ALL INDIA MOCK TEST-1-Sunya IAS
ALL INDIA MOCK TEST-1-Sunya IAS
ALL INDIA MOCK TEST-1-Sunya IAS
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST
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Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in
the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response you want to mark on the Answer sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLYon the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
9. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPER.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
1. Which among the following may lead to 3. With reference to carbon dating, consider
the “Crowding-out Effect” in the Country? the following statements:
1. Setting up of a Special Economic Zone 1. Carbon dating is a widely-used method
(SEZ). to establish the age of organic and
2. Higher subsidies on goods and inorganic materials.
services. 2. Scientists have found that radiocarbon
3. Counter-cyclical fiscal policy to deal dating can be a useful tool for dating
with slowdown. fossils and archaeological specimens
4. Reduction in tax rates. from 500 to 50,000 years old
5. Inflow of FDI in the country 3. The Carbon 14 used in the process is
Select the correct answer using the code also the most common isotope of
given below: Carbon found on earth.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Which of the statement(s) given above
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only is/are correct?
(c) 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
2. Consider the following regarding India’s (d) 1, 2 and 3
Forex reserves
1. Apart from Currency reserves, forex 4. Consider the following statements:
reserves also consist of securities and 1. While hate speech has not been
treasury bills. defined, blasphemy has been defined
2. Since 2019, India’s Forex reserves under certain sections of the IPC.
have been consistently increasing. 2. According to section 153A of the IPC,
3. The Reserve Bank of India has fixed hate speech only includes speech or
the upper and lower tolerance bands in signs that cause enmity between people
terms of the amount held in the of particular faiths and not based on
reserves. any other parameter.
4. Rising levels of Foreign reserves can 3. Between the period 2014-2020,
also increase inflation levels in the convictions rates under hate speech
economy. have been less than 50%.
Which of the above statements are correct? Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only correct?
(b) 1 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only (c) 3 only
(d) All of the above.
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
5. With reference to “End to End 7. Consider the following:
Encryption”, consider the following 1. Reduces the overall cost of Energy
statements:
imports.
1. An end-to-end encryption system
makes sure that only the sender, 2. Increase in Farmer incomes in India.
receiver and platform provider can 3. Helps reduce water consumption in
read/access the information. energy utilization.
2. This also protects the meta data like
4. Easy transition to petrol/diesel engines.
date, time, or other information about a
file. 5. Reduces levels of air pollutants and air
3. There is no specific law in India pollution in general.
governing end-to-end encryption. Which of the above can be said to be
Which of the statement(s) given above advantages of ethanol blending?
is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
22. With reference to ‘Central Bank Digital 24. Which of the following are correct with respect
Currency (CBDC)’, consider the following to the James Webb Telescope?
statements: 1. It aims to observe the interstellar space
1. Its use and nature are the same as a fiat and distant galaxies while orbiting the
earth.
currency only it is in the digital form.
2. While the Hubble telescope’s work
2. The holder of CBDC can convert it involved watching the ultraviolet and the
into any commercial bank money or visible spectrum of light, the James Webb
cash even without having a bank Space Telescope would be observing
account. infrared radiations.
3. At present in India, CBDC is available 3. It has been launched through an
only for interbank transfers by international collaboration between
financial institutions. NASA, the European Space Agency
(ESA) and the Canadian Space Agency.
Which of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer using the codes given
correct?
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
26. Consider the following statements regarding 29. Consider the following statements with
the Supreme Court of India: respect to the Indian Economy:
1. A bench consisting of 7 or more judges is 1. Income and Corporate tax collections
considered as a constitutional bench. have been the highest source of finance
2. The Constitution of India has specified the for the government.
minimum number of judges for any case
involving a substantial question of law
2. Expenditure towards pensions accounts
related to the interpretation of Constitution for a higher share of government
3. Till date, the largest bench ever expenditure than subsidies.
constituted for any case in the history of 3. In terms of expenditure, the
the Supreme Court was in the government makes the highest
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) expenditure towards interest payments.
4. The proceedings of the Supreme Court are Which of the above statement(s) is/are
either conducted in English or in Hindi correct?
Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. Consider the following statements
27. The ‘Annual Frontiers Report’ 2022 is released regarding elections in India.
by which of these organizations? 1. The Representation of People Act,
(a) United Nations Environment Programme 1951 allows candidates to contest from
(b) World Health Organisation. multiple constituencies in Lok Sabha
(c) World Economic Forum elections.
(d) World Trade Organisation 2. The Representation of People Act,
1951 bars Members of Lok Sabha from
28. In the context of “Right to Forgotten” in India, representing multiple Lok Sabha
which of the following statements is correct? constituencies.
(a) ‘Right to be Forgotten’ has been
3. Atal Bihari Vajpayee holds the
recognized as a part of Article 19 by the
Supreme Court distinction of having contested from
(b) The Information Technology Act, 2000
three Lok Sabha constituencies
recognises the exercise of citizens’ Right 4. Only the Election Commission of India
to be Forgotten has the authority to de-register inactive
(c) ‘The Committee of Experts on a Data political parties, not the State Election
Protection Framework for India’ was Commissions.
constituted under the Chairmanship of Which of the above statements are correct?
Justice K.S. Puttaswamy to draft a data (a) 1 and 2 only
protection Bill.
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) ‘Right to be forgotten’ cannot be used in a
case if it is required for the purpose of (c) 3 and 4 only
scientific or historical study (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
31. Consider the following: 34. Which of the following are included in the
1. Service exporters Quinary sector of the economy?
2. Importers 1. Legal Professionnals
3. Person/organization who lends money 2. NGOs
to a foreigner in USD
3. Artificial Intelligence
4. Domestic recipient of remittance sent
by NRI relatives 4. Research Scientists
Who among the following may get 5. Quantum Computing.
negatively affected when the value of the Select the correct answer using the codes
Rupee gets appreciated with respect to the given below:
US Dollar?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) Only one statement is correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) Only two statements are correct
(c) Only three statements are correct (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) All four statements are incorrect (d) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
40. Which of these acts and rules regulate 42. Consider the following statements
regarding Biogas:
Genetically Modified crops in India?
1. It is produced by the fermentation of
1. Environment Protection Act of 1986 biodegradable materials such as biomass,
2. Biological Diversity Act of 2002 manure, municipal waste and green
waste in the presence of air.
3. Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006
2. It primarily consists of methane and
4. Drugs and Cosmetics Rule (8th carbon dioxide.
Amendment) of 1988 3. It has a very low calorific value and
cannot be used as a fuel source In many
Select the correct answer using the codes
applications.
given below: Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 only
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
44. Consider the following statements 46. Which of the following statements is/are
regarding the Gross Value Added (GVA): correct regarding the Stockholm
Conference/Declaration?
1. It is defined as the value of output
1. It was the first world conference that
excluding the value of intermediate
placed environmental issues at the
consumption. forefront of international concerns.
2. It is a measure of the contribution to 2. It created Agenda 21 to formulate new
GDP made by an individual producer strategies to invest in the future to
or an industry. achieve overall sustainable
development.
3. The domestic product is essentially a
3. It included the creation of a Global
measure of GVA combined with net Solidarity Fund for the eradication of
taxes. poverty.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Select the correct answer using the codes
correct? given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
47. With respect to the ‘Open Network for
Digital Commerce’ (ONDC), consider the
following statements:
45. In the context of Pulses and their cultivation
1. It is a non-profit company based on a
in India, which of the following statements platform-centric model.
is not correct? 2. It will provide consumers with the
(a) Pulses occupy more than one-tenth of liberty to choose their preferred local
the total cropped area in India. businesses.
3. ‘Google’ is the first big tech company
(b) India is the largest producer as well as
to join the Open Network for Digital
the consumer of pulses in the world.
Commerce.
(c) All pulses help in restoring soil fertility Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
by fixing nitrogen from the air. correct?
(d) Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Madhya (a) 1 and 2 only
Pradesh are the major pulse-producing (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
states in the country.
(d) 2 and 3 only
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
48. Which of the following statements is/are 50. Which of the following measures can be
correct with respect to the Government applied to control Vehicular Pollution?
