Chapter 6 Xamidea

Chapter–6
Molecular Basis
of Inheritance
QQ Two types of nucleic acids are present in living systems—ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic
acid (DNA).
1. The Structure of Polynucleotide Chain

QQ A nucleotide is the basic unit of polynucleotide
chain of DNA or RNA.
QQ Each nucleotide is composed of three components:
(i) a nitrogenous base,
(ii) pentose sugar (ribose in case of RNA and
deoxyribose for DNA), and
Fig. 6.1 Types of sugar molecules
(iii) a phosphate group.
QQ Nitrogenous base: It is of two types, purine (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidine (cytosine and
thymine). Uracil is only present in RNA instead of thymine.
QQ A nitrogenous base is attached to the pentose sugar by an N-glycosidic linkage to form a nucleoside.
QQ When a phosphate group is attached to 5′–OH of a nucleoside through phosphodiester linkage, a
nucleotide is formed.
QQ Two nucleotides are joined through 3′–5′ phosphodiester linkage and a dinucleotide is formed. Thus,
when numerous nucleotides are joined, a polynucleotide chain is formed.
O
O
O
O
Fig. 6.2 A polynucleotide chain
QQ One end of polynucleotide chain contains pentose sugar with free OH at 5′ end (it is called 5′–end)
and the other end contains sugar with free OH at 3′ end (it is called 3′–end).
QQ Sugar and phosphate constitute the backbone of polynucleotide chain and nitrogenous bases are
linked to sugar moiety which projects from the backbone.
2. Salient Features of Double Helical DNA

QQ James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953 proposed the double helix model of DNA based on the X-ray
diffraction data produced by Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin and Erwin Chargaff’s rules of
base pairing.
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 193

QQ Chargaff’s rules:
(i) The amount of adenine is always equal to the amount of thymine and the amount of guanine is
always equal to the amount of cytosine, i.e., [A] = [T], [G] = [C]
(ii) Adenine is joined to thymine with two hydrogen bonds and guanine is joined to cytosine by
three hydrogen bonds.
(iii) The ratio of adenine and guanine to that of thymine and cytosine is always equal to one, i.e.,
[A + G]
=1
[T + C]
Fig. 6.3 DNA double helix
Following are some features of DNA:

(i) DNA is made up of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is made up of sugar and
phosphate groups and the nitrogenous bases project towards the centre.
(ii) There is complementary base pairing between the two strands of DNA. ‘A’ pairs with ‘T’ with
2 hydrogen bonds and ‘C’ pairs with ‘G’ with 3 hydrogen bonds.
(iii) The two strands are coiled in right-handed fashion and are anti-parallel in orientation. One
chain has a 5′→3′ polarity while the other has 3′→5′ polarity.
(iv) The diameter of the strand is always constant due to pairing of purine and pyrimidine, i.e.,
adenine is complementary to thymine while guanine is complementary to cytosine.
(v) The distance between two base pairs in a helix is 0.34 nm and a complete turn contains
approximately ten base pairs. The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm and the two strands are right-
handed coiled.
(vi) Plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix. This in addition to hydrogen bonds
confers stability to the helical structure.
(vii) Linkage between nitrogenous base and pentose sugar is N-glycosidic linkage.
3. Central Dogma of Molecular Biology

QQ Francis Crick proposed the central dogma of molecular biology which states that genetic information
flows from DNA to mRNA (transcription) and then from mRNA to protein (translation) always
unidirectionally (except bidirectionally in some viruses and the process is called reverse transcription).

Replication DNA Transcription mRNA Translation
Protein
Reverse Transcription
194 Xam idea Biology–XII

4. Packaging of DNA
QQ Distance between two base pairs is 0.34 nm. If length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian
cell is calculated, i.e., total number of base pairs × by distance between two consecutive base pairs,
i.e., 6.6 × 109 bp × 0.34 × 10–9 m/bp = 2.2 meters. This length is far greater than the dimension of a
typical nucleus (= 10–6 m). Therefore, DNA needs to be packaged to fit in the nucleus.
(i) Packaging of DNA in prokaryotes

OO In prokaryotes, well-defined nucleus is absent so DNA is present in a region called nucleoid.
The negatively charged DNA is coiled with some positively charged non-histone basic proteins.
OO DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held by proteins.
(ii) Packaging of DNA in eukaryotes

OO Roger Kornberg (1974) reported that chromosome is
made up of DNA and protein.
OO Later, Beadle and Tatum reported that chromatin
fibres look like beads on the string, where beads are
repeated units of proteins.
OO The proteins associated with DNA are of two types—
basic proteins (histones) and acidic non-histone
chromosomal (NHC) proteins.
OO The negatively charged DNA molecule wraps
around the positively charged histone proteins to
form a structure called nucleosome.
OO The nucleosome core is made up of four types of Fig. 6.4 Nucleosome
histone proteins—H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 occurring in
pairs.
OO 200 bp of DNA helix wrap around the nucleosome by 1¾ turns, plugged by H1 histone protein.
OO Repeating units of nucleosomes form the chromatin in nucleus, which is a thread-like structure.
OO The chromatin is packed to form a solenoid structure of 30 nm diametre.
OO Further supercoiling forms a looped structure called the chromatin fibre.
OO These chromatin fibres further coil and condense at metaphase stage of cell division to form
chromosomes. Packaging of chromatin at higher level requires NHC proteins.
Table 6.1: Differences between euchromatin and heterochromatin
S. No. Euchromatin Heterochromatin

(i) Regions of chromatin, which are loosely packed Regions of chromatin, which are densely packed
during interphase are called euchromatin. during cell division are called heterochromatin.
(ii) When chromosomes are stained with Feulgen When chromosomes are stained with Feulgen
stain (specific for DNA), these appear as lightly stain, these appear as intensely stained chromatin.
stained chromatin.
(iii) Euchromatin contains active genes. Heterochromatin contains inactive genes.
(iv) They do not contain repetitive DNA sequences. They are enriched with highly repetitive tandemly
arranged DNA sequences.
(v) It is transcriptionally active. It is transcriptionally inactive.

5. Transforming Principle
QQ Frederick Griffith (1928) conducted experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae (bacterium causing
pneumonia).
QQ He observed two strains of this bacterium—one forming smooth shiny colonies (S-type) with capsule,
while other forming rough colonies (R-type) without capsule.
virulent Non-Virulent Heat Killed Heat Killed S-cells +

S-cells R-cells S-cells Live R-cells
Died Survived Survived Died
Absence of Absence of
bacteria bacteria
Virulent (S-cells) Virulent (S-cells)

Fig. 6.5 Griffith’s experiment on transformation
QQ When live S-type cells were injected into mice, they died due to pneumonia.
QQ When live R-type cells were injected into mice, they survived.
QQ When heat-killed S-type cells were injected into mice, they survived and there were no symptoms of
pnuemonia.
QQ When heat-killed S-type cells were mixed with live R-type cells and injected into mice, they died due
to unexpected symptoms of pneumonia and live S-type cells were obtained from mice.
QQ He concluded that heat-killed S-type bacteria caused a transformation of the R-type bacteria into
S-type bacteria but he was not able to understand the cause of this bacterial transformation.
QQ He further stated that some ‘transforming principle’ transferred from heat killed S strain, enabled R
strain to synthesize a smooth polysaccharide coat and become virulent. But biochemical nature of
genetic material was not defined from his experiments.
6. Biochemical Characterisation of Transforming Principle

QQ Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty repeated Griffith’s experiment in an in vitro
system in order to determine biochemical nature of transforming principle.

QQ They purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA, RNA) from heat-killed S-type cells, and checked which
of these could transform live R-type cells into S-type cell. They observed that DNA alone from S-type
cells caused transformation of R-type cells into virulent S-type cells.
QQ They also discovered that proteases (protein digesting enzymes) and RNases (RNA digesting
enzymes) did not affect transformation while DNases inhibited the process.
QQ They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material.
7. Proof for DNA as the Genetic Material

QQ Hershey and Chase (1952) conducted experiments on bacteriophage to prove that DNA is the genetic
material.
detected in bacterial cell pellet

detected in bacterial cell pellet
Fig. 6.6 The Hershey–Chase experiment
QQ Procedure:
(i) Some bacteriophage virus were grown on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus
(32P) and some in another medium with radioactive sulphur (35S).
(ii) Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus (32P) contained radioactive DNA.
(iii) Similar viruses grown in presence of radioactive sulphur (35S) contained radioactive protein.
(iv) Both the radioactive virus types were allowed to infect E. coli separately.
(v) Soon after infection, the bacterial cells were gently agitated in blender to remove viral coats
from the bacteria.
(vi) The culture was also centrifuged to separate the viral particle from the bacterial cell.
QQ Observations and Conclusions:
(i) Only radioactive 32P was found to be associated with the bacterial cell, whereas radioactive 35S
was only found in surrounding medium and not in the bacterial cell.
(ii) This indicates that only DNA and not the protein coat entered the bacterial cell.
(iii) This proves that DNA is the genetic material which is passed from virus to bacteria and not
protein.

8. Characteristics of Genetic Material
In some viruses, RNA is the genetic material (e.g., Tobacco Mosaic virus). RNA also performs functions
QQ
of messenger and adapter.

(i) DNA and RNA have the ability to direct their duplications because of rule of base pairing and
complementarity but proteins fail to fulfill first criteria itself.
(ii) Genetic material should be stable so as not to change with different stages of life cycle, age or
change in physiology of organism.
(iii) RNA being unstable mutates at a faster rate. Thus, viruses having RNA genome and having
shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
(iv) RNA can code directly for protein synthesis and hence can easily express characters. But DNA is
dependent on RNA for protein synthesis. Protein synthesizing machinery has evolved around
RNA.
Conclusion: Both RNA and DNA can function as genetic material, but DNA being chemically
less reactive and structurally being more stable is a better genetic material. DNA is more stable
than RNA because of:
(a) being double standard.
(b) two strands being complementary; even if separated by heating they come together.
(c) DNA is less reactive than RNA as has 2l –OH group is absent in every nucleotide (RNA has
2l –OH group). RNA being catalytic, is very reactive.
(d) Presence of thymine in place of uracil provides additional stability to DNA.
9. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)

QQ RNA was the first genetic material.
QQ Essential life processes (such as metabolism, translation, splicing, etc.) evolved around RNA.
QQ RNA acts as genetic material as well as catalyst.
QQ RNA being a catalyst was reactive and hence unstable. Therefore, DNA has evolved from RNA with
chemical modifications that make it more stable.
QQ DNA being double stranded and having complementary strand resist changes by evolving a process
of repair.
Table 6.2: Differences between DNA and RNA
S. No. DNA RNA
(i) The sugar present is deoxyribose. The sugar present is ribose.
(ii) Nitrogenous bases present are adenine, Nitrogenous bases present are adenine, guanine,
guanine, thymine and cytosine. cytosine and uracil.
(iii) It is always double stranded. It can be single stranded or double stranded.
(iv) It is the genetic material of almost all living It is the genetic material of only some viruses.
organisms.
(v) It is chemically less reactive and structurally It is chemically more reactive and structurally
more stable. less stable.
10. DNA Replication

QQ Watson and Crick in 1953 proposed a scheme that DNA replication was semi-conservative.
QQ According to the scheme, the two parental strands separate and each strand acts as a template for
synthesising a complementary strand over it.
QQ After completion of replication, each DNA had one parental strand and one newly synthesised strand.

(i) Experimental proof for semi-conservative mode of DNA replication
OO Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl in 1958 performed experiments on E. coli to prove that
DNA replication is semi-conservative.
OO They grew E. coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl (in
which 15N is the heavy isotope of nitrogen) for many
generations.
OO As a result, 15N got incorporated into newly
synthesised DNA.
OO This heavy DNA can be differentiated from normal
DNA by centrifugation in caesium chloride (CsCl)
density gradient.
OO Then they transferred the cells into a medium with
normal 14NH4Cl and took the samples at various
definite time intervals as the cells multiplied.
OO The extracted DNAs were centrifuged and measured
to get their densities.
OO The DNA extracted from the culture after one
generation of transfer from the 15N medium to 14N
medium (i.e., after 20 minutes; E. coli divides every
20 minutes) showed an intermediate hybrid density.
OO The DNA extracted from culture after two generations
(i.e., after 40 minutes) showed equal amounts of light
DNA and hybrid DNA.
OO When allowed to grow for 80 minutes, it showed
Fig. 6.7 Watson–Crick model for semi-
more amounts of light DNA but the hybrid DNA still conservative DNA replication
maintained itself.
OO Similar experiment was performed by Taylor and colleagues in 1958, on Vicia faba using
radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of newly synthesized DNA in chromosomes to
prove that the DNA in chromosome also replicate semi-conservatively.
At 0 minutes After 20 minutes After 40 minutes
Fig. 6.8 Meselson and Stahl’s experiment
(ii) Enzymes for DNA replication

OO Various enzymes are required as catalysts during DNA replication in living cells.
(a) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase: It catalyses the polymerisation of deoxynucleotides
on DNA template at a fast rate. Its average rate of polymerisation is 2000 bp per second.
[It completes process of replication for E.coli within 38 minutes which has only 4.6 × 106

bp whereas for human genome, diploid content is 6.6 × 109 bp]. It also has to catalyse
reaction with high degree of accuracy as any mistake during replication would result into
mutations.
(b) Helicase: It unwinds the DNA strand to form the replication fork.
(c) DNA ligase: It joins the Okazaki fragments which are formed on the lagging strand.
OO Dual Purpose of Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates:
(i) Act as substrate because deoxyribonucleotides are joined to form DNA.

(ii) Provide energy for polymerisation reaction as polymeristion is energetically very expensive
(The two terminal phosphates in a deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates are high energy
phosphates as in ATP).
(iii) Process of DNA Replication

OO DNA replication begins at a unique and fixed
point called origin of replication or ‘ori’.
Initiation
QQ The complementary strands of DNA double helix are
separated by enzyme, DNA helicase. This is called
unwinding of double-stranded DNA.
QQ The separated strands tend to rewind, therefore these
are stabilised by proteins called single strand binding
proteins (ssBPs), which bind to the separated strands.
QQ Unwinding of double-stranded DNA forms a Y-shaped
configuration in the DNA duplex, which is called
replication fork.
Fig. 6.9 Replication fork
Elongation
QQ An enzyme called primase initiates replication of the strand oriented in the 3′ (towards origin)→5′
(towards fork) direction. This generates 10–60 nucleotides long primer RNA (replicated in 5′→3′
direction).
QQ The free 3′–OH of this RNA primer provides the initiation point for DNA polymerase for sequential
addition of deoxyribonucleotides.
QQ DNA polymerase progressively adds deoxyribonucleotides to the free 3′-end of the growing
polynucleotide chain so that replication of the 3′→5′ strand of the DNA molecule is continuous
(growth of the new strand in 5′→3′ direction).
QQ The replication of 3′→5′ strand is continuous and it is called leading strand, while the replication of
second strand (5′→3′ strand) of the DNA molecules is discontinuous and it is known as the lagging
strand.
QQ The replication of lagging strand generates small polynucleotide fragments called ‘Okazaki
fragments’ (after R. Okazaki, who first identified them).
QQ These Okazaki fragments are then joined together by enzyme called DNA ligase.
11. Transcription
QQ The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as
transcription.
QQ The principle of complementarity governs the process, except that adenosine now base pairs with
uracil instead of thymine, as in replication.
QQ Unlike replication, only a single-stranded fragment of DNA gets copied into RNA.

