yield of H2SO4 by contact process is
a) 300 to 450°C b) 400 to 450°C c) 600 to 700°C d) 500 to 550°C
5) Methyl orange is a _______ organic base.
a) Strong b) Weak c) Medium d) Suitable
6) _______ increase the efficiency of catalyst.
a) Reactant b) Product c) Temperature d) Promoter
7) Sedimentation is a _______ process.
a) Settling b) Chemical c) Biological d) Coagulation
8) The process of forming a precipitate is known as
a) Precipitation b) Coagulation c) Peptization d) Flocculation
P.T.O.
SLR-W 93 *SLR-W93*
9) Ionic theory of indicator of acid-base indicator was proposed by
a) Arrhenius b) Ostwald
c) Bronsted Lowry d) Pearson
10) For the production of good yield of SO3 from SO2 the proportion of O2 : SO2 is
a) 1 : 3 b) 3 : 1 c) 1 : 1 d) 3 : 2

i) Give the structure of Eriochrom Black T.
ii) Define alloy steel.
iii) What is chlorination ?
iv) Draw neat labelled diagram of manufacturing plant for ammonia by Habers
process.
v) Give any two uses of catalyst in industrial process.
vi) What is metal ion indicator ?

i) What are the types of EDTA titration ? Explain direct titration.
ii) What is heterogeneous catalysis ? Give two examples.
iii) Explain any two heat treatment process on steel.
B) Explain the effect of catalyst and concentration on the yield of ammonia by
Habers process. 4
4. Write short note on any two of the following : 10

i) L.D. Process
ii) Types of water pollutants
iii) Characteristics of catalytic reaction.

i) What is potable water ? Explain removal of suspended matter by
i) Prolonged storage ii) Screening and ii) Sedimentation
ii) Give merits of organic precipitants.
iii) With the help of neutralization curve explain the choice of indicator for titration
of weak acid and strong base.
_________________
*SLRW95* SLR-W 95
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester IV) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS
Paper No. VII : Optics (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 26-4-2016

iii) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
iv) Use of logarithmic table and calculator is allowed.
v) Answer to every question must begin on a new page.
1. Select and write the most appropriate answer from the given alternatives for each
sub-question. 10
i) The total number of cardinal points an optical system have
a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six
ii) An angle of inclination with the direction of incident beam of glass plates
used in Michelsons interferometer is
a) 80° b) 60° c) 45° d) 30°
iii) Resolving power of F.P. Interferometer as compared with Michelsons
interferometer is
a) Smaller b) Much more smaller
c) Higher d) Very much higher
iv) The area of nth Fresnels half period zone is given by
a)
b
b) 2 b

c) 3 b

d) n b

v) Resolving power of a plane diffraction grating with N number of lines for nth
order is
a) b) c) nN d) 2nN
N n
n N
P.T.O.
SLR-W 95 -2- *SLRW95*
vi) Quarter wave plate produces a phase difference between the emergent E
and O components of light
a) b) c) d) 2

"
vii) If Ve is velocity of extra-ordinary light and Vo is velocity of ordinary light then

along the optic axis of a crystal
a) Ve > Vo b) Ve < Vo c) Ve = Vo d) Ve = 2Vo
viii) Refractive index of core material is n1 refractive index of cladding material
is n2. For an optical fibre
a) n1 > n2 b) n1 < n2 c) n1 = n2 d)
n
n
ix) The distance of an object and its image from the corresponding focal points
are 9 cm and 4 cm respectively for a thick lens in air. Focal length of this
thick lens is
a) 3 cm b) 6 cm c) 9 cm d) 12 cm
x) The radius of the first Fresnels half period zone required to focus parallel
beam of light of wavelength 5000 at distance 2m away is

a) 103 m b) 102 m c) 101 m d) 10 m

i) For a refracting optical system, state Lagranges equation of magnification.
ii) What is a Sharpness of fringes ?
iii) State the two points of comparison between zone plate and convex lens.
iv) What is a condition for geometrical resolution ?
v) State any two applications of an optical fibre.
vi) Calculate the thickness of a half wave plate for the light of wave length 5890 .

(Given

1 .
).
5 5 ,
A
1 . 5
*SLRW95* -3- SLR-W 95

i) What is a zone plate ? How it is constructed ?
ii) What are consonance and dissonance in Michelsons interferometer ?
iii) A doublet of the sodium source of light having components : 5896 and

5890 . Find the minimum number of lines necessary for a plane diffraction

grating to resolve this doublet in the second order.

B) For an optical fibre, define the following terms : 4
a) Pulse dispersion.
b) Numerical aperture.

i) Explain the construction and working of Fabry-Perot interferometer.
ii) Derive an expression for resolving power of a prism.
iii) In an experiment of Fresnels diffraction at straight edge, the point source of
light of wavelength 6000 and screen are at distance 5 m and 2 m away from

the edge of an obstacle respectively. Calculate the position of the first two
points of minimum intensity and their separation.

i) For an optical system, derive the relationship between the focal lengths and
refractive indices.
ii) Describe an experiment of a polarimeter to determine the specific rotation of
an optically active solution.
A 20% sugar solution is taken in the tube of polarimeter of length 20 cm
rotates the plane of polarisation of light through 24°. Calculate the specific
rotation of sugar.
___________
*SLRW96* SLR-W 96
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) Examination, 2016

BIOCHEMISTRY
Paper III : Nutrition and Metabolism (Old)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
3) Write biochemical reactions wherever necessary.
1. Write following substances selecting most correct answer from given options. 10
1) Cobalt is a component of Vitamin
a) B1 b) B2 c) B6 d) B12
2) Du Bois formula is used to findout __________ of an individual.
a) Weight b) Height
c) Body surface area d) Age
3) One mole of ATP on hydrolysis to ADP produces __________ Kilocalories of
energy per mole.
a) 2.2 b) 6.8 c) 7.3 d) 11.8
4) In a respiratory chain succinate gives its electrons to
a) NAD+ b) CoQ10 c) Cytochrome c. d) FAD
5) The end product of Krebs cycle is
a) Oxaloacetate b) CO2 + H2O c) Citrate d) Pyruvate
6) Biosynthesis of glycogen from glucose is called
a) Gluconeogenesis b) Glycolysis
c) Glycogenesis d) Glycogenolysis
7) __________ is an unusual amino acid involved in urea cycle.
a) Ornithine b) Arginine
c) Aspartic acid d) Glycine
P.T.O.
SLR-W 96 *SLRW96*
8) Acetyl CoA formed during -oxidation of fatty acids is generally

a) Further metabolised by TCA cycle

b) Excreted through urine
c) Remains circulating in blood
d) Converted back to triglycerides
9) pH of human blood is maintained in the range ________ 0.05.

a) 6.8 b) 7.4 c) 8.2 d) None of these

10) Antidiuretic hormone increases reabsorption of _________ by renal tubules.
a) Na+ b) Glucose c) Water d) Phosphate

1) In general which tissue is affected due to lack of water soluble vitamins in
diet ? Why ?
2) Differentiate between mineral salts and trace elements used in nutrition. Give
two examples of each.
3) What is negative nitrogen balance in nutrition ? What is its effect ?
4) When the process of glycogenolysis takes place ? Name its substrate and
product.
5) What happens to the ammonia formed by deamination of amino acids ?
6) What are the functions of water in the body ?
3. A) Answer any two from below : 6

1) What is respiratory quotient ?
2) What is role of nicotinamide nucleotide in respiratory chain ?
3) How are acids produced by the body ?
B) Write a note on-phenylketonuria. 4

1) Write and explain the reactions of -oxidation of fatty acids.

2) Write down respiratory chain and explain oxidative phosphorylation.

3) Write and explain reactions of citric acid cycle.
5. Attempt any two from below : 10

1) Illustrate the importance of mineral salts and vitamins in diet.
2) How is the Basal Metabolic Rate measured ?
3) Write an account of renal mechanism of regulation of blood pH.

Seat
No.

PLANT PROTECTION (Paper – III)
Introduction to Weeds and Non-Insect Pests

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing the correct alternative : (1×10=10)

1) Mites and Rats are the ______________ pests.
a) Non-insect b) Insect c) Parasitic d) Both b) and c)
2) ______________ are the non-insect pests.
a) Mites b) Birds c) Snails d) All the above
3) ______________ is an examples of weedicides.
a) Gendimethalin b) Dendimethalin
c) Pendimethalin d) Wendimethalin
4) Classification of weedicides is based on ______________
a) Chemical nature b) Mode of action
c) Range of effectiveness d) All the above
5) Weed management by ______________ is the method of biological control.
a) Insects b) Virus c) Bacteria d) All the above
6) Ploughing is the ______________ methods of weed management.
a) Biological b) Cultural c) Physical d) Mechanical
7) English name of Argemone is ______________
a) Prickly poppy b) Wrickly poppy
c) Opium poppy d) Poppy
P.T.O.
8) Parthenium hysterophorus reproduces by ______________

a) Grafts b) Seeds c) Cuttings d) Spores
9) ______________ weeds belong to study of special weeds.
a) Poisonous b) Non-poisonous
c) Insecticides d) Pesticides
10) Classification of weeds is mainly based on ______________
a) Mycology b) Cytology c) Ecology d) Physiology
2. Answer any five of the following : (2×5=10)

i) Define crop association.
ii) What is weed ?
iii) What is reproduction ?
iv) Define sanitation.
v) Give the use of 2,4-D.
vi) Write reproduction of Cynodon dactylon.
3. A) Answer any two of the following : (2×3=6)

i) Give the losses caused by weeds.
ii) Explain the biological methods of weed management.
iii) Write the ecology of Euphorbia hirta.
B) Explain the morphology, reproduction and control of Argemone maxicana. 4
4. Answer any two of the following : (2×5=10)

i) Explain the nature of damage and their management by snail and slugs.
ii) Describe any two aquatic weeds w.r.to morphology and reproduction.
iii) Write any two cultural methods of weed management.

i) Explain the formulation and use of Alachlor (Lasso 50 E.C.) Weedicides.
ii) Give the field sanitation and cover crops methods of weed management.
iii) Explain the Mites as non-insect pests w.r.to damage and management.
_____________
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Paper – VIII)
Modern Physics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

iii) Use of log tables and calculators is allowed.
iv) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.

i) The special theory of relativity was developed by
a) Isaac Newton b) Galileo
c) Michelson and Morley d) Albert Einstein
ii) Relativity involves the relation between
a) Space and time
b) Mass and energy
c) Space and time as well as mass and energy
d) Mass and time
iii) Radiation exhibits _________ nature.
a) only particle b) dual
c) only wave d) mechanical wave
C
iv) If the particle velocity is , then the phase velocity of the wave associated
2
with the particle is
C 2 C
a) b) 2C c) d)
2 C 4
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 98 -2- *SLRW98*
v) The magnitude of spin quantum number is always

1 1
a) 1 b) c) − d) 0
2 2
vi) __________ experiment proves the spin associated with electron.

a) Zeeman effect b) Stark effect
c) Compton effect d) Stern and Gerlach
vii) The magnitude of Compton wavelength is

a) 0.0242 A° b) 0.0484A° c) 1A° d) 0.200A°
viii) The phenomenon in which the frequency or wavelength of incident x-ray photon
changes due to scattering is known as
a) Zeeman effect b) Photoelectric effect
c) Raman effect d) Compton effect
ix) The energy released in a every fission of uranium nucleus (U235) is about
a) 100 MeV b) 200 MeV c) 200 KeV d) 500 MeV
x) Apsara, Zerlina, Cirus, Dhruva, Kamini are the names of the

a) Stars b) Electronic devices
c) Nuclear reactors d) New elements
2. Attempt any five : 10

i) What are inertial and noninertial frames of references ?
ii) State the Einstein’s postulates of special theory of relativity.
iii) Define the particle velocity and phase velocity.
iv) State Pauli’s exclusion principle.
v) What is a chain reaction ?
vi) What is L.S. coupling ?
*SLRW98* -3- SLR-W – 98

i) Explain how Bohr’s quantum condition for atomic structure can be obtained on
the basis of matter waves.
ii) What is Zeeman effect ? Explain in short normal and anomalous Zeeman
effect.
iii) Discuss in short about atomic energy programme in India.
B) A one meter rod is kept in a satellite with its length along the direction of
motion. If the satellite has velocity 0.8C. Calculate the length of the rod as
measured by an observer a) in the satellite, and b) in the stationary
laboratory. 4
i) Explain De Broglie’s concept of matter waves and hence write down the
properties of matter waves.
ii) How Compton effect is verified experimentally ?
iii) What are the basic elements of nuclear reactor ? Draw a labelled diagram of
a nuclear reactor illustrating its general scheme.
i) Obtain an expression for variation of mass with velocity.
ii) Explain space quantization and spin of electron. Hence describe the quantum
numbers associated with vector atom model.
————————

Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (Old) Examination, 2016

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper – IV)
Molecular Biochemistry and Diseases

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

1. Write following sentences selecting most correct answer from given options. 10
1) In DNA amount in mole of guanine is equal to amount of ___________

a) adenine b) thymine c) cytosine d) uracil
2) The linkage between sugar and base in nucleic acid is __________ linkage.
a) Phosphodiester b) N- β glycosidic
c) Peptide d) Amide
3) DNA replication is semiconservative was demonstrated by _________

a) Watson and Crick b) Jacob and Manod
c) Meselson and Stahl d) Okazaki
4) Transcription means biosynthesis of _________

a) DNA b) RNA c) Protein d) Polysaccharide
5) _____________ amino acids have a single code word each.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
6) Coordinated unit of genetic expression and control in bacteria is called as

___________
a) Cistron b) Constitutive gene
c) Operon d) Operator gene
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 99 -2- *SLRW99*
7) Antibody binding site of IgG is present on __________ part of its polypeptide

chains.
a) Variable b) Constant
c) Only light chains d) Only heavy chains
8) Mature insulin molecule contains __________ interchain disulphide bridges.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
9) HIV affects primarily ___________ system of body and destroys it.

a) circulatory b) nervous c) immune d) muscular
10) Didanosin drug used in AIDS is ___________ drug.

a) protein inhibitor b) nucleoside analogue
c) C-AMP suppressor d) membrane transport inhibitor

1) What is bacterial lawn ?
2) How is a child immunised by his mother ?
3) Which cells are affected by HIV infection ?
4) Draw a schematic structure of insulin.
5) Name various carcinogenic substances.
6) What is immune memory ?
3. A) Solve any two : 6

1) How are antibodies formed according to clonal selection theory ?
2) Explain the mechanism of action of AZT (azidothymidine) on HIV.
3) Illustrate the terms-nuclear bases, nucleosides and nucleotides.
B) Draw a labelled diagram of HIV. 4
4. Answer any two from below : 10

1) State and explain salient features of genetic code.
2) What is lac operon ? How does it functions ?
3) Discuss- λ -(Lambda) phage as a cloning vector.

a) Describe the structure of immunoglobulin G. (IgG).
b) Write an account of different types of acquired immunity.
c) How preproinsulin is converted to active insulin ?
————————
*SLRW100* SLR-W 100
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester IV) (Old) Examination, 2016

PLANT PROTECTION
Paper IV : Insect Pest and Their Management
Day and Date : Wednesday, 27-4-2016
ii) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answer from the given alternatives. 10
1) ____________ is the pest of stored grains.
a) Jassid b) Pulse bettle c) Fruit borer d) Thrip
2) ____________ is the most serious pest of gram.
a) Cut worm b) Stem borer c) Pod borer d) Red spider
3) ____________ is the plant origin insecticide.
a) DDT b) Pongram c) Carbofuran d) Diazinon
4) A chemical or physical source which induces insects to move towards it is
called
a) Attractant b) Repellent
c) Antifeedant d) Chemosterilant
5) ____________ is the pest of tomato.
a) Wooly aphid b) Fruit borer c) Stem borer d) Red spider
6) ____________ is used as contact poison obtained from tobacco plant.
a) Nimbin b) Nimbidine c) Nicotine d) Pyrethrin
7) Holotricha consanguinea is the scientific name of
a) White grub b) Wooly aphid
c) Mango jassid d) Brinjal fruit borer
8) ____________ are insect pests.
a) Birds b) Snails c) Rats d) Aphids
9) ____________ is the pest of sugarcane.
a) White grub b) Fruit borer c) Wooly aphid d) Pod borer
10) There are ____________ stages in the life cycle of insect.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 P.T.O.
SLR-W 100 *SLRW100*

i) Give the nature of damage caused by white grub.
ii) Give the marks of identification of Red Spider.
iii) What are the pheromones ?
iv) What you know about microbial insecticides ?
v) Give the mouth parts of pod borer.
vi) Give the host range of thrips.

i) What is the effect of insecticides on the respiratory and nervous system
of insect ?
ii) Give the host range and damage caused by pulse bettle.
iii) State the stomach insecticides.
B) Give the life cycle of wooly aphid. 4

i) Describe the different principles of pest control.
ii) Explain the general characters of typical insect w.r.t. wings and types of legs.
iii) Give the nature of damage and management of mango jassid.

i) Give the classification of insect pests based on mouth parts.
ii) Give an account of Jowar stem borer w.r.t. scientific name, marks of
identification and management.
iii) Describe the life cycle of rice weevil and give its management.
___________
*SLRW101* -1- SLR-W – 101
SLR-W – 101
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Paper – VII)
Continuous Probability Distributions – II

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
N. B. : i) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.


i) Gamma distribution is
a) Negatively skewed b) + vely skewed
c) Mesokurtic d) None of these
ii) Points of inflexion of normal probability curve are
a) ( μ – σ , μ + σ )
b) ( μ – 2 σ , μ + 2 σ )
c) ( μ – 3 σ , μ + 3 σ )
d) None of these
iii) Let X ~ N( μ , σ2 ), then the values of the coefficients of β1 and β2 are

a) (0, 1) b) (0, 3)
c) ( μ , σ2 ) d) None of these
iv) Suppose X follows student’s ‘t’ distribution with n d.f. then Var(X) =
n−2
a) b) – n – 2
n
n
c) d) None of these
n−2
v) If t ~ tn then the variate t2 follows

a) F(n, 1) b) F(1, n)
c) F(n, n) d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 101 -2- *SLRW101*
vi) If z ~ N(0, 1) then P(–2.58 < z < 2.58) =

a) 0.95 b) 0.99 c) 0.05 d) 0.01
vii) For large λ , gamma distribution becomes
a) symmetric b) +vely skewed
c) –vely skewed d) none of these
viii) Let r.u. X has chi-square distribution with ‘n’ d.f. As n is very large, X has
____________ distribution.
a) N( μ , σ2 ) b) N(n, 2n) c) N(0, 1) d) None of these
ix) Mean of F distribution with 4 and 8 d.f. is
2 4
a) 4 b) c) d) None of these
3 3
x) The mode of beta distribution of first kind with (3, 4) is
2 3 4
a) b) c) d) None of these
5 7 7
α
i) If X ~ G( α , λ ) then show that CX ~ G ⎜⎛ , λ ⎞⎟ where C is constant.
⎝C ⎠
ii) Define chi-square variate with one d.f. and write the p.d.f. of chi-square
distribution with ‘n’ d.f.
iii) If X is a r.v. with p.d.f.
1 2
1 e− 8 ( X − 5 )
f(x ) = ; – ∞< x < ∞.
2 2π
Find i) E(3X – 2) ii) Var(2X + 5).
⎛ σ2 ⎞
iv) If X1, X2, ... , Xn are iid N( μ , σ2 ) variables then show that X ~ N ⎜⎜ μ , ⎟⎟ .
⎝ n⎠
v) Show that mean of ‘t’ distribution with n d.f. is zero.
vi) Show that uniform distribution is a particular case of beta distribution of first kind.
*SLRW101* -3- SLR-W – 101

i) Obtain m.g.f. of chi-square distribution with n d.f.
ii) Find the harmonic mean of beta distribution of second kind.
iii) Obtain mode of gamma distribution with two parameters α and λ .
B) Write an expression for (2r)th central moment of ‘t’ – distribution with n degrees
μ 2r n(2r − 1) n
of freedom. Hence show that = ;r < . 4
μ 2r − 2 (n − 2r ) 2

i) Find mean and variance of the beta distribution of first kind.
ii) Obtain mode of chi-square distribution with ‘n’ d.f.
iii) If X and Y are two independent gamma variates with parameters (α, λ 1)
X
and (α, λ 2 ) resp. Obtain the distributions of U = X + Y and V = .
Y

i) State and prove the relation between ‘t’ and ‘F’ variates.
ii) Obtain variance of the F-distribution with (n1, n2) d.f.
_____________________
*SLRW104* SLR-W – 104
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part-II) (Semester-IV) (Old) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Paper – VII)
Animal Diversity – IV

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Select the appropriate answer and rewrite the sentences. 10
1) Rat belongs to order
a) Squamata b) Rodentia
c) Synapsida d) Rhynchocephalia
2) Digestion in stomach is called as __________ digestion.
a) Gastric b) Intestinal c) Duodenal d) Complete
3) Pulmonary vein curry oxygenated blood towards the
a) Heart b) Kidney c) Liver d) Intestine
4) Presence of hairy covering on the body is found in __________ class.
a) Amphibia b) Reptilia c) Aves d) Mammalia
5) The greenish fluid secreted by liver of rat is called
a) Bile b) Gastric juice c) Saliva d) Urine
6) In rat ________ are non nucleated.
a) W.B.Cs b) R.B.Cs
c) Blood Platelets d) Thrombocytes
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 104 -2- -2- *SLRW104*
7) Poison gland in snake __________ shaped.
a) Bean b) Pear c) Almond d) Grain
8) Migration of birds from East to West and vice versa is called
a) Longitudinal b) Latitudinal c) Altitudinal d) Total
9) Pterosaurus is
a) Mesozoic reptile b) Poisonous snake
c) Non poisonous d) Semi poisonous
2,1,2,3
10) is dental formula of
2,1,2,3
a) Sheep b) Cat c) Dog d) Man
2. Write short notes on (any five). 10
i) Salient features of Aves
ii) R.B.Cs of rat
iii) Perching feet of birds
iv) First aid treatment of snake bite
v) Longitudinal migration
vi) Functions of bile.

1) Mud probing beak of birds.
2) Digestion in stomach of rat.
3) Poisonous apparatus of snake.
B) Functions of brain of rat. 4

*SLRW104* -3- -3- SLR-W – 104
1) Describe internal ear of rat.
2) Monotreames.
3) Describe dentition in human.
1) Describe excretory system of rat and add note on process of excretion.
2) Describe different mesozoic reptiles.
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRW105* SLR-W 105
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) (Old) Examination, 2016

STATISTICS (Paper VIII)
Applied Statistics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

i) Variation in the items produced in a factory may be due to

a) chance factors b) assignable causes
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above
ii) The value of Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) < 1 indicates

a) increase in population b) reduction in population
c) population remains constant d) all of these
iii) Accepting H0 when H0 is false is

a) Type I error b) Type II error
c) Type III error d) None of these
iv) Which of the following leads to two tailed test ?

a) H1 : p = 0.5 b) H1 : p
0.5
c) H1 : p > 0.5 d) H1 : p < 0.5
v) Control charts consist of

a) three control lines b) upper and lower control limits
c) the level of the process d) all the above
P.T.O.
SLR-W 105 -2- *SLRW105*
vi) Level of significance is the probability of
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
vii) The number of possible samples of size n out of N population units without
replacement is
a) N
n
b) Nn
c) n2 d) n!
viii) Students t test is applicable for __________ samples.
a) small b) large
c) any size d) none of these
ix) To test for independence of attributes which of the following tests is used
a) Normal b) t
c)
d) F
x) To test for the variance of normal population the test statistic used is
a) Normal b)
c) t d) F
i) Define Gross Fertility Rate (GFR) and Total Fertility Rate (TFR).
ii) Explain what is a null hypothesis. Give an example.
iii) Explain what is a composite hypothesis. Give an example.
iv) Explain sample with illustration.
v) Explain the term fraction defective.
vi) Explain census survey with illustration.

*SLRW105* -3- SLR-W 105
i) Write the standard errors of the following :

a) Sample mean
b) Sample proportion
c) Difference of two sample means
ii) Explain the procedure of setting a control chart for fraction defective in a
production process with fixed sample size.
iii) Explain Type I and Type II errors.
B) Prove the following : 4
For the 2 x 2 contingency table, prove that the chisquare test for independence
gives
N ( a d b c )

( a c ) ( a b ) ( c d ) ( b d )
i) Explain the construction of :

chart when standards are given.
ii) Explain the methods of sampling.
iii) Explain the test procedure for testing the goodness of fit.
1) With usual notations, prove that V (yn) = .

N n

N n

2) a) Distinguish between process control and product control.

b) Explain the procedure to test for the significance of the difference between
two population means based on two random samples from two independent
normal populations.

*SLRW108* SLR-W – 108
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Old) (Semester – IV) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Paper – VIII)
Histology and Physiology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Select the appropriate answer from those given below of each question and
complete the sentence. 10
1) The epithelium present in cornea, oesophagus and vagina is ____________
type.
a) glandular b) ciliated c) columnar d) muscular
2) The pancreas is ___________ type of digestive gland.
a) exocrine b) endocrine c) heterocrine d) apocrine
3) ___________ cells of liver secretes bile juice.
a) Kupffer’s b) Hepatic c) Leydig d) Sertoli
4) The ovary performs the function of ___________
a) spermatogenesis b) glycogenesis
c) gluconeogenesis d) oogenesis
5) ACTH is secreted by ___________
a) adrenal gland b) thyroid gland
c) thymus gland d) pituitary gland
6) Test tube baby technique was firstly discovered by ___________
a) R. Edward & P. Steptoe b) Sherrington
c) Louis Pasteur d) Jemes Watson
7) Structurally antibodies are ___________ proteins.
a) Z-shaped b) Y-shaped c) W-shaped d) X-shaped
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 108 *SLRW108*
8) Oral contraceptives are commonly called as ___________

a) Pills b) IUCD c) IUD d) Sterilization
9) The duration of estrous cycle in rat is ____________ days.
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 28
10) Colostrum is secreted by breast contains _____________
a) milk b) milk with sugar
c) milk with salt d) milk without fat

i) Graaffian follicle
ii) V.S. of tooth
iii) Amniocentesis
iv) Malpighian body
v) Functions of growth hormone
vi) Role of Sertoli cells.

i) Describe the ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
ii) Describe the chemical contraceptive methods.
iii) Describe the structure of nerve cell.
B) Describe the male sex hormones. 4

i) Describe the humoral immunity.
ii) Describe the oestrous cycle in rat.
iii) Describe the hormonal control of testicular activity.

i) Describe the different hormones secreted by the adenohypophysis of pituitary
gland.
ii) Describe any two types of epithelial tissues with reference to their location,
structure and functions.
————————

*SLRZ109* SLR-W – 109

Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Paper – VII)
Differential Equations

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

d2 y dy
1) The equation P0 2
+ P1
+ P2 = 0, where p0, p 1, p2 are the functions of
dx dx
x, y and if it is solvable for p, then it takes the form _____
a) [p – f1 (x, y)] [p – f 2 (x, y)] = 0
b) [x – f1 (y, p)] [x – f2 (y, p)] = 0
c) [y – f1 (x, p)] [y – f2 (x, p)] = 0
d) None of these
d 2y dy
2) To remove the first order derivative from the equation 2 + P + Qy = R ,
dx dx
where P, Q, R are functions of x or constants we take u = _____
1 1
a) e 2 ∫ Pdx b) e − 2 ∫Pdx c) e ∫ Pdx d) e − ∫ Pdx
3) The necessary condition for integrability of the total differential equation

A ⋅ d r = Pdx + Qdy + Rdz = 0 where A = P i + Q j + R k and r = x i + yj + z k is
________
a) A × curl A = 0 b) A × ∇ A = 0
c) A ⋅ curl A = 0 d) A ⋅ ∇ A = 0
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 109 -2- *SLRZ109*
4) The condition of integrability is satisfied by the equation Pdx + Qdy + Rdz = 0,
then this equation is known as _____ equation.
a) Linear b) Cauchy -Euler
c) Clairaut’s d) Exact
dx dy dz
5) If P1, Q1, R1 is a set of multipliers for solving the equation = = ,
P Q R
then to get the solution we must have _____
a) PP1 + QQ1 + RR1 = 0 b) PP1 + QQ1 + RR1 ≠ 0
c) P1Q1 + Q1R1 + R1P1 = 0 d) P1Q1 + Q1R1 + R1P1 ≠ 0
n−1
dn y
n n−1 d y
6) a 0 (a + bx ) n
+ a 1( a + bx ) n−1
+ ... + a ny = X, where a0, a1, ...., an, a, b
dx dx
are constants and X is function of x only then it is called as _____ equation.
a) Lagrange’s linear b) Lengendre’s linear
c) Pfaffian differential d) None of these
d 2y dy
7) y = x2 is the part of the solution in C.F. of
2
+P + Qy = R where P, Q, R
dx dx
are functions of x or constants if ________
a) 1 + P + Q = 0 b) 1 – P + Q = 0
c) 2 + 2Px + Qx2 = 0 d) P + Qx = 0
8) The differential equation of the form given by y = x F (p) + f (p) is known as
______ equation.
a) Lagrange’s b) Cauchy’s
c) Clairaut’s d) None of these
9) To reduce homogeneous linear differential equation to the differential equation
with the constant coefficients we use the substitution as ______
a) x = log z b) z = logx
c) z = e ∫ Pdx d) None of these
2 ⎛ py ⎞ 2 ⎛ py ⎞
10) The equation y = ⎜ ⎟ x + f ⎜ ⎟ is reduced to Clairaut’s form by the
⎝ x ⎠ ⎝ x ⎠
substitution ______
a) y2 = v b) eax = u, eby = v
c) x2 = u, y2 = v d) None of these
*SLRZ109* -3- SLR-W – 109
1) Solve x 2p 2 + xyp − σy 2 = 0
2) Solve y + px = x4p2
dx dy dz
3) Solve = 2 = .
xy y zxy − 2 x 2
4) Test for integrability

(yz + xyz) dx+ (zx + xyz)dy+ (xy + xyz)dz = 0.
5) Reduce to the Clairaut’s form by the substitution
1 1
x= , y = and solve y2 (y – xp) = x4p2.
u v
6) Reduce the differential equation
{ (x + 1) D
4 3
}
+ 2(x + 1)3D 2 − (x + 1)2D + (x + 1) y =
1
x +1
to homogeneous linear differential equation.
1) Solve y2 . logy = xpy + p2
dx dy dz
2) Solve = =
y(x + y ) + az x(x + y ) − az x + y
3) Solve (exy + ez) dx + (eyz + ex)dy + (e y – exy – eyz) dz = 0.
d 2y
2 dy 1
B) Solve x + x − y = 0 given that x + is the known integral. 4
dx 2 dx x

1) Explain how to solve linear differential equation of second order by the
reduction of its order
2) Solve (x2D2 – 3xD + 5)y = x2.sin (logx)
SLR-W – 109 -4- *SLRZ109*
3) Transform the differential equation
d2 y dy
cosx 2
+ sin x − 2y cos3 x = 2 cos 5 x
dx dx
by changing to independent variable z = sinx and solve it.
d 2y dy
1) Reduce the differential equation 2 + P + Qy = R
dx dx
Where P, Q, R are functions of x or constants to its normal form and then

d 2y dy 2
solve − 4x + (4x 2 − 1)y = −3e x . sinzx .
dx 2 dx
2) State and prove necessary condition for integrability of the total differential
equation Pdx + Qdy + Rdz = 0 where P, Q, R are functions of x, y, z and
y2 + z2 − x 2
then find f (z) for which dx − ydy + f (z)dz = 0 is integrable and
2x
hence solve it.
__________________
*SLRW110* SLR-W 110
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Old)
Paper VII : Plant Physiology and Cytogenetics

Instructions : 1) All questions carry equal marks.
2) Question 1 is compulsory.
1. Rewrite the following sentences using correct answer : 10

1) _________ BGA is capable to nitrogen fixation.
a) Spirogyra b) Nostoc c) Sargassum d) Ectocrpus
2) The translocation of organic substances through transport tissue is called
a) Phloem transport b) Xylem transport c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
3) During night, stomata are open in
a) C3 Plants b) C4 Plants c) C2 Plants d) CAM Plant
4) _________ is an example of aerobic bacteria.
a) Azotobacter b) Aerobacter
c) Clostridium d) Nostoc
5) C4 cycle is known as
a) HSK pathway b) Calvin cycle
c) CAM pathway d) Darwin pathway
6) Turner syndrome is caused by _________ genotype.
a) XO b) XXY c) XXX d) XYY
7) Separation of linked gene is called
a) Linkage b) Crossingover
c) Segregation d) Genetic mutation
P.T.O.
SLR-W 110 *SLRW110*
8) Klinefelters syndrome has _________ number of chromosome.

a) 45 b) 46 c) 47 d) 44
9) Coupling and repulsion phenomenon was concerned with
a) Crossing over b) Mutation c) Linkage d) All of these
10) Trisomy and monosomy is represented by
a) 2n 1 and 2n + 1 b) 2n + 1 and 2n 1
c) 2n and 2n + 1 d) 2n and 2n 1
2. Write any five of the following : 10

1) Define dimorphic chloroplast.
2) What is apoplast ?
3) Define non symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
4) What are CAM ?
5) What is linkage ?
6) What is deletion ?
3. A) Write any two of the following : 6

1) Describe in brief Mass-flow hypothesis.
2) Significance of meiosis.
3) Explain break and exchange theory.
B) What is coupling and repulsion theory. 4

1) Explain mechanism of crossing over.
2) What is inversion explain with example.
3) Explain the mechanism of CO2 fixation in CAM plants.
5. Write any one of the following : 10

1) Cyclic photophosphorylation.
2) Explain the mechanism of CO2 fixation in C4 plants and distinguish between
C3 and C4 pathway.
___________
*SLRW111* SLR-W – 111
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS
Abstract Algebra (Paper – VIII)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative of each of the following : 10

1) (N, ⋅ ) is not a group since it does not satisfy property ___________
a) Closed b) Associative c) Identify d) Inverse
2) Order of alternating group A6 is ___________
a) 360 b) 720 c) 6 d) None of these
3) A relation ~ is symmetric if for p, q ∈ s
a) p ~ q ⇒ p ~ p b) p ~ q ⇒ q ~ p c) p ~ q ⇒ q ~ q d) None of these
4) If p|q and q|r then
a) r|p b) r|q c) p|r d) none of these
5) Let f : G → G′ be a mapping, then fishomomorphism if f ____________
a) isinto b) isonto
c) preserves operations d) none of these
6) A subgroup N of a group G is normal if for n ∈ N and g ∈ G such that
a) gnp −1 ∈ N b) ngn−1 ∈ N c) n−1gn ∈ N d) none of these

7) The value of the expression [2] ⋅ [ −7] in Z5 is ______________
a) [0] b) [1] c) [2] d) [3]
8) A subgroup containing only the identity element of the group G is called
_____________
a) trivial b) nontrivial c) proper d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 111 *SLRW111*
#
9) The units in Z 7 are ___________
a) {1, 2, 3, 4} b) {1, 3, 5} c) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5,6} d) none of these
10) The order of the cyclic permutation (1 2 3) (3 5 7) is __________
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
⎛ 1 2 3 4 5 6⎞ ⎛ 1 2 3 4 5 6⎞
1) If α = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ and β = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ and find α 2 ⋅ β .
⎝ 3 1 4 5 6 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 4 1 3 6 5 ⎠
2) Define equivalence relation.
3) Define group with respect to addition.
4) Prove that every cyclic group is abelian.
5) Find all subgroups of Z12.
6) Compute ([4] ⋅ [3]) + ([3] ⋅ [4]) in Z5.

1) Prove that if G is group then for any a, b ∈ G (ab)–1 = b–1a–1.
2) Let f : G → G′ be a homomorphism, then show that f(e) = e′ where e and
e′ are identity element of G and G′ .
3) Solve the equation (12)x = (123) in S3.
B) Does the following set form a group (I, Q) where Q is defined as
a Q b = a + b +1. 4

1) Find the gcd and write it as a linear combination of the two given integers
(1001, 33).
2) If a, b are any two elements of group G then show that the equations ax = b
and ya = b have unique solution in (G, ⋅ ).
3) Let G and G′ be two groups and f : G → G′ is a homomorphism then prove
that Kerf is normal subgroup of G.

a) State and prove the fundamental theorem of group homomorphism.
b) 1) Prove that a non empty subset H of group G is subgroup iff whenever
−1
a ∈ H , b ∈ H then product ab ∈ H .
2) Prove that for every element a in a group a2 = e then G is abelian.
_____________________
*SLRW112* -1- SLR-W – 112S
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Paper – VIII)
(Plant Diversity and Utilization)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

2) Draw neat and labeled diagram wherever necessary.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.

1) ____________ is a fodder legume.
a) Sugarcane b) Bajara
c) Sesbania d) Jawar
2) Ground nut is source of ____________ oil.
a) Vegetable b) Non-edible
c) Lubricant d) Non-vegetable
3) ____________ of Zingiber officinale is used in medicine.
a) Tubers b) Bulbs
c) Roots d) Rhizomes
4) ____________ is a plant of ornamental potential.
a) Bougainvillea b) Neem
c) Adhathoda d) Emblica officinale
5) Indigo is a source of natural
a) Dyes b) Medicine
c) Pesticide d) Insecticide
6) ____________ is a promising species of botanical pesticides.
a) Saffron b) Henna
c) Tobacco d) Manjista
7) ____________ is a host plant of Puccinia.
a) Sugarcane b) Jawar
c) Maize d) Barberry
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 112 -2- *SLRW112*
8) ____________ type of pollination is present in Pinus.

a) Insect b) Wind
c) Animal d) Water
9) Sargassum is a ____________ algae.
a) Fresh water b) Marine water
c) Back water d) Brackish Water
10) Resin canals are present in wood of
a) Sargassum b) Antheceros
c) Equisetum d) Pinus

1) Structure of teleutospores of Puccinia.
2) Draw neat labeled diagram of T. S. of main axis Sargassum.
3) Write any four types of plant fibres.
4) List two medicinal uses of Embilica officinallis.
5) Write any two economic importance of Saffron.
6) Write any two properties of natural rubber.

1) Write in brief on Uridial stage of Puccinia.
2) Explain structure of sporophyte of Anthoceros.
3) Economic importance of Turmeric.
B) Give an account of Tinospora cordifolia along with its chief constituents that
used in medicines. 4

I) Write in brief on structure of Strobilus of Equisetum with suitable diagram.
II) Write Botanical name, morphology and economic importance of Red gram.
III) Write Botanical name, morphology and economic importance of Cotton.

I) Explain in brief the structure of megasporophyll of Pinus with suitable diagram.
II) Give an account of alternation of generation of Anthoceros with suitable
diagram.
_____________________
*SLRW115* SLR-W – 115
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS (Paper – VII)
Fundamentals of Operational Amplifier
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


i) The input stage of every op-amp is a
a) differential amplifier
b) push-pull amplifier
c) common-base amplifier
d) none of these
ii) Current mirror circuit is used to
a) increase CMRR
b) increase output
c) decrease CMRR
d) none of these
iii) The output stage of a IC741 op-amp is a
a) differential amplifier
b) common base amplifier
c) common emitter amplifier
d) push-pull amplifier
iv) The op-amp can amplify
a) a.c. signals only b) d.c. signals only
c) both a.c. and d.c. signals d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 115 -2- *SLRW115*
v) In an inverting amplifier the input and output voltages are
a) in phase b) 90° out of phase
c) 180° out of phase d) 360° out of phase
vi) V to I amplifier is called as
a) transconductance amplifier b) log amplifier
c) transresistance amplifier d) none of these
vii) A comparator never uses
a) positive feedback b) an input signal
c) negative feedback d) none of these
viii) Zero crossing detector is a comparator having
a) Vref = Vcc b) Vref = –Vcc
c) Vref = 0 d) none of these
ix) The closed loop gain in a wien bridge oscillator is
a) 13 b) 29
c) greater than 29 d) 3
x) The phase shift oscillator usually has
a) two lead or lag circuits
b) a lead-lag circuit
c) three lead or lag circuits
d) none of these

i) Why differential amplifier is necessary ?
ii) Give any four specifications of IC741.
iii) In case of op-amp. If CMRR = 4000 and Ac = 0.3, then find Ad.
iv) Explain the concept of virtual ground.
v) Draw the circuit diagram of sawtooth oscillator with the help of op-amp.
vi) Draw the circuit diagram of integrator using op-amp.
*SLRW115* -3- SLR-W – 115
i) What is voltage follower ? Explain it in detail. What is its use ?
ii) How op-amp can be used as comparator ?
iii) Compare open loop and close loop configuration of op-amp.
B) In an inverting adder V1 = 0.1 V, V2 = 0.2 V, V3 = 0.6 V, R1 = 1 k Ω ,
R2 = 2 k Ω , R3 = 3 k Ω . Find V0, if Rf = 10 k Ω . Also draw a neat circuit
diagram with given values. 4

i) Draw the neat circuit of half wave precision rectifier and explain its working.
ii) Explain op-amp as phase shift oscillator.
iii) With neat circuit diagram explain constant current bias circuit.

i) Explain the use of op-amp as astable multivibrator. Obtain an expression for
its frequency.
ii) What is differential amplifier ? What are the different configurations of
differential amplifier ? Explain emitter coupled differential amplifier.
________________
*SLRW116* SLR-W – 116
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Paper – VII)
Igneous Petrology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Fill in the blanks with suitable answer from the given options : 10
1) As per the Bowen’s reaction series, the last mineral to form is

a) Quartz b) Olivine c) Mica d) Plagioclase
2) Granite rock is a _______________ rock.

a) Basic b) Acidic c) Intermediate d) Ultrabasic
3) __________________ is the essential mineral in acid rocks.

a) Muscovite b) Biotite c) Augite d) Quartz
4) Texture of Igneous rocks means the _________ of mineral grains in rock.

a) size b) shape c) arrangement d) all of these
5) Unicomponent rocks are ________

a) Abundant b) Moderate
c) Extremely rare d) None of these
6) Minerals which are present in small amount and whose presence or absence
is disregarded in defining the rock type, are called __________ minerals.
a) accessory b) essential c) secondary d) tertiary
7) The femic minerals are _________

a) Diopside b) Hypersthene c) Olivine d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 116 *SLRW116*
8) In crystallisation of _________ magma, the freezing points are lowered.

a) Unicomponent b) Binary c) Tertiary d) Multi component
9) Plagioclase felspar and mafic minerals are present in almost equal amount in
___________
a) Granite b) Gabbro c) Dunite d) Pitchstone
10) The continuous and discontinuous reaction series studied by _______
a) Kant b) N.L. Bowen c) Lapalace d) Wichert
1) Define “Eutectic Point”.
2) Meaning of essential minerals in Igneous rocks.
3) What is differentiation process in magma ?
4) What is holocrystalline Texture ?
5) What is Labile region ?
6) Name any four salic minerals.

1) Ophitic texture
2) Poikilitic texture
3) Xenolith formation.
B) Bowen’s reaction series. 4

1) Explain formation of glass and crystals.
2) Tabular classification of Igneous rocks.
3) Describe crystallisation process of Binary magma.

1) Describe Assimilation process in magma.
2) Explain differentiation process by liquid Immescibility.
3) Describe Intergrowth texture.
—–––––––––————
*SLRW117* SLR-W – 117
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper – VII)
Immunology & Medical Microbiology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct answers. 10
i) Incomplete antigen is known as __________

a) aggresin b) antibody
c) hapten d) forssman antigen
ii) ________ immunoglobulin crosses the placenta.

a) Ig M b) Ig G c) Ig D d) Ig E
iii) Coagulase enzyme is produced by _______

a) Candida albicans
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Proteus vulgaris
iv) _________ is not primary lymphoid organ.

a) Thymus b) Bone marrow
c) Bursa of Fabricious d) Spleen
v) Widal test is example of _________

a) complement fixation test b) agglutination test
c) precipitation test d) flocculation test
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 117 -2- *SLRW117*
vi) Exotoxins are _________ chemical.

a) proteins b) lipoproteins
c) lipopolysaccharides d) glycoproteins
vii) Blood group antigen is an example of ___________

a) autoantigen b) isoantigen
c) organ specific antigen d) heterophile antigen
viii) Dengue fever is ________

a) bacterial disease b) viral disease
c) fungal disease d) protozoal disease
ix) _________ putforth clonal selection hypothesis of antibody formation.

a) Burnett b) Jenner c) Widal d) Louis Pasteur
x) Hyaluronidases are enzymes which attack _______

a) collagen b) hyaluronic acid
c) phagocytic cells d) DNA
i) Define Vaccine.
ii) Give any two differences between Ig G and Ig M.
iii) Write any two prophylactic measures for enteric fever.
iv) Define heterophile antigen. Give one example.
v) List different microscopic methods used in clinical microbiology.
vi) Write symptoms of dengue fever.

i) Cultural characteristic of staphylococcus aureus.
ii) Transportation of clinical specimen.
iii) Role of inflammation in immunity.
B) Describe in detail about primary and secondary immune response. 4
*SLRW117* -3- SLR-W – 117
4. Write short notes on any 2. 10
i) Mechanical barriers of innate immunity.
ii) Complement fixation test.
iii) Methods of specimen collection.
5. Write notes on any 2. 10
i) Urinary tract infection.
ii) Widal test.
iii) Types of T lymphocytes and their role.
__________________
*SLRW120* SLR-W – 120
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS (Paper – VIII)
Digital Techniques and Microprocessor

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
2) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.

i) IC 2764 is ________ K byte memory chip.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8
ii) R-2R ladder network is used for
a) DAC b) ADC c) PAL d) None of these
iii) _______ IC is used as DAC.
a) 8808 b) 8080 c) 0808 d) 8085
iv) In tri-state logic the 3rd state is
a) High output b) Low output c) High impedance d) Low impedance
v) _________ IC is used as address latch.
a) 74244 b) 74245 c) 74373 d) 8085
vi) _________ bus is bidirectional.
a) Address b) Data c) Control d) None of these
vii) __________ instruction is one byte instruction.
a) MOV A, B b) MVI A 8 bit c) ADD B d) Both a and c
viii) ALE is __________ line.
a) Address Latch Enable b) Address Logic Enable
c) Arithmetic Latch Enable d) Arithmetic Logic Enable
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 120 *SLRW120*
ix) To make accumulator zero which instruction is used ?

a) ADD A b) XRA A c) MOV A, A d) ANA A
x) _________ IC is line transreceiver.

a) 74244 b) 74245 c) 74138 d) 74373
2. Answer any five (two marks each) : 10

i) What is memory ? Write types of memories.
ii) State any four features of ADC 0804.
iii) Name any four data transfer instructions.
iv) Name the Interrupts used in 8085.
v) Explain function of IO/ M control signal.

vi) Classify the following instructions in 1 byte and 2 byte format.
a) ADD B b) MOV B, A c) MVI C 8 bit d) ADI 8 bit
3. A) Answer any two from the following (three marks each) : 6

i) Explain the instruction LXI Rp.
ii) Give the classification of Instruction set with example.
iii) Draw the reset circuit used in 8085.
B) Write Assembly Language Program for Addition of two 8 bit numbers stored
in memory locations 6100H, 6101H and store the result in memory location
6102H. 4
4. Answer any two of the following (five marks each) : 10

i) Write the salient features of 8085.
ii) Explain IC 2764 with block diagram.
iii) Write note on CPLD.
5. Answer any one : 10

i) Explain the architecture of 8085 using block diagram.
ii) Discuss different arithmetic instructions for microprocessor 8085. Write a
program to multiply two 8 bit numbers.
_______________
*SLRW121 SLR-W – 121
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY
Sedimentary and Metamorphic Petrology (Paper – VIII)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


1) The most heterogenous rock is ___________
a) Conglomerate b) Breccia c) Arkose d) Grit
2) Deposition of deltas occur in ___________ environment.
a) Transitional b) Lacustrine c) Terrestrial d) Marine
3) The grain size of arenaceous rocks is between _________ and _________mm.
a) 4.0 – 3.5 b) 3.5 – 2.5 c) 2.5 – 2.0 d) 2.0 – 0.1
4) Black shales indicate ___________ environment of deposition.
a) Oxygen rich b) Reducing c) Desert d) Glacial
5) Conglomerate and Breccia are distinguished on the basis of their ___________
a) Chemical composition b) Cementing material
c) Mineral composition d) Shape of fragments
6) Slate and phyllite are formed by ___________
a) Low temperature and low pressure
b) Only high temperature
c) High temperature and high pressure
d) Only pressure
7) In contact metamorphism, metamorphic effects are greatest adjacent to
___________ rocks.
a) Sedimentary b) Metamorphic c) Extrusive d) Intrusive
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 121 *SLRW121
8) Polymetamorphism can be recognized ___________
a) Strain-slip cleavage b) Cleavage
c) Schistosity d) Rock Cleavage
9) Partial replacement of garnet by irregular rims of chlorite indicates _________
a) Migmatisation b) Retrograde metamorphism
c) Anataxis d) Granitisation
10) Pyrope garnet and omphacite minerals are characteristic of ___________
metamorphic facies.
a) Greenschist b) Amphibolite c) Eclogite d) Granulite

i) What is Arkose ?
ii) What is Roundness of grains ?
iii) What is composition of bauxite ?
iv) Minerals and rocks of amphibolite facies.
v) Which type of metamorphism produces Marble ?
vi) Characters of migmatites.

i) What are the chemical and environmental conditions for the formation of
laterites ?
ii) Explain any three processes of diagenesis.
iii) How scarns are formed ?
B) Explain shales with respect to texture, structure and mineral characters. 4

i) Describe anatexis.
ii) Describe in brief classification of sedimentary rocks based on size of grains.
iii) Describe conglomerates and explain their environment of deposition.

i) Describe granulite metamorphic facies.
ii) Polymetamorphism
iii) Pneumatolysis.
_____________________
*SLRW122* SLR-W 122
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) Examination, 2016

MICROBIOLOGY (Old)
Paper VIII : Applied Microbiology II

3) Draw well labelled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answer from given alternatives : 10

i) Pilot plant fermentor has ____________ liters capacity.
a) 100 500 b) 1 2 c) 50 100 d) 10,000 50,000
ii) Fermentation media contains ____________ % of water.
a) 10 b) 70 90 c) 5 d) 40
iii) ____________ technique is used in screening for antibiotic producing organisms.
a) Crowded plate b) Seed plate c) Petri plate d) Pour plate
iv) ____________ fermentation process is always done in ____________
fermentor before starting large scale operations of any fermentation.
a) Small scale b) Scale-in
c) Scale-down d) All of three above
v) ____________ is used in diffusion assay.
a) Liquid medium b) Paper disc c) Acid d) Alkali
vi) ____________ are used for aeration in the fermentor.
a) Sparger b) Baffles c) Steam d) Impeller
vii) pH indicators are used in ____________ screening for acid producing organisms.
a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) Total
viii) ____________ method is used for recovery and purification of penicillin.
a) Solvent extraction b) Distillation
c) Precipitation d) Coagulation
P.T.O.
SLR-W 122 *SLRW122*
ix) The measure of central tendency that divides the data in two equal parts is
termed as
a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Variance
x) Over heating of fermentor during fermentation is controlled by
a) Cooling jacket b) Steam c) Ice d) Cooling air

i) Define fermentation.
ii) Aeration.
iii) Opt. temperature and pH for alcohol fermentation.
iv) Define dual fermentation.
v) Role of impeller in fermentation.
vi) Define mean.
vii) What is primary screening ?

i) Surface culture method.
ii) Probiotics.
iii) Batch fermentation.
B) Describe in detail primary screening. 4
4. Answer the following (any 2) : 10

i) Synchronous growth.
ii) Design of fermentor.
iii) Preservation of industrially important microbes.
5. Solve the following questions (any two) : 10

i) Alcohol fermentation.
ii) Diauxie growth.
iii) Continuous fermentation.
___________
*SLRW123* SLR-W 123
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Paper V)
Physical Chemistry (CGPA) (New)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
1. Choose the most correct alternative of the following and rewrite the sentences : 14
1) The SI unit of equivalent conductance is
a) S m2 eq b) S m2 eq1
c) S m2 eq d) S m1 eq1
2) Each CI ion in NaCI lattice, is surrounded by ___________ Na+ ions.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 6
3) Which of the following solution of the salt will have the highest value of
equivalent conductance ?
a) 0.001 M b) 0.01 M
c) 0.1 M d) 1.0 M
4) In an isobaric process of an ideal gas
a) q = 0 b) P = 0
c) V = 0 d) w = 0
5) Body centered cubic lattice consists of ___________ points at corners.
a) 2 b) 4
c) 6 d) 8
6) When a ray of light passes from a less dense medium to a more dense
medium, it is refracted
a) towards normal b) away from normal
c) at the normal d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W 123 -2- *SLRW123*
7) Braggs diffraction law is
a) n = d sin2

b) n = d sin

c) n /2 = 2d sin

d) n = 2d sin

8) Which of the following is a bad conductor of electric current ?

a) molten salts b) strong acids
c) aqueous salts d) mica
9) The unit of entropy is
a) JK 1 b) JK mol
c) JK1 mol 1 d) J
10) Which of the following substance possesses zero dipole moment ?
a) ammonia b) water
c) benzene d) o-nitrobenzene
11) The total entropy change for an irreversible cycle in an isolated system is
___________ zero.
a) less than b) greater than
c) equal to d) none of these
12) The entropy of perfect crystalline substance at absolute zero Kelvin is
a) infinite b) zero
c) non-zero d) all of these
13) CO2 and CS2 have zero dipole moments. Hence, their structures should be
a) angular b) non-linear
c) linear d) none of these
14) The sum of the transport numbers of anion and cation is
a) 0 b) 1
c)
d) 1

1) Define the term specific conductance. Mention its unit.
2) State Snells law.
3) What do you mean by degree of hydration ?
4) Give the relationship between entropy and probability.
5) State the law of constancy of interfacial angle.
6) What is transport number ?
7) What is polar and non-polar molecules ?
8) State third law of thermodynamics.
9) Define Weiss indices.
*SLRW123* -3- SLR-W 123
1) Explain the factors affecting transport numbers.
2) Derive the expression for entropy change for an ideal gas as a function of
P and T.
3) Discuss electrical polarization of molecules.
B) Solve : 4
The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of KNO3 is 126 ohm1cm2. The
transport number of NO3 ion is 0.476. Calculate the ionic conductance and
absolute mobility of K+ and NO3 ions.

1) Discuss the moving boundary method used for measurement of transport
number of ions.
2) Derive an expression for entropy change involved in mixing of gases.
3) Discuss the structure of NaCI.

1) Explain in detail Abbes refractometer.
2) With the help of Hittorfs rule, explain migration of ions.
3) Discuss variation of specific and equivalent conductance with concentration.

*SLRW124* SLR-W – 124

Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Paper – V : (Data Structures)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose correct alternative. 14

1) _________ sorting method uses divide and conquer strategy.
a) Merge b) Quick c) Bubble d) Both a & b
2) front = = rear state that, queue is ________
a) Saturated b) Overflow c) Full d) Empty
3) __________ searching method must require sorted data.
a) Binary b) Linear
c) Indexed sequential d) Both b & c
4) The node of __________ linked list has NULL pointer.
a) Singly Circular b) Doubly Circular
c) Both a & b d) None of these
5) Root node in a tree has __________ number of ancestors.
a) Zero b) One
c) Maximum two d) Maximum one
6) Bubble sort requires __________ maximum comparisons to sort ‘N’ elements.
a) N*(N + 1)/2 b) N*(N – 1)/2
c) N + (N*1)/2 d) N – (N*1)/2
7) In time sharing operating system, __________ type of queue is used.
a) Linear b) Circular c) Priority d) Deque
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 124 -2- *SLRW124*
8) __________ traversal of tree produces sorted data.

a) Preorder b) Inorder c) Postorder d) DFS
9) __________ is postfix form of prefix expression : –Z* + NM – BA.

a) ZMN – + BA –* b) MNZ + – BA –*
c) ZNM + – BA –* d) MNZ* – BA – +
10) __________ is non-linear data structure.
a) Stack b) Queue
c) Linked list d) None of these
11) Stack overflow condition occurs while performing _________ operation.
a) create b) isempty c) isfull d) push
12) In AVL tree, node _________ process is fast.
a) Insertion b) Deletion c) Retrieval d) Both a & b
13) All strictly binary trees are complete binary trees.

a) True b) False
14) Data structure is programming language.
a) True b) False
2. Answer any seven of the followings. 14
1) Convert following postfix expression into prefix form :

ABC – + PQ +*.
2) What is advantage of singly linked list over doubly linked list ?
3) What is drawback of sequential access ?
4) Why queue is called FIFO data structure ?
5) Give the difference between Array and linked list.
6) Write condition to check circular queue is Full or not.

7) List out some applications of Binary tree.
8) What is internal and external sort ?
9) Why binary search is fast as compared to linear search ?
*SLRW124* -3- SLR-W – 124

1) Explain Priority queue with its types.
2) Write a program to count total number of vowels present in string using
stack.
3) What is ADT ? Explain ADT for character array.
B) Write a program to implement bubble sort method. 4

1) Write a program to implement binary search tree with tree traversal methods.
2) Write a program to check entered expression is valid or not using stack.
3) How circular queue overcomes the drawback of linear queue ? Also,
implement insert( ) and remove( ) operation of circular queue.

1) Write an algorithm and also implement function that checks entered node is
present in binary search tree or not.
2) Explain following operations of doubly circular linked list :
a) insert_last( ) b) remove_after( ).
3) Write a program to implement insertion sort method.
_______________
*SLRW125* SLR-W – 125
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY
Analytical And Industrial Inorganic Chemistry (Paper – VI)

Time :10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Draw neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative and rewrite the following sentences. 14
1) Colour change interval or pH range of phenolphthalein is ___________

a) 8.3 to 10 b) 8.3 to 12
c) 4.2 to 6.3 d) 3.1 to 4.4
2) Solochrome black is ___________ indicator.

a) Acid-base b) Metallochromic
c) Redox d) Auto
3) Theory of acid base indicator is put forward by ___________

a) Werner b) Kekule
c) W. Ostwald d) Meyer
4) Barium sulphate is mostly ___________ precipitate.

a) Gelatinous b) Curdy
c) Amorphous d) Crystalline
5) Nucleation is the ___________ step of precipitation.

a) Initial b) Second
c) Third d) Final
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 125 -2- *SLRW125*
6) DMG is a specific reagent for ___________

a) Cobalt b) Nickel
c) Copper d) Zinc
7) Oxidation of oxalic acid by acidified KMnO4 is an example of ___________

catalysis.
a) Acid-base b) Negative
c) Auto d) Induced
8) Negative catalyst act as ___________

a) Poison b) Promoter
c) Indicator d) Retarder
9) The parameters determining the water quality include ___________

a) Physical b) Chemical
c) Biological d) All of these
10) The water that gives good lather on treatment with soap is called ___________
a) Hard water b) Soft water
c) Permanent hard water d) Temporary hard water
11) The principal reaction in manufacture of sulphuric acid is ___________

a) S → SO2 b) SO2 → SO3
c) SO3 → H2SO4 d) SO3 → H 2S2O7
12) Oleum is nothing but ___________

a) 98% H2SO4 b) conc.H2SO4
c) Pyrosulphuric acid d) None of these
13) Steel is the ___________ of iron with carbon content intermediate between
cast iron and wrought iron.
a) Either mixer or alloy b) Mixer
c) Alloy d) None of these
14) In the annealing process, steel is heated to redness and cooled ___________
a) Naturally b) Suddenly
c) At fixed temperature d) Slowly
*SLRW125* -3- SLR-W – 125
1) What are the types of acid base titration ?
2) Define metallochromic indicator with suitable examples.
3) Give conditions for precipitation.
4) Define the terms :

a) Nucleation
b) Digestion.
5) Explain induced catalysis with suitable example.
6) Give any four characteristics of catalytic reactions.
7) Mention the parameters of potability of water.
8) In contact process, oxidation of SO2 to SO3 is effected at low pressure. Why ?

a) Hardening
b) Case hardening.
1) Define catalysis. Explain homogenous and heterogenous catalysis with

suitable examples.
2) Discuss the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process.
3) What is steel ? Explain in brief types of steel.
B) Draw a neat labelled diagram of L. D. converter. Mention advantages of

L.D. process. 4
SLR-W – 125 -4- *SLRW125*
1) Explain the phenomenon of co-precipitation.
2) Discuss the physicochemical principles involved in the manufacture of sulphuric

acid by contact process.
3) Explain Ostwald’s colour change interval theory.
1) With the help of titration curve explain the choice of an indicator in titration
between strong acid and strong base.
2) What are organic precipitants ? Discuss role of organic precipitants in

gravimetric analysis.
3) Explain ion exchange method for treatment of industrial water.
––––––––––––––––––––
*SLRW126* SLR-W – 126
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Computer Sci.) (Semester – IV) (New CGPA)

Examination, 2016
SYSTEM ANALYSIS AND DESIGN (Paper – VI)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instruction : 1) All questions are compulsory.


1) In which step of SDLC project termination could be done ?
a) Design Phase b) System Maintenance Phase
c) Feasibility Study Phase d) Coding Phase
2) ____________ shows the flow of data, the process and the areas where they
are stored.
a) ER-diagram b) HIPO chart
c) DFD d) None of these
3) 2NF cannot be achieved unless data is in the 1NF.
a) True b) False
4) History files, transaction reports are updated by____________
a) TPS b) MIS c) DSS d) EIS
5) Black box testing finds____________

a) Interface errors b) Syntax errors
c) Coding errors d) Design errors
6) System analyst should not create models / prototypes of the system.
a) True b) False
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 126 -2- *SLRW126*
7) Salary of the programmer is____________feasibility.

a) Technical b) Economical
c) Operational d) None of these
8) The ‘Big picture’ diagram of a system is the ____________

a) Logic diagram b) Block diagram
c) System flowchart d) Program flowchart
9) ____________ technique is used to collect information from individual or from

groups.
a) Observation b) Questionnaire
c) Interview d) Record review
10) Decision table is a combination of ____________

a) Stubs and conditions b) Input and output
c) Conditions and actions d) None
11) ____________is not the element of the system.
a) Input b) Interface c) Processors d) Material
12) The old system is replaced by the new system is called ____________
a) Fact finding b) Pilot
c) Direct conversion d) Cutoff
13) ____________ symbol is used for online storage.
a) b) c) d)
14) Only expert persons able to do black box testing.

a) True b) False
2. Answer any seven of the followings : 14

1) What is the purpose of DFD ?
2) What is main objective of system analyst ?
3) What is system maintenance ?
*SLRW126* -3- SLR-W – 126
4) What is Flowchart ?
5) Define black box testing.
6) Write the difference between negative and positive feedback.
7) Define the term entity and attribute.
8) What is file ?
9) Define the term system and subsystem.