Security(G-sec) Acquisition Programme
(GSAP)? 1. Reduction of sulphur content in petrol
1. By purchasing G-secs, the Reserve and diesel.
Bank of India (RBI) infuses money 2. Use of Leaded Gasoline.
supply into the economy.
3. Use of Palladium as Catalytic Converters
2. G-SAP may lower the bond yield which
in turn reduces the borrowing cost of in automobiles.
the government. 4. Use of Methanol blended petrol
3. G-SAP announcement is likely to result
in the depreciation of the rupee. Select the correct answer using the codes
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
61. Which of the following statements about 63. Which of the following statements
Mathura School is/are true? regarding the differences between Carnatic
1. It combines native Gandhara tradition music and Hindustani music is/are correct?
with Bactria, Parthian, and other
1. Unlike Hindustani music, Carnatic
influences.
2. The Buddha picture is based on yaksha music is relatively unaffected by the
image lines. Arab and Iranian influences.
3. Though there are many representations 2. There is more scope for improvisation
of the Buddha, there are also many for the artist in Carnatic music than in
images of the Shaiva and Vaishnava
Hindustani music.
faiths.
Which of the statement(s) given above 3. Unlike Hindustani music, Carnatic
is/are correct? music has only one particular
(a) 1 only prescribed style of singing
(b) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) 2 and 3 only given below.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
62. With reference to the ‘Drug Price Control (b) 2 and 3 only
Order, 2013’, consider the following (c) 2 only
statements: (d) 1 and 3 only
1. It is issued under the Essential
Commodities Act (ECA) by the
Ministry of Health and Family 64. With respect to ‘Financial Stability and
Welfare. Development Council (FSDC)’, consider
2. It enables the government to declare a the following statements:
ceiling price for the medicines
1. It is a statutory body.
contained in the National List of
Essential Medicines issued by Ministry 2. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.
of Health and Family Welfare. 3. RBI governor and Chairman of
3. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board are
Authority (NPPA) is the nodal members of the council.
implementing agency of this order.
Which of the statement(s) given above
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only is/are correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
65. Consider the following statements: 67. Which of the following statements are
1. Supreme Court collegium gives the correct about the Suresh Tendulkar
recommendation for the new Chief Committee?
Justice of India 1. It accepted the calorie-based
methodology to calculate poverty in
2. Supreme Court collegium system is the India.
system of appointment and transfer of 2. It proposed that a single Poverty Basket
judges that has evolved through Line be applied to both rural and urban
judgments of the SC, and not by an Act areas.
of Parliament or by a provision of the 3. It used the cost of living as a method for
Constitution evaluating poverty.
3. The Supreme Court collegium consists Which of the statements given above are
of the Chief Justice of India and 5 correct?
senior most Supreme Court judges (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statement(s) given above (b) 2 and 3 only
is/are correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
68. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 only
Doctrine Definition
(d) 3 only 1. Doctrine of It determines under
Repugnancy which list a given
66. The 118thmeeting of the Permanent Indus piece of legislation
Commission (PIC) comprising of Indus falls.
Commissioners of India and Pakistan was 2. Doctrine of It protects the
recently held in New Delhi. In this context, Essentiality religious practices
consider the following statements: that are integral to the
religion.
1. The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) is a
3. Doctrine of Pith It states that any law
water-distribution treaty between India and Substance which is inconsistent
and Pakistan, brokered by the United with fundamental
Nations. rights is not invalid
2. Permanent Indus Commission is 4. Doctrine of It brings harmony
required to meet at least once in a year. Harmonious between the different
3. IWT does not have a unilateral exit Construction lists mentioned in the
provision. seventh Schedule of
the Constitution.
Which of the given above statement(s)
How many pair/s given above is/are correctly
is/are correct? matched?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one pair
(b) 2 only (b) Only two pairs
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) Only three pairs
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) All four pairs
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
69. With reference to the ‘Anchor Investor’, 71. Consider the following pairs:
consider the following statements: River Tributary
1. They are qualified institutional buyers
1. Narmada : Amravati
like a foreign portfolio investor or
mutual fund or insurance company. 2. Godavari : Penganga
2. They are allotted shares of an IPO 3. Krishna : Tungabhadra
before the subscription opens for retail 4. Cauvery : Hemavati
and other investors.