Transcription unit
QQ The transcription unit of DNA contains three regions in the DNA:
(i) The promoter: It is the binding site for RNA polymerase for initiation of transcription.
(ii) The structural gene: It codes for enzyme or protein for structural functions.
(iii) The terminator: It is the region where transcription ends.
Anti-sense strand
or
or
Sense strand
Fig. 6.10 Schematic structure of a transcription unit
QQ The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase helps in DNA replication by catalysing the polymerisation
in only one direction, i.e., 5′→3′.
QQ The DNA strand that has the polarity 3′→5′ acts as a template and is also referred to as template strand.
QQ The strand which does not get transcripted is called coding strand and has the polarity 5′→3′. Its
sequence is same as RNA formed.
QQ The promoter is located towards 5′-end (upstream) of the structural gene of coding strands and
provides the binding site for RNA polymerase.
QQ The sequence of DNA located towards the 3′-end (downstream) of the coding strand where the
process of transcription would stop is called terminator.
12. Transcription Unit and the Gene

QQ The segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide is called cistron.
QQ In eukaryotes, the transcription unit possess a structural gene specific only for a single polypeptide.
Thus it is called monocistronic.
QQ In prokaryotes, the transcription unit possessing the structural genes for many polypeptides which
are part of single metabolic pathway are called polycistronic.
QQ The gene in eukaryotes are split into the coding or expressed sequence of DNA called exon, and non-
expressable sequence of DNA called intron or intervening sequence.
QQ mRNA contains only exon but no intron.
QQ Regulatory sequences are loosely defined as regulatory genes, though they do not code for any RNA
or protein.
13. Transcription in Prokaryotes

QQ In prokaryotes, the structural gene is polycistronic and continuous.
QQ In bacteria, the transcription of all the three types of RNA (mRNA, tRNA and rRNA) is catalysed by
single DNA-dependent enzyme, called the RNA polymerase.
QQ All three RNA's are needed to synthesize a protein in cell. mRNA provides the template, tRNA
brings amino acids and reads the genetic code, and rRNA plays structural and catalytic role durinng
translation.
QQ The transcription is completed in three steps: initiation, elongation and termination.
QQ Initiation: s (sigma) factor recognises the start signal and promotor region on DNA which then along
with RNA polymerase binds to the promoter to initiate transcription. It uses nucleoside triphosphates
as substrate and polymerises in a template-dependent fashion following the rule of complementarity.

Fig. 6.11 Process of transcription in bacteria
QQ Elongation: The RNA polymerase after initiation of RNA transcription loses the s factor but continues
the polymerisation of ribonucleotides to form RNA. It facilitates opening of helix and continues
elongation with only a short stretch of RNA being bound to enzyme at a time.
QQ Termination: Once the RNA polymerase reaches the termination region of DNA, the RNA polymerase
is separated from DNA–RNA hybrid, as a result nascent RNA separates. This process is called
termination which is facilitated by a termination factor r (rho).
QQ In prokaryotes, mRNA does not require any processing, so both transcription and translation occur
in the cytosol. It can be said that transcription and translation are coupled together as many times
translation can begin much before mRNA is fully transcribed.
14. Transcription in Eukaryotes

QQ The structural genes are monocistronic in eukaryotes.
QQ The process of transcription is similar to that in prokaryotes.
QQ It takes place in the nucleus.
QQ Coding gene sequences called exons form the part of mRNA and non-coding sequence called introns
are removed during RNA splicing and exons are joined in a defined order.
QQ In eukaryotes, three types of RNA polymerases are found in the nucleus:
(i) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.8S).
(ii) RNA polymerase II transcribes the precursor of mRNA (called heterogeneous nuclear RNA or
hnRNA).
(iii) RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs).
Post-transcriptional modifications
QQ The primary transcripts are non-functional, containing both the coding region, exon, and non-coding
region, intron, in RNA and are called heterogenous RNA or hnRNA.
QQ The hnRNA undergoes splicing and two additional processes called capping and tailing.
QQ In capping, an unusual nucleotide, methyl guanosine triphosphate, is added to the 5′-end of hnRNA.

...AAAAA
Functional m
Fig. 6.12 Post-transcriptional modifications in eukaryotes
QQ In tailing, adenylate residues (about 200–300) are added at 3′-end in a template independent manner.
QQ Now the hnRNA undergoes a process where the introns are removed and exons are joined to form
mRNA by the process called splicing.
15. Genetic Code

QQ The relationship between the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA and sequence of amino acids in the
polypeptide is called genetic code.
QQ George Gamow suggested that the code must be of 3 bases in order to code for 20 amino acids because
there are only 4 bases (i.e., 43 or 4 × 4 × 4 = 64) which code for 20 amino acids. So, codon is a triplet.
QQ Har Gobind Khorana developed chemical method for synthesising RNA molecules with defined
base combinations (homopolymers and copolymers) to develop the genetic code.
QQ Marshall Nirenberg developed cell-free system for protein synthesis and thus artificially synthesised
proteins to understand the nature of codons.
QQ Severo Ochoa demonstrated that polynucleotide phosphorylase also helped in polymerising RNA
with defined sequences in a template-independent manner (enzymatic RNA synthesis).
Table 6.3: The Codons for the Various Amino Acids
First Third
position position
Second position
U C A G
UUU Phe UCU Ser UAU Tyr UGU Cys U
UUC Phe UCC Ser UAC Tyr UGC Cys C
U
UUA Leu UCA Ser UAA Stop UGA Stop A
UUG Leu UCG Ser UAG Stop UGG Trp G

CUU Leu CCU Pro CAU His CGU Arg U
CUC Leu CCC Pro CAC His CGC Arg C
C
CUA Leu CCA Pro CAA Gln CGA Arg A
CUG Leu CCG Pro CAG Gln CGG Arg G
AUU Ile
ACU Thr AAU Asn AGU Ser U
AUC Ile
ACC Thr AAC Asn AGC Ser C
AUA Ile
A ACA Thr AAA Lys AGA Arg A
AUG Met/
ACG Thr AAG Lys AGG Arg G
Start
GUU Val GCU Ala GAU Asp GGU Gly U
GUC Val GCC Ala GAC Asp GGC Gly C
G GUA Val GCA Ala GAA Glu GGA Gly A
GUG Val GCG Ala GAG Glu GGG Gly G
Salient features of genetic code

(i) The codons are triplet. Out of 64 codons, 61 code for 20 amino acids and 3 codons (UAA, UGA,
UAG) do not code for any amino acid hence, function as stop or terminating codons.
(ii) One codon codes for only one particular amino acid, hence the code is unambiguous and specific.
(iii) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate.
(iv) The codon is read on mRNA in a contiguous fashion, i.e., without punctuations and thus the
code is commaless.
(v) The genetic code is nearly universal, i.e., a particular codon codes for the same amino acid in all
organisms from bacteria to human except in mitochondria and few protozoans.
(vi) AUG is a dual function codon, it codes for methionine (met) and it also acts as initiator codon.
16. tRNA—the Adapter Molecule

QQ Francis Crick proposed the presence of an adapter molecule which could read the code on one end
and on the other end would bind to the specific amino acids.
QQ However, tRNA was known before the genetic code was postulated and was then called sRNA
(soluble RNA). Its role as an adapter molecule was reported later.
Structure
QQ The secondary structure of tRNA is clover-
leaf like but the three-dimensional tertiary Amino acid arm
structure depicts it as a compact inverted D loop
L-shaped molecule. T loop
QQ tRNA has five arms or loops:
(i) Anticodon loop, which has bases
Variable arm
complementary to the code.
Anticodon
(ii) Amino acid acceptor end to which loop
amino acids bind.
(iii) T loop, which helps in binding to
ribosome.
Fig. 6.13 tRNA—the adapter molecule
(iv) D loop, which helps in binding
aminoacyl synthetase.
(v) Variable arm.

QQ Each tRNA is specific for a particular amino acid.
QQ A specific tRNA for initiation is called initiator tRNA.
QQ There is no tRNA for stop codons.
17. Translation
QQ Translation is the process of synthesis of protein from amino acids, sequence and order of amino
acids being defined by sequence of bases in mRNA. Amino acids are joined by peptide bonds.
QQ A translational unit in mRNA from 5' → 3' comprises of a start codon, region coding for a polypeptide,
a stop codon and untranslated regions (UTRs). UTRs are additional sequences of mRNA that are
not translated. They are present at both 5' end (before start codon) and at 3' end (after stop codon)
for efficient translation process.
Trp
Fig. 6.14 Process of translation

(i) Initiation
OO In prokaryotes, initiation requires the large and small ribosome subunits, the mRNA, initiation
tRNA and three initiation factors (IFs).
OO Activation of amino acid: Amino acids become activated by binding with aminoacyl tRNA
synthetase enzyme in the presence of ATP.
Aminoacyl tRNA
Amino acid (AA) + ATP AA–AMP–Enzyme complex + Pi
synthetases
OO Transfer of amino acid to tRNA: The AA–AMP–Enzyme complex formed reacts with specific
tRNA to form aminoacyl-tRNA complex.
AA–AMP–Enzyme complex + tRNA AA–tRNA + AMP + Enzyme.

OO The cap region of mRNA binds to the smaller subunit of ribosome.
OO The ribosome has two sites, A-site and P-site.
OO The smaller subunit first binds to the initiator mRNA and then binds to the larger subunit so
that initiation codon (AUG) lies on the P-site.
OO The initiation tRNA, i.e., methionyl tRNA then binds to the P-site.
(ii) Elongation of polypeptide chain

OO Another charged aminoacyl tRNA complex binds to the A-site of the ribosome at the second
codon.
OO A peptide bond is formed between carboxyl group (—COOH) of amino acid at P-site and
amino group (—NH) of amino acid at A-site by the enzyme peptidyl transferase.
OO The ribosome slides over mRNA from codon to codon in the 5′→3′ direction i.e. called
translocation.
OO According to the sequence of codons, amino acids are attached to one another by peptide
bonds and a polypeptide chain is formed.
(iii) Termination of polypeptide

OO When the A-site of ribosome reaches a termination codon, which does not code for any amino
acid, no charged tRNA binds to the A-site.
OO Dissociation of polypeptide from ribosome takes place, which is catalysed by a ‘release factor’.
OO There are three termination codons namely UGA, UAG and UAA.
18. Regulation of Gene Expression

QQ Regulation of gene expression means controlling the amount and time of formation of gene products
according to the requirements of the cell.
QQ In eukaryotes, gene regulation can take place at four levels:
(i) Transcription level (regulation of primary transcript formation),
(ii) Processing level (regulation of splicing),
(iii) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm,
(iv) Translation level.
QQ In prokaryotes, control of rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for control of gene
expression. It can be seen in lac operon and trp operon.

19. The lac Operon
QQ Operon: The concept of operon was first proposed in 1961, by Jacob and Monod. An operon is a unit
of prokaryotic gene expression which includes coordinately regulated (structural) genes and control
elements which are recognised by regulatory gene product.
QQ Components of an operon:
(i) Structural gene: The fragment of DNA which transcribe mRNA for polypeptide synthesis.
(ii) Promoter: The sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription of
structural genes is called promoter.
(iii) Operator: The sequence of DNA adjacent to promoter where specific repressor protein binds is
called operator.
(iv) Regulator gene: The gene that codes for the repressor protein that binds to the operator and
suppresses its activity as a result of which transcription will be switched off.
(v) Inducer: The substrate that prevents the repressor from binding to the operator, is called an
inducer. As a result transcription is switched on. It is a chemical of diverse nature like metabolite,
hormone substrate, etc.
QQ The lactose operon: The lac z, lac y, lac a genes are transcribed from a lac transcription unit under the
control of a single promoter. They encode enzyme required for the use of lactose as a carbon source.
The lac i gene product, the lac repressor, is expressed from a separate transcription unit upstream
from the operator.
QQ Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.
QQ lac operon consists of three structural genes (z, y, a), operator (o), promoter (p) and a separate
regulatory gene (i). Lactose is the inducer in lac operon.
QQ The three structural genes (z, y, a) transcribe a polycistronic mRNA.
(a) p i p o z y a
(Switched off)
Fig. 6.15 (a) The lac operon in absence of inducer
(b) p i p o z y a
(Switched on)
Fig. 6.15 (b) The lac operon in presence of inducer

QQ Gene z codes for β-galactosidase (β-gal) enzyme which breaks lactose into galactose and glucose.
QQ Gene y codes for permease, which increases the permeability of the cell to lactose (β-galactosides).
QQ Gene a codes for enzyme transacetylase, which catalyses the transacetylation of lactose in its active
form.
QQ When Lactose is Absent
(i) When lactose is absent, i gene regulates and produces repressor mRNA which translates into
repressor protein.
(ii) The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and as a result prevents RNA
polymerase to bind to the operon.
(iii) The operon is switched off.
QQ When Lactose is Present
(i) Lactose acts as an inducer which binds to the repressor and forms an inactive repressor.
(ii) The repressor fails to bind to the operator region.
(iii) The RNA polymerase binds to the operator and transcribes lac mRNA.
(iv) lac mRNA is polycistronic, i.e., produces all three enzymes, β-galactosidase, permease and
transacetylase.
(v) The lac operon is switched on.
20. Human Genome Project (HGP)

QQ Genetic make-up of an organism lies in DNA sequences. If two individuals differ, then their DNA
sequences will also vary, at least at some places if not all.
QQ The human genome project was a 13-year project by the U.S. Department of Energy and the National
Institute of Health to gain “complete knowledge of the organization, structure and function of the
human genome”. It was launched in 1990 and completed in 2003.
Goals of HGP
(i) To identify the 20,000–25,000 genes in human DNA and develop a genetic linkage map by
identifying the genetic markers.
(ii) To determine all the 3 billion chemical base pair sequences that make up human DNA.
(iii) To store the data and develop technology for its management.
(iv) To obtain a physical map of human genome by cloning genomic DNA using YACs and cosmids.
(v) To transfer the technologies to other sectors such as industries.
(vi) To address the ethical, legal and social issues (ELSI) that may arise from the project.
QQ Bacteria, yeast, Caenorhabditis elegans (free living non-pathogenic nematode), Drosophila (fruit fly),
plants (rice and Arabidopsis), etc. have also been sequenced as of today.
Advantages of HGP
(i) The effect of DNA variation can be studied among individuals which can lead to revolutionary
new ways to diagnose and treat many disorders or diseases.
(ii) Provides clues to understand human biology.
(iii) More information can be obtained about non-human organisms like bacteria, yeast, nematode,
fruit fly, plant, rice, etc.