1) What is normalization ? Explain 3NF with example.
2) Explain the different types of output.
3) Explain the different elements of the system.
B) Distinguish between system analysis and system design. 4

1) What is testing ? Explain the need of testing in detail.
2) What is decision table ? Explain its types with example.
3) Draw an ER-diagram for college admission system.

1) Explain different fact finding techniques in detail.
2) Draw a CLD and first level DFD for library system.
3) Explain various activities involved in system design.
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRW127* SLR-W 127
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Sem. IV) (New) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS
Optics (Paper V)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

4) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.

i) Lagranges law for magnification is given by
a) n1y1tan 1 = n2y2tan 2

b) n1y1sin 1 = n2y2sin 2

c) n1y1tan 1 = n2y2sin 2

d) n1y1cos 1 = n2y2cos 2

ii) For an optical fibre to have greater information carrying capacity, the pulse
dispersion must be
a) Very small b) Very large
c) Moderately large d) Zero
iii) In Michelsons interferometer, interference is obtained by division of
a) Wave front b) Amplitude c) Wavelength d) Phase
iv) For positive crystal, except along the optic axis
a) Ve > Vo b) Ve < Vo c) Ve = Vo = 0 d) Ve = Vo = 1
v) The radius of Fresnels half period zone is directly proportional to the
a) Natural number b) Square root of natural number
c) Odd number d) Square root of odd number
vi) The polarimeter used for measuring specific rotation of sugar solution is
called
a) Phase retarded plates b) Nicol Prism
c) Analyzer d) Saccharimeter
P.T.O.
SLR-W 127 -2- *SLRW127*
vii) The distance of an object and its image from the corresponding focal points
are 9 cm and 4 cm respectively for a thick lens in air. Its focal length is
a) 6 cm b) 8 cm
c) 4 cm d) 2 cm
viii) The basic principal of optical fibres is
a) Refraction b) Reflection
c) Total internal reflection d) Polarization
ix) By Rayleighs criterion, two spectral lines are said to be just resolved if the
intensity at the dip is __________ times the intensity of either of the maxima.
a) b) c) d)
& "

& "
x) In case of diffraction of light at straight edge.

a) The band width increases away from the edge of the shadow
b) The band width remains same
c) The band width decreases away from the edge of the shadow
xi) In Quarter wave plate, phase difference between E ray and O ray is
a) /4 b) /2
c) d) 2
xii) The intensity of the fringes in F.P. Interferometer is __________ than in

Michelsons interferometer.
a) Equal b) Much smaller
c) Much more d) More
xiii) Principal planes are the cardinal planes of
a) Unit positive angular magnification
b) Unit positive lateral magnification
c) Unit positive longitudinal magnification
d) Unit negative angular magnification
xiv) The area of all half period zones are _________ for given values of b and .
a) Different
b) Equal
c) Increases as order increases
*SLRW127* -3- SLR-W 127
i) State any two advantages of optical fibre.
ii) Define nodal points for a lens system.
iii) State the laws of rotation of plane of polarization.
iv) How zone plate is constructed ?
v) Draw a neat labelled diagram for Graphical construction of image by using

the properties of cardinal planes and points.
vi) A 10% sugar solution taken in a polarimeter tube of length 20 cm rotates the
plane of polarization of the light of wavelength 6000 A° through 12°. Calculate
the specific rotation of sugar.
vii) When a thin film of glass ( = 1.6) is interposed in the path of one of the

interfering beams of a Michelsons interferometer, a shift of 20 fringes of

sodium light ( = 5893 A°) is observed across the field of view. Calculate

the thickness of the film.
viii) State Rayleighs criteria for resolution.
ix) Define diffraction of light and give its type.
i) State characteristics of double refraction.
ii) Obtain the relation between the lateral, longitudinal magnifications in terms
of the refractive indices and also deduce the relation between the three
magnifications.
iii) Calculate the length of the base of a 60° prism capable of just resolving
the sodium lines of wavelength 5896 A° and 5890 A°. The material of the
glass has
= 1.6545 and
+

= 1.6635 for C and E lines in the solar

-
spectrum of wavelength 6563 A° and 5270 A° respectively.
B) Explain the use of Michelsons interferometer in determination of the difference of

wavelengths between the two close components of monochromatic light. 4
SLR-W 127 -4- *SLRW127*
i) Explain the formation and working of Fibre-optic communication system.
ii) Derive an expression for the focal length in space for a system of two thin
lenses separated co-axially by some distance in air. Also obtain expressions
for locating the positions of the principal planes.
iii) Derive an expression for the resolving power of a plane diffraction grating.
i) With a neat ray diagram explain the construction and working of a

Fabry-Perot interferometer.
ii) Explain the principle, construction and working of Nicol prism.
iii) Show that a zone plate acts as a convex lens by considering the source is at
(i) infinity (ii) a finite distance.

*SLRW128* SLR-W 128
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

BIOCHEMISTRY (Paper III)
Nutrition and Metabolism
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
3) Write biochemical reactions wherever involved.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from the given options. 14
1) During respiration succinate gives its electrons to Co Q10 which produces
___________ ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation.
a) 0 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
2) End product of citric acid cycle is
a) Pyruvic acid b) CO2 and H2O
c) Citrate d) Oxaloacetate
3) Knoop in ___________ proposed -oxidation path for oxidation of fatty acids.

a) 1903 b) 1904 c) 1905 d) 1906

4) ___________ does not inhibit or block electron transport from cytochrome
aa3 to molecular oxygen.
a) Piericidine b) Carbon monoxide
c) Hydrogen sulphide d) Hydrogen cyanide
5) PLP cofactor is required for ___________ of amino acids.
a) Decarboxylation b) Transamination
c) Deamination d) Carboxylation
P.T.O.
SLR-W 128 -2- *SLRW128*
6) Acetyl CoA is transported out of mitochondria in the form of

a) Acetate b) Nitrate
c) Citrate d) Oxalate
7) Ammonia eliminated through urine is mostly derived from
a) Arginine b) Glutamine
c) Alanine d) Aspartic acid
8) Glycogen is a branched
a) Monosaccharide b) Polysaccharide
c) Disaccharide d) Oligosaccharide
9) Elements for which per day nutritional requirements are greater than
___________ are referred to as minerals.
a) 100 milligrams b) 100 micrograms
c) 100 grams d) 100 picograms
10) Phenylketonuria (pku) is an inherited disorder in __________ metabolism.
a) Phenyl aniline b) Phenyl urea
c) Phenyl alanine d) Phenyl ketone
11) Osmolarity of intracellular fluid decreases in __________ condition.
a) Metabolic acidosis b) Respiratory alkalosis
c) Dehydration d) Overhydration
12) __________ hormone increases reabsorption of Na+ ions by renal tubules.
a) Aldosterone b) Insuline
c) Thyroxine d) Antidiuretic
13) Principal use of BMR in clinical practice is in the diagnosis of
a) Diabetes b) Thyroid
c) Phenylketonuria d) Blood pressure
14) The right atrium of heart secrets __________ hormone.
a) Natriuretic peptide b) Aldosterone
c) Antidiuretic d) Renin-angiotensin
*SLRW128* -3- SLR-W 128

1) How pyruvic acid obtained from
-ketoglutamate ?
2) Define respiratory quotient with one example.
3) Define glycolysis and glycogenolysis.
4) Write on flavoproteins.
5) Write two functions of water.
6) How glycogen is degrade using phosphorolysis.
7) Write two factors affecting BMR.
8) Write structure of AMP and ATP.
9) How acetyl CoA converts malonyl CoA using biotin.

1) Write and explain the reactions of glycogenesis and glycogenolysis.
2) Illustrate the role of various components involved in electron transport
chain.
3) Discuss the importance of proteins in diet.
B) What is the effect of hormones of basal metabolic rate ? 4

1) Write a note on disorders of acid-base balance.
2) What is high energy molecule ? Explain ATP as a high energy molecule.
3) What is oxidation of palmitic acid ? Explain -oxidation and energetics of
palmitic acid oxidation.

1) Explain three types of reactions occurred in amino acid metabolism.
2) Write and explain in brief the reaction of TCA cycle.
3) What is balanced diet ? Explain carbohydrates, fats and minerals as a
constituents of balanced diet.

*SLRW129* SLR-W – 129
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

PLANT PROTECTION (Paper – III)
Introduction to Weeds and Non Insect Pests

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Instructions : I) All questions are compulsory.

II) Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
III) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
IV) All questions carry equal marks.
1. Rewrite the correct answer from the given alternatives : (1×14=14)
1) Nematodes are controlled with the help of __________ nematicide.

a) HCN b) ACN c) TCN d) ICN
2) Mites belongs to the phyllum
a) Nematoda b) Artropoda c) Chordata d) All of these
3) __________ are the example of non-insect pests.
a) Cows b) Goats c) Birds d) Dogs
4) The ______________ which are used to kill the weeds are called as weedicides.
a) physical b) chemical c) clinical d) all of these
5) Euphorbia hirta is a
a) pulse b) millete c) cereal d) weed
6) Cyperus rotundus weed belongs to the family
a) Cyperaceae b) Cucurbitaceae
c) Sapotaceae d) Zygophyllaceae
7) The weed found in water body is known as __________ weed.
a) terrestrial b) aquatic c) parasitic d) poisonous
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 129 -2- *SLRW129*
8) Ploughing method of weed management is the example of _________ method.

a) cultural b) biological
c) chemical d) physical
9) In Argemone maxicana, reproduction takes place by
a) fragmentation b) budding
c) fission d) seed
10) Classification of weeds is based on
a) Ontogeny b) Montogeny
c) Syngeny d) Both a) and c)
11) Weeds _________ the productivity of crops.
a) increase b) decrease
c) triple d) double
12) Vernacular name of Cynodon dactylon is
a) gajar gawat b) dudhani
c) katemath d) harali
13) Vernacular name of Amaranthus spinosus is
a) harali b) dudhani
c) gajar gawat d) katemath
14) __________ is the biological method of weed management.
a) Fungi b) Virus
c) Mycoplasma d) All of these
2. Answer any seven of the following : (7×2=14)

i) Define weed.
ii) What is ecology ?
iii) Define parasitic weed.
iv) Give the two botanical names of weed.
v) Define field sanitation.
vi) What is chemical method of weed control ?
vii) Give the two uses of 2, 4 – D.
viii) Define management.
ix) What is nematode ?
*SLRW129* -3- SLR-W – 129
i) Explain the classification of weed based on crop association.
ii) Give the reproduction of weed studied by you.
iii) Describe the stem parasite weed studied by you.
B) Explain the morphology and ecology of Portulaka oleracea. 4
4. Answer any two of the followings : (2×7=14)

i) Explain mode of weed dispersal studied by you.
ii) Give the classification of weedicides on the basis of chemical nature.
iii) Explain the Euphorbia hirta weed studied by you.
5 Answer any two of the followings : (2×7=14)

i) Explain the non-insect pest birds studied by you.
ii) Describe the properties and uses of pendimethalin of weedicides.
iii) Explain the nature of damage and management of snails and slugs.
_______________
*SLRW130* SLR-W – 130
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS (Paper – VI) (New)
Modern Physics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

4) Use of calculator and log tables is allowed.
Data given : i) Velocity of light, c = 3×108 m/s.
ii) Planck’s constant, h = 6.63×10–34 Js
iii) Rest mass of electron, m0 = 9.1×10–31 kg.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from the given alternatives : 14
i) In nuclear reactor the chain reaction is ___________

a) Uncontrolled b) Absent c) Controlled d) Indefinite
ii) Spin of electron is ___________

1 1
a) b) 1 c) 0 d)
2 4
iii) ‘All inertial frames are equivalent’ is called principle of ___________
a) Equivalence b) Inertia
c) Correspondence d) Equilibrium
iv) The maximum change in wavelength of scattered radiation is for scattering
angle ___________
a) 90° b) 0° c) 45° d) 180°
v) According to Bohr’s quantum condition ___________ of the electron orbit is
an integral multiple of electron wavelength.
a) diameter b) area c) radius d) circumference
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 130 -2- *SLRW130*
vi) The magnitude of Compton wavelength is ___________

a) 0.0484 A b) 0.0242 A c) 0.0122 A d) 0.0224 A

vii) ___________ is the most common type of coupling.

a) LS b) JJ c) LJ d) SS
viii) Energy released per fission of U235 is about ___________
a) 50 MeV b) 200 MeV c) 500 MeV d) 100 MeV
ix) Mass of moving object always ___________ with increase in velocity.
a) remains constant b) decreases
c) increases d) be zero
x) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle is given by ___________
a) Δx ⋅ Δp ≥ 2 b) Δx ⋅ Δt ≥ 2
c) ΔE ⋅ Δp ≥ 2 d) Δp ⋅ Δt ≥ 2
xi) Anamalous Zeeman effect is found with ___________

a) Weak magnetic field b) No magnetic field
c) Very strong magnetic field d) Only electric field
xii) The special theory of relativity was developed by ___________
a) Einstein b) Newton c) Galileo d) Lorentz
xiii) A body of mass 0.1 kg is moving with velocity of 10 m/s. Then the wavelength of
matter wave associated with it is ___________
a) 66.3 × 10–34 m b) 6.63 × 10–34m
c) 0.663 × 10–34m d) 1 × 10–34 m
xiv) The atomic energy programme in India was launched under the leadership of
___________
a) Homi J. Bhabha b) APJ Abdul Kalam
c) C.N.R. Rao d) C. V. Raman

1) What is compton effect ?
2) Write any two neutron induced reactions.
3) State Pauli’s exclusion principle.
*SLRW130* -3- SLR-W – 130
4) State any four properties of matter waves.
5) Define inertial frame of reference.
6) Define : a) phase velocity b) group velocity.
7) What do you mean by JJ coupling ?
8) What is nuclear fission ?
9) Compute the energy released on conversion of 500 g of mass into energy.

1) Describe the experimental verification of Compton effect.
2) Derive an expression for variation of length with velocity.
3) Explain in brief the concepts of
a) Space quantization
b) Spin hypothesis.
B) Find the change in wavelength of an X-ray photon when it is scattered through
an angle of 60° by a free electron. 4

1) Derive the relation between group velocity and phase velocity.
2) Explain in detail Michelson-Morley experiment and comment on the negative
result.
3) Describe the experimental study of normal Zeeman effect.

1) Describe a typical nuclear reactor with its essential parts.
2) Explain quantum numbers associated with vector atom model.
3) At what speed will the mass of a body be three times its rest mass.
_____________________
*SLRW131* SLR-W – 131
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New-CGPA) Examination, 2016

BIOCHEMISTRY
Molecular Biochemistry and Diseases (Paper – IV)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
3) Draw Biochemical reactions/labelled diagrams
wherever necessary.
1. Write following sentences by selecting most correct answer from given options : 14
1) Template strand is present in ___________
a) Reverse transcriptase b) Ribosome
c) tRNA d) DNA
2) The synthesis of proteins using genetic information on DNA is called as
___________
a) Transcription b) Transformation
c) Translation d) Transition
3) Biochemical indicators used to detect the presence of cancer are collectively
called as ___________
a) DNA markers b) Tumor markers
c) Tumor sensor d) Tumor monitors
4) Racial differences in immunology are ___________ in origin.
a) Physiological b) Temporary
c) Genetic d) Artificially acquired
5) ___________ contains many unusual bases in its structure.
a) r-RNA b) m-RNA
c) t-RNA d) c-RNA
6) The most commonly used vector of E. Coli is ___________
a) α -phase b) λ -phase
c) β -phase d) ω -phase
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 131 -2- *SLRW131*
7) In diabetes mellitus function of ___________ hormone is not normal.
a) Insulin b) Thyroxine
c) Growth d) Adrenaline
8) Genetic code is ___________
a) Random b) Different for different individuals
c) Specific species d) Universal
9) For cleavage of DNA, type II endonucleoses requires ___________
a) Fe2+ b) Ca2+
c) Mg2+ d) Mn2+
10) Tears contain ___________
a) Zylosome b) Lysozyme
c) Acetylase d) Polymerase
11) Molecular weight of r-RNA ranges between ___________ million.
a) 0.5 to 1.5 b) 1.5 to 2.5
c) 2.5 to 3.5 d) 3.5 to 4.5
12) Azidothymidine (AZT) drug used in AIDS is ___________ drug.
a) Protein inhibitor b) Membrane transport inhibitor
c) Nucleoside analogue d) c-AMP inhibitor
13) Juvenile onset diabetes occurs particularly between ___________ years.
a) Above 35 years b) 20-35 years
c) 60-75 years d) 1-15 years
14) Hin d II enzyme cut circular DNA of SV 40 into ___________ fragments.
a) 9 b) 10
c) 11 d) 12

1) How are the antibodies obtained for artificial passive immunity ?
2) What is difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide ?
3) State various natural modes of genetic recombination.
*SLRW131* -3- SLR-W – 131
4) How is proinsulin converted into insulin ?
5) How does the repression of lac operon gene takes place ?
6) How is polynucleotide formed from nucleotide ?
7) Write three applications of recombinant DNA technology.
8) How biochemical changes occur in growing tumor cells ?
9) How does Azidothymidine (AZT) acts on HIV ?

1) Explain morphological changes and biochemical changes in growing tumor
cells.
2) Explain natural course of AIDS.
3) Explain gene cloning technology.
B) Write the applications of genetic engineering. 4

1) Explain structure and formation of insulin from preproinsulin. What are the
factors for stimulating insulin secretion ?
2) Explain replication of DNA.
3) Discuss in details about restriction endonucleoses.

1) Write note on natural (innate) immunity and explain mechanism of innate
immunity.
2) What is transcription ? Explain steps involved in transcription.
3) What is genetic code ? Explain general features of genetic code.
_____________________
*SLR-W132* SLR-W 132
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

PLANT PROTECTION
Paper IV : Insect Pests and Their Management
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Select the correct answer and rewrite the sentences : (1×14=14)

1) The life cycle of insect includes _______ stages.
a) egg b) pupa c) larva d) all the above
2) Classification of insecticides is based on
a) mode of entry b) mode of action
c) chemical nature d) all the above
3) The scientific name of mango is
a) Sorghum vulgare b) Magnifera indica
c) Arachys hypogaea d) None of these
4) Stem borer is the pest of
a) gram b) mango c) tomato d) jowar
5) Thrips are the pests of
a) gram b) stored grain
c) rose d) all the above
6) Classification of insect pests is based on
a) nature of damage b) mouth parts
c) metamorphosis d) all the above
7) Plant origin insecticides are also known as _______ pesticides.
a) synthetic b) botanical c) microbial d) both a and b
P.T.O.
SLR-W 132 -2- *SLR-W132*
8) For the management of pests _______ are used.
a) filters b) alcohol
c) both a and b d) antifeedents
9) Insecticide formulations include
a) dusts b) concentrates
c) wettable powder d) all the above
10) Organophosphate is the _______ insecticide.
a) organic b) inorganic c) synthetic d) none of these
11) Cicer arietinum is the scientific name of
a) tomato b) jowar
c) gram d) none of these
12) ______ is not the pest of crop plants.
a) Rice weevil b) Stem borer c) Pod borer d) White grub
13) Insecticides are generally harmful to ________ systems of pests.
a) nervous b) respiratory
c) digestive d) both a and b
14) _______ is the source of plant insecticides.
a) Chrysanthemum sp b) Nicotiana sp
c) Both a and b d) Mango
2. Answer any seven of the followings : (2×7=14)

i) Write the nature of damage caused by jassids.
ii) Define attractants.
iii) Write the life cycle stages of pulse beetle.
iv) Give the host range of thrips.
v) Name the inorganic insecticides.
vi) State the control measures of fruit borer.
vii) Write the marks of identifications of red spider.
viii) State the kinds of insect formulations.
ix) Define insect pest.
*SLR-W132* -3- SLR-W 132
3. A) Answer any two of the followings : (2×5=10)

i) Explain the classification of insect pests based on mouth parts.
ii) Describe the life cycle, carryover and nature of damage of pod borer.
iii) Explain the general characters of insects with respect to abdomen.
B) Classify the insecticides based on chemical nature. 4

i) Explain the host range, nature of damage and control of rice weevil.
ii) Classify the insecticides based on mode of entry.
iii) Add a note on principles of pest control.

i) Add a note on quantitative loss caused by insect pests.
ii) Explain the role of repellents in pest management.
iii) Describe the safety precautions to be taken while applying the pesticides.
_________________
*SLRW133* SLR-W 133
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

STATISTICS (Paper V) (New)
Continuous Probability Distributions and Exact Probability Distributions
Day and Date : Thursday, 28-4-2016 Max.Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) Gamma frequency curve is
a) Positively skewed b) Negatively skewed
c) Symmetric d) None of these
2) Suppose X, Y and Z are three independent G(4, 2), G(4, 4), G(4, 3) variates
respectively then the distribution of W = X + Y + Z is
a) G(4, 9) b) G(9, 4) c) G(12, 9) d) G(9, 12)
3) If X ~ m , n
then mean of X is
a) b) c) d)
m n 1 n m 1
n 1 m m 1 n
4) If X ~ m , n then distribution of 1/X is
a)

m , n b) n , m c) m , n d)

n , m
5) If X is a normal variables with

and P (X > 225) = 0.1587 then P (X < 175)
is equal to
a) 0.3141 b) 0.8413 c) 0.1587 d) 0.5
6) The shape of a normal curve depends upon the value of
a) Standard deviation b) Lower quartile
c) Mean deviation d) Upper quartile
P.T.O.
SLR-W 133 -2- *SLRW133*
7) Students t distribution is due to
a) G. W. Snedecor b) R. A. Fisher
c) W. S. Gosset d) Karl Pearson
8) Range of F variate is
a) 0 ,
b) (0, 1) c) ,
d) (1, 1)
9) The relation between mean and variance of Chi square distribution is
a) mean = 2 variance b) 2 mean = variance
c) mean = variance d) none of these
10) If X and Y are independent Chi square variates with n1 and n2 d.f. respectively
then the r.v. is

:
a)

n

/ 2 , n / 2
b)

n / 2 , n

/ 2
c) n

/ 2 , n / 2 d) n / 2 , n

/ 2
11) The relation between Students t and Snedecors F variates is
a) .

1 , 1

J
n
b) .

1 , n

J
n
c) .

n , 1

J
n
d) .

n , n

J
12) If X is t variate with 5 d.f. then Var(X) is

a) 3/5 b) 4/5 c) 5/3 d) 3/4
13) If X is a t variate with 5 d.f. then mean of X is
14) If F ~ F (10, 11) and Y = 1/F then mean of Y is
a) 11/10 b) 11/9 c) 5/4 d) 11/8
2. Attempt any seven : 14

1) State mean and variance of gamma distribution with parameters #
and

.
&
2) If X ~ G(8, 2) then identify the distribution of 4X.

3) Define beta distribution of first kind.
4) Give the definition of beta distribution of second kind.
5) State the quartiles of S.N.V.
*SLRW133* -3- SLR-W 133
6) State the m.g.f. of N(0, 1).
7) Let X and Y be i.i.d. N(0, 1) then state the distribution of Y X 2 / X Y

.
8) Let Xi (i = 1, 2, 3, 4) be independent S.N.Vs. Identify the distribution of
Y 3 X
"
/ X

X X
!

.
9) Define Chi square distribution with 1 d.f.

1) Find the m.g.f. of / ,
.
2) If X ~ N (0, 1), find the distribution of X2.
3) Define Students t distribution with n d.f. and state its mean and variance.
B) Find the m.g.f. of Chi square distribution with n d.f. 4
1) Find the distribution of X/Y, where X ~ G ,

, Y ~ G ,
and X and Y are
independent.
2) Derive the p.d.f. of Chi square distribution with n d.f.
3) Find mean and variance of / ,
.

1) Find mean and mode of F variate with (n1, n2).
2) Find mean and variance of m , n .
3) State and prove additive property of normal distribution.

___________

*SLRW134* SLR-W – 134

Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

METEOROLOGY (Paper – III)
Applied Climatology (New)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1) Along the Arctic Ocean, thick fog is also called as Arctic ________ or
Sjoroyk.
(smoke, fog, haze, mist)
2) Grand banks are noted for shipping hazards due to ______ and icebergs.
(mist, fog, rime, haze)
3) Shelter is a protection provided by man to protect him from sever _____

conditions..
(rainfall, snowfall, temperature, weather)
4) One millibar is a unit of force equal to 1000 ______ per centimeter square.
(volts, juel, amps, dyne)
5) Indian Meteorological services use linear equations to forecast the arrival

of the ________.
(winter, summer, monsoon, autumn)

P.T.O.
SLR-W – 134 -2- *SLRW134*
6) Winds with permanent directions play important role in determining the
direction of a _____.
(roads, runways, waterways, railways)
7) Urban areas experience high temperature regions called as _____ islands.

(heat, cold, cool, warm)
8) _________ transport has most complex relationship with atmospheric
conditions.
(land, water, aviation, pipelines)
9) As per world meteorological observations, there should be one primary
data center at every _____ kilometer.
(200, 150, 100, 50)
10) The east coast of all continents experiences upwelling of the sea water
due to _____ surface winds.
(steady, moderate, strong weak)
11) Plantation agriculture is confined to _____ region due to climatic conditions.
(equatorial , monsoonal, alpine, boreal)
12) Prebaratic charts are necessary for _______ a weather.
(record, forecasting, analysis, observations)
13) Satellites are most useful for ____ forecasting.
(climate, weather, paleoclimate, projected climate)
14) The observations of both surface and ______ air network of stations are
required for weather.
(topmost, upper, lower, central)
2. Write in short (any 5) : 15
1) Define The term ‘Weather’.
2) Types of weather forecasting.
3) Define the term ‘Heat island’.
4) What is Coriolis effect ?
5) What is air pollution ?
6) Define the term atmospheric pressure.

*SLRW134* -3- SLR-W – 134
3. Answer any three questions. 15
1) Explain the importance of forecasting.
2) State the effects of Coriolis Force.
3) Explain the importance of climate on industrial activities.
4) Describe the relation between agriculture and climate.
4. Write in short (any 3). 15
1) Importance of satellites in climatology.
2) Effects of local winds on weather.
3) Physiological response to temperature.
4) Marine fishing and climate.
5. A) Write any one answer. 6

1) Explain the importance of climate in agriculture.
2) Describe the effects of climate on fishing industry.
B) Write a (any one) brief answer. 5

1) Explain the importance of climatic study in industrial development.
2) Correlate the importance of air operations in telecommunications.
__________________
*SLRW135* SLR-W 135
Seat
No.

GEOCHEMISTRY
Principles of Geochemistry (Paper III)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose the most correct alternative each of the following : 14

1) Lechateliers principle is applicable for ______________ reaction.
a) irreversible b) reversible
c) fast d) none of these
2) pH of ocean water is
a) 7.3 b) 8.3 c) 9.3 d) 10.3
3) Petroleum is a mixture of
a) hydrocarbon b) nitrogroup c) aminogroup d) none of these
4) The name of CH3OH is
a) acetone b) ethyl alcohol c) methanol d) aldehyde
5) According to Lewis theory, acid is
a) electron donar b) proton donar
c) electron acceptor d) proton acceptor
6) Alkenes contains ______________ bonds.
a) single b) double c) triple d) none of these
7) Dispersion of solid in liquid is called as
a) sol b) gel
c) emulsion d) collidal solution
P.T.O.
SLR-W 135 -2- *SLRW135*
8) ____________ process is slow process.

a) irreversible b) reversible
c) fast d) none of these
9) Tyndall effect is an example of ___________ property.
a) optical b) electrical
c) mechanical d) chemical
10) The name of CH3OH is
a) acetone b) ethyl alcohol
c) methanol d) aldehyde
11) The acidic rock contains high % of
a) FeO b) NaO c) SiO2 d) MgO
12) An exothermic reaction favors ____________ in temperature.
a) decrease b) increase c) no change d) none of these
13) In electrophoresis _____________ used as a semipermeable membrane.
a) parchment paper b) filter paper
c) glass d) none of these
14) The name of (CO3)2 group is
a) carbonate b) alkane
c) hydrocarbon d) none of these

i) Define chemical equilibrium.
ii) Define acid and base according to Arrhenius theory.
iii) Give any two geological uses of acids.
iv) Define emulsion. Give one example.
v) Discuss the effect of temperature on the reaction H2 + Cl2 = 2HCl + Heat.
vi) Give the molecular formula of cyclohexane and glysine.
vii) Define functional group. Give the formula of aldehyde.
viii) Draw the structure of (SiO4)4.
ix) Define pH and pOH.
*SLRW135* -3- SLR-W 135

i) State and explain law of mass action.
ii) Discuss the hydrolysis of Sodium carbonate.
iii) Discuss the types of hydrocarbon in petroleum.
B) Distinguish between Sol and Gel. 4

i) Show that chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature for the reaction
N2 + 3H2 = 2 NH3.
ii) How the concentration of (HCO3) and (CO3)2 are estimated from hydrolysis
of Na2CO3.
iii) Write a short note on origin of Coal.

i) State and explain Lechateliers principle.
ii) Write a short note on Silica as a chemical sediment.
iii) Discuss the origin of petroleum.
___________
*SLRW136* SLR-W – 136
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (New – CGPA) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Paper – V)
Animal Diversity – IV

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Select the appropriate answer and rewrite the sentences : 14

1) Rat belongs to order ___________
a) Rodentia b) Squamata c) Cetacea d) Anura
2) In case of birds, the endoskeleton is _____________

a) solid b) heavy c) pneumatic d) absent
3) Bile is secreted by ____________
a) Pancreas b) Liver c) Testes d) Salivary glands
4) Pulmonary artery carry _____________ blood to the lungs.

a) Oxygenated b) Mixed c) Pure d) Deoxygenated
5) In poisonous snake the poison gland is _____________ shaped.
a) Diamond b) Sickle c) Almond d) Pea
6) ____________ is connecting link between reptiles and birds.

a) Archaeopteryx b) Peripatus
c) Monotremes d) Marsupium
7) Migration of birds from North to South and Vice-Versa is called __________
migration.
a) Longitudinal b) Latitudinal c) Seasonal d) Altitudinal
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 136 -2- *SLRW136*
8) The mesozoic reptile, Ichthyosaurus the body form was like _____________
a) Frog b) Snake c) Bird d) Fish
9) Fruit eating beak is found in _____________

a) Parrot b) Vulture c) Wood pecker d) Heron
10) ______________ is egg laying mammal.
a) Dog b) Monotreme c) Rabbit d) Rat
11) In rat RBCs are ___________
a) Nucleated b) Binucleated c) Non-nucleated d) Multinucleated
12) Swimming type of feet are present in _____________
a) Sparrow b) Lapwing c) Fowl d) Duck
13) Keen sight is found in ______________
a) Birds b) Reptiles c) Mammals d) Amphibians
14) Organ concerned for smell is _______________
a) optic lobe b) olfactory lobe
c) cerebral hemisphere d) medulla oblongata

i) Salient features of reptiles.
ii) Perching type of feet in birds.
iii) Egg laying mammal.
iv) Archaeopteryx.
v) Any one Mesozoic reptile.
vi) Leg in woodpecker.
vii) Systematic position of rat.
viii) Dental formula of man.
ix) Scrotum of rat.

i) Describe salient features of marsupials.
ii) Give functions of brain of rat.
iii) Enlist different types of beaks found in birds.
B) Give functions of blood of rat. 4

*SLRW136* -3- SLR-W – 136

i) Describe lungs of rat.
ii) Describe kinds of migration in birds.
iii) Describe first-aid treatment in snake bite.

i) Describe the digestive system of rat.
ii) Describe aerial adaptations in birds.
iii) Describe eye of rat as a sense organ.
_________________
*SLRW137* SLR-W – 137
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New – C.G.P.A. Pattern) Examination, 2016

STATISTICS (Paper – VI)
Applied Statistics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

ii) Figure to the right indicates full marks.

i) Probability of including a specified unit in a sample of size n selected out of
N units is
1 1 n N
a) b) c) d)
n N N n
ii) A sample consist of
a) all units of the population
b) 50 percent units of the population
c) 5 percent units of the population
d) any part of the population
iii) The number of all possible samples of size 2 from a population of 4 units by
SRSWOR is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 6
iv) Probability of drawing an unit at any draw remains same in
a) SRSWOR b) SRSWR
v) Level of significance is the probability of
c) Not committing error d) None of these
vi) Type – II error is
a) Rejecting H0 when H0 is wrong b) Rejecting H0 when H0 is true
c) Accepting H0 when H0 is wrong d) Accepting H0 when H0 is true
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 137 -2- *SLRW137*
vii) A hypothesis may be classified as

a) Simple b) Composite
c) Null d) All of these
viii) For testing a population variance which of the following test to be used ?
a) Z-test b) t-test
c) Chi-square test d) F-test
ix) For testing goodness of fit __________ test is used.
a) Normal b) F c) t d) Chi-square
x) Student’s t-test is applicable in case of __________ sample size.
a) large b) for any
c) small d) none of these
xi) Equality of two population variances can be tested by
2
a) Z-test b) F-test c) χ -test d) t-test
xii) Chance variation in the manufactured product is _________
a) Controllable b) Uncontrollable
xiii) If μ and σ are process mean and standard deviation respectively, then 3 σ
control limits are given by
a) μ ± σ b) μ ± 3σ
c) μ ± 2σ d) None of these
xiv) The death rate obtained for a segment of a population is known as
a) Specific death rate b) Crude death rate
c) Standardized rate d) Vital index

i) Define :
a) Population
b) Sample.
ii) Describe probability sampling.
iii) Define alternative hypothesis.
iv) Define Type-I error.
v) State central limit theorem.
*SLRW137* -3- SLR-W – 137
vi) Explain the term defect.

vii) What is product control ?
viii) Define CDR.
ix) Explain the need of vital statistics.

i) Distinguish between SRSWR and SRSWOR.
ii) Distinguish between chance causes and assignable causes of variation.
iii) Describe the procedure to test for testing population mean μ = μ 0 based
on t-distribution.
B) Define General Fertility Rate (GFR). Also state the merits and demerits of
GFR. 4

i) Show that in case of SRSWOR, expected value of sample mean square is
the population mean square.
ii) Give the 3σ control limits for p-chart when standard are not given. Also
explain the working of p-chart.
iii) Define Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR) and Net Reproductive Rate (NRR).
Also state the limitations of GRR.

i) With usual notations, prove that for SRSWR
N−1 2
V(y n ) = S
Nn
ii) Explain the criteria of detecting lack of control in X and R charts.
iii) Describe the procedure for testing H 0 : μ = μ 0 and H 0 : μ 1 = μ 2 based on
normal distribution.
_____________________
*SLRW138* SLR-W 138
S e a t
N o .

METEOROLOGY
Meteorological Instruments (Paper IV)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

4) Use of scientific calculator and log table is allowed.
1. Choose and write a correct answer from given alternatives. 14
i) The float gauge is used to measure __________

a) Sunshine b) Rainfall c) Radiations d) Humidity
ii) For automatic recording of rainfall __________ is used.

a) Anemograph b) Hydrograph c) Barograph d) Float gauge
iii) A _________ is used for the measurement of temperature.
a) Thermometer b) Barometer c) Anemometer d) Hygrometer
iv) A temperature of 0°C is equal to ___________ 0F.
a) 40 b) 0 c) 32 d) 80
v) A temperature of 100°C is equal to __________ 0F.
a) 80 b) 212 c) 373 d) 672
vi) The relation connecting Kelvins scale and Celsius scale is _________
a) K = C + 273 b) K = C 273 c) K = 273 * C d) K = 273/C
P.T.O.
SLR-W 138 -2- *SLRW138*
vii) The lines joining places of equal ___________ are called isobars.
a) Temperature b) Pressure
c) Humidity d) Wind speed
viii) Aneroid barometer is used to measure atmospheric ____________

a) Density b) Pressure
c) Temperature d) Volume
ix) Wind is __________ in motion.

a) Atmosphere b) Weather
c) Climate d) Air
x) ___________ is a flowing wave of air, moving hither and thither indefinitely.

a) Wind b) Weather
c) Climate d) Atmosphere
xi) Unit of wind velocity is ___________

a) 0C b) Km/hr
c) mb d) g/cm3
xii) The instrument used to detect direction of wind is known as _________

a) Wind vane b) Barometer
c) Thermometer d) Hygrometer
xiii) The instrument used to measure humidity is known as ___________

a) Thermometer b) Hygrometer
c) Barometer d) Hydrometer
xiv) The arrangement of two dissimilar metals forming two junctions is known
as __________
a) Thermograph b) Thermopile
c) Thermocouple d) Thermometer
*SLRW138* -3- SLR-W 138

i) Describe different types of rain gauges.
ii) Obtain interrelation between different temperature scales.
iii) Why mercury is used in thermometer ?
iv) What is a barometer ?
v) What are advantages of a barograph over a Fortins barometer ?
vi) What is an anemometer ?
vii) What are advantages of anemograph over an anemometer ?
viii) How relative humidity is measured using dry and wet bulb thermometers ?
ix) What is humidity ?

i) With neat diagram explain construction and working of ordinary rain gauge.
ii) Draw neat labeled diagram of mercury barometer. Describe its construction
and working.
iii) With neat diagram explain construction and working of hair hygrometer.
B) Calculate atmospheric pressure in mb if reading of Fortins barometer is 27 inch.
(Given : density of Hg = 13.6 g/cc). 4

i) With neat diagram explain the construction and working of automatic
siphon gauge.
ii) With neat diagram explain construction and working of mercury thermometer.
iii) Write a note on radiation pyrometer.

i) Write a note on thermocouple.
ii) With neat diagram explain construction and working of cup anemometer.
iii) With neat labeled diagram explain construction and working of Barograph.
_____________________
*SLRW139* SLR-W 139
Seat
No.

GEOCHEMISTRY
Chemistry of the Earth (Paper IV)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

4) Answer to both Sections should be written in same answer
book.
1) The amount of CO2 in the soil is __________
a) 0.001 b) 1.03 c) 0.3 d) 1.02
2) _________ are formed by adding oxides or chlorides of Na and alkaline earth
material.
a) Mont Morillonite b) Illite
c) Kaolinite d) China clay
3) Mantle is mainly made up of ________ silicate.
a) Mg-Fe b) Ni-Fe
c) Mn-Fe d) Na-Fe
4) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) for pure water is ___________ ppm.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
5) Soil whose dimensions are between __________ mm is silty soil.
a) 2 and 0.2 b) 0.2 and 0.02
c) 0.02 and 0.002 d) < 0.002
P.T.O.
SLR-W 139 -2- *SLRW139*
6) Smectite type of clay structure has _________ layers.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
7) Pyroxene mineral convert to _________ mineral by oxidation and hydration.
a) Kaolinite b) Smectite c) Goethite d) Calcite
8) B soil horizon is characterised by accumulation of leached elements from
________ horizon.
a) R b) D c) C d) A
9) Core is mainly made up of
a) Mg-Fe b) Ni-Fe c) Mn-Fe d) Na-Fe
10) The process involving gain of electrons is known as
a) oxidation b) reduction c) potential d) reductant
11) __________ soil horizon is rich in organic matter (humus).
a) A b) C c) D d) R
12) Marine clays are mainly of _________ type.
a) Illite b) Kaolinite
c) China clay d) Mont Morillonite
13) The most susceptible mineral to chemical weathering is
a) Muscovite b) Topaz c) Olivine d) Quartz
14) If pH of the soil is 5 then the soil is said to be
a) acidic b) alkaline c) basic d) neutral
i) What is hydrogen ion concentration in pure water at 25° C ?
ii) Name the air pollutants.
iii) What is humus in soil ?
iv) Mineral susceptibility sequence for chemical weathering.
v) Explain role of particulate matter in air pollution.
vi) What is mollisol soil ?
vii) Name soil pollutants.
viii) What is gravitational differentiation ?
ix) Define pollution.
*SLRW139* -3- SLR-W 139

i) Eh and pH.
ii) Processes of chemical weathering.
iii) Describe Eh and pH diagram.
B) What are factors controlling soil formation ? 4
i) Describe various soil texture.
ii) Explain soil pollution.
iii) Describe smectite structure.
i) Explain physicochemical system of the earth.
ii) Explain air pollution.
iii) Describe water pollution.
_______________
*SLRW140* SLR-W – 140
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Paper – VI)
Histology and Physiology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1) _________ tissue is the firstly evolved in the animal kingdom.
a) Nervous b) Muscular c) Epithelial d) Connective
2) The packing structure in nervous tissue is called
a) Cyton b) Axon c) Dendrites d) Neuroglia
3) The part of the tooth which projects above the surface of the jaw is called as
a) Crown b) Neck c) Root d) Cervix
4) The thickest muscular coat is present in the ________ region of the alimentary
canal.
a) Oesophagus b) Stomach
c) Small intestine d) Large intestine
5) Exocrine part of pancreas secretes
a) bile b) pancreatic juice
c) intestinal juice d) saliva
6) The podocytes are present in the
a) renal capsule b) uterus
c) collecting tubule d) loop of Henle
7) Luteotropic Hormone (LTH) is also known as
a) luteinizing hormone b) prolactin
c) progesterone d) estrogen
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 140 -2- *SLRW140*
8) Duration of the estrous cycle is ________ days.

a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 28
9) The process of termination of pregnancy is called as
a) menstruation b) lactation
c) parturation d) misturation
10) The cellular immunity involves in
a) B-lymphocytes b) T-lymphocytes
c) A-lymphocytes d) Z-lymphocytes
11) Defensive mechanism of body is called as
a) Clearity b) Immunity c) Community d) Variety
12) Hcl is secreted by
a) Chief cells b) Argentaffin cells
c) Mucous cells d) Oxyntic cells
13) Embryonic RBCs are manufactured in
a) pancreas b) stomach c) liver d) intestine
14) Colostrum is secreted by breast contains
a) milk b) milk with sugar
c) milk with salt d) milk without fat
2. Answer any seven of the following. 14
i) Structure of squamous epithelium
ii) IUD
iii) Structure of antibody
iv) Amniocentesis
v) Seminiferous tubule
vi) Nephron
vii) Estrogen
viii) Draw neat labelled diagram of T.S. of spinal cord
ix) TTB.
*SLRW140* -3- SLR-W – 140

i) Describe the histological structure of Graaffian follicle.
ii) Explain the chemical methods of contraceptives.
iii) Describe the structure and functions of striated muscle.
B) Write about hormones secreted by Adenohypophysis. 4
4. Attempt any two of the followings. 14

i) Describe the structure of bony tissue.
ii) Describe histology of stomach.
iii) Explain male sex hormones.

i) Describe the histological structure of liver.
ii) Define menstruation. Explain different changes of all phases of menstrual
cycle.
iii) Describe the estrous cycle.
———————
*SLRW141* SLR-W 141
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

MATHEMATICS (Paper V) (New)
Differential Equation

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.


1) The general solution of x2p2 + 3xyp + 2y2 = 0 is
a) (x c) (y c) = 0 b) (y c) (x2 c) = 0
c) (xy c) (x2y c) = 0 d) (xy c) (y c) = 0
2) Solution of differential equation p2 7p + 12 = 0 is
a) (y + 4x c) (y + 3x c) = 0 b) (y 4x c) (y + 3x c) = 0
c) (y 4x c) (y 3x c) = 0 d) None of these
3) The differential equation of the form eby(a bp) = f(pebyax) reduces to
Clairauts form by the substitution
a) ex = u, ey = v b) eax = u, eby = v
c) eax = u, ey = v d) eax = u, eby = v
4) The C.F. of the differential equation is

@ O @ O
N N " O N
@ N
@ N
a) y = c1x2 + b)
?
O ? N
c) y = c1x + c2 d) y = c1 + c2 x2
5) Homogeneous linear differential equation with variable coefficient can be
reduced to linear differential equation with constant coefficient by changing
the independent variable x to z by using the substitution
a) x = ez b) x = ez c) z = ex d) z = ex
P.T.O.
SLR-W 141 -2- *SLRW141*
6) The C.F. of the differential equation is

@ O @ O
N " N O A
@ N
@ N
a) ?

N ?
b) ?
N
?
c) c1x + c2x2 d) c1x + c2

N N
7) If 1+ P + Q = 0 then the solution of is

@ O @ O
2 3 O
@ N
@ N
a) y = ex b) y = ex c) y = e2x d) y = e2x
8) If P + Qx = 0 then the solution of is

@ O @ O
2 3 O
@ N
@ N
a) y = ex b) y = e x c) y = x d) y = x
9) The known solution of the differential equation
is
@ O @ O
N ! N ! O N N
@ N
@ N
a) u = x b) u = 1 c) u = 1 d) u = x
10) The general solution of the equation xdx + ydy + zdz = 0 is
a) x + y + z = c b) x y z = c
c) x2 + y2 + z2 = c d) xyz = c
d x d y d z
11) The one solution of the equation x z

y z

is
( x y )
a) log (x2y2) = log c1 b) log (xy) = log c1

c) log (xyz) = log c1 d) log (x/y) = log c1
12) The one solution of the equation is

d x d y d z

m z n y n x l z l y m x
a) ldx mdy + ndz = 0 b) ldx + mdy ndz = 0

c) ldx + mdy + ndz = 0 d) ldx mdy ndz = 0
13) The equation yzdx + zxdy + xydz = 0 is ________ the condition of integrability.
a) Satisfied b) Not satisfied c) Not integrable d) None of these
14) A differential equation of the type __________ is called total differential equation.
a) P + Q + R = 0 b) Pdx + Qdy Rdz = 0
c) Pdx Qdy + Rdz = 0 d) Pdx + Qdy + Rdz = 0
*SLRW141* -3- SLR-W 141

1) Solve x = y + alog P.
2) Solve p2 (x2 a2) 2xyp + (y2 + a4) = 0.
3) Define Clairauts differential equation and explain the method of finding its
general solution.
4) Solve .
@ O @ O
N N " O N
@ N
@ N
5) Solve .
@ O @ O
$ O
N @ N
@ N
6) Solve .
d y d y
c o t x ( s i n x ) y 0
d x
d x
7) Explain how to solve the simultaneous differential equation

d x d y d z

P Q R
by the method of multipliers.
8) Solve .
d x d y d z

m z n y n x l z l y m x
9) Find the necessary condition for the integrability of the equation

2xyzdx z (x2 + z) dy y (x2 + y) dz = 0.

1) Solve y = 2px + x2p4.
2) Explain how to solve the equation
n n 1
is
d y d y d y
n n 1
( a b x ) P ( a b x ) . . . P ( a b x ) P y X
1 n 1 n
n n 1
d x
d x d x
reducible to homogeneous linear equation.
N
3) Solve .
@ O @ O
N N & O N A
@ N
@ N
SLR-W 141 -4- *SLRW141*
B) Explain the method of solving homogeneous linear differential equation 4

n n 1 n 2
by
d y d y d y d y
n n 1 n 2
x P x P x . . . P x P y X
1 2 n 1 n
n n 1 n 2
d x
d x d x d x
changing the independent variable x to z by using substitution x = ez, where

P1, P2, . . ., Pn are constants and X is a function of x.
1) Explain how to solve the equation , where P, Q, R are

@ O @ O
2 3 O 4
@ N
@ N
the function of x only by changing the dependent variable y to v.
d x d y d z
2) Solve
.
x y z y z x z x y
3) Solve 2xdx + 2ydy + (x2 + y2 + ez)dz = 0.
1) Explain how to solve the equation , where P, Q, R are

@ O @ O
2 3 O 4
@ N
@ N
the function of x only by changing the independent variable x to z.
2) Solve .
@ O @ O
! N ! ! N ! $ O N N
@ N
@ N
3) State and prove the necessary condition of integrability of the differential

equation Pdx + Qdy + Rdz = 0, where P, Q, R are the functions of x, y, z.
Hence explain the method of solving this equation when the condition is
satisfied.
_______________
*SLRW142* -1- SLR-W – 142
SLR-W – 142
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (CGPA Pattern – New) Examination, 2016
BOTANY
Paper – V : Plant Physiology and Cytogenetics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

2) Question 1 is compulsory.
4) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences, choosing the using correct answer : 14

1) During the night, stomata are open in ____________
a) C3 Plants b) C4 Plants
c) C2 Plants d) CAM Plants
2) C3 Cycle is known as ____________
a) Calvin cycle b) HSK pathway
c) CAM Pathway d) None of these
3) The organ which supplies the organic substances for translocation is
called ____________
a) Source b) Sink
4) The healthy root nodules in leguminous plants are pink in colour due to the
presence of ____________
a) R.B.C. b) W.B.C. c) Hemoglobin d) Leg hemoglobin
5) ____________ element is called heart of chlorophylls
a) Mg b) Na c) P d) Cu
6) Nitrogen fixation by free living micro organisms was discovered by ________
scientists.
a) Hatch b) Slack
c) Winogardsky d) Emersom
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 142 -2- *SLRW162*
7) In ____________ Chromosome centromere is located at the centre.

a) Metacentric b) Submetacentric
c) Telocentric d) Acrocentric
8) The meiosis gives rise to ____________ haploid cells.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
9) The coupling and repulsion theory was proposed by ____________
a) Bateson and Punnets
b) Punnets and Sutton
c) Bateson and Sutton
d) Morgan and Sutton
10) T. H. Morgan investigated ____________ types of linkage.
a) Two b) Three
c) Four d) Eight
11) There are ____________ kinds of crossing over in chromosomes.
a) Two b) Four
c) Three d) Eight
12) When crossing over take place at more than two places in the same
chromosome pair then it is called as ____________
a) Single crossing over
b) Double crossing over
c) Multiple crossing over
d) None of these
13) In chloroplast the pile of thylakoids forms ____________
a) Cristae b) Stroma
c) Granum d) None of these
14) ____________ pigment is directly involved in photo chemical reaction.
a) Chlorophyll ‘a’
b) Chlorophyll ‘b’
c) Xanthophyll
d) Neoxanthin
*SLRW142* -3- SLR-W – 142
2. Attempt the any seven of the following question : 14

1) Define non symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
2) What is phloem uploading ?
3) Define dimorphic chloroplast.
4) What is ‘L’ chromosome ?
5) Describe Diplotene stage of meiosis – I.
6) Define the linkage.
7) Explain the terms source and sink.
8) What is meant by terminalisation ?
3. A) Attempt any two of the following questions : 10

1) Differentiate between Calvin cycle and C4 cycle.
2) Explain the process of phloem loading.
3) Comment up on the organisms involved in nitrogen fixation.
B) Give the significance of meiosis. 4
4. Answer any two of the following questions : 14

1) Explain the Cyclic photophosphorylation.
2) Explain Coupling and Repulsion hypothesis on linkage.
3) Comment up on the nitrogen cycle.
5. Answer any two of the following questions : 14

1) Explain C4 pathway of photosynthesis.
2) Comment up on the Stern and Votta’s theory of crossing over.
3) Describe the types of chromosomes.
_____________________
*SLRW143* SLR-W – 143
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2016

(New-CGPA Pattern)
MATHEMATICS (Paper – VI)
Abstract Algebra – I

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All questions carry equal marks.

1. Choose the correct alternative of the following : 14

1) Alternating group is of order
( )
a) n 2 ! b)
n!
2
c) n! d) None of these
2) (Z, –) is not a group since it does not satisfy following property

a) Closed b) Associative c) Identity d) Inverse
3) The identity element in group (G, ∗ ) where ∗ is defined by
a ∗ b = a + b – 1 ∀a, b∈G is
a) 0 b) 1 c) – 1 d) None of these
4) A relation ‘~’ on set S defined by a ~ b, b ~ c ⇒ a ~ c ∀a, b, c ∈ s is called.
a) Reflexive b) Symmetric c) Transitive d) None of these
5) The g.c.d. of (10, 150)
6) If φ is Euler phi function then φ (41) =
7) The value of expression [2] . [5] in Z 7 is
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 143 -2- *SLRW143*
8) How many generators are there of Z10 ?

9) The number of subgroups of the group Z20 is
10) If H and K are subgroups of a group G then HK is a subgroup of G iff
a) HK = KH b) HK = G c) HK = H d) None of these
11) A finite group of prime order is
a) Cyclic b) Non cyclic c) Normal d) None of these
12) The number of positive divisor of the integer – 101 is
13) Let f : G → G1 be a homomorphism then kerf = __________
a) { x ∈ G / f (x ) = e } b) { x ∈ G / f (x ) = e′}
c) { x ∈ G / f (x ) = x } d) None of these
14) If N is normal subgroup of G then for a ∈ G
a) O [G(a)]/O [N(a)] b) O [N(a)]/O(a)
c) O [G(a)]/O(a) d) None of these

1) Define congruent modulo n.
2) If a, b, c ∈ G and ba = ca then show that b = c.
3) Write multiplication Cayley table for Z#5 .

4) If (G, ∗ ) is group then prove that identity of G is unique.
5) Define subgroup.
6) Define equivalence relation.
⎛1 2 3 4 ⎞ ⎛ 1 2 3 4⎞
7) If α = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ and β = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ in S compute α −1 β .
4
⎝ 1 4 3 2 ⎠ ⎝ 3 1 4 2 ⎠
8) Solve the equation (1, 2) x = (1 2 3) in S3.
9) Compute ([6] . [2]) ⊕ ([5] . [3]) in Z7.
*SLRW143* -3- SLR-W – 143
⎛ 1 2 3 4 5 6⎞ ⎛1 2 3 4 5 6⎞
1) For permutation σ = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ and T = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ 3 1 4 5 6 2⎠ ⎝ 2 4 1 3 6 5 ⎠
compute σ 2 T and T 2 σ .
2) Find G.C.D. and write its linear combination of the two given number
(1001, 33).
3) Show that every homomorphic image of cyclic group is cyclic.
B) Prove that the set of integer G = {... –3, – 2, – 1, 0, 1, 2, 3, ...} is group with
resp. to addition. 4

1) Show that every quotient group of abelian group is abelian.
2) If θ : G→H is homomorphic then ker θ is subgroup of G.
3) If R is additive group of positive number. Prove that mapping f : R → Rt
defined by f (x) = logx ∀x∈R is an isomorphism.

1) State and prove Cayley’s theorem.
2) Show that every homomorphic image of group G is isomorphic some quotient
group of G.
3) Show that intersection of two subgroup of group G is a subgroup of G.
—————
*SLRW144* SLR-W 144
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part II) (Semester IV) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

BOTANY (Paper VI)
Plant Diversity and Utilization

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
ii) Draw a neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.
iv) All questions carry equal marks.
1. Rewrite the correct answer from the given alternatives : (1×14=14)

1) Botanical name of tur is
a) Cajanus cajan b) Cicer aerietinum
c) Medicago sativa d) Sesbania sesban
2) Medicago sativa originated from __________ Western Asia.
a) East b) West
c) North d) South
3) Cocos nucifera belongs to the family
a) Liliaceae b) Palmae
c) Malvaceae d) Cucurbitaceae
4) The Withania somnifera drug is obtained from
a) rhizome b) stem
c) root d) leaf
5) __________ is an example of vegetable oil sources.
a) Groundnut b) Chick pea
c) Red gram d) Lucerne
6) __________ brasiliensis is the botanical name of rubber.
a) Celosia b) Hevea
c) Cajanus d) Medicago
P.T.O.
SLR-W 144 -2- *SLRW144*
7) The English name of Azadirachta indica is
a) teak b) turmeric
c) indigo d) margosa
8) The dyes is obtained from the bark of
a) Tectona sp. b) Celosia sp.
c) Curcuma sp. d) Acasia sp.
9) Manjista belongs to the family
a) Rubiaceae b) Caesalpinaceae
c) Mimosaceae d) Fagaceae
10) Acalypha is an example of __________ plant.
a) seasonal b) binnial
c) perennial d) climber
11) Opuntia sp. belongs to the family
a) Crassulaceae b) Nyctaginaceae
c) Cactaceae d) Combretaceae
12) __________ is an example of cosmetic and perfumes.
a) Citronella b) Kutch
c) Bryophyllum d) Red gram
13) __________ barbadense is the botanical name of korpad.
a) Rosa b) Aloe
c) Jasmine d) Citronella
14) Emblica officinales belongs to the family
a) Solanaceae b) Zingiberaceae
c) Acanthaceae d) Euphorbiaceae
2. Answer any seven of the following : (7×2=14)

i) Define fodder legume.
ii) Give the botanical name of Cotton and Coir.
iii) Define vegetable oil.
iv) Give the three uses of Adhatoda vesica.
v) What is natural product ?
vi) Define plant dyes.
vii) Write the dyes obtained from Saffron and Palas.
viii) Define Perennial plants.
ix) Write the sources of Rose and Aloe.
*SLRW144* -3- SLR-W 144
i) Describe the cultural practice of Soyabean.
ii) Explain the Bougainvillea as ornamental plant studied by you.
iii) Describe the origin, morphology and uses of Coir.
B) Describe the plant dyes obtained from Log wood and Kutch studied by you. 4

i) Explain the Shevari as fodder legume studied by you.
ii) Describe the Syzygium arromaticum as medicinal plant.
iii) Explain the plant Rose as a perfumes and cosmetics plant studied by you.

i) Explain the Hevea brasiliensis rubber plant studied by you.
ii) Describe the Neem as botanical pesticides.
iii) Write the Acalypha and Crossandra climbers perennials plants studied by
you.

*SLRW145* SLR-W – 145
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

GEOGRAPHY
Biogeography (Paper – V)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat maps and diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Use of map stencil is allowed.
1. Choose and write a correct from given four alternative : 14

1) The _________ grasslands best support the activity of livestock farming in
the world.
(Tropical, Temperate, Polar, Monsoonal)
2) __________ island show distinct species of plant and animals.
(Isolated, Connected, Linked, Grouped)
3) Commercial lumbering is an important activity in ___________ region.
(Tropical, Temperate, Polar, Arid)
4) Sanjay Gandhi national park is located in __________
(Gohatti, Borivali, Chandrpur, Bandipur)
5) __________ bank is famous for fishing.
(Grand, Axis, Reserve, Oucrseas)
6) Many Siberian birds visit India during winter and return back in summer,
which is a type of migration.
(Forceful, Rapid, Gradual, Seasonal)
7) Jim Corbett national park is famous for ___________
(Indian bison, Tiger, Lion, Ahino)
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 145 -2- *SLRW145*
8) The first terrestrial ____________ plants were evolved from the aquatic red
brown algae in Silurian period.
(Blue, Blue green, Green, Colourless)
9) Any element of our environment that man can utilize for his welfare is identified
as a ___________ resource.
(Natural, Physical, Cultural, Artificial)
10) Coal and petroleum contribute ____________ amount of the energy resource.
(Minimum, Maximum, Fifty percent, Very low)
11) The whole __________ history of the earth is divided in to 5 Era.
(Biological, Geological, Ecological, Political)
12) The air prevention and control of Pollution Act enforced in _____________
(1972, 1974, 1981, 1985)
13) The ___________ helped to dispersal of animals and plants during the historical
periods.
(Air, Land bridge, Open sea, Islands)
14) The toxic chemicals used for crop protection disturb the __________
(Environment, Soil, Water, Ecosystem)
1) Water pollution causes.
2) Environmental hazards.
3) Dispersal of plants.
4) Importance of fossil fuels.
5) What is the migration of animals ?
6) Pre Cambrian era.

*SLRW145* -3- SLR-W – 145

1) Evolution of plants.
2) Migration of animals.
3) Use of animal resources.
4) Causes of air pollution.

1) Environmental protection laws.
2) Importance of environment.
3) Conservations of resources.
4) Air pollution.
5. A) Answer any one of the following long answer questions : 6

1) Explain the Darwin’s theory.
2) Seasonal migration.
B) Answer any one of the following long answer questions : 5
1) Environmental protection.
2) Availability of organic resources.
————————
*SLRW146* SLR-W – 146
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

PSYCHOLOGY
Cognitive Psychology (Paper – V)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose and write a correct answer of the following four alternatives. 14

1) __________ is the process whereby we can select from among the many
stimulus.
A) Health B) Attention C) Self D) Stress
2) The ERP, TMS, PET and MRI studies have corroborated and extended
information processing concept of _________
A) Health B) Attention C) Self D) Stress
3) The _________ difference between disjunctive and conjunctive search is well
captured by FIT.
A) Cognitive B) Social C) Abnormal D) Applied
4) _________ guiding idea was that the contents of consciousness.
A) Maslow B) Wundt C) Skinner D) Adler
5) The scientific _________ was developed primarily in William James.
A) Psychology B) Sociology C) Economics D) History
6) Today the study of ________ activity is again respectable.
A) Mental B) Social C) Objective D) Happiness
7) Behaviorism also failed to provide insights into the nature of _________
A) Perception B) Anxiety C) Self D) Depression
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 146 -2- *SLRW146*
8) _________ theories specify ways in which stimuli lead to responses.