Which of the pair/s given above is/are
3. The anchor investor who applies for
the anchor quota surely gets correctly matched?
guaranteed allotment. (a) Only one pair
4. They have to buy the shares at a price (b) Only two pairs
fixed by the company.
(c) Only three pairs
5. The anchor investor can sell his/her
allotted shares at any time after the (d) All four pairs
IPO listing is completed.
Which of the statements given above are 72. Which of the following is not an Indus
correct?
Valley site?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) Sakengat
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Rangpur
(d) 1, 3 and 5 only (c) Sukatagendor
(d) Lothal
70. In the context of Indian history, consider
the following statements about Rani Velu
Nachiyar: 73. Consider the following pairs:
1. Rani Velu Nachiyar was the first queen Ocean Current Nature
to wage war against the East India 1. Oyashio Current : Cold
Company.
2. Kuroshio Current : Warm
2. She formed an alliance with Hyder Ali
against the British in 1780. 3. California Current : Warm
3. She established the first non- 4. Humbolt Current : Warm
governmental press in Kerala. Which of the pair/s given above are
Which of the above statements are correct? correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one pair
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two pairs
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
74. Which of the following was not the reason 76. With reference to the Biodiversity heritage
for the introduction of Permanent sites (BHS), consider the following
statements:
Settlement?
1. They are notified by the National
(a) The British wanted to create a class of
Biodiversity Authority under the
Zamindars who would be loyal to the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
company in future. 2. It should include both wild and
(b) It would be easy for the company to domesticated biodiversity and human
collect revenue from a few Zamindars cultural relations with such
biodiversity.
rather than millions of peasants.
3. The Arittapatti village in Palakkad
(c) The British wanted to create a system district was notified as the first
of private ownership of land. biodiversity heritage site in Kerala.
(d) The land was a commodity for free Which of the statement(s) given above
sale and purchase, which the British is/are correct?
wanted to change. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
75. Consider the following statements about (d) 3 only
“Magnetic Resonance Imaging”:
1. It is a non-invasive imaging 77. With reference to Artificial Neural
technology that produces three- Networks (ANNs), consider the following
dimensional detailed anatomical statements:
1. ANNs are sophisticated computer
images.
systems that mimic the working of the
2. Their disadvantage is that they use the human brain.
damaging ionizing radiation of x-rays. 2. Artificial neural networks are still a
3. In the brain, MRI can differentiate proposed technology, which has not
between white matter and grey matter. been materialised in any form yet..
3. Deep learning is commonly known as
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
active neural networks.
correct?
Which of the statement(s) given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
78. Consider the following statements with 80. Match the following pairs:
reference to the Ryotwari System during List I List II
British rule in India: 1. Drip pricing i. Where the total price is
1. The Ryotwari System was formulated revealed to the customer
by Captain Alexander Read and Sir only at the end of the
Thomas Munro at the end of the 18th purchase.
century. 2. Bait and ii. Like ads that do not
2. Under the Ryotwari system, the land switch disclose they are
revenue was paid by the farmers promotional in nature.
through intermediaries. 3. Disguised iii. Where an advertisement
3. The intermediary also called the ryot advertising directly or indirectly
implies one outcome
had full rights regarding sale, transfer,
based on the consumer's
and leasing of the land.
action but instead serves
Which of the statement(s) given above
an alternative outcome.
is/are incorrect?
4. False iv. Stating the products are
(a) 1 only urgency more limited than they
(b) 1 and 3 only actually are.
(c) 1 and 2 only How many pair/s are correctly matched?
(d) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
79. With respect to the legislative procedure (c) Only three pairs
followed in the Indian Parliament, which of (d) All four pairs
the following statements is incorrect?
(a) A Bill containing any provision related 81. Which of the following statements is/are
to the appropriation of money out of correct about the Avijika Sect?
the Consolidated Fund of India can 1. It is based on the theory of cosmic
only be introduced in the Lok Sabha principles.
(b) A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which 2. They opposed the teachings of Jainism
has not been passed by Lok Sabha and Buddhism.
shall not lapse on dissolution of Lok 3. They believe in the Karma doctrine.