Methodologies of HGP
OO The methods involve two major approaches:
(i) Expressed sequence tags (ESTs): This method focusses on identifying all the genes that are
expressed as RNA.
(ii) Sequence annotation: It is an approach of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that
contains all the coding and non-coding sequences, and later assigning different regions in the
sequence with functions.
OO For sequencing, the total DNA from cell is first isolated and broken down in relatively small sizes
as fragments.
OO These DNA fragments are cloned in suitable host using suitable vectors. When bacteria is used as
vector, they are called bacterial artificial chromosomes (BAC) and when yeast is used as vector,
they are called yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC).
OO Frederick Sanger developed a principle according to which the fragments of DNA are sequenced
by automated DNA sequences.
OO On the basis of overlapping regions on DNA fragments, these sequences are arranged
accordingly.
OO For alignment of these sequences, specialised computer-based programmes were developed.
OO These sequences were annotated and were assigned to each chromosome. Sequence of chromosome
1 was completed only in May 2006. It was the last chromosome be sequenced).
OO Finally, the genetic and physical maps of the genome were constructed by collecting information
about certain repetitive DNA sequences and DNA polymorphism, based on endonuclease
recognition sites.
21. Salient Features of Human Genome

(i) The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
(ii) The average gene consists of 3000 bases; the largest known human gene being dystrophin at
2.4 million bases.
(iii) The total number of genes is estimated to be 30,000 and 99.9 per cent nucleotide bases are exactly
the same in all people.
(iv) The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of the discovered genes.
(v) Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.
(vi) The human genome contains large repeated sequences, repeated 100 to 1000 times.
(vii) The repeated sequence is thought to have no direct coding functions but they throw light on
chromosome structures, dynamics and evolution.
(viii) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968) and the Y has the fewest genes (231).
(ix) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA sequence differences
called SNPs or single nucleotide polymorphism (pronounced as ‘snips’) occur in humans.
This information promises to revolutionise the processes of finding chromosomal locations for
disease—associated sequences and tracing human history.
Rice Genome Project

QQ The International Rice Genome Sequencing Project (IRGSP) began in September 1997, at a workshop
held in conjunction with the International Symposium on Plant Molecular Biology in Singapore.
QQ Rice genome sequencing is being conducted along the same lines as numerous other large-scale

genome sequencing projects. Large insert genomic libraries, used as the primary sequencing
templates, are constructed in bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs).
QQ One of the initial motivators for sequencing rice, besides the relatively small genome size, was that it
could be used as a model for other cereal crops with larger genomes, such as maize and wheat. This
was predicated somewhat on rice’s small genome size and the realization from molecular mapping,
e.g., RFLPs, of conserved markers and marker order.
QQ The availability of the rice genome, together with the community annotation and other resources that
added functionality, transformed genetics research and rice breeding.
22. DNA Fingerprinting

QQ Dr. Alec Jeffreys developed the technique of DNA fingerprinting in an attempt to identify DNA
marker for inherited diseases.
QQ Human genome has 3 × 109 bp. 99.9% of base sequences among humans are the same, which makes
every individual unique in phenotype.
OO Polymorphism: The genome consists of small stretches of DNA which are repeated many times.
These are called repetitive DNA and comprise of satellite DNA. Satellite DNA does not code for
any proteins but form large portion of human genome. These sequences show high degree of
polymorphism. As polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children, DNA fingerprinting
is the basis of paternity testing. Polymorphism arises due to mutations. New mutations may
arise in somatic cells or in germ cells. If mutation occurs in germ cells; it is passed on to
offsprings. If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high frequency, it is
called as DNA polymorphism. Polymorphism ranges from single nucleotide change to very
large scale changes.
QQ DNA fingerprinting uses short nucleotide repeats called Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs)
as markers. VNTRs vary from person to person and are inherited from one generation to the next.
Only closely related individuals have similar VNTRs. Satellite DNA that shows very high degree of
polymorphism are called Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTR) VNTRs are used in DNA
fingerprinting as probes. Number of repeat shows very high degree of polymorphism. Thus, size of
VNTR varies from 0.1 to 20 kb.
Methodology and Technique

(i) DNA is isolated and extracted from the cell or tissue by centrifugation.
(ii) By the process of polymerase chain reaction (PCR), many copies are produced. This step is
called amplification.
(iii) DNA is cut into small fragments by treating with restriction endonucleases.
(iv) DNA fragments are separated by agarose gel electrophoresis.

(v) The separated DNA fragments are visualised under ultraviolet radiation after applying suitable
dye.
(vi) The DNA is transferred from electrophoresis plate to nitrocellulose or nylon membrane sheet.
This is called Southern blotting.
(vii) VNTR probes are now added which bind to specific nucleotide sequences that are
complementary to them. This is called hybridisation.

Fig. 6.16 Schematic representation of DNA fingerprinting: Few chromosomes have been shown to contain
different copy number of VNTR. The two alleles (paternal and maternal) of a chromosome
also contain different copy numbers of VNTR. It is clear that the banding pattern
of DNA from crime scene matches with individual B and not with A.
(viii) The hybridised DNA fragments are detected by autoradiography. They are observed as dark
bands on X-ray film.
(ix) These bands being of different sizes, give a characteristic pattern for an individual DNA. It
differs from individual to individual except in case of monozygotic (identical) twins.
Applications of DNA Fingerprinting

(i) It is used as a tool in forensic tests to identify criminals and criminal investigations.
(ii) It is used to settle paternity disputes and maternity disputes.
(iii) It is used to determine population and genetic diversities to study evolution.
(iv) It is used in the study of evolutionary biology.

NCERT Textbook Questions
Q. 1. Group the following as nitrogenous bases and nucleosides:
Adenine, Cytidine, Thymine, Guanosine, Uracil and Cytosine.
Ans. Nitrogenous bases—Adenine, Thymine, Uracil and Cytosine.
Nucleosides—Cytidine and Guanosine.
Q. 2. If a double stranded DNA has 20 per cent of cytosine, calculate the per cent of adenine in the
DNA.
Ans. Cytosine = 20%, therefore Guanine = 20%
According to Chargaff’s rule,
A + T = 100 – (G + C)
A + T = 100 – 40. Since both adenine and thymine are in equal amounts,
60
∴ Thymine = Adenine = = 30%
2
Q. 3. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is written as follows:
5′—ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC—3′
Write down the sequence of complementary strand in 5′→3′ direction.
Ans. In 3′→5′ direction, 3′—TACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACG—5′
In 5′→3′ direction, 5′—GCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCAT—3′
Q. 4. If the sequence of the coding strand in a transcription unit is written as follows:
5′—ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATG—3′
Write down the sequence of mRNA.
Ans. 5′—AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUG—3′
Q. 5. Which property of DNA double helix led Watson and Crick to hypothesise semi-conservative
mode of DNA replication? Explain.
Ans. The two strands of DNA show complementary base pairing. This property of DNA led Watson
and Crick to suggest semi-conservative mechanism of DNA replication in which one strand of
parent is conserved while the other complementary strand formed is new.
Q. 6. Depending upon the chemical nature of the template (DNA or RNA) and the nature of nucleic
acids synthesised from it (DNA or RNA), list the types of nucleic acid polymerases.
Ans. DNA template
(i) DNA polymerase for DNA replication.
(ii) RNA polymerase for RNA synthesis or transcription.

RNA template
(i) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase for synthesis of RNA in some RNA viruses.
(ii) Reverse transcriptase to synthesise cDNA (complementary DNA) over RNA template.
Q. 7. How did Hershey and Chase differentiate between DNA and protein in their experiment
while proving that DNA is the genetic material?
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 7.
Q. 8. Differentiate between the following:
(a) Repetitive DNA and satellite DNA
(b) mRNA and tRNA
(c) Template strand and coding strand

Ans. (a) Table 6.4: Differences between repetitive DNA and satellite DNA
S. No. Repetitive DNA Satellite DNA

(i) DNA in which certain base sequences are DNA in which large portion of the gene is
repeated many times are called repetitive tandemly repeated is called satellite DNA.
DNA.
(ii) Repetitive DNA sequences are transcribed. Satellite DNA sequences are not transcribed.
(b) Table 6.5: Differences between mRNA and tRNA

S. No. mRNA tRNA
(i) It is linear. It is clover-leaf shaped.
(ii) It carries coded information. It carries information for association with
an amino acid and an anticodon for its
incorporation in a polypeptide.
(iii) mRNA undergoes additional processing, i.e., It does not require any processing
capping and tailing, splicing.
(iv) Nitrogen bases are unmodified. Nitrogen bases may be modified.
(c) Table 6.6: Differences between template strand and coding strand
S. No. Template strand Coding strand
(i) It is the strand of DNA which takes It is the strand that does not take part in
part in transcription. transcription.
(ii) The polarity is 3′→5′. The polarity is 5′→3′.
(iii) Nucleotide sequence is complementary The nucleotide sequence is same as the one
to the one present in mRNA. present in mRNA except for presence of thymine
instead of uracil.
Q. 9. List two essential roles of ribosome during translation.

Ans. Two essential roles of ribosome during translation are:
(i) One of the rRNA (23S in prokaryotes) acts as a peptidyl transferase ribozyme for formation
of peptide bonds.
(ii) Ribosome provides sites for attachment of mRNA and charged tRNAs for polypeptide
synthesis.
Q. 10. In the medium where E. coli was growing, lactose was added, which induced the lac operon.
Then, why does lac operon shut down some time after addition of lactose in the medium?
Ans. As lac operon is an inducible operon therefore, it shuts down due to decrease in lactose substrate
concentration.
Q. 11. Explain (in one or two lines) the function of the following:
(a) Promoter (b) tRNA (c) Exons
Ans. (a) Promoter: It is the segment of DNA which lies adjacent to the operator and functions as the
binding site for RNA polymerase to carry transcription if allowed by operator.
(b) tRNA: It acts as an adaptor molecule that picks up a particular amino acid from cellular pool
and takes the same over to A site of mRNA for incorporation into polypeptide chain.
(c) Exons: These are the coding segments present in primary transcript which after splicing are
joined to form functional mRNA.
Q. 12. Why is the Human Genome Project called a mega project?
Ans. Human Genome Project is called a mega project because of following reasons:
(i) Sequencing of more than 3 × 109 bp.
(ii) Identification of all the genes present in human genome.

(iii) High expenditure of more than 9 billion dollars.
(iv) Identification of all the alleles of genes and their functions.
(v) Storage of data for sequencing would require space equal to 3300 books of 1000 pages each if
each page contains 1000 letters.
Q. 13. What is DNA fingerprinting? Mention its application.
Ans. DNA fingerprinting is the technique to determine the relationship between two DNA samples
by studying the similarity and dissimilarity of VNTRs (variable number of tandem repeats). Its
applications are:
(i) It is used as a tool in forensic tests to identify criminals.
(ii) To settle paternity disputes.
(iii) To identify racial groups to study biological evolution.
Q. 14. Briefly describe the following:
(a) Transcription (b) Polymorphism
(c) Translation (d) Bioinformatics
Ans. (a) Transcription: It is the formation of RNA over the template of DNA. It forms single-stranded
RNA which has a coded information similar to the sense or coding strand of DNA with the
exception that thymine is replaced by uracil. One strand of DNA is used as template strand
for the synthesis of a complementary strand of RNA called mRNA.
(b) Polymorphism: Genetic polymorphism means occurrence of genetic material in more than
one form. It is of three major types, i.e., allelic, SNP and RFLP.
Allelic polymorphism: Allelic polymorphism occurs due to multiple alleles of a gene. Allele
possess different mutations which alter the structure and function of a protein formed by
them as a result, change in phenotype may occur.
SNP or single nucleotide polymorphism: Over 1.4 million single base DNA differences have
been observed in human beings. According to SNP, every human being is unique. SNP is
very useful for locating alleles, identifying disease-associated sequence and tracing human
history.
(c) Translation: It is the process during which the genetic information which is stored in the
sequence of nucleotides in an mRNA molecule is converted, following dictations of the
genetic code, into the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide. It takes place in cytoplasm
in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
(d) Bioinformatics: The science which deals with handling, storing of huge information of
genomics as databases, analysing, modelling and providing various aspects of biological
information, especially the molecules connected with genomics and proteomics is called
bioinformatics.
Following are some applications of bioinformatics:
(i) Phylogeny or evolutionary biology: By comparing gene, nucleotide, protein and amino
acid sequence, the organisms are grouped and phylogeny is established.
(ii) Chemoinformatics: Information about chemical combination, their effects, side effects,
pharmaceutical chemicals, etc., by databases is done.
(iii) Faster drug research: Analysis of drug–ligand complexes and assessment of binding
interaction help in development of computer-aided drug design.
(iv) Proteomics: Protein sequence databases are useful in diagnostics, healthcare and drug
research.

Multiple Choice Questions [1mark]
Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.
1. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of
(a) rRNA (b) tRNA
(c) mRNA (d) cDNA
2. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that
(a) one strand turns clockwise
(b) one strand turns anti-clockwise
(c) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
(d) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole).
3. Polysome is formed by
(a) a ribosome with several subunits
(b) ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(c) several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(d) many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum.
4. In the DNA molecule
(a) the proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
(b) there are two strands which run antiparallel—one in 5l " 3l direction and other in 3l " 5l
(c) the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(d) there are two strands which run parallel in the 5l " 3l direction.
5. What is not true for genetic code?
(a) It is nearly universal.
(b) It is degenerate.
(c) It is unambiguous
(d) A codon in mRNAt is read in a non-contiguous fashion.
6. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called
(a) tailing (b) transformation
(c) capping (d) splicing
7. The net electric charge on DNA and histones is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) both positive (b) both negative
(c) negative and positive, respectively (d) zero
8. Gene controls
(a) protein synthesis but not heredity
(b) protein synthesis and heredity
(c) heredity but not protein synthesis

(d) biochemical reaction of some enzymes
9. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(b) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(c) the 5' (upstream) end
(d) the 3' (downstream) end
10. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia?
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) It cannot be treated with iron supplements (b) It is a molecular disease
(c) It confers resistance to acquiring malaria (d) All of the above

11. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(b) exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA
(c) introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature RNA
(d) both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA
12. The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Chromosome 21 and Y (b) Chromosome 1 and X
(c) Chromosome 1 and Y (d) Chromosome X and Y
13. Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the development of the double
helix model for the structure of DNA? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Rosalind Franklin (b) Maurice Wilkins
(c) Erwin Chargaff (d) Meselson and Stahl
14. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other by 3′→ 5′ phosphodiester
bond. To prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, which of the following modifications would
you choose? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Replace purine with pyrimidines
(b) Remove/replace 3' OH group in deoxyribose
(c) Remove/replace 2' OH group with some other group in deoxyribose
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
15. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
(b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation only in one direction (5′ → 3′)
(c) it is a more efficient process
(d) DNA ligase joins the short stretches of DNA
16. Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase?
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Initiation (b) Elongation
(c) Termination (d) All of the above
17. Control of gene expression in prokaryotes take place at the level of [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) DNA-replication (b) Transcription
(c) Translation (d) None of the above
18. Which of the following statements is correct about the role of regulatory proteins in
transcription in prokaryotes? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) They only increase expression
(b) They only decrease expression
(c) They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect the expression
(d) They can act both as activators and as repressors
19. Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Chromosome 1 (b) Chromosome 11
(c) Chromosome 21 (d) Chromosome X
20. Which of the following are the functions of RNA? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to ribosomes synthesising polypeptides.
(b) It carries amino acids to ribosomes.