A) Behaviorist B) Functionalist C) Evolutionary D) Socialist
9) The _______ approach produced firm foundations for future studies.
A) Functionalist B) Behaviorist C) Evolutionary D) Socialist
10) _________ proposed by Darwin.
A) Control B) Evolutionary C) Self D) Mind
11) ________ activities are like computer programs is a leap.
A) Mental B) Social C) Objective D) Happiness
12) ________ favored the view that selection is made at an early stage of
processing.
A) Broadbent B) Adler C) Skinner D) Maslow
13) The goal of ________ is to take in information about the world.
A) Self B) Perception C) Evolution D) Sense
14) ________ psychology can be undermined by structure-process-trade-offs.
A) Cognitive B) Social C) Evolutionary D) Abnormal
2. Answer the following (any seven out of ten) : 14

1) Define attention.
2) Who developed a method to examine how information is accessed in memory ?
3) Who established first psychological laboratory ?
4) Full form of MRI.
5) Which theories are limited by facts about the brain ?
6) Define cognition.
7) Which method measures directly observable behavior ?
8) How many method we can evaluate the correlation ?
9) Define encoding.
10) Who won the 2003 Noble Prize in Physiology for their roles in developing MRI ?
*SLRW146* -3- SLR-W – 146
3. Short Notes (any two out of four) : 14

1) Mind and the brain.
2) Mental process.
3) Mental Representation.
4) Top-Down and Bottom-Up Processing.
4. Answer the following (any one) : 14

1) Explain the nature and roles of attention.
OR
2) Explain the correlation Neural Methods.
5. Discuss on the contents of consciousness. 14

______________
*SLRW147* SLR-W – 147
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

ELECTRONICS (Paper – V)
Fundamentals of Operational Amplifier

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Draw the neat diagrams wherever necessary.

i) When the two input signals to a differential amplifier are equal in amplitude
and in the same phase, the output is ___________
a) doubled b) zero
c) maximum d) none of these
ii) A differential amplifier can be used to amplify __________
a) ac signals only b) dc signals only
c) both ac and dc signals d) none of these
iii) The input impedance of an ideal operational amplifier is __________
a) 0 b) 10 K Ω c) infinity d) none of these
iv) In op-amp IC-741, I/P and O/P pins are __________
a) 4, 7 b) 2, 6 c) 1, 5 d) 1, 6
v) A differential amplifier has an Ad of 100 and an Acm of 0.1. What is its CMRR
in dB ?
a) 1000 dB b) 60 dB
c) 30 dB d) This is impossible to determine
vi) A voltage follower has a __________
a) high input impedance b) low output impedance
c) voltage gain of one d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 147 -2- *SLRW147*
vii) An op-amp comparator that uses positive feedback is known as a _________

a) zero crossing detector b) schmitt trigger
c) peak detector d) voltage follower
viii) op-amp integrator can be used as ________ filter.
a) low pass b) high pass
c) band pass d) band stop
ix) In a voltage to current converter, the output current is not affected by ________
a) the load resistance value
b) the input voltage
c) the resistance, R, across which the input voltage is present
d) none of these
x) In an inverting amplifier the input and output voltages are ________
a) in phase b) 180° out of phase
c) 360° out of phase d) 90° out of phase
xi) A zero-crossing detector can be obtained using __________
a) comparator b) half wave rectifier
c) voltage regulator d) bridge rectifier
xii) As the feedback resistor value R is increased, frequency of astable
multivibrator _________
a) increases b) remains same
c) decreases d) none of these
xiii) In phase shift oscillator, op-amp is used in __________
a) voltage follower mode b) differential mode
c) non-inverting mode d) inverting mode
xiv) The closed loop gain in a wien bridge oscillator is __________
a) 29 b) 3 c) > 29 d) 13

i) Draw the equivalent circuit of op-amp.
ii) Compare open loop and closed loop configuration of op-amp.
iii) Sketch the diagram of op-amp as adder.
iv) Give any four applications of a comparator.
v) Draw the diagram of sawtooth oscillator with the help of op-amp.
*SLRW147* -3- SLR-W – 147
vi) Explain slew rate.

vii) What is the concept of virtual ground in op-amp ?
viii) What is the necessity of differential amplifier ?
ix) In case of op-amp define :
a) Input offset voltage
b) Input bias current.

i) Explain current to voltage converter using op-amp.
ii) Draw the circuit diagram for the differential amplifier with constant current
biasing and explain constant current bias.
iii) Write a short note on precision half wave rectifier.
B) Design a Wienbridge oscillator using op-amp for a frequency of oscillation of
1 kHz. Given c = 0.1 μ F. 4

i) Draw and explain the circuit diagram of differentiator by using op-amp. Derive
the expression for output voltage.
ii) Draw the block diagram of operational amplifier and explain it in detail.
iii) With the help of a circuit diagram and associated waveforms describe the
working of basic triangular square-wave generator using op-amp.

i) What is differential amplifier ? What are the different configurations of
differential amplifier ? Explain emitter coupled differential amplifier.
ii) What is schmitt trigger ? Explain its transfer characteristics. Give the
application of schmitt trigger as sine to square wave converter.
iii) Explain op-amp as monostable multivibrator and obtain expression for pulse
width.
_____________________
*SLRW148* -1- SLR-W – 148
SLR-W – 148
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – II (Semester – IV) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

GEOLOGY (Paper – V) (New)
Igneous Petrology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Write a correct answer from the given four alternatives : 14

1) Quartz is an essential mineral in ____________ rocks.
a) Basic b) Acid
c) Intermediate d) Ultrabasic
2) When a rock is made up entirely of crystals, its texture is described as _________
a) Holocrystalline b) Holohyaline
c) Merocrystalline d) Felsitic
3) Plagioclase felspar and matic minerals are present in almost equal amount in
____________ rock.
a) Diorite b) Syenite
c) Gabbro d) Granite
4) The temperature region in which the generation of crystals is slow is called
the ____________ region.
a) Metastable b) Labite
c) Unlabile d) None of these
5) The crystallization of a single pure mineral from a melt of its own composition
is called ____________ magma.
a) Binary b) Unicomponent
c) Ternary d) Multicomponent
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 148 -2- *SLRW148*
6) ____________ is a monomineralic rock.

a) Dunite b) Granite
c) Basalt d) Syenite
7) With release of pressure, the magmatic gases tend to migrate towards points
of ____________ pressure.
a) High b) Very high
c) Least d) Medium
8) Basalt rock is a ____________ rock.
a) Basic b) Intermediate
c) Acidic d) Ultrabasic
9) Texture means the ____________ of mineral grains in a rock.
a) Size b) Shape
c) Arrangement d) All of these
10) Heavy crystals formed during the early phase of crystallization of a magma
have a tendency to sink down is called ____________
a) Fractional crystallization b) Liquid immiscibility
c) Gravity settling d) None of these
11) The continuous and discontinuous reaction series studied by ____________
a) Kant b) N. L. Bowen
c) Lapalace d) Wichert
12) The magma which is rich in Si, Na and K and poor in Ca, Mg, Fe is called
____________ magma.
a) Basic b) Acidic
c) Intermediate d) Ultrabasic
13) Igneous rocks containing mineral grains of more or less equal size are said
to be ____________
a) Inequigranular b) Equigranular
c) Porphyritic d) Ophitic
14) Peridotite rock is a ____________ rocks.
a) Basic b) Ultrabasic
c) Intermediate d) None of the above
*SLRW148* -3- SLR-W – 148

1) What is ‘isotherm’ in crystallization of Ternary magma ?
2) Define differentiation process in magma.
3) Name any four salic minerals.
4) Composition and texture of syenite.
5) What is ultrabasic igneous rocks ?
6) Mineral composition and texture of Diorite.
7) Mineral composition and texture of Gabbro.
8) Formation of pumice rock.
9) What is the difference between magma and lava ?

1) Explain poikilitic texture.
2) Explain directive texture.
3) Explain reaction structure.
B) Write short note on : 4

1) Describe xenolith formations.

1) Explain differentiation process of crystallization.
2) Explain assimilation process in magma.
3) Explain formation of glass and crystals.

1) Explain crystallization process of binary magma.
2) Explain continuous and discontinuous reaction series in magma.
3) Write tabular classification of igneous rocks.
_____________________
*SLRW149* SLR-W 149
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper V)
Immunology and Medical Microbiology
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.


alternatives : 14
1) Widal test is used for diagnosis of
a) enteric fever b) dengue fever
c) urinary tract infection d) candidiasis
2) Dengue virus contains _____________ as genome.
a) SS RNA b) DS RNA c) DS DNA d) SS DNA
3) Pus is used as clinical sample for diagnosis of
a) dengue fever
b) urinary tract infections
c) enteric fever
d) staphylococcal wound infection
4) Virus multiplication in animal cell is prevented by
a) lysozyme b) colicin c) interferon d) complement
5) ___________ cells form antibodies.
a) Macrophages b) Natural killer
c) B lymphocyte d) T lymphocytes
6) Incomplete antigen is known as
a) autoantigen b) hapten
c) immunogen d) interferon
P.T.O.
SLR-W 149 -2- *SLRW149*
7) The reaction between a insoluble antigen and antibody is known as
a) precipitation b) agglutination
c) neutralization d) complement fixation
8) Acid fast staining as microscopic method for diagnosis is used for
a) enteric fever b) dengue fever
c) tuberculosis d) candidiasis
9) Coagulases are produced by
a) Staph. aureus b) Candida albicans
c) Proteus vulgaris d) Salmonella typhi
10) Oral thrush is caused by
a) Candida albicans b) Staph. aureus
c) Salmonella typhi d) Proteus vulgaris
11) T cells are matured in
a) bone marrow b) thymus c) lymph node d) spleen
12) In antibody structure L chain is attached to H chain by
a) hydrogen bond b) disulfide bond
c) carbon-oxygen bond d) electrophilic bond
13) ______________ immunoglobulin is the most abundant in body fluids.
a) IgG b) IgD c) IgM d) IgE
14) Platelet count is decreased during
a) urinary tract infection b) dengue fever
c) enteric fever d) candidiasis
2. Answer in short any seven of the following : 14

1) What is immunodiffusion test ?
2) Give differences between killed and live vaccines.
3) What is heterophile antigen ? Give one example of it.
4) List infections caused by Candida Albicans.
5) What is coagulase ? Give its importance.
*SLRW149* -3- SLR-W 149
6) What is interferon ? Give its role in innate immunity.
7) What is phagocytosis ? Name steps involved in it.
8) Write physicochemical properties of IgE.
9) Write any four features of antigen antibody reactions.

1) Inflammation
2) Antigenicity
3) Biochemical tests for diagnosis of diseases.
B) What are bacterial toxins ? Give differences between exotoxins and endotoxins. 4

1) What are lymphoid organs ? Describe primary lymphoid organs in detail.
2) Which are the types of antigen antibody reactions ? Describe complement
fixation test in detail.
3) Write in short about enteric fever.

1) What is immune response ? Describe in detail about primary and secondary
immune response.
2) What is antigen ? Describe types of antigens in detail.
3) What is defense ? Describe in detail about physico-chemical barriers as first
line of defense.
___________
*SLRW150* SLR-W – 150
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) (New CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

GEOGRAPHY (Paper – VI)
Agricultural Geography

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Draw neat maps and diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Use of map stencil is allowed.
1. Choose and write a correct from given four alternative. 14
1) _________ geography is the sub branch of economic geography.

A) Political B) Historical C) Settlement D) Agriculture
2) According to __________ Agriculture geography deals with a comparative

study of continent and countries agriculture.
A) Hillman B) Coppock C) Symon D) Mayer
3) The word agriculture comes from a _______ term ‘Agercultura’.

A) German B) French C) Latin D) American
4) Climate is a _________ factor affecting agriculture.

A) Physical B) Economic C) Social D) Historical
5) __________ is a economic factor affecting agriculture.

A) Climate B) Government Policies
C) Capital D) Soil
6) Traditional method is a _________ factor affecting agriculture.

A) Physical B) Social C) Economic D) Political
7) Shifting cultivation is called ‘Ladang’ in _________

A) Vitenam B) Indonesia C) India D) Africa
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 150 -2- *SLRW150*
8) H.Y.V. is related to _________

A) Green Revolution B) Novo Culture
C) Precision farming D) White Revolution
9) Mixed farming agriculture involves crops and __________

A) Fruit B) Pulses C) Oil seeds D) Livestock
10) One cattle requires ___________ times more area than a sheep in general.
A) 2 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9
11) India ranks ________ in the production of dairy products in the world.
A) 1st B) 3rd C) 5th D) 7th
12) Large numbers of sheep are present in _________

A) Turkey B) Kazakstan C) Myanmar D) Pakistan
13) In India _______ is the founder of green revolution.

A) Swami B) Sharma C) Swaminathan D) Raman
14) pH value is related to __________

A) Fertilizer B) Photosynthesis
C) Nutrition D) Soil
1) What is agriculture geography ?
2) What is subsistence agriculture ?
3) Name of any three produces of plantation agriculture.
4) What is green revolution ?
5) State any two problems of Indian agriculture.
6) What is Biofertilizer ?
*SLRW150* -3- SLR-W – 150
1) Discuss the significance of the agriculture geography.
2) Describe the economic determinant of agriculture.
3) Write a note on poultry farming.
4) Explain any one of the modern techniques of agriculture.
4. Write any three of the following : 15
1) Explain the nature of agriculture geography.
2) Write a note on green revolution in India.
3) Give a brief account of mixed farming.
4) Write a note on dairy farming.
5. A) Answer any one of the following long answer question. 6
1) Write a note on sheep and goat rearing.
2) What are the types of agriculture explain any one of them.
B) Answer any one of the following long answer question. 5
1) State the major problems of agriculture in India.
2) What are the effects of chemical fertilizer ?
__________________
*SLRW151* SLR-W – 151
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – II) (Semester – IV) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

PSYCHOLOGY (Paper – VI)
Positive Psychology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose and write a correct answer of the following four alternatives : 14

1) Seligman’s description of the __________ pillars of positive psychology.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
2) The ____________ life is focused on active involvement in activities and
relationship with others.
A) Meaningful B) Cultural
C) Engage D) Pleasant
3) ______________ description of the three pillars of positive psychology.
A) Parks B) Seligman
C) Singer D) Rashid
4) The ___________ life reflects the emphasis in positive psychology on
understanding the determinants of the happiness.
A) Meaningful B) Cultural
C) Engage D) Pleasant
5) __________ is a positive effect.
A) Anger B) Fear
C) Negative D) Cheerfulness
6) __________ developed broaden and build theory of positive emotions.
A) Watson B) Fredrickson
C) Tellegen D) Salovey
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 151 -2- *SLRW151*
7) __________ distinctions are important to the focus of Fredrickson’s theory.

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
8) ____________ describes four ways of positive emotions.
A) Watson B) Fredrickson
C) Tellegen D) Salovey
9) _________ examined the cardiovascular consequences of the negative and
positive emotions.
A) Fredrickson B) Skinner
C) Tellegen D) Maslow
10) Coping behaviors are often grouped into ____________ general categories.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
11) __________ describes as personal concerns.
A) Achievements B) Motivations
C) Goals D) Ideas
12) __________ research on personal striving.
A) Cantor B) Emmons
C) Career D) Austin
13) Grouzet suggested the content of human goals across __________ cultures.
A) 10 B) 11 C) 14 D) 15
14) ________ motives refer to the rewards approval praise or situational demands.
A) Internal B) External
C) Identified D) Interjected
2. Answer the following (any seven) : 14

1) Define personal goals.
2) Meaning of personal projects.
3) How many goals included in personal goals across culture ?
4) Define positive affect.
5) Define resilience.
*SLRW151* -3- SLR-W – 151
6) What is a positive emotion ?

7) Define positive psychology.
8) What is happiness ?
9) How many types of well being ?
3. A) Write the short note (any two) : 10

1) Positive psychology
2) Clinical perspectives of resilience
3) Personal goals.
B) Factors of social well-being. 4
4. Answer the following (any two) : 14

1) Explain the areas of positive psychology.
2) Explain the social resources.
3) Explain the measuring personal goals.
5. Answer the following (any two) : 14

1) Discuss on happiness and success in college.
2) Explain the psychological resources.
3) Describe psychology of well-being.
_____________________
*SLRW152* SLR-W 152
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Semester IV) (New CGPA) Examination, 2016

Paper VI : ELECTRONICS
Digital Techniques and Microprocessor
Day and Date : Friday, 6-5-2016 Max.Marks : 70

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

3) Use of calculator is permissible.
4) Draw neat labeled diagram whenever necessary.
1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 14

1) The memory chip has 13 bit address bus then its capacity is
a) 12 KB b) 8 KB c) 16 KB d) 32 KB
2) DAC 0808 has ___________ bit digital inputs.
a) 12 b) 10 c) 8 d) 9
3) ___________ IC is called as line driver.
a) 74244 b) 74245
c) 74138 d) 74373
4) The memory access capacity of 8085 microprocessor is
a) 8 KB b) 32 KB c) 16 KB d) 64 KB
5) The width of accumulator is ___________ bit wide in the 8085 processor.
a) 12 b) 8 c) 2 d) 16
6) A data storage capacity of memory chip 2764 is
a) 4K × 8 b) 8K × 8
c) 12K × 8 d) 16K × 8
7) In R 2R ladder network DAC, the input resistance for each input is
a) R b) 3R c) 4R d) 2R
P.T.O.
SLR-W 152 -2- *SLRW152*
8) ___________ consist of number configurable logic blocks, programmable
interconnections and I/O blocks.
a) PLA b) PAL c) CPLD d) FPGA
9) In I/O mapped I/O scheme 8085 will access ___________ I/O ports.
a) 256 b) 512
c) 65536 d) 128
10) ___________ symbol is used to represent the start and stop of program in
the flow chart.
a) Oval b) Diamond
c) Parallelogram d) Rectangle
11) RRC instruction is an example of ___________ addressing mode.
a) Register b) Direct
c) Indirect d) Implied
12) The maximum clock frequency for 8085 microprocessor is
a) 3 MHz b) 6 MHz
c) 12 MHz d) 2 MHz
13) ___________ IC acts as address latch in 8085 based system.
a) 74245 b) 74373
c) 74138 d) 74244
14) ___________ instruction is a machine control group of instruction.
a) CALL 2040 b) HLT c) CMA d) RET

1) Give the basic difference between SRAM and Flash memory.
2) Define accuracy and resolution for DAC.
3) Explain in brief the concept of programmable array logic.
4) Define T state and machine cycle.
5) State four instructions having indirect addressing mode of 8085 processor.
6) Write the role of ALE signal in the 8085 based system.
7) What happens when NOP instruction is executed ?
8) Enumerate the action with respect to status signals S0 and S1 of 8085 processor.
*SLRW152* -3- SLR-W 152
1) Explain in brief the concept of CPLD.
2) Compare I/O mapped I/O scheme with memory mapped I/O scheme.
3) Write the functions of the following pins :
1) ALE
2) I O / M
3) 9 4
4) 4 ,
5) HOLD
B) Find out the analog output for 4 bit R - 2R ladder network DAC if 0 = 0 volt
and 1 = 5 volt for digital input 1) 1110 and 2) 1010. 4

i) What is Tri-State logic ? Explain working of 74245 trans-receiver.
ii) Write the salient features of 8085 processor. Explain register array in brief
with suitable examples.
iii) What is instruction ? Classify instruction set according to the functional
category with suitable examples.

i) Write assembly language program to XOR two 8 bit numbers stored at memory
location 2051 and 2052 and put the 8 bit result at memory location 2053 with
flow chart.
ii) Write a note on basic microprocessor based system design with bus
architecture.
iii) Explain the working principle of R 2R ladder network DAC.
___________
*SLRW153* SLR-W – 153
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester – IV) Examination, 2016

(New CGPA)
GEOLOGY Paper – VI
Sedimentary and Metamorphic Petrology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Choose and write correct answer from given alternatives. 14
1) Kankar is _______ deposit.

a) carbonate b) siliceous c) argillaceous d) ferrugenous
2) Sandstones with rock fragments up to 25% are called _______

a) arkose b) grit c) graywacke d) none of these
3) Which of the following shows non-foliated fabric ?

a) Marble b) Schist c) Slate d) Phyllite
4) The sedimentary rocks precipitated from solution within the basin of deposition
are called
a) breccia b) conglomerate c) sharle d) limestone
5) The crushed, angular rock fragments formed in shear zones are represented
by ______
a) fault breccia b) volcanic breccia
c) Sedimentary breccia d) conglomerate
6) Omphacite is representative mineral of ________ Facies.

a) zeolite b) greenschist c) eclogite d) amphibolite
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 153 -2- *SLRW153*
7) The ________ represent shallow water zone, extending from land mass and
merges in ocean.
a) continental slope b) continental shelf
c) abyssal zone d) none of these
8) The ________ facies rocks are formed at low temperature and low pressure
conditions.
a) amphibolites b) granulite c) eclogite d) zeolite
9) The example of residual deposits is __________

a) shale b) conglomerate c) limestone d) bauxite
10) Gneiss represents ________ foliated fabric.
a) strongly b) non c) weakly d) none of these
11) A tendency of metamorphic rock to split easily along thin, smooth planes is
called_________
a) slaty cleavage b) lamination c) stratification d) none of these
12) The process of chemical alteration of a rock by hydrothermal and other fluids
is __________
a) anatexis b) polymetamorphism
c) metasomatism d) pyrometamorphism
13) The sediments having size > 256 mm are called _______
a) gravels b) pebbles c) silt d) boulders
14) The process of differential, or partial, melting of rocks, in the forming of
metamorphic rocks is __________
a) retrograde metamorphism b) polymetamorphism
c) anatexis d) metasomatism

i) What is Arkose ?
ii) Describe deltaic environment of deposition.
iii) Explain characters and formation of non-foliated fabric.
iv) Write a short note on- Shale.
*SLRW153* -3- SLR-W – 153
v) Give the names of rocks having strongly-foliated fabric.

vi) Define skarn deposits.
vii) Give different terms used to describe Grain size of sediments.
viii) What is Granulite ?
ix) Explain characters of Marble.

i) What are rudaceous deposits ? Add a note on conglomerate.
ii) Define metamorphic facies. Describe eclogite facies.
iii) Describe isotropic and anisotropic fabric of metamorphic rocks.
B) Give the classification of sedimentary rocks on mineral composition. 4

i) Define metamorphic rocks. Explain the characters of Mylonite and Gneiss.
ii) Explain the processes of formation of sedimentary rocks.
iii) Describe in detail carbonate rocks.

i) Describe poly-metamorphism and retrograde metamorphism.
ii) Describe laterite and bauxite.
iii) Describe alluvial fans, braided and meandering rivers with respect to fluvial
environment of deposition.
__________________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. II (Semester IV) (CGPA New) Examination, 2016

MICROBIOLOGY (Paper VI)
Applied Microbiology II
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct option : 14

i) Fermentation is a _______ process.
a) physical b) chemical
c) physicochemical d) biological
ii) The screening of organisms also helps in ______ the unwanted organisms.
a) enriching b) discarding
c) enumerating d) selecting
iii) The productive efficiency of organism is increased by
a) isolation b) enrichment
c) screening d) improvement
iv) The layer of oil should be _______ cm depth while preserving the organism.
a) 0.1 b) 1 c) 10 d) 100
v) A vacuum is applied in the technique of _______ for preservation.
a) Lyophilization b) Nitrogen storage
c) Soil culture d) Subculture
vi) The laboratory fermentors have maximum capacity of ______ litres.
a) 5 b) 15 c) 10 d) 100
vii) A sparger is a device of
a) aeration b) agitation
c) cooling d) sterilization
P.T.O.
SLR-W 154 -2- *SLR-W154*
viii) The high protein content of fermentation medium leads to problem of
a) contamination b) spilling
c) foam d) evaporation
ix) _______ is the main raw material used in commercial production of alcohol.
a) molasses b) WSL
c) CSL d) Fruit juice
x) ________ is the optimum pH for penicillin production.
a) 6.0 b) 7.2 c) 7.5 d) 8.0
xi) The alcohol recovery is done by
a) Precipitation b) Distillation
c) Filtration d) Centrifugation
xii) _______ is an example of probiotic food.
a) milk b) cheese c) yogurt d) pickles
xiii) The temperature used for growing yeast as SCP is
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40
xiv) _______ is measured in turbidimetric assay.
a) inhibition zone b) stimulation zone
c) turbidity d) colour intensity
2. Answer any seven : 14

i) What is fermentation ?
ii) What is dual fermentation ?
iii) Write ideal characteristics of production strain.
iv) What is primary screening ?
v) List minimum 4 products of fermentation.
vi) Define median.
vii) Describe device of aeration.
viii) Write on antifoam agents.
ix) What is batch fermentation ?
*SLR-W154* -3- SLR-W 154

i) Describe surface and submerged culture methods.
ii) Write on secondary screening.
iii) Write an probiotics.
B) Give an account of continuous fermentation. 4

i) Write on penicillin fermentation.
ii) Give an account of turbidometric assay.
iii) Write an fermentor design mentioning parts and their functions.

i) Define mean, mode and give applications d-biostatistics.
ii) Give an account of single cell protein.
iii) Describe diffusion and enzymatic assay.
_________________
*SLRW155* -1- SLR-W – 155
SLR-W – 155
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (New) Examination, 2016

ENGLISH (Compulsory)
Break Through

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. A) Choose the correct alternative : 6

1) Which of the following statements about the average parson is not true ?
a) He teaches deference to the merely rich
b) He is the alley of the squire
c) He teaches honesty and equality
d) He is a hypocrite
2) According to G. B. Shaw, people get their opinions so largely from
a) The meditation they do b) The discussion they hold
c) The rich people they meet d) The newspapers they read
3) One of the devices women writers resorted in order to conceal their
identity was
a) To sign their names as ‘Pericles’
b) To adopt a male name
c) To adopt a false female name
d) To sign their work as ‘Anon’
4) Abraham Lincoln believes that the world can never forget
a) what the brave men did at Gettysburg
b) what the rich people did for the poor
c) what he did for the American people
d) what the government did for the capitalists
5) The flower mentioned in the poem “Abou Ben Adhem” is
a) Rose b) Lily c) Jasmine d) Lotus
6) The poem “O Captain! My Captain!” is
a) a sonnet b) a lyric c) an elegy d) a ballad
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 155 -2- *SLRW155*
B) Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct modal auxiliary from
the brackets. 2
1) _____________ I park my car here ? (Will, Must, May, Would)
2) ___________ I make a cup of coffee for you ? (Would, Must, Might, Shall)
C) Write the following sentences in indirect speech. 2
1) Sachin said to me, “What is the price of this shirt?”
2) The doctor said us, “Don’t eat fruits and vegetables without washing them.”
2. Answer any five of the following questions in brief : 10

1) How do the newspapers, according to G. B. Shaw, conspire to indoctrinate
the masses into following the agenda of a few rich people ?
2) Why were Abraham Lincoln and the American people gathered at the battle
field of Gettysburg ?
3) Why do so many women writers choose to remain anonymous ?
4) What are the immaterial conditions of life that hinder women’s talents as
writers ?
5) What did Abraham Lincoln expect from his people ?
6) What does G. B. Shaw say about religion ?
3. A) Answer any two of the following in brief : 6

1) What is the theme of the poem Abou Ben Adhem ?
2) Why does the poet ask the Captain the rise up ?
3) Why the captain in the poem is also called the ‘father’ ?
B) Write short reports on any two of the following : 4

1) The inaugural function of Literary Association of your college.
2) The Prime Minister’s visit to China.
3) Your visit to a drought prone area in Marathwada.

1) Prepare a presentation consisting of five charts or slides to promote a “Dish
Washer” in the market.
2) Write a presentation on the topic “Corruption in Higher Education” using
charts, transparencies or slides.
5. Write a transcript of group discussion on the topic “Assassinations of modern

thinkers in Maharashtra.” 10
_____________________
*SLRW156* SLR-W – 156
Seat
No.

PHYSICS
Special Paper – IX : Mathematical Physics and Statistical Physics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
N.B. : I) All questions are compulsory.

II) Draw diagram wherever necessary.
III) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
IV) Use of calculator is allowed.
1. Select correct alternatives from the following : 10

I) The integration of vector along a curve is ______________
a) Volume integral b) Curved integral
c) Line integral d) Surface integral
II) In orthogonal curvilinear coordinate system, the coordinate surfaces are in
general ______________
a) Plane b) Curved c) Circular d) Spherical

III) In Green’s symmetrical theorem ∫∫∫ (φ ∇ )
2
ψ + ∇ φ ⋅ ∇ ψ dv = ______________
v

∫∫ (ψ ∇ φ) ⋅ ds

a) ∫∫ (φ ∇ ψ ) ⋅ ds b)
s
s

c) ∫∫ v ⋅ n̂ ds d) ∫∫ v ⋅dl
s s
IV) In cylindrical coordinate system, there lies symmetry about ______________

a) Point b) An axis c) An plane d) Curve
V) For the distribution of most probable condition is ______________
a) w = 0 b) In w = 0 c) δ In w = 0 d) δ In w ≠ 0
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 156 -2- *SLRW156*
VI) Thermodynamic can not be applied to ______________ ensemble.

a) Micro b) Microcanonical
c) Canonical d) Grand canonical
VII) The relation between vmp, v and vrms of the gas molecule in a system is
______________
a) v rms < v < v mp b) v rms ≤ v ≤ v mp
c) v mp < v < v rms d) v mp ≤ v ≤ v rms
VIII) The Steafan’s law is ______________
hc
a) E = σ T4 b) E = T4 c) E = h γ d) E =
λ
IX) Fermi-Dirac statistics is applicable to ______________
a) Electrons b) Photons c) Molecules d) Particles
X) The Bose-Einstein’s distribution law is given by the equation ______________
g g
a) ni = α
i
ui / kT b) ni = α
i
ui / kT
e e +1 e e −1
gi gi
c) ni = α d) ni = α
e eui / kT e +1

i) Define volume integral.
ii) What are accessible microstates ?
iii) Define phase space.
iv) Draw the Maxwell-Boltzmann energy distribution curve and distribution curve
for molecular speeds.
v) Define Fermi energy.
vi) State Gauss divergence theorem for vector field.
*SLRW156* -3- SLR-W – 156

I) Compare the Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics, Bose-Einsteins statistics and
Fermi-Dirac statistics.
II) Explain concept of orthogonal curvilinear coordinates.
III) What do you mean by an ensemble ? Define microcanonical and canonical
ensemble.
B) Show that surface integral of position vector is equal to three times the
volume enclosed by the surface by using Gauss theorem

( )
∫∫∫ ∇ ⋅ r dv = ∫∫ r ⋅ ds = 3v . 4
v s

I) Derive an expression for Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution law.
II) Explain the application of Fermi-Dirac distribution law to free electrons in the
metal.
III) Deduce the functional relationship between entropy and probability. Hence
states the statistical definition of entropy.

I) Obtain an expression for divergence in orthogonal curvilinear coordinates
and extend the expression in orthogonal curvilinear coordinates to Cartesian
form.
II) Describe the Lummer and Prinqsheim’s experiment to study the energy
distribution in the spectrum of black body radiation. What are the results of
the experiment ?
_____________
*SLRW157* SLR-W – 157
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) (New) Examination, 2016

Special Paper – IX : CHEMISTRY
Physical Chemistry

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

4) Use of logarithmic table/scientific calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the most correct alternative from each of the following and rewrite the
sentence : 10
1) How many phases are present in the system having mixture of N2, H2 and O2
gases ?
a) one b) two c) three d) zero
2) For a system SM SL SV the degree of freedom is
a) one b) zero c) two d) three
3) An electrode at which reduction occurs is called
a) anode b) cathode c) null electrode d) none of these
4) When the temperature coefficient of cell is unity, the entropy change for cell
reaction is equal to
a) – nF b) nF c) zero d) F
5) The cell emf E cell is related to ΔG as ΔG =
⎛ dE ⎞
a) + n E° F b) – n E° F c) E° – T ⎜ dT ⎟ d) none of these
⎝ ⎠p
6) When free energy change is zero cell emf is

P.T.O.
SLR-W – 157 -2- -2- *SLRW157*
7) The cell that converts chemical energy in to electrical energy is known as

a) galvanic cell b) electrolytic cell
c) voltaic cell d) both a and c
8) The rate of photochemical reaction depends on
a) intensity of light b) concentration
c) temperature d) none of these
9) Optical density is expressed as
I It
a) log T b) log o c) log d) all of these
It Io
10) IC means
a) internal conversion b) internal cell
c) internal concentration d) all of these

1) Calculate the number of components, number of phases and degree of freedom
of a liquid at its critical point.
2) What is condensed system ? Give the mathematical equation for reduced
phase rule.
3) What is electrolytic cell ? Give examples.
4) What is electrochemical series ?
5) Mention four different types of electrodes.
6) Define Grotthus-Draper law and Lambert law of photochemistry.

1) Define molar extinction coefficient and absorbance. How they are related to
each other ?
2) How will you represent ?
a) negative electrode
b) positive electrode
c) complete cell.
3) Define the term number of components of the system and give one
example.
*SLRW157* -3- -3- SLR-W – 157
B) Calculate the electrode potential of the following electrode at 298 K. 4
++ +++
Fe(a=1), Fe Pt
(a=0.1)
Given – E0 = 0.771 volt .

Fe+ + + /Fe+ +

1) Discuss the application of phase rule to lead-silver system.
2) What are photochemical reactions ? How do they differ from the dark reactions ?
3) Derive an expression for emf of an electrolyte concentration cell without
transference.

1) Explain how emf measurements may be used to determine thermodynamic
parameters ΔG, ΔH and ΔS .
2) What is quantum yield ? The quantum yield for the reaction 2HI → H2 + I2 is 2.
Calculate the number of photons absorbed in an experiment in which
0.01 moles of HI are decomposed.
(N = 6.023 × 1023)
3) Calculate emf of the given cell, at 298 K
+ ++
Ag/Ag (a = 0.1) Zn (a = 0.1) Zn
1 2
Is the reaction is spontaneous ? Give reason.
(Given : E0Ag = 0.799 volt and E0Zn = − 0.76 volt )
–––––––––––––––––

*SLRW158* SLR-W – 158

Seat
No.

BOTANY (Special Paper – IX)
Biology of Cryptogams

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

alternatives. 10
i) Algae occurring in waters having high concentration of salinity are called as
a) Halophytes b) Lithophytes
c) Cryophytes d) Parasites
ii) The science that deals with the study of algae is called as
a) Mycology b) Phycology c) Bryology d) Cytology
iii) _________ belongs to class chlorophyceae.
a) Nostoc b) Ectocarpus
c) Chara d) Batrachospermum
iv) Powdery mildew of Teak is caused by _________ sp.
a) Polyporus b) Agaricus c) Penicillium d) Uncinula
v) __________ is a wood rotting fungus.
a) Polyporus b) Albugo c) Puccinia d) Cercospora
vi) Gemma bodies of Marchantia are concerned with __________ reproduction.
a) asexual b) vegetative c) sexual d) all the above
vii) Amphiploic siphonostele is found in
a) Psilotum b) Lycopodium c) Marsilea d) Marchantia
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 158 *SLRW158*
viii) __________ is example of Parenchymatous forms of algae.

a) Nostoc b) Chara c) Vaucheria d) Ulva
ix) Stalk of a fruiting body of Mushroom is called
a) Stipe b) Gills c) Umbrella d) Collar
x) Antheridiophore is the stalk of male sex organ of
a) Riccia b) Marchantia c) Anthoceros d) Both a and c

i) Give systematic position of Ectocarpus.
ii) Define haplontic type of life cycle.
iii) Sketch and label the structure of archegonium in Marchantia.
iv) Define Life cycle of algae.
v) Explain any one method of vegetative reproduction in fungi.
vi) What is spawning ?

i) Describe the filamentous forms of algae.
ii) Describe the external morphology of Marsilea.
iii) Give occurrence and structure of mycelium in Polyporus.
B) Give economic importance of Mushrooms. 4

i) Describe the sex organs of Chara.
ii) Describe the sexual reproduction and structure of Cleistothecium in Uncinula.
iii) Describe the structure of sporophyte in Marchantia.

i) Describe the structure of sporocarp in Marsilea.
ii) Describe the colonial forms of algae.
iii) Describe the structure of basidiocarp in polyporus and add a note on its
economic importance.
_______________
*SLRW159* SLR-W 159
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (New) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY
Special Paper IX : Non-Chordates
Day and Date : Thursday, 31-3-2016

1. Select appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence : 10
1) In Sycon, water current enters in spongocoel cavity by _________ openings.
a) Apopyle b) Prosopyle c) Gastric ostium d) Dermal ostia
2) In paramoecium, the fusion of two gametic nuclei originates by single nucleus
called as
a) Endomixis b) Automixis c) Hemixis d) Exogamy
3) In coelenterata, the gonozooids are concerned with
a) Protection b) Absorption c) Reproduction d) Respiration
4) Leech is _________ animal.
a) Pseudoparasitic b) Endoparasitic
c) Ectoparasitic d) Ecto-endoparasitic
5) In _________ type of insect metamorphosis the young immatured nymph or
naiad is aquatic while its adult is terrestrial.
a) Hemimetabolous b) Ametabolous
c) Holometabolous d) Paurometabolous
6) In sea star, the function of pedicillariae is
a) Excretion b) Locomotion
c) Capturing prey d) Capture and removal of debris
P.T.O.
SLR-W 159 *SLRW159*
7) In Leech, temporary clitellum is developed by the segment number

a) 14, 15, 16 b) 9, 10, 11 c) 20, 21, 22 d) 24, 25, 26
8) Sea stars are _________ in feeding habits.
a) Herbivorous b) Omnivorous c) Carnivorous d) Sanguivorous
9) In Lingula, _________ part acts as a gonoduct.
a) Nephridium b) Heart vesicle c) Pedicel d) Lophophore
10) Doliolaria larva belongs to the class
a) Echinoidea b) Holothuroidea c) Asteroidea d) Crinoidea

i) Polypod larva.
ii) Functions of suckers of Leech.
iii) Aboral surface of sea star.
iv) Define living fossil.
v) Zoea larva.
vi) Detortion.

i) Describe binary fission in paramoecium.
ii) Describe food and feeding mechanism in Leech.
iii) Describe salient features of ctenophora.
B) Describe locomotion in Leech. 4

i) Describe affinities of peripatus.
ii) What is canal system ? Describe main types of canal systems in porifera.
iii) Describe structure of echinopluteus larva.

i) Describe water-vascular system of sea star.
ii) Describe excretory system of Leech.
___________
*SLRW160* SLR-W 160
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper IX)
Algebra II
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1) The characteristic of the ring Z3 × Z4 =
a) 7 b) 12 c) { 0 } d) 6
2) The maximal ideal M in Z12 are
a) 2 b) 5 c) 3 d) 4
3) Which structure is not a field ?
a) (R, +, .) b) (C, +, .) c) (E, +, .) d) (Q, +, .)
4) The vector space M3×4(F) has dimension is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 12 d) 7
5) Over the field of real numbers, the vector space of complex numbers has
dimension
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
6) The vector V1, V2, __________, Vn in a vector space V are said to be linearly
n
independent if
=
i
L
i
= 0 implies.
i 1
a) All ai = 0 b) At least one ai

0
c) All ai 0
d) None of these
7) Let T : V
W is linear then null space N (T) of T is

a) {x
V/T (x) = 0} b) {x
V/T (x) = x}
c) {x
W/T (x) = 0} d) {x
W/T (x) = x}
P.T.O.
SLR-W 160 -2- *SLRW160*
8) T : R2
R 3 be linear transformation defined by T (x, y) = (x + y, 0, 2x 5y)
and are standard ordered basis for R2 and R3 then =

6

a) b) c) d)

# # #

#

9) If x = (1 i, 2 + 3i) and y = (2 + i, 3 2i)

C2. Then x , y =
a) 5 + 10i b) 5 10i c) 5 + 10i d) 5 10i
10) If u = (2, 1, 1)

R3. Then K
=
a) b) c) d)

2 , 1 , 1
2 , 1 , 1
2 , 1 , 1

2 , 1 , 1
5 5
6 6
2. Solve any five : 10

1) Give an example of integral domain
2) In any vector space 0u = 0
3) Define ideal of a ring
4) Evaluate where
= (3, 0, 4)
5) Show that T (a1, a 2) = (1, a 2) is not linear
6) Prove that the set of diagonal matrices is a subspace of Mn×n (F).

A) 1) Prove that intersection of two subspaces of a vector space is a subspace.
2) Give an example which is left ideal but not a right ideal.
3) Find the zero divisors of (Z6,
, . ).
B) Prove that every finite integral domain is a field. 4
*SLRW160* -3- SLR-W 160

1) Check whether ring of integers is an integral domain.
Also, if a, b, c D, an integral domain such that a 0, then prove that ab = ac

implies b = c.
2) If f : R
S be a ring homomorphism then prove that
a) The image of f is a subring of S
b) The kernel of f is an ideal of R
3) Find the basis of
{(8, 12, 20), (7, 2, 0), (2, 3, 5), (1, 0, 2) (0, 2, 1)}
5. Attempt any one : 10

1) State and prove fundamental homomorphism for rings.
2) State and prove dimension theorem of vector spaces. Further for linear vector
space T : V W. T is one-to-one if and only if N (T) = 0.

*SLRW161* SLR-W – 161
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (New) Examination, 2016

STATISTICS
Statistical Inference – I (Special Paper No. – IX)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.


i) Estimate and estimator are
a) Synonymous b) Different
c) Related to the population d) None of these
ii) If x1, x2,..., xn is a random sample from an infinite population, then an unbiased
estimator of the population variance σ 2 is
n n 2
a) ∑ x 2i b) ∑ (x i − x )
i =1 i =1
1 n 2 1 n 2
c)
n
∑ (x i − x ) d)
n−1
∑ (x i − x )
i =1 i =1
iii) The denominator in the Cramer-Rao inequality is known as

a) Lower bound for the variance b) Information limit
c) Upper bound for the variance d) All the above
iv) Mean squared error of an estimator Tn of φ(θ) is minimum only if
a) Bias and variance of Tn both are zero
b) Bias is zero and variance is minimum
c) Bias is minimum and variance of Tn is zero
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 161 -2- *SLRW161*
v) If T1 and T2 are most efficient estimators with the same variance S2 and the
⎛ T1 + T2 ⎞
correlation between them is P, then the variance of ⎜ ⎟ is
⎝ 2 ⎠
(1 + P)S 2
a) S2 b) PS2 c) d) (1+P)S2
2
vi) The concept of consistency, efficiency and sufficiency are due to

a) J.N. Neyman b) R.A. Fisher
c) C.R. Rao d) None of these
vii) Parameters are those constants which occurs in

a) Samples b) Probability density function
c) A formula d) None of these
viii) If T is sufficient for θ and an unique MLE θ̂ for θ exists, then

a) θ̂ is a function of T b) θ̂ = T
c) θ̂ is independent of T d) None of these
ix) An estimator of a parametric function ( θ ) is said to be best, if it possesses

a) Any two properties of a good estimator
b) Any three properties of a good estimator
c) All the properties of good estimator
d) None of these
x) If the sample mean (X ) is an estimate of population mean ( μ ), then (X ) is

a) Unbiased and efficient
b) Unbiased and inefficient
c) Biased and efficient
d) None of these
*SLRW161* -3- SLR-W – 161
x +x
i) Suppose x1 and x2 is a random sample from N( μ , 1). If T1 = ⎛⎜ 1 2 ⎞⎟ and
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ x + 2x 2 ⎞
T2 = ⎜ 1 ⎟ . Find the efficiency of T1 with respect to T2.
⎝ 3 ⎠
ii) Obtain likelihood function if x1, x2,...,xn is a random sample from N(μ, σ 2) .
iii) Define Minimum Variance Bound Unbiased Estimator (MVBUE) for a parameter.
iv) Define information function I( θ ) of parameter θ .
v) State any two properties of maximum likelihood estimator (m.l.e.).
vi) What are the requirements of a good estimator ?
i) If Tn is a sequence of estimators such that
E( Tn ) = θ n → θ ⎫
⎬ as n → ∞ then prove that Tn is consistent for θ .
V( Tn ) = σ 2n → 0 ⎭
ii) Obtain Fisher Information dunction I( θ ) based on a random sample x1, x2,...,xn
from exponential distribution with p.d.f.
f(x, θ) = θe−θx; x ≥ 0, θ > 0 .
iii) Obtain a sufficient statistic for the parameter ( α, β) based on a random sample
x1, x2,...,xn from a uniform distribution U (α, β) .
B) Explain the procedure of obtaining the estimates of the parameters by the

method of moments. 4
i) If x1, x2,...,xn is a random sample from, f(x, θ) = θe −θx; x ≥ 0, θ > 0 . Show that
1
X is MVBUE of θ and find its variance.
ii) Find estimates of ‘a’ and ‘b’ by the method of moments.

1
; a<x<b
f( x ) = b − a
.
=0 ; o.w.
SLR-W – 161 -4- *SLRW161*
n x 2i
2
iii) Let x1, x2,...,xn be a random sample from N(0, σ ). Show that ∑ n
is an
i =1
unbiased estimator of σ 2 .
i) Let x1, x2,...,x n be a random sample from N( μ , σ 2 ) population. Obtain

maximum likelihood estimates for
i) μ when σ 2 is known
ii) σ 2 when μ is known
iii) Simultaneous estimation of μ and σ 2 .
ii) Let x1, x2,...,xn be a random sample from N( μ , σ 2 ). Show that sample variance
S2 is a consistent estimator of σ 2 .
iii) For a sample of size n from a normal population N( μ , σ 2 ), show that the
n
∑ Xi
i =1
estimator μˆ = is most efficient for estimating μ though it is biased.
n+1
————————

*SLRW163* SLR-W – 163

Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester – V) Examination, 2016

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper – IX) (New)
Virology, Extremophiles and Bioinformatics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1) Microorganisms that are sometimes found growing in jellies, syrups and brines
are known _____________
a) Acidophilic b) Osmophiles c) Neutral d) Psychrophilic
2) One step Growth Experiment was deviced by _____________

a) Watson b) Crick c) Lederberg d) Delbruk
3) LHT system of viral classification grouped DNA viruses into _________ class.
a) Retroviruses b) Deoxyvira
c) Retroviridae d) Deoxyviridae
4) In ____________ tissue cells do not invade surrounding tissues only remain

localised as a compact mass.
a) Benign tumors b) Malignant tumors
c) Malignant wart d) Cancer
5) The BLAST programme is used in __________

a) Biometry b) Biostatistics
c) Bioinformatics d) Biotechnology
6) Rous Sarcoma virus causes ____________ in mice.

a) Breast Cancer b) Lymphoma c) Small pox d) Hepatitis
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 163 -2- *SLRW163*
7) ____________ virus can undergo antigenic shift.

a) Rabies b) Hepatitis c) Influenza d) Pox
8) ___________ is temperate phage.

a) λ b) T4 c) T3 d) θX174
9) _____________ are electronic filing cabinets for vast amount of information.

a) Database b) Datamining c) Annotation d) Algorithm
10) Hubner and Todaro proposed __________ theory.

a) Provirus b) Proto virus
c) Oncogene d) Somatic mutation

i) Explain contact inhibition phenomenon.
ii) What is NCBI ?
iii) Define malignant Warts.
iv) Explain Commune phages.
v) Define lysogeny.
vi) Define Hyperthermophiles.
vii) Write briefly on the genome of influenza virus.
viii) Define burst size.

1) Describe briefly methods used for enumeration of viruses.
2) Briefly explain intracellular development of influenza virus.
3) Describe briefly extremophilic microorganisms.
B) Discuss in brief applications of Bioinformatics. 4

1) Give the detailed account the LHT system of viral classification.
2) Briefly explain lysogeny of lambda phage.
3) Describe in detail cultivation of animal viruses.
5. Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

1) Discuss in detail the reproduction of T4 Bacteriophages.
2) Explain in detail oncogenesis.
3) Briefly explain intracellular development of adenoviruses.
————————
*SLRW164* SLR-W 164
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester V) Examination, 2016

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper IX) (New)
Linear Integrated Circuits and Applications

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


i) Monolithic IC consists of
a) Active components
b) Passive components
c) Both active and passive components
ii) A diffused resistor in an integrated circuit
a) Can be any value
b) Can be only of p-type
c) Is formed at the same time as one of the transistor regions
d) Is formed after the transistor diffusions
iii) A log amplifier has _____ in the feedback loop.
a) a BJT b) a resistor
c) a capacitor d) inductor
iv) In precision rectifier, op-amp is used to
a) Reduce breakdown voltage b) Reduce cut-in voltage
c) Increase cut-in voltage d) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-W 164 -2- *SLRW164*
v) A wide band-pass filter is formed by cascading

a) Band-pass sections b) Band-stop sections
c) High pass and low pass sections d) All of the above
vi) A narrow band reject filter by using op-amp is commonly called as
a) Notch filter b) Passive filter
c) State variable filter d) None of these
vii) To have regulated positive D.C. voltage, we must use
a) IC 78 XX series b) IC 79 XX series
c) IC 74 XX series d) All of these
viii) A voltage regulator is a circuit which
a) Maintains a constant d.c. output voltage inspite of the fluctuations in a.c.
input voltage or load current
b) Converts the a.c. voltage to d.c. voltage
c) Smoothens the a.c. variations in d.c. output voltage
ix) PLL in normal condition is
a) In capture mode b) In lock range mode
c) In free running mode d) None of these
x) In case of PLL, the total capture range is 2 f c =
a) .
L
B
1
b) .
L
B
c) .
L
B
1
d) .
L
B
2. Answer any five from the following : 10

i) Write the basic chemical reaction in the epitaxial growth process of pure
silicon.
ii) What are the advantages of IC voltage regulators ?
iii) Draw a circuit for a positive peak detector and its waveform for input and
output.
iv) What is difference between active filters and passive filters ?
v) Define VCO.
vi) Draw the circuit diagram of antilog amplifier.
*SLRW164* -3- SLR-W 164
3. A) Answer any two from the following : 6

i) Draw the block diagram of PLL. What is the function of phase detector ?
ii) Explain variable voltage regulator using ICLM 317.
iii) Draw the circuit diagram of second order high pass filter. Calculate the
cut off frequency if R1 = R2 = 2K
and C1 = C2 = 0.1 .
.
B) Write a short note on sample and hold circuit by using op-amp. 4
4. Answer any two from the following : 10

i) Explain LM 331 as voltage to frequency converter.
ii) Explain the use of IC 565 as a frequency multiplier.
iii) Explain second order butterworth low pass filter.
5. Answer any one from the following : 10

i) What is an integrated circuit ? Explain the steps involved in the fabrication of
monolithic npn transistor.
ii) Explain clipper and clamper by using op-amp.
_____________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester V) (New) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS (Special Paper X)
Solid State Physics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Select the correct alternatives : 10

i) Crystalline solids are ______ in nature.
a) Isotropic b) Anisotropic
c) Superconducting d) Magnetic
ii) According to Wiedmann-Franz relation, is proportional to

K
a)
b) P c) T d) V
iii) The boundary conditions for wave function of free electron in one dimensional
potential well of length L are
a)
(x) = 0 at x = 0 and x = L
b)
(x) =
at x = 0 and x = L
c) (x) = 0 at x < 0 and x > L

d) None of these
iv) If dnkl is the interplaner distance of (nkl) plane then Braggs diffraction condition
for crystal will be
a) 2 dnkl cos =n
b) 2 dnkl sin
=n
c) 4 dnkl cos =n
d) 4 dnkl sin =n
P.T.O.
SLR-W 166 -2- *SLR-W166*
v) The effective mass of electron (m*) is given as
a) m* = b) m* =

d E

d K
d E / d K
c) m* = d) m* =

d K / d E

d E / d K
vi) The band gap energy of insulator is

a) 0.7 V b) 1 eV c) 7 eV d) 2.1 eV
vii) In case of Diamagnetics, magnetic susceptibility is
a) Positive b) Negative
c) Some times positive d) Some times negative
viii) Retentivity is observed in
a) Ferromagnetic b) Paramagnetic
c) Diamagnetic d) Anti-ferromagnetic
ix) Mixed state is observed in ________ superconductor.
a) Type I b) Type II
c) Type III d) Type I and Type II
x) Curie law for paramagnetics, is stated as
a) = b) =
+ +

6 6 ? 6
c) = d) =
6 6 ? 6

+ +

i) What is superconductor ?
ii) Define magnetic retentivity.
iii) Define magnetic coercivity.
iv) Define primitive cell.
v) Define packing fraction.
vi) State Braggs law for X-ray diffraction.
*SLR-W166* -3- SLR-W 166

i) Explain Meissner effect.
ii) Draw and explain hysteresis curve for ferromagnetic materials.
iii) Draw the experimental arrangement and traces obtained in powder method
of X-ray diffraction.
B) The lattice constant of cubic lattice is a = 2.5 × 108 cm. Calculate d-spacing
between (100), (110) and (111) planes. 4

i) Write short note on Type-I and Type-II superconductors.
ii) Discuss any one property of the reciprocal lattice.
iii) Calculate packing fraction of simple cubic structure.

i) Describe Hall effect. Obtain the expression for mobility of charge carrier ( )
and conductivity ( ) of the metal.

ii) Explain Sommerfields theory to a free electron inside a potential well

(one dimensional) and hence determine the expression for energy of nth state (En).
_________________
*SLRW167* -1- SLR-W – 167
SLR-W – 167
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY (New)
Special Paper – X : Inorganic Chemistry

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

2) Draw neat labeled diagram and give equations wherever necessary.
1) Magnitude of crystal field splitting energy Δ , depends up on
a) oxidation state of metal b) nature of ligand
c) geometry of the complex d) all of the above
2) The according to VBT [Ni(CN)4]2– is diamagnetic but actually it is ________
and proved by CFT and thus magnetic property correctly explained by CFT.
a) Stable b) Paramagnetic
c) Low spin d) Nonmagnetic
3) CFSE for d3 octahedral complex is ____________ Dq.
a) – 4 b) – 6 c) – 8 d) – 12
4) In Fast Breeder Reactor ____________ fuel is used.
a) Thorium-232 b) Thorium-132
c) Thorium-233 d) Radium-226
5) For age determination by tracer technique ____________ isotope is used.
a) 17O b) 14C c) 12C d) 15N
6) The ____________ element is involved in blood clotting.
a) Calcium b) Cadmium c) Iron d) Zinc
7) The phosphonitrilic compounds have general formula
a) (PNX2)n b) (PNX2) c) (PN2X)n d) (P4NX2)n
8) Black phosphorus contains ____________ polymer backbone.
a) P-N b) P-P c) P-O d) C-P
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 167 -2- *SLRW167*
9) Solution of Gold nanoparticles shows various colours due to

a) Different particle size b) Different concentration
c) Different inter atomic bonding d) Different molecular conditions
10) The function of myoglobin is to
a) Transport oxygen b) Store oxygen
c) Transport CO2 d) All of these

i) Give the importance of CFT for explaining properties of coordination complexes.
ii) Distinguish between high spin and low spin complexes of Co(III) complexes.
iii) Explain mechanism of esterification reactions with the help of tracer technique.
iv) Define essential elements and trace elements with suitable examples.
v) What are the uses of Inorganic polymers ?
vi) Give the properties of nanoparticles.

i) What is CFSE ? How will you calculate it for strong and weak field
octahedral complex with d4 configuration in terms of 10 Dq ?
ii) Give the difference between Haemoglobin and Myoglobin.
iii) Distinguish between organic polymer and inorganic polymer.
B) What is nuclear reactions ? Explain projectile capture reactions. 4

i) With the help of molecular orbital diagram explain magnetic properties of
[Co(NH3 )6 ]3+.
ii) What are the applications of tracer technique ? How this technique is important
in analytical chemistry : Isotopic dilution method for determination of volume
of blood ?
iii) Describe in detail action of sodium – potassium pump.

i) Discuss the crystal field splitting of d orbitals in square planer complex with
suitable example.
ii) What is Nuclear Reactor ? Explain the construction and working of FBR for
generation of nuclear energy.
iii) What are silicones ? Give their preparation properties and uses.
_____________________
*SLRW168* SLR-W – 168
Seat
No.

BOTANY (New)
Special Paper – X : Gymnosperms & Palaeobotany

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

II) All questions carry equal marks.
III) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
IV) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing correct alternative : (1×10)

1) In Zamia the phyllotaxy of leaves is
a) Simple b) Dorsiventral
c) Isobilateral d) Pinnately compound
2) ________ is a source of ‘sago’.
a) Gnetum b) Zamia c) Tuja d) Pinus
3) Gnetum has affinities with
a) Angiosperms b) Pteridophytes
c) Bryophytes d) Algae
4) Young root of Gnetum has _______ xylem.
a) Monarch and exarch b) Monarch and endarch
c) Diarch and exarch d) Diarch and endarch
5) Determination of age of fossils is known as
a) Carbon dating b) Sulpher dating
c) Nitrogen dating d) None of these
6) _______ era is called age of cryptogams.
a) Mesozoic b) Cenozoic
c) Palaeozoic d) Precambrian
7) _________ is a probably 1st vascular land plant.
a) Cycadeoidea b) Calamite
c) Rhynia d) Lepidodendron
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 168 *SLRW168*
8) Cellular details can be studied in _________ type of fossils.

a) Impression b) Compression
c) Petrification d) Cart
9) Erigmocarpon fossil fruit has ________ placentation.
a) parietal b) axil c) marginal d) basal
10) Crude oil is a mixture of
a) hydrocarbons b) proteins
c) carbohydrates d) fats

1) Give systematic position of Gnetum.
2) Sketch and label sporophyte plant body of Zamia.
3) What are fossils ?
4) Define Form Genera.
5) Define geological time scale.
6) Enlist leaf generas of Calamite.

1) Give Angiospermic affinities of Gnetum.
2) Describe male cone of Zamia.
3) Give classification of Lyginopteris with form genera.
B) What is geological time scale ? Give fossil flora of Cenozoic era with climatic
conditions. 4

1) Describe v.s. of Gnetum ovule.
2) What are fossils ? Describe any two types of fossils studied by you.
3) Explain oil and coal are biotic in origin.

1) Describe post fertilization changes in Zamia.
2) Describe reproductive structures of Lyginopteris.
3) What are microfossils ? Explain role of microfossils in oil exploration.
_______________
*SLRW169* SLR-W 169
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper X)
Biostatistics, Bioinformatics, Medical Zoology and Evolutionary
Genetics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Complete the sentence selecting appropriate answer : 10

1) ________ is a device that is out of use in bioinformatics in present days.
a) CD b) Thumb drive c) Floppy d) Printer
2) The disease malaria is caused by
a) Plasmodium b) Endameba c) Vorticella d) Euglena
3) The larval stage of mosquito is
a) Aquatic b) Parasite c) Aerial d) Terrestrial
4) In the perfect positive co-ordination the value of r is
a) 1 b) 0 c) 0.5 d) + 1
5) The pathogenic agent _______ is responsible for the disease Tuberculosis (TB).
a) Polio virus b) Bacterium c) Plasmodium d) Fungi
6) The use of statistics in biological science is known as
a) Bioinformatics b) Biostatistics
c) Biometry d) Biotechnology
7) Profuse salivation in dog bite man is due to
a) Poliovirus b) H1V1 virus c) Rabies d) Antivirus
8) Ctrl + V command used to __________ in computer used to.
a) Paste b) Delete
c) Select d) Save
9) __________ is defined as systematic arrangement of data in rows and column.
a) Ogive curve b) Frequency distribution
c) Tabulation d) Co-relation
10) Pen drive is ___________ device in computer.
a) Output b) Input c) Print d) Corrupt
P.T.O.
SLR-W 169 *SLRW169*
2. Write short notes on following (any five) : 10
i) Students T test
ii) Rabies virus
iii) Proteomics
iv) Hardy-Weinbergs law
v) Elephantiasis
vi) Classification.

i) Describe the pathogenicity and treatment of fasciolasis.
ii) Write a note on importance on Bioinformatics.
iii) Describe the disease Tuberculosis (TB).
B) Write about the applications in search engines. 4

i) Explain the Karl-Pearsons co-efficient co-relation.
ii) Describe the frequency distribution in statistical table.
iii) Give an account of polio virus and its pathogenicity.

i) Give an account of pathogenicity of Plasmodium and add a note on control.
ii) Define median and calculate median from the following data :
N o . o f
& $ " # % & '
S t u d e n t s
M a r k s ! $ ! $ # # " % $ & % $ $

*SLRW170* SLR-W 170
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper X)
Complex Analysis

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

n
m
1) Consider the expansion for then z = 0 is

z 1
z 3

n n
3 z
n 0 n 1
a) an essential singularity b) a pole of order one

c) a point of analyticity d) none of these
2) A conjugate harmonic of u (x, y) = ex siny is
a) ey cos x b) ex cos y
c) ex cos y d) ey/sin x
3) The function f(z) = = x iy is z
a) analytic everywhere b) analytic at origin

c) not analytic for any Z D
d) none of these
4) The analytic function whose real part is ex cosy is
a) ez + ei b) e2z
c) zez d) none of these
5)
z d z
from z = 0 to z = 4 + 2i along the curve L defined by z = t2+ it is

L
a) b)
& E & E

! !
c) d) None of these
& E
&
P.T.O.
SLR-W 170 -2- *SLRW170*
n 2 n
6) The series for represent

( 1 ) z
z

( 2 n ) !
n 0
a) sin z b) cos z
c) tan z d) log (1+z)
z
7) The function has

e
( z 1 )
a) pole of order 2 at z = 1 b) pole of order 3 at z = 1

c) simple pole d) pole of order 2 at z = 0
8) f(z) where is
a a b
4 A I
, a b 0
z
1 z
a) b)
z a b a b

c) d)
= > = >
9) Residue of at z = 0 is
1
z ( 1 z )
a) 1 b)

c) 1 d) 2
z
10) If f(z) = Res f(z) at z = 3i is

e
z ( z 9 )
! E ! E
a) b)
A A
# " E # " E
! E
c) d) e3i
E A

1) Show that real part of an analytic function satisfy Laplaces equation.
2) State Cauchy Riemann equation in polar form.
3) Define rectifiable arc over the interval [a, b].
4) State Laurents series expansion theorem.
5) Define residue at infinity.
6) Evaluate the residues of at z = 1.

z
( z 1 ) ( z 2 ) ( z 3 )
*SLRW170* -3- SLR-W 170
1) Show that u = x3 3xy2 3x2 3y2 +1 is harmonic function and find the
corresponding analytic function.
2) Expand in Laurents series expansion valid for the region

1
f ( z )
( z 1 ) ( z 3 )
z 1 .
3) If C is an arc

of the circle z R and if l i m z f ( z ) A then show
4
that 4
l i

m

f ( z ) d z i (

) A
.
?
B) Explain Milne Thomsons method. 4

1) Evaluate
d
a b s i n
2) Prove the Cauchy Riemann equation in polar form.