Sabha 4. Bindusara was one of the prominent
(c) Constitution explicitly mentions that followers of this sect.
each House of Parliament may make Which of the statements given above are
rules for the conduct of their business correct?
(d) In the absence of Speaker of the Lok (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Sabha, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
presides over the joint sitting of the (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
two houses of Parliament (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
82. Which of the following statements regarding 84. Which of the following are potential
the temperature of the ocean is correct?
benefits of coastal marshes and wetlands?
1. With increasing salinity, the temperature
absorbing capacity is increased. 1. They act as migration areas only for
2. Ocean water freezes at a lower birds.
temperature than freshwater.
2. They purify and recharge groundwater.
3. The vertical distribution of temperature
in the ocean shows a decrease in 3. They prevent contamination of wells in
temperature with depth everywhere the coastal areas.
around the world.
4. They protect the coastlines from
4. Mean temperature of the Indian ocean is
higher than the Pacific Ocean. storms and cyclones.
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
given below:
(a) 1,2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
90. Consider the following statements in the 92. Consider the following statements:
context of India.
1. India and Pakistan are among the
1. In Golak Nath Case (1967), Supreme
Court held that the Parliament has the founding members of the Asian Palm
authority to take away Fundamental Oil Alliance.
Rights
2. India imports nearly all its sunflower
2. In Indira Nehru Gandhi Case (1975),
Supreme Court, using the “basic oil from Ukraine and Russia.
structure” doctrine, invalidated a 3. India is the largest importer of palm oil
provision of Constitution which kept
in Asia.
election disputes involving the Prime
Minister outside the jurisdiction of all Which of the statements given above are
courts correct:
3. In Minerva Mills Case (1980), Supreme
(a) 1 and 2 only
Court, using the “basic structure”
doctrine, invalidated some provisions of (b) 1 and 3 only
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, (c) 2 and 3 only
1976
Which of the statements given above are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
93. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
not correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Lichens are primitive land plants
occupying an intermediate position
91. Consider the following statements regarding between algae and pteridophytes.
the anti-defection measures in India
1. The question of disqualification due to 2. Algae, bryophytes and ferns are
the defection of a Rajya Sabha member classified as cryptogams that require
is decided by the Chairman moist conditions to survive.
2. Supreme Court upheld the power
available to Speaker under the Tenth 3. India’s first Cryptogamic garden has
Schedule in deciding cases of been recently inaugurated in the State
disqualification of MLAs of Uttarakhand.
3. Anti-defection law allows nominated
legislators to become part of a political Select the correct answer using the codes
party only after the expiry of six months given below:
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
94. Consider the following statements with 96. The terms “Lazy Minting” and “Polygon
respect to the Lok Sabha. Blockchain” sometimes seen in the news
1. On Adjournment sine die of the Lok are related to:
Sabha, the pending business before the
(a) Malware that is posing a threat to
House does not lapse.
newly developed blockchain
2. On Prorogation of the Lok Sabha, the
technology and affecting decentralized
Motions, Resolutions, and amendments
ledgers.
which have already been moved and
are pending in the House do not lapse. (b) Software for mining cryptocurrencies
3. The Prorogation of the House may take that require low energy to process.
place any time, even while the House (c) Methods to avoid gas fees on Non-
is sitting. Fungible Token.
Which of the statements given above are (d) New cryptocurrencies gaining popula-
correct?
rity due to their features similar to
(a) 1 and 2 only
Bitcoin.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
97. Which of the following Governor-
(d) 1, 2 and 3
General/Viceroy is best described from the
statements given below?
95. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Emissions Gap 1. He Established the Fort William
Report 2022, India is the World’s fifth College at Calcutta to train Civil
largest GreenHouse Gas emitter. Servants.
2. India has not signed the 'Global 2. He introduced Subsidiary Alliance
Methane Pledge', which aims 30% System in 1798.
reduction in global methane emissions
3. The Treaty of Bassein took place
by 2030 over 2020 emission levels.
during his tenure.
Which of the statement(s) given above
Choose the correct option.
is/are correct?
(a) Lord Wellesley
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) Lord Cornwallis
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ALL INDIA MOCK TEST PRELIMS 2023
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