(c) It is a constituent component of ribosomes.
(d) All of the above.
21. While analysing the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386 nucleotides were found, out of
which the proportion of different bases were: Adenine = 29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine = 32%,
Thymine = 17%.
Considering the Chargaff’s rule it can be concluded that [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) it is a double stranded circular DNA (b) it is single stranded DNA
(c) it is a double stranded linear DNA (d) no conclusion can be drawn
22. In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) A-DNA (b) B-DNA (c) cDNA (d) rDNA
23. If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio of
N15/N15: N15/N14: N14/N14 containing DNA in the fourth generation would be
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 1:1:0 (b) 1:4:0 (c) 0:1:3 (d) 0:1:7
24. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is:
5' - A T G A A T G - 3', the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 5' - A U G A A U G - 3' (b) 5' - U A C U U A C - 3'
(c) 5' - C A U U C A U - 3' (d) 5' - G U A A G U A - 3'
25. In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(b) repressor binds to operator
(c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(d) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase
Answers
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (a)
Assertion-Reason Questions
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose
the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion : The tRNA molecules possess anticodons.

Reason : It needs the message in form of codons.
2. Assertion : Histones are basic proteins of major importance in packaging of eukaryotic
DNA, DNA and histones comprise chromatin forming the bulk of eukaryotic
chromosome.
Reason : Histones are of five major types: H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4.

3. Assertion : mRNA attaches to ribosome through its 5' end.
Reason : The mRNA has bases of lagging sequence.
4. Assertion : Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but translation occurs in the
cytoplasm.
Reason : mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into the cytoplasm where ribosomes and
amino acids are available for protein synthesis.
5. Assertion : In Griffith's experiment, the mixture of heat-killed virulent R bacteria and live non-
virulent S bacteria, lead to the death of mice.
Reason : The transforming principle got transferred from S strain to heat-killed R strain and
made it virulent.
6. Assertion : DNA is considered to be a better genetic material than RNA for most organisms.
Reason : 2'–OH group present in DNA makes it less reactive.
7. Assertion : DNA replication is semiconservative in nature.
Reason : In each cycle of replication the complementary strands of parental double helix is
conserved.
8. Assertion : Lac operon is a repressible operon.
Reason : The product of repressor binds to the operator and prevents expression of the said
gene.
9. Assertion : The human genome comprise of a large amount of repetitive sequences.
Reason : The repetitive sequences in the genome do not have direct coding functions.
10. Assertion : Eukaryotic mRNA requires post-transcriptional modifications to form functional
mRNA.
Reason : Eukaryotic transcripts possess extra non-functional gene segments called introns.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
Case-based/Source-based Question
1. Study the schematic representation of the genes involved in the lac operon given below and
answer the questions that follow:
p i p o z y a
(i) Sometimes cattle or even human beings give birth to their young ones that have extremely
different sets of organs like limbs/position of eye(s), etc. Why?
(ii) What will prevent the binding of the molecule ‘M’ with the operator gene? Mention the
event that follows.
(iii) A region of a coding DNA strand has the following nucleotide sequence:
–ATGC–
What shall be the nucleotide sequence in (a) sister DNA segment it replicates, and
(b) m-RNA polynucleotide it transcribes?

Ans. (i) This is due to a disturbance in coordinated regulation of expression of sets of genes associated
with organ development or due to mutations.
(ii) An inducer prevents the binding of repressor to operator and starts transcription i.e., lactose
here.
(iii) (a) – TACG –
(b) – UACG –
2. Study the figure given below and answer the questions:

(i) How does the repressor molecule get inactivated?
(ii) When does the transcription of lac mRNA stop?
(iii) Name the enzyme transcribed by the gene ‘z’.
Ans. (i) When the inducer comes in contact with repressor, it is inactivated.
(ii) When lactose is lacking or absent, the transcription of lac mRNA stops.
(iii) β-galactosidase.
3. Observe the diagram of the polynucleotide chain and answer the questions.
H
H
H
5‘ P C H
P C
P C
H P C 3‘
H OH
H
H
A T
G C
Hydrogen
A bond
T
C G
H
H
HO H
3‘ C P H
C P
C P
H C P 5‘
H
H
H
(i) The fact that a purine base always pairs through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base
in the DNA double helix leads to
(a) the antiparallel nature
(b) the semiconservative nature
(c) uniform width throughout DNA
(d) uniform length in all DNA
(ii) How does the flow of genetic information in HIV deviate from the ‘Central dogma’
proposed by Francis Crick?
(iii) Write the role of histone protein in packaging of DNA in eukaryotes.
Ans. (i) (c) uniform width throughout DNA.
(ii) In HIV single stranded RNA is converted to double stranded DNA.
(iii) Histones are positively charged basic proteins. The negatively charged DNA is wrapped
around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome

3. Given below is the diagram of a tRNA molecule.

Answer the questions based on the above diagram:
(i) Why is charging of tRNA essential in translation?
(ii) Where does peptide bond formation occur in a bacterial ribosome?
(iii) Name the scientist who called tRNA an adaptor molecule.
Ans. (i) Charging of tRNA is essential for ribosome to recognise it and convert the genetic code into
protein.
(ii) Peptide bond formation takes place in the ribosome.
(iii) Francis Crick
4. Watson-Crick gave the semi-conservative mode of DNA replication.
Answer the questions based on the given diagram:

(i) In a nucleus, the number of RNA nucleoside triphosphates is 10 times more than the
number of DNA nucleoside triphosphates, still only DNA nucleotides are added during
the DNA replication, and not the RNA nucleotides. Why?

(ii) Name the enzyme and state its property that is responsible for continuous and discontinuous
replication of the two strands of a DNA molecule.
(iii) Name the enzyme involved in the continuous replication of DNA strand. Mention the
polarity of the template strand.
Ans. (i) DNA polymerase is highly specific to recognise only deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates.
Therefore it cannot hold RNA nucleotides.
(ii) DNA dependent DNA polymerase. It catalyses polymerisation in 5′ → 3′ direction only.
(iii) DNA polymerase is involved in continuous replication of DNA strand. The polarity of
template strand is 3′ → 5′.
Very Short Answer Questions [1 mark]

Q. 1. How many base pairs would a DNA segment of length 1.36 nm have? [CBSE (F) 2017]
Ans. Distance between two base pairs = 0.34 nm or 0.34×10–6 nm

Number of base pairs in 1.36 nm DNA segment
1
= × 1.36
0.34 × 10 –6
= 4 × 106 bp
Q. 2. In an experiment, DNA is treated with a compound which tends to place itself amongst the
stacks of nitrogenous base pairs. As a result of which the distance between two consecutive
base increases, from 0.34 nm to 0.44 nm. Calculate the length of DNA double helix (which has
2 × 109 bp) in the presence of saturating amount of this compound. [HOTS]
Ans. 2 × 109 × 0.44 nm.
Q. 3. Calculate the length of the DNA of bacteriophage lambda that has 48502 base pairs.
[CBSE Sample Paper] [HOTS]
Ans. Distance between two consecutive base pairs = 0.34 × 10–9 m
The length of DNA in bacteriophage lambda = 48502 × 0.34 × 10–9 m
= 16.49 × 10–6 m
Q. 4. Why are proteins either positively or negatively charged? [HOTS]
Ans. If the proteins are rich in basic amino acids, they are positively charged, and if the proteins are
rich in acidic amino acids, they are negatively charged.
Q. 5. Mention the carbon positions to which the nitrogenous base and the phosphate molecule are
respectively linked in the nucleotide given below: [HOTS]
Ans. Nitrogenous base is linked to first carbon.

Phosphate is linked to fifth carbon.
Q. 6. What are ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the nucleotide with purine represented below?
Ans. ‘a’ is phosphate group and ‘b’ is purine (adenine/guanine).

Q. 7. Name the negatively charged and positively charged components of a nucleosome.
[CBSE Delhi 2015] [HOTS]
Ans. In a nucleosome, the negatively charged component is DNA and positively charged component
is histone octamer.
Q. 8. In a nucleus, the number of RNA nucleoside triphosphates is 10 times more than the number
of DNA nucleoside triphosphates, still only DNA nucleotides are added during the DNA
replication, and not the RNA nucleotides. Why? [NCERT Exemplar] [HOTS]
Ans. DNA polymerase is highly specific to recognise only deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates.
Therefore it cannot hold RNA nucleotides.
Q. 9. Name the transcriptionally active region of chromatin in a nucleus. [CBSE Delhi 2015]
Ans. Euchromatin or exon.
Q. 10. Mention the two additional processing which hnRNA needs to undergo after splicing so as to
become functional.
Ans. Capping and tailing.
Q. 11. When and at what end does the ‘tailing’ of hnRNA take place?
Ans. ‘Tailing’ of hnRNA takes place during conversion of hnRNA into functional mRNA after
transcription. It takes place at the 3′-end.
Q. 12. At which ends do ‘capping’ and ‘tailing’ of hnRNA occur, respectively?
Ans. Capping occurs at 5′-end and tailing occurs at 3′-end.
Q. 13. What is cistron? [CBSE (AI) 2015]
Ans. A cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide.
Q. 14. How does a degenerate code differ from an unambiguous one? [CBSE (F) 2015]
Ans. Degenerate code means that one amino acid can be coded by more than one codon. Unambiguous
code means that one codon codes for only one amino acid.
Q. 15. Mention two functions of the codon AUG. [CBSE Delhi 2010]
Ans. Two functions of the codon AUG are:
(i) It acts as a start codon during protein synthesis.
(ii) It codes for the amino acid methionine.
Q. 16. Write the function of RNA polymerase II. [CBSE (F) 2015]
Ans. RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of mRNA or hnRNA.
Q, 17. Give an example of a codon having dual function. [CBSE Delhi 2016]
Ans. AUG acts as an initiation codon and also codes for methionine.
Q. 18. Mention how does DNA polymorphism arise in a population. [CBSE Delhi 2014]
Ans. DNA polymorphism in a population arise due to presence of inheritable mutations at high
frequency.
Q. 19. Suggest a technique to a researcher who needs to separate fragments of DNA.
[CBSE Delhi 2016]
Ans. Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments.
Q. 20. Mention one difference to distinguish an exon from an intron. [CBSE (F) 2016]
Ans. Exon is the coded or expressed sequence of nucleotides in mRNA.
Intron is the intervening sequence of nucleotides not appearing in processed mRNA.
Q. 21. What do ‘X’ and ‘Y’ represent in the transcription unit of the DNA molecule shown?
X [CBSE 2019 (57/5/1)]
5
Y
5
Ans. X—Template Strand Y—Terminator

Q. 22. Why hnRNA is required to undergo splicing? [HOTS]
Ans. hnRNA undergoes splicing in order to remove introns which are intervening or non-coding
sequences and exons are joined to form functional mRNA.
Q. 23. Given below is a schematic representation of a lac operon in the absence of an inducer. Identify
‘a’ and ‘b’ in it.
Ans. a–Repressor
b–Repressor bound to the operator and prevents transcription of structural genes.
Q. 24. Why is lactose considered an inducer in lac operon? [HOTS]
Ans. Lactose binds to repressor and prevents it from binding with the operator, as a result RNA
polymerase binds to promoter–operator region to transcribe the structural genes.
Q. 25. State which human chromosome has
(i) the maximum number of genes and
(ii) the one which has the least number of genes? [CBSE (F) 2011] [HOTS]
Ans. (i) Chromosome-1
(ii) Y-Chromosome
Q. 26. How is repetitive/satellite DNA separated from bulk genomic DNA for various genetic
experiments? [CBSE Delhi 2014] [HOTS]
Ans. By density gradient centrifugation.
Q. 27. Mention the contribution of genetic maps in human genome project. [CBSE (AI) 2011]
Ans. Genetic maps have played an important role in sequencing of genes, DNA fingerprinting, tracing
human history, chromosomal location for disease associated sequences (Any one).
Short Answer Questions [2 marks]

Q. 1. Draw a schematic representation of dinucleotide. Label the following:
(i) The components of a nucleotide
(ii) 5′ end
(iii) N-glycosidic linkage
(iv) Phosphodiester linkage. [CBSE (F) 2010]
Ans. Nucleotide = Ribose sugar + Base + phosphate group.
Pentose
sugar

Q. 2. Describe the structure of a RNA polynucleotide chain having four different types of nucleotides.
[CBSE Delhi 2013]
Ans.
P A
O
Nitrogenous [A = Adenine, G = Guanine,

bases C = Cytosine, U = Uracil]
OH
Phosphodiester P G
bond O
Ribose
sugar
OH
P
C
O
Glycosidic
linkage
OH
P
U
O
OH
P
Q. 3. A DNA segment has a total of 1500 nucleotides, out of which 410 are Guanine containing
nucleotides. How many pyrimidine bases this DNA segment possesses?
Ans. According to Chargaff’s rule
A T
= =1
G G
G = C, G = 410, hence C = 410
G + C = 410 + 410

= 820
So, A + T = 1500 – 820

= 680
680
A = T, so T = = 340
2
So, Pyrimidines = C + T
= 410 + 340
= 750


Q. 4. A DNA segment has a total of 2,000 nucleotides, out of which 520 are adenine containing
nucleotides. How many purine bases this DNA segment possesses? [CBSE Delhi 2015] [HOTS]
Ans. [A]
= [T]
A + T = 520 + 520
= 1040
Total number of nucleotides = 2000
∴
G + C = 2000 – 1040
= 960
960
G
= = 480
2
∴ Total number of purines (A + G) = 520 + 480

= 1000.
Q. 5. Describe the structure of a nucleosome. [CBSE Delhi 2017]
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 4(ii) and Fig. 6.4.
Q. 6. Draw a schematic diagram of a part of double stranded dinucleotide DNA chain having all the
four nitrogenous bases and showing the correct polarity. [CBSE Delhi 2012]
Ans. Refer to Fig. 6.3.
Q. 7. Although a prokaryotic cell has no defined nucleus, yet DNA is not scattered throughout the
cell. Explain. [CBSE 2018]
Ans. DNA is negatively charged and has positively charged histone proteins. These help DNA to be
held in a place in large loops called nucleoid.
Q. 8. Explain the role of 35S and 32P in the experiments conducted by Hershey and Chase.
Ans. Viruses grown in the medium containing 32P contained radioactive DNA but not radioactive
protein because DNA contains phosphorus but proteins do not contain phosphorus. Similarly,
viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive protein but not radioactive DNA
because DNA does not contain sulphur.
Q. 9. Recall the experiment done by Frederick Griffith, Avery, Macleod annd McCarty, where DNA
was speculated to be the genetic material. If RNA, instead of DNA was the genetic material,
would the heat killed strain of Streptococcus have transformed the R-strain into virulent
strain? Explain your answer. [HOTS]
Ans. RNA is more labile and prone to degradation (owing to the presence of 2′–OH group in its ribose).
Hence heat-killed S-strain may not have retained its ability to transform the R-strain.
Q. 10. How do histones acquire positive charge? [CBSE Delhi 2011]
Ans. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysines and arginines, which carry positive
charges in their side chains. Therefore, histones are positively charged.
Q. 11. A single base mutation in a gene may not ‘always’ result in loss or gain of function. Do you
think the statement is correct? Defend your answer. [NCERT Exemplar] [HOTS]
Ans. The statement is correct because of degeneracy of codons, mutations at third base of codon,
usually doe not result into any change in phenotype. This is called silent mutations but at other
times it can lead to loss or formation of malformed protein changing the phenotype.
Q. 12. Protein synthesis machinery revolves around RNA but in the course of evolution it was
replaced by DNA. Justify. [CBSE Sample Paper 2016]
Ans. Since RNA was unstable and prone to mutations, DNA evolved from RNA with chemical
modifications that makes it more stable.
DNA has double stranded nature and has complementary strands. These further resist changes
by evolving a process of repair.