3) Obtain the Taylor and Laurents series expansion which represents the function
in the region (i) (ii)

z 1
z 2 2 z 3
( z 2 ) ( z 3 )

1) Integrate z2 along the straight line OM and also along the path OLM consisting
of two straight line segments OL and OM where O is origin, L is point z = 3
and M is pt. z = 3 + i. Hence show that
2
z d z 0
O L M O
O
2) f(z) = P + i Q is analytic function of z = x + iy and P Q =

c o s x s i n x e
O O
2 c o s x e e
find f(z) subject to condition f
= 0.

*SLRW171* SLR-W – 171
Seat
No.

STATISTICS
Sampling Techniques (Special Paper – X)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

3) Soundless calculators are allowed.
1. Choose most appropriate alternative from those given in each case : 10

i) Probability of drawing a unit at each selection remains same in
a) Srswor b) Srswr
c) Both a) and b) d) None of a) and b)
ii) Probability of including a specified unit in a sample of size n selected out of
N units is
1 1 n N
a) b) c) d)
n N N n
iii) The most important factor in determining the size of a sample is
a) The availability of resources b) Purpose of the survey
c) Heterogeneity of population d) None of the above
iv) An estimator can possess
a) A fixed value
b) Any value
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) nor b)
v) Which of the following advantage of systematic sampling you approve ?
a) Easy selection of sample
b) Economical
c) Spread of sample over the whole population
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 171 -2- *SLRW171*
vi) Selected units of a systematic sample are

a) Not easily locatable
b) Easily locatable
c) Not representing the whole population
d) All the above
vii) Circular systematic sampling was first used by
a) W. G. Cochran b) M. H. Hansen
c) D. B. Lahiri d) P. C. Mahalanobis
viii) There are more chances of non sampling errors than sampling errors in
case of
a) Studies of large samples b) Complete enumeration
c) Inefficient investigators d) All the above
ix) A population is divided into clusters and it has been found that all items
within a cluster are alike. Which of the following sampling procedures would
you adopt ?
a) Simple random sampling b) Cluster sampling
c) Systematic sampling d) Stratified sampling
x) If n units are selected in a sample from N population units the sampling
fraction is given as
N 1 1 n
a) b) c) d)
n N n N

i) Define sampling frame. Give an example.
ii) Find an expression for relative bias in the ratio estimate.
iii) Give real life situations where systematic sampling is used.
iv) Explain sampling errors.
v) Distinguish between stratified sampling and cluster sampling.
vi) Give the objectives of a sample survey.
*SLRW171* -3- SLR-W – 171

i) State the characteristics of a good questionnaire.
ii) Explain proportional allocation and optimum allocation.
iii) Find under what condition ratio estimate is more efficient than SRS.
B) Explain sampling for proportion. Obtain its unbiased estimator for
population proportion. 4

i) A population consists of ‘N’ clusters of M elements each. A sample of n
clusters is drawn from it by method of SRS. Show that sample mean is
unbiased estimator of population mean.
ii) Find an unbiased estimator of the population mean and obtain its variance
in case of stratified random sampling.
iii) Write a note on two stage and multistage sampling.

i) With usual notations prove that Neyman’s allocation has better precision
than proportional allocation which has better precision than simple random
sample.
V( yn )R ≥ V( y St )P ≥ V( y St )N .
ii) In usual notations, show that :
a) E(y lr ) ≠ Y
(N − n) 2
b) V(y lr ) = S y (1 − ρ)2
Nn
where lr denotes linear regression.
_____________________
*SLRW172* SLR-W – 172
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) Examination, 2016

GEOLOGY (New) (Special Paper – X)
Geomorphology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


1) Choose the incorrect statement about Himalayan rivers.
a) Their tributaries are engaged in headward erosion
b) Pot holes are normal features
c) They are more sinous and develop numerous meanders
d) Long profiles of rivers are characterised by rapids and water falls
2) Stream lengthening is process carried by ___________
a) Erosion of Valley floor b) Erosion of Valley sides
c) Erosion at river mouth d) Headward erosion
3) Presence of sliken side is the proof of presence of _________ below the
landscape.
a) Fold b) unconformity c) Fault d) None of these
4) In the youth stage of river its valley sides show _________ slope.
a) Convex b) Rectilinear c) Concave d) None of these
5) Waning slope is another name of ________ slope.
a) Convex b) Free face
c) Rectilinear element d) Concave element
6) Which of the following is indicative of rejuvenation ?
a) Ox-bow lake b) Incised meanders
c) Point bar d) None of these
7) “Present is the key to the past” is the principle of ________
a) Uniformitarianism b) Faunal succession
c) Order of superposition d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 172 *SLRW172*
8) The landscape of Messa and Butte formed is formed by presence of ________

strata beneath.
a) Horizontal b) Inclined c) Folded d) Faulted
9) As the river rejuvenate ______________ starts in its downstream.
a) Valley widening b) Deposition
c) Valley deepening d) None of these
10) A high land between two streams is known as _______
a) Point bars b) Spits c) Subtracts d) Divide

i) What is peneplain ?
ii) What is monocyclic landscape ?
iii) What is absolute relief ?
iv) At which stage of river potholes occur ?
v) What are the causes of dynamic rejuvenation ?
vi) Define landslides.

i) What is anticlinal valley and synclinal ridges landscape ?
ii) Define slope. Explain its importance in geomorphology.
iii) What are transitional slides ?
i) Explain how orientation of bedding plains affects mass movement.
ii) Explain slow flowage and rapid flowage.

i) Describe in brief three stages of cycle of erosion.
ii) What is monitoring and control on mass movement ?
iii) What causes subsidence ?

i) What are characters of old stage in cycle of erosion ?
ii) Describe elements of slope.
iii) What are topographic evidences of rejuvenation ?
_____________________
*SLRW173* SLR-W – 173
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper – X)
Industrial Microbiology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answer from given alternatives. 10

1) Clearing of wine, development of aroma and flavour takes place during
________ process.
a) aging b) racking c) packing d) filtration
2) ___________ is used as cloning organism for production of rDNA products.
a) B-subtilis b) S.aureus c) P.aeruginosa d) E.Coli
3) Insulin is
a) Carbohydrate b) Lipid
c) Protein d) Lipopolysaccharide
4) In crystallization of citric acid filtered broth is treated with ________ to form
calcium citrate.
a) CaCl2 b) CaCO3 c) CaSO4 d) Ca(OH)2
5) To convert N2 gas (in nitrogen fixation) to ammonia __________ molecules of
hydrogen are required.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
6) ________ is produced by rDNA technology and which is antiviral in nature.
a) Glycogen b) Insulin c) Interleukin d) Interferon
7) Woodruff and McDaniel medium is used for _________ fermentation.
a) Streptomycin b) Penicillin c) Lysine d) Biopolymer
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 173 -2- *SLRW173*
8) For recovery and purification of heat sensitive products ________ is used.

a) High speed cooling centrifuge b) Ultracentrifuge
c) Lysophilizer d) Gel column
9) Wine storage tanks are generally constructed of
a) Iron b) Nickel c) White Oak d) Red Oak
10) Incubation period for streptomycin production is _________ days.
a) 1 to 2 b) 5 to 7 c) 15 to 20 d) 8 to 10
2. Write short answers any five : 10
a) List microorganisms used for lysine production.
b) Types of beers.
c) Define red table wine.
d) What is curdling of milk ?
e) Explain role of Hg haemoglobin.
f) List media used in streptomycin production.
g) What is solvent extraction ?
3. A) Write answers any two : 6
a) Define screening, explain media used for screening.
b) Write on centrifugation process.
c) Write on fermented products curd and yogurt.
B) Write in brief on biopesticides. 4
4. Write short notes any two : 10
a) Spoilage of wines.
b) Give role of maintenance and assay media.
c) rDNA product insulin.
5. Write an essay on any one : 10
a) Production and applications of Azofertilizer.
b) Streptomycin fermentation.
___________
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS
Fundamental of Communication (Special Paper X)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Select the correct alternatives for the following : 10

1) Two way communication system is also known as _______ system.
a) Simplex b) Duplex
c) Complex d) Multiplex
2) The amplitude of an audiosignal is 10 V and that carrier is 50 V. Percentage of
modulation index is
a) 0.2% b) 5% c) 20% d) 50%
3) Line of sight communication is done by ________ wave.
a) Ground b) Sky
c) Direct d) Microwave
4) Vertical scanning frequency for 625 line interlace scanning is
a) 45 KHz b) 45 Hz c) 50 KHz d) 50 Hz
5) The lower existing layer in an ionosphere during day time is
a) E-layer b) D-layer
c) F1 layer d) F2 layer
6) In T.V. aspect ratio is
a) 9 : 16 b) 16 : 9 c) 5 : 4 d) 4 : 5
7) In superhetro receiver of A.M. standard value of I.F. is
a) 525 KHz b) 625 KHz
c) 455 KHz d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W 174 *SLR-W174*
8) In PAL system number of lines are scanned for per frame
a) 525 b) 625 c) 725 d) 825
9) Limitter circuit used in
a) A.M. receiver b) F.M. receiver c) Both a) and b) d) None of these
10) Number of tones in telephone are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0

i) Define noise figure.
ii) Define modulation index in A.M.
iii) Define skip-distance.
iv) Draw block diagram of F.M. Receiver.
v) Draw circuit diagram of envelop detector.
vi) State the principle of telephone system.

i) Explain ground ware propagation.
ii) Explain principle of antenna.
iii) Explain ratio detector.
B) A sinusoidal carrier voltage of frequency 1200 KHz is amplitude modulated
by a sinusoidal voltage of frequency 20 KHz, resulting maximum and minimum
modulated carrier amplitude of 110 volt and 90 volt respectively. 4
Calculate 1) Frequency of L.S.B. and U.S.B.
2) Modulation index and amplitude of L.S.B. and U.S.B.

i) Distinguish between A.M. and F.M.
ii) Explain with block diagram electronics telephone exchange.
iii) Explain interlace scanning.

i) Define amplitude modulation. Obtain the expression for A.M. modulated wave
voltage.
ii) Explain antenna parameters needed to establish half wave dipole antenna.
_________________

*SLRW176* SLR-W – 176

Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XI)
Classical Mechanics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

4) Use of log table or scientific calculator is allowed.

i) The transit time of a particle from a higher point to a lower point under the
influence of gravity is a ________ along a cycloid passing through the two
points.
a) maximum b) minimum c) moderate d) extremum
ii) If T and T 0 are time of flight of projectile in resistive medium and

non-resistive medium respectively then the correct relation between T & T0 is
a) T < T0 b) T = T0 c) T > T0 d) T ≅ T0
iii) The number of degrees of freedom for a simple pendulum is ________

iv) The most general displacement of the rigid body is _________ plus _________
about some axis.
a) translation, rotation b) translation, vibration
c) vibration, rotation d) vibration, spin
v) A particle is at rest in a rotating frame. The pseudo force acting on the

particle in the rotating frame is _________
a) zero b) only the centrifugal force
c) only the coriolis force d) both b and c
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 176 -2- *SLRW176*
vi) If all forces of a system are generated from a single function, the system is
called ________ system.
a) conservative b) non-conservative
c) monogenic d) multigenic
vii) If the total force acting on a particle or system of particles is zero, then
_________ of the particle or system of particles is conserved.
a) angular momentum b) linear momentum
c) energy d) torque
viii) The antisymmetric mode has _________ frequency than that of symmetric
mode.
a) lower b) higher c) much smaller d) same
ix) For a freely falling body the effect of Coriolis force is _________
a) to decrease its velocity b) to increase its velocity
c) to stop its motion d) to produce horizontal shift
x) The energy transfer from an oscillator to its coupled partner is periodic and
takes place with period _________
π 2π 4π 6π
a) T = b) T = c) T = d) T =
ω1 − ω2 ω1 − ω2 ω1 − ω2 ω1 − ω2
2. Attempt any five. 10
i) What is a pseudo force ? Give its example.
ii) State Euler’s theorem.
iii) State Hamilton’s principle.
iv) State conservation theorem for angular momentum of system of particles.
v) What is coupled system ? Give the meaning of term coupling.
vi) State principle of virtual work.
3. A) Attempt any two. 6

i) Explain the concept of centre of mass.
ii) Explain the formation of cyclones.
iii) What is constraint ? Give two examples of holonomic and non-holonomic
constraints each.
B) State and prove the theorem of energy conservation of a particle. 4

*SLRW176* -3- SLR-W – 176
4. Attempt any two. 10

i) Obtain the operator for a particle in a fixed and rotating coordinate systems
and show that angular acceleration of a particle is the same in both coordinate
systems.
ii) Show that the shortest distance between any two points in a plane is along a
straight line.
iii) Derive an expression for the total energy of a system of two coupled
pendulums in terms of normal coordinates.
5. Attempt any one. 10

i) Obtain an expression for Lagrange’s equation from D’Alembert’s principle.
Derive equation for Atwood’s machine.
ii) Derive the Euler’s equations of motion of a rigid body. Show that the rate at
which the work done by the torque is equal to the rate of change of kinetic
energy of the body.
_______________
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Special Paper XI)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

4) Use of spectroscopic table provided by University is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative from the given below and rewrite the answer : 10
i) Methane gives ______ fundamental modes of vibrations in its IR spectrum.
a) 10 b) 9 c) 5 d) 6
ii) ______ spectroscopy is used for identification of functional groups.
a) NMR b) Mass c) IR d) None of the above
iii) The type of radiations used in mass spectroscopy is
a) Radio b) IR c) MW d) Electron beam
iv) Acetylenic protons are deshielded due to
a) electronegative nature of acetylenic carbons
b) higher bond order of the triple bond
c) magnetic anisotropy
d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding
v) Diethyl malonate is an ester of
a) acetic acid b) acetone c) aceto acetic acid d) malonic acid
vi) 4-methyl uracil is obtained from EAA by condensing it with
a) Ammonia b) Phenyl hydrazine
c) Urea d) Hydrazine
vii) The deviation from normal tetrahedral angle for cyclopentane is
a) 49° &

b) 19° &

c) 10° !

d) 1° &

viii) Rings free from angle strain are called as ______ rings.
a) strained b) strainless c) planner d) large
P.T.O.
SLR-W 177 -2- *SLR-W177*
ix) Suggest reagent in the following reaction.
a) Aluminium t-butoxide b) H2/Pd-C

c) Wittig reagent d) Aluminiumisopropoxide
x) Urea on reaction with alkainehypobromite produces hydrazine. Name the
reaction.
a) Wittig reaction b) Wagner Meerwein rearrangement
c) Hoffman rearrangement d) Knoevanagel reaction
i) What are shielded and deshielded protons ? Explain with examples.
ii) Suggest mechanism for the following reaction.
iii) Hoffman rearrangement can be used for the preparation of amines which are
otherwise difficult to prepare. Explain.
iv) Explain the following observation.
v) What do you mean by axial and equatorial bonds ?

vi) Triethyl amine shows only two signals in its NMR spectrum. Explain.

i) Explain the applications of mass spectroscopy.
ii) Equatorial cyclohexyl alcohol is more stable than axial cyclohexyl alcohol. Explain.
*SLR-W177* -3- SLR-W 177
iii) Complete the following reactions.
a)
b)
c)
B) What do you mean by active methylene compound ? Give synthesis of Diethyl

malonate. 4

A) Assign structure to the molecule having following spectral data.
M.F. : C4H8O
m/e : 72
IR : 1720 cm1
NMR : triplet, 1.05 (3H)

singlet, 1.10 (3H)

quartet, 2.50 (2H)
B) A(C9H8O) is an unsaturated compound showing positive silver mirror test. It

decolourizes bromine water. On heating with aluminium isopropoxide in the
presence of compound B (C3H8O) a secondary alcohol, it forms an hydroxyl
compound C(C9H10 O). During the progress of reaction compound D(C3H6O)
is continuously distilled out. Identify A, B and C and D. Name the reaction.
C) State its limitations of Bayers strain theory and discuss the theory of strainless
rings.

A) Draw all possible conformations of cyclohexane. Explain, the stability order
of different conformations of cyclohexane. Draw energy profile diagram.
B) Discuss the Stobbe condensation with the help of suitable example.
C) Write a short note on Wagner-Meerwein rearrangement.
_________________

*SLRW178* SLR-W – 178

Seat
No.

BOTANY
Genetics (Special Paper – XI)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
Instructions: i) All questions are compulsory.

ii) All questions carry equal marks.
iii) Draw a neat labeled diagram wherever necessary.
iv) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Choose correct answer from given alternatives. 10
1) Genes located on same locus but shows more than two different phenotypes
are called
a) Multiple alleles b) Polygenes
c) Codominant genes d) Pseudoalleles
2) The mechanism of sex determination in Drosophila was studied by

___________ in 1921.
a) C.B. Bridge b) Sturn and Hotta
c) Turner d) Johansen
3) The self incompatibility was firstly reported by __________ in Nicotiana

tabacum plant.
a) T.H. Morgan b) E.M. East c) G. Mendel d) W. Bateson
4) ____________ type of antigen is present in blood group A

a) A b) B c) O d) A & B
5) Inheritance of plastids depends on the plastid present in cytoplasm of

a) Egg b) Ovary c) Pollen d) Egg & Pollen
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 178 -2- *SLRW178*
6) The diploid number of chromosome in man is
a) 44 b) 46 c) 22 d) 23
7) The syndrome developed due to absence of Y chromosomes in female is

called
a) Turners syndrome b) Klinfilters syndrome
c) Haemophilia d) Colorblindness
8) The sex index (X/A) is 1.00 the sex is Hemophilia

a) Male b) Female c) Super male d) Super female
9) Trisomy is expressed as
a) 2n + 1 b) 2n + 2 c) 2n – 1 d) 2n – 2
10) Principle of population genetics is founded by

a) E.M. East b) Landsteiner
c) Hardy & Weinberg d) J. Belling
I) Define multiple allele.
II) What is extra chromosomal inheritance ?
III) What are the sex chromosomes ?
IV) What is Haemophilia ?
V) Define polyploidy.
VI) Define Holandric genes.

I) Describe mitochondria inheritance.
II) Describe Down’s syndrome.
III) Describe eye color in Drosophila.
B) Genic balance theory of sex determination in Drosophila. 4

*SLRW178* -3- SLR-W – 178

I) Describe the Hardy and Weinberg law with suitable example.
II) Describe multiple allelism in blood groups of man.
III) Describe the mechanism of sex determination in man.

I) Describe Euploidy with suitable example.
II) Describe maternal inheritance of plastids, with suitable example.
III) Add a note on self incompatibility in plant.
—————————
*SLRW179* SLR-W 179
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY
Special Paper XI : Comparative Anatomy of Chordates
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
iii) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the
sentence. 10
1) Connection between third and fourth aortic arch is called as
a) Ductus botali b) Ductus caroticus
c) Truncus aorta d) Systamic aorta
2) __________ is the part of pelvic girdle.
a) Ilium b) Scapula c) Clavical d) Coracoid
3) Four chambered heart present in
a) Frog b) Scoliodon c) Labeo d) Rat
4) Lobi inferiores are present in brain of
a) Amphioxus b) Reptiles
c) Elasmobranchs d) Mammals
5) Optic lobes are divided into two each and hence are caused corpora
quadrigemina in
a) Fish b) Lizard c) Frog d) Rat
6) __________ of pigeon secrete pigeon milk.
a) Stomach b) Crop c) Pancreas d) Intestine
7) Uropygeal glands are present in
a) Fishes b) Birds c) Amphibians d) Mammals
P.T.O.
SLR-W 179 *SLRW179*
8) Heterocoelus vertebrae are found in only

a) Amphibian b) Reptiles c) Birds d) Mammals
9) Rhinoceros horn is modified of
a) Scales b) Glands c) Shields d) Hairs
10) Feathers are present in
a) Amphibia b) Reptillia c) Aves d) Mammals

1) Mucus gland in Amphibia.
2) Skin of scoliodon.
3) Typical vertebra of frog.
4) Heart of Mammals.
5) Brain of Reptiles.
6) Pronephros Kidney.

1) Soft glands in mammals.
2) Air sacs in birds.
3) Scoliodon brain.
B) Hepatic portal system in frog. 4

1) Describe Aortic archer in vertebrates.
2) Describe hard derivatives of integument in vertebrates.
3) Describe the mammalian glands.

1) Describe the lungs of Amphibians and compare it with that of mammals.
2) Explain evolutionary changes in heart of vertebrates.

*SLRW180* -1- SLR-W – 180
SLR-W – 180
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XI)
Integral Calculus

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


1
∫x
m −1
1) If m > 0, n > 0 then integral (1 − x )n−1 dx is
0
c) oscillatory d) none of these
∞
∫x
n − 1 −x
2) e dx is convergent when
0
a) m > 0 b) n > 0
c) m > 0, n > 0 d) m > 1, n > 1
1
dx
3) ∫ x3 is
0
a) Proper integral
b) Improper integral
c) Proper and improper integral
d) None of these
∞
x 2m
4) Integral ∫ 1 + x 2n dx is convergent if
0
a) n < m b) n > m
c) n = m d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 180 -2- *SLRW180*
5) Another form of B(m, n) is

∞
∞m−1 xn−1
a) ∫ x n dx b) ∫ dx
0
(1+ x) 0
(1+ x)n
∞ ∞
xm + n − 1 x m−1
c) ∫ 1+ x dx d) ∫ (1+ x)m+n dx
0 0
6) The value of ∫ x (1 − x ) dx is
4 3
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
280 180 380 80
7) The value of −3
2
is
4 π −8 π
a) − 2 π b) c) d) None of these
3 15
2 3y
8) Value of ∫ ∫ ydydx is
1 0
a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9
π
2 sin θ
9) ∫ ∫ rdθdr =
0 0
π
2 sinθ
1
a) ∫ sin θdθ b) ∫ 2
πrdr
0 0
π
2
1 2
c) ∫
0
2
sin θdθ d) None of these
1 1
10) The double integral ∫ ∫ x 2 + y 2 dxdy is equal to ( )
0 0
1
a) 0 b) 1 c) d) 2 3
3
*SLRW180* -3- SLR-W – 180

1
dx
1) Examine the convergence of the improper integrals ∫
0 1 − x2
.
1
dx
2) Examine the convergence of ∫ 1
(1 + x )
2
.
0 x 3
3) Prove that 1
2 = π.
−5
4) Compute .
2
π x
5) Evaluate ∫ ∫ sin ydydx .
0 0
π aθ
6) Evaluate ∫ ∫ r 3dθdr .
0 0

π/2
∫x
m
1) Show that cosec nx dx exists if and only if n < (m + 1).
0
∞
y n−1
2) Prove that B(m, n) = ∫ dy .
0
(1+ y )m+n
3) Find the area of the curve r = a(1 + cos θ ), by double integration.
m n
B) Prove that B(m, n) = . 4
m+n

π2
1) Show that ∫ sinx logsinx dx is convergent with value log ⎛⎜ 2e ⎞⎟ .

0 ⎝ ⎠
SLR-W – 180 -4- *SLRW180*
⎛ m + 1⎞ ⎛ n + 1⎞
π2 ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
2) Prove that ∫ sinm θ cosn θ d θ = ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ .
2 ⎜⎛ m + n + 2 ⎞⎟
0
⎝ 2 ⎠
∞∞
e− y
3) Change the order of integration in ∫ ∫ dxdy and Evaluate.
0 x
y

1
1) Show that the Beta function ∫ xm−1(1 − x )n−1dx , converges if and only
0
if m > 0, n > 0.
π
2
2) Evaluate ∫ tan θdθ .
n
⎛ 1 − x2− y2 ⎞
3) Transform to Polar coordinates and evaluate ∫∫ ⎜⎜ 2
⎟ dxdy
2 ⎟
⎝ 1 + x + y ⎠
the integral being extended over all positive values of x and y subject
to x2 + y2 ≤ 1.
_____________________
*SLRW181* SLR-W 181
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper XI)
Probability Distributions and Stochastic Process

2) Use of statistical tables and scientific calculators is allowed.
1. Choose the most correct answer. 10

A B C
A

! ! !
i) In the TPM ,

B
2
! !

C

Which state is absorbing state ?

a) A b) B c) C d) None of these
ii) A stochastic process is called Markov chain if
a) There are finite or countable number of states
b) A future state depends upon present state and not on past tests
c) The states are both collectively exhaustive and mutually exclusive
d) All of these
iii) A Markov property is based upon
a) Expectation b) CDF
c) Lack of memory property d) None of these

iv) If X~ Laplace ( , ) with pdf ,0< , , then

N
B N A
, x

P ( X l o g 2

)
=
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 0.75 d) 0.25
P.T.O.
SLR-W 181 -2- *SLRW181*
v) If X~ Laplace ( , ) with pdf as in (iv) and Y~ exp with pdf

then V(X) = .... V(Y).

O
f ( y ) e , 0 , 0 y
a) Equal b) Half c) Double d) Reciprocal

vi) Let X ~ Lognormal (0, 1) r.v. then V(log X + K) =
a) 1 b) e c) e(e + 1) d) e(e 1)
vii) Let (X, Y) ~ BN

, ,

, ,
then regression of Y on X is

a) b) E [Y/X = x] c) d) E[X | Y = y]

. .

viii) Let (X, Y) ~ BN

, ,

, ,
and = 0 then X and Y are

a) Uncorrelated b) Dependent
c) Neither a) nor b) d) Both a) and b)
ix) If X ~ Cauchy ( ,
) then 2 :
=
a) 0.25 b) 0.5 c) 0.75 d) 1
x) The support of a r.v. X following normal distribution truncated below 0 is
a) to 0
b) 0 to
c) to d) K to K
2. Attempt any five from the following : 10

i) A binomial (n, p) r.v. is truncated at X = 0, write down its pmf.
ii) If X ~ log normal ( ,
) then find the distribution of Y = KX.
iii) Show that for Laplace (0, 1) distribution
H

if r is odd.
iv) If the one-step TPM is then find two-step TPM.

0 . 4 0 . 6

P

0 . 8 0 . 2

v) Define finite Markov chain, recurrent state and absorbing state.
vi) If (X, Y) is bivariate normal

, ,

, ,
r.v. then state (only) conditional
variance of r.v. X given Y = 5.
*SLRW181* -3- SLR-W 181
3. A) Attempt any two from the following : 6

i) State and prove the relation between standard Cauchy and students t
distributions.
ii) Obtain pdf of exponential distribution truncated below K.

iii) If (X, Y) is bivariate normal r.v. with pdf .

N O
f ( x , y ) K . e , x , y
Find K and all parameters.

B) Assume that a man is at an integral point of X axis between X = 0 and X = 3.
He takes a unit step either to the right with probability 0.7 or to the left with
probability 0.3 ; unless he is at origin, when he takes a step to the right to
reach at X = 1 or he is at pt. X = 3, when he takes a step to the left to reach
at X = 2. Write a one step TPM and state space of this stochastic process. 4
4. Attempt any two from the following : 10

a) Find mean of Laplace ( ,
) distribution.
b) Let (X, Y) ~ BN (1, 1, 4, 4, ) and if P(X > 4 | Y = 3) = 0.023, then find .

c) Find CDF and hence quartiles of Cauchy distribution with parameters

and .
5. Attempt any one from the following : 10

a) Obtain mgf for Laplace (0, 1) distribution and hence find coefficient of skewness.
b) Let (X, Y) ~ BN (0, 0, 5, 5, ) then find the distribution of and identify

:
7
the same.
___________
*SLRW182* -1- SLR-W – 182
SLR-W – 182
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XI) (New)
Environmental Geology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

3) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the given options : 10
1) In limestone region possibility of ____________ is more than other rock types.
a) Tsunami b) Flood
c) Volcanic hazard d) Subsidence
2) Presence of ____________ increases the possibility of landslide.
a) Fault b) Trees
c) Gentle slope d) Gabian structure
3) The common solution adapted to seal the fractures and gaps in the rocks is
____________ that can repair hazardous hill slopes.
a) gabian b) Grouting
c) retention wall d) Bolting
4) Blasting activity in the mines can cause
a) Cancer b) Ulcer
c) Ear damage d) TB
5) Fire caused in coal mine is due to
a) Methane b) CO2
c) O2 d) gas
6) In opencast mining process, ____________ becomes first victims.
a) Vegetation b) Industries
c) Man d) Tall trees
7) Pressure of water stored in the dams can cause
a) tsunami b) subsidence
c) landslide d) salination of soil
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 182 -2- *SLRW182*
8) Tropical climate in the hilly region frequently causes

a) Landslides b) Flood
c) Subsidence d) Volcanic hazard
9) Assam and now a days Kashmir experiences ____________ hazard.
a) tsunami b) landslides
c) volcano d) mining
10) Slope stabilization reduces the possibility of ____________ hazard.
a) volcanic b) flood
c) contamination d) landslide

1) Role of mine workers in the coal mine causing hazard.
2) Effects of illegal coal mining.
3) Silicosis.
4) Fluorosis.
5) Meshing.
6) Define flood.

1) Volcanic hazard preparedness.
2) River diversion.
3) Artificial levee.
B) Mining activities causing respiratory disease. 4

1) Write on precaution measures and preparedness for hazard of Tsunami.
2) Explain the carrying capacity of river with reference to flood.
3) Explain the disastrous effects of products of volcano.

1) Describe the effects of coastal hazards.
2) Describe the geological hazards.
3) Describe causes of cardiac disease and cancer caused due to mining process.
_____________________
*SLRW183* SLR-W – 183
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper – XI) (New)
Agricultural Microbiology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct answer from given

alternatives. 10
i) Horizons of soil consists of __________
a) Fine particles and Mineral particles
b) Weathered rocks
c) Unweathered rocks
d) Organic matters and Mineral particles
ii) In carbon cycle initially cellulose split into ___________
a) Glucose b) Millibiose c) Cellobiose d) Cellotriose
iii) The process of conversion of non toxic substances to toxic substances by
organisms in Soils is __________reaction.
a) Activation b) Degradation c) Detoxification d) All of these
iv) Vanillic acid is the product formed after the biodegradation of _________
a) Cellulose b) Lignin c) Hemicellulose d) Hydrocarbons
v) Xanthomonas oxinopoides organism causes the infection called __________
a) Soft rot of Potato b) Whip Smut of Sugarcane
c) Oily spot of Pomegranate d) Curling of leaves
vi) Optimum C : N ratio required for composting is _________
a) 50:60 b) 30:40 c) 20:30 d) 20:20
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 183 -2- *SLRW183*
vii) ___________enzyme acts only on native molecules of Cellulose.

a) CNative b) Glucanases c) C1 d) Cx
viii) The cleavage of phosphorous from organic matter in Soil is done by _________
enzyme.
a) Phosphatase b) Phosphokinases
c) Phosphorylases d) Oxidases
ix) Insoil size of sand particles ranges from ___________ mm.

a) 0.001 – 0.001 b) 0.05 – 2.00 c) 2.5 – 3.5 d) 4.00 – 5.00
x) The causative agent of whip smut of sugarcane disease is _______

a) Xanthomonas citri b) Xanthomonas compentris
c) Ustilago scitaminea d) Xanthomonas oxynopoides

i) What is vermicompost ?
ii) List names of two Cellulolytic organisms.
iii) Write properties of Soil.
iv) Enlist two pesticide degrading bacteria.
v) Write common symptoms of oily spot of Pomegranates.
vi) Define diffusion reaction in Pesticide degradation.
vii) Explain Soil Horizons.
3. A) Answer the questions in brief (any two) : 6

i) Application of Biotechnology in Agriculture.
ii) Write different environmental factors governing cellulose degradation.
iii) What are the basic methods of microbial Phosphorus mineralization in
Soil ?
B) Write biochemistry of Cellulose degradation. 4

*SLRW183* -3- SLR-W – 183

i) Write in brief biodegradation of Pesticides.
ii) Explain in short sulphur cycle.
iii) Write in detail biodegradation of Lignin.

i) Explain in brief biodegradation of Hemicelluloses.
ii) Write on role of microorganisms in Carbon Cycle.
iii) Write about Soil as an Ecosystem.
___________
*SLRW184* SLR-W 184
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS
Fundamentals of Microcontroller (Special Paper XI)

3) Draw the diagram wherever necessary.
4) Use of log tables or calculator is allowed.

i) The RAM space in 8051 microcontroller is
a) 8 byte b) 128 byte c) 2k byte d) 4k byte
ii) ___________ is open drain port.
a) Port 0 b) Port 1 c) Port 2 d) Port 3
iii) The number of SFR in microcontroller 8051 is
a) 5 b) 11 c) 15 d) 21
iv) Mode 2 of microcontroller timer operates as
a) 13 bit timer b) 16 bit timer
c) 8 bit split timer d) 8 bit auto reload
v) The number of banks in 8051 are
a) Two b) Four c) Eight d) Sixteen
vi) If set bit 07 instruction executed then result will be checked in ___________
location.
a) 20 H b) 17 H c) 07 H d) 00 H
vii) The SFR address of port 0 is
a) 80 H b) 90 H c) C0 H d) A0 H
P.T.O.
SLR-W 184 *SLRW184*
viii) By default the stack pointer location is

a) 07 H b) 17 H c) 27 H d) 37 H
ix) When power supply is ON then all ports of microcontroller are have
___________ output.
a) 00 H b) 0F H c) F0 H d) FFH
x) ___________ is 8K EPROM chip.
a) 2708 b) 2716 c) 2764 d) 27128

i) Differentiate between ROM and RAM.
ii) Differentiate between microprocessor and microcontroller.
iii) Enlist the bit addressable SFR.
iv) Write the different functions of Port 3.
v) Name the different addressing modes of 8051 microcontroller.
vi) Give the modes of timer of 8051.
3. A) Answer any two (three marks each) : 6

i) Describe the RAM structure of 8051.
ii) Draw pin diagram of 2764.
iii) Differentiate between ACALL and AJMP instructions.
B) Write ALP to add the two eight bit numbers stored in R0 and R1 and store
result in R2. 4
4. Answer any two (five marks each) : 10

i) Write the salient features of microcontroller 8051.
ii) Explain any two logical instructions with example.
iii) Write ALP to generate square wave at port P 1.0.

i) What do you mean by subroutine ? Write a delay program using subroutine.
ii) Draw the pin diagram of 8051 microcontroller, describe functions of each pin.
___________
*SLRW186* SLR-W – 186
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XII)
Nuclear Physics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
iii) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternative : 10

i) In cyclotron, time for semicircular path of ion is _________ for each revolution.
a) increases b) decreases c) constant d) zero
ii) An accelerator is used for increasing _________ of charged particles.
a) kinetic energy b) potential energy
c) binding energy d) surface energy
iii) The radius of nucleus is directly proportional to _________ of atomic mass
number.
a) square root b) cube root c) square d) cube
iv) When α - particle strikes on screen coated with ZnS then flash of light is
emitted. This principle is used in ___________
a) G.M. counter b) Bubble chember
c) Scintillation counter d) Proportional counter
v) The mass defect per nucleons is called
a) binding energy b) fission energy
c) nucleus fraction d) packing fraction
vi) In stripping reaction, product and target nuclei are
a) isotopes b) isobars c) isomers d) projectiles
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 186 -2- *SLRW186*
vii) For heavy nuclei (i.e. in natural radioactivity), α - disintegration energy (Q α )

is
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) infinite
viii) Neutrino hypothesis was postulated by
a) Einstein b) Rutherford c) Pauli d) J.J. Thomson
ix) Hydrons means
a) heavy b) bulky c) light in weight d) weightless
x) Neutron was discovered by

a) C.D. Anderson b) Newton
c) Einstein d) Chadwick

i) State the condition of betatron.
ii) State principle of bubble chember.
iii) Define binding energy and mass defect.
iv) What is stripping reaction ?
v) Explain continuous β -ray spectrum.
vi) Explain strong and weak interactions.

i) Explain liquid drop model of nucleus.
ii) Obtain equation for Q-value of nuclear reaction.
iii) Explain experimental study of β -decay.
B) Calculate Q-value of the following reaction and indicate type of reaction 4
4 14 17 1
2 He + 7N → 8 O + 1H
Given : Mass of He4 = 4.0038727 amu
Mass of N14 = 14.003074 amu
Mass of O17 = 16.999133 amu
Mass of H1 = 1.007825 amu
and 1 amu = 931 MeV.
*SLRW186* -3- SLR-W – 186

i) Obtain semi-empirical mass formula.
ii) Define α -disintegration energy and show that it is nearly equal to the Q-value
of α -disintegration reaction.
iii) Explain classification of elementary particles.

i) Explain construction and working of cyclotron. Obtain equation for velocity of
ion in cyclotron.
ii) Explain construction and working of G.M. Counter. Explain Geiger plateau,
dead time and recovery time of G.M. Tube.
_______________

*SLRW187* SLR-W – 187

Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper – XII)
Analytical and Industrial Physical Chemistry

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Select the most correct alternative from among those given below and rewrite the
sentence : 10
1) Cell constant (x) is given by ______
a) x = a l b) x = axl
c) x = l a d) x = lxa
2) Flame photometry is also named as ________ spectroscopy.

a) atomic b) flame emission
c) molecular d) none of these
3) The potentiometer is standardized at ________.
a) 1.00 V b) 1.018 V
c) 0.34 V d) 0.76 V
4) The device used to measure the response of photocell is called as ________.
a) voltmeter b) conductometer
c) galvanometer d) all of these

P.T.O.
SLR-W – 187 -2- *SLRW187*
5) A certain minimum external voltage required to commence a continuous

electrolytic decomposition is known as _______
a) decomposition potential b) electrolysis
c) current voltage d) none of these
6) Titrations in which end points are determined by emf measurements and

precipitation occurs are called ______ titration.
a) acid-base b) redox
c) precipitation d) none of these
7) When the temperature of flame is increased, the intensity of emitted radiations
_____.
a) decreases b) increases
c) first decreases, then increases d) remains constant
8) In chromium plating, generally _______ is used as anode.

a) Pb b) Cr c) Ni d) Cu
9) According to latest convention, the emf of the cell may be expressed as,
______
a) E = ER – EL b) E = EL – ER
c) E = ER + EL d) E = ER × EL
10) In simple flame photometers ______ is used as monochromator.

a) prism b) grating c) slit d) all of these

i) Define the term transmission (T).
ii) Give any two advantages of glass electrode.
iii) State Faraday’s laws of electrolysis.
iv) Give two characteristics of burner.
v) How is conductivity water prepared in the laboratory ?
vi) Write any two applications of nickel plating.

*SLRW187* -3- SLR-W – 187

i) How cell constant is determined ?
ii) What are the advantages of flame photometry ?
iii) State and explain Lambert’s law.
B) Explain role of brighteners in electroplating. 4
i) What are the advantages of potentiometric titrations ?
ii) Explain the application of flame photometry in qualitative analysis.
iii) Draw schematic diagram of single cell photoelectric colorimeter.
i) Explain in brief electroplating equipment.
ii) Give the construction and working of calomel electrode.
iii) Write a note on conductometric titration of weak acid and strong base.
__________________
*SLRW189* SLR-W 189
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper XII)
Developmental Biology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence : 10
1) The process of formation of sperm is called
a) Oogenesis b) Spermatogenesis
c) Mitosis d) Ovulation
2) The egg of Amphioxus is termed as ________ egg.
a) Megalecithal b) Microlecithal
c) Macrolecithal d) Polylecithal
3) Fertilizin is ________ in nature.
a) Protein b) Carbohydrates
c) Fats d) Glycoprotein
4) Holoblastic and unequal cleavage is found in
a) Chick b) Grasshopper
c) Amphioxus d) Insects
5) _______ pairs of somites are found in chick embryo of about 24 hrs. stage.
a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 10
6) The coelomic cavity, gastrocoel is also termed as
a) Blastocoel b) Stomodaeum
c) Archenteron d) Coelenteron
P.T.O.
SLR-W 189 *SLRW189*
7) Major nutritive foetal membrane in chick embryo is

a) Yolk sac b) Amnion c) Chorion d) Allantoise
8) The smallest spermatozoan is found in
a) Human b) Frog c) Chick d) Amphioxus
9) Physiological connection between mother and developing embryo in mammal is
a) Placenta b) Foetal membrane
c) Notochord d) Mesoderm
10) In chick, hatching occurs after about ______ days.
a) 28 b) 35 c) 42 d) 21

i) Structure of egg of Amphioxus.
ii) Structure of spermatozoan of chick.
iii) Centrolecithal egg.
iv) Discoidal cleavage.
v) Internal fertilization.
vi) Somites.
vii) Radial cleavage.

i) Acrosome reaction during fertilization.
ii) Fate map
iii) Cleidoic egg.
B) Functions of placentae. 4

i) Describe haemochorial placenta.
ii) Blastula of Amphioxus.
iii) Spermatogenesis.

i) What are foetal membranes ? Describe any two foetal membranes in chick.
ii) Describe chick embryo of about 48 hrs. incubation.
_____________

*SLRW190* SLR-W – 190

Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XII)
Partial Differential Equations

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


1) The general solution of the linear partial differential equation Pp + Qq = R is
_________, where u ≡ u (x, y, z) and v ≡ v(x, y, z)
a) φ (u, v) = x b) φ (u, v) = –y
c) φ (u, v) = 0 d) None of these
2) The general solution of xzp + yzq = xy is
a) φ ⎛⎜ x , y ⎞⎟ = 0 b) φ (x – y, y – z) = 0
⎝ y z⎠
c) φ (x2 – y2, y2 – z2) = 0 d) None of these
3) The p.d.e obtained by eliminating the arbitrary function φ from z = φ (x + y)

is
a) z = pq b) z = p + q c) pq = i d) p = q
4) In the solution of differential equation (D2 – 2DD1 + D12) z = ex + 2y then P.I.
is
a) x + 2y b) ex + 2y c) e2x + y d) None of these
5) In the solution of differential equation (D + 2D′) (D + D′)z = x + y then c.f. is

a) φ 1(y – 2x) + φ 2(y – x) b) φ 1(2y + x) + φ 2 (y + 2x)
c) φ 1(x – y) + φ 2(x + y) d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 190 -2- *SLRW190*
6) The general solution of (D – D12 ) z = 0 is

2
a) z = ∑ A eK x + ky where A and K are arbitrary constant
b) z = ∑ A eKx + y where A and K are arbitrary constant
c) z = AeKx+Ky where A and K are arbitrary constant
2 x + Ky
d) z = A eK where A and K are arbitrary constant
7) The general solution of t + s + q = 0 is
a) φ1(x ) + φ 2 (y − x ) b) φ1(x ) + e −xφ 2 ( y − x )
c) φ1(x ) + e xφ 2 (y − x ) d) φ1(x ) + e xφ 2 (y + x )
8) The complete integral of pq = K is
⎛K⎞ ⎛K⎞
a) z = ax + ⎜ ⎟ y + b b) z = ax – ⎜ ⎟ y + b
⎝a⎠ ⎝a⎠
⎛a⎞
c) z = ax + ⎜ ⎟ y + b d) None of these
⎝K ⎠
9) A solution obtained by giving particular value to arbitrary constants in the

complete solution is called
a) Singular solution b) Complete solution
c) Particular solution d) Non-singular solution
10) The first order partial differential equations p = P(x, y), q = Q(x, y) are
compatible iff
∂P ∂Q ∂P ∂Q
a) = b) =
∂y ∂x ∂x ∂y
∂P ∂Q ∂P ∂Q
c) =− d) =−
∂y ∂x ∂x ∂y
*SLRW190* -3- SLR-W – 190
2. Attempt any five of the following. 10

1) Form p.d.e by eliminating arbitrary constant from the relation
1 2 2y
z = axe y + x e +b.
2
2) Solve p – 2q = 3x2 sin (y + 2x).

3) Find complete integral p2 + q2 = m2 where m is constant.
4) Show that the differential equation p = x2 – ay, q = y2 – ax are compatible.
5) Solve : (D4 – D′ 4) z = 0
6) Solve : (D2 – D′ 2 + D – D′ ) z = 0.

1) From p.d.e by eliminating arbitrary functions f and g from
z = f(x2 – y) + g(x2 + y).
2) Solve (D2 + 3D D′ +2 D′ 2)z = x + y.
3) Find singular integral from 2xz – px2 – 2qxy + pq = 0.
B) Explain the method of solving the equation of the form f(p, q) = 0. 4

1) Find the integral surface of the linear p.d.e x(y2 + z) p – y(x2 + z)q = (x2 – y2)z.
2) Show that the equations xp = yq and z(xp + yq) = 2xy are compatible and
solve them.
3) Solve (D3 − 6D2D′ + 11 DD′2 − 6D′3 ) z = e5x+6y .
5. Attempt any one of the following. 10

1) Explain Charpits method for solving the p.d.e. f(x, y, z, p, q) = 0 where x and y are
∂z ∂z
independent variables and p = ,q = and hence solve p2 – y2q = y2 – x2.
∂x ∂y
2) Show that the solution of (D – m D′ )2 z = 0 is z = φ 1 (y + mx) + x φ 2 (y + mx)

and hence solve (D – D′ )2 z = tan (y + x).
_______________

*SLRW191* SLR-W – 191

Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper – XII) (New)
Operations Research and Applied Statistics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

ii) Use of simple or scientific calculator is allowed.
1. Select most correct alternative : 10
i) A necessary and sufficient condition for a basic feasible solution to a

maximization LPP to be an optimum is that (for all j) :
a) zj – cj ≠ 0 b) zj – cj ≤ 0
c) zj – cj = 0 d) zj – cj ≥ 0
ii) Which of the following is not correct ?
a) It is not possible to obtain feasible solution of an LPP by graphical method
b) A feasible region of an LPP must be convex set
c) The feasible region is also termed as solution space
d) A feasible solution of an LPP is independent of the objective function
iii) In final (optimum) simplex table, if zj – cj = 0 for at least one non-basic

variable, then there will be
a) Infeasible solution b) unbounded solution
c) alternate solution d) no solution P.T.O.

SLR-W – 191 -2- *SLRW191*
iv) The initial solution of a transportation problem obtained by
a) North-West corner rule would invariably be optimum

b) VAM would invariably be very near to optimum solution
c) Least cost method does not provide the least cost solution to a T.P.
d) MODI method is infeasible
v) In assignment problem the minimum number of lines covering all zeros in a

reduced cost matrix of order 3 can be
a) at the least 3 b) at the most 3
c) 2 d) 3
vi) In a Single Sampling Plan of sample size n and acceptance number c, if the
number of observed defectives d is equal to c, then
a) the lot is rejected
b) the lot is accepted
c) we cannot take the decision of accepting or rejecting the lot
d) the lot is rejected or accepted
vii) The slack for an activity in network is equal to

a) LS-ES b) LF-LS c) EF-ES d) EF-LS
viii) The consumer will often design the sampling procedure so that the OC curve
gives _________ probability of acceptance at the AQL.
a) a very low b) a low c) a high d) zero
ix) If there are 3 workers and 3 jobs in the assignment problem, there would be
a) 3 solutions b) 6 solutions
c) 2 solutions d) 216 solutions
x) In critical path analysis, CPM is

a) deterministic in nature b) probabilistic in nature
c) dynamic in nature d) event oriented
*SLRW191* -3- SLR-W – 191
i) Give a canonical form of a LPP in matrix form.
ii) Define an artificial variable.
iii) When is a solution of a transportation problem said to be a degenerate one ?
iv) Define Producer’s risk.
v) What is a balanced Assignment problem ?
vi) Define optimistic time in a PERT.

i) Define Project duration, earliest event time and latest event time.
ii) Give the mathematical form of an Assignment problem.
iii) Give the formulae of determining A.T.I. and A.O.Q. in a Single Sampling
Plan.
B) For a Single Sampling Plan with lot size N, n = 10, c = 1 and p = 0.018 find the
probability of rejection of the lot. 4
i) Find IBFS to the following transportation problem by using North-West corner

method.
To
D E F G Available
A 11 13 17 14 250
From B 16 18 14 10 300
C 21 24 13 10 400
Demand 200 225 275 250

SLR-W – 191 -4- *SLRW191*
ii) A project schedule has the following activities and the time (in months) of
completion of each activity is as follows :
Activity 1−2 2−3 2−4 3−4
Time 8 4 15 16
Draw the network diagram and find the minimum time of completion of the
project.
iii) Write a procedure of Graphical method of solving a LPP.

i) Write a procedure of Double Sampling Plan.
ii) The following assignment problem shows the costs of assigning four tasks
to four men. Determine the optimum assignment schedule.
Men
I II III IV
A 18 26 17 11
Tasks B 13 28 14 26
C 38 19 18 15
D 19 26 24 10
__________________
*SLRW192* SLR-W – 192
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XII) (New)
Hydrogeology and Remote Sensing

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1) Source for ground water from the space is called ___________
a) Juvenile b) Cosmic c) Connate d) Surface
2) Generally water table follows ___________
a) Slope b) Fractures c) Topography d) Dyke
3) Process of entry to surface water from the surface in to the ground is
called _____________
a) Infiltration b) Seepage c) Spring d) Leakage
4) Rock formation below the water table is ____________
a) Dry b) Aquifer
c) Saturated with water d) Aquitard
5) Over flowing bore-well in summer may be due to ___________
a) Heavy rain b) Pearched aquifer
c) Artesian condition of aquifer d) Good aquifer
6) Linear feature ___________ in an image express the structural feature.
a) Lineament b) Foliation c) Fold d) Lineation
7) Basin in an image is identified ___________
a) Dendritic b) Centripetal c) Radial d) Lost river
8) Desert in an image in identified by __________
a) Dykes b) Scanty vegetation and lost river
c) Fault d) Fold
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 192 *SLRW192*
9) The wavelength of visible spectral band is from ______ μ m.

a) 0.3 – 0.07 b) 0.4 – 0.7 c) 0.05 – 0.08 d) 0.03 – 0.08
10) Trellis drainages showing opposite flow set up are indicators of _______
a) Slope b) Escarpment c) Fault d) Ridge

a) Overlap
b) Senser
c) Platform
d) Aquifer
e) Porosity
f) Transmissivity.

1) Vegetation in an image and its significance.
2) Significance of linear structures in an image.
3) Gravity Spring.
B) Vertical Distribution of ground water. 4

1) Describe the hot springs. Draw its diagram and give Indian examples.
2) Describe confined aquifer. Draw its diagram.
3) Identification of fault using an image.

1) Describe the watershed. Draw diagram.
2) What is drainage pattern ? Describe significance of radial drainage pattern.
3) What are lineaments ? Describe the significance of linear structures in an
image.
_____________________
*SLRW193* SLR-W – 193
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Semester – V) (New) Examination, 2016

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper No. – XII)
Immunology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever required.
i) Cytokines are __________

a) low molecular wt proteins b) high molecular weight
c) both a and b d) None of these
ii) The MHC in mouse called H2 gene complex is located on chromosome no.
_________ in mice.
a) 16 b) 6 c) 14 d) 17
iii) Bacteria, neoplastic cellls, virus infected cells as well as intracellular parasites
containing cells are destroyed by
a) T lymphocytes b) NK cells
c) B lymphocytes d) Phagocytes
iv) Cell mediated immunity protects the body from ________ pathogenic agents.
a) Intracellular b) extracellular c) both a and b d) None of these
v) In an autoimmune Masthenia gravis autoantibodies are produced against.

a) RBC b) WBC
c) Thyroid hormones d) acetyl choline receptors
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 193 -2- *SLRW193*
vi) An antibody response to foreign tissue is suppressed in which of the following

phenomenon ?
a) immune tolerance b) immune enhancement
c) autoimmunity d) none of these
vii) Activated B lymphocyte after antigenic stimulus get differentiated into

_____________
a) Plasma and memory cells b) Plasma and CD4 cells
c) NK cells and plasma cells d) NK cells and memory cells
viii) In an auroimmune disease idiopathic thrombocytopic purpura autoantibodies

are produced against
a) Lymphocytes b) RBC c) Platelets d) WBC
ix) Mast cell _________

a) circulate in the blood stream b) are phagocytic
c) Release histamine d) are found in lymph nones
x) __________ antibody pass through placenta.

a) Ig A b) Ig M c) Ig G d) Ig E
2. Answer in one or two sentences (any five). 10

i) Define monoclonal antibodies
ii) Blood groups
iii) Complement
iv) Cell mediated immunity
v) Antigen
vi) B-Lymphocyte.
3. A) Write in brief (any two). 6
i) Rh blood group system.
ii) Differentiate between immediate and delayed type hypersensitivity.
iii) Enlist functions of monoclonal antibodies.
B) Describe properties and functions of cytokines. 4

*SLRW193* -3- SLR-W – 193
4. Answer any two. 10
i) What is hybridoma technology ?
ii) Blood transfusion reactions.
iii) Explain mechanism of immediate type of hypersensitivity.
5. Answer any two. 10
i) Anaphylaxis
ii) Properties of complement
iii) Write on cells involved in cell mediated immunity.
__________________
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper XII)
Sensors and Instrumentation
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


i) The minimum and maximum values of an input quantity for which an instrument
is designed to measure is called
a) hysteresis b) threshold c) range or span d) sensitivity
ii) The front-end of any measurement system is
a) transducer or sensor b) signal conditioning unit
c) display unit d) control unit
iii) Which one of these is an active transducer ?
a) LVDT b) RTD c) Thermistor d) Thermocouple
iv) LVDT is ______ type of transducer.
a) resistive b) capacitive
c) inductive d) photoconductive
v) ______ transducer from the following has highest light sensitivity.
a) Solar cell b) LDR c) Photodiode d) Phototransistor
vi) As far as speed of operation is concerned LCD displays are ________ LED
displays.
a) faster than b) slower than c) of same speed as d) like static
vii) In load cell or weighing scale signal conditioning system the number of strain
gauges to be connected in bridge circuit so as to double the sensitivity of the
bridge is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
P.T.O.
viii) A signal system is named dc or ac signal conditioning system based on the
use of
a) transducer b) bridge network
c) excitation source d) calibration network
ix) The basic objective of DAS is
a) to acquire data at correct speed and time
b) to process the data
c) to provide effective human interface
d) all of these
x) The most important component of DAS is
a) controller unit b) signal conditioning unit
c) sensor or transducer d) A/D converter

i) Define resolution.
ii) Briefly explain the principle of RTD.
iii) Give the principle and list the applications of piezoelectric sensor.
iv) Explain the principle of solenoid.
v) Explain in brief any one signal isolation technique.
vi) Explain working of phototransistor.
3. A) Answer any two (three marks each) : 6

i) Discuss the types of errors in measurement.
ii) Give the performance parameters of a sensor or transducer.
iii) Explain dot-matrix LED display.
B) Write a note on dc signal conditioning system. 4
4. Answer any two (five marks each) : 10

i) Write a note on bonded strain gauge.
ii) Explain the construction and operation of stepper motor.
iii) Write a note on gas sensor.

i) Explain with neat circuit diagram, the operation of instrumentation amplifier.
Hence deduce the equation for output voltage.
ii) Discuss data logger system.
_________________
*SLRW195* -1- SLR-W – 195
SLR-W – 195
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Special Paper – XII : Data Communications and Networking – I

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


1) The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility
of the ____________ layer.
a) Transport b) Application
c) Physical d) Network
2) The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a ____________ protocol.
a) Connection-oriented b) Reliable
c) Connectionless d) None of the above
3) The OSI model consists of ____________ layers.
a) Eight b) Seven c) Five d) Three
4) Circuit switching takes place at the ____________ layer.
a) Physical b) Data link
c) Network d) Transport
5) Checksum Check uses ____________ arithmetic.
a) One’s complement b) Two’s complement
c) Either (a) or (b) d) None of the above
6) The ____________ between two words is the number of differences between
corresponding bits.
a) Hamming rule b) Hamming code
c) Hamming distance d) None of the above
7) The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________
a) Redundancy b) Degree
c) Generator d) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 195 -2- *SLRW195*
8) ____________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision.

a) CSMA/CD b) CSMA/CA
c) Either (a) or (b) d) Both (a) and (b)
9) ___________ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting
outer sheath.
a) Twisted-pair b) Shielded twisted-pair
c) Coaxial d) Fiber-optic
10) Microwaves are ____________ directional.
a) Omni b) Bi
c) Uni d) None of the above

1) What is Byte stuffing ?
2) Define bandwidth and frequency.
3) What is meant by Internet working ?
4) Define Amplitude Modulation.
5) Define noise. Mention the types of noise.
6) What is meant by full duplex data flow ?

1) Explain Ring topology.
2) Explain the characteristics of data communications system.
3) Explain various design issues of Network layer.
B) Explain WAN and MAN in detail. 4

1) Explain Co-axial cable in detail.
2) Explain Slotted ALOHA.
3) Explain Message switching in detail.

1) Explain Shortest Path Routing.
2) Explain the Network Criteria.
3) Explain Go-Back-n protocol.
_____________________
*SLRW196* SLR-W – 196
Seat
No.

ENGLISH COMPULSORY
Countdown : English Skills for Success (Old)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. A) Rewrite the following bits by choosing the correct options. 6

1) Raman was a _______ reader.
a) Virtuous b) Vicious c) Voracious d) Vigorous
2) In Cuddalore, communication system was set up with the help of _________
radio operators.
a) SHAM b) FM c) FAM d) HAM
3) For a boy of fourteen his home is the only ___________
a) hell b) paradise c) den d) torture
4) “Life is real! Life is earnest! And the grave is not its __________”
a) goal b) gaol c) name d) origin
5) The mother in “Village Song” shows _______________ for her daughter.
a) anger b) concerns c) hope d) light
6) The Tsunami turned the land in Cuddalore ______________
a) sweet b) bitter c) saline d) fertile
B) Choose the correct modals and rewrite the bits. 2

1) It _____ rain, for there are clouds in the sky.
a) can b) may c) will d) might
2) She __________ sing, when she was a child.
a) will b) can c) used to d) must
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 196 *SLRW196*
C) Do as directed. 2
1) He said to the stranger, “Who are you ?” (Make Indirect speech)
2) Padma congratulated Pratik on his promotion. (Make Direct Speech)
2. Answer any five of the following questions in short. 10

1) Why did Raman move to Culcatta ?
2) What was the first and fore most task in disaster management in Cuddalore ?
3) Why did Phatik go with Bishamber to Culcatta ?
4) What experiment did Raman do on musical instruments ?
5) How were the community kitchens managed in Cuddalore ?
6) How was phatik treated by his maternal aunt ?

1) How has H W Long fellow depicted the importance of the present time in
his “A Psalm of Life” ?
2) What was the girl in the poem “Village song” a Fraid of ?
3) What is the central theme of Long Fellow’s “A Psalm of Life” ?
B) Write reports on any two of the following bits. 4

1) Visit to the Gadda Fair.
2) A trip to Bijapur.
3) Nature in Jammu and Kashmir.
4. 1) Think of a product to be promoted in the market. It could be a two wheeler.

Prepare a presentation with five charts/slides. 10
OR
2) Prepare a presentation script with five slides on the topic “India Against
corruption”.
5. Prepare and write group discussion on the topic Environmental pollution. 10
—————
*SLRW197* -1- SLR-W – 197
SLR-W – 197
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Old) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS (Special Paper – IX)
Mathematical Physics and Statistical Physics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

ii) Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
iv) Use of calculators is allowed.

1) Weins displacement law is expressed as
a) λ m T = const. b) λ m T 2 = const.
1
c) λm T 2 = const. d) λ m T 4 = const.
2) All accessible microstates corresponding to a possible macrostate are

a) Less probable b) More probable
c) Equally probable d) None of the above
3) The particles obeying F-D statistics are
a) Photons b) Electrons
c) Gas molecules d) Distinguishable
4) In orthogonal curvilinear coordinate system, the coordinate surfaces are
a) Plane b) Curved c) Spherical d) Cylindrical
5) The scale factors for cylindrical coordinates corresponds to
a) 1, ρ , θ b) 1, ρ , 1 c) 1, ρ , sin θ d) 1, ρ , z
6) The curl of a vector V is the _______ line integral of the vector field per unit area.
a) maximum b) minimum c) constant d) zero
7) a.(b × a ) =
a) 1 b) a2 c) 0 d) b
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 197 -2- *SLRW197*
8) For the distribution to be most probable, then

a) ω = 0 b) log ω = 0
c) δ (log ω ) = 0 d) 1log ( ω ) = 0
9) Boltzmann’s partition function z =

K −ui K + ui K −uT K
∑ gi e
−1
a) ∑ gi e c) ∑ gi e ∑ gi e
uT uT ui uT
b) d)
i=1 i=1 i=1 i=1
10) In __________ ways three particles can be arranged in four energy levels.
a) 4 b) 10 c) 8 d) 12

1) Define macrostates and microstates of a system.
2) Explain the line integral of a vector field.
3) Define Fermi energy and occupation index.
4) Deduce the Rayleigh-Jeans formula from Planck’s law of radiation.
5) Write Laplacian operator ∇ 2 in orthogonal curvilinear coordinates.
6) Draw the M-B distribution curve for the molecular speeds. Locate the positions
of Vmp, V and Vrms on the curve.

1) Obtain an expression for gradient of a scalar field.
2) Explain electronic specific heat.
3) Obtain an expression for root mean square speed of a gas molecules.
B) Compare the M-B, B-E and F-D statistics. 4

1) Explain micro-canonical and canonical ensemble.
2) Derive thermodynamical functions-internal energy and enthalpy in terms of
Boltzmann’s partition function.
3) Obtain Green’s symmetrical theorem from Gauss divergence theorem.

1) Obtain an expression for divergence of a vector field in orthogonal curvilinear
coordinate system.
2) Derive Maxwell-Boltzmann’s distribution law.
_____________________
*SLRW198* SLR-W – 198
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – V) (Old) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY
Physical Chemistry (Special Paper – IX)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

4) Use of logarithmic table/calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the most correct alternative from each of the following and rewrite the
sentence. 10
1) The number of components for the system CaCO3(S) CaO(S) + CO2(g)
are ______________
a) Zero b) One c) Two d) Three
2) For a system Ice(s) liquid water water vapour, the degree of
freedom is ___________
a) Zero b) One c) Two d) Three
3) Photochemical reactions take place in presence of ______________
a) Light b) Heat
c) Electricity d) None of these
4) Only the light that is absorbed by the substance is effective in producing a
photochemical change. This is known as _______ law.
a) Avogadro’s b) Einstein’s
c) Beer-Lamberts d) Grotthus-Draper
5) Yellow phosphorus oxidises to produce a glow in dark. This process is
called ________________
a) Phosphorescence b) Fluorescence
c) Chemi luminescence d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 198 -2- *SLRW198*
6) The cell, Pt, H2(g)|HCl(aq) |AgCl(s)|Ag(s) is an example of __________

a) Chemical cell with transference
b) Chemical cell without transference
c) Concentration cell with transference
d) Concentration cell without transference
7) The standard electrode potential of hydrogen electrode is ______________
a) 0.0 volt b) 1.1. volts c) 0.11 volt d) 2.2 volts
8) The electrolyte which can be used in the preparation of salt bridge is _______
a) KOH b) KCl c) NaOH d) NaCl
9) The electrode at which reduction occurs is called __________
a) Anode b) Cathode
c) Null electrode d) None of these
10) The equation, ΔG = − nE cF , represents _____________
a) Maximum work b) Free energy
c) Both a) and b) d) Electrical work

a) True equilibria
b) Metastable equilibria.
2) What is chemiluminescence ? Explain with one example.
a) Phase
b) Number of components.
4) Write electrode reaction and expression for potential of the following electrode :
–
Cl (aq.), AgCl(s)|Ag(s).
5) What are concentration cells ? Give different types of concentration cell.
6) Write electrode reaction and expression for the potential of the following
electrode :
–
Cl (aq) | Cl2(g), Pt.
*SLRW198* -3- SLR-W – 198

1) Write note on “Reversible cells”.
2) State and explain Einstein’s law of photochemical equivalence.
3) State Gibb’s phase rule and explain the term degree of freedom involved
in it.
B) Emf of the cell : 4
Pt, H2(g), | H+(aq.) || SCE
P=1 atm.p
is 0.362 volt at 298 K. Find the pH of the solution.
O
Given : ESCE = 0.241 volt.

1) Discuss the application of phase rule to Pb-Ag system.
2) A substance absorbs 2 × 1016 quanta of radiation per second and 0.002 mole
of it reacts in 20 minutes. Calculate quantum yield of this reaction.
(Given : N = 6.023 × 1023).
3) Calculate emf of the following cell at 298 K
Zn( s ) Zn SO 4 ( aq.) (0.05M) Zn SO 4 ( aq.) (0.5M) Zn(s)

a1 a2
The degree of dissociation of ZnSO4 in 0.5M solution is 0.14 while that in 0.05M
solution is 0.35 liquid-liquid junction potential is neglected.
(Given : 2.303 RT = 0.0591).

F

1) Derive an expression for emf of an electrode concentration cell without
transference which is reversible to cation.
2) Explain how thermodynamic parameters ΔG , ΔH and ΔS are determined
from cell emf.
3) Discuss with an examples the photosensitized reactions.
_____________________
*SLRW199* SLR-W 199
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester V) (Old) Examination, 2016

BOTANY (Special Paper IX)
Biology of Cryptogams
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
iv) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the sentences by choosing correct alternative. (10×1=10)

1) Chantransea stage is formed by __________ alga.
a) Chara b) Ectocarpus
c) Batrachospermum d) Sargassum
2) Cyclosis is observed in the cells of
a) Sargassum b) Ectocarpus
c) Batrachospermum d) Chara
3) Stag head stage is induced by __________ in host plants.
a) Uncinula b) Albugo c) Polyporus d) Puccinia
4) Polyporus belongs to the subdivision
a) Basidiomycotina b) Ascomycotina
c) Deuteromycotina d) Mastigomycotina
5) Diplontic type life cycle is dominated by __________ generation.
a) Gametophytic b) Sporophytic c) Triploid d) Haploid
6) The sporophyte of Marchantia is differentiated in to
a) Foot b) Seta c) Capsule d) All the above
7) Nucule is the sex organ of
a) Batrachospermum b) Ectocarpus
c) Chara d) Sargassum
P.T.O.
SLR-W 199 *SLRW199*
8) Gemmae bodies are formed by

a) Marchantia b) Riccia c) Anthoceros d) All the above
9) Fruiting body of Polyporus is
a) Ascocarp b) Basidiocarp c) Cystocarp d) Pericarp
10) __________ type of sexual reproduction in algae is most advanced.
a) Isogamous b) Anisogamous
c) Oogamous d) All the above

i) Classify Albugo giving reasons.
ii) Define halobiontic life cycle.
iii) Sketch and label the HLS of sporocarp of Marsilea.
iv) State the economic importance of Polyporus.
v) State the names of edible mushrooms.
vi) Give the multi cellular forms of algae.

i) Describe the haplontic type life cycle in algae.
ii) Describe the evolution of sex in algae.
iii) Describe the synangium of Psilotum.
B) Describe the sporophyte of Marchantia. 4

i) Describe in brief the fresh water forms of algae.
ii) Describe the asexual reproduction in Ectocarpus.
iii) Describe the advanced sporophyte of Bryophyte as per upgrade evolution.

i) Describe the carposporophyte of Batrachospermum.
ii) Describe the asexual reprodction in Albugs.
iii) Describe the types of sori in pteridophytes.

Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) (Old) Examination, 2016

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper IX)
Real Analysis
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1) The sequence H
n
n

1
converges to zero if
a) |r|>1 b) |r|<1 c) |r|=1 d) r =
2) Every monotonic increasing sequence which is not bounded above diverges to

a)
b)
c) Both and
d) None of these

3) The set of all rational number is

a) Countable b) Uncountable c) Denumerable d) None of these
4) For f : R R and g : R
R, if f(x) = 3x 1 and g(x) = x2 + 1 then
a) f°g = g°f b) f°g
g°f c) f°f = g°g d) None of these
5) For the sequence 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, .... which of the following is not a
subsequence ?
a) (7, 4, 13, 10, ....) b) (1, 7, 13, ....)
c) (4, 10, 16, ....) d) None of these
6) If f : R (0, ) defined by f(x) = ex, then the function (x, ex) is

a) f is into b) f is one to one

c) f is many one into d) None of the above
7) If
=
n
is convergent series then n
l i

m

an is equal to
a) 1 b) 0 c)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W 201 -2- *SLR-W201*
8) The series 1 is
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
. . . .
2 2 4 3 8 4 1 6
a) convergent b) divergent c) oscillatory d) none of these
9) If
=
n
is an absolutely convergent series and (bn) is bounded sequence then

=
n
bn is
a) absolutely convergent
b) conditionally convergent
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
10) If is a series of non-zero real number and let a = inf and

n 1
l i m
n
A= sup if a > 1 then is

=
n 1
l i m
n

1) Using Cauchys condensation test prove that is divergent.

1
n 1
2) Show that the sequence is monotonic increasing.

1 1 1
. . . .
1 . 2 2 . 3 3 . 4
3) If 0 < x < 1 then show that converges to .

N
n 0
4) If n
l i

m

sn = L and n
l i

m

tn = M then prove that n
l i

m

(sn tn) = L M.
5) If A and B are subset of S then prove that ) *

)

*

.
6) If the function f(x) = logx for x
(0,
). If A = [0, 1] and B = [1, 3] find
i) f1(B) and
ii) f1(A B).
*SLR-W201* -3- SLR-W 201

1) If the sequence of real numbers is convergent then prove that it is

I
n
n 1
bounded.
2) If 0 < an cn for every n m; m

N, prove that if
cn converges then
an converges.

3) If the function f(x) = x2 for x [0,

). Find the value of i) f1(16) ii) f[0, 4]
iii) f1[(y / 25 y 36)].
B) If A1, A2, A3.... are countable sets then prove that

)
n
is countable. 4
n 1
1) For any a, b R prove that ||a| |b|| |a b|. Hence prove that

| s |
n
n 1
converges to |L| if I
n

n 1
converges to L.
2) If A and B are countable sets then prove that A × B is countable.

3) If s = (sn) and t = (tn) are in l then prove that 2

I
n
J
n
is absolutely convergent
n 1
1 1

2 2
and .

2 2

I J I J

n n n n

n 1 n 1 n 1


1) If f : A
B and X
B, Y
B then prove that f1 (X

Y) = f 1(X)
f1 (Y).
2) For each n N, let In = [an, bn] be non-empty closed bounded intervals of real
numbers such that

a) I1 I2 I3 .... In In + 1 ... and
b) n
l i

m

(bn an) = 0 then prove that
1
n
contains precisely one point.
n 1
3) If is non-increasing sequence of positive number and if

n
2 a n
=
n
n 1
n 0
converges then prove that

=
n
converges.
n 1
_________________
*SLRW202* -1- SLR-W – 202
SLR-W – 202
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper – IX) (Old)
Statistical Inference – I

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Multiple choice questions. Choose the correct alternative : 10

i) Sample characteristic is a
a) Parameter b) Statistic
ii) Function of sample observations is called
a) Statistic b) Estimator
iii) Unbiasedness is a property associated with
a) Small samples b) Large samples
iv) The sufficient statistic for σ2 of N(0, σ2 ) is

a) (∑ x )
i
2
b) ∑x i c) ∑x i
2
d) ∑x i
2
n
v) For a parameter θ , the estimator T is more efficient than any other

estimator T1 if
V( T)
a) V(T) < V(T1) b) <1
V( T1)
V( T1)
c) >1 d) All the above
V( T)
vi) If an estimator Tn converges to θ as n → ∞ , it is said to be
a) Unbiased b) Efficient c) Sufficient d) Consistent
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 202 -2- *SLRW202*
vii) Cramer – Rao inequality is based on

a) Stringent conditions
b) Mild conditions
c) No conditions
viii) A sufficient statistic S is said to be complete for θ if
a) E θ (S) = 0 ⇒ S = 0 b) E θ (S) = 1 ⇒ S = 1
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
ix) The MLE of θ of N(0, θ2 ) is
∑X ∑X
2 2
a) i n b) i n
c) ∑X i
2
n d) ∑X i n
x) The moment estimator of λ in P( λ ) is

a) ∑ Xi b) ∑ Xi n
∑X ∑X
2 2
c) i d) i n

i) Giving an example, define a parameter and parameter space.
ii) Define an estimator giving two examples.
iii) Distinguish between an estimator and estimate.
iv) Define an unbiased estimator giving an example.
v) Define relative efficiency of an estimator T1 w.r.t. T2.
vi) Define a consistent estimator.

i) Explain the general problem of estimation of parameters.
ii) Show that sample variance is a biased estimator of population variance.
iii) Prove that a biased estimator is consistent if its bias and variance both
tend to zero as the sample size tends to infinity.
B) Let X1, X2 be i.i.d. random variables with Poisson distribution P( λ ). Show

that T = X1 + X2 is a sufficient estimator for λ . 4
*SLRW202* -3- SLR-W – 202

i) Prove that two distinct unbiased estimators of φ ( θ ) give rise to infinitely
many unbiased estimators of φ ( θ ).
ii) If I( θ ) is the information function of θ of a distribution, show that

⎡ ∂ 2 log f ⎤
I( θ ) = – E ⎢ 2 ⎥
, where f = f(x, θ ) is the p.d.f. of the random variable X.
⎣ ∂θ ⎦
iii) Let X1, X2, ..., Xn be a random sample from N( μ , σ2 ) distribution, σ2 known.
Find Fisher information function I( μ ).
1 −x / θ
i) Let X1, X2, ..., Xn be a random sample from f(x, θ ) = e , x > 0. Show
θ
that the Cramer – Rao lower bound for the variance of an unbiased estimator
of θ is θ2 /n.
ii) A random sample of size n is drawn from B(1, p) distribution. Obtain the
maximum likelihood estimator of p and find its variance.
iii) Let X1, X2, ..., Xn be a random sample from P(x, θ ) = θ x (1 – θ ), X = 0, 1, 2, ....
Find the moment estimator of θ .
_____________________
*SLRW204* SLR-W 204
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper IX)
Virology, Extremophiles and Bioinformatics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentences after choosing correct answer from the given alternatives : 10
1)
phage contains __________ as its genetic material.
a) DS linear DNA b) DS linear RNA
c) DS circular DNA d) None of the above
2) Multiplication of influenza virus occurs in
a) Cytoplasm b) Nucleus c) Mitochondria d) Ribosome
3) _________ lambda phage gene is responsible for the lysogenic state.
a) Q b) A c) R d) C1
4) _________ is temperate phage.
a) mu b) T4 c) T3 d) OX174
5) Polystyrene latex is used for enumeration of viruses in sample by
a) Pock method b) Hemagglutation assay
c) Acid end point method d) Direct microscopic count
6) In ___________ tissue cells do not invade surrounding tissues only remain
localised as a compact mass.
a) Non-malignant tumors b) Malignant tumors
c) Malignant wart d) Cancer
7) ______________ is a repository for 3-D structural data of large biological
molecules.
a) Gen Bank b) PDB c) MEDLINE d) OMOM
P.T.O.
SLR-W 204 *SLRW204*
8) __________ organism can grow at temperature range 70° C-100° C at pH-6.
a) Desulfococcus b) Thermotoga maritima
c) Methanomonas d) Sulfolobus
9) Vibrio cholera is ___________ organism.
a) Acidophilic b) Alkophilic c) Neutral d) Psychrophilic
10) The naturally occurring alkaline environment on earth is
a) Hot spring b) Deep ocean c) Soda lake d) Deep wells

i) Explain Halophilic organisms.
ii) What is DDBJ ?
iii) Define malignant warts.
iv) Define horizontal transmission process in animal viruses.
v) Explain contact inhibition phenomenon.
vi) Define Hyperthermophiles.
vii) What is Eclipse period ?

a) Describe briefly embryonated eggs in study of viruses.
b) Discuss in detail the reproduction in lysogenic Bacteriophages.
c) Briefly explain replication of genetic material of influenza virus.
B) Discuss briefly bioinformatics and its biological applications. 4

i) Explain in detail different theories of oncogenesis.
ii) Briefly explain the LHT system of viral classification.
iii) Give the detailed account of characteristics of cancerous cells.
5. Write in short on any two of the following : 10

i) Explain in detail one step growth experiment.
ii) Give the detailed account of extremophiles.
iii) Describe briefly methods used for enumeration of viruses.

Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper X)
Solid State Physics
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


i) In crystalline solid atomic arrangement is
a) irregular b) random c) regular d) zigzag
ii) Co-ordination number of BCC crystal structure is
a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 14
iii) Diffraction of X-rays from the crystal is the phenomenon of
a) refraction b) reflection c) interference d) scattering
iv) The volume of the unit cell of the reciprocal lattice is
a) directly proportional to the volume of the unit cell of direct lattice
b) inversely proportional to the volume of the unit cell of direct lattice
c) equal to the volume of the primitive cell
J D
d) volume of unit cell of simple cubic

&
v) Wiedemann and Franzlaw for all metals ratio K
6
at a given temperature T is
a) zero b) constant c) infinite d) variable
vi) If T > 0 and E = EF then F(E) =
a) 20% b) 30% c) 40% d) 50%
vii) Hall coefficient of material is measured in
a) volt.cm/amp.gauss b) amp.gauss/volt.cm
c) volt.amp/cm.gauss d) amp.cm/volt.gauss P.T.O.
viii) Effective mass m* of free electron in the lower half of E-K curve is
a) 0 b)
c) positive d) negative
ix) The temperature below which certain materials are ______ is called Neel
temperature.
a) diamagnetic b) paramagnetic c) ferromagnetic d) antiferromagnetic
x) If a superconductor is placed in a constant magnetic field, the magnetic lines
of force will be
a) pushed out of the superconductor b) penetrate the superconductor
c) concentrate at the centre d) converted into electric current

i) What is primitive cell ?
ii) What is reciprocal lattice ?
iii) Define fermi energy level.
iv) What is Hall effect ?
v) Draw hysteresis curve of ferromagnetic material.
vi) What is superconductivity ?

i) Give the steps to determine Miller indices.
ii) Prove that reciprocal of reciprocal lattice is the direct lattice.
iii) For lead crystal of lattice parameter a = 4.93A°, find the spacing of (222)
plane.
B) Draw unit cell of FCC structure and find the number of atoms per unit cell of
FCC structure. 4

i) Write note on Sommerfields model.
ii) Distinguish metal, semiconductor and insulator on the basis of band theory of
solid.
iii) Write a note on Type I and Type II superconductor.

i) What is Bravais lattice ? Explain detail seven crystal system in 3D Bravais
lattice.
ii) Explain Kronig Penny model of crystal.
______________
*SLRW208* SLR-W 208
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper No. X)
Inorganic Chemistry

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1) The CFSE is maximum for __________ transition metal ions.
a) 5d b) 4d
c) 3d d) none of these
2) According to MOT, [Ni (NH3)6]2+ is paramagnetic with __________ unpaired
electrons.
a) one b) two
c) three d) zero
3) In tracer technique C14 is used for
a) NMR b) Complex formation
c) Age determination d) All of these
4) There is uncontrolled chain reaction in
a) fusion reaction b) chemical reaction
c) polymerisation d) atomic bomb
5) Myoglobin consists __________ heme units.
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
P.T.O.
SLR-W 208 -2- *SLRW208*
6) If degree of polymerisation is above 100, then it is known as __________
polymer.
a) high b) low
c) normal d) organic
7) __________ is the study of controlling of matter on the atomic and molecular

scale.
a) Bio-technology b) Nano-technology
c) Nuclear technology d) All of these
8) In molecular orbital diagrams, electrons presents in bonding molecular orbitals

are __________ electrons.
a) metal b) ligand
c) metal and ligand d) none
9) Sodium pump transport __________ ions into the cell.

a) sodium b) calcium
c) potassium d) magnesium
10) For dimer, degree of polymerisation is

a) one b) two
c) three d) four
a) Draw neat labelled diagram showing splitting of d orbitals in octahedral complex.
b) Distinguish between chemical reactions and nuclear reactions.
c) Define monomer and copolymer.
d) Write the important properties of nanomaterials.
e) Define artificial transmutation with suitable example.
f) Draw the structure of heme unit.

*SLRW208* -3- SLR-W 208
i) Define CFSE. Calculate CFSE for strong field and weak field complex with
d6 configuration in terms of 10Dq.
ii) How will you classify polymers ?
iii) Discuss the binding ability of haemoglobin and myoglobin at different oxygen
concentration.
B) Give the brief account of nuclear fission reactions. 4
4. Write a note on any two : 10

i) Fast breeder reactor
ii) MO diagram of [TiCH2O)6]3+ ion
iii) Classification of polymer backbone.

i) Which are essential elements for biological processes ? Explain the role of
calcium in muscle contraction.
ii) What are different applications of radio isotopes as a tracers ? Explain in
detail structural determination of PCI5
iii) What are the merits and demerits of CFT ?

*SLRW209* SLR-W 209
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) Examination, 2016

BOTANY (Special Paper X) (Old)
Gymnosperms and Palaeobotany

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative. (1×10=10)

1) Zamia belongs to class
a) Cycadopsida b) Coniferopsida c) Gnetopsida d) Coniferoales
2) The motile sperms of Zamia are
a) Circular b) Elongated c) Triangular d) Pear snaped
3) The foliage leaves of Gnetum are
a) Pinnately compound b) Palmate
c) Simple opposite d) Needle like
4) T.S. of young stem of Gnetum shows a ring of conjoint, collateral and ________
vascular bundles.
a) Exarch b) Mesarch c) Endarch d) None of these
5) The ________ era is regarded as the Era of Angiosperm.
a) Palaeozoic b) Mesozoic c) Coenozoic d) None of these
6) Ordovician is included under ________ era.
a) Palaeozoic b) Mesozoic c) Coenozoic d) Precambrian
7) In ________ the leaves were needle like.
a) Annularia b) Lobatannularia c) Asterophyllites d) Astromeylon
P.T.O.
SLR-W 209 *SLRW209*
8) The flower of cycadeoidea dacotensis is

a) Unisexual b) Bisexual c) Polygamous d) None of these
9) The seed of Lagenostoma was
a) Orthotropous b) Hemianatropous
c) Anatropous d) Campylotropous
10) The Enigmocarpon was described by
a) Prof. Birbal Sahni b) Shukla
c) Oliver d) Deshpande

i) Give systematic position in Zamia.
ii) Enlist any two economic importance of Gnetum.
iii) Define fossilization.
iv) Enlist any two periods of Mesozoic Era.
v) Any two characters of family Lyginopteridaceae.
vi) Annularia.

i) Describe T.S. of Zamia stem.
ii) Describe Impression.
iii) Describe Coenozoic Era.
B) Describe petrification. 4

i) Enigmocarpon.
ii) T.S. of Lyginopteris oldhamia stem.
iii) Origin of coal.

i) Describe carbon dating.
ii) Describe palaeostachys.
iii) Describe T.S. of cycadeoidea stem.
___________
*SLRW211* SLR-W-211
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – X)
Abstract Algebra

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.


1) Let p and q are distinct prime numbers then the number of generators of
cyclic group zpq are ___________
a) (p – 1) (q – 1) b) (p – 1)q c) pq d) p2q2
2) An onto homomorphism of G to G′ is called
a) Monomorphism b) Epimorphism
c) Endomorphism d) Automorphism
3) Which set satisfy equivalence relation with underlined relation ?
a) Set of parallel lines b) Set of perpendicular lines
c) Set of inclined lines d) None of these
4) Alternating group is of order __________
⎛n⎞ n! (n − 1) !
a) ⎜ ⎟ ! b) c) n! d)
⎝2⎠ 2 2
5) A sub-group N of a group G is normal if for n ∈ N, g ∈ G _________
a) gng −1 ∈ N b) ngn−1 ∈ N
c) n−1gn ∈ N d) gng −1 ∈ G
P.T.O.
SLR-W-211 -2- *SLRW211*
6) The generators of cyclic group Z4 are

a) {1, 3} b) { 2, 4}
c) {0, 1, 2} d) {0, 1}
7) The characteristic of the ring 6Z is
a) 0 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
8) Which of the following is true ?
a) Field C integral domain C ring
b) Integral domain C field C ring
c) Ring C integral domain C field
d) None of these
9) If F is field then it has ____________ ideals.
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4
10) Consider the following two statements :
i) If S is an ideal of ring R then S is also subring of R
ii) If S is subring of R then S is an ideal of R, then
a) Only i) is true
b) Only ii) is true
c) Both i) and ii) are true
d) Both i) and ii) are false

1) If a ∈ G then prove that (a–1)–1 = a.
2) If G and G′ be isomorphic groups and G is abelian then prove that G′ is also

abelian.
3) Define : θ : z → z by θ(a) = 2a ∀a ∈ Z then prove that θ is homomorphism
w.r.to addition.
4) Show that every quotient group of cyclic group is cyclic.
5) Define integral domain and give an example of integral domain which is not a
field.
6) Define the characteristic of the ring R.
*SLRW211* -3- SLR-W-211

1) Let G be a permutation group on S and ~ is a relation on S defined by a ~ b iff
α(a ) = b for some α ∈ G then prove that ~ is an equivalence relation on S.
2) Show that the intersection of two left ideal of ring is again a left ideal of
ring.
3) If G and H are groups and θ : G → H is a homomorphism then prove that
Ker θ is normal subgroup of G.
B) Prove that every subgroup of a cyclic group is a cyclic. 4

1) Prove that every finite integral domain is field.
2) Prove that normaliser of a i.e. N(a) is a subgroup of G where a ∈ G .
3) If H is finite subgroup of group G and a ∈ G then prove that | H | = | Ha|.

1) State and prove fundamental theorem of group homomorphism.
2) Let p be prime number then prove that the set of integers
IP = {0, 1, 2, ... p-1} forms a field w.r.to addition and multiplication modulo p.
_____________________
Seat
No.

STATISTICS
Sampling Techniques (Special Paper X)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

3) Soundless calculators are allowed.

i) The number of possible samples of size n from a population of N units with
replacement is
a) N
n

b) Nn c) n! d) none of these
ii) Probability of drawing a unit at each selection remain same in

a) Simple random sampling without replacement
b) Simple random sampling with replacement
c) Both (a) and (b)
iii) Simple random sample can be drawn with the help of
a) random number tables b) chit method
c) roulette wheel d) all the above
iv) Stratified sampling comes under the category of
a) unrestricted sampling b) subjective sampling
c) purposive sampling d) restricted sampling
v) Which one of the following problem is not related to stratified sampling ?
a) fixing the criterion for stratification
b) fixing the number of strata
c) fixing the sample size
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W 212 -2- *SLR-W212*
vi) Under proportional allocation, the size of the sample from each stratum depends
on
a) total sample size b) size of the stratum
c) population size d) all of these
vii) Selected units of a systematic sample are
a) not easily locatable
b) easily locatable
c) not representing the whole population
d) all of these
viii) Which of the following situations cluster sampling is appropriate ?
a) When the units are far apart
b) When sampling frame is not available
c) When all the elementary unit are not easily identifiable
d) All of these
ix) A population is divided into clusters and it has been found that all items within
a cluster are alike. Which sampling methods you adopt ?
a) cluster sampling b) stratified sampling
c) simple random sampling d) systematic sampling
x) The errors emerging out of faulty planning of surveys are categorised as
a) non sampling errors
b) non response errors
c) sampling errors
d) none of these

i) Explain sampling frame.
ii) Concept of sampling errors.
iii) Explain dichotomous attributes.
iv) Give real life situations where stratified random sampling is used.
v) Give idea of circular systematic sampling.
vi) Explain two stage sampling.
*SLR-W212* -3- SLR-W 212

i) Give objectives of sample survey.
ii) Describe non sampling errors.
iii) Concept of auxiliary variable and its use in estimation.
B) Describe the technique of drawing a sample using systematic sampling. 4

i) Obtain an unbiased estimator of the population mean and find its variance in
case of stratified random sampling.
ii) Describe sampling for proportion. Show that sampling proportion is unbiased
estimator of population proportion.
iii) Find relative efficiency of ratio estimators with that of simple random sampling
without replacement.

i) Explain cluster sampling. Obtain an unbiased estimator for population mean
and population total.
ii) Describe regression method of estimation of population mean. Obtain its
relative efficiency with that of simple random sampling without replacement.
iii) Explain proportional allocation and optimum allocation. Obtain Neymans
formula for optimum allocation.
_________________
*SLRW213* SLR-W – 213
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper – X)
Geomorphology

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from given options. 10

1) Which one of the following is the correct combination of ideal slope from top
to bottom ?
a) Convex-free face-rectilinear element-Concave element
b) Rectilinear element-Convex-free face-Concave element
c) Rectilinear element-free face-Convex-Concave element
d) Convex-free face-Concave element-rectilinear element
2) Ox-bow lakes are generally associated with ________ stage of stream.
a) Youth b) Mature
c) Old d) Can occur at all ages
3) “Present is the key to the past” is the principle of ___________
a) Uniformitarianism b) Faunal succession
c) Order of superposition d) None
4) A point where river rejuvenate is known as ________ point.
a) summit b) head c) nick d) kick
5) The landscape of Messa and Butte formed is formed by presence of ________
strata beneath.
a) Horizontal b) Inclined c) Folded d) Faulted
6) Which one of the following is exogenetic process ?
a) Earthquake b) Volcano c) Deposition d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 213 -2- *SLRW213*
7) Radial drainage pattern indicates presence of _____________

a) fold b) dome c) fault d) none of these
8) A high land between two streams is known as ______________
a) point bars b) spits c) substracts d) divide
9) No major river can erode vertically beyond _____________
a) mean sea level b) local base level
c) valley floor d) interfluve
10) Valley in valley feature is also known as _____________.
a) valley floor b) hanging valley
c) valley in old stage d) river terraces
i) What is absolute relief ?
ii) Define landslide.
iii) What is base level of erosion ?
iv) What are the causes of static rejuvenation ?
v) At which stage of river a feature of river captures occur ?
vi) What is tectonic slope ?
i) How the landscape of exfoliation domes are formed ?
ii) What is rotational sliding ?
iii) What causes subsidence ?
B) Explain any four preventive measures for mass movement. 4
i) What are characters of mature stage in cycle of erosion ?
ii) Describe classification of slope based on slope angles.
iii) Explain how composition of mass affects the mass movement.
i) Explain slow flowage and rapid flowage.
ii) What are topographic expressions of rejuvenation ?
iii) Explain in detail the role of gravity in mass movement.
___________
*SLRW214* SLR-W – 214
Seat
No.

INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY (Old) (Special Paper – X)
Industrial Microbiology
Day and Date : 1-4-2016 Max. Marks : 50

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

3) Draw neat labelled diagrams.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing correct alternative : 10
1) The pH value of acidic food is in the range of ___________

a) 7-9 b) 1-2 c) 4-5 d) 9-11
2) Yogurt is a ___________ product.

a) Dairy b) Textile c) Pharmaceutical d) Bakery
3) The raw materials used for making Idli include rice and ___________
a) Lentil b) Wheat c) Jowar d) Urad dal
4) A sweet taste to wine is due to presence of ___________ sugar in grapes.

a) Sucrose b) Fructose c) Lactose d) Galactose
5) The concentration of alcohol in lager beer is ___________

a) 5.0% b) 12% c) 20% d) 15%
6) Sham test is a preliminary test for ___________

a) Allergen b) Carcinogen c) Pyrogen d) Mutagen
7) In cross flow filtration the flow rate is kept ___________ to the filter surface.
a) Perpendicular b) Tangential c) Parallel d) In line
8) ___________ is used in jams. Ice creams as a thickner.

a) Glucan b) Glycan c) Xylan d) Dextran
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 214 *SLRW214*
9) The first step of downstream processing removes ___________

a) Product b) Solubles c) Insolubles d) Liquid
10) Crystallization is usually done for the recovery of ___________ product.

a) Antibiotic b) Organic acid c) Alcohol d) Whole cells
2. Write in short (any five) : 10

i) Write names of organisms responsible for Idli fermentation.
ii) Define wine.
iii) What is malting ?
iv) Write on uses of dextran.
v) What is GMP ?
vi) What is cheddaring ?
3. A) Write in short (any two) : 6

i) Write on curd as fermented dairy product.
ii) Draw flow chart of red wine production.
iii) Describe Ames test.
B) Describe production of Interferon as rDNA product. 4
4. Write on (any two) : 10

i) Write on whole broth processing.
ii) Write on defects of wine.
iii) Describe distillation process for recovery.

i) Describe process of white wine production.
ii) Describe sterility test as quality control.
iii) Write on good manufacturing practices.
_____________________
*SLRW217* SLR-W – 217
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XI) (Old)
Classical Mechanics and Spectroscopy
Day and Date : Saturday, 2-4-2016 Max.Marks : 50

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

3) Neat diagram must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Calculator or log table is allowed.
i) The principle of virtual work deals only with cases of
a) Statics b) Dynamics c) Kinematics d) Kinetics
ii) The principle of virtual work is expressed by the equation

(a )
a) ∑ Fi . Sri = 0 b) ∑ Fi. Sri = 0
i i
.
c) ∑ fi . Sri = 0 d) ∑ (Fi − Pi ) Sri = 0
i i
iii) Elements with configuration ns′ for last orbit are called
a) alkali metals b) halogens
c) inert gases d) alkaline earth metals
iv) Capacity of a subshell to hold electrons is
a) (2l + 1) b) 2(2l + 1) c) 2n2 d) 2(2n + 1)
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 217 -2- *SLRW217*
v) Similar optical spectra are produced by the elements belonging to
a) same period b) same group
c) same period and group d) none of these
vi) All frames of reference rotating w.r.t. a fixed frame are
a) inertial b) non-inertial
c) located at a point d) none of these
vii) According to Newton’s second law of motion in fixed frame of reference, F =
a) ma b) m/a
1
c) a/m d)
ma
viii) In Raman spectra, the spectral lines on higher frequency side are called
__________ lines.
a) Stokes b) Anti-stokes
c) Zeeman d) Paschen- Back
ix) In Hydrogen molecule the spins of two electrons are

a) parallel b) antiparallel c) perpendicular d) tangential
x) Frank-Condon principle helps in estimating the

a) intensity of bands b) width of bands
c) inter molecular distance d) resolution of bands
i) What is pseudo force ?
ii) State the types of molecular bond.
iii) What are stoke’s and anti-stokes lines ?
iv) State conservation theorem of linear momentum.

*SLRW217* -3- SLR-W – 217
v) What is Coriolis force ?
vi) What is stark effect ?
3. A) Attempt any two . 6

i) Write a note on electron spin-orbit interaction.
ii) What is the nature of wave function of H2-molecule ?

iii) State and prove the conservation theorem for angular momentum of a particle.
B) Write a note on the selections rules for doublet spectra. 4
4. Attempt any two. 10

i) Obtain Lagrange’s equations from D’ Alembert’s principle.
ii) Use Lagrange’s equations to obtain an expression for acceleration in Atwoods
machine.
iii) Write a note on Frank-Condon principle.
5. Attempt any one. 10

i) State and prove conservation theorem for energy of a single particle.
ii) Obtain an expression for rotational energy of a diatomic molecule and discuss
rotational spectra.
–––––––––––––––––

*SLRW218* SLR-W – 218

Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Special Paper – XI)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

4) Spectroscopic data chart supplied by University is allowed.
1. Choose the most correct alternative from those given below and rewrite the
sentence : 10
i) _________ has maximum angle strain.

a) Cyclohexane b) Cyclobutane c) Cyclopropane d) Cyclopentane
ii) _______ is an intermediate formed in Hofmann rearrangement.

a) Carbocation b) Carbanion
c) Nitrene d) Carbene
iii) ________ is not an active methylene compound.
a) CH3COCH2COOC2H5 b) CH3 – COOC2H5
c) CH2 (COOH)2 d) CH2 (CN)2
iv) Which of the following is an active methylene compound ?
a) CH3 COCH2 – CH2 – COOC2H5 b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – COOC 2H5
c) H5C2OCO – CH2 – COOC2H5 d) NC – H2C – CH2 – NO2
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 218 -2- *SLRW218*
v) _______ has maximum internal angle.

a) Cyclobutane b) Cyclohexane
c) Cyclopropane d) Cyclopentane
CH3
vi) H3C – N will give _____ signals in its PMR spectrum.
CH3
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
vii) Number of modes of vibrations for C6H6 will be
a) 12 b) 30 c) 36 d) 9
viii) In mass spectroscopy molecule in bombarded with _____

a) Radio waves b) Micro waves
c) Electron beam d) UV radiations
ix) 2-butene on addition of bromine to it, gives ______ isomeric products.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
x) Vibrational frequency of a bond increases with

a) increase in bond order
b) increase in electronegativity of atoms forming bond
c) decrease in bond length
d) all the three a, b, c
2. Answers any five of the following : 10

i) Define magnetic and nonmagnetic nuclei.
ii) Define syn and anti elimination reactions.
iii) Give synthesis of 4-methyl uracil from aceto acetic ester.
iv) Explain Knoevenagel condensation with suitable example.
v) State and explain Hooke’s law.
vi) Give advantages of Wittig reaction.

*SLRW218* -3- SLR-W – 218

i) How many signals are expected in the PMR spectra of following
compounds ?
a) CH3CH2COOH
b) CH3COCH3
c) CH3 − CH− CH3
|
Br
ii) How will you prepare monoalkyl and dialkyl derivatives of diethyl malonate ?
iii) Explain shielding effect with the help of suitable examples.
B) Discuss Bayer strain theory. 4

i) Complete the following reaction. Suggest mechanism for it and name the
reaction.
CH 3CONH2 + Br2 + 4 NaOH → ?
Acetamide
ii) Draw different conformations of cyclohexane and comment on their stability.
iii) How will you prepare succinic acid and crotonic acid from aceto acetic ester ?

i) State the principle of mass spectroscopy and give its applications.
ii) Assign the structure to the compound showing following spectral data and
name the compound
a) Molecular formula : C4H8O
b) M/e : 72
c) IR : 1720 cm–1
d) PMR : i) 1.05 δ (t, 3H)
ii) 1.10 δ (s, 3H)
iii) 2.50 δ (q, 2H)
iii) Write a short note on theory of strainless rings.
__________________
*SLRW219* SLR-W 219
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester V) Examination, 2016

BOTANY
Special Paper XI : Genetics (Old)
Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentences choosing correct answer from given alternatives : 10

1) Gamets are never hybrid, this is statement of
A) Law of segregation B) Law of dominance
C) Law of independent assortment D) Law of random fertilization
2) In monohybrid cross a typical genotype ratio is
A) 3 : 1 B) 9 : 7 C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 D) 1 : 2 : 1
3) Monosomy is depicted by
A) n B) n 1
C) 2n 1 D) 2n 2
4) Mongolism caused due to trisomy of 21st chromosome of humans is
A) Downs syndrome B) Pataus syndrome
C) Kline Felter syndrome D) Turners syndrome
5) The genes of different traits located on different loci on the same chromosome
are
A) Alleles B) Linked C) Pleiomorphic D) Mutated
6) Backcross to the recessive parent is known as
A) Linkage B) Crossing over
C) Test cross D) Reversion
7) Sex linked characters are
A) Dominant B) Recessive C) Lethal D) Not inherited
P.T.O.
SLR-W 219 *SLRW219*
8) Holandric genes located on
A) X chromosome B) Y chromosome
C) Autosome D) None of the above
9) Trisomy is expressed as
A) 2n + 1 B) 2n 1 C) 2n + 2 D) 2n 2
10) Attachment of chromosomal fragment resulting in addition of one or more
genes to chromosome is called as
A) Duplication B) Translocation C) Inversion D) Deletion

1) Write characters of haploids.
2) Describe complete linkage with suitable example.
3) What are blood groups in man ?
4) What is back cross ?
5) What is autosome ?
6) Define law of independent assortment.
3. A) Write any two of the following : 6

1) Explain law of dominance with suitable example.
2) Describe mechanism of crossing over.
3) Sex chromosome in Drosophila.
B) Explain mechanism of sex determination in plants. 4

1) Describe Hardy-Weinbegs law.
2) Explain mitochondrial inheritance.
3) Describe inversion with figure.

1) Explain Darlingtons Breakage and reunion theory.
2) Describe Hemophilia in man.
3) What is Autopolyploidy ? What are different kinds, explain with suitable
example.

*SLRW220* -1- SLR-W – 220
SLR-W – 220
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – V) (Old) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – XI)
Comparative Anatomy of Chordates

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4..30 p.m.

sentence : 10
1) ____________ are special vertebrate present in birds.
a) Amphicoelous b) Heterocoelous
c) Acoelous d) Procoelous
2) Focal length of lens of eye regulated by
a) Iris muscles b) Pupil
c) Ciliary muscles d) Vitreous lumour
3) Lobi inferiors are present in brain of
a) Amphibians b) Reptiles
c) Elasmobranchs d) Mammals
4) Uropygial glands are present in
a) Fishes b) Mammals
c) Birds d) Amphibians
5) Systemic arch of adult vertebrates includes ____________ aortic arch of
basic plan.
a) Second b) Fifth
c) Fourth d) Sixth
6) Gills of cartilage fishes are described as ____________ gills.
a) Lamelliform b) A branch
c) Filiform d) Demi branch
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 220 *SLRW220*
7) Horn of rhinocerous is a modification of

a) Scales b) Glands c) Shields d) Hairs
8) Oily secretion produced by _________ glands keeps the skin soft and leathery
in mammals.
a) Scent b) Sweat c) Mucus d) Sebaceous
9) Heart of ____________ show highly reduced sinus venosus.
a) Cartilage fishes b) Boney fishes
c) Amphibians d) Reptiles
10) ____________ have ruminant stomach.
a) Cat b) Dogs c) Monkey d) Cow
2. Answer any five of the following 10

1) Mesonephros kidney.
2) Fore gut in birds.
3) Reptilian heart.
4) Synsacrum.
5) Gills of boney fishes.
6) Brain of scoliodon.

i) Describe internal ear of scoliodon.
ii) Ventricles in vertebrates brain.
iii) Pronephros kidney.
B) Write the answer : 4

1) Alimentary canal of frog.
4. Answer any two of the following 10

i) Describe respiratory organs in reptiles.
ii) Describe the mammalian glands.
iii) Fore guts in birds.
5. Answer any one of the following 10

i) Explain the evolution of aortic arches in vertebrates.
ii) Describe the hard derivatives of vertebrates.
_____________________
*SLRW221* SLR-W – 221
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XI)
Complex Analysis

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Select correct alternative for each of the following : 10

i) The term holomorphic function is used to denote ______________ in a domain.
a) Integrability b) Continuity c) Analyticity d) None of these
ii) The curve defined by z (t) = t2, –1 ≤ t ≤ 1 is a ______________ curve.
a) Closed and simple b) Closed but not simple
c) Not closed but simple d) Not closed and not simple
iii) The residue at z = a is the coefficient of ______________ in the Laurent’s
expansion of f (z).
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
z−a (z − a )−1 (z − a )
2
(z − a )−2
iv) A curve is called closed curve if there exists some parametric representation
z (t) = x (t) + iy (t) where α ≤ t ≤ β and α < β such that ______________
a) z (α) + z (β) = 0 b) z (α) − z (β) = 0
c) z (α) ⋅ z (β) = 0 d) None of these
v) With usual notation the Laurent’s expansion of f (z) is
∞ m
f (z ) = ∑ an (z − a) n
+ ∑ bn (z − a)−n then ______________ is called residue
n=0 n=1
of f (z) at z = a.
a) a0 b) a1 c) b1 d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 221 -2- *SLRW221*
vi) A contour is a continuous chain of ______________ number of regular arcs.

a) Zero b) Finite c) Infinite d) None of these
vii) Arc L is non-rectifiable then L has ______________
a) Finite length b) Infinite length only
c) No length only d) No length or infinite length
viii) The derivative of w = f (z) in the polar form is ______________
∂w ∂w ∂w ∂w
a) e −iθ b) eiθ c) eiθ d) e −iθ
∂r ∂r ∂θ ∂θ
xi) If f′ ( z ) = u x + jv x then | f ′ (z) |2 = ______________
∂ (u, v ) ∂ ( x, y )
a) b)
∂ ( x, y ) ∂ (u, v )
∂ (u, v ) ∂ ( x, y )
c) ⋅ d) None of these
∂ (x, y ) ∂ (u, v )
x) If f (z) = |z|2 then f (z) is ______________
a) Continuous and differentiable everywhere
b) Not continuous and differentiable everywhere
c) Continuous and differentiable at origin only
d) Not continuous and not differentiable everywhere
2. Attempt any five of the the following : 10

a) Show that the harmonic function u satisfies the formal differential equation
∂2 u
= 0.
∂z ∂z
b) If f (z) and g (z) are analytic functions in a domain D, then prove that
d
[f (z) g (z)] = f (z) d [g (z)] + g (z) d [f (z)] .
dz dz dz
c) Define Maclaurin’s series for analytic function f (z) within circle.
1
d) Find the residue of f (z) = at infinity.
z−a
*SLRW221* -3- SLR-W – 221
z+2
e) Evaluate ∫ z
dz where L is the semi-circle z = zeit, 0 ≤ t ≤ π .
L
dw ∂w ∂w
f) If w = f (z) is analytic in the region R then show that = =−i .
dz ∂x ∂y
3. A) Attempt any two of the the following : 6

1
a) Expand
(
z z 2 − 3z + 2 ) for the regions :
i) 0 < |z| < 1
ii) 1 < |z| < 2
iii) |z| > 2.
b) If imaginary part of the analytic function is cosx . coshy then find its real
part.
z 2 − 2z
c) Find the residue of
(
(z + 1)2 z2 + 4 at all its poles.)
( )
2π
sin2 θ 2π 2 2
B) Prove that ∫ a + b cos θ dθ = b2 a − a − b , a > b > 0 . 4
0

a) State and prove Cauchy’s fundamental theorem.
2 sin 2 x
b) If u + v = then find analytic function f (z) = u + iv.
e 2y
− e − 2 y + 2 cos 2x
∫ (z )
2
c) Evaluate + 3z dz along the circle |z| = 2 from (2, 0) to (0, 2).
c
5. Attempt any one of the the following : 10

a) State and prove Cauchy’s residue theorem.
b) State and prove necessary condition for f (z) to be analytic and verify it for
the function f (z) = (x3 – 3xy2) + i (3x2y – y3).
_____________
*SLRW222* SLR-W – 222
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper – XI)
Probability Distributions and Stochastic Process

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.
N.B.: 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Use of scientific calculators is allowed.
3) Use of statistical tables is allowed.
1. Select the most correct alternative. 10

i) Which one of the following is not a one of the possible assumptions of Markov
Chain (M.C.)
a) There are finite or countable number of states
b) There are finite number of future periods
c) A future step depends upon present state and not on past states
d) The states are both collectively exhaustive and mutually exclusive
ii) If (X1, X2) ~ BN (0, 0, 1, 1, 0) then X1.X2– 1 is a ______________ r.v.
a) Cauchy b) normal c) lognormal d) t
iii) Suppose X is exp ( θ ) r.v, truncated below 15 then P(10 < X < 15) = _______
a) 0.5 b) 0.75 c) 0.25 d) 0
iv) If r.v. X follows Laplace (5, 10) distribution, then P (X ≤ 5) = ______________
a) P ( X ≥ 5) b) 0.5
c) both a and b d) neither a nor b nor c
v) If Xt is the number of passengers on railway station at any time of a day, then
for {Xt, t ∈ T}, we have state space S and index set T as
a) both S and T discrete b) S continuous and T discrete
c) S discrete and T continuous d) both S and T continuous
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 222 -2- *SLRW222*
⎡1 1⎤
⎢ 2 ⎥ is a one step Transition Probability Matrix (TPM) then two step
vi) If P = ⎢ 2 ⎥
1 2⎥
⎢
⎣3 3⎦
TPM is ______
⎡1 1⎤ ⎡7 12 ⎤ ⎡5 7⎤
⎢ 2⎥ ⎢18 18 ⎥ ⎢ 12 ⎥
a) ⎢ 2 b) ⎢ c) ⎢12 d) none of these
2⎥ 5 7⎥ 7 11 ⎥
⎢1 ⎥ ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
⎣3 3⎦ ⎣12 12 ⎦ ⎣18 18 ⎦
⎛ X + X2 ⎞
vii) If X1 and X2 are iid standard Cauchy random variables then ⎜ 1 ⎟ has
⎝ 2 ⎠
___________ distribution.
a) c (0, 1) b) c (0, 2) c) c (1, 1) d) none of these
viii) If X is lognormal (0, 1) then V (X) =
a) e2 – e b) e2 + e c) 1 d) none of these
x
ix) Let (x, y) ~ B.N. (0, 0, σ12 , σ 22 , ρ ) and suppose u = and v = y. Then
y
marginal distribution of v is
a) Cauchy b) Normal c) Lognormal d) None of these
⎡ 0 .7 0 .3 ⎤
x) If one step TPM of certain M.C. is P = ⎢ ⎥ , and initial state matrix is
⎣ 0 . 1 0 . 9 ⎦
S0 = [0.8, 0.2] then S1 =
a) [0.56 0.06] b) [0.68 0.32] c) [0.62 0.38] d) [0.58 0.42]

a) Define finite Markov Chain.
b) Draw probability curve of Laplace distribution.
c) Suppose X is lognormal (μ, σ 2 ) r.v. Write expression for mean.

d) State pdf of truncated exponential distribution, truncated to the left of K.
e) State Chapman-Kolmogrov equation.
f) State additive property of two independent Cauchy r.vs.
*SLRW222* -3- SLR-W – 222
⎡2 1⎤
⎢ 3⎥ .
i) Obtain a stationery distribution of a M.C. if one step TPM is P = ⎢ 3
1 1⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎣2 2⎦
2 2
ii) For (x, y) ~ B.N. (μ1, μ 2, σ1 , σ 2 , ρ) check whether v ( x y = y) ≤ v (x ) .
2
iii) Let X ~ lognormal (μ, σ ) , then (X + C) is said to have shifted lognormal
distribution with support x ∈ (c, ∞ ). Then find E (X + C) and V (X + C).
3. B) Obtain p.m.f. of truncate Poisson distribution, truncated at X = 0. 4

a) Obtain mgf of Laplace (μ, λ ) distribution.
2 2
b) Write the pdf of BN (μ1, μ 2, σ1 , σ 2 , ρ) distribution and obtain marginal
distribution of X.
c) Obtain the pdf of truncated standard normal distribution, for positive values
only.
1
a) If X ~ C (0, λ ) then find the distribution of .
X
b) Assume that a man is at an integral point of X axis between X = 0 and X = 3.
If he is at origin, he takes a unit step to right to reach X = 1.
If he is at X = 3, he takes a unit step to the left to reach X = 2.
Otherwise he takes a unit step to the right with probability 0.6 and to the left
with probability 0.4. Write the state space and one step TPM of this M.C. Also
with usual notations find P [X2 = 1, X 1 = 2, X0 = 1].
2 2
c) If (x, y) ~ BN (μ1, μ 2, σ1 , σ 2 , ρ) with pdf f (x, y) = c.
⎧⎪ − 2 ⎡ (x − 10 )2 (x − 10 ) (y + 5) (y + 5)2 ⎤ ⎫⎪
− + 2 2
exp ⎨ 3 ⎢ 4 6 9 ⎥ ⎬ find μ1, μ 2, σ1 , σ 2 and ρ .
⎪⎩ ⎣ ⎦ ⎪⎭
————––––––––—
*SLRW227* SLR-W – 227
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XII)
Electrodynamics

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

3) Draw neat diagrams whenever necessary.
4) Use of calculator or log table is allowed.

i) Poisson’s equation is ___________
a) ∇ 2φ = 0 b) ∇2φ = ρ ∈0
ρ
c) ∇2φ = d) ∇2φ = − ρ ∈0
∈0
ii) The trajectory of a charged particle entering an uniform electric field in a
direction perpendicular to E is a ____________
a) Hyperbola b) Parabola
c) Ellipse d) Cycloid
iii) Self inductance is measured in ______________
a) Ohm b) Weber
c) Faraday d) Henry
iv) ___________ law explains inertia of electrodynamics.
a) Lenz’s b) Ohm’s c) Ampere’s d) Kirchhoff’s
v) Mathematical formulation of empirical laws in electricity and magnetism are
known as ______________ equations.
a) Faraday’s b) Laplace’s
c) Newton’s d) Maxwell’s
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 227 -2- *SLRW227*
vi) The statement ‘magnetic free poles do not exist is justified by Maxwell’s
equation ___________
∂D
a) ∇ × B = J + b) ∇ ⋅ B = 0
∂t
c) ∇ × B = 0 d) ∇ ⋅ B = ρ
vii) Electric ( E ) and magnetic ( H ) field vectors are mutually perpendicular to

__________ vector.
a) Propagation b) Poynting’s
c) Polarization d) Magnetization
viii) Momentum density ( G ) and Poynting’s Vector ( N ) are related to each other,
in a medium characterized by μ and ∈ as, ____________
N
a) G = b) G = μ ∈N
μ∈
μ∈
c) G = μ ∈ N d) G =
N
ix) To obtain total internal reflection, the wave must be incident ________
a) Normally
b) In any way
c) From denser medium
d) From rarer medium
x) Static charge can _______________
a) Radiate
b) Not radiate
c) Nothing can be said
d) Radiate at some condition
2. Answer any five : 10

i) What is the nature of trajectory of a charged particle moving in crossed
uniform electric and magnetic field ?
ii) State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
*SLRW227* -3- SLR-W – 227
iii) State Ampere’s circuital law.

iv) State Poynting theorem.
v) What is skin depth ?
vi) State the relation between transmission coefficient and reflection coefficient.

i) Obtain an expression for self inductance of a straight conductor due to
field inside it.
ii) State and explain Biot-Savarts law.
iii) Explain in short retarded time and retarded potential.
B) Prove that for glass-air interface (n2 = 1.5 and n1 = 1.0) for normal incidence
of em wave, the reflection coefficient is R = 0.04 and transmission coefficient
is T = 0.96 respectively. 4

i) Define emf and obtain general expression for motional emf.
ii) Discuss the orthogonality of E , H and K vectors of EM wave.
iii) Write note on total internal reflection.

i) Show that a charged particle moves along a circular path with a constant
speed, in a uniform magnetic field ( B ) .
ii) State Maxwell’s equations for vacuum and explain the physical significance
of each term.
_____________________
*SLRW228* -1- SLR-W – 228
SLR-W – 228
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper – XII)
Analytical and Industrial Physical Chemistry

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

1. Select the most correct alternative from among those given below and rewrite
the sentence : 10
1) Reciprocal of transmittance is called
a) Optical density b) Opacity
c) Transmittance d) Absorptivity
2) A device for measuring a response of photocell is called
a) Voltmeter b) Galvanometer
c) Conductometer d) All of these
3) SI unit of cell constant is
a) m–1 b) m c) m2 d) m–2
4) Resistance of the solution is measured with the help of
a) Wheatstone bridge b) Potentiometric bridge
5) For standardisation of potentiometer, a standard cell having voltage
____________ is generally used.
a) 1.180 V b) 1.108 V c) 1.018 V d) 2.018 V
6) In Chromium plating ____________ is used as an anode.
a) Cr b) Pt c) Pb d) Ni
7) The amount of substance deposited at any electrode is directly proportional
to the quantity of electricity passed through the electrolyte is known as
____________ law.
a) Einstein’s b) Faradays c) Boltzmann d) Lamberts
8) In premix burner ____________ percent of sample is used.
a) 100 b) 50 c) 90 d) 5
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 228 -2- *SLRW228*
9) Flame photometry is concerned with the measurement of ____________ of

light emitted when metal is introduced in the flame.
a) Wavelength b) Frequency
c) Intensity d) Velocity
10) Pickling means cleaning of the article by the action of
a) Acid b) Base c) Water d) None of these

i) Name the equipments used in Flame photometry.
ii) Sketch the curve for the conductometric titration of a solution of HCl against
a solution of NaOH.
iii) State Lambert’s law.
iv) Give any two advantages of potentiometric titrations.
v) Explain the term electroforming.
vi) Define cell constant. Give its unit.

i) What is conductivity water ? How it is prepared ?
ii) Give the applications of nickel plating.
iii) Write a note on photovoltaic cell.
B) Give a brief account of mirrors and slits. 4

i) Discuss the following parts of colorimeter.
a) A light filter (monochromator)
b) A cuvettes.
ii) Give construction and working of glass electrode.
iii) What is the function of burners in flame photometry ? Describe in full
premix burner.

i) What is meant by potentiometric titrations ? Explain the location of end point
by classical and analytical methods in potentiometric titrations.
ii) Discuss the basic principles of electroplating.
iii) Write a note on different types of conductivity cells used in conductance
measurements.
_____________________

*SLRW231* SLR-W – 231

Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper– XII) (Old)
C Programming

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

2) Figures to be right indicate full marks.
1. Choose the correct alternative for each of the following : 10
1) The strength of ‘C’ lies in its ___________

a) Data types b) Built-in functions
c) Keywords d) Powerful operators
2) The trigraph sequence for ~(tilde) is __________

a) ?? = b) ??! c) ??/ d) ??–
3) First character of an identifiers must be an alphabet or ___________

a) any digit b) $ c) # d) underscore
4) The number 21,000 is an _____________

a) integer constant b) invalid constant
c) real constant d) string constant
5) The meaning of ! in C-programming is __________

a) logical OR b) logical AND
c) logical NOT d) None of these
6) The simplified form of the statement !(x < y) is ______________

a) x > = y b) x < = y c) x = = y d) x! = y
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 231 -2- *SLRW231*
7) The function that reads the single character from keyboard is ___________
a) getchar ( ) b) getc ( ) c) putc ( ) d) putchar ( )
8) The field specification for reading an integer number is _____________

a) %d b) %wd c) %ws d) %f
9) In an exit-controlled loop, if the body is executed ‘n’ times, the test condition
is evaluated ____________ times.
a) n – 1 b) n c) n! d) n! 2
10) The ___________ statement when executed in a switch statement causes

immediate exit from the structure.
a) default b) goto c) break d) stop

i) Why and when do we use the # define directive ?
ii) Write the basic types of C-constants.
iii) Define the term real Arithmetic.
iv) What is the purpose of printf ( ) function ?
v) Write a note on if statement.
vi) Give one simple example of a do ..... while loop.

i) Write a note on keywords in C-program.
ii) Discuss the term comma operator.
iii) What is the general form of The Else If Ladder ?
B) Describe all additional features of for loop. 4
a) Write a C-program to calculate the average of a set of N numbers.
b) Explain in detail C-Assignment operators.
c) Describe the structure of a C-program.

*SLRW231* -3- SLR-W – 231
a) Discuss the term formatted input in detail.
b) An electricity board charges the following rates for the use of electricity.
Consumption units Rate of charge
0 – 200 Rs. 0.50 per unit
201 – 400 Rs. 100 + Rs. 0.65 per unit excess of 200
401 – 600 Rs. 230 + Rs. 0.80 per unit excess of 400
601 and above Rs. 390 + Rs. 1.00 per unit excess of 600
Write a C-program to read the names of users and number of units consumed
and print out the charges with names.
———————

*SLRW232* SLR-W – 232

Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper – XII)
Operations Research and Applied Statistics (Old)

Time : 2.30 p.m. to 4.30 p.m.

i) Which of the following is not correct ?
a) A feasible solution of an LPP is independent of the objective function
b) A feasible region of an LPP must be convex set
c) The feasible region is also termed as solution space
d) It is not possible to obtain feasible solution of an LPP by graphical method
ii) A necessary and sufficient condition for a basic feasible solution to a

maximization LPP to be an optimum is that (for all j) :
a) zj – cj ≠ 0 b) zj – cj ≤ 0
c) zj – cj = 0 d) zj – cj ≥ 0
iii) In final (optimum) simplex table, if zj – cj = 0 for at least one non-basic

variable, then there will be
a) infeasible solution b) unbounded solution
c) alternate solution d) no solution

P.T.O.
SLR-W – 232 -2- *SLRW232*
iv) The initial solution of a transportation problem obtained by

a) North-West corner rule would invariably be optimum
b) VAM would invariably be very near to optimum solution
c) Least cost method does not provide the least cost solution to a T.P.
d) MODI method is infeasible
v) In assignment problem the minimum number of lines covering all zeros in a

reduced cost matrix of order n can be
a) at the least n b) at the most n
c) n – 1 d) n + 1
vi) The slack for an activity in network is equal to

a) LS-ES b) LF-LS c) EF-ES d) EF-LS
vii) In a Single Sampling Plan of sample size n and acceptance number c, if the
number of observed defectives d is equal to c, then
a) the lot is accepted
b) the lot is rejected
c) we cannot take the decision of accepting or rejecting the lot
d) none of these
viii) The consumer will often design the sampling procedure so that the OC curve
gives _____ probability of acceptance at the AQL.
a) a very low b) a low c) a high d) zero
ix) If there are n workers and n jobs in the assignment problem, there would be
a) n solutions b) n! solutions
c) (n – 1) ! solutions d) (n!)n solutions
x) In critical path analysis, CPM is

a) event oriented b) probabilistic in nature
c) dynamic in nature d) deterministic in nature
*SLRW232* -3- SLR-W – 232
i) Give a canonical form of a LPP in matrix form.
ii) Define an artificial variable.
iii) When is a solution of a transportation problem said to be a degenerate one ?
iv) Define Producer’s risk.
v) What is a balanced Assignment Problem ?
vi) Define optimistic time in a PERT.
i) Define Project duration, earliest event time and latest event time.
ii) Give the mathematical form of an Assignment Problem.
iii) Give the formulae of determining A.T.I. and A.O.Q. in a Single Sampling
Plan.
B) For a Single Sampling Plan with lot size N, n = 20, c = 1 and p = 0.02 find the
probability of rejection of the lot. 4
i) Find IBFS to the following transportation problem by using North-West corner

method.
D E F G Available
A 11 13 17 14 250
B 16 18 14 10 300
C 21 24 13 10 400
Demand 200 225 275 250

SLR-W – 232 -4- *SLRW232*
ii) A project schedule has the following activities and the time (in months) of
completion of each activity is as follows :
Activity 1−2 2−3 2−4 3−5 4 −5
Time 18 14 15 16 12
iii) Write a procedure of Single Sampling Plan.
i) Write a procedure of Graphical method of solving a LPP.
ii) In a Single Sampling Plan if N = 10000, n = 90, c = 2, p = 0.01 and Pa =

0.9497, then calculate the average total inspection per lot and average outgoing
quality.
iii) The following assignment problem shows the costs of assigning four tasks
to four men. Determine the optimum assignment schedule.
Men
I II III IV
A 18 26 17 11
Tasks B 13 28 14 26
C 38 19 18 15
D 19 26 24 10
__________________
*SLRW237* SLR-W 237
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) Examination, 2016

ENGLISH Compulsory (Old)
Count-down : English Skills for Success

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. A) Choose the correct alternative : 6

i) The higher our self-esteem, the more _________ we tend to be.
a) Selfish b) Ambitious
c) Selfless d) Helpful
ii) To be self-assertive is to ______ our wants and needs.
a) Honour b) Evaluate
c) To despise d) To love
iii) Our approach to the problem of disease is even less
a) Irrational b) Rational
c) Emotional d) Intellectual
iv) Rahim Khan was _______ years old.
a) Sixty b) Forty
c) Forty-five d) Fifty
v) In the poem Refugee Mother and Child the smile of the mother is compared
with
a) A ghost smile b) A beautiful smile
c) An angel smile d) A monkey smile
vi) The poet sees the Daffodils dancing in
a) The forest b) The breeze
c) The lake d) The hills
P.T.O.
SLR-W 237 -2- *SLRW237*
B) Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct idioms. 2

i) She tried very hard to give her children a decent education.
a) Keep ones fingers crossed b) Face the music
c) Move heaven and earth d) Draw the line
ii) Smita stayed calm when she found her boat sinking.
a) Lost her head b) Kept her head above water
c) Kept her head d) Keep ones fingers crossed
C) Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct collocations. 2
i) Last year, I ______ an M.A. Examination.
a) Give b) Faced
c) Took d) Had given
ii) The meeting was organised to _______ the issue of corruption in higher
education.
a) Decide b) Solve
c) Finalise d) Resolve
2. Answer any five of the following questions in brief. 10

1) Write any two results of low esteem.
2) How does science affect the average men and women ?
3) Why was Rahim Khan disappointed during his youth ?
4) Write any three pillars of self-esteem.
5) How were diseases considered during the pre-Christian period ?
6) How did sparrows provide Rahim Khan with relief ?
3. A) Answer any two of the following questions. 6

1) Why is the air described as heavy with odours ?
2) What is the theme of the poem Refugee Mother and Child ?
3) What does the poet say about the dance of the Daffodils ?
B) Answer the following : 4
1) You have failed the M.P.S.C. examination. How will you manage the strace
of this failure ?
2) You are working in a multi-national company. You have been transferred
to a foreign country. How will you adopt to the foreign environment ?
*SLRW237* -3- SLR-W 237
4. A) Write a description of a woman you met at cinema theatre. Give details of the
personality traits of the woman. 10
OR
B) Describe in details the place you visited in the summer vacation.
5. Read the following passage and summarise it. 10
Raman was a brilliant student, a very original thinker and a hardworking, disciplined
person, but he deserves to be admired for far more than just these qualities. In
his youth, India was not a free country and there were hardly any institutions, or
even libraries, to support the pursuit of higher education. Raman was able to
contribute so greatly to Indian science only because of his deep and genuine
passion for physics and his commitment to finding answers to questions that
puzzled him. The scientist also showed remarkable independence in choosing to
work in areas that excited his curiosity. Further, when faced with a lack of
infrastructure, he always improved and built up whatever he needed from scratch.
C.V. Ramans determination, spirit and contributions will indeed remain special
within the context of the practice of science in India.
_____________
*SLRW238* SLR-W 238
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (Old) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS (Special Paper XIII)
Nuclear Physics
Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-3-2016

iii) Use of log table or calculator is allowed.
iv) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.

i) The antiparticle of electron is
a) Photon b) Antiproton c) Positron d) None of these
ii) In a fission reaction, the energy released per fission is ____________ MeV.
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400
iii) 1 bar n =
a) 1028 cm2 b) 1028 m2 c) 1028 m2 d) 1028 cm2
iv) The bombarding particle in nuclear reaction is
a) Projectile b) Target c) Product d) Light particle
v) The accelerator in which two Dees are used is
a) Synchrotron b) Synchro-cyclotron c) Cyclotron d) Betatron
vi) The principle of phase stability is incorporated in
a) Synchro-cyclotron b) Cyclotron
c) Betatron d) G.M. Counter
vii) The time at which G.M. tube is unable to count pulse is called _________ time.
a) Life b) Recovery c) Resolving d) Dead
viii) 1 a.m.u. =
a) 1.66 × 1027 kg b) 1.66 × 1027 gm c) 1.66 × 1027 kg d) 1.66 × 1027 gm
P.T.O.
SLR-W 238 *SLRW238*
ix) Positive packing fraction indicates

a) Greater stability b) Less stability c) Unstability d) Total stability
x) For prolate spheroid
a) Q = 0 b) Q > 0 c) Q < 0 d) All a), b) & c)

i) What is dead time and recovery time of G.M. Counter ?
ii) What are the advantages of bubble chamber ?
iii) Define packing fraction. Draw packing fraction curve.
iv) Give one example of (P. ) and (D. ) reaction.
v) What is stripping reaction ?

vi) What is quarks ? What are its types ?

i) Explain the principle of phase stability.
ii) What is Leptons ? What are its properties ?
iii) Explain Neutron induced reactions.
B) Explain classification of elementary particles. 4

i) Derive Betatron condition.
ii) Explain principle, construction and working of scintillation counter.
iii) Calculate the energy released in the following reaction.
$ $
"
4 = 2 > # 0 A
Given, Mass of radium = 226.0995 a.m.u.