Q. 13. Explain the two factors responsible for conferring stability to double helix structure of DNA.
[CBSE (AI) 2014]
Ans. Factors responsible for conferring stability to double helix structure are presence of hydrogen-
bonds, the plane of one base pair stacks over the other, complementary presence of thymine in
place of uracil.
(B) (C)
Q. 14. (a) (A) — DNA mRNA Protein
Look at the above sequence and mention the events (A), (B) and (C).
(b) What does Central Dogma state in Molecular Biology? How does it differ in some viruses?
Ans. (a) A—DNA replication, B—Transcription, C—Translation
(b) Central Dogma in Molecular Biology states that information flows in the order
DNA RNA Proteins
It differs in some viruses as the flow of information is in reverse direction, that is, from DNA
to RNA.
Q. 15. Retrovirus do not follow central dogma. Comment. [HOTS]
Ans. Genetic material of retrovirus is RNA. At the time of synthesis of protein, RNA is reverse
transcribed to its complementary DNA first, then transcriped to RNA and proteins. Hence,
retrovirus are not known to follow central dogma.
Q. 16.

Why do you see two different types of replicating strands in the given DNA replication fork?
Explain. Name these strands. [CBSE Delhi 2011]
Ans. The DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation only in one direction i.e., 5′→3′.
Therefore, in one strand with polarity 3′→5′ continuous replication takes place whereas the other
strand with polarity 5′→3′ carries out discontinuous replication.
The strand with polarity 3′→5′ is called leading strand and the strand with polarity 5′→3′ is called
lagging strand.
Q. 17. Name indicating their functions, a few additional enzymes, other than DNA polymerase
and ligase, that are involved in the replication of DNA with high degree of processivity and
accuracy. [NCERT Exemplar] [HOTS]
Ans. (i) Helicase: opens the helix
(ii) Topoisomerases: removes the supercoiling of DNA relieves the tension due to unwinding
(iii) Primase: synthesises RNA primer
(iv) Telomerase: to synthesises the DNA of telomeric end of chromosomes.
Q. 18. During in vitro synthesis of DNA, a researcher used 2′, 3′-dideoxycytidine triphosphate as raw
nucleotide in place of 2′-deoxy cytidine triphosphate, other conditions remaining as standard.
Will further polymerisation of DNA continue up to the end or not? Explain.
[NCERT Exemplar] [HOTS]
Ans. Further polymerisation up to the end would not occur as the 3 –OH on sugar molecule is not for
forming ester bond, which is required to add another nucleotide.

Q. 19. State the dual role of deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates during DNA replication.
[CBSE Delhi 2011]
OR
Write the dual purpose served by Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates in polymerisation.
[CBSE 2018]
Ans. (i) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates act as substrates for polymerisation.
(ii) These provide energy from its two terminal phosphates for polymerisation reaction.
Q. 20. Discuss the role of enzyme DNA ligase plays during DNA replication. [CBSE Delhi 2016]
Ans. DNA ligase joins or seals the discontinuous DNA fragments.
Q. 21. A template strand is given below. Write down the corresponding coding strand and the mRNA
strand that can be formed, along with their polarity.
3′ ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC 5′ [CBSE (F) 2014] [HOTS]
Ans. Coding strand: 5′ TACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACG 3′
mRNA strand: 5′ UACGUACGUACGUACGUACGUACG 3′
Q. 22. The base sequence of one strand of DNA is TACTAGGAT.
(i) Write the base sequence of the RNA got after transcription of the given sequence.
(ii) What is the distance maintained between the two consecutive pairs of bases in the DNA
molecule?
(iii) Who contributed the base complementary rule? [HOTS]
Ans. (i) AUGAUCCUA.
(ii) 3.4 Å or 0.34 nm.
(iii) Chargaff contributed the base complementary rule.
Q. 23. Draw a labelled schematic diagram of a transcription unit. [CBSE (F) 2012]
Q. 24. Explain the process of transcription in a bacterium. [CBSE (F) 2012]
Q. 25. (a) Construct a complete transcription unit with promoter and terminator on the basis of the
hypothetical template strand given below:
A T G C A T G C A T A C
(b) Write the RNA strand transcribed from the above transcription unit along with its
polarity. [CBSE Delhi 2012]
Ans. (a)
A T G C A T G C A T A C
3′ 5′
Promoter Terminater
5′ 3′
(b) Transcribed RNA

U A C G U A C G U A U G
5′ 3′

Q. 26. (i) Name the enzyme that catalyses the transcription of hnRNA.
(ii) Why does the hnRNA need to undergo changes? List the changes that hnRNA undergoes
and where in the cell such changes take place. [CBSE (AI) 2011]
Ans. (i) RNA polymerase II.
(ii) hnRNA has non-functional introns in between the functional exons. To remove these, it
undergoes changes. The changes that hnRNA undergoes include capping, i.e., methyl
guanosine triphosphate is added to 5′ end; tailing in which poly A tail is added at 3′ end; and
splicing by which introns are removed and exons are joined.
Q. 27. State the difference between the structural genes in a transcription unit of prokaryotes and
eukaryotes. [CBSE (AI) 2014]
Ans. Table 6.7: Differences between structural genes of prokaryotes and eukaryotes
S.No. Prokaryotes Eukaryotes
(i) Polycistronic Monocistronic
(ii) No split genes present. The coding sequence Split genes present. The coding sequence is
is not interrupted. interrupted to form exon and intron.
Q. 28. (i) Name the scientist who suggested that the genetic code should be made of a combination
of three nucleotides.
(ii) Explain the basis on which he arrived at this conclusion. [CBSE Delhi 2014]
Ans. (i) George Gamow.
(ii) He proposed that there are four bases and 20 amino acids So, there should be atleast 20
different genetic codes for these 20 amino acids.
The only possible combinations that would meet the requirement is combinations of 3 bases
that will give 64 codons.
Q. 29. Explain the dual function of AUG codon. Give the sequence of bases it is transcribed from and
its anticodon.
Ans. The dual function of AUG codon:
(a) It codes for amino acid methionine.
(b) It is an initiation codon.
The sequence of bases from which it is transcribed is TAC. Its anticodon is UAC.
Q. 30. Name the category of codons UGA belongs to. Mention another codon of the same category.
Explain their role in protein synthesis.
Ans. UGA is a stop or termination codon.
UAA, UAG are the other stop codons of the category.
They prevent the elongation of the polypeptide chain by terminating translation.
Q. 31. Following are the features of genetic codes. What does each one indicate?
Stop codon; Unambiguous codon; Degenerate codon; Universal codon. [CBSE (AI) 2016]
Ans. Stop codon does not code for any amino acid and terminates the synthesis of polypeptide chain.
Unambiguous codon: one codon codes for one amino acid only.
Degenerate codon: some amino acid are coded by more than one codon.
Universal codon: Genetic code is same for all organisms (bacteria to humans).
Q. 32. Mention the role of ribosomes in peptide bond formation. How does ATP facilitate it?
[CBSE (AI) 2010]
Ans. There are two sites in the large subunit of the ribosome, for subsequent amino acids to bind to
and thus, be close enough to each other for the formation of a peptide bond. The ribosome also
acts as a catalyst for the formation of peptide bond 23S rRNA in bacteria is a ribozyme. Amino
acids become activated by binding with its tRNA in the presence of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
and ATP.

Q. 33. State the functions of the following in a prokaryote:
(i) tRNA (ii) rRNA CBSE (AI) 2012]
Ans. (i) tRNA reads the genetic codes, carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis and act as
an adaptor molecule.
(ii) rRNA plays structural and catalytic role during translation.
Q. 34. Draw the structure of a tRNA charged with methionine. [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans.
Met
U A C

Q. 35. What is aminoacylation? State its significance. [CBSE (AI) 2016]
Ans. Aminoacylation of tRNA or charging of tRNA is the activation of amino acids in the presence of
ATP and their linkage to their cognate tRNA.
If two such charged tRNAs are brought close enough, the formation of peptide bond between
them would be favoured energetically.
Q. 36. Differentiate between codon and an anticodon.
Ans. Table 6.8: Differences between codon and anticodon
Codon Anticodon
The sequence of 3 nitrogen bases on mRNA that The sequence of 3 nitrogenous bases on tRNA that
codes for a particular amino acid during translation are complementary to the codon on mRNA for a
is called codon. particular amino acid during translation is called
anticodon.
Q. 37. What would happen if histones were to be mutated and made rich in amino acids aspartic acid
and glutamic acid in place of basic amino acids such as lysine and arginine?
Ans. If histone proteins were rich in acidic amino acids instead of basic amino acids then they may not
have any role in DNA packaging in eukaryotes as DNA is also negatively charged molecule. The
packaging of DNA around the nucleosome would not happen. Consequently, the chromatin fibre
would not be formed.
Q. 38. Differentiate between the genetic codes given below:
(a) Unambiguous and Universal.
(b) Degenerate and Initiator [CBSE (AI) 2017]
Ans.
(a) Unambiguous: One codon codes for only one Universal: Codons are (nearly) same for all organisms
amino acid. (from bacteria to humans)
(b) Degenerate: More than one codon can code Initiator: Start codon i.e., AUG is the initiation codon.
for the same amino acid.

Q. 39. (a) Name the enzyme responsible for the transcription of tRNA and the amino acid the
initiator tRNA gets linked with.
(b) Explain the role of initiator tRNA in initiation of protein synthesis. [CBSE Delhi 2012]
Ans. (a) RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of tRNA and the initiator tRNA gets
linked with the amino acid methionine.
(b) The initiator tRNA, which is charged with amino acid methionine, reaches the smaller
subunit of ribosome. Its anticodon UAC recognises the codon AUG on mRNA and binds by
forming complementary base pairs. The large subunit of ribosome joins the smaller subunit
and initiates translation.
Q. 40. One of the salient features of the genetic code is that it is nearly universal from bacteria to
humans. Mention two exceptions to this rule. Why are some codes said to be degenerate?
[CBSE (F) 2014] [HOTS]
Ans. The genetic code is universal except in mitochondria and few protozoans.
Some codes are said to be degenerate because some amino acids are coded by more than one
code.
Q. 41. Given below is a schematic representation of lac operon:
(a) Identify i and p.

(b) Name the ‘inducer’ for this operon and explain its role. [CBSE (F) 2011]
Ans. (a) i is the regulatory gene and p is the promoter gene.
(b) Lactose is the inducer. It is the substrate for the enzyme beta-galactosidase and it regulates
switching on and off of the operon.
Q. 42. How are the structural genes inactivated in lac operon in E. coli? Explain. [CBSE Delhi 2012]
Ans. The regulator gene produces repressor which when free, binds to the operator region of the
operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes.
Q. 43. How are the structural genes activated in the lac operon in E. coli? [CBSE (AI) 2012]
Ans. Lactose acts as the inducer that binds with repressor protein that cannot bind to operator and hence
frees the operator gene. RNA polymerase freely moves over the structural genes, transcribing lac
mRNA, which in turn produces the enzymes responsible for the digestion of lactose.
Q. 44. “Genes contain the information that is required to express a particular trait.” Explain.
Ans. The genes present in an organism show a particular trait by way of forming certain product.
This is facilitated by the process of transcription and translation (according to central dogma of
Biology)
Protein Trait product Trait
Transcription Translation
Genes mRNA
Enzyme Substrate Product
Q. 45. A low level of expression of lac operon occurs at all the time. Can you explain the logic behind
this phenomena? [NCERT Exemplar] [HOTS]
Ans. In the complete absence of expression of lac operon, permease will not be synthesised which is
essential for transport of lactose from medium into the cells. And if lactose cannot be transported
into the cell, then it cannot act as inducer. Hence, cannot relieve the lac operon from its repressed
state. Therefore, lac operon is always expressed.

Q. 46. Where is an ‘operator’ located in a prokaryote DNA? How does an operator regulate gene
expression at transcriptional level in a prokaryote? Explain. [CBSE (F) 2016]
Ans. The operator region is located adjacent to promoter elements or prior to structural gene.
The operator regulates switching on and off the operon when the repressor binds to the operator
region it is switched off and prevents transcription.
In the presence of inducer the repressor is inactivated and operator allows RNA polymerase to
access the promoter. The operon is switched on and transcription proceeds.
Q. 47. (a) List the two methodologies which were involved in human genome project. Mention how
they were used.
(b) Expand ‘YAC’ and mention what was it used for. [CBSE (AI) 2017]
Ans. The two methodologies involved in human genome project are:
(a) (i) Expressed Sequence Tags: Identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA
(ii) Sequence Annotation: Sequencing the whole set of genome coding or non coding
sequences and later assigning different region with functions.
(b) ‘YAC’ stands for Yeast Artificial Chromosome. It is used as a cloning vectors.
Q. 48. Would it be appropriate to use DNA probes such as VNTR in DNA fingerprinting of a
bacteriophage? [HOTS]
Ans. Bacteriophage does not have repetitive sequence such as VNTR in its genome as its genome is
very small and have all the codon sequenced. Therefore, DNA fingerprinting is not done for
bacteriophages.
Q. 49. Comment on the utility of variability in number of tandem repeats during DNA
fingerprinting. [HOTS]
Ans. Tandemness in repeats provides many copies of the sequence for fingerprinting and variability in
nitrogen base sequence in them. Being individual-specific, this proves to be useful in the process
of DNA fingerprinting.
Q. 50. Write the full form of VNTR. How is VNTR different from a probe?
Ans. Full form of VNTR is Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
VNTR Probe
The segment of DNA which shows very high no. The small fragments of DNA strands which are
of repetitive nucleotide sequences which vary highly selective and specific to be complementary
from person to person are called variable number to VNTR sequences are called probe.
tandem repeats.
Q. 51. Mention two applications of DNA polymorphism. [CBSE (F) 2016]

Ans. DNA polymorphism is applicable in genetic mapping and DNA finger printing.
Q. 52. What are satellite DNA in a genome? Explain their role in DNA fingerprinting.
[CBSE Sample Paper 2014]
OR
Explain the significance of satellite DNA in DNA fingerprinting technique. [CBSE (AI) 2015]
Ans. A small stretch of DNA sequence that repeats many a time, shows a high degree of polymorphism
and forms a bulk of DNA in a genome called satellite DNA.
(i) They do not code for any proteins.

(ii) They form large part of the human genome.
(iii) They show high degree of polymorphism and are specific to each individual.
Q. 53. (a) Draw a clover leaf structure of tRNA showing the following:
(i) Tyrosine attached to its amino acid site.
(ii) Anticodon for this amino acid in its correct site (codon for tyrosine is UCA).
(b) What does the actual structure of tRNA look like? [CBSE (AI) 2011]

Ans. (a)
Tyrosine
A G U

(b) The actual structure of tRNA looks like inverted L.
Q. 54. (a) Name the molecule ‘M’ that binds with the operator.
(b) Mention the consequences of such binding.
Ans. (a) M is the repressor.

(b) When repressor binds with the operator, transcription stops.
Long Answer Questions–I [3 marks]

Q. 1. Draw a labelled diagram of a nucleosome. Where is it found in a cell? [CBSE (F) 2014]
Nucleosome is found in the nucleus of the cell. b c
Q. 2. (a) What is this diagram representing?

(b) Name the parts a, b and c.
(c) In the eukaryotes, the DNA molecules are organised within a
the nucleus. How is the DNA molecule organised in a

bacterial cell in absence of a nucleus? [HOTS]
Ans. (a) Nucleosome
(b) a—Histone octamer, b—DNA, c—H1 histone d
(c) In bacterial cell, DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held together by proteins.
Q. 3. (a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a nucleosome.
(b) Mention what enables histones to acquire a positive charge. [CBSE (AI) 2012]
Ans. (a) Refer to Fig. 6.4.
(b) Basic amino acid residues of lysines and arginines.
Q. 4. List the salient features of double helix structure of DNA. [CBSE (AI) 2012]
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 2 (Any six).

Q. 5. It is established that RNA is the first genetic material. Explain giving three reasons.
[CBSE Delhi 2012]
Ans. The reasons in support are:
(i) Processes like metabolism, translation and splicing evolve around RNA.
(ii) RNA is reactive and catalyses reactions.
(iii) In some viruses, RNA is the hereditary material.
(iv) RNA is unstable and can be easily mutated leading to evolution. (Any three)
Q. 6. A typical mammalian cell has 22 metres long DNA molecule whereas the nucleus in which it
is packed measures about 10–6 m. Explain how such a long DNA molecule is packed within a
tiny nucleus in the cell. [HOTS]
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 4 (ii) (Packaging of DNA in Eukaryotes).
Q. 7. (a) A DNA segment has a total of 1000 nucleotides, out of which 240 of them are adenine
containing nucleotides. How many pyrimidine bases this DNA segment possesses?
(b) Draw a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of DNA segment to support your answer.
Ans. (a) A = T, A = 240, hence T = 240
A + T = 240 + 240 = 480
So, G + C = 1000 – 480 = 520
520
G = C, so C = = 260
2
So, pyrimidines = C + T
= 260 + 240
= 500

(b) H
H
H
5‘ P C H
P C
P C
H P C 3‘
H OH
H
H
A T
G C
Hydrogen
A bond
T
C G
H
H
HO H
3‘ C P H
C P
C P
H C P 5‘
H
H
H
Q. 8. (a) Why did Hershey and Chase use radioactive sulphur and radioactive phosphorus in their
experiment?
(b) Write the conclusion they arrived at and how. [CBSE (F) 2016]
Q. 9. Answer the following questions based on Meselson and Stahl’s experiment:
(a) Write the name of the chemical substance used as a source of nitrogen in the experiment
by them.
(b) Why did the scientists synthesise the light and the heavy DNA molecules in the organism
used in the experiment?
(c) How did the scientists make it possible to distinguish the heavy DNA molecule from the
light DNA molecule? Explain.
(d) Write the conclusion the scientists arrived at after completing the experiment.
[CBSE (AI) 2011]

Ans. (a) Ammonium chloride (NH4Cl).
(b) To check if DNA replication was semi-conservative.
(c) The heavy and light DNA molecules were distinguished by centrifugation in a caesium
chloride density gradient.
(d) The scientists concluded that DNA replicates semi-conservatively.
Q. 10. The base sequence in one of the strands of DNA is TAGCATGAT.
(i) Give the base sequence of its complementary strand.
(ii) How are these base pairs held together in a DNA molecule?
(iii) Explain the base complementarity rules. Name the scientist who framed this rule.
[CBSE Delhi 2011]
Ans. (i) The complementary strand is ATCGTACTA.
(ii) The base pairs are held together by hydrogen bonds in a DNA molecule. A and T are held by
two hydrogen bonds while G and C are held by three hydrogen bonds.
(iii) Watson and Crick framed the base complementarity rule. The rule states that the ratios
between adenine and thymine, and guanine and cytosine are constant and equals one.
Q. 11. Describe Frederick Griffith’s experiment on Streptococcus pneumoniae. Discuss the conclusion
he arrived at. [CBSE (AI) 2012]
OR
Describe the experiment with Streptococcus pneumoniae that demonstrated the existence of
some “transforming principle”. [CBSE (F) 2013]

Q. 12. Describe the experiments that established the identity of ‘transforming principles’ of
Griffith. [CBSE (F) 2017]
Ans. Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA,
RNA, etc.) from the heat-killed S cells to see which ones could transfrom live R cells into S cells.
They discovered that DNA alone from S bacteria caused R bacteria to become transformed.
They also discovered that protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA-digesting enzymes
(RNases) did not affect transformation, so the transforming substance was not a protein or
RNA. Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation, suggesting that the DNA caused the
transformation. They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material.
Q. 13. Describe the experiment that proved that DNA is the genetic material. [CBSE (F) 2013]
Q. 14. In a series of experiments with Streptococcus and mice, F. Griffith concluded that R-strain
bacteria had been transformed. Explain. [CBSE (AI) 2010]
Q. 15. How was a heavy isotope of nitrogen used to provide experimental evidence to semi-
conservative mode of DNA replication? [CBSE (F) 2015]
OR
Describe the experiment that helped to demonstrate the semi-conservative mode of DNA
replication. [CBSE Delhi 2016; (F) 2013]
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 10(i) or Fig. 6.8.
Q. 16. With respect to Messelson and Stahl’s Experiment, answer the following questions:
(a) Identify the method used to distinguish between heavy and light isotopes of nitrogen.
(b) With the help of diagrams, compare the results for the DNA isolated after 20 minutes of
experiment with the DNA which was isolated after 40 minutes. [CBSE Sample Paper 2016]
Ans. (a) Centrifugation in a CsCl density gradient.
(b) Refer to Fig. 6.8.

Q. 17. DNA separated from one cell, when introduced into another cell is able to bestow some of the
properties of former to the latter. What is this change called in technical terms? Describe the
experimental evidences which led to the discovery of the above phenomenon.
Ans. This change is called transformation.
For experimental evidences refer to Basic Concepts Points 6 and 7.
Q. 18. What are the three types of RNA? Mention their relation to protein synthesis.
Ans. Types of RNA
S. No. Types of RNA Functions
(i) Messenger RNA (mRNA) (i) It stores the genetic information from DNA.
(ii) It decides the sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide.
(ii) Transfer RNA (tRNA) (i) It acts as an adaptor molecule that at one end reads the code on
mRNA and accordingly bind to amino acid on the other end.
(ii) It recognises the codon on mRNA by its anticodon and leaves
amino acid at the protein synthesis site.
(iii) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) (i) It constitutes the ribosomal structure.
(ii) It helps to form peptide bond.
Q. 19. (a) Differentiate between a template strand and coding strand of DNA.
(b) Name the source of energy for the replication of DNA.
Ans. (a) Refer to Table 6.6.
(b) Deoxynucleoside triphosphates provide the energy for DNA replication.
Q. 20. State any two structural differences and one functional difference between DNA and rRNA.
Ans.
S. No. DNA rRNA
Structural differences
(i) It is a double-stranded structure. It is a single-stranded structure.
(ii) It contains nitrogen bases, A, T, G, C. It contains nitrogen base, A, U, G, C.
(iii) It has deoxyribose sugar. It has ribose sugar.
Functional difference
It determines sequence of amino acid in a It is the site of translation.
polypeptide by transcription and passes
information from one generation to another.
Q. 21. DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase differ in their requirement while functioning.
Explain.
Ans.
S. No. RNA polymerase DNA polymerase
(i) It cannot carry out proofreading. It carries out proofreading for DNA repair
mechanism.
(ii) RNA polymerase does not require RNA DNA polymerase requires RNA primer for
primer for synthesis of RNA. synthesis of DNA.
(iii) It uses ribonucleotides for RNA synthesis. It uses deoxyribonucleotides for DNA synthesis.

Q. 22. Draw a labelled schematic sketch of replication fork of DNA. Explain the role of the enzymes
involved in DNA replication.
Ans. For diagram, refer to Fig. 6.9.
Enzymes involved in DNA replication are:
(i) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase, which catalyses the polymerisation of polynucleotides in
a very short time only in 5′→3′ direction with accuracy.
(ii) DNA ligase, which joins the discontinuously synthesised short segments called Okazaki
fragments formed on one of the template strands.
Q. 23. (a) Draw a labelled schematic diagram of a replication fork showing continuous and
discontinuous replication of DNA strands.
(b) State a reason why is the replication continuous and discontinuous in the diagram
drawn. [CBSE (F) 2017]
(b) The two strands of DNA are anti parallel, i.e., one strand runs in the direction 5' to 3' and the
other runs in the direction 3' to 5'. DNA polymerase adds deoxyribonucleotides only in one
direction, i.e., 5' to 3'. Thus, producing Okazaki fragments in the other strands.
Q. 24. (a) Draw a schematic representation of the structure of a transcription unit and show the
following in it:
(i) Direction in which the transcription occurs
(ii) Polarity of the two strands involved
(iii) Template strand
(iv) Terminator gene
(b) Mention the function of promoter gene in transcription.
Ans. (a) (i) Transcription occurs in 5′→3′.

(b) Promotor gene has DNA sequence that provide binding site for RNA polymerase.
Q. 25. Describe the initiation process of transcription in bacteria. [CBSE Delhi 2010]
Ans. In bacteria, the transcription of all the three types of RNA (mRNA, tRNA, rRNA) is catalysed
by single DNA-dependent enzyme called the RNA polymerase. The RNA polymerase has co-
factors that catalyse the process. During initiation, s (sigma) factor recognises the start signal
and promotor region on DNA which then along with RNA polymerase binds to the promoter to
initiate transcription.
For diagram, refer to Fig. 6.11(a).
Q. 26. Describe the elongation process of transcription in bacteria. [CBSE Delhi 2010]
Ans. After initiation, RNA polymerase loses the s factor but continues the polymerisation of
ribonucleotides to form RNA. It uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrate and polymerises in a
template-dependent fashion, following the rule of complementarity.
For diagram, refer to Fig. 6.11(b).
Q. 27. Describe the termination process of transcription in bacteria. [CBSE Delhi 2010]
Ans. Once the RNA polymerase reaches the termination region of DNA, the RNA polymerase is
separated from DNA–RNA hybrid, as a result nascent RNA separates. This process is facilitated

by a termination factor r (rho). In prokaryotes, mRNA does not require any processing, so
transcription and translation both occur in the cytosol.
For diagram, refer to Fig. 6.11(c).
Q. 28. How is hnRNA processed to form mRNA? [CBSE (F) 2012; 2019 (57/3/1)]
Ans. The hnRNA undergoes the following processes to form mRNA:

(i) Capping: Addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate at 5’-end.
(ii) Tailing: Addition of 200-300 adenylate residues at 3’-end.
(iii) Splicing: Removal of introns and rejoining of exons.
Q. 29. What is hnRNA? Explain the changes hnRNA undergoes during its processing to form mRNA.
Ans. hnRNA is the precursor of mRNA that is transcribed by RNA ploymerase II and is called
heterogenous nuclear RNA.
Changes:
OO The hnRNA undergoes two additional processes called capping and tailing.
OO In capping, an unusual nucleotide, methyl guanosine triphosphate, is added to the 5’-end of
hnRNA.
OO In tailing, adenylate residues (about 200–300) are added at 3’-end in a template independent
manner.
OO Now the hnRNA undergoes a process where the introns are removed and exons are joined to
form mRNA by the process called splicing.
OO Fragments on one of the template strands.
Q. 30. (a) Identify the polarity from a to a′ in the given diagram and mention how many more amino
acids are expected to be added to this polypeptide chain.
(b) Mention the DNA sequence coding for serine and the anticodon of tRNA for the same
amino acid.
(c) Why are some untranslated sequence of bases seen in mRNA coding for a polypeptide?
Where exactly are they present on mRNA? [HOTS]
a a
Ans. (a) Polarity from a to a' is 5'→ 3'.