Mass of lead = 206.0386 a.m.u.
Mass of
particle = 4.0030 a.m.u.

i) What is nuclear reactor ? What are the basic elements of nuclear reactor ?
Draw a labelled diagram of nuclear reactor.
ii) Derive semi-empirical binding energy formula.
___________
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) (Old) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper XIII)
Physical Chemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

4) Use of logarithmic table/scientific calculator is allowed.
1. Choose the most correct alternative and rewrite the sentence : 10

1) For spontaneous process change in free energy is
a) negative b) zero c) positive d) none of these
2) The dimensions of fugacity is
a) sec.1 b) pressure c) temperature d) cm3
3) Work function (A) is defined as
a) A = E + TS b) A = G + TS c) A = H + TS d) A = E TS
4) For third reactions, time for completion of half of the reaction is given by
relation, =
J
a) b) c) d)
3 3 3 K
3 K a
! !
2 K a 5 K a 2 2 a
5) The velocity constant of third order reaction is expressed in ______ units.

a) mole2.(dm3)2 b) mole2.(dm3)2.sec.1
c) mole2.sec.1 d) mole3.sec.2
6) The rate constant K and temperature related by _______ equation.
a) Clausius b) Clapeyron c) Arrhenius d) Vant Hoffs
7) The energy of a molecule in second vibrational energy level (v = 2) is ______
cm1.
a) b) c) d)
# % '

P.T.O.
8) For rotational transitions, selection rule is
a) J 1
b) c) J 1 J 1
d) J 2
9) The solution of lower vapour pressure will boils at

a) lower pressure b) higher temperature
c) higher pressure d) lower temperature
10) A liquid mixture which distilled with change in composition is called ______
mixture.
a) zeotropic b) boiling c) fractional d) azeotropic

1) Explain the term rotational constant.
2) Define ideal and non-ideal solutions.
3) Define fugacity and activity.
4) Show that,
.
/ ) 2 8
5) Define side and consecutive reaction.

6) Explain the term temperature coefficient of the reaction.

1) State and explain Raoults law.
2) Give the applications of rotational spectra.
3) Derive Gibbs-Helmholtz equation in its standard form.
B) Calculate reduced mass and moment of inertia of Br79 CI35 molecule. The
bond length of Br CI is 0.214 nm. (N = 6.024 × 1023) 4

1) Derive an expression for velocity constant of third order reactions with all
reactants at the same initial concentration.
2) How does Gibbs free energy vary with temperature and pressure ?
3) Discuss, the vibrational spectra of diatomic molecule.

1) What are azeotropic mixtures ? Discuss the distillation of solutions with system
having maximum boiling point.
2) The vapour pressure of liquid is 7.4 × 104 Pascal at 283 K and 1.06 × 105
Pascal at 293 K. Calculate molar heat of vaporisation of liquid. (R = 8.314 JK1
mole1).
3) If the rate of reaction gets doubled from 300 K and 310 K. Calculate energy of
activation. (R = 8.314 JK1 mole1)
_________________
*SLRW241* SLR-W – 241
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (Old) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – XIII)
Physiology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks.

3) All questions are compulsory and equal marks.
1. Multiple choice questions. 10

i) In mouth the salivary amylase enzyme digest starch is
a) Fatty acids and glycerol b) Amino acid
c) Deretrin and maltose d) Lactose and galactose
ii) The synthesis of glycogen from proteins and fats is called
a) Glycolysis b) Glyconeolysis
c) Glycogenesis d) Glyconeogenesis
iii) ___________ is called antisterility vitamin.
a) K b) D c) E d) A
iv) In an ideal man the systolic blood pressure is _________ mmHg.
a) 80 b) 100 c) 120 d) 140
v) _________ is used when kidney functions failed.
a) Spacemaker b) Dialyser
c) Spegmomanometer d) Stethoscope
vi) Mammalian urine is _________ to the blood.
a) Hypotonic b) Isotonic c) Hypertonic d) Dilute
vii) Beri-beri disorder caused by the deficiency of vit.
a) B1 b) D c) K d) C
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 241 -2- *SLRW241*
viii) Sliding filament theory of muscle contraction firstly proposed by

a) H.E. Hyxley b) Nicolson c) Watson d) Robertson
ix) Bowman’s capsules are located in ________ region of kidney.
a) Medulla b) Cortex c) Pelvis d) Calyx
x) Complete cardiac cycle required __________ sec.
a) 0.8 b) 0.4 c) 0.1 d) 0.2
2. Answer any five of the followings. 10
i) Definition of respiration.
ii) Draw neat labelled diagram of ECG.
iii) Physiological role of Vit. D.
iv) Synaptic vesicles.
v) Functions of bile.
vi) Cardiac cycle.
3. A) Answer any two of the followings. 6
i) Glycogenolysis
ii) Dylasis
iii) Vit.-K.
B) Write the answer. 4
Ultrastructure of Neuron.
4. Answer any two of the followings. 10
i) Ultrastructure of Nephron
ii) Vit. C – source, role and deficiency
iii) Ornithin cycle.
i) Describe process of gastric digestion.
ii) Describe molecular mechanism of muscle contraction.
—————————
*SLRW242* SLR-W 242
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) Semester VI (Old) Examination, 2016

Special Paper XIII : MATHEMATICS
Metric Spaces

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) Let f : R R and a

R. If f is not continuous at x = a then

a) W [f : a] > 0 b) W [f : a] < 0
c) W [f : a] = 0 d) None of these
2) The class l2 is the class of all sequences 5 5
n

n 1
such that
a)
5
n
2

b)
5
n
2

c) both (a) and (b) d) None of these

3) If A and B are closed subset of R, then A × B is a closed subset of
a) A b) B
c) R d) R2
4) Let X = [0, 1] with absolute value metric is but S is

1 1
1 3

1 1

,

S :

4 2
4 4

2 4

a) b)
3 1 3

0 , ,

4 4 4

c) d)
3 1 1 1

, :

4 4 2 4

P.T.O.
SLR-W 242 -2- *SLRW242*
5) The subset of the real has ________ as a limit point.

1 1

1 , , , . . . .

2 3

a) 0 b)

c) d)

! "
6) The metric space (0, 1) with absolute value metric is totally bounded but
a) not compact b) not complete
7) The closed interval [0, 1] contains its limit
a) 0 b) 1
c) d) both (a) and (b)

8) The complement of closed set is

a) closed b) open
c) both (a) and (b) d) none
9) Let (x1, d1), (x2, d2) and (x3, d3) be metric spaces and let f : x1
x2, g : x2
x3.
If f is continuous at a x1 and g is continuous at
a) = N
b) f (a)
x2
c) = N
!
d) f (a)
x3
10) If f (x) = x2, N
then f attains maximum value at
a) x = 0 b)

N
c) d) x = 1

N

1) State the Schwarz Inequality theorem.
2) If T : x x is defined as tx = x2 where x
1

0 ,

then T is contraction on .
1

0 ,

3) Prove that l
N
i

m
!
(x2 + 2x) = 15.
4) Define metric space (x, d).
5) Prove that every subset of RD is open .
6) Let f : l2 l2, x = (x1, x2, ...) l2 and f (x) = (0, x1, x2 ....) prove that f is

continuous on l2.
*SLRW242* -3- SLR-W 242
1) Let f and g be continuous function defined on R to R and let h (x, y) = (f(x),
g (x)) for (x, y) R2 prove that h is continuous on R 2.

2) Let (x, d) be metric space and a is point in x. If f and g real valued function,
l
N
i

m
=
f(x) = L and l
N
i

m
=
g(x) = M then prove that l
N
i

m
=
(f(x) + g(x)) = L + M.
3) Let (x1, d1), (x2, d2) and (x3, d3) be metric spaces let f : x1 x2, g : x2 x3.If
f is continuous at a x1 and g is continuous at f(a) x2 then gof is continuous
at a.
B) If F1 and F2 are closed subset of metric space M1 then .

.
is also closed. 4

1) If G1 and G2 are open subset of metric space M, then /

/
is also open.
2) Let A be subset of the metric space (M,

). If (A,
) is compact then A is
closed subset of (M, ).
3) If x = (x1, x2), y = (y1, y2) are any two points in R2, we define
d (x, y) = N

O

N O
, then prove that d is metric for R2.

1) Let (M, ) be complete metric space. If T is contraction on M, then there is

one and only one point x in M such that Tx = x.

2) If G is an open subset of metric space M. Then = M G is closed. /

Conversely. If F is closed subset of M, then = M F is open. .

Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper XIII)
Statistical Inference II
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternatives : 10

i) The most preferred C.I. for
for a fixed and independent coefficient (1
) is
a) with shortest width
b) with largest width
c) with an average width
d) none of the above
ii) 95% confidence limits for

of N( ,

) when
is known are
a) *1.96 b) c) d) none of these

X 1 . 9 6
1 . 9 6
iii) For a random sample of size n from N( ,

) with known
, the degrees of
freedom of is
n I
a) n b) n + 1 c) n 1 d) n2
iv) The hypothesis under test is
a) Null hypothesis b) Alternative hypothesis
c) Composite hypothesis d) None of these
v) A wrong decision about H0 leads to
c) Type III error d) Type IV error
P.T.O.
SLR-W 243 -2- *SLR-W243*
vi) Neyman-Pearson lemma provides
a) randomized test b) non-randomized test
c) most powerful test d) none of these
vii) SPRT was initiated by
a) Fisher b) A. Wald c) C.R. Rao d) None of these
viii) Kolmogorov-Smirnov test is a
a) Left sided test b) Right sided test
c) Two-sided test d) All of the above
ix) Which of the following test is applicable to paired data ?
a) The sign test b) The median test
c) Wilcoxon signed rank test d) Both a) and b)
x) Reduction in the size of a test results
a) decrease in its power b) increase in its power
c) no change in its power d) all of the above

1) Define a simple and composite hypothesis.
2) Define interval estimation.
3) Define a critical region and an acceptance region.
4) Define likelihood ratio test.
5) What are the demerits of NP tests ?
6) Explain in short, the sign test for paired sample.

i) Use Neyman-Pearson lemma to obtain best critical region for testing
=
against = 1 < 0 in case of normal population N( , ) when

is
known.
ii) Explain in short the sign test for one sample.
iii) Distinguish between parametric and non-parametric tests.
B) Obtain 100(1
)% confidence interval for

of normal distribution when
is known. 4
*SLR-W243* -3- SLR-W 243

i) Construct a Most Powerful (MP) test of size for testing H0 : = 0 against

H1 : = 1 based on a sample of size n from the distribution having pdf

f(x, ) = .e x x 0, > 0.

ii) A sample of size one from uniform distribution for f(x, )= 0 x is

drawn to test the hypothesis H0 : = 1 against H 1 : = 2. The hypothesis H0

is accepted if the observed value of X is less than or equal to 0.5. Find the
probabilities of type I and type II errors and also find the power of the test.
iii) Explain fully the Kolmogorov-Smirnov one sample test.

i) Let X be a discrete r.v. having a pmf f(x, ) =
x
(1 )1x x = 0, 1. Obtain the

SPRT of strength ( , ) for testing H0 : =

0
against H1 : = 1 < 0.
ii) Obtain the LRT for testing H0 :
=
0
against H1 :

0
based on a
random sample from N( ,

) when
is unknown.
iii) Based on a large sample obtain the confidence interval of level (1
) for
population proportion.
_________________
*SLRW245* SLR-W – 245
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) Examination, 2016

MICROBIOLOGY
Microbial Genetics (Special Paper XIII) (Old)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentences after choosing correct answer from the given
alternatives : 10
1) The conversion of a gene’s nucleotide sequence into a mRNA is called as ________

A) The genome B) Gene expression
C) Transcription D) Translation
2) The exact point where nucleotides are being added to growing daughter strands
during DNA replication are called ____________
A) The origin B) The double helix
C) The template D) The replication fork
3) In the Lac-operon the genes in the operon are____________

A) Always expressed
B) Only expressed when lactose is present
C) Never express
D) Only expressed when lactose is absent
4) Which of the following is the best description of a gene ?

A) A molecule of DNA
B) A nucleotide
C) A sequence of DNA nucleotides that codes for a single protein
D) A molecule of RNA
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 245 -2- *SLRW245*
5) Helix unwinding during replication is accomplished by____________

A) DNA helicases B) DNA gyrase
C) DNA polymerase I D) DNA polymerase II
6) If a particular DNA sequence is CGTACA, the corresponding RNA sequence

will be____________
A) AGATTC B) GCAUGU C) AGAUUC D) UCUAAG
7) Different forms of the same gene are called____________

A) Alleles B) Gametes
C) Genotypes D) Recombined genes
8) Mutations arising from insertion or deletion of nucleotides are called _________

A) Suppressor mutations B) Base pair substitutions
C) Frame shift mutations D) Spontaneous mutations
9) The initial source for all genetic variation is ____________

A) Sexual reproduction B) Mutation
C) Conjugation D) Transformation
10) Okazaki fragments are synthesized in ____________ direction.

A) Opposite B) Same
C) No relation of the replication fork D) Any

i) Explain palindromes.
ii) What is electrophoresis ?
iii) What are adapters ?
iv) Define cosmids.
v) Explain insertion vectors.
vi) Define replication.
vii) What is silent mutation ?
*SLRW245* -3- SLR-W – 245

a) Describe briefly genetic complementation.
b) Discuss the replication of DNA.
c) Briefly explain nonsense mutations.
B) Discuss briefly structural organization of E.coli chromosome. 4
i) Give the detail account of operon concept with example.
ii) Briefly discuss the Cis trans test.
iii) Give the detailed account of time course of phenotypic expression in mutation.
5. Write in short on any two of the following : 10
i) Explain in detail effect of mutation on phenotypes.
ii) Give the detailed account of transcription.
iii) Describe briefly protein engineering.
––––––––––––––––––––
*SLRW248* SLR-W – 248
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (Old) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS
Materials Science (Special Paper – XIV)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

iii) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
iv) Use of log table and calculator are allowed.
1. Select the correct alternatives from the following : 10

i) Time dependent permanent deformation is called __________
a) Plastic deformation b) Elastic deformation
c) Creep d) Fatigue
ii) Reciprocal of resistance is _____________
a) Conductance b) Inductance c) Reluctance d) None of the a, b, c
iii) Strength and hardness increases when metals are
a) cold worked b) hot worked c) annealed d) sintered
iv) Ceramics are ______________ materials.
a) inorganic, non metallic b) organic metallic
c) metallic d) non metallic
v) __________ polymer occurs naturally.
a) Nylon b) Starch c) PVC d) Teflon
vi) The addition of same kind of monomer is known as
a) hetero-polymerization b) co-polymerization
c) homo-polymerization d) condensation polymerization
vii) Ceramic normally exhibit _____________ fracture.
a) hard b) brittle c) soft d) cold
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 248 *SLRW248*
viii) In nanometer scale size of the grain is

a) 10– 3m b) 10– 6 m c) 10– 9 m d) 10– 12 m
ix) Gibb’s phase rule is given by the relation
a) F = C – P + 2 b) F = C + n + P
c) F = C + 2n – P d) F = C – 2P + n
x) The phase boundary between solid and the two phase region is called
a) liquid b) liquidus c) solid d) solidus

i) Define the terms – fatigue, stiffness.
ii) Write any two applications of polymers.
iii) What is ceramic ? Write any two examples of ceramic materials.
iv) What is meant by recovery and recrystallization ?
v) Give any two applications of phase diagram.
vi) Define degree of polymerization.

i) Discuss the electrical properties of materials.
ii) Write note on condensation polymerization.
iii) Define the term nanotechnology and write any two applications of nanophase
materials.
B) Explain any two magnetic properties of materials. 4

i) Explain with structure :
a) Linear polymers
b) Three dimensional polymers
ii) Write short note on ceramic processing.
iii) Explain in detail any one method of synthesis of nanophase materials.

i) Define elastic and plastic deformations. Describe in detail Critical Resolved
Shear Stress (CRSS).
ii) Define phase diagram and discuss binary phase diagram of Al 2O3 – Cr2O3 in
detail.
—————
*SLRW249* SLR-W – 249
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (SPECIAL Paper – XIV)
Inorganic Chemistry

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Select the most correct alternative for the following and rewrite the
sentences : 10
1) The name of element with atomic number 110 is
a) un-nil un b) un-un. nil c) nil-un-un d) nil-nil-un
2) Germanium doped with acceptor atom is called _________ conductor.
a) super b) n – type c) p – type d) mixed oxide
3) In XeF6 molecule, Xe shows _________ hybridisation.
a) Sp3d3 b) d2Sp3 c) Sp3 d) dSp2
4) The actinons and Lanthanons are collectively known as
a) Rare elements b) Inner transition elements
c) Representative elements d) d – block elements
5) Alkyl Berryllium compounds are
a) Electron deficient b) Electron rich
c) Ionic compound d) Covalent compound
6) Corrosion increases with _________ in temp.
a) decrease b) moderate c) increase d) none of these
7) Mixed oxide super conductors have the formula
a) YBa2Cu3O7 – x b) YBa3Cu3O7 – x
c) YBa2Cu2O7 – x d) YBa2Cu3O6
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 249 -2- -2- *SLRW249*
8) Bonding in metal is best explained by _________ theory.
a) Valence bond b) Molecular orbital
c) Crystal field d) Ligand field
9) Galvanised iron is obtained by ________ method.
a) hot dipping b) cold dipping c) solvent dipping d) all of these
10) Actinides have ____________ incomplete outer shells.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4
1) Explain p – type of semiconductor.
2) Define F – block elements.
3) Draw the structure of XeO4.
4) Define the term organometallic compound.
5) Explain atmospheric corrosion.
6) What are the applications of superconductors ?
1) Explain the bulk separation method of Lanthanides.
2) Explain intrinsic semiconductors.
3) Discuss the structure of XeO4.
B) Write a note on electrochemical-theory of corrosion. 4
4. Write note on any two of the following. 10
1) Discuss structural study of Alkyl berryllium compound.

*SLRW249* -3- -3- SLR-W – 249
2) What are TU elements ? Explain the heavy ion bombardment method for
preparation of TU elements.
3) Give the electronic configuration of Lanthanides.
1) Draw and explain the structure of diborane.
2) Define semiconductors. Explain p – type semiconductors.
3) Explain the factors affecting corrosion.
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRW250* -1- SLR-W – 250
SLR-W – 250
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Old)
Systematics of Angiosperms (Special Paper – XIV)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences, choosing the correct alternative :‘ 10

1) Bennettitalean theory was proposed by ____________
a) Saporta and Marion b) Thomas
c) Stebbins d) Gaussen
2) Engler and Prantl published their work under the name ____________
a) Families of flowering plants
b) The classification of flowering plants
c) Die naturalischen pflazen familiean
d) Genera plantarum
3) Dumb-bell shaped stomata occurs in ____________ type.
a) Dicotyledons b) Monocotyledons
4) The development of embryo sac in polygonum is ____________ type.
a) Monosporic b) Bisporic
c) Tetrasporic d) Trisporic
5) ____________ cells plays a role of nutrition.
a) Epidermis b) Endothecium
c) Tapatum d) Sporogenous tissue
6) In Bisporic embryo sac the egg apparatus is made up of ____________ cells.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
7) The flowers pollinated by birds are called as ____________
a) Malcophelous b) Ornithophelous
c) Entemophelous d) Hydrophelous
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 250 *SLRW250*
8) Free nuclear divisions occurs in ____________ type of endosperm.
a) Helobial b) Cellular c) Nuclear d) None of these
9) The dispersal of coconut fruit takes place by
a) Water b) Wind c) Insects d) Bat
10) The fruit of Citrus is ____________ type.
a) Hypanthodium b) Hespiridium
c) Berry d) Drup

i) What is meant by flower primordia ?
ii) Give the primitive characters of flower.
iii) Write the functions of endothecium.
iv) Sketch and label the orthotropous ovul.
v) Mention the economic importance of Lamiaceae.
vi) Define cleistogamy.

i) Describe Bennettitalean theory.
ii) Describe the helobial endosperm development.
iii) Role of anatomy in relation with taxonomy.
B) Give outline of Engler and Prantl’s system of classification. 4

i) Describe different agencies of pollination.
ii) Describe the Bisporic embryo sac with suitable example.
iii) Write economic importance of Poaceae.

i) What is meant by megasporogenesis ? Add a note on development of typical
female gametophyte.
ii) Describe the animal dispersal mechanism in fruits.
iii) Give the distinguishing characters of any one of the following families and
mention one plant of economic importance from it.
a) Rubiaceae
b) Polygonaceae.
_____________________
*SLRW251* SLR-W – 251
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – XIV) (Old)
Endocrinology, Environmental Biology and Toxicology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

sentences. 10
1) __________ hormone increases the metabolic rate.
a) STH b) Insulin c) Thyroxine d) Testosterone
2) _________ gland produce calcitonin hormone.
a) Parathyroid b) Thyroid c) Adrenal d) Thymus
3) The hormone responsible regulation of calcium and phosphorous metabolism
is secreted by
a) Pancreas b) Adrenal c) Thymus d) Parathyroid
4) Islets of Langerhans produce
a) Rennin b) Ptylin c) Insulin d) HCl
5) The most important reason for decrease in biodiversity
a) habitat pollution b) introduction of exotic species
c) over exploitation d) habitat destruction
6) All are insitu conservation efforts, except
a) National parks b) Sanctuaries
c) Zoo d) Biospheres reserves
7) In Rock Baranacle (Balanus) adoptation for attachment to substratum is
a) Muscular foot b) Cement gland
c) Byssus thread d) Pedal disc
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 251 -2- *SLRW251*
8) Lotic is the term used for

a) Standing water b) Running water
c) Pond water d) Tank water
9) Long term exposure to a toxic chemical produces an effect called
a) acute b) highly acute c) subchronic d) chronic
10) _________ is the deposition of chemical substances in a biological organisms.
a) Bioremediation b) Bioaccumulation
c) Biomagnification d) Bioconservation
2. Answer any five of the followings (definitions) : 10
i) TRH
ii) α -cells of ilets (alpha cells)
iii) Mineralo-corticoids
iv) Pesticides
v) Biological indicators
vi) Prostaglandins.
i) Biomagnification.
ii) Waste water management (any one type).
iii) Disorders of thyroid hormones.
B) Histology of islets of Langerhans. 4
i) Hormones of parathyroid glands.
ii) Rain water harvesting.
iii) Faunal adoptation of marine water habitat.
5. Answer any one of the followings : 10
i) Describe the characteristics and faunal adoptation of fresh water habitat.
ii) Describe anatomy and hormonal secretion of adrenal gland.
___________
*SLRW252* SLR-W – 252
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS
Linear Algebra (Special Paper – XIV)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) Let V be a vector space and let S1 ⊆ S 2 ⊆ V and
p) S1 is linearly dependent
q) S2 is linearly dependent
a) p ⇒ q b) q ⇒ p c) p ⇔ q d) None of these
2) Let V is vector space and S is subset of V then S is orthonormal iff
a) v i , v j = 0 b) v i , v j = 1
c) v i , v j = δij d) None of these
3) The vector space Mn × n (F) has dimension

n(n + 1)
a) n b) n2 c) d) None of these
2
4) The span {(0, 1, 0) (0, 0,1)} contains all points in
a) xy plane b) yz plane c) xz plane d) none of these
5) Let V and W be finite dimensional vector space and T : V → W is linear if
dim(V) < dim(W) then
a) T cannot be onto
b) T cannot be one-one
c) T cannot be one-one and onto
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 252 -2- *SLRW252*
6) In an inner product space V. Norm V. is

2
a) v, v b) v, v
c) v, v d) None of these
7) The vector V1, V2, ..... Vn in a vector space V(F) are said to be linearly
n
independent if ∑ αiVi = 0, αi ∈ F implies
i=1
a) All α i = 0 b) All α i ≠ 0
c) Atleast one α i ≠ 0 d) None of these
8) T : P1(R) → R 2 is linear transformation defined by T(a + bX) = (a, a + b) then
[T ] βγ = _____________
⎡1 0 ⎤ ⎡ 1 0⎤ ⎡ 1 1⎤
a) ⎢ ⎥ b) ⎢ ⎥ c) ⎢ ⎥ d) None of these
⎣1 1⎦ ⎣0 1⎦ ⎣0 1⎦
9) Every ______________ dimensional inner product space has an orthonormal
basis.
a) Finite b) Non-zero finite
c) Infinite d) None of these
10) Union of two subspace of a vector space is _____________
a) Null space b) Always a subspace
c) Euclidean space d) None of these

1) If x, y and z are vector space V such that X + Z = Y + Z show that X = Y.
2) Prove that 0.x =0 in vector space .V(F) for all x ∈ V .
3) Prove that || CX || = | C | || X || for all C ∈ F, X ∈ V .
4) Let V be an inner product space and x, y, z ∈ V then for x, y = x, z

∀ x ∈ V show that y = z.
5) Let T : v → W be linear then define N(T) and R(T).
6) Determine whether the first vector can be written as linear combination of
other two vectors (2, – 1, 1) (1, 0, 2) (–1, 1, 1).
*SLRW252* -3- SLR-W – 252

1) Let V be the vector space T, U1, U2 ∈ L(U) then show that
(U1 + U2) T = U1T + U2T.
2) T : R 2 → R 2 is linear transformation T(1, 0) = (1, 4) and T(1, 1) = (2, 5).
What is T(2, 3) ?
3) Let x = (3, 2, 5) ∈ V3 (R) with standard inner product find || X || and find
unit vector.
B) Let V be the vector space over F prove that for x, y ∈ V
1 1
x, y = || x + y ||2 − || x − y ||2 . 4
4 4

1) Show that the set {(1, 3, – 4, 2) (2, 2, – 4, 0) (1, – 3, 2, – 4) (– 1, 0, 1, 0)} is
linearly dependent.
1
2) In C([0, 1]) let f(t) = t and g(t) = et define f, g = ∫ f( t) g(t ) dt .

0
compute || f |, || g ||.
3) Let T : R 2 → R 2 be given by
T(X, Y) = (X + Y, X – Y)
Show that T is linear.

1) Let V and W be vector space and let T : V → W be linear. If V is finite
dimensional. Then show that nullity (T) + rank (T) = dim(V).
2) Using Gram-Schmidt orthogonalization process find the orthonormal basis
of R3 for {V1 = (1, 0, 1, 0), V2 = (1, 1, 1, 1), V3 = (0, 1, 2, 1)}.
_____________________
*SLRW253* SLR-W – 253
Seat
No.

STATISTICS
Design of Experiments (Special) (Paper – XIV)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative from the following : 10

i) An experimental design is
a) A map b) A plan of experiment
c) An architect d) All the above
ii) Local control in experimental designs is meant to
a) Increase the efficiency of the design
b) Reduce experimental error
c) To form homogeneous blocks
d) All the above
iii) Two contracts of the same treatments are said to be orthogonal iff
a) They are at right angles
b) Both of them have same coefficients of the treatments
c) Both of them have equal coefficients but opposite in sign
d) The sum of the cross product of the coefficients of the same treatments
is zero
iv) In a CRD with ‘t’ treatments and ‘n’ experimental units, error degrees of
freedom is equal to
a) n – t b) n – t – l
c) n – t + l d) t – n
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 253 -2- *SLRW253*
v) Randomized block design is a

a) Three restrictional design b) Two restrictional design
c) One restrictional design d) No restrictional design
vi) A Latin Square Design possesses
a) One way classification b) Two way classification
c) Three way classification d) No way classification
vii) If the same factorial effect is confounded in all the replications, it is known as
a) Partial confounding b) Total cofounding
c) Conservative confounding d) None of the above
viii) When the treatments require different size plot for experimentation, frequently
adopted design is
a) Confounded design b) Split plot design
c) Latin square design d) None of the above
ix) CRD is suitable in the situation(s) when
a) All experimental units are homogeneous
b) The units are likely to be destroyed during experimentation
c) Some units are likely to fail to response
d) All the above
x) In a LSD with 5 treatments, error d.f will be
a) 20 b) 16
c) 12 d) 25

i) Define a treatment.
ii) Construction of layout in total confounding in 23 factorial experiment.
iii) Explain experimental error.
iv) Explain split plot design.
v) Explain efficiency of design.
vi) Define contrast and orthogonal contrast.
*SLRW253* -3- SLR-W – 253

i) Give assumptions and mathematical model of CRD.
ii) Describe LSD.
iii) Define a factor, level and treatment combination in case of factorial
experiments.
B) Explain the Yate’s procedure of obtaining main effects and interactions in 22
factorial experiment. 4

i) What is RBD ? Give its mathematical model and analysis of variance table.
ii) Explain the procedure of obtaining the estimate of one missing value in LSD.
iii) Give the plan of a 23 factorial experiment where all the interactions are partially
confounded. Give its analysis of variance table.

i) What are the basic principles of an experimental design ? Explain them.
ii) Find the efficiency of RBD over CRD.
iii) Explain the concept of confounding in a factorial experiment. Distinguish
between total and partial confounding.
_____________
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper XIV)
Pre-Cambrian Stratigraphy of India
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) The oldest rocks forming the foundation rocks over which all the other rock
systems have been deposited are known as _________ complex.
a) Basement b) Fundamental c) Archean d) All of these
2) Saucer series is equivalent to
a) Peninsular gneiss b) Upper Dharwar
c) Middle Dharwar d) Lower Dharwar
3) Ajabgarh series belong to
a) Delhi system b) Bundelkhand gneiss
c) Aravali system d) None of these
4) Which formation of Saucer group is more important for manganese ore ?
a) Sitasaong formation b) Lohangi formation
c) Mansar formation d) Chorbaoli formation
5) Aravali system is overlain by
a) Bundelkhand gneiss b) Raialo series
c) Bangol gneiss d) Charnokite series
6) Which one of the following series forms in the upper Cuddapah System ?
a) Papaghani b) Cheyair c) Kistna d) Kurnool
7) Bhima series is a part of ________ Vindhyan.
a) Upper b) Middle c) Lower d) None of these
P.T.O.
8) Dharwarian rocks of manganese deposits occurs in Nagpur, Chhindwara and
Bhandara district have been named as
a) Iron-ore b) Sausar c) Chilpi d) None of these
9) Alwar series belong to
10) Which one of the following series of Vindhyan System show occurrences of
life ?
a) Bhander b) Rewah c) Kaimur d) None of these

i) What are the major rock types found in Archean System ?
ii) Name of rock type exposed in Bundelkhand gneiss of Archean System.
iii) What are types of rocks found in Dharwar System ?
iv) What are Champion gneisses ?
v) Chilpi Ghat series are overlained by which system ?
vi) Which system in North India is equivalent of Cuddapah System ?

i) Describe Kaladgi series.
ii) Explain Sakoli series.
iii) Describe fundamental gneisses.
B) Describe economic importance of Aravalis of Rajasthan. 4
i) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Bhandar and
Rewa series.
ii) Describe Delhi system.
iii) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Lower Cuddapah
System.

i) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Upper Vindhyan
System.
ii) Describe in detail economic importance of Cuddaph System.
iii) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence, lithology of Kurnool System.
_________________
*SLRW255* SLR-W – 255
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper – XIV)
Microbial Biochemistry

Time :10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct alternative : 10

1) ______________ is non sense codon.
a) UAG b) AUG c) GAV d) AGU
2) The lock and key model for mechanism of enzyme action was proposed
by __________
a) Fisher b) Koshland c) Sanger d) Buchner
3) _________ enzyme is involved in light producing reaction in bioluminescence.
a) Luciferase b) Lactate dehydrogenase
c) β -galactosidase d) Acetyl transferase
4) All enzymes are proteins except _________
a) Ligases b) Amylase c) Protease d) Ribozyme
5) Precursor for purine biosynthesis is ____________
a) Inosinic acid b) Pyruvic acid
c) Lactic acid d) Citric acid
6) _________________ is precursor for peptidoglycan biosynthesis.
a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Sucrose d) Maltose
7) Glyoxylate pathway is modification of ________
a) PP pathway b) TCA cycle
c) EMP pathway d) ED pathway
8) In catabolite repression ______ catabolite of glucose play important role.
a) ATP b) AMP c) C-AMP d) ADP
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 255 *SLRW255*
9) GOGAT play role in assimilation of ____________

a) Carbon b) Phosphate c) Sulphur d) Ammonia
10) Induced fit hypothesis was proposed by _________
a) Fischer b) Koshland c) Lister d) Monod

i) Explain role of nitrogenase.
ii) What is cold light ?
iii) What is absolute specificity ? Give example.
iv) Explain role of C55 lipid carrier in peptidoglycan synthesis.
v) List nonsense codons and release factors.
vi) What is bioluminescence ?

i) Explain sequential model for allosteric enzymes.
ii) Give an account of purification of enzyme on the basis of affinity.
iii) Write on extraction of enzymes.
B) Regulation of enzyme by catabolite repression. 4

i) ED pathway
ii) Define KM and derive Michalis Menton equation.
iii) Arabinose operon.

i) Explain in detail factors affecting enzyme catalysed reactions.
ii) Phospho-ketolase pathway.
iii) Write on methods of immobilization.
_____________________
*SLRW257* SLR-W 257
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE (Old)
Advanced Java (Special Paper XIV)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1) Jcomponent is the immediate super class of the Japplet class
a) True b) False
2) __________ method (s) is/are needed for loading a Database driver in JDBC.
a) registerDriver b) Class.forName()
c) Both (a) and (b) d) getConnection
3) In a URL query String, the ___________ symbol denotes a space character.
a) ? b) = c) + d) &
4) __________ method of Graphic class is used to draw a string on an applet.
a) writeString b) drawString c) println() d) All of these
5) Which of the following component allow multiple selections ?
a) Radio Button b) CheckBox c) TextBox d) MultipleBox
6) Multiple session can access statefull session beans at the same time.
a) True b) False
7) A service () method is invoked only when __________ method is invoked.
a) destroy () b) init () c) start () d) all of these
8) __________ is a default layout manager in the frame.
a) BorderLayout b) FlowLayout c) GridLayout d) GrideBagLayout
P.T.O.
SLR-W 257 *SLRW257*
9) __________ component creates space for single line text.

a) Text Area b) Text Field c) Text Space d) All of these
10) __________ are the small programs written in Java which are loaded and
executed by web server ?
a) Servlet b) Applet
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Apache Tomcat

1) Define anonymous inner class.
2) Difference between forward() and include() of RequestDispatcher.
3) What is session ?
4) What is java beans ?
5) What is Event Delegation ?
6) What is an Applet ?

1) What is JDBC ? Explain architecture of JDBC.
2) Differentiate between GenericServlet and HttpServlet.
3) Explain types of EJB.
B) Explain JSP life cycle. 4

1) Write a program to establish connection and retrieve data from student
database (Assume oracle database).
2) Explain servletConfig and servletContext with suitable examples.
3) Write a program to create simple servlet for handling HTTP POST request.

1) Write a JSP that demonstrate use of <jsp:useBean>tag.
2) What is Layout Manager ? Explain different types of Layout Manager.
3) Explain JSP elements in detail.

*SLRW258* SLR-W – 258
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XV) (Old)
Quantum Mechanics and Astrophysics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

iv) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Select correct alternative 10

i) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle is given by
a) Δp Δx = h b) Δp . Δx =
c) Δp . Δx ≤
d) Δp . Δx ≥
ii) The state of universe when all the matter in the universe is concentrated in a
small region is called
a) ylem b) nucleus c) big bang d) cosmology
iii) The separation between two successive energy levels in linear harmonic
operator is
ω 3 ω 5 ω
a) ω b) c) d)

2 2 2

iv) About 90% of matter in interstellar medium contains

a) dust b) helium c) hydrogen d) oxygen
v) The normalization condition of the wave function ψ is given by
∞ ∞
a) ∫
∗
Ψ Ψ dv = 0 b) ∫ Ψ ∗ Ψ dv = 1
−∞ −∞
∞ ∞
∗
c) ∫ Ψ Ψ dv ≤ 1 d) ∫ Ψ ∗ Ψ dv ≥ 1
−∞ −∞
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 258 -2- *SLRW258*
vi) Eigen values of parity operator are

a) ± 4 b) ± 1 c) ± 2 d) ± 3
vii) A star in the process of formation is called a
a) red giant b) white dwarf c) proto star d) none of these
viii) Energy of a particle which is moving in one dimensional rigid box is proportional
to
a) length of box
b) reciprocal of length of box
c) reciprocal of square of length of box
d) reciprocal of squareroot of length of box
ix) The front view of galaxy exhibits ______________ arms.
a) Spiral b) Disc c) Spherical d) Circular
x) The eigen value of L2 is given by
2 2 2
a) L = (m + 1)
b) L = − l (l + 1)
2 2 2
c) L = − (m + 1)
d) L = l (l + 1)

i) What are sun spots ?
ii) Find the eigen value of the operator d dx for the function ex.
iii) Explain zero point energy.

iv) Define operator in quantum mechanics.
v) Explain steady state universe.
vi) Explain nuclear fusion reaction.

i) Give the physical significance of ψ .
ii) Explain the quantum numbers n, l, ml and ms.
iii) What is Hubble law ? Define Hubble constant.
B) Derive Schrodinger’s time independent wave equation for matter wave. 4

*SLRW258* -3- SLR-W – 258

i) Explain supernova explosion and formation of neutron star.
ii) Obtain Eigen values of operator Lz.
iii) Explain two cosmological tests to support big bang theory.

i) What are the essential features of solar system ? Discuss the condensation
theory and give the supporting points to it.
ii) Using steady state Schrodinger wave equation derive the energy eigen values
for the motion of a particle in three dimensional rigid box.
—————
*SLRW259* SLR-W – 259
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Special Paper – XV)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
N.B. : 1) All the questions are compulsory.

2) Draw neat diagrams and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for each of the following. 10
1) The basic requirement for colouration of the compound is __________ group.

a) chromophore b) auxochrome c) bathochrome d) hypsochrome
2) For chain shortening of aldose carbohydrate ________ reaction is used.

a) Kiliani Synthesis b) Weerman
c) Haworth d) Hudson
3) Quinoline on catalytical hydrogenation with H2 – pt/CH3COOH gives ______

a) 1, 2 dihydroquinoline b) 1, 2, 3, 4 tetrahydroquinoline
c) decahydroquinoline d) none of these
4) Thyroxine on catalytical reduction __________ compound.

a) tyrosine b) quinol c) thyronine d) oxalic acid
5) Glucose on complete reduction with HI/Red-p gives _________

a) glucaric acid b) n-hexane
c) n-hexanoic acid d) glucose penta acetate
6) Which of the following one drug is used as an antimalerials ?

a) Paludrine b) Isoniozide c) Tolbutamide d) Ibuprofen
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 259 -2- *SLRW259*
7) What is the product of the following reaction ?
HNO + AC O
⎯ ⎯ ⎯3 ⎯ ⎯
2⎯→
?
N
0 C

a) 3-nitropyrrole b) 2-nitropyrrole
c) 2, 3-dinitropyrrole d) 2, 3, 4, 5 tetra nitropyrrole
8) Orange IV dye is _________ type of dye

a) a2a b) TPM c) phthalein d) sulphur
9) __________ is insoluble both in fat and water

a) Vit.-K b) Vit.-B1 c) Vit.-H d) Vit.-D
10) Among the following which is a antidiabetic agent ?

a) isoniazid b) ethambutol c) tolbutamide d) Paludrine

i) What are agrochemicals ? Give structure and uses of Methoxychlor.
ii) What are vitamins ? Give the structure of Vitamin- A.
iii) Explain the application of vat dyes.
iv) Give the structural formula and uses of lactose.
v) Predict the products of the following reaction.
KNO3 /Conc.H2SO4
?
300°C
12
N
C4HgLi
?
heat
vi) Write conversion of fructose to glucose.

*SLRW259* -3- SLR-W – 259

i) Explain the basic and acidic character of pyrrole.
ii) Explain the Kiliani’s Synthesis.
iii) Explain the Synthesis of Malechite green.
B) Define CNS drugs . Give the synthesis and uses of phenobarbitone drug. 4

i) What are antibiotics drugs ? Give the synthesis of chloromycetin.
ii) Give the synthesis and uses of Indole-3-acetic acid.
iii) Discuss the Skraup’s synthesis. What is the action of
i) SO3 & H2SO4 and
ii) Sodamide on the quinotine.

i) What are dyes ? Give the classification of dyes on the basis structure/
constitution with examples.
ii) Discuss the structure of Adrenaline on the basis of analytical method.
iii) Discuss the ring structure of glucose. Prove the size of the oxide ring structure
of glucose by methylation method.
___________
*SLRW261* -1- SLR-W – 261S
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – XV)
(Molecular Biology and Biotechnology)

Time :10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Complete the sentence selecting appropriate answer : 10

1) In m-RNA, m stands for
a) Microbial b) Mitochondrial
c) Messenger d) Mini
2) Hybridoma technique was discovered by
a) Crick b) Jacob and Monad
c) Kohler and Milstein d) Alwine
3) ____________ enzyme is involved in transcription.
a) DNA Polymerase b) DNA Ligase
c) RNA polymerase d) Reverse Transcriptase
4) DNA finger printing was invented by
a) Watson b) Alec Jeffrey
c) Crick d) Jacob
5) Process of synthesis of protein on ribosome is called as
a) Transcription b) Replication
c) Metabolism d) Translation
6) ELISA technique is used for the detection of
a) Antigens b) DNA
c) RNA d) Carbohydrates
7) The main use of PCR is making
a) Multiple copies of DNA b) Multiple copies of RNA
c) Antigen d) Antibody
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 261 -2- *SLRW261*
8) ____________ is the application of DNA probe.

a) Hybridoma b) DNA finger printing
c) Monoclonal antibodies d) Chromatography
9) Long form of ELISA is
a) Enzyme Linked Ionic Assay
b) Enzyme Listed Immuno Assay
c) Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
d) Energy Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
10) Two strands of the DNA are linked with each other by ____________ bond.
a) Peptide b) Sulpha hydral
c) Glucosidic d) Hydrogen
2. Write short notes on following (any five) : 10

i) Northern blotting technique.
ii) Restriction enzyme.
iii) DNA Ligase.
iv) Non-sense codon.
v) Human Genome.
vi) t-RNA.

i) Enlist the applications of Biotechnology.
ii) Post-transcriptional changes in RNA.
iii) Explain Wobble hypothesis.
B) Describe technique of DNA finger printing. 4

i) Give an account of chain elongation step in protein synthesis.
ii) Describe the Southern blotting.
iii) Explain process of conjugation in bacteria.

i) Enlist the properties of genetic code. Describe codon assignments.
ii) Give an account of Watson and Crick double stranded model of DNA molecule.
_____________________
*SLRW262* SLR-W 262
Seat
No.

Special Paper XV : MATHEMATICS (Old)
Partial Differential Equation

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) The equation is of order

z z
1

y
x

a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) None of these
2) The equation (2x + 3y)p + 4xq 8pq = x + y is
a) linear b) non-linear
c) quasi-linear d) semi-linear
3) The partial differential equation obtained by eliminating arbitrary constants
a and b from 4z = [ax + (y/a) + b]2 is
a) b)

z z z z

Z Z

x y x y

c) d) None of these
z / x
Z
z / y
4) The partial differential equation obtained by eliminating the function f from
is
1

Z y 2 f l o g y

a) b)
z z

x z y y z / y x z y y z / y

x x

c) d) None of these
z z
x z y y

x y

P.T.O.
SLR-W 262 -2- *SLRW262*
5) If in a given function the number of arbitrary constants is less than the
number of independent variables, then the elimination of arbitrary constants
usually gives rise to
a) a unique partial differential equation of order one
b) a partial differential equation of order usually greater than one
c) more than one partial differential equation of order one
d) none of these
6) The general solution of the partial differential equation p+q = 1 is

a) (x/z, y/z) = 0 b) (x + y, x + z) = 0
c) (xy, xz) = 0 d) (x y, x z) = 0
7) A solution of a partial differential equation which contains no arbitrary

constants is
a) Particular solution b) General solution
c) Primitive d) None of these
8) The first order partial differential equations p = P (x, y) and q = Q (x, y) are
compatible if f
a) b)
P Q 2 3
. 1
x x N N
c) d)
2 N
2 3

3 N
N N
9) The solution of the equation f (p,q) = 0 is of the form

a) Z = ax + by + c b) Z = ax + by + ab
c) Z = x + ay d) none of these
10) The solution of a reducible non-homogeneous linear partial differential

equation with constant coefficients F (D, ,
) Z = 0 corresponding to each
non-repeated factor bD a ,
C is
a) ecx/a
(by + ax) b) ecx/a
(by)
c) ecx/b
(by + ax), if b 0 d) none of these
*SLRW262* -3- SLR-W 262
a) Form a partial differential equation by eliminating arbitrary constants a
and b from z = ax + by + ab
b) Eliminate arbitrary function f from z = f (x2 y2)
c) Show that F (D, ,

) eax+by = F (a, b)eax+by
d) Define the term singular solution.
e) Solve (D2 ,
)Z=0
f) Solve (D2 + 3D ,

+2 ,

)z=0

a) Explain how to solve Clairants equation using charpits method.
b) Solve (D2 ,

+D ,

) z = e2x+3y
c) Solve (D2 6D ,

+9 ,

) z = tan (y + 3x)
B) Explain the method of finding partial differential equation by the elimination of
arbitrary function from the equation (u, v) = 0, where u and v are functions

of x, y and z. 4

a) Explain the Lagranges method of solving Pp + Qq = R when P, Q and R
are functions of x, y, z.
b) Find the integral surface of the partial differential equation
(x y) p + (y x z) q = z through the circle z = 1, x2 + y2 = 1.
c) Solve (D ,

) (D ,

2) z = sin (2x + 3y).

n
a) Prove that
1 x
( a x b y ) ( a x b y ) .
n n
( b D a D ) b n !
b) i) Find the complete integral and singular integral of Z = px + qy + logpq.

ii) Slove (p2 + q2) y = qz.

*SLRW263* SLR-W – 263
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper – XV) (Old)
Limit Theorems, Reliability and Queuing Theory

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

ii) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is allowed.
1. Choose most correct answer from the following. 10

i) If Y1 < Y2 < ... < Yn is an order statistic from a distribution with pdf f(x) and
CDF F(X) then probability distribution of Yr can be obtained using
a) Concept of multinomial distribution
b) Concept of first definition of derivative
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
ii) For a continuous distribution Chebysheve’s inequality (C.I.) can be stated as
[
a) P X − E (X ) ≥ c ≤ c 2 ]
[
b) P X − E ( X ) ≥ c ≤ ] V (X )
2 provided V(X) < C2
c
[
c) P X − E ( X ) ≤ c ≥ ] V (X )
provided V(X) < C2
c2
[
d) P X − E (X ) ≤ c ≥ c 2 ]
p p
iii) If Xn → X then g (Xn) → g(X) if g (.) is ________________
a) pdf b) CDF
c) any continuous function of X d) None of these
p
iv) If Xn → X then ___________
p p
a) k.Xn → k.X b) kXn → k
p
c) kXn → X d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 263 -2- *SLRW263*
v) A two out of three system works if ______________

a) only 2 components are working
b) at least 2 components are not working
c) at least 1 components is working
d) at least 2 component are working
vi) Structure function of parallel system of two components is φ (x ) =
a) 1 – (1 – x1) (1 – x2) b) 1 – x1x2
c) x 1x2 d) (1 – x1) (1 – x2)
vii) Let {Xn, n > 0} be a sequence of iid r.vs. each with mean μ and variance σ 2 .
If Sn = X1 + X2 + ... + Xn, then the distribution of Z is N (0, 1) as n → ∞ if Z =
( Sn − μ ) ( Sn − n μ ) ( Sn − n μ ) ( Sn − μ )
a) b) c) d)
σ n σ n σ/ n nσ 2
viii) If {Xn, n > 0} be a sequence of iid p(1) r.vs. then n (x n − 1) has ________
distribution.
a) P (1) b) P (n) c) N (0, 1) d) None of these
ix) In usual notations traffic intensity is given by
λ μ
a) b) c) λ d) μ
μ λ
x) In M/M/1 : ∞ /FCFS model the queue discipline is
a) first in last out b) first in first out
c) last in first out d) last in last out

a) Define minimal cut set.
b) State Weak Law of Large Numbers (WLLN) and show it does not hold good
for Cauchy distribution.
⎡ x 2 ⎤
c) If X is B (10, 0.2) then using C.I. obtain upper bound for p ⎢ − > 2⎥ .
⎣ 10 10 ⎦
th th
d) In usual notations state (only) the joint p.d.f. of r and s order statistic.
e) Define service rate μ . If μ = 10 per hour then find average time required to serve
one customer.
f) Define a queue discipline.
*SLRW263* -3- SLR-W – 263

a) Define reliability function R(t) and hazard rate λ (t ) and show that
− R′ ( t)
λ (t ) = .
R ( t)
b) Obtain reliability function of a series system of 3 components.
p
c) If {Xn} is a sequence of i.i.d. N (μ, σ2 ) r.vs. then show that xn → μ as
n→∞ .
3. B) State any four assumptions of M/M/1 : ∞ /FCFS model. 4

A) State and prove central limit theorem for a sequence of i.i.d. r.vs.
B) Show that hazard rate of a series system of components having independent
life times is summation of component hazard rates.
C) Define order statistic and obtain p.d.f. of rth order statistic.

A) Find the distribution of sample median if a random sample of odd size is
taken from a distribution with p.d.f. f(x) and CDF F(x).
B) Let Xi are i.i.d. P(0.02) r.v.s. Let S = S100 = ∑ X i . Use CLT to evaluate P [S ≥ 3].
C) Obtain the distribution of arrivals in queuing system.
——––––———
*SLRW264* SLR-W – 264
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XV)
Phanerozoic Stratigraphy of India
Day and Date : Monday, 28/3/2016 Total Marks : 50

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1) Deccan Traps are younger than ________
a) Laterites b) Intertrappeans
c) Lametas and Bagh beds d) None of these
2) Gondwana sediments were deposited in _________
a) Geosynclines b) Lakes c) Trough faults d) Estuaries
3) The lowest series of Gondwana system is _________
a) Talchir b) Umia c) Jabalpur d) Rajmahal
4) The middle and upper Jurassic forms __________
a) Rajmahal b) Jurassic of Cutch
c) Spiti d) Salt range
5) Which one of the following series includes in Jurassic of Cutch ? ________
a) Katrol b) Boulder bed c) Rikba d) Barren measures
6) Which one of the following Cretaceous rocks of south India is youngest ?
a) Utatur b) Trichuiopoly c) Ariyalur d) None of these
7) The fossils of Physa occur in _________ beds underlying Deccan Traps.
a) Umia b) Infratrappean c) Chari d) None of these
8) Age of Deccan Traps is _______
a) Upper Cretaceous to Eocene b) Upper Cretaceous to Oligocene
c) Upper Cretaceous to Miocene d) Upper Cretaceous to Pliocene
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 264 *SLRW264*
9) ‘Chikkimlimestone’ belongs to ________

a) Eocene rocks of Kashmir b) Cretaceous of Spiti
c) Pre Cambrians of Sikkim d) Jurassics of Spiti
10) The main boundary fault separates _________

a) Vindhyans and Aravallies b) Siwaliks and Tertiaries
c) Siwaliks and Aravallies d) Siwaliks and Archaeans

i) The fossils of reptiles like Dinosaur are found in which stage of Cretaceous of
south India ?
ii) What is the age of Neobolus beds ?
iii) On which rock Cambrian strata of Spiti lies over ?
iv) What is the age of Siwalik system ?
v) Describe “Neobolus beds”.
vi) Give the age of the Saline Series/Salt Marl.

i) Describe in short, climate during Gondwana.
ii) Explain economic importance of Damuda Series.
iii) Describe Barren measures.
B) Write a brief essay on the economic importance of Deccan Traps. 4

i) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Panchet series.
ii) Describe in detail Kiotolimestones.
iii) Describe in brief with lithology and fauna of Lameta beds.

i) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Deccan Traps.
ii) Describe the nature of Siwalik deposits.
iii) Explain nature of ‘Main Boundary Fault’.
_______________
*SLRW265* SLR-W 265
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper XV) (Old)
Environmental Microbiology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

3) Figures to the right indicate marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct alternatives : 10
i) Study of animals in germ free environment is known as
a) Gnotobiology b) Zoology c) Geology d) Biology
ii) Pollutant from a motor car which affect nervous system is
a) Na b) Pb c) Hg d) SO2
iii) The photo chemical smog is due to
a) Carbon dioxide b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Nitrogen oxide d) H2S
iv) _________ protect us from harmful effects of ultraviolet radiations.
a) Smog b) Clouds c) CO2 d) Ozone
v) Lichens are described as the indicators of
a) Air pollution b) Water pollution
c) Xerophytic succession d) Mesophytic succession
vi) Hiroshima-Nagasaki tragedy is a case of _____ pollution.
a) Soil b) Radioactive c) Air d) Oil
vii) Oil and grease are common in waste from __________ industry.
a) Sugar b) Dairy c) Textile d) Paper
P.T.O.
SLR-W 265 *SLRW265*
viii) Process of toxic removal by using plants is called

a) Biotransformation b) Bioaccumulation
c) Biomagnification d) Phytoremediation
ix) Increase in the temperature of earth surface due to concentration of CO2 is
called as
a) Acid rain b) Green house effect
c) Eutrophication d) Smog
x) The Taj Mahal is under the threat of being destroyed due to
a) Radioactive fall out
b) Air pollutants released from oil refinery of Mathura
c) Degradation of marble by high temperature
d) Flood in Yamuna river
i) Define term BOD.
ii) What is potable water ?
iii) Define Bioaerosal.
iv) Give significance of ozone.
v) Give sources of air pollution.
vi) Define gnotobiology.
vii) What is bioleaching ?
i) Give significance of environmental legislation.
ii) Write a note on in-situ leaching.
iii) Explain microbially enhanced oil recovery.
B) Write a note on germ free animals. 4
i) Explain bioleaching of copper and uranium.
ii) Explain treatment of biomedical waste.
iii) Explain routine bacteriological analysis of water.
i) What is Eutrophication ? Explain various control measures to control
eutrophication.
ii) Explain Sugar industry as zero waste technology.
iii) Write an essay on biological safety.
_______________
*SLRW266* SLR-W – 266
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper XV)
Embedded System Design

Time :10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

3) Neat and labelled diagram should be drawn wherever
necessary.
4) Use of log table and calculators are allowed.
1. Select alternatives from the following : 10

i) Humidity is always expressed in _____________ unit.
a) °C b) °K c) RH% d) Joules
ii) The data range of float variable is _____________ bytes.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 1
iii) The base element of an array has index _____________
a) Zero b) One c) Ten d) Eight
iv) _____________ of the timer is checked to identify the completion of the count.
a) EI flag b) TF flag c) OV flag d) RI flag
v) Which of the following is the humidity sensor ?
a) AD 590 b) SY-HS-220 c) LM 35 d) AD 595
vi) Power on reset of microcontroller 8951 is _____________
a) Active high b) Active low
c) Always zero d) None of these
vii) For programming of microcontroller 8951 with Flash magic tool requires
_____________ file.
a) .Exe b) .Hex c) .bin d) .obj
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 266 *SLRW266*
viii) _____________ of the following line driver is used for In-system programming
of the 8951 micro controller.
a) Max 232 b) RS 232 c) Max 448 d) Max 248
ix) To communicate from microcontroller to computer, the standard band rate
is _____________
a) 5600 b) 6600 c) 8600 d) 9600
x) If dock frequency of microcontroller is 12 MHz, then input frequency for timer
is _____________ MHz.
a) 12 b) 1 c) 8 d) 6

i) Draw circuit diagram for Reset circuit.
ii) What is the need of operating system in embedded system ?
iii) What do you mean by data types ?
iv) Define the terms constants and variable.
v) The temperature sensor has coefficient 10mv/°C. Calculate emf produced by
this sensor for 55°C.
vi) Give structure of embedded C program.

i) What do you mean by superloop ?
ii) Write embedded C program to generate triangular wave.
iii) Enlist the characteristics of an embedded system.
B) Draw circuit diagram to interface DAC to microcontroller. 4

i) Describe the steps involved in development of program with Kiel microvision.
ii) Describe generation of delay time by using timer ⊥ .
iii) What do you mean by user’s defined functions in C language ?

i) Draw block diagram of hardware of an embedded system to measure humidity
of the environment.
ii) Write embedded C program to generate Sawtooth waveform.
––––––––––––––––––––
*SLRW268* -1- SLR-W – 268S
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XVI)
Electronics and Computer Programming

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


i) The ideal input impedance of Op-Amp is
a) infinite b) high c) negative d) zero
ii) _______ is the ratio of change in input offset current to the change in temperature.
a) Input offset current drift b) Input offset voltage drift
c) Slew rate d) Common mode input impedance
iii) In an astable multivibrator using 555 timer IC, the capacitor always
charges between
a) 0 and VCC b) 0 and 2/3 VCC
c) 1/3 VCC and 2/3 VCC d) 0 and 1/3 VCC
iv) The frequency of unsymmetrical rectangular wave form of an astable
multivibrator using 555 timer IC is given by
1.44
a) 0.70/RC b) 1.38 RC c) 0.69 RC d)
C(R A + 2RB )
v) A p-n-p-n diode is fabricated from
a) Germanium (Ge) only
b) Silicon (Si) only
c) Germanium (Ge) and Silicon (Si)
d) Gallium arsenide (GaAs)
vi) One Megabyte memory has ____________ kilobyte of memory.
a) 2 b) 1000 c) 1024 d) 948
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 268 -2- *SLRW268*
vii) Data is temporary held in

a) Main memory b) Secondary unit
c) Control unit d) Monitor
viii) The meaning of ____________ can not be changed.
a) Identifier b) Keyword c) Variable d) Constant
ix) ____________ is a group of characters enclosed in double quotes.
a) String b) Character c) Float d) Real
x) Built in multiple branch decision statement is called
a) if b) if – else
c) nested if – else d) switch

i) State different characteristics of ideal Op-Amp.
ii) Define the Duty cycle of timer IC555.
iii) What do you mean by Holding current of SCR ?
iv) Differentiate between computer Hardware and Software.
v) Explain insertion and extraction operators in C++.
vi) What is Flow – chart ?

i) How SCR can made TURN-ON by different method.
ii) Define the term operating system. Explain different functions of operating
system.
iii) Describe in brief lower level and higher level languages.
B) Explain the use of IC555 for linear Ramp Monostable. 4

i) How a speed of a D.C. motor is controlled by using SCR ?
ii) Give an account of IC555 as astable multivibrator.
iii) Explain increment and decrement operators in C++.

i) Discuss the Op-Amp as inverting amplifier and non-inverting amplifier.
ii) What are the different looping structures in C++ ? Give syntax and suitable
programs.
_____________________
*SLRW269* SLR-W – 269
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper – XVI)
Analytical and Industrial Organic Chemistry

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

3) Draw neat labelled diagrams and give equations
wherever necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative from among those given below : 10
1) In textile industry _____________ is used as a wetting and scouring agent of
raw wool.
a) Teepol b) Fat
c) Phenol d) Deriphat
2) Polymerisation of 1, 3-butadiene and styrene forms __________ rubber.
a) Natural b) Buna-S
c) Buna-N d) Polyethylene
3) Power alcohol used as a petrol substitute is _____________
a) 80% alcohol mixture + 20% petrol
b) 60% alcohol mixture + 40% petrol
c) 50% alcohol mixture + 50% petrol
d) 20% alcohol mixture + 80% petrol
4) Reactive dyes fix on fibres by ________ bonding.
a) Ionic b) Electrovalent
c) Covalent d) Co-ordinate
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 269 -2- *SLRW269*
5) Green chemistry is defined as designing and development of the chemical

processes which ___________
a) Reduce the pollution
b) Use less energy
c) Yield more product with lesser bye-products
d) All the above three
6) The principle used in column chromatography is based on __________
a) Partition b) Selective adsorption
c) Capillary action d) None of these
7) Hard soap is a salt of fatty acid and ____________
a) Sodium hydroxide b) Potassium hydroxide
c) Caustic potash d) All the above
8) Singeing is a process of _____________
a) Bleaching the fibres
b) Removing starch from the cloth
c) Removing protruding fibres from the cloth surface
d) Removing wax and tallow from the fibres
9) Biocatalytic reactions are catalysed by _____________
a) Salts b) Enzymes c) Alcohols d) Zeolites
10) In gas chromatography _________ gas is preferable mobile phase.
a) CO b) O2 c) SO2 d) He

i) Give preparation and uses of polyethene.
ii) Explain anionic detergents.
iii) What is desizing ? Why is it necessary ?
iv) Write the advantages of vacuum evaporator in concentration of sugar juice.
v) What are microwave assisted reactions ? Give example.
vi) Explain the term rate of flow (Rf) value in chromatography.
*SLRW269* -3- SLR-W – 269

i) What are zeolites ? Explain their use in Friedel Craft’s alkylation reaction.
ii) Explain elastomers, thermoplastics and thermosettings.
iii) Define ‘detergents’. How are they classifieds ?
B) Discuss the experimental technique of paper chromatography. 4

i) With a neat sketch of mill house, explain the extraction of sugar juice from
sugarcane.
ii) Write a brief note on raw materials used in the manufacture of soap.
iii) Explain the principle and process of fabric bleaching by sodium hypochlorite.

i) Give the synthesis and uses of bakelite resin.
ii) Draw the line diagram of gas chromatographic apparatus and explain its
components.
iii) Describe the process of manufacture of ethyl alcohol by the fermentation of
molasses by yeast cells.
_____________________
*SLRW270* SLR-W 270
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Old) (Special Paper XVI)
Molecular Biology and Biotechnology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

iii) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct alternatives. 10
1) Which of the following nitrogen base is absent in DNA
a) Uracil b) Thymin c) Cytosine d) Adenine
2) Destruction of DNA at high temperature is called as
a) DNA renaturation b) DNA denaturation
c) DNA Replication d) DNA sequencing
3) Operon concept was putforth by sir
a) Jacob and Monad b) Jacob and Wolleman
c) Jacob and Huberland d) Khoranu and Lederberg
4) The ____________ enzyme act as splicing the DNA
a) Helicase b) Gyrase
c) Restriction endonuclease d) Pol I
5) The mRNA coding for more than one protein is known as
a) r RNA b) cDNA
c) Cistronic mRNA d) Polycistronic mRNA.
6) The forensic medicine RFLPs;DNA-finger printing for the identification of
criminal ____________ method used.
a) Southern blot b) Northern blot
c) Western blot d) Eastern blot
P.T.O.
SLR-W 270 *SLRW270*
7) The human genome project was started ____________ Year.
a) 1990 b) 1995 c) 2000 d) 2010
8) Plant tissue culture technique was discovered by ____________ scientist.
a) Haberland 1972 b) Morkel-1972
c) De-varies 1872 d) Muller-1972
9) The cell having capacity to divisible in tissue culture is ____________ called.
a) Totipotient cell b) Mitiotic cell
c) Meiotic cell d) None of these
10) Anther culture give ____________ plants.
a) (n) b) (2n) c) (3n) d) (4n)
2. Answer any five of the following questions. 10
i) Define Micro propagation
ii) What is meant by DNA library ?
iii) What is the B forms of DNA ?
iv) Which plasmid present in Agrobacterium and what is their role ?
v) What is chimeric DNA ?
vi) What is western bloting technique ?
3. A) Answer any two of the following questions.
i) Application of genetic engineering
ii) Sketch and label the Lac-operon diagrammatically
iii) Give the full forms of DNA and its chemical composition. 6
B) Application of the plant tissue culture. 4
4. Answer any two of the following questions. 10
i) Enzymes involved in Replication Fork (Y - Fork)
ii) Write note on transgenic plants.
iii) What is PCR and its application ?
5. Answer any two of the following questions. 10
i) Describe the soma culture
ii) Describe the semiconservative model of DNA replication
iii) Describe the Lac-operon concept.