No more amino acid will be added to this polypeptide chain.
(b) TCA; anticodon is UCA.
(c) The untranslated sequence of bases are required for efficient translation process. They are
present before the start codon at the 5'-end and after the stop codon at 3'-end.
Q. 31. One of the codons on mRNA is AUG. Draw the structure of tRNA adapter molecule for this
codon. Explain the uniqueness of this tRNA.
Ans. This tRNA is specific for amino acid Methionine and it also acts as initiator codon (initiator tRNA)

Q. 32. Explain the process of translation in a bacterium. [CBSE (F) 2012]
Q. 33. How is the translation of mRNA terminated? Explain.
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 17(iii).
Q. 34. Unambiguous, universal and degenerate are some of the terms used for the genetic code.
Explain the salient features of each one of them. [CBSE (AI) 2011]
Ans. Unambiguous code means that one codon codes for only one amino acid, e.g., AUG codes for
only methionine.
Universal code means that codon and its corresponding amino acid are the same in all organisms,
e.g., from bacteria to human, UUU codes for phenylalanine.
Degenerate code means that same amino acids are coded by more than one codon, e.g., UUU and
UUC code for phenylalanine.
Q. 35. State the conditions when ‘genetic code’ is said to be
(i) degenerate,
(ii) unambiguous and specific,
(iii) universal. [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. (i) Degenerate—When some amino acids are coded by more than one amino acids.
(ii) Unambiguous and specific—When one codon codes for only one specific amino acid.
(iii) A particular codon codes for same amino acid in all organisms except in mitochondria and
few protozoa.
Q. 36. (a) Draw the structure of the initiator tRNA adaptor molecule.
(b) Why is tRNA called an adaptor molecule?
(b) tRNA is called an adaptor molecule because on one end it reads the code on mRNA and on
other end it would bind to the amino acid corresponding to the anticodon.
Q. 37.

Study the mRNA segment given above which is complete to be translated into a polypeptide
chain.
(i) Write the codons ‘a’ and ‘b’.
(ii) What do they code for?
(iii) How is peptide bond formed between two amino acids in the ribosome? [HOTS]
Ans. (i) a is AUG and b is UAA/UAG/UGA
(ii) AUG codes for methionine (initiation codon).
UAA/UAG/UGA do not code for any amino acid, i.e., stop or terminating codons.

(iii) There are two sites (P-site and A-site) in the large subunit of ribosome, where subsequent
amino acids bind to and thus are close enough to form peptide bond by peptidyl
transferase enzyme. The ribosome also acts as a catalyst for the formation of peptide
bond.
Q. 38. “The codon is a triplet and is read in a contiguous manner without punctuations.” Provide the
genetic basis for the statement. [CBSE Sample Paper 2014]
Ans. Since there are only four bases which code for twenty amino acids, the code should be made
up of three bases, i.e., (4 × 4 × 4) = 64 codons; a number more than the required.
If the codon consists of four letters, only (4 × 4), only sixteen codons are possible, which is less
than the required. Hence the codon is a triplet.
As the ribosome moves on mRNA, continuously without break, the codons are read in a
contiguous manner.
Q. 39. Identify giving reasons, the salient features of genetic code by studying the following
nucleotide sequence of mRNA strand and the polypeptide translated from it.
AUG UUU UCU UUU UUU UCU UAG
Met – Phe – Ser – Phe – Phe – Ser
Ans.
S. No. Salient features of genetic code Reason
(i) The codon is a triplet. e.g., AUG, UUU, etc, are triplets
(ii) One codon codes for only one amino acid, e.g., UUU codes for serine, AUG for
hence it is unambiguous and specific. methionine, etc.
(iii) AUG has dual function as it codes for AUG is seen at the beginning of the
methionine and it also acts as initiator codon. polypeptide chain.
(iv) UAG does not code for any amino acid hence is No amino acid is coded by UAG in the
called stop codon and leads to end of translation. polypeptide chain given.
Q. 40. (a) Name the molecule ‘X’ synthesised by ‘i’ gene. How does this molecule get inactivated?
(b) Which one of the structural genes codes for β-galactosidase?
(c) When will the transcription of this gene stop?
Ans. (a) The molecule ‘X’ is repressor. It gets inactivated when lactose (inducer) binds with the
repressor molecule.
(b) z gene codes for β-galactosidase.
(c) Transcription of the gene stops when lactose is absent and thus repressor is free to bind with
the operator.
Q. 41. Draw a schematic diagram of lac operon in its ‘switched off’ position. Label the following:
(i) The structural genes (ii) Repressor bound to its correct position
(iii) Promoter gene (iv) Regulatory gene. [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. Refer to Fig. 6.15 (a).
(i) z, y and a are structural genes.
(iii) p is the promoter sequence.
(iv) i is the regulatory gene.

Q. 42. (a) What do ‘Y’and ‘B’ stand for in ‘YAC’ and ‘BAC’ used in Human Genome Project (HGP).
Mention their role in the project.
(b) Write the percentage of the total human genome that codes for proteins and the percentage
of discovered genes whose functions are known as observed during HGP.
(c) Expand ‘SNPs’ identified by scientists in HGP. [CBSE (AI) 2016]
Ans. (a) ‘Y’ stands for Yeast and ‘B’ stands for Bacterial.
‘YAC’ and ‘BAC’ are used as vectors for cloning foreign DNA.
(b) The total human genome percentage is (<) 2% and percentage of discovered genes is
(<) 50%.
(c) Single Nucleotide Polymorphism.
Q. 43. (a) Explain DNA polymorphism as the basis of genetic mapping of human genome.
(b) State the role of VNTR in DNA fingerprinting. [CBSE (AI) 2013]
Ans. (a) Genetic polymorphism means occurrence of genetic material in more than one form. It is of
three major types, i.e., allelic, SNP and RFLP.
Allelic polymorphism: Allelic polymorphism occurs due to multiple alleles of a gene. Allele
possess different mutations which alter the structure and function of a protein formed by
them as a result, change in phenotype may occur.
SNP or single nucleotide polymorphism: SNP is very useful for locating alleles, identifying
disease-associated sequence and tracing human history.
(b) Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs) are used in DNA fingerprinting as markers.
VNTRs vary from person to person and are inherited from one generation to the next.
Therefore, only closely related individuals have similar VNTRs.
Q. 44. How are the DNA fragments separated and isolated for DNA fingerprinting? Explain.
[CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. Separation and Isolation of DNA Fragments (Gel Electrophoresis)
OO Gel electrophoresis is a technique for separating DNA fragments based on their size.
OO Firstly, the sample DNA is cut into fragments by restriction endonucleases.
OO The DNA fragments being negatively charged can be separated by forcing them to move
towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix.

OO Commonly used matrix is agarose, which is a natural linear polymer of D-galactose and 3,
6-anhydro-L-galactose which is extracted from sea weeds.

OO The DNA fragments separate-out (resolve) according to their size because of the sieving
property of agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it will move.
OO The separated DNA fragments are visualised after staining the DNA with ethidium bromide
followed by exposure to UV radiation.

OO The DNA fragments are seen as orange coloured bands.
OO The separated bands of DNA are cut out and extracted from the gel piece. This step is called
elution.
OO The purified DNA fragments are used to form recombinant DNA which can be joined with
cloning vectors.
Q. 45. Forensic department was given three blood samples. Write the steps of the procedure carried
to get the DNA fingerprinting done for the above samples. [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 22 (Methodology and Technique).
Q. 46. In a maternity clinic, for some reasons the authorities are not able to hand over the two
newborns to their respective real parents. Name and describe the technique that you would
suggest to sort out the matter. [CBSE (AI) 2013]
Ans. The technique is DNA fingerprinting. It includes the following steps:
Refer to Basic Concepts Point 22 (Methodology and Technique).

Q. 47. Write any six salient features of the human genome as drawn from the human genome
project. [CBSE 2019 (57/3/1)]
Q. 48. A criminal blew himself up in a local market when was chased by cops. His face was beyond
recognition. Suggest and describe a modern technique that can help establish his identity.
[CBSE Delhi 2017]
Ans. The identity can be established by the technique of DNA fingerprinting.
For method: Refer to Basic Concepts Point 22.
Q. 49. Following the collision of two trains a large number of passengers are killed. A majority of
them are beyond recognition. Authorities want to hand over the dead to their relatives. Name
a modern scientific method and write the procedure that would help in the identification of
kinship. [CBSE Delhi 2015] [HOTS]
OR
A number of passengers were severely burnt beyond recognition during a train accident.
Name and describe a modern technique that can help to hand over the dead to their relatives.
[CBSE Delhi 2017]
Ans. DNA fingerprinting can help in identification of kinship.
For procedure, refer to Basic Concepts Point 22.
Q. 50. “A very small sample of tissue or even a drop of blood can help determine paternity”. Provide
a scientific explanation to substantiate the statement. [CBSE (AI) 2015]
Ans. (i) DNA from all cells of an individual shows the same degree of polymorphism and therefore
becomes a useful identification tool.
(ii) Polymorphs are heritable and the child inherits 50% of the chromosome from each parent.
(iii) With the help of PCR the small amount of DNA from blood can be amplified and be used in
DNA finger printing to identify the paternity.
A
Q. 51.
(a) Identify strands ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the diagram of transcription unit given above and write the
basis on which you identified them.
(b) Write the functions of RNA polymerase-I and RNA polymerase-III in eukaryotes.
[CBSE (F) 2016]
Ans. (a) A—Template strand
B—Coding strand
The templates are identified on the basis of polarity with respect to promoter. Template
strand has polarity 3′ → 5′ and coding strand has polarity 5′ → 3′.
(b) RNA polymerase-I transcribes rRNAs.
RNA polymerase-III transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNA.

Long Answer Questions–II [5 marks]
Q. 1. The average length of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is approximately
2.2 metres and the dimension of the nucleus is about 10–6 m.
(a) How is it possible that long DNA polymers are packed within a very small nucleus?
(b) Differentiate between euchromatin and heterochromatin.
(c) Mention the role of non-histone chromosomal protein. [CBSE (F) 2011] [HOTS]
Ans. (a) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 4(ii).
(b) Refer to Table 6.1.
(c) The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires the presence of non-histone chromosomal
protein.
Q. 2. List the criteria a molecule that can act as genetic material must fulfill. Which one of the criteria
are best fulfilled by DNA or by RNA thus making one of them a better genetic material than
the other? Explain. [CBSE Delhi 2016]
Ans. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the following criteria:
(i) It should be able to generate its replica (Replication).
(ii) It should chemically and structurally be stable.
(iii) It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.
(iv) It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian Characters’.
In DNA the two strands being complementary if separated by heating come together, when
appropriate conditions are provided. Further, 2’-OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA
is also now known to be catalytic, hence reactive. Therefore DNA chemically is less reactive
and structurally more stable when compared to RNA. Therefore, among the two nucleic acids,
the DNA is a better genetic material. The presence of thymine at the place of uracil also confers
additional stability to DNA.
Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. In fact, RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate. RNA
can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence can easily express the characters. DNA,
however, is dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins. The protein synthesising machinery has
evolved around RNA.
Q. 3. (a) How are the following formed and involved in DNA packaging in a nucleus of a cell?
(i) Histone octomer
(ii) Nucleosome
(iii) Chromatin
(b) Differentiate between Euchromatin and Heterochromatin. [CBSE Delhi 2016]
Ans. (a) (i) Eight molecules of positively charged basic proteins called histones are organised to
form histone octomer.
(ii) Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around positively charged histone octamer to give
rise to nucleosome.
(iii) Nucleosome constitute the repeating unit of a structure called chromatin.
(b) Refer to Table 6.1.
Q. 4. What background information did Watson and Crick had available with them for developing
a model of DNA? What was their own contribution? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. Watson and Crick had the following informations which helped them to develop a model of
DNA:
(i) Chargaff’s Law suggesting A=T and C G.
(ii) Wilkins and Franklin’s X-ray diffraction studies on DNA’s physical structure.

Based on these information, Watson and crick proposed
(i) complementary base-pairing of nitrogenous bases
(ii) semi-conservative mode of replication
(iii) occurrence of mutation through tautomerism.
Q. 5. Describe the packaging of DNA helix in a prokaryotic cell and an eukaryotic nucleus.
[CBSE (F) 2016]
Q. 6. (a) How did Griffith explain the transformation of R-strain (non-virulent) bacteria into
S-strain (virulent)?
(b) Explain how MacLeod, McCarty and Avery determined the biochemical nature of the
molecule responsible for transforming R-strain bacteria into S-strain bacteria.
[CBSE (AI) 2013, 2016]
OR
(a) Describe the various steps of Griffith’s experiment that led to the conclusion of the
‘Transforming Principle’.
(b) How did the chemical nature of the ‘Transforming Principle’ get established?
[CBSE (AI) 2014; (F) 2015]
Ans. (a) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 5.
(b) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 6.
Q. 7. (a) Write the scientific name of the bacterium used by Frederick Griffith in his experiment.
(b) How did he prove that some ‘transforming principle’ is responsible for transformation of
the non-virulent strains of bacteria into the virulent form?
(c) State the biochemical nature of ‘transforming principle’.
(d) Name the scientists who proved it. [CBSE (F) 2011]
Ans. (a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(c) ‘The transforming principle’ was nucleic acid, i.e., DNA.
(d) It was proved by O. Avery, C. MacLeod and M. McCarty.
Q. 8. (a) Explain the experiment performed by Griffith on Streptococcus pneumoniae. What did he
conclude from this experiment? [CBSE (AI) 2012]
(b) Name the three scientists who followed up Griffith’s experiments.
(c) What did they conclude and how?
Ans. (a) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 5.
(b) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty.
(c) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 6.
Q. 9. Answer the following questions based on Meselson and Stahl’s experiment:
(a) Why did the scientists use 15NH4Cl and 14NH4Cl as sources of nitrogen in the culture
medium for growing E. coli?
(b) Name the molecule(s) that 15N got incorporated into.
(c) How did they distinguish between 15N labelled molecules from 14N ones?
(d) Mention the significance of taking the E. coli samples at definite time intervals for
observations.
(e) Write the observations made by them from the samples taken at the end of 20 minutes and
40 minutes respectively.