*SLRW271* SLR-W – 271
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – XVI)
Biotechniques and Applied Zoology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

sentence: 10
1) ______________ is good source of fish oil.
a) Catla b) Pompret c) Mrigal d) Oil Sardine
2) Silkworm feeds on ______________ leaves.
a) Maple b) Mango c) Mulberry d) Tamarind
3) In biological control of pests ______________ are used.
a) Chemicals b) Fumigants
c) Pheromones d) Biological agents
4) ______________ deals with culture and capture of fishes and crustaceans
like lobster, crab, shrimp etc.
a) Silviculture b) Aquaculture c) Apiculture d) Pearl culture
5) Termite is also known as ______________
a) White ant b) Red ant c) Black ant d) Green ant
6) Pearl is also called as ______________
a) Moti b) Coral c) Hira d) Ratna
7) Silk is a secretion of silkworm from its specialized
a) Fat bodies b) Anal horns c) Salivary gland d) Spiracles
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 271 *SLRW271*
8) The full form of PAGE is

a) Poly Acrylamide Gel Electrophoresis
b) Poly Amyl Gel Electrophoresis
c) Poly Amide Gel Electrophoresis
d) Poly Acyl Gel Electrophoresis
9) The Stem Cells are ______________ in nature.
a) Nutripotent b) Totipotent c) Pleuripotent d) Electropotent
10) The weight of the sample is measured by ______________ device.
a) pHmeter b) Colorimeter
c) Balance d) Spectrophotometer
i) Spectrophotometer
ii) Pyrilla
iii) TLC
iv) Cotton ball worm
v) Silk cocoon
vi) Organ culture.
i) Describe the agricultural pest – rat.
ii) Write the uses of pH meter.
iii) Give economic importance of fish products.
B) Describe the varieties of silkworms. 4
i) Explain biological control of crop pests.
ii) Describe principle and uses of colorimeter.
iii) Write the methods of Pearl culture.
A) Describe the various Crafts and Gears used in fishing.
B) Give the principle and requirements of tissue culture laboratory. Add a note
on its applications.
_____________
*SLRW272* SLR-W – 272
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XVI) (Old)
Graph Theory

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1) A vertex having degree one is called ________ vertex.

a) isolated b) pendant c) even d) none of these
2) In directed graph sum of outdegrees of vertices is ________ sum of indegrees
of vertices.
a) not equal to b) equal to
c) less than d) greater than
3) The maximum number of edges in a simple graph with n vertices is
n (n + 1) n (n − 1) n +1 n −1
a) b) c) d)
2 2 2 2
4) The wheel graph Wn has _______ vertices and ______ edges.

a) n + 1, n b) n + 1, 2n c) n, n d) n, n + 1
5) The graph H (V′, E′) is called a proper subgraph of a graph G (V, E) if

a) V′ ⊂ V, E′ ⊂ E b) V ⊂ V′, E ⊂ E′
c) V′ ⊂ V, E ⊂ E′ d) V ⊂ V′, E′ ⊂ E
6) Complete graph Km, n is Euler if and only if

a) both m and n are even b) both m and n are odd
c) one of m and n is even d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 272 -2- *SLRW272*
7) 4F9A(16) = _____
a) 20377(10) b) 20379(10) c) 20378(10) d) 20380(10)
8) The number of vertices in a binary tree is always

a) even b) infinite c) odd d) none of these
9) The maximum value of a single digit in any system is always ________ the
value of the base.
a) equal to b) equal to one greater than
c) equal to one less than d) none of these
10) If n, e, k are number of vertices, number of edges, number of components

then nullity = __________
a) e + n + k b) e – n – k c) e + n – k d) e – n + k

a) Define regular graph and draw regular graph of degree three.
b) Define isomorphic graph.
c) Define product of two graphs.
d) Write one path, one trail, one walk and one cycle for the following graph
V1
V2 e1 e6 V6
e5 e
e8 2
V3
e4 V5 e7
e3 e9
V4 V7
e) Draw the diagraph G corresponding to adjacency matrix.
⎡0 0 1 1⎤
⎢0 0 1 0⎥
A=⎢ ⎥
⎢1 1 0 1⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎣1 1 1 0⎦
f) Convert 0.6(10) to binary.

*SLRW272* -3- SLR-W – 272

a) Find all spanning trees of the following graph
F
A
H
B D E
C
G
b) Convert 10486(10) to hexadecimal number.

c) Find the adjacency matrix of the graph G.
V1
V4 V6
V2
V5
V3
G (V, E)
B) Determine whether the following graphs are isomorphic. 4

a b
a′ b′
c
f f′ c′
e d e′ d′
G G′

a) Find the minimal spanning tree of the graph G using Prim’s algorithm
V1
3 4
V5
3 V2
3 3
2 2
V4 3 V3
SLR-W – 272 -4- *SLRW272*
b) Convert the decimal number 257.6875 to its binary equivalent.

c) Find complement of the following graph
a
a b
c e b
d
G
d c

a) Write Dijkstra’s algorith to find shortes path between two vertices in a weighted
graph and then apply it to find the shortest path from vertex a to vertex f for
the graph.
b 6 d
1 2
5
a 2 3 f
4 1 7
c e
b) i) Prove that a non-empty connected graph G is Eulerian iff its vertices are
all of even degree.
ii) Convert hexadecimal number FEDCE to decimal equivalent.
_______________
*SLRW273* -1- SLR-W – 273
SLR-W – 273
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper – XVI)
C-Programming

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


i) C is a programming language developed at
a) Microsoft Corp., USA b) IBM, USA
c) Borland International, USA d) AT and T’s Bell Laboratories of USA
ii) In C, an arithmetic expression 5/3 + 10*1.2 results in
a) 13.66 b) 13 c) 13.67 d) 14
iii) Which of the following is not a keyword in C ?
a) double b) int c) mean d) return
iv) Which of the following is not true while constructing an integer constant in C ?
a) An integer constant must have at least one digit
b) It could be either positive or negative
c) Default sign is positive
d) It must have a decimal point
v) The assignment statement x = x – b; is equivalent to
a) x – = b; b) x = –b; c) b– = x; d) none of these
vi) The C program execution always begin with the function
a) scanf( ) b) printf( ) c) main( ) d) return( )
vii) Which of the following shows the correct hierarchy of arithmetic
operations in C ?
a) / + * – b) * – / + c) + – / * d) * / + –
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 273 -2- *SLRW273*
viii) If p is in integer pointer with initial value, say 3032, then after the operation
p = p + 1; the value of p will be
ix) What is an array ?
a) An array is a collection of variables that are of the dissimilar data type
b) An array is a collection of variables that are of the same data type
c) An array is not a collection of variables that are of the same data type
d) None of these
x) Which mode is used to open a file for writing purpose ?
a) w b) r c) a d) none of these

i) What is a keyword in C ?
ii) State the rules for constructing integer constants.
iii) How to declare variables in C ?
iv) State the use of getchar( ) and putchar( ).
v) What is the syntax of ternary operator ?
vi) What is pointer in C ?

i) Give the syntax of if statement.
ii) Give the syntax of while statement.
iii) What is an user defined function ?
B) Write a C program for addition of two integers. 4

i) Explain switch statement. Illustrate by one example.
ii) Explain while loop. Illustrate by one example.
iii) Write a note on array.

i) Write a C program for finding factorial of a positive integer.
ii) Write a C program for finding arithmetic mean of n values.
iii) Explain strlwr( ) and strupr ( ). Illustrate each by one example.
_____________________
*SLRW275* SLR-W – 275
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper – XVI)
Medical Microbiology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentence again : 10

1) Helicobacter pylori causes ______________
a) Gastric lymphoma b) Gastric and duodenal ulcer
c) Hyperacidity d) All of these
2) Escherichia coli is ______________
a) Gram positive motile rods b) Gram positive non-motile rods
c) Gram negative non-motile rods d) Gram negative motile rods
3) Amphotericin B and Clotrimazole can be used in treatment of ______________
a) Malaria b) Vibrio c) Candidiasis d) Herpes simplex
4) Presence of Negri bodies in the brain is sign of ______________
a) Rabies b) Herpes c) HIV d) Hepatitis B
5) Which of the following can cause urinary tract infection______________
a) Treponema pallidum b) Clostridium perfringens
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae d) Proteus vulgaris
6) ______________ is NOT a viral disease.
a) Hepatitis A b) Rabies c) Syphilis d) HIV
7) Swarming growth on agar is characteristic feature of ______________
a) Vibrio cholerae b) Proteus vulgaris
c) E. coli d) Pseudomonas aerugenosa
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 275 *SLRW275*
8) Sulphonamides are inhibitor of ______________ synthesis.

a) Folic acid b) Vitamin B12 c) Protein d) Peptidoglycan
9) Incubation period of hepatitis B virus is ______________
a) 2-6 weeks b) 6-10 days c) 2-6 years d) 2-6 months
10) Penicillin antibiotic acts on ______________ synthesis.
a) Cell wall b) Nucleic acid
c) Protein d) Cell membrane

1) List four antibiotics
2) β -lactamase
3) Leprosy
4) Mode of action of Tetracycline
5) Gram staining
6) Give four examples of opportunities infections in HIV
7) Significance of germ tube test.

1) Spread of Rabies
2) Cultural and biochemical characters of Klebsiella pneumoniae
3) Organisms causing hospital infection.
B) Write in brief on “Antibiotic sensitivity testing”. 4

1) Diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori infection.
2) Explain with examples, mechanism of antibiotic resistance.
3) Diagnosis of AIDS.

1) Properties of ideal antibiotic
2) Difference between Hepatitis A and B.
3) Symptoms of Cholera.
_____________
*SLRW277* SLR-W 277
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Special Paper XVI : Data Communications and Networking II

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) ________ partition is used to hold kernel of LINUX.
a) Root b) Boot c) Swap d) Home
2) _____ is used in the delivery of voice communications and multimedia
sessions on the internet.
a) GPRS b) VOIP c) GPS d) GSM
3) In _______ the claimant must identify himself to the verifier.
a) Message authentication b) Message integrity
c) Entity authentication d) Message nonrepudiation
4) The ______ is called a connectionless, unreliable transport protocol.
a) TCP b) RARP c) ARP d) UDP
5) _______ role is used for authentication and installs active directory on the
server.
a) Domain controller b) Web server
c) File server d) Terminal server
6) _______ is a web server of LINUX.
a) TUX b) SQUID c) SAMBA d) DIG
7) _________ is used to translate the protocols and communicate on two dissimilar
networks.
a) Bridges b) Switches c) Routers d) Gateways
P.T.O.
SLR-W 277 *SLRW277*
8) For securing network user authentication is handled at the ______ layer.

a) Data link b) Transport c) Network d) Application
9) Class _________ addresses were designed for multicasting.
a) B b) C c) D d) A
10) ________ operates at the physical as well as data link layers of the OSI
protocol hierarchy.
a) Bridges b) Routers c) Switches d) Hubs

1) Why terminal server role is added in windows server ?
2) What is multiport bridge ?
3) What is the use of postfix mail server of LINUX ?
4) Which are the various control flags in TCP segment ?
5) What is meant by encryption and decryption ?
6) What is meant by well-known and ephemeral port number ?
3. A) Answer the following (any 2) : 6

1) Which are the various types of VPN ?
2) What is proxy ARP ?
3) Which are the categories of cryptographic algorithm ?
B) Explain useradd, usermod, userdel commands of LINUX server. 4

1) Why dig server is used in LINUX ?
2) Explain SNMP in detail.
3) Explain repeaters in detail.

1) Explain logon script in detail.
2) Explain remote sensing in detail.
3) Explain audio compression in detail.
_____________
Seat
No.

ENGLISH (Compulsory) (New)
Breakthrough
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) The action of the story whitewashing the fence takes place on _____ morning.
a) Monday b) Saturday c) Sunday d) Friday
2) The work that had always been hateful in Toms eyes was
a) bringing oil from the shop
b) whitewashing the feuce
c) painting pictures
d) bringing water from town pump
3) The price of the necklace that mathilde lost was
a) Forty Francs
b) Thirty-six francs
c) Five hundred francs
d) Thirty-six thousand francs
4) Pyramus and Thisbe belong to
a) Babylonia b) Somalia c) Syria d) Romania
5) The poem In the Bazaars of Hydrabad is
a) a lyric b) a sonnet c) an elegy d) an ode
6) _______ is referred to as an auspicious queen in the poem On Virtue.
a) Virtue b) Wisdom c) Chastity d) Glory
7) The tag question for the sentence Somebody left the book on the table is
a) did they ? b) did he ?
c) didnt he ? d) didnt they ?
P.T.O.
SLR-W 278 -2- *SLR-W278*
8) The sentence It was raining, yet we went shopping is a
a) simple sentence b) complex sentence
c) compound sentence d) None of the above
9) The man whom I met yesterday was a musician. The underlined clause is
a) a noun clause
b) a relative clause
c) an adverbial clause
d) a prepositional clause
10) The sentence Does Kiran play the Sitar? is
a) a yes/no question
b) a WH question
c) a rhetorical question
d) an imperative sentence
2. Answer any five of the following questions in short : 10

1) Why was Mathilde unhappy ?
2) How did Loisel and Mathilde replace the necklace ?
3) How did Tom persuade Jim to help with his task ?
4) What was Toms great magnificient inspiration ?
5) Why did Pyramus and Thisbe kill themselves ?
6) What message does Thomas Bulfinch convey through the story pyramus and
thisbe ?

1) How is Wisdom described in On Virtue ?
2) What are the merchants selling in the Bazaars of Hydrabad ?
3) What kind of music is being played in the Bazaars of Hydrabad ?
B) Answer any two of the following : 4
1) Write the important tips on time management.
2) Imagine you have failed the V semester of compulsory English paper.
How will you manage stress and overcome the failure ?
3) Your sister has lost her laptop in her classroom. She is under depreciation.
How will you help your sister to solve the problem ?
*SLR-W278* -3- SLR-W 278
4. A) You travelled to Mumbai for attending an interview. During the journey by

train you were introduced to a fellow passenger coming from Pune. Describe
the person you met during this journey by throwing light on his personality
traits. 10
OR
B) Write a description of a national hockey-player you watched at an interview
programme on T.V. conducted by the TV anchor, by describing his personal
qualities, attitudes, speech etc.
5. Read the following passage and write one-third summary of it. 10
Trees give shade for the benefits of others and while they themselves stand in
the sun and endure scorching heat, they produce the fruit by which others profit.
The character of good men is like that of trees. What is the use of this perishable
body, if no use of it is made for the benefit of mankind ? Sandalwood the more
it is rubbed the more scent does it yield. Sugarcane the more it is peeled and
cut into pieces, the more juice does it produce. Gold the more it is burnt, the
more brightly does it shine. The men who are noble at heart do not lose these
qualities even in losing their lives. What does it matter whether men praises
them or not ? What difference does it make whether riches abide with them or
not ? What does it signify whether they die at this moment or whether their lives
prolonged ? Happen what may, those who tread in the right path will not set foot
in any other. Life itself is unprofitable to a man who does not live for others. To
live for the mere shake of living ones life is to live the life of dogs and cows.
Those who lay down their lives for the shake of a friend or even for the sake of a
stranger, will assuredly dwell forever in a world of bliss.
_________________
*SLRW279* SLR-W 279
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester VI) (New) Examination, 2016

PHYSICS (Special Paper XIII)
Electrodynamics
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

ii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iii) Draw neat diagram whenever necessary.

i) The trajectory of charged particle in mutually perpendicular crossed electric
and magnetic field is
a) Cycloid b) Parabola c) Circular d) Straight
ii) Electric field intensity -

in terms of scalar potential
is given by
a) -
b) -
c) -
d) -
iii) Generation of motional emf is the principle of

a) Battery b) Generator
c) Photovoltaic cell d) Invertor
iv) Self inductance per unit length of a long solenoid with n turns per unit length
and cross-sectional area A is
a)

n A
b)

n A
c)

n A
d)

n A
v) The equation of continuity is in accordance with the law of conservation of

a) Charge b) Energy c) Momentum d) Current
vi) Mathematical formulation of empirical laws in electricity and magnetism are
known as
a) Faradays equations b) Maxwells equations
c) Lorentzs equations d) Amperes equations
P.T.O.
SLR-W 279 -2- *SLRW279*
vii) The plane electromagnetic waves are attenuated exponentially in

a) Dielectrics b) Semiconductors
c) Conductors d) Vacuum
viii) Electric ( ) and magnetic ( ) field vectors are mutually perpendicular to
- 0
a) Polarization vector 2
b) Magnetization vector ( M )
c) Displacement vector ,
d) Propagation vector ( K )
ix) When wave gets reflected from a surface of a denser medium, there occurs
a phase change of
a) 180° b) 270° c) 90° d) 0°
x) Total power radiated by electric dipole is proportional to
a) Square of frequency b) Fourth power of frequency
c) Square root of frequency d) Frequency

i) Write the Gauss law in integral and differential forms.
ii) Define the self inductance of a coil and give its unit.
iii) State Biot and Savart law.
iv) State Poynting theorem.
v) Write the equations for transmission and reflection co-efficients.
vi) Define the retarded time.

i) Explain mutual inductance and derive Newmanns formula.
ii) For plane electromagnetic wave in vacuum, obtain relation between , - 0
and and compute the wave impedance of free space.

K
iii) Write a note on total internal reflection.
B) For sea water

= 4.2 mho/m at a frequency of 50 kHz, calculate the skin depth.
(Given :
=4
× 107 H/m). 4
*SLRW279* -3- SLR-W 279

i) Define emf and obtain a general expression for the motional emf. Explain the
Faradays law.
ii) Obtain boundary conditions for electromagnetic vectors ,
, -
, *
and 0
at
interface of two media.
iii) Obtain an expression for total power radiated by an electric dipole.

i) Show that a charged particle moves along a circular path with a constant
speed in an uniform magnetic field ( ).
*
ii) State Maxwells equations in vacuum giving meaning of each term. Explain
the physical significance of Maxwells equations.

*SLRW280* SLR-W – 280
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – III (Semester – VI) (New) Examination, 2016

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper – XIII)
Physical Chemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

ii) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for each of the following and rewrite the
sentence : 10
i) Triethylamine water system is an example of a _________ solution
temperature.
a) Minimum b) Maximum
c) Maximum-minimum d) All of these
ii) The liquid mixtures which distill with change in composition are called
_________
a) Azeotropic mixtures b) Azeotropes
c) Boiling mixtures d) Zeotropic mixtures
iii) Rotational spectra are observed in ________________ infrared region.
a) Near b) Far c) Middle d) None of these
iv) ________________ is the fundamental equation in spectroscopy.
C
a) γ = b) I = μr 2 c) ΔE = hγ d) E = mc2
D
v) The energy of oscillating molecule present in the lowest vibrational level is
known as _____________
a) Vibrational point energy b) First point energy
c) Zero point energy d) Oscillating energy
vi) The term fugacity has dimensions _____________
a) Pressure b) Volume c) Temperature d) Concentrations
vii) For a thermodynamic spontaneous process at constant P and T, ΔG is
___________
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 280 *SLRW280*
viii) The equation w m = RTlnK p + ΔnRT represents ______________

a) Van’t Hoff isotherm b) Clapeyron equation
c) Van’t Hoff isochore d) Arrhenius equation
ix) Rate of reaction __________ with increase in temperature.
a) Decreases b) Remain same c) Increases d) All of these
( )
x) For third order reaction, half life period t 1 = ___________
2
1 2 3 0.6931
a) b) c) d)
3a 3ak 2 a 2k k
i) What are ideal solution ?
ii) How bond length (ro) of diatomic molecule is calculated ?
iii) What is fugacity ?
iv) Describe variation of Gibb’s function with pressure at constant temperature.
v) What is temperature coefficient ?
vi) What are simultaneous reactions ?

i) What is Raoult’s law ?
ii) What are the applications of Clapeyron-Clausis equation ?
iii) Describe in brief the parallel reactions.
B) The bond length of NO molecule is 1.151 × 10 –10 m. Calculate rotational
constant of pure NO molecule, if its reduced mass is 1.24 × 10 –26 kg. 4

i) Describe in brief vibrational spectra of diatomic molecule.
ii) Derive thermodynamically Van’t Hoff reaction isochore.
iii) What is temperature effect on rate of reaction ?

i) Discuss miscible liquid pairs system with boiling point minimum.
ii) Describe collision theory for the determination of energy of activation.
iii) Calculate free energy change accompanying the reaction, H2 + Br2 2 HBr
at 607 k, if equilibirum constant of the reaction is 40.5.
_____________________
*SLRW281* -1- SLR-W – 281
SLR-W – 281
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) (New) Examination, 2016

BOTANY (Special Paper – XIII)
Microbiology and Plant Pathology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

iii) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
alternatives : (1×10=10)
i) ____________ are the prokaryotic organisms.
a) BGA and Actinomycetes b) MLBs
c) Bacteria d) All the above
ii) PDA is ____________ culture medium.
a) Synthetic b) Semi synthetic
c) Natural d) Both a) and b)
iii) Cocci bacteria are ____________ in shape.
a) Rod shaped b) Spherical
c) Filamentous d) Helical
iv) Inoculation chamber can be sterilized by
a) Applying alcohol b) Using UV tube
c) Sun drying d) Both a) and b)
v) Additional genome of a bacterial cell is known as
a) Vector b) Endospore
c) Plasmid d) All the above
vi) Rust disease of Mango is caused by ____________ pathogen.
a) Algal b) Fungal
c) Bacterial d) MLBs
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 281 -2- *SLRW281*
vii) Pseudomonas solanacearum causes ____________ disease.

a) Leaf curl of chilli b) Bangadi disease of potato
c) Grain smut of Jowar d) GSD
viii) Vascular wilt disease spreads through
a) Soil b) Water c) Air d) Both a) and b)
ix) MLBs are without
a) Cell wall b) Cell organelles
c) Ribosomes d) Both a) and b)
x) ____________ are fermented food products.
a) Idli b) Shoyu
c) Dosa d) All the above

i) Define sterilization.
ii) What are microbes ?
iii) Give the symptoms of Anthracnose of Bean.
iv) Define hypertrophy.
v) What are soil borne diseases ?
vi) State the names of microbes used in alcohol production.

i) Describe the general characters of bacteria.
ii) Give the symptoms of leaf curl of chilli.
iii) Give the method of preparation of curd.
B) Add a note on biopesticides. 4

i) Describe the techniques of isolation of soil fungi by soil dilution method.
ii) Write the symptoms, cause and control measures of downy mildew of bajra.
iii) Classify plant diseases based on the symptoms.

i) Describe the chemical methods of sterilization.
ii) Describe the method of preparation of liquid culture medium.
iii) Explain the production of alcohol by fermentation method.
_____________________
*SLRW282* SLR-W 282
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper XIII) (New)
Physiology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

2) Figures to the right indicate marks.
1. Multiple choice questions : 10
1) Water soluble vitamin is
a) Vit. B b) Vit. A c) Vit. K d) Vit. D
2) The emulsification fat is carried by ___________ juice.
a) Intestinal b) Gastric c) Bile d) Pancreatic
3) Blood pressure in healthy person is __________ mm Hg.
a) 80/120 b) 120/80
c) 140/160 d) 90/60
4) Auricular systole and diastole lasts for about
a) 0.2 sec b) 0.4 sec c) 0.3 sec d) 0.1 sec
5) Rickets caused due to deficiency of ________ Vitamin.
a) Vit. D b) Vit. K
c) Vit. C d) Vit. E
6) Hamberger phenomenon is called as ________ shift.
a) Nitrate b) Phosphate c) Chloride d) Bicarbonate
7) _________ is the waste product produced in Ornithine cycle.
a) Urea b) Ammonia
c) Creatinine d) Creatine
P.T.O.
SLR-W 282 *SLRW282*
8) HCl is secreted by
a) Chief cells b) Neck cells
c) Oxyntic cells d) Argentaffin cells
9) _______ is called antisterility Vitamin.
a) Vit. D b) Vit. K
c) Vit. E d) Vit. A
10) Bowmans capsules are located in ________ region of kidney.
a) Cortex b) Medulla
c) Pelvic d) Calyx
1) Definition of digestion.
2) Draw neat labelled diagram of nerve cell.
3) Physiological role of Vit. C.
4) Composition of gastric juice.
5) Protein as a nutritional requirement.
6) Physiological response of Yoga on respiration.
1) ECG.
2) Vitamin E.
3) Structure of striated muscle.
B) Ultrafiltration in Kidney. 4
1) Cardiac cycle.
2) Vitamin D sources and importance.
3) Structure of malpighian body.
1) Describe Krebs cycle in detail.
2) Describe physiology of urine formation.
_______________
*SLRW283* SLR-W – 283
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XIII)
Metric Spaces

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) If l2 are the set of all sequences x = (xn) and y = (yn) we define
1
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
d (x, y) = ⎢ ∑ (x n − y n ) ⎥ by triangle in equality
⎣n = 1 ⎦
1 1 1
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
a) ⎢ ∑ (x k − y k ) ⎥ ≤ ⎢ ∑ (x k − zk ) ⎥ + ⎢ ∑ (zk − y k ) ⎥
⎣k = 1 ⎦ ⎣k = 1 ⎦ ⎣k = 1 ⎦
1 1 1
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
b) ⎢ ∑ (x k − y k ) ⎥ ≤ ⎢ ∑ (x k − y k ) ⎥ + ⎢ ∑ (y k − zk ) ⎥
⎣k = 1 ⎦ ⎣k = 1 ⎦ ⎣k = 1 ⎦
1 1 1
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
⎡∞ 2⎤
2
c) ⎢ ∑ (x k − y k ) ⎥ ≤ ⎢ ∑ (x k − y k ) ⎥ + ⎢ ∑ (x k − zk ) ⎥
⎣k = 1 ⎦ ⎣k = 1 ⎦ ⎣k = 1 ⎦
d) None of these
⎧ 1 1 ⎫
2) The subset of ⎨1, , , ....⎬ of the real line has ____________ as a limit
⎩ 2 3 ⎭
point.
1
a) 1 b) 0 c) ∞ d)
2
3) The set Q of all rational number is ____________ in R.
a) Closed b) Open c) Not closed d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 283 -2- *SLRW283*
⎛ 1⎤
4) Let X be the set of real line R and let Fn = ⎜ 0, ⎥ then nlim d (Fn ) =
⎝ n⎦ →∞
____________
1 1
a) 0 b) c) 1 d)
n 2
1
5) Let f : (0, 1] → R be defined as f ( x) = , the f is continuous on ____________
x
a) [0, 1] b) [0, 1) c) (0, 1] d) (0, 1)
6) Let f : R → R and a ∈ R. If f is continuous at x = a then
a) W [f ; a] < 0 b) W [f : a] = 0
c) W (F ; a) > 0 d) W [f ; a] = a
7) Every compact metric space is
a) Complete and totally bounded b) Complete and not bounded
c) Bounded and not complete d) Complete and not totally bounded
8) Let A = [0, 1) and B = (1, 2] and R be a metric space with discrete metric ‘d’
then d (A, B) = ______________
1
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d)
2
9) Closed subset of compact metric space is ______________
a) Closed b) Open c) Compact d) Complete
10) The mapping ρ : R × R → R be defined by ρ (x, y) = |x – y|; x, y ∈ R then
ρ is called
a) Absolute value metric b) Discrete metric
c) Pseudo metric d) None of these

1) Prove that a convergent sequence has a unique limit.
2) Let A be subset of l2 space consisting of the points e1 = (1, 0, 0, ...),
e2 = (0, 1, 0, 0, ...), e3 = (0, 0, 1, ...) ______________, then A is bounded but
it is not totally bounded sets.
3) Let E be a closed and bounded, then a set E in R with absolute value metric is
compact.
*SLRW283* -3- SLR-W – 283
4) Prove that the inerval [a, b) is neither open nor closed.

5) Define totally bounded sets.
6) If A is a closed subset of a compact metric space (X, d), then the metric
space (A, d) is compact.

1) If F1 and F2 are closed subset of metric space M, then prove that F1 ∪ F2
is closed.
2) The open interval E = (0, 1) on the real line with absolute value metric is
not compact.
3) Let (M, ρ ) be metric space and let a be point in M. If lim f ( x) = L and
x→a
lim g (x ) = N then lim ( f (x ) ⋅ g (x ) ) = L ⋅ N .

x→a x→a
B) If E is any subset of metric space M then E is closed. 4

1) If A is totally bounded subset of (X, d) then A is totally bounded.
2) The real valued function f is continuous at a ∈ R′ iff given ε > 0 ∃ δ > 0
such that f ( x) − f (a) < ε ∀ x − a < δ .
3) Let l2 be the set of all sequences x = (xn) of real number such that
∞
∑ | xn |2 < ∞ . If x = (xn) and y = (yn) are in l2, we shall define ‘d’ for l2 as
n= 1
1
⎛ ∞ 2⎞
2
d ( x, y ) = ⎜⎜ ∑ (x n − y n ) ⎟⎟ prove that (l2, d) is metric space.
⎝n =1 ⎠

1) Let (M, ρ ) be complete metric space, if T is contraction on M, then there is
one and only one point x in M such that Tx = x.
2) If f is continuous at a ∈ R′ iff { xn }n∞ = 1 be any sequence of real number
converges to a, we shall must show that nlim f ( xn ) = f (a) .

→∞
_____________
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper XIII)
Statistical Inference II
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


i) For a large sample, 95% confidence limits for
of f(x, ) = eax , x
0 are

a) b)
1 . 9 6 X
1 . 9 6

1 / n
1 X

c) d) None of these
1 . 9 6 1

1 .

n X

ii) Which of the following is correct if P(5.25

20.25) = 0.95
a) 5.25 and 20.25 are 95% confidence limits
b) The length of the confidence interval is 20
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
iii) For finding the confidence interval of the ratio of variances of two normal
populations, the distribution used is
a)
b) F c) t d) None of these
iv) A test T which is atleast as powerful as any other test of the same size is
known as
a) M.P. test b) U.M.P. test c) L.R. test d) None of these
v) Test of H0 : = 70 against H1 :
> 70 leads to
a) left tailed test b) right tailed test
c) two tailed test d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W 284 -2- *SLR-W284*
vi) Neyman Pearson lemma provides
a) Unbiased C.R.
b) Admissible C.R.
c) Minimal C.R.
d) Most powerful C.R.
vii) A sequence of symbols shows lack of randomness if there are
a) Too many runs b) Too few runs
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) or b)
viii) Which of the following is applicable to paired data ?
a) The sign test
b) The median test
c) Wilcoxons signed rank test
d) Both a) and c)
ix) The ratio of likelihood function under H0 and the entire parametric space is
called
a) Probability ratio
b) Sequential probability test
c) Likelihood ratio
d) None of these
x) In Sequential Probability Ratio Test (SPRT) the sample is
a) fixed b) a random variable
c) fixed but small d) fixed but large
2. Explain the following terms any five : 10

i) Simple and composite hypothesis.
ii) Null and alternative hypothesis.
iii) Size of a test.
iv) Most powerful test.
v) Pivotal quantity.
vi) One sided confidence interval.
*SLR-W284* -3- SLR-W 284
i) A single observation is taken from the distribution having p.d.f. f(x, ) = ;

0<x< to test the hypothesis H0 :

= 1 against H 1 : = 2. The
hypothesis H0 is rejected if the observed value is greater than or equal to

0.8. Find the probability to Type I and Type II error.
ii) If x1, x 2, ...., xn is a random sample from a distribution having p.d.f.
f(x, ) = .x 1 ; 0 < x < 1. Show that a B.C.R. for testing H0 : = 1

against H1 :
= 2 is
:
i
+ .
i 1
iii) Obtain 100(1
)% confidence interval for the parameter
in case of
N( ,

) distribution when
is known.
B) Explain Wilcoxons signed rank test for paired observations. 4
i) Obtain the SPRT for testing H0 : =
0
against H1 :
=
1
(>
0
) in sampling
from f(x, ) = e x; x 0, > 0.

ii) Explain run test for two samples.

iii) Describe the procedure of median test.

i) Derive the likelihood ratio test for testing H0 :
=
0
against H 1 :

when a sample of size n is taken from N( ,

).
ii) State and prove Neyman-Pearson lemma.
_________________
*SLRW285* SLR-W – 285
Seat
No.
B.Sc. – (Part – III) (Semester – VI) Examination, 2016

GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XIII) (New)
Principles of Stratigraphy and Crystallography & Earth’s History

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1) There are __________ elements of symmetry to describe any crystal.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
2) Flat surface of a crystal is called as _________
a) face b) edge c) solid angle d) corner
3) Two faces of a crystal meets to form an __________
a) corner b) solid angle c) center d) edge
4) Cube is ___________ form.
a) open b) closed c) combination d) twin
5) Basal pinacoid have ___________ faces.
a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 3
6) The study of space and time of layered rocks is called __________
a) petrology b) geology c) stratigraphy d) mineralogy
7) There are main ___________ principles of stratigraphy.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 10
8) James Hutton presented the ___________ principle of stratigraphy.
a) order of super position b) uniformitarianism
c) faunal succession d) time
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 285 *SLRW285*
9) William Smith suggested the principle of ____________

a) order of super position b) uniformitarianism
c) faunal succession d) time
10) In an order of superposition principle ____________ beds are at top.
a) youngest b) oldest c) younger d) older

1) Define crystal.
2) Define form of a crystal.
3) What is element of symmetry ? Describe elements of symmetry.
4) Describe planes of symmetry of a cube.
5) What is stratigraphy ?
6) What is Geological Time Scale ?
1) Describe axes of symmetry of a Cube.
2) Describe elements of symmetry of Monoclinic system crystal. Describe
Clino-pinacoid.
3) Describe basal pinacoids of Hexagonal and Tetragonal system.
B) Write answer of any one of the following : 4
1) Describe principle of order of superposition.
2) Draw and describe Dodecahedron.

1) Describe principle of Uniformitarianism.
2) Sketch and describe Cube and Octahedron combination form.
3) Sketch and describe Tetragonal Prism of 1st and 2 nd orders.

1) Describe principle of Faunal Succession.
2) Draw the diagrams and describe Trapezohedron and Tris-octa hedron.
3) Draw the diagrams and describe Macropinacoid and Brachy Pinacoid.
_________________
*SLRW286* SLR-W – 286
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY
Microbial Genetics (Special Paper – XIII)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the sentences after choosing correct answer from the given alternatives : 10
1) The conversion of a gene’s nucleotide sequence into a protein is called
as _____________
A) Replication B) Gene expression
C) Transcription D) Translation
2) Helix unwinding during replication is accomplished by ______________
A) DNA helicases B) DNA gyrase
C) DNA polymerase I D) DNA polymerase II
3) The exact point where nucleotides are being added to growing daughter
strands during DNA replication are called _______________
A) The origin B) The double helix
C) The template D) The replication fork
4) ____________ is the best description of a gene.
A) A molecule of DNA
B) A nucleotide
C) A sequence of DNA nucleotides that codes for a single protein
D) A molecule of RNA
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 286 -2- *SLRW286*
5) ___________ is the function of transfer RNA (tRNA).

A) It “transfers” the information encoded in a gene to a ribosome
B) It forms part of a ribosome’s structure
C) It permits mRNA to detach from the ribosome when protein synthesis is
complete
D) It carries amino acids into a growing protein chain, as specified by codons
in the mRNA
6) The plasmid vectors which are designed to replicate in two different hosts
are called as ___________
A) Shuttle vactors B) Plasmids
C) Cosmid D) Replacement vactors
7) Different forms of the same gene are called as ____________
A) Alleles B) Gametes
C) Genotypes D) Recombined genes
8) Mutations arising from insertion or deletion of nucleotides are called ________
A) Suppressor mutations B) Base pair substitutions
C) Frame shift mutations D) Spontaneous mutations
9) The initial source for all genetic variation is ____________
A) Sexual reproduction B) Mutation
C) Conjugation D) Transformation
10) The flow of genetic message in microbial cells usually takes place
from _________
A) DNA through RNA to proteins
B) Proteins through RNA to DNA
C) RNA through DNA to proteins
D) None of these

i) Write down the corresponding sequence (DNA) of a gene for following mRNA
sequence
UUUCAGACUG
ii) Define DNA sequencing.
iii) What is Phagemid ?
*SLRW286* -3- SLR-W – 286
iv) What is operon ?

v) Define R DNA technology.
vi) Define genotype.
vii) What is palindrome sequence ?

a) Give brief account of DNA Finger printing.
b) Draw a diagram showing structure of Lac- Operon.
c) Mutation in bacteriophages.
B) Describe briefly Folded fiber model of E coli chromosome. 4

i) Give the detailed account of time course of phenotypic expression of mutation.
ii) Briefly explain concept and applications of protein engineering.
iii) Describe briefly selection and detection of mutants.

i) Discuss briefly the “Cis Trans test”.
ii) Describe briefly the process of replication.
iii) Give the detail account of Maxam and Gilbert’s method of sequencing.
_____________________

*SLRW287* SLR-W – 287

Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester – VI) Examination, 2016

ELECTRONICS
Power Electronics (Special Paper – XIII) (New)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

4) Use of logarithmic table and calculator is allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative for the following. 10

i) Parallel connections of SCR’s is used to improve _________ rating.
a) Current b) Voltage
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
ii) Power MOSFET is a
a) Current controlled device b) Voltage controlled device
c) Field controlled device d) Both (b) and (c)
iii) __________ is programmable in PUT.
a) Gate current b) Load current
c) Anode voltage d) None of these
iv) __________ is important component in the SCR commutation circuit.
a) Resistor b) Inductor
c) Capacitor d) All of these
v) A free wheeling diode is used in controlled rectifier in case of
a) inductive load b) resistive load
c) capacitive load d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 287 -2- *SLRW287*
vi) The duty cycle of chopper is
Toff Ton Ton + Toff

a) Ton + Toff b) c) d)
Ton Ton + Toff Toff
vii) SMPS means

a) Single Mode Power Supply b) Switched Mode Power Supply
c) Series Mode Power Supply d) Shunt Mode Power Supply
viii) Reverse recovery current depends on
a) Storage charge b) Temperature
c) Peak inverse voltage d) Forward current
ix) The minimum value of current required to maintain conduction in thyristor is
called
a) breakover current b) holding current
c) gate trigger current d) latching current
x) _________ is used for DC power to AC power conversion.
a) Inverter b) Chopper c) Rectifier d) Amplifier

i) Explain the need of heat sink.
ii) Sketch equivalent circuit of IGBT.
iii) What is chopper ?
iv) Explain the principle of phase control.
v) Compare natural and forced commutation.
vi) State the applications of inverter.

i) Explain class A commutation method for SCR.
ii) Explain working of series inverter.
iii) Explain principle of DC Motor.
B) Write a short note on UPS. 4

*SLRW287* -3- SLR-W – 287

i) Explain switching characteristics of power BJT.
ii) Explain SCR turn on circuit using UJT.
iii) Explain basic chopper circuit.

i) Describe single phase half wave controlled rectifier with resistive load.
ii) Give classification of inverters. Explain principle and working of parallel
inverter.
_______________
*SLRW288* SLR-W – 288
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
(Special Paper – XIII) Web Technology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) ____________ of the following is not Authentication mode used in ASP.NET.
a) Passport b) Windows c) Server d) Forms
2) ____________ is client side state management technique.
a) Application b) QueryString c) ClientState d) Session
3) ____________ is first event triggers by an ASP.Net page.

a) Load b) Render c) Init d) Click
4) To cancel editing in gridview; ____________ property is used.

a) EditIndex = – 1 b) EditIndex = 0
c) CancelEditing = 1 d) CancelEditing = – 1
5) ____________ directives’s duration attribute specifies how long the page is cached.
a) @Catch b) @OutputCatch c) @Page d) @Register
6) ____________ property of multiview control is used to display specific view.
a) ViewIndex b) DisplayView
c) ActiveViewIndex d) DisplayViewIndex
7) For specifying pattern in RegularExpressionValidation control,____________

property is issued.
a) ValidationExpression b) Pattern
c) RegularExpression d) PatternExpression P.T.O.
SLR-W – 288 *SLRW288*
8) _______ layout of the list control display list items like a word processing document.
a) Table b) Word c) Column d) Flow
9) ____________ method of data adapter is used to load data into dataset.

a) Load b) Fill c) Get d) DataFill
10) Authorization technique uses Role Provider.

a) True b) False
2. Answer the following (any 5): 10

1) What is self-page and cross page posting ?
2) What is Namespace ? Explain which namespace is used for file related and
drawing related program.
3) Explain Hidden field state management technique.
4) Explain TextBox Control.
5) What is Authentication and Authorization ?
6) Explain connection string object.
3. A) Answer the following (any 2) : 6

1) Explain Web page life cycle in detail.
2) Explain custom validation control with example.
3) Differentiate ASP and ASP.Net.
B) Explain need of master pages and design simple master page. 4

1) What is Server side state management ? Explain session state management in detail.
2) Design web page which insert, delete and update records in database.
3) Explain different page directive’s used in ASP.Net.

1) What is membership provider ? Explain in detail.
2) Design web page which display 10 friends birthday in calender control.
3) What is Themes and Skins ? Explain in detail.
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRW289* SLR-W – 289
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XIV)
Material Science

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Select the correct alternative. 10
i) Applied force per unit cross-sectional area of a body is called
a) stress b) strain c) hardness d) creep
ii) Electrical conductivity is the reciprocal of
a) voltage b) current c) resistivity d) capacity
iii) Polymers are long chain organic macromolecules having _________ as a
common element in their structure.
a) hydrogen b) nitrogen c) sodium d) carbon
iv) ___________ polymer is prepared by condensation polymerization.
a) Teflon b) Rubber c) Styrene d) Nylon
v) Ceramics normally exhibits ________ nature.
a) ductile b) brittle c) soft d) elastic
vi) Thermal conductivity of ceramics is
a) infinite b) greater than metals
c) less than metals d) same as metal
vii) The strength of composite is
a) low b) high c) zero d) negative
viii) The combination of two or more materials is called
a) composites b) non-linear c) nano d) magnetic
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 289 -2- *SLRW289*
ix) When grain size reduces to nano scale, then the material becomes
a) stronger and harder b) soften and ductile
c) low strength d) elastic and plastic
x) The materials which find application in the field of medicine are called
a) nano materials b) biomaterials
c) non linear materials d) magnetic

i) Define specific heat and state its unit.
ii) What is degree of polymerization ?
iii) Give any four examples of ceramics.
iv) Give any four characteristics of composites.
v) Explain any one type of synthesis of nanostructured material.
vi) What is biomechanism ?
i) Explain fibre-reinforced composite.
ii) Explain properties of nanostructured materials.
iii) Write note on processing of biomaterials.
B) Explain polymerization mechanism. 4

i) What is ceramics ? Explain Rock Salt (NaCl) structure with suitable diagram.
ii) Explain formation of thin film by chemical bath deposition method.
iii) Explain applications of biomaterials.
5. Attempt any one of the following. 10
i) Explain classification of materials in detail. Explain electrical properties of
materials.
ii) Explain fabrication processes of polymers and give important properties of
polymers.
————————
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
Inorganic Chemistry (Special Paper XIV)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

2) Draw neat diagram and give equation wherever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternative for the following and rewrite sentence : 10
1) Name of the element with atomic number 113 is
a) Un-un-trium b) Di-un-trium
c) Untrium d) Trium-un-un
2) Idea of superconductor was introduced by
a) Kamerlingh Onnes b) Bloch
c) Pauling d) Drude
3) In XeF2 molecule Xe shows _______ hybridization.
a) Sp b) Sp2 c) Sp3 d) Sp3d
4) Nickel carbonyl has _____ structure.
a) Octahedral b) Tetrahedral
c) Square planar d) Trigonal bipyramidal
5) Atmospheric corrosion involves ________ heterogeneous system.
a) Solid solid b) Solid gas
c) Liquid gas d) Liquid solid
6) Borazine undergoes _______ reaction.
a) Substitution b) Addition c) Reduction d) Oxidation
7) Most of actions shows ______ oxidation states.
a) + III b) + IV c) + VI d) + II
8) The terminal B H bondlength is ______ in diborane.
a) 120 pm b) 123 pm c) 118 pm d) 119 pm P.T.O.
9) As the temperature increases the conductivity of semiconductors
c) Remain same d) First increases and then decreases
10) ______ is the best general method of preparation of TU elements.
a) Heavy-ion bombardment b) Accelerated projectile
c) Neutron capture B-decay d) None of these

1) Draw a neat labelled diagram showing the mechanism of electrochemical
corrosion.
2) Describe the synthesis of alkyl-alluminium compounds.
3) Mention methods of separation of lanthanides.
4) Define Immersed corrosion.
5) How will you synthesize borazine from diborane ?
6) What are the application of superconductors ?

1) Discuss the structural study of alkyl-lithium compounds.
2) Explain intrinsic semiconductors.
3) Discuss the structure of SO2 molecule.
B) Write a note on oxide film-theory of passivity. 4
4. Write notes on any two of the following : 10

1) Give the detailed electronic configuration of lanthanides.
2) Describe the structure of diborane.
3) What is super-conductor ? Describe the structure of 1-2-3 superconductor.

1) Explain IUPAC nomenclature of super heavy elements with atomic number
greater than 100.
2) What is metallic bond ? Discuss free electron theory of bonding in metal.
3) Describe the structure of XeO4.
_________________
*SLRW291* SLR-W 291
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Special Paper XIV) (New)
Systematics of Angiosperms

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
alternatives : 10
1) Engler and Prantls system of classification is ________ type of classification.
a) Artificial b) Natural c) Phylogenetic d) None of these
2) Bennettitalean theory was proposed by
a) Saporta and Marion b) Wettstein
c) Markgraf d) P. Maheshwari
3) _______ flowers is treated as primitive.
a) Unisexual b) Bisexual c) Sterile d) Nuter
4) According to Engler and Prantls system class-Dicotyledonae have _______
subclass.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
5) The elongation of internode between petals and stamens is called
a) Anthophore b) Androphore c) Gynophore d) Carpophore
6) The most common embryo sac in angiosperm is ______ Nucleated.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
7) Polygonum type of embryo sac is
a) Monosporic b) Bisporic c) Tetrasporic d) None of these
8) Campanulate corolla is characteristic of family
a) Myrtaceae b) Rutaceae c) Bigononaceae d) Rubiaceae
9) ________ is an example of family myrataceae.
a) Citrus medica b) Nigela sativa
c) Psidium guajava d) Coffea arebica
10) Parachute mechanism of seed dispersal is seen in
a) Callotropis b) Climatis c) Moringa d) Terminalia
P.T.O.
SLR-W 291 *SLRW291*

1) Give any four advanced characters of flower.
2) Define palynology.
3) What is embryo sac ?
4) Sketch and label Anatropous ovule.
5) What is Dichogamy ?
6) Give distinguishing characters of family Rubiaceae.

i) Describe Gnetalean theory of Angiosperms.
ii) Write on role of anatomy in relation to taxonomy.
iii) Describe cellular endosperm.
B) Describe monosporic (Polygnum type) embryo sac. 4

i) Give outline of Engler and Prantls system of classification.
ii) Write note on dispersal of fruit and seeds.
iii) Give the distinguishing characters of any one of the following families with
economic importance.
Family-Cannaceae, Cucurbitaceae.

i) Explain Double fertilization is a triple fusion.
ii) Describe Bisporic (Allium type) embryo sac.
iii) Describe Adaptation for anemophily and hydrophily.
_____________

*SLRW292* SLR-W – 292

Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – XIV)
Endocrinology, Environmental Biology and Toxicology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence. 10
1) Excess intake of substance than organisms ability to remove it from the body
is known as
a) Bioremidiation b) Bio accumulation
c) Biodynamix d) Bio magnification
2) Long term exposure to a toxic chemical produces an effect called as ________

a) acute b) highly acute
c) sub-chronic d) chronic
3) Conservation of plants and animals in their native ecosystem is known as

__________conservation.
a) In-situ b) Ex-situ c) In-vivo d) Ex-vivo
4) Photic zone of marine water habitat is usually extended upto ___________

a) 200 b) 500 c) 10 d) 50
5) Mytilus an intertidal rocky shore marine molluscan fauna has ___________

adoption to its habitat.
a) plough like foot b) byssal thread
c) chitin plate d) hooked oral arms
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 292 -2- *SLRW292*
6) Number of sweat glands in skin of _________ mammals much reduced to
avoid water evaporation through surface.
a) desert b) aquatic c) wetland d) glaciers
7) _____________ is both exocrine and endocrin in nature.

a) Pituitary b) Thyroid c) Pancreas d) Parathyroid
8) Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone helps to __________

a) Elevate the Ca+ level in blood
b) Lowers Ca+ level in blood
c) Elevate potassium (k+) level in blood
d) Lowers potassium (k+) level in blood
9) Zona glomeruloza or glomerular area of adrenal cortex is involved in _________

a) water and electrolyte balance b) melanocyte enhancement
c) steroid inhibition d) blood pressure
10) Parathormone induces ___________

a) increase blood sugar level
b) decrease serum Ca+ level
c) increase serum Ca+ level
d) decrease blood sugar level

I) Beta cell
II) CRH
III) Endangered species
IV) LD-50
V) Virtual dissection
VI) Prostaglandin

I) Biological indicator of pollution-brief idea.
II) Hormones of Islets of Langerhans
III) Disorders of thyroid hormone.
B) Solid waste management. 4

*SLRW292* -3- SLR-W – 292

I) Hormones nature and regulation of parathyroid gland.
II) Faunal adaptation in grassland habitat animals.
III) Bioaccumulation.

I) Write on histology of adrenal gland with its hormonal secretions.
II) Describe the characteristics and faunal adaptation of marine habitat.
—————————
*SLRW293* SLR-W – 293
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XIV) (New)
Numerical Analysis

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
N.B. : 1) Use of scientific calculators are allowed.

1) If y (x) = x (x – 1) (x – 2) then Δy (x) =

a) 3x (x – 1) b) 3x (x + 1) c) 2x (x – 1) d) 2x (x + 1)
2) The (n + 1)th order difference of nth degree polynomial is

a) one b) zero c) two d) none of these
3) The value of E −1 ∇ = _____

a) ∇ − ∇ 2 b) ∇ + ∇ 2 c) ∇ − 1 d) none of these
4) The solution of (E – 1)3un = 0 is

a) un = c1 + c2n + c3n2 b) un = c1 – c2 + c3n2
c) un = c1 + c2 + c3n2 d) none of these
5) The order of difference equation yn + 2 – 2yn + 1 + yn = 0 is

a) first b) second c) third d) none of these
6) The solution of yn + 2 – 4yn + 1 + 4yn = 0 is

a) (c1 + c2n) 2n b) (c1 + c2n) 3n
c) (c1 – c2n) 23 d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 293 -2- *SLRW293*
th
⎛3⎞
7) Simpson’s ⎜ ⎟ rule is obtained by putting n = ______ in general quadrature
⎝8⎠
formula.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
1
1
8) The exact value of ∫ dx is
0 1+ x
a) 0.6931 b) 0.7031 c) 0.3169 d) 0.6831
9) If the given data is not equally spaced and interpolation is near the beginning
of the data then ______ interpolation formula is used.
a) Lagrange’s b) Newton’s divided difference
c) Newton’s forward difference d) None of these
10) Interpolation is the technique of estimating the value of a function for any
a) Intermediate value of the variable b) Intermediate value of the constant
c) Both a and b are true d) None of these
1) Evaluate Δ tan −1 x .
2) With usual notation prove that ∇ = 1 − E −1.
3) Solve the difference equation un + 3 – 5un + 1 + 6un = 0.
4) State Lagrange’s interpolation formula.
5) State Simpson’s one-third rule.
6) Define linear difference equation with constant coefficient.

1) Evaluate Δ (ex log 2x) .
2) Find the polynomial f (x) by Lagrange’s formula.
x 0 1 2 5
f (x) 2 3 12 147
6 1
3) Evaluate ∫ dx by using trapezoidal rule, take h = 1.
0 1+ x 2
2 2
B) Solve y x+1 − 3y x+1 y x + 2y x = 0 . 4
*SLRW293* -3- SLR-W – 293

1) Prove that :
a) E = ehD
b) Δ = E – 1
2) Solve yn+ 2 − 4 y n+1 + 3 y n = 5 n .
x 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 dy

3) Given that find at x = 0.4.
y 1.10517 1.22140 1.3498 1.49182 dx

1) If y = f (x) takes the values y0, y1, y2, .... yn corresponding to the values
x0, x1, x2, .... xn then prove that
p (p − 1) 2 p (p − 1) (p − 2) 3
yp = y 0 + p Δy 0 + Δ y0 + Δ y 0 + .....
2! 3!
p (p − 1) (p − 2) ..... (p − n + 1) n
+ Δ y0
n!
th
⎛3⎞ 6
4x
2) State and prove Simpson’s ⎜ ⎟ rule hence evaluate ∫ 2
dx , take h = 1.
⎝8⎠ 0 (1 + x)
_______________
*SLRW294* SLR-W – 294
Seat
No.

STATISTICS (Special Paper – XIV)
Design of Experiments

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative from the following : 10
i) If different factorial effects are confounded in different replications then it is

known as
a) Partial confounding b) Complete confounding
c) Conservative confounding d) None of these
ii) In LSD with 6 treatments having 2 missing observations, the error degrees of
freedom will be
a) 20 b) 19
c) 18 d) 17
iii) Randomization in an experiment helps to eliminate

a) Systematic influences b) Human bias
c) Dependence among observations d) All of these
iv) Error sum of squares in RBD as compared to CRD using the same material is
a) more b) less
c) equal d) none of these
v) The analysis of SPD consists of

a) Main-plot analysis b) Sub-plot analysis
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) nor b)
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 294 -2- *SLRW294*
vi) A CRD is also known as

a) non-restrictional design b) one-restrictional design
c) two-restrictional design d) none of these
vii) Local control is a device to maintain
a) Homogeneity among blocks b) Homogeneity with in blocks
c) Both a) and b) d) Neither a) nor b)
viii) An experimental design is
a) a map of experiment b) a plan of experiment
c) an architect of experiment d) none of these
ix) Missing observation in a CRD is to be
a) estimated b) guessed
c) deleted d) none of these
x) RBD is more efficient than CRD unless
a) block variation is zero
b) block variation is greater than zero
c) block variation is less than zero
d) none of these

i) Explain the terms Treatment and Experimental units.
ii) Define the efficiency of a design.
iii) Explain the principle of randomization.
iv) Describe CRD.
v) Explain the missing plot technique.
vi) Explain confounding in factorial experiment.

i) Describe LSD. Give its layout.
ii) Explain Yate’s procedure of obtaining main effects and interactions in
factorial experiment.
iii) Explain Split Plot Design (SPD).
B) What is RBD ? Give its ANOVA table. 4
*SLRW294* -3- SLR-W – 294
i) Obtain the formula for estimating efficiency of LSD over RBD when rows are
taken as blocks.
ii) Obtain the formula for estimating one missing observation in LSD.
iii) Explain the ANOVA technique for one-way classification.
i) Explain total confounding with respect to 23 factorial experiment.
ii) What is factorial experiment ? Give mathematical model and ANOVA table
for a 22 – factorial experiment arranged in RBD.
iii) Give the mathematical model, assumptions and analysis of variance table in
case of LSD.
_______________
*SLRW295* SLR-W – 295
Seat
No.
B.Sc. III (Semester – VI) (New) Examination, 2016

GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XIV)
Pre-Cambrian Stratigraphy of India

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Fill in the blanks with correct answer from given options. 10

1) Dharwarian rocks of manganese deposits occurs in Nagpur, Chhindwara and
Bhandara district have been named as
a) Iron-ore b) Sausar c) Chilpi d) None of these
2) ‘Alwar series’ belong to

3) Bundelkhand gneisses belongs to ___________ system.

a) Archean b) Cambrian c) Cuddapah d) Vindhyan
4) Bhima series is a part of ___________ Vindhyan.

a) upper b) middle c) lower d) none of these
5) The Kurnool Series is

a) of carboniferous age and is located in Karaal district of Haryana
b) of lower Vindhyan age and occurs in Andhra Pradesh
c) of Cuddapah age and occurs in Mysore
d) none of the above
6) Which one of the following series forms in the upper Cuddapah System ?
a) Papaghani b) Cheyair c) Kistna d) Kurnool
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 295 -2- *SLRW295*
7) The most common rocks in Archean System are

a) marbles b) slates
c) sandstone d) gneisses and schists
8) Eparchean unconformity is present between ________ and __________

a) Archean; Aravalli b) Archean; Dharwar
c) Archean, Cuddapah d) Archean; Vindhyan
9) Famous ‘Makrana Marble’ belongs to

c) Aravali system d) Raialo series
10) Dimondiferous sandstone beds occurring at the base of Kurnool series is

known as ________ beds.
a) Malani b) Palnad
c) Banaganapalli d) Pakhal
i) What are another names given to the Archean rocks ?
ii) What is peninsular gneiss ?
iii) Which iron ore containing rock is found in iron-ore series ?
iv) Which one of the following is younger and oldest ? Raialo series, Aravalli
system or The Banded Gneissic complex.
v) Occurrences of Bhima series.
vi) Which system in north India is equivalent of Cuddapah system ?

i) Describe Kaladgi series
ii) Explain Sakoli series
iii) Describe Fundamental gneisses.
*SLRW295* -3- SLR-W – 295
B) Write answer of any one. 4

i) Describe Ajabgarh series of Delhi system.
ii) Describe economic importance of Aravallis of Rajasthan.

i) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Bhandar and
Rewa series.
ii) Describe Delhi system.
iii) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Lower Cuddapah
System.

i) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Upper Vindhyan
System.
ii) Describe in detail economic importance of Cuddaph System.
iii) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence, lithology of Kurnool System.
___________
*SLRW296* SLR-W 296
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper XIV) (New)
Microbial Biochemistry
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
1. Rewrite the sentences by selecting correct answer from given alternatives. 10

1) Enzymes are
a) Biosensors b) Bireactors c) Biocatalysts d) Biosystems
2) When Vo =
Vmax then Km is equal to

a) Enzyme concentration b) Substrate concentration
c) ES concentration d) Product concentration
3) __________ is initiation codon.
a) AUG b) GUA c) UGA d) None of the above
4) Bioluminescent organisms are present in
a) Soil b) Air c) Fresh water d) Marine water
5) __________ acid contains pyrimidine nucleus and it is key intermediate in
pyrimidine synthesis.
a) Inosinic b) Orotic c) Acetic d) Citric
6) __________ play important role 1.4, linkage formation between

M-acetyl glucosamine and M-acetyl muramic acid.

a) C55 lipid b) C73 lipid c) C16 lipid d) C36 lipid
7) All enzymes are proteins except
a) RNA polymerase b) DNA polymerase
c) DNA ligase d) Ribozyme
P.T.O.
SLR-W 296 *SLRW296*
8) __________ is isoenzyme.
a) Alcohol dehydrogenase b) Malate dehydrogenase
c) Lactase dehydrogenase d) Citrate dehydrogenase
9) Catabolite repression was discovered by
a) Emil Fischer b) J. Monod c) Kuhne d) Koshland
10) __________ amino acid is not used in protein synthesis.
a) Methionine b) Tryptophan c) Arginine d) Citruline

1) What is luciferase ?
2) Describe carbonysomes.
3) Write on termination codons.
4) What is translation ?
5) Describe structure of nucleotide.
6) Draw general structure of pyrimidine.
7) Define operon.

1) Explain symmetry model for allosteric enzymes.
2) Write on proxmity and orientation.
3) Assimilation of carbon.
B) Write in detail on Electrophoresis. 4
4. Write answers any two of the following : 10

1) Acid base catalysis.
2) Phosphoketolase pathway.
3) Methods of immobilization.
5. Write answers any two of the following : 10

1) Extraction of enzymes.
2) ED pathway.
3) Describe protein synthesis in brief.

*SLRW297* -1- SLR-W – 297
SLR-W – 297
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper – XIV)
Advanced Communication

Time : 10.30 a.m. to. 12.30 p.m.

3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.
1. Select the correct alternatives for the following : 10

i) Total internal reflection takes place if light ray strikes the interface at an
angle ____________ critical angle.
a) Less than b) Greater than
c) Equal to d) Both a) and b)
ii) Photodiode operates with
a) Forward bias b) Reverse bias
c) Neither a) nor b) d) Either a) or b)
iii) A circular orbit around the equator with 24 hours period is called
a) Elliptical orbit b) Geostationary orbit
c) Polar orbit d) Transfer orbit
iv) Cellular telephone use ____________ type of operation.
a) Simplex b) Half duplex
c) Full duplex d) Triplex
v) The fastest LAN topology is
a) Ring b) Bus c) Star d) Tree
vi) Earth station is used
a) To control satellite position in geostationary
b) To control T.V. satellite signal
c) To transmit the T.V. signals
d) To receive the T.V. signals
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 297 -2- *SLRW297*
vii) The most common radar display is the

a) Scan b) Colour circuit
c) LCD d) Plan position indication
viii) Modem is the device
a) To receive the signal b) To transmit the signal
ix) Gunn diode is the
a) p – n junction semiconductor ordinary diode
b) microwave semiconductor device
c) photo diode semiconductor device
d) none of these
x) The master control center for a cellular telephone system is the
a) Cell site b) Mobile – telephone switching office
c) Central office d) Branch office

i) State any four application of optical fiber.
ii) What is Apogee and Perigee in elliptical orbits in satellite communication.
iii) What is the principle of working of radar ?
iv) Give application of Internet.
v) What is transmission line ?
vi) Explain digital data communication.

i) Give the types of fiber optic cable and explain any one.
ii) Explain the concept of QPSK modem.
iii) Explain working and principle of Gunn diode.
B) What is computer network ? Explain LAN and WAN. 4

i) Describe working of Klystron amplifier with neat diagram.
ii) With the help of block diagram explain QAM.
iii) With block diagram explain optical fiber communication.

i) With neat block diagram explain working of pulsed radar system.
ii) Explain with block diagram basic cellular system.
_____________________
*SLRW298* SLR-W 298
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) Examination, 2016

COMPUTER SCIENCE (Special Paper XIV) (New)
Advanced Java

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternatives : 10

1) Which package provides many event classes and listener interfaces for event
handling ?
A) java.awt
B) java.awt.Graphics
C) java.awt.event
D) none of the above
2) The ActionListener interface is used for handling action events for
A) JButton B) JCheckbox
C) JMenultem D) All of these
3) By which method you can set or change the text in a Label ?
A) setText() B) getText()
C) both A) and B) D) none of the above
4) JDBC technology-based drivers generally fit into how many categories ?
A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5
5) _____________ is used to access the stored procedures and function.
A) Statement B) Callable Statement
C) Prepared Statement D) Both A) and B)
P.T.O.
SLR-W 298 -2- *SLRW298*
6) The ResultSet.next method is used to move to the next row of the ResultSet,
making it the current row.
A) True B) False
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
7) Abbreviate the term MIME
A) Multilevel Internet Mail Extension
B) Multipurpose Internet Mail extension
C) Multiuse Information Mail Extension
D) None of the above
8) The Jsp include directive is used to include the contents of any resource it
may be
A) jsp file
B) html file
C) text file
D) all mentioned above
9) In which technology, we mix our business logic with the presentation logic ?
A) Servlet B) JSP
C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
10) EJB (Enterprise Java Bean) is used to develop which type of applications in
java ?
A) Scalable B) Robust
C) Secured D) All mentioned above

1) Define the term event and event source.
2) What is the use of ImageIcon class.
3) What are the advantages of Type-4 JDBC Driver ?
4) What are the uses of servlet ?
5) What is the use of declaration tag in jsp ? Write its syntax.
6) Define EJB. Give its applications.
*SLRW298* -3- SLR-W 298
1) Explain ResultSet interface used for JDBC.
2) Explain RadioButton and Checkbox in swing.
3) Explain the difference between doGet and doPost methods.
B) Write a short note on session management in servlet. 4
4. Solve any two : 10

1) Explain servlet life cycle.
2) Explain entity bean with example.
3) Write a program to implement ActionListener interface.

1) Write a JDBC program to insert and display employee information from a
database.
2) Explain JApplet with example using swing.
3) Write a JSP program that uses any two implicit objects.
___________
*SLRW299* -1- SLR-W – 299
SLR-W – 299
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XV) (New)
Atomic, Molecular Physics and Quantum Mechanics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

iv) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.

i) Shells are characterised by the quantum number
a) n b) l
c) ml d) ms
ii) To explain the observed doublet fine structure of spectral lines. The concept
introduced is of _____________
a) Orbital motion of electron
b) Spin motion of electron
c) Magnetic field produced at the electron
d) Spatial quantization
iii) If the coupling between l* and s* is not broken in an external magnetic field,
then we observe _____________
a) Normal Zeeman effect b) Anomalous Zeeman effect
c) Paschen-Back effect d) Stark effect
iv) The vibrational spectra occur in _____________
a) Microwave region b) Infrared region
c) Visible and UV region d) Visible region
v) To study Raman effect, the optical system must be made up of ___________
a) Glass b) CaF2
c) Calcite d) Quartz
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 299 -2- *SLRW299*
vi) If P is the momentum of particle, k is the propagation constant of the wave,

then the relation satisfy the de-Broglie relation _____________

a) k b) c) P = ω d) P =
k ω
vii) Which of the following condition will be obeyed by ψ ?
a) ψ → 0 as r → ∞ b) ψ → ∞ as r → 0
c) ψ → 0 as r → 0 d) ψ → ∞ as r → ∞
viii) The energy levels possessed by a linear harmonic oscillator are __________
a) Infinite sequence discrete energy levels
b) Exponential in nature
c) Infinite sequence of discrete equidistance energy levels
d) Continuous energy levels
ix) The zero point energy of linear harmonic oscillator is given by _____________
a) E0 = 0 b) E0 = ω
c) E0 = mc2 d) E0 = 1 ω
2
x) The momentum operator is given by _____________
∂
a) P̂x = − i ∂ b) P̂x = − i
∂x ∂t
2 ∂2 ∂
c) P̂x = d) P̂x = i
2m ∂x 2 ∂x

i) Give electronic configuration of Sodium (11Na).
ii) State Zeeman effect and write its types.
iii) What is Molecular bond ?
iv) Obtain an expression for Hamiltonian operator.
v) Explain zero point energy in brief.
vi) What is an operator ? State expression for momentum operator.
*SLRW299* -3- SLR-W – 299

i) Write note on Frank-Condon principle.
ii) State characteristic properties of Raman lines.
iii) Explain rotational energy levels.
B) Give the physical significance of ψ . 4
i) Give a brief account of spectral notations and optical series due to alkali
atoms.
ii) Derive Schrodinger’s time independent wave equation.
iii) Find the eigen value of Lz.
i) What is Paschen-Back effect ? Obtain an expression for term value. Explain

Paschen – Back effect in principle series doublet with energy level diagram.
ii) Using steady state Schrodinger wave equation for energy eigen values for
the motion of a particle in one dimensional rigid box.
_____________________

*SLRW300* SLR-W – 300

Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY
Organic Chemistry (Special Paper – XV)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

3) Draw neat labelled diagram and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Choose the most correct alternative for each of the followings : 10
1) By passing a mixture of two parts of acetylene and one part of hydrogen

cyanide over red hot tube ____________ is formed.
a) Pyrrole b) Pyridine
c) Indole d) Furan
2) Five membered heterocycle containing nitrogen and sulphur is __________

a) Oxazole b) Pyrazole
c) Indole d) Thiazole
3) Weerman’s reaction is used to _____________

a) chain shortening of aldose b) chain lengthening of ketose
c) chain lengthening of aldose d) inter conversions of aldose
4) Methyl isocyanate is required for the synthesis of ______________

a) Ethophan b) Sevin
c) Carbaryl d) Cypermetherin
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 300 -2- *SLRW300*
5) Name the following compound.
a) Maltose b) Lactose c) Sucrose d) Galactose
6) The disease xerophthalmia is caused due to deficiency of ___________

a) Vitamin – A b) Thyroxine c) Vitamin – C d) Vitamin – D
7) How many iodine atoms are present in Thyroxine ?

a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6
8) What is the name of following dye ?
a) Orange – IV b) Orange – II
c) Methyl orange d) Congo red
9) Paludrin is used as ___________

a) Antileprotic agent b) Antimalerial agent
c) Antidiabetic agent d) Antibacterial agent
10) Name the following drug
CH2OH
|
NO 2 CH− CH − NHCOCHCl2
|
OH
a) Amoxycillin b) Oxacillin
c) Chloromycetin d) Penicillin-G
*SLRW300* -3- SLR-W – 300
2. Attempt any five of the followings : 10

i) Predict the product of following reactions.
ii) How will you prove adrenaline is derivative of catechol ?

iii) Explain why phenolphthalein has pink colour in alkaline medium.
iv) Give structure and uses of methoxychlor.
v) Give qualities of good dye.
vi) Prove the presence of five double bonds in Vitamin-A.

i) What is action of following reagents on Quinoline.
a) NaNH2 / Δ b) n-C4HgLi c) SO3/H2SO4, 220°C
ii) How will you convert fructose into Glucose ?
iii) Give synthesis of Tolbutamide.
B) Give synthesis and uses of Indole-3-acetic acid. 4
4. Attempt any two of the followings : 10

i) Discuss Skraup’s synthesis of Quinoline.
ii) Discuss the configuration D-glucose from D-arabinose.
iii) What are azo dyes ? Give synthesis of Malechite green.

i) Explain Kiliani synthesis.
ii) Discuss structure of Thyroxine on the basis of analytical ground.
iii) Give synthesis and uses of Ibuprofen.
————————

*SLRW301* SLR-W – 301

Seat
No.

BOTANY (Special Paper – XV) (New)
Microbial Genetics, Plant Breeding and Biostatistics

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct alternative : 10
1) Viruses are believed to be _________

a) living organisms
b) non-living organisms
c) a transitional group between living and non living world
d) living organisms which have lost power of multiplication
2) Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) is ___________

a) rod shaped b) disc shaped
c) helicoid d) tadpole shaped
3) Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis are called _______
a) lysosomes b) lipolytic c) lytic d) lysogenic
4) For the first time, the bacteria were observed by ___________

a) Robert Hook b) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
c) W.H. Stanley d) Louis Pasteur
5) Which of the following term is not concerned with genetic recombination in

bacteria ?
a) Transformation b) Transduction
c) Conjugation d) Translation
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 301 -2- *SLRW301*
6) The hereditary material present in the bacterium E.Coli is
a) RNA b) RNA-complex
c) ss-DNA d) ds-DNA
7) The greatest threat to genetic diversity in a agricultural crop is ___________

a) introduction of high yielding varieties
b) extensive use of fertilizers
c) extensive use of insecticides
d) extensive mixed cropping
8) Reason of fast speciation in present day crop plants is due to ___________

a) mutation b) isolation
c) polyploidy d) sexual reproduction
9) Mating between two individuals differing in genotype to produce genetic variation

is called
a) domestication b) introduction c) hybridization d) mutation
10) Which of the following Bt crop is being grown in India by the farmers ?
a) Brinjal b) Soyabean c) Maize d) Cotton

1) What is ‘Pure-line’ selection ? In which crop it is applied ?
2) List the advantages of mass selection.
3) What is the advantage of clonal selection over mass and pure – line selections ?
4) Give the definition of median with a formula.
5) Draw and label Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV).
6) Define plant introduction and give its types.

1) What are breeding objectives in the sugar cane crop ?
2) Calculate mean from the following data.
10, 8, 20, 22, 18
3) In what type of crop plants the mass, pure – line and clonal selections are
applied ? Discuss giving examples of crops in each case.
B) Define the term ‘hybridization’ and state its objectives. 4

*SLRW301* -3- SLR-W – 301
1) Write an essay on plant breeding.
2) Name the different types of crosses made in the cross – pollinated crops and
give a brief account of one with features.
3) Define polyploidy and add a note on role of polyploidy in plant breeding.
1) Describe the pedigree method and give the advantages and disadvantages of
pedigree method.
2) Discuss the method of mutation breeding.
3) Give an account of breeding work done in India on cotton and list some of the
high yielding varieties which have been released recently.
————————
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) (New) Examination, 2016

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper XV)
Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Select the appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence : 10
1) The process of addition of 200-300 Adenine residues towards 3-end of
eukaryotic m-RNA is known as
a) Capping b) Methylation
c) Polyadenylation d) Polyresiduation
2) DNA damage caused by UV light is known as
a) Pyrimidine dimer b) Purine dimer
c) Double stranded break d) Physical damage
3) ______ enzymes cleave DNA at specific selected sites only.
a) DNase b) Restriction Endonuclease
c) RNase d) Restriction Exonuclease
4) ______ technique is used to detect presence of target unknown protein in a
given sample.
a) Southern Blotting b) Northern Blotting
c) Western Blotting d) Eastern Blotting
5) _______ discovered the technique of DNA fingerprinting.
a) Kohler and Milstein b) Dr. Alec. Jeffreys
c) Karry Mullis d) Karl Landsteiner
6) _______ technology is used for synthesis of monoclonal antibodies.
a) PCR b) ELISA c) Hybridoma d) Cloning
7) ELISA stands for
a) Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
b) Enzyme Linked Immuno Solvent Assay
c) Enzyme Linked Immuno Solute Assay
d) Enzyme Linked Immuno Synthesis Assay P.T.O.
8) ________ is a technique is used in forensics and police department.
a) DNA Chip b) DNA Fineprinting
c) DNA Fingerprinting d) DNA Footprinting
9) RNA polymerase binds to ______ region during initiation of transcription.
a) Promoter b) Terminator c) Enhancer d) Codons
10) Initiation codon AUG codes for _______ amino acid.
a) Lysine b) Histidine c) Methionine d) Arginine

1) Cosmids
2) Western blotting
3) Translation
4) Conjugation
5) DNA Probes
6) Cloning.

1) Explain the mechanism of splicing of introns.
2) Discuss applications of biotechnology in medicine.
3) Explain plasmids as cloning vectors.
B) Explain the properties of Genetic code. 4

1) Discuss the process of transcription.
2) Explain the technique and applications of Southern blotting.
3) Discuss the role of restriction enzymes, DNA Ligase and DNA polymerase in
recombinant DNA technology.

1) Describe transformation experiment as an evidence for DNA as genetic
material.
2) Define hybridoma technology and discuss process for synthesis of monoclonal
antibodies.
_________________
*SLRW303* SLR-W – 303
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper – XV)
Integral Transform

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1) L {eat tn} is equal to ______________
n! n! n! n!
a) b) c) d)
(p + a)n (p − a )n (p − a )n + 1 (p + a )n + 1
⎧F ( t ) ⎫
2) If L {F (t)} = F (s) then L ⎨ ⎬ = ______________
⎩ t ⎭
∞ ∞ t ∞
a) ∫ f ( x ) dx b) ∫ f ( x ) dx c) ∫ f (x ) dx d) ∫ f (x) dx
0 s 0 1
3) L {et cost} is equal to ______________

s −1 1 s +1 1
a) 2 b) 2 c) 2 d) 2
s − 2s + 2 s − 2s + 2 s + 2s + 2 s + 2s + 2
4) The final value theorem is
a) tlim F (t ) = lim sf (s) b) tlim F ( t ) = lim sf (s)

→∞ s→0 →0 s→∞
c) tlim F (t ) = lim sf (s) d) None of these

→∞ s→∞
5) If L–1 {F (p)} = F (t) then L–1 {f (ap)} = ______________

1 1
a) F (at ) b) F ( t / a) c) a F (at) d) a F (t/a)
a a
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 303 -2- *SLRW303*
−1 ⎧ n! ⎫
6) L ⎨ n + 1 ⎬ = ______________
⎩p ⎭
n+1
a) t n b) tn+1 c) n! tn d)
tn + 1
7) 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 ..... * (n times) is equal to ______________
t n−1 t n−1 tn
a) t n–1
b) c) d)
(n − 1)! n! n!
∂y
8) If y = y (n, t) then L ⎧⎨ ⎫⎬ = ______________
⎩ ∂x ⎭
a) x y (x, s) + y ( x, 0) b) s y ( x, s) − y ( x, 0)
c) s y ( x, 0) − y (x, s) d) s y ( x, s)
⎧ ∂2 y ⎫
L
9) If y = y (x, t) then ⎨ 2 ⎬ = ______________
⎩ ∂t ⎭
a) s 2 y (x, s) − sy ( x, 0) − y t (x, 0) b) s 2 y (x, s) + sy (x, 0)
c) s 2 y (x, s) − sy t (x, 0) − y ( x, 0) d) s2 y (x, s)
−1 ⎧ 3 ⎫
10) L ⎨ 2 ⎬ = ______________
⎩p − 3 ⎭
1 1
a) 3 Sin h 3 t b) Sin h 3 t c) Sin h 3 t d) Cos h 3 t
3 3

1) Find L {e–t (3 Sin h 2t – 5 cos h 2t)}.
−2 π P
⎧ ⎫
−1 ⎪P e ⎪
3
2) Evaluate L ⎨ 2 ⎬.
⎪P +9 ⎪
⎩ ⎭
⎧ P ⎫
3) Find L−1 ⎨ 2 ⎬.
⎩ 2P − 8 ⎭
*SLRW303* -3- SLR-W – 303
⎧ 2
−1 ⎪ P − 1 ⎪
⎫ ⎧ 2 ⎫
−1 ⎪ 9P − 1 ⎪
4) If L ⎨ 2 ⎬ = t cos t then find L ⎨ 2 ⎬.
( 2
⎪⎩ P + 1 ⎪⎭ ) (
⎪⎩ 9P 2 + 1 ⎪⎭ )
5) Find L {cos2 at}.
⎧ t (1 − cos at ) ⎫
6) Evaluate L ⎨ ⎬.
⎩ a2 ⎭
⎧⎪ P ⎫⎪
1) Find L−1 ⎨ 2 ⎬.
(
⎪⎩ P 2 + a 2 ) ⎪⎭
2) State and prove change of scale property for Laplace transform.

3) Solve (D2 – 2D + 2) y = 0, y = DY = 1 when t = 0.
⎧⎪ P2 −1
⎫⎪
B) Use convolution theorem to find L ⎨ 2⎬. 4
⎪⎩ P 2 + 4 ( ) ⎪⎭
−1
⎧ 4P + 5 ⎫
1) Evaluate L ⎨ ⎬.
⎩ (P − 1) (P + 2 )⎭
2
∞
2) Prove that ∫ t 3 e −t S int dt = 0 .
0
3) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2) x = 0 with the conditions x = x0 and Dx = x1 at t = 0.

5. Solve any one of the following : 10
1) Solve, (D – 2)x – (D + 1)y = 6 e3t
(2D – 3)x + (D – 3)y = 6 e3t
with the conditions that x (0) = 3 y (0) = 0.
2) i) If F (t) = t2 0 < t < 2 and F (t + 2) = F (t). Find L {F (t)}.
⎧⎪ 3P 3 − 3P2 − 40 P + 36 ⎫⎪
−1
ii) Find L ⎨ ⎬.
⎪⎩ (
P2 − 4
2
) ⎪⎭
_____________
*SLRW304* SLR-W – 304
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) Examination, 2016

STATISTICS (Special Paper – XV) (New)
Limit Theorems, Reliability and Queuing Theory

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
N.B. : i) All questions are compulsory and figures to the right

indicate full marks.
ii) Use of scientific calculators and statistical tables is
allowed.

i) If (Xn}, {Yn} be two sequences of random variables (r.vs.) with X n Law x
and Yn Law a where X is a r.v. and a is a constant, then __________
a) ( X n Yn ) Law ax b) ( X n Yn ) Law xy
c) ( X n Yn ) Law x d) ( X n Yn ) Law a
ii) In M / M / 1: ∞ / FIFO model, probability that there are n customers in the

system is ______________
n
a) ρ b) 1 − ρn c) (1 − ρ) ρ(n − 1) d) (1 − ρ) ρn
iii) If ρ < 1 and Pn = steady state probability that there are n customers in the
system at time t, then n is a _________ r.v.
a) Poisson b) Exponential c) Normal d) Geometric
iv) If φ ( x ) is the structure function of a system then φ ( x ) is ________ r.v.
a) Uniform b) Bernoulli c) Poisson d) Normal
v) Suppose Ri(t) = reliability of ith component for i = 1, 2 and R(t) is reliability
of a parallel system of 2 independent components, then
a) R( t ) ≥ R1( t ) b) R( t ) ≥ R 2 ( t )
c) R(t ) ≥ Max {R1( t ), R 2 (t )} d) R( t ) ≥ Min {R1( t ), R 2 (t )}

P.T.O.
SLR-W – 304 -2- *SLRW304*
vi) For coherent system φ ( 0 ) = _____________

2
vii) If { Xn, n ≥ 1} is a r.s. from χ (1) distribution then the asymptotic distribution of
sample mean is __________
2 2
a) χ (1) b) χ (n) c) normal d) none of these
viii) According to Chebyscheve’s inequality, the probability that _________

a) X differing from its mean by more than two standard deviations is ≤ 0.75
b) X will lie within two standard deviations of its mean is ≥ 0.75
c) X will lie within two standard deviations of its mean is ≥ 0.25
d) X will lie within two standard deviations of its mean is ≥ 0.95
ix) In usual notations pdf of first order statistic is given by _________
a) n [F( y )]( n − 1) f( y ) b) n ! [F( y )]( n − 1) f( y )
c) nf ( y)[1 − F(y )](n − 1) d) n ! f (y ) [1 − F( y)]

(n − 1)
x) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?

We can find distribution of _________ using order statistics of a random
sample of odd size.
i) min{Xi}
ii) Max{Xi}
iii) Sample median
iv) Sample range
a) only i) b) only i) and ii)
c) only i), ii) and iv) d) all of these

a) If λ = 12 per hour and μ = 15 per hour in M / M / 1 model then find average
length of queue of the system.
b) In usual notations state the joint pdf of (Yr, Ys) (r < s).
c) If X is a B(10, 0.4) r.v. then find P[| X − μ | > 3σ] , where μ = E(X) and
σ2 = V(X).
d) State the relationship between survival function and hazard function.
*SLRW304* -3- SLR-W – 304
e) For a series system of three components say A, B, C find all the minimal cut
sets and minimal path sets.
2
f) Suppose Xi are iid χ (1) r.vs. i = 1, 2, ...., 200. Then using CLT obtain
approximately P [Σ X i > 220 ] ⋅ [φ(1) = 0 .8434 ].

P y as
P x as n → ∞ and Y ⎯⎯→
i) Let xn ⎯⎯→ n n → ∞ then show that
P ( x + y ) as n → ∞ .
( X n + Yn ) ⎯⎯→
ii) Show that hazard rate is constant for exponential distribution.
iii) Explain steady state and transient state in queuing theory.
B) Let a random sample of size 4 is taken from U(0, 1) distribution. Find the
distribution of third order statistic. Identify the distribution. 4

A) Explain the assumptions made in queuing model (M / M / 1) : (∞ / FCFS) .
B) Does there exists a r.v. X for which P [μ − 3σ < X < μ + 3σ] = 0.85 ? Where
E(X) = μ and V(X) = σ2 . Justify using exp(2) distribution.
C) Obtain hazard function and survival function if the life time distribution is exp( λ ).
5. Attempt any one from the following : 10

A) Let Yn be the nth order statistic corresponding to a random sample from
U(0,1) distribution. Find the distribution of Yn. Further test the convergence
in probability of Yn to 1 as n → ∞ .
B) Let X be P( λ ) r.v. Let Y be standard Poisson r.v. defined on X. Show that
limiting distribution of Y is N(0, 1). Hence show that sequence of standard
Poisson distributions converges in distribution to standard normal distribution.
_____________________
*SLRW305* SLR-W – 305
Seat
No.

GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XV)
Phanerozoic Stratigraphy of India

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) Pick out the formation which is devoid of coal.
a) Barakar stage b) Raniganj stage
c) Iron stone stage d) None of these
2) In which of the following Era of Indian Stratigraphy Jurassics of Kutch
were formed ?
a) Purana b) Aryan c) Dravidian d) Archaean
3) The Gondwana system was formed during
a) Upper Carboniferrous – Jurassic b) Upper Carboniferrous – Cretaceous
c) Permian – Jurassic d) Permian – Eocene
4) The lower Gondwana system includes ___________ series.
a) Talchir b) Umia c) Jabalpur d) Rajmahal
5) Which one of the following Cretaceous rocks of South India is youngest ?
a) Utatur b) Trichuiopoly c) Ariyalur d) None of these
6) ‘Chikkim limestone’, belongs to
a) Eocene rocks of Kashmir b) Cretaceous of Spiti
c) Pre Cambrinas of Sikkim d) Jurassics of Spiti
7) Lithologicaly upper Gondwana constitute ___________
a) Conglomerate and shale b) Limestone and shale
c) Laterite and shale d) Sandstone and shale
8) Inter-trappean bed are absent in ___________ traps of Deccan traps.
a) Upper b) Middle c) Lower d) None of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 305 *SLRW305*
9) Jurassic rocks of Cutch are overlaid by ___________
a) Deccan Traps b) Gondwana
c) Salt range d) None of these
10) In Gondwana succession the first evidence of cold climate is obtained from
a) Panchet formation b) Talchir formation
c) Damuda formation d) Rajmahal series

i) What are series included in Triassic of Spiti ?
ii) Fossils found in Inter-trappean beds.
iii) In which system Maleri series found ?
iv) What is the age of Neobolus beds ?
v) Names of series in upper Gondwana.
vi) On which rock, Cambrian Strata of Spiti lies over ?

i) What is the stratigraphical significance of inter-trappean beds ?
ii) Explain Umaria marine beds of Gondwana system.
iii) What is Barren measures ?
i) Flora and fauna found in Upper, Lower, Middle, Gondwana system.
ii) Trias of Spiti.

i) Describe in detail Kioto limestones.
ii) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Deccan Traps.
iii) Describe the nature of Siwalik deposits.

i) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Rajmahal series.
ii) Describe in brief with stratigraphic sequence and lithology of Siwalik system.
iii) Write a detailed account on Jurassic of Cutch.
_____________________
*SLRB177* SLR-W – 306
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY
Special Paper – XV : Environmental Microbiology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct alternatives given below : 10

i) ___________ are non-biodegradable.
a) Agrochemicals b) Radioactive substances
c) Fertilizers d) Crop waste
ii) ____________ protect us from harmful effect of ultraviolet radiations.
a) Clouds b) Thick layer of CO2
c) Ozone d) Smog
iii) Respiratory diseases are caused due to _____________
a) H2S b) Methane
c) N2 d) None of the above
iv) _____________ is a photochemical oxidant.
a) PAN b) SO3 c) DDT d) CO2
v) Most hazardous metal pollution of automobile exhaust is __________
a) Mercury b) Lead c) Iron d) Copper
vi) Study of animals in germ free environment is known as ____________
a) Biology b) Geology
c) Gnotobiology d) Geomicrobiology
vii) Dyes are common in waste from ____________ industry.
a) Sugar b) Dairy c) Distillery d) Textile
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 306 *SLRB177*
viii) _____________ is the main cause of Eutrophication.

a) Animal population b) Algal mass
c) Pollutants d) Reduction in DO
ix) Hiroshima-Nagasaki tragedy is a case of _____________ pollution.
a) Soil b) Radioactive c) Metal d) Air
x) If BOD of a river is high, it means that the river ______________
a) Is very polluted b) Is not polluted
c) Gets least amount of light d) Does not have green plants
2. Answer any five of the following: 10

i) Give significance of ozone.
ii) What is bioremediation ?
iii) Give sources of air pollution.
iv) Define term BOD.
v) Define potable water.
vi) What is photochemical smog ?
vii) Give the list of animals used in gnotobiosis.
3. A) Answer the following questions in brief (any two) : 6

i) Explain Beed bubler.
ii) Explain control of Eutrophication.
iii) Give characteristics of waste from paper and pulp industry.
B) Explain microorganisms as bioindicators of fecal pollution. 4

i) Explain characteristics of marine environment.
ii) What is bioleaching ? Explain bioleaching of copper.
iii) Write an essay on ‘bioaersal control’.

i) Write an essay on routine bacteriological analysis of water.
ii) Write on essay on Biological safety.
iii) Write an essay on characteristics and treatment of waste water from dairy
industry.
_____________________
*SLRW307* SLR-W – 307
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper – XV)
Embedded System Design

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

3) Draw neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
4) Use of log table is allowed.
1. Select correct alternatives from the following : 10

1) The data range of the float type variable is _________ byte.
a) 4 b) 2 c) 1 d) 8
2) Which of the following is the superloop statement ?
a) While (10) b) While (1) c) While (0) d) While (100)
3) In embedded C program __________ file must be included.
a) embedded.h b) windows.h c) reg 51.h d) RTs.h
4) For displaying the data on LCD the __________ code of the character should
be send.
a) ASCII b) Hexadecimal
c) Binary d) All of these
5) The opto-coupler is the suitable device to _________ the peripherals to
microcontrollers.
a) couple b) connect c) shield d) isolate
6) The address of first line-first character of the 16 × 2 LCD is _________
a) COH b) 80 H c) 90 H d) AOH
7) The digital to analog converter 0808 has _________ bit resolution.
8) To select the band rate for serial communication _________ time is used.
a) Timer 1 b) Timer 0 c) Timer 2 d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 307 *SLRW307*
9) Flashmagic is the tool used for __________

a) development of program for embedded system
b) programming of the microcontroller
c) assembly language programming
d) all of these
10) Which of the following line driver is used for serial data transfer to the computer.
a) 74244 b) RS 232 c) Max 232 d) 74245

i) Give basic architecture of an embedded system.
ii) Draw clock and reset circuit for 89V51.
iii) Mention the expressions in C language.
iv) Draw circuit diagram for interfacing of 7-segment display to the 89V51.
v) Define the terms constants and variables in C-language.
vi) Give the structure of an embedded C program.

i) Write a note on superloop.
ii) Write a program in embedded C language to configure part 2 in input
mode.
iii) Describe the interfacing of relay to microcontroller.
B) Write program in embedded C to generate square wave at any port pin of the
microcontroller. 4

i) Describe interfacing of ADC to microcontroller.
ii) Mention steps involved in development of program in embedded C language.
iii) Describe the interfacing of 16 × 2 LCD.

i) a) Write a program in embedded C to generate time delay by using timer.
b) Write a note on interfacing of opto-coupler.
ii) Define the term an embedded system. Describe with suitable block diagram
the minimum hardware required for an embedded system.
_____________________
*SLRW308* SLR-W – 308
Seat
No.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Operating System – II (Special Paper – XV)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.


1) How you can add a new user ‘student’ to your system ?
A) useradd student B) adduser student
C) only A D) both A and B
2) What command is used with vi editor to search a pattern in the forward direction ?
A) ?? B) // C) / D) ?
3) The command chmod 542 letter is equivalent to
A) chmod ugo + rwx letter B) chmod u = rx, g = r, o = w letter
C) chmod letter = 542 D) chmod ugo + 542 letter
4) How would you sort a file called ‘shop’ by column 5 ?
A) sort – k 5 shop B) sort – n 5 shop
C) sort – f 5 shop D) sort – c 5 shop
5) How do you shell execute a command in the background ?
A) Put and symbol at the end of the command line
B) Key in fg followed by the command name
C) Press Ctrl + c after you have keyed in the command
D) Press Ctrl + d after you have keyed in the command
6) The command used to multiply two numbers n1 and n2 is
A) mul n1 * n2 B) `expr $n1\*$n2`
C) echo n1 * n2 D) n1 * n2
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 308 -2- *SLRW308*
7) The tar command is used for

A) Create compressed archives of directories and files
B) Extract directories and files from archives
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
8) ___________ is interface between shell and computer hardware.
A) Kernel B) Command interpreter
C) User D) All of the above
9) Which of the following command is used to mount NFS file systems ?
A) nfsmount B) nfsumount
C) mount D) all of the above
10) To mount remote devices you must put an entry into the file
A) /etc/imports B) /etc/exports
C) /dev/imports D) /dev/exports
2. Answer any five of the followings. 10

1) What is inode number ?
2) What is shell ?
3) List out all file types.
4) List out atleast four system defined shell variable name.
5) How to kill a process ?
6) Write syntax of “case statement” in Linux.
7) Explain any one communication commands.
3. A) Answer any two of the followings. 6

1) Explain following commands with examples.
a) tail b) cut c) mv
2) Discuss Network File System (NFS).
3) Describe X-window system.
B) Write a shell script to entered number is Armstrong or not. 4
*SLRW308* -3- SLR-W – 308

1) What is Kernel ? Give its function.
2) What is shell variable ? Describe Rules for Declare Shell Variable.
3) Explain grep command with its options.

1) Describe Exit mode with all operations from vi editor.
2) How chmod used for a set different permissions to file and directories ?
3) How to mounting hard drives partitions ?
——––––––––——
*SLR-W-309* SLR-W – 309
Seat
No.

PHYSICS (Special Paper – XVI)
Electronics and Instrumentation

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

i) _____________ is the ratio of change in input offset current to the change in

temperature.
a) Input offset current drift
b) Input offset voltage drift
c) Slew rate
d) Common mode input impendence
ii) The ideal input impedance of Op-Amp is _____________

a) Infinite b) High
c) Negative d) Zero
iii) The frequency of unsymmetrical rectangular wave form of an astable

multivibrator using 555 timer IC is given by
0.72 1.44
a) b)
CR A CR A
1.44 1.44
c) d)
C(R A + R B ) C(R A + 2R B )
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 309 -2- *SLR-W-309*
iv) In an astable multivibrator using 555 timer IC, the capacitor always charges
between
a) 0 and VCC b) 0 and 2/3 VCC
c) 1/3 VCC and 2/3 VCC d) 0 and 1/3 VCC
v) A p-n-p-n diode is fabricated from

a) Germanium (Ge) only
b) Silicon (Si) only
c) Germanium (Ge) and Silicon (Si)
d) Gallium arsenide (GaAs)
vi) A diac is a _____________ terminal device.

a) Two b) One c) Three d) Four
vii) In LED displays, _____________ Semiconductor material is used to produce

red colour.
a) GaAs b) GeAs c) SiAs d) SiP
viii) The principle of change in electrical resistance with temperature is used in

_____________ transducer.
a) Mechanical transducer b) Resistance transducer
c) Thermocouple transducer d) Radiant energy transducer
ix) The ability of transducer to retain its performance throughout its specified
operating life and storage life is known as
a) Dead hand b) Stability
c) Drift d) Sensitivity
x) Scanning electron microscope uses _____________ from a sample for

imaging.
a) Auger electrons b) Back scattered electrons
c) Secondary electrons d) Transmitted electrons
*SLR-W-309* -3- SLR-W – 309

i) State different characteristics of ideal Op-Amp.
ii) Define the Duty cycle of timer IC555.
iii) What do you mean by Holding current of SCR ?
iv) What are the different types of displays ?
v) What is principle of optical tranducer ?
vi) Give specific reason of higher resolution in electron microscopy.

i) How SCR can made TURN-ON by different method ?
ii) Write short note on gas discharge plasma display.
iii) Explain principle and working of A.C. servomotor sensor.
B) Calculate the frequency of output waveform produced by astable multivibrator
when charging resistance RA is 10 K Ω and RB is 10 K Ω with capacitance of
0.01 μ F. 4

i) How a speed of a D.C. motor is controlled by using SCR ?
ii) Explain principle and working of resistance temperature detector transducer.
iii) Discuss the Op-Amp as inverting amplifier.

i) Draw the functional block diagram of IC-555 and explain the function each
block.
ii) Describe principle, construction and working of scanning electron microscopy.
_____________________
*SLRW310* -1- SLR-W – 310
SLR-W – 310
Seat
No.

CHEMISTRY (Special Paper – XVI)
Analytical and Industrial Organic Chemistry

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

3) Draw neat labelled diagrams and give equations wherever
necessary.
1. Select the most correct alternative from those given below : 10

i) Synthetic detergents can be represented by general formula
a) RONa b) ROSO3Na
c) RCOOH d) RCOONa
ii) Polyurethanes are obtained by condensation of
a) Diol and di-isocyanate b) Urea and formaldehyde
c) Urea and di-isocyanate d) Diol and formaldehyde
iii) The percentage of alcohol in completely fermented molasses (wash) is
a) 90% b) 60% c) 40% – 50% d) 10% – 12%
iv) The reactions catalysed by enzymes in living organisms are called _______
reactions.
a) Biocatalytic b) Polymerisation
c) Friedel Craft’s d) None of these
v) Food flavours and aromas of flowers can be analysed by _______ chromatography.
a) Paper b) Column c) Thin layer d) Gas
vi) ____________ is synthetic adhesive used in sizing of man-made fibres.
a) Polyvinyl alcohol b) Starch
c) Flour d) Tallow
vii) Rosins mixed with soaps impart ____________ property.
a) Antioxidant b) Lathering c) Fixative d) Disinfectant
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 310 -2- *SLRW310*
viii) The process of removal of adhered oil, wax from fabric by boiling it with
soaps or detergents is called
a) Sizing b) Bleaching c) Scouring d) Dyeing
ix) Zeolites act as ____________ in Friedel Craft’s alkylation.
a) Catalysts b) Reactants c) Products d) Fillers
x) The ratio of the distance moved by the solute to that of solvent in case of a
chromatogram is called
a) Distribution coefficient b) Rate of flow value (Rf)
c) Adsorption coefficient d) Capillary action

i) What are homopolymers and co-polymers ?
ii) Explain the term amphoteric detergent with one example.
iii) Why is lime added in the clarification of sugar juice ?
iv) Explain congealing property of a starch paste.
v) What are microwave assisted reactions ? Give example.
vi) Draw the labelled block diagram of a gas chromatographic apparatus.

i) Write a brief note on vulcanisation of rubber.
ii) Explain the role of biocatalysts in oxidation of alkyl benzenes.
iii) Compare soaps versus detergents.
B) Discuss the experimental technique of paper chromatography. 4

i) With a neat labelled diagram explain the hot process of manufacture of soaps.
ii) Discuss the extraction of cane juice with sketch of mill-house.
iii) Write a brief note on sizing ingredients with their functions.

i) Write synthesis and uses of Buna-S rubber.
ii) Explain the principle and process of column chromatography.
iii) Explain the chemical reactions involved in the fermentation of molasses by
yeast cells. What are the by-products of alcohol industry ?
_____________________
*SLRW311* SLR-W – 311
Seat
No.

BOTANY (Special Paper – XVI) (New)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

II) All questions carry equal marks.
III) Draw neat and labeled diagram wherever necessary.
IV) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. Rewrite the following sentences choosing the correct alternative. 10

1) “Gene-Battery model” of gene regulation in eukaryotes is proposed by
a) Jacob and Monod b) Britten and Davidson
c) Beadle and Tatum d) Kornberg and Ochoa
2) The term hybridoma implies to
a) Gametic fusion b) Hybrid virion
c) Somatic hybridization d) DNA-RNA hybrid
3) ___________ invented the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).
a) Karl B. Mullis b) Alec Jeffreys
c) Paul Berg d) H.O. Smith
4) Introduction of foreign gene for improving genotype is called
a) Tissue culture b) Vernalization
c) Genetic engineering d) Eugenics
5) In Operon concept, regulator gene functions as
a) Inhibitor b) Regulator c) Repressor d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 311 -2- -2- *SLRW311*
6) __________ is not used as a vector.

a) Plasmid b) E. Coli c) Cosmid d) Bacteriophase
7) Haploid plants can be obtained by _________ culture.
a) Short tip b) Cell suspension
c) Anther d) Embryo
8) First step in genetic engineering is
a) Isolation of RNA
b) Isolation of Protein
c) Isolation of genetic material
d) Purification of protein
9) Recent technique used for separating fragment of DNA is
a) Northern blotting b) Southern blotting
c) Eastern blotting d) Western blotting
10) The diameter of Z DNA molecule is
a) 18A
b) 22A
c) 45A
d) 34A
2. Answer any five of the following. (2×5=10)

1) Which genes are involved in Lac Operon ?
2) Enlist the forms of DNA.
3) Define micropropogation.
4) What is vector ?
5) Define Chimeric DNA.
6) What is mean by renaturation of DNA ?
3. A) Answer any two of the following. (3×2=6)

1) Describe any one mechanism of regulation of enzyme synthesis in Lac operon.
2) Describe southern blotting technique.
3) Give any three sterilization methods of plant tissue culture.
B) Write a note on Z-DNA. 4

*SLRW311* -3- -3- SLR-W – 311
4. Answer any two of the following. (5×2=10)

1) Describe Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).
2) Describe cDNA library.
3) Discuss in brief mechanism of DNA replication.
5. Answer any one of the following. (10×1=10)

1) Describe the method of isolation of protoplast from plant cell.
2) Explain the gene organization in prokaryotes.
–––––––––––––––––
*SLRW312* SLR-W – 312
Seat
No.

ZOOLOGY (Special Paper – XVI)
Biotechniques and Applied Zoology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Select appropriate answer from each of the following and rewrite the sentence. 10
1) The very young fishes coming out of eggs are called

a) Fingerlings b) Fry c) Milt d) Younglets
2) The optical density of given sample is measured by the device

a) Balance b) pH meter
c) Colorimeter d) Magnetic disc
3) In the biological control of pests ___________ are used.

a) Fumigants b) Weedicides
c) Biological agents d) Chemicals
4) ____________ is oldest method for fish preservation.

a) Freezing b) Chilling c) Sun drying d) Frying
5) Chromatography can be used to

a) form mixtures
b) change mixture compositions
c) separate mixtures into pure substances
d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 312 -2- *SLRW312*
6) Oral case of catterpiller of Silk moth is called
a) cocoon b) pupa c) cyst d) egg case
7) The full form of PAGE is
a) Polyanamide gel electrophoresis b) Polyamide gel electrophoresis
c) Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis d) Poly analide Gel Electrophoresis
8) _____________ is a good source of fish oil.
a) Catla b) Mrigal c) Pompret d) Oil Sardine
9) Silk is a secretion of silkworm from its specialized
a) Salivary glands b) Spiracles
c) Fat bodies d) Malpigian tubules
10) The locating agent of amino acids is
a) Diazo reagent b) Ninhydrin spray
c) Amphoteric oxides d) Neutral oxides
2. Write short note on following (any five). 10
1) Grasshopper
2) Animal cell culture
3) Fishing crafts
4) Cryopreservation
5) pH
6) Ecdysis.
*SLRW312* -3- SLR-W – 312
i) Economic importance of pearl
ii) Principle and use of pH meter

iii) Varieties of silk worms
B) Give an account and use of centrifuge. 4

i) Write about the viral diseases of the silk moth.
ii) Describe the use of column chromatography.
iii) Give an account and use of centrifuge.

A) What is fish culture ? Add an account on off shore fishery with one example.
B) What are the agricultural pests ? Describe biological control of crop pests.
___________
*SLRW313* SLR-W 313
Seat
No.

MATHEMATICS (Special Paper XVI) (New)
Programming in C
Day and Date : Tuesday, 29-3-2016Thursday, 15-12-2011 Max. Marks : 50

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m. 10..00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

1. Select the correct alternative for each of the following . 10
1) _______escape sequence makes space between two words.
a) \t b) \a c) \n d) none of these.
2) In C language constant can be declared using
a) Constant keyword b) #define
3) Integer data type requires _________ bytes of memory.
4) _________ operator cannot operates on float data type.
a) % b) + c) d) none of these
5) _________ is standard input function in C language.
a) printf() b) scanf() c) getch() d) none of these
6) The _________ header file contains mathematical functions.
a) s t d b)
i o . h c) m a t hd) none of these
. h c o n i o . h
7) _________ is multiway decision making statement.

a) if b) switch c) goto d) none of these
8) ANSIC contains _________ keywords.
9) _________ is exit controlled loop in C language.
a) while b) do-while c) for d) None of these
10) One dimensional array is also called as
a) vector b) matrix c) both a) and b) d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-W 313 *SLRW313*
1) Define C-Token. List of diffrent tokens in C-language.
2) Write use of sizeof operator.
3) Write syntax to use do-while loop.
4) Define forward and backward jump of goto statement.
5) Name and write their use of any two mathematical in build functions.
6) List the commonly used format codes with their meaning.
1) Explain conditional operator with example.
2) Explain switch statement with example.
3) What is keyword and identifiers.
B) Write a note on basic structures in C programs. 4
i) What is array ? Explain one dimension and two dimension array.
ii) Write a C-programme to find maximum number between given three numbers.
iii) What is data type ? Explain inbuilt data types.
5. A) Attempt any one of the following : 10
i) Write a program to compute the sum of first n numbers.
ii) Explain relational operators and logical operators.
B) An electric power distribution company charges its domestic consumers as
follows.
Consumption units Rate of charge
0 - 200 Re. 0.50 per unit
201 - 400 Rs. 100 + Re. 0.65 per unit
401 - 600 Rs. 230 + Re. 0.80 per unit
601 - above Rs. 390 + Re.1.00 per unit excess of 600
Write the program to read the customer number and power consumed and prints
the amount to be paid by the customer.

*SLRW314* SLR-W 314
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part III) (Semester VI) (New) Examination, 2016

STATISTICS (Special Paper XVI)
C Programming

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

2) Use of simple or scientific calculator is allowed.
i) C is a programming language developed at

a) Microsoft Corp., USA b) IBM, USA
c) Borland International, USA d) AT and Ts Bell Laboratories of USA
ii) In C, an arithmetic expression 5/3 + 10*1.2 results in

a) 13.66 b) 13
c) 13.67 d) 14
iii) Which of the following is not a keyword in C ?

a) double b) int
c) mean d) return
iv) Which of the following is not true while constructing an integer constant in C ?
a) An integer constant must have at least one digit
b) It could be either positive or negative
c) Default sign is positive
d) It must have a decimal point
P.T.O.
SLR-W 314 -2- *SLRW314*
v) The assignment statement x = x b; is equivalent to
a) x = b; b) x = b;
c) b = x; d) none of these
vi) The C program execution always begin with the function
a) scanf() b) printf()
c) main() d) return()
vii) Which of the following shows the correct hierarchy of arithmetic operations in C ?
a) /
b) /
c) /
d) /
viii) If p is an integer pointer with initial value, say 3032, then after the operation
p = p + 1; the value of p will be
a) 3032 b) 3033
c) 3034 d) none ot these
ix) What is an array ?
a) An array is a collection of variables that are of the dissimilar data type
b) An array is a collection of variables that are of the same data type
c) An array is not a collection of variables that are of the same data type
d) None of these
x) We can insert pre written code in a C program by using
a) # read b) # get
c) # include d) # put

i) What is a keyword in C ?
ii) State the rules for constructing integer constants.
iii) How to declare variables in C ?
iv) State the use of getchar() and putchar()
v) What is the syntax of ternary operator ?
vi) What is a pointer in C ?

*SLRW314* -3- SLR-W 314
i) Give the syntax of if statement.

ii) Give the syntax of while statement.
iii) What is an user defined function ?
B) Write a C program for addition of two integers. 4

i) Explain switch statement. Illustrate by one example.
ii) Explain do... while loop. Illustrate by one example.
iii) Write a note on array.

i) Write a C program for finding arithmetic mean and standard deviation of n
values.
ii) Explain strlwr() and strupr(). Illustrate each by one example.

*SLRW315* SLR-W – 315
Seat
No.
B.Sc. (Part – III) (Semester – VI) Examination, 2016

GEOLOGY (Special Paper – XVI) (New)
(Economic Geology)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1) The placer deposits along the coastal tract of Maharashtra is __________
a) Gold b) Zircon c) Rutile d) Ilmenite
2) The process responsible for the formation of placer deposits is _________
concentration.
a) Mechanical b) Residual c) Magmatic d) Chemical
3) The placer deposits formed by the action of ocean waves are called _______
placers.
a) Fluvial b) Eluvial c) Beach d) Wave
4) Tenor value for precious metals is _________
a) Low b) High c) Moderate d) Very high
5) Bauxite is ______________ concentration deposit rich in AI.
a) Rudaceous b) Residual c) Arenaceous d) Hydrothermal
6) Hydrothermal __________ deposits are mainly produced in carbonate rocks.
a) Replacement b) Vein c) Cavity filling d) Placer
7) Diamonds occurs as _____________ magmatic deposits.
a) Dissemination b) Segregation
c) Injection d) Placer
8) Sulphide ores are the most common products of _______ process.
a) Fluvial b) Residual
c) Magmatic d) Supergene enrichment P.T.O.
SLR-W – 315 *SLRW315*
9) Ilmenite is a common ____________ placer deposit.

a) Eluvial b) Beach c) Alluvial d) Thermal
10) Major Gold resources in India is located at ________ gold fields.
a) Jaduguda b) Panna c) Hutti d) Mangalwedha

1) What is late magmatic deposit ?
2) What are Eluvial placers ?
3) What are Residual deposit ?
4) What are Epigenetic ore deposit ?
5) What are Syngenetic ore deposit ?
6) What is Crustification ?
7) Describe Bauxite.

1) Fissure vein deposit
2) Formation of laterites
3) Describe with example Gossan.
B) Write answer of any one of the following : 4
1) Ore deposits of Karnataka
2) Radioactive ore deposits.

1) Supergene enrichment process.
2) What is hydrothermal replacement deposit ? Give Indian example.
3) Describe any two essential conditions for the formation of hydrothermal
deposits.

1) Explain origin and distribution of Indian copper deposits.
2) Describe Radioactive ore deposits.
3) Describe Fissure vein deposit.
_____________________
*SLRW316* SLR-W 316
Seat
No.

MICROBIOLOGY (Special Paper XVI)
Medical Microbiology

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by selecting correct alternatives given below : 10

1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis can grow on ___________ medium.
a) MacConkeys agar
b) Blood agar
c) Levinson Johnson (L.J.) medium
d) All of these
2) Helicobacter pylori forms __________ colonies on blood agar.
a) Pale yellow b) Red
c) Black d) Green
3) Hydrophobia is the symptom of
a) Rabies b) Filariasis
c) Gas gangrene d) Hepatitis
4) Swarming growth on agar is characteristic feature of
a) Vibrio Cholerae
b) Proteus Vulgaris
c) E.Coli
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
P.T.O.
SLR-W 316 -2- *SLRW316*
5) Plasmodium reproduces asexually in the

a) Mosquito b) Human
c) Stagnant water d) Both mosquito and human
6) Sulphonamides are inhibitor of ____________ synthesis.
a) Folic acid b) Vitamin B12
c) Protein d) Peptidoglycan
7) Latency in the germinal ganglia is characteristic of which of the following
a) Hepatitis A virus b) Plasmodium vivax
c) Herpes simplex virus d) AIDS
8) Viral population can be estimated by __________ determination.
a) LD50 b) TCD50 c) HI units d) all of these
9) Clostridium perfringens is
a) Gram positive, aerobic, spore bearing rods
b) Gram positive, anaerobic, spore bearing rods
c) Gram negative, aerobic, non spore bearing rods
d) Gram negative, anaerobic, non-spore bearing rods.
10) __________ is a veneral disease.
a) Syphilis b) Leprosy
c) Gas gangrene d) Filariasis

1) Diagnosis of hospital infection.
2) Morphological characters of vibrio cholera.
3) Spread of Hepatitis B virus.
4) Biological weapons.
5) Antimicrobial drug Define.
6) Name drugs acting on nucleic acid.
7) Negri bodies.
*SLRW316* -3- SLR-W 316

1) Pathogenicity of viruses.
2) Mechanism of drug resistance.
3) Life cycle of Plasmodium vivax.
B) Write an account on AIDS. 4

1) Account on Treponema Pallidum.
2) Mode of action of chloramphenicol or streptomycin.
3) Give details of pathogenesis of Herpes simplex.

1) Write an essay on swine flu.
2) Give an account on antifungal drugs.
3) Mycobacterium leprae.
_______________
*SLRW317* SLR-W 317
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS (Special Paper XVI) (New)
Measurement Instrumentation and Control System

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

3) Neat diagrams are drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of log-table and calculator are allowed.
1. Select the correct alternative of the following : 10

1) The action potential of typical cell is
a) +20 mV b) 20 mV
c) 90 mV d) +90 mV
2) The basic principle used in the LCR-Q meter is to measure
a) Current passing through component
b) Voltage across the component
c) Both a) and b)
d) Voltage passing through component
3) The proportional control system has an output proportional to the
a) input b) error
c) output d) noise
4) The essential component of digital storage oscilloscope is
a) sample and hold circuit b) amplifier
c) oscillator d) active filters
P.T.O.
SLR-W 317 -2- *SLRW317*
5) The pulse oximeter is used to measure

a) Pulse rate b) Heart beat
c) Oxygen level d) All of these
6) In the analog oscilloscope _____________ mode is used for low frequency
measurement.
a) alternative b) chopp
7) The bioelectric signals are usually of __________ frequency.
a) high b) ultrahigh
c) moderate d) low
8) The PLC is used for ___________ control functions.
a) discrete b) continuous
c) solenoides d) both a) and b)
9) The cell in action state is said to be
a) polarized b) depolarized
c) repolarized d) unexcited
10) A system in which control action is totally independent of the o/p of the system
is called ___________ system.
a) closed loop b) open loop
c) automatic d) all of these

1) Write characteristics of control system.
2) Give the principle to measure the conductivity of liquid.
3) Give the symbols of ladder diagram.
4) Define resting and action potential.
5) Explain the action of horizontal deflection in analog CRO.
6) Explain EEG in brief.
7) State salient features of PLC.
*SLRW317* -3- SLR-W 317

1) Explain in brief PI control system.
2) Explain the various operational modes of DSO.
3) Discuss in brief pulse oximeter.
B) Explain ON-OFF temperature control system. 4

1) Explain digital controller for industrial process.
2) Explain ultrasonic imaging system and how it helps in medical applications.
3) Explain with diagram pH meter.
5. Solve any one : 10

1) Explain servo motor control system in detail with diagram, as a case study.
2) Explain the architecture of PLC with the help of diagram.
_______________
*SLRW318* SLR-W – 318
Seat
No.

Computer Science (Special Paper – XVI)
DATA COMMUNICATION AND NETWORKING – II (New)

Time : 10.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

1. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the answer. 10
1) ________ protocol in TCP/IP suite converts IP address to physical address.

a) UDP b) SMTP c) HTTP d) ARP
2) ________ is a malicious software that attaches itself to other software and
replicate.
a) Worm b) Virus c) Trojan Horse d) None
3) ________ provides flexible and powerful packet oriented data transmission.

a) TELNET b) GPS c) GPRS d) None
4) ________ is unreliable connection less protocol used for communication

between peer entities.
a) POP b) HTTP c) UDP d) SNMP
5) Google, Youtube, FB use ________ to secure communication between server

and web browser.
a) SMTP b) TLS c) UDP d) None
6) Pretty good privacy protocol provides security at ________ layer.
a) application b) presentation c) session d) transport
7) ________ is a device used to connect two similar networks.
a) Gateway b) Bridge c) Hub d) Brouter
P.T.O.
SLR-W – 318 *SLRW318*
8) ________ are used protect companies internal network from outside network.
a) Filter b) Protector c) Firewall d) None
9) ________ is a most common open source web server available for Linux.
a) Samba b) Apache c) Quid d) Pine
10) Wi-Fi stands for
a) Wide Fidelity b) Wireless Fidelity
c) Wireless Filler d) All
2. Answer the following any five : 10

1) What is login script ?
2) Explain Flow Control.
3) What is cryptography ?
4) Explain the use of Router.
5) What is public key and private key ?
6) What is FTP ?
3. A) Answer the following any two : 6

1) Differentiate between GPS and GPRS.
2) Explain authentication mechanism.
3) List the responsibilities of Network Administrator.
B) Explain User Datagram Protocol. 4
4. Answer the following any two : 10

1) Explain user and group management.
2) Discuss about the elements of transport layer protocol.
3) Explain GPRS.
5. Answer the following any two : 10

1) Explain FTP server and Proxy server.
2) Discuss TCP/IP Protocol suite.
3) Explain network security techniques.
_______________

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*SLRW1* -1- SLR-W

B.Sc. – I (Semester – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Day and Date : Tuesday, 22-3-2016 Max. Marks : 70

N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Rewrite the following sentences by choosing the correct alternative : 14

6) The word ‘intelligence’ is derived from the Latin word ___________

3. A) Write short paragraphs on any two of the following : 8

B) Answer any three of the following questions briefly : 6

4. Write an essay on any one of the following topics. 14

5. Read the following passage carefully and make a note of it. 14

B.Sc.  I (Semester  I) Examination, 2016

Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-3-2016 Max. Marks : 70

iii) (v  b) = RT is known as __________ equation.

a) ideal gas b) kinetic gas

2. Answer any five of the following : 10

Find the value of slope.

iv) Define the terms ideal and non-ideal gases.

3. A) Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

B) Answer any one of the following : 10

5. Answer any five of the following : 10

6. A) Write short notes on any two of the following : 10

B) Answer any one of the following : 10

B.Sc.  I (Semester  I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

Day and Date : Wednesday, 23-3-2016 Max. Marks : 70

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1. Choose correct alternative : 5

2. Answer any five of the following : 10

3. A) Write a short notes on any two of the following : 10

1. Choose correct alternative : 5

2. Answer any five of the following : 10

3. A) Write a short notes on any two of the following : 10

B.Sc. (Part  I) (Semester  I) Examination, 2016

Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.

1. Select the correct answer from the given alternatives : 5

v) Dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are

3. A) Solve any two of the following : 10

2) Derive the Poiseulles equation for rate of flow of an ideal liquid V = .

2. Answer any five of the following : 10

3. A) Answer any two of the following : 10

B.Sc. (Part – I) (Semester – I) (CGPA) Examination, 2016

Day and Date : Saturday, 26-3-2016 Max. Marks : 70

N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

1) The bright planet in our solar system is __________

2) The _______ is the satellite of earth.

3) The average density of the whole earth is about _________ gm/cm3.

4) _________ is a example of metamorphic rock.

5) _________ discontinuity is found in between core and mantle.

2. Answer any five of the following. 10

4) Characteristics of primary waves.

5) State the economic importance of igneous rocks.

6) Give the types of Earth movement.

7) E. Suess classification of interior earth.

3. Write a short notes on any two of the following. 10

1) Classification of Vertical forces with examples.

2) State the formation process of sedimentary rocks.

3) Tidal Hypothesis of origin Earth.

4. Answer any one of the following. 10

2) Define rock and state its classification with good examples.

3) _________ are formed in the deposition work of river.

2. Answer any five of the following. 10

SLRW1 -1- SLR-W

B.Sc. I (Semester I) Examination, 2016

iii) (v b) = RT is known as __________ equation.

B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016

B.Sc. (Part I) (Semester I) Examination, 2016

2) Derive the Poiseulles equation for rate of flow of an ideal liquid V = .

B.Sc. I (Semester I) (CGPA Pattern) Examination, 2016