(f) Write the conclusion drawn by them at the end of their experiment. [CBSE (F) 2012]
Ans. (a) 15N is the heavy isotope of nitrogen and it can be separated from 14N based on the difference
in their densities.
15
(b) N was incorporated into newly synthesised DNA.
(c) The two molecules were distinguished by caesium chloride centrifugation in which these
two separated into two different bands at different positions based on their densities.
(d) E. coli culture is taken at equal intervals to know the progress of the experiment as generation
time of E. coli is 20 minutes.
(e) After 20 minutes the culture had an intermediate density showing a band in the middle
tube and after 40 minutes, the culture had equal amounts of hybrid DNA and the light DNA
showing two bands, one in the centre and one at the bottom.
(f) They concluded that DNA replicates semi-conservatively.
Q. 10. (a) What did Meselson and Stahl observe when
15
(i) they cultured E. coli in a medium containing NH4Cl for a few generations and
centrifuged the content?
(ii) they transferred one such bacterium to the normal medium of NH4Cl and cultured for
2 generations?
(b) What did Meselson and Stahl conclude from this experiment? Explain with the help of
diagrams.
(c) Which is the first genetic material? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Ans. (a) (i) Meselson and Stahl observed that in the E. coli bacterium the DNA becomes completely
labelled with 15N medium after few generations.
(ii) After two generations, they observed that density changed and showed equal amount of
light DNA (14N) and dark hybrid DNA (15N–14N).
(b) They concluded that DNA replicates semi-conservatively.
For diagram, refer to Fig. 6.8.
(c) RNA is the first genetic material.
Reasons:
(i) RNA is highly reactive and acts as a catalyst as well as a genetic material.
(ii) Essential life processes such as metabolism, translation and splicing evolved around
RNA.
(iii) It expresses itself through proteins.
Q. 11. Describe the Hershey−Chase experiment. Write the conclusion they arrived at after the
experiment. [CBSE (AI) 2010, 2014; (F) 2012]
OR
How did Hershey and Chase established that DNA is transferred from virus to bacteria?
[CBSE Delhi 2015]
Q. 12. You are repeating the Hershey–Chase experiment and are provided with two isotopes: 32P
and 15N (in place of 35S in the original experiment). How do you expect your results to be
different? [NCERT Exemplar] [HOTS]
Ans. Use of N will be inappropriate because method of detection of P and 15N is different (32P
15 35
being a radioactive isotope while 15N is not radioactive but is the heavier isotope of nitrogen).
Even if 15N was radioactive then its presence would have been detected both inside the cell (l5N
incorporated as nitrogenous base in DNA) as well as in the supernatant because 15N would also

15
get incorporated in amino group of amino acids in proteins). Hence, the use of N would not
give any conclusive results.
Q. 13. Answer the following questions based on Hershey and Chases’s experiments:
(a) Name the kind of virus they worked with and why.
(b) Why did they use two types of culture media to grow viruses in? Explain.
(c) What was the need for using a blender and later a centrifuge during their experiments?
(d) State the conclusion drawn by them after the experiments. [CBSE Delhi 2016]
Ans. (a) They worked with bacteriophage because when it attacks a bacteria it only inserts its genetic
material in its body.
(b) They grew some viruses on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus and some others
on medium that contained radioactive sulphur. Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive
phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein because DNA contains
phosphorus but protein does not. Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained
radioactive protein but not radioactive DNA because DNA does not contain sulphur.
(c) Blender was used to agitate the bacteria to remove the viral coats from them. Centrifuge was
used to separate virus particle from the bacteria.
(d) Bacteria which was infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive,
indicating that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to the bacteria. Bacteria that
were infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins were not radioactive. This indicates
that proteins did not enter the bacteria from the viruses. DNA is therefore the genetic material
that is passed from virus to bacteria.
Q. 14. (a) Write the conclusion drawn by Griffith at the end of his experiment with Streptococcus
pneumoniae.
(b) How did O. Avery, C MacLeod and M. McCarty prove that DNA was the genetic material?
Explain. [CBSE (AI) 2013]
Ans. (a) At the end of his experiments Griffith concluded that transformation of R strain by the heat-
killed S strain indicated the presence of a transforming principle or genetic material. This
transforming principle made the R strain virulent.
(b) They purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA, RNA, etc.) from the heat-killed S cells. They
discovered that DNA alone from S bacteria caused R bacteria to become transformed. They
also discovered that protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA-digesting enzymes
(RNases) did not affect transformation, so the transforming substance was not a protein or
RNA. Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation, suggesting that the DNA caused the
transformation. They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material.
Q. 15. How did Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase conclusively establish that DNA is the genetic
material? Explain. [CBSE (AI) 2014; (F) 2015]
Q. 16. Who proposed that DNA replication is semi-conservative? How was it experimentally proved
by Meselson and Stahl?
Ans. Watson and Crick had proposed the semi-conservative scheme for replication of DNA.
For experimental proof, refer to Basic Concepts Point 10(i).
Q. 17. (a) Explain what DNA replication refers to.
(b) State the properties of DNA replication model.
(c) List any three enzymes involved in the process along with their functions.
Ans. (a) DNA replication refers to DNA synthesis: Refer to Basic Concepts 10(iii).

(b) DNA replication is :
(i) Semi-conservative,

(ii) Semi-discontinuous,
(iii) Unidirectional
(c) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 10(ii).
Q. 18. Describe Meselson and Stahl’s experiment that was carried in 1958 on E.coli. Write the
conclusion they arrived at after the experiment. [CBSE Delhi 2012; (AI) 2016; (F) 2014]
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 10(i) and Fig. 6.8.
Q. 19. (a) Explain the observations of Meselson and Stahl when
(i) they cultured E. coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl for a few generations and
centrifuged the content.
(ii) they transferred one such bacterium to the normal medium of NH4Cl and cultured for
2 generations?
(b) What does the above experiment prove?
(c) Which is the first genetic material identified?
Ans. (a) (i) Meselson and Stahl observed that in the E. coli bacterium the DNA becomes completely
labelled with 15N medium by centrifugation for few generations.
(ii) After two generations, density changed and showed equal amount of light DNA (14N)
and dark hybrid DNA (15N–14N).
(b) They concluded that DNA replicates semi-conservatively.
Refer to Fig. 6.8.
(c) Ribonucleic acid (RNA) was the first genetic material.
Q. 20. (a) State the ‘Central dogma’ as proposed by Francis Crick. Are there any exceptions to it?
Support your answer with a reason and an example.
(b) Explain how the biochemical characterisation (nature) of ‘Transforming Principle’ was
determined, which was not defined from Griffith’s experiments. [CBSE Delhi 2018]
Ans. (a) Francis Crick proposed the central dogma of molecular biology which states that genetic
information flows from DNA to mRNA (transcription) and then from mRNA to protein
(translation) always unidirectionally (except bidirectionally in some viruses and the process
is called reverse transcription).

Replication DNA Transcription mRNA Translation Protein
Yes, there are some exceptions to it. In some viruses flow of information is in reverse direction
(reverse transcription).
Q. 21. (a) Explain the process of DNA replication that occurs in a replication fork in E. coli.
(b) How are translational unit and untranslated regions in mRNA different from each other?
[CBSE (AI) 2013]
Ans. (a) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 10(iii).
(b) A translational unit in mRNA from 5' → 3' comprises of a start codon, region coding for a
polypeptide, a stop codon and untranslated regions (UTRs). UTRs are present at both 5'-
end and 3'-end of mRNA.

Q. 22. (a) Name the stage in the cell cycle where DNA replication occurs.
(b) Explain the mechanism of DNA replication. Highlight the role of enzymes in the process.
(c) Why is DNA replication said to be semiconservative? [CBSE (AI) 2016]
Ans. (a) S-phase/synthetic phase (of interphase).

(b) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 10(ii) and (iii).
(c) During DNA replication in the two newly synthesised daughter DNA, one strand is parental
(conserved) on the other is newly synthesised. That is why it is called semiconservative.
Q. 23. (a) Explain the process of DNA replication with the help of a schematic diagram.
(b) In which phase of the cell cycle does replication occur in Eukaryotes? What would happen
if cell division is not followed after DNA replication? [CBSE Delhi 2014]
Ans. (a) Replication of DNA begins at ori, to form a replication fork. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
forms a new strand in 5′ 3′ direction. The replication is continuous on the 3′ 5′
strand whereas it is discontinuous on the 5′ 3′ strand.
The discontinuously synthesised fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase.
For diagram refer to Fig. 6.9.
(b) Replication occurs in S phase
If cell division is not followed after DNA replication, the cell will undergo polyploidy.
Q. 24. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of a “replicating fork” showing the polarity. Why does DNA
replication occur within such ‘forks’?
(b) Name two enzymes involved in the process of DNA replication, along with their
properties. [CBSE (AI) 2015]
Ans. (a) For Figure, refer to Fig. 6.9.
The two strands of DNA cannot be separated in its entire length due to very high energy
requirement. High amount of energy is required to break the hydrogen bonds holding the
two strands. Therefore, the replication occurs in small opening of DNA strands called the
replication fork.
(b) (i) DNA dependent DNA polymerase: adds nucleotides only in 5 to 3 directions.

(ii) DNA ligase: joins the discontinuously synthesised DNA fragments during replication.
Q. 25. (a) Write the specific features of the genetic code AUG. [CBSE (AI) 2013]
(b) Genetic codes can be universal and degenerate. Write about them, giving one example of
each.
(c) Explain aminoacylation of the tRNA.
Ans. (a) AUG is the starting codon and codes for methionine.
(b) The genetic code is universal, i.e., a particular codon codes for the same amino acid in all
organisms. For example, UUU codes for phenylalanine in all organisms.
Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate. For
example, UUU and UUC both code for phenylalanine.
(c) Amino acids become activated by binding with aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme in the
presence of ATP.
Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
Amino acid (AA) + ATP
AA–AMP–Enzyme complex + Pi
These activated amino acids are then linked to their cognate tRNA to form aminoacylated
tRNA.

Q. 26. Draw a labelled schematic structure of a transcription unit. Explain the function of each
component in the unit in the process of transcription.
Ans. Schematic structure of a transcription unit:

(i) Promoter: It is the binding site for RNA polymerase for initiation of transcription.

(ii) Structural gene: It codes for enzyme or protein for structural functions.
(iii) Terminator: It is the region where transcription ends.
Q. 27. Explain the process of transcription in prokaryotes. How is the process different in
eukaryotes? [CBSE (AI) 2015]
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 13 and 14.
Q. 28. Explain the process of transcription in eukaryotes. [CBSE (F) 2015]
Q. 29. (a) Describe the process of transcription in bacteria.
(b) Explain the processing the hnRNA needs to undergo before becoming functional mRNA in
eukaryotes. [CBSE (AI) 2016]
Ans. (a) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 13 and Fig. 6.11.
(b) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 14 (Post-transcriptional modification) and Fig. 6.12.
Q. 30. (a) Explain the role of DNA dependent RNA polymerase in initiation, elongation and
termination during transcription in bacterial cell.
(b) How is transcription a more complex process in eukaryotic cells? Explain. [CBSE (F) 2011]
Ans. (a) The DNA dependent RNA polymerase helps in DNA replication by catalysing the
polymerisation in only one direction, i.e., 5′→3′. In bacteria, the RNA polymerase has
co-factors b, b′, a, a′, w and s which catalyse the process. Refer to the above question.
Q. 31. Transcription in eukaryotes is more complex process than in prokaryotes. Justify and compare
the initiation, elongation and termination in bacterial cells with eukaryotes.
Ans. Transcription is more complex in eukaryotes due to following reasons:
OO In prokaryotes only one type of RNA polymerase is involved whereas in eukaryotes three
types of RNA polymerases are involved.
OO For Description of processing of hnRNA involving-introns/exons/splicing in eukaryotes and
for Description of capping and tailing, Refer to Basic Concepts Point 14.
Refer to Fig. 6.11 and Fig. 6.12.
Q. 32. Explain the role of RNA polymerase in transcription in bacteria. [CBSE (F) 2013]
Q. 33. How do RNA, tRNA and ribosomes help in the process of translation? [CBSE (AI) 2015]
Ans. mRNA provides a template with codons for specific amino acids to be linked to form a
polypeptide/protein.
tRNA brings amino acid to the ribosomes reads the genetic code with the help of its anti-codons,

initiator tRNA is responsible for starting polypeptide formation in the ribosomes tRNAs are
specific for each amino acid.

Ribosomes-(Cellular factories for proteins synthesis) its smaller sub unit binds with mRNA
to initiate protein synthesis at the start codon AUG, in its larger sub unit there are two sites
present which brings two amino acids close to each other helping them to form peptide bond.
Ribosomes moves from codon to codon along mRNA, amino acids are added one by one to form
polypeptide/protein.
Q. 34. (a) Describe the process of synthesis of fully functional mRNA in an eukaryotic cell.
(b) How is this process of mRNA synthesis different from that in prokaryotes?
[CBSE (AI) 2012]
Ans. (a) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 16 (Post-transcriptional modifications) and Fig. 6.12.
(b) In prokaryotes, there is a single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription
of all types of RNA in bacteria. In bacteria, mRNA does not require any processing as it does
not have any introns.
Q. 35. Name the major types of RNAs and explain their role in the process of protein synthesis in a
prokaryote. [CBSE (F) 2014]
Ans. The three major types of RNAs are—mRNA, tRNA and rRNA.
mRNA: It provides the template for protein synthesis. It also provides site to initiate and terminate

the process of protein synthesis
tRNA: Its anticodon loop reads the genetic code on mRNA and brings the corresponding amino
acid bound to its amino acid binding end on to the mRNA.
rRNA: It forms a structural component of ribosome (23S RNA) and acts as a catalyst for the
formation of peptide bond.
Q. 36. Illustration below is a DNA segment, which constitutes a gene:
(i) Name the shaded and unshaded regions of gene.

(ii) Explain how these genes are expressed.
(iii) How is this gene different from prokaryotic gene in its expression? [HOTS]
Ans. (i) The shaded portions are introns and unshaded portions are exons.
(ii) The primary RNA contains both introns and exons. By the mechanism of splicing, introns are
removed and exons are joined to form functional mRNA after capping and tailing. Refer to
Basic Concepts Point 17 (Post-transcriptional modifications).
(iii) In prokaryotes, the structural gene is continuous and is not differentiated into exons and
introns unlike eukaryotes. In prokaryotes, transcription is followed by translation without
RNA splicing mechanism.
Q. 37. There is only one possible sequence of amino acids when deduced from a given nucleotide.
But multiple nucleotide sequences can be deduced from a single amino acid sequence. Explain
this phenomena. [HOTS]
Ans. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon (known as degeneracy of codon), hence
on deducing a nucleotide sequence from an amino acid sequence, multiple nucleotide sequences
will be obtained.
For example, isoleucine has three codons AUU, AUC and AUA. Hence a dipeptide Met–Ile can
have any of the following nucleotide sequences:
(i) AUG–AUU
(ii) AUG–AUC
(iii) AUG–AUA

If we deduce amino acid sequences of the above nucleotide sequences, all the three will code for
Met–Ile.
Q. 38. Where do transcription and translation occur in bacteria and eukaryotes respectively? Explain
the complexities in transcription and translation in eukaryotes that are not seen in bacteria.
[CBSE (F) 2010]
Ans. Transcription and translation in bacteria occur in the cytoplasm of the cell, whereas in eukaryotes,
transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm.

Complexities in transcription in eukaryotes
(i) The structural genes are monocistronic and split in eukaryotes.
(ii) The genes of eukaryotic organisms have coding or expressed sequences called exons that
form the part of mRNA and non-coding sequences called introns, that do not form part of the
mRNA and are removed during RNA splicing.
(iii) In eukaryotes, apart from the RNA polymerase found in the organelles, three types of RNA
polymerases are found in the nucleus.
(iv) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 58S).
(v) RNA polymerase II transcribes the precursor of mRNA (called as heterogeneous nuclear
RNA (hnRNA).
(vi) RNA polymerase III helps in transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA, and snRNAs (small nuclear
RNAs).
(vii) The primary transcripts contain both the coding regions called exons and non-coding regions
called intron in RNA and are non-functional called hnRNA.
(viii) The hnRNA undergoes two additional processes called capping and tailing.
(ix) In capping, an unusual nucleotide is added to the 5′-end of hnRNA i.e. methyl guanosine
triphosphate.
(x) In tailing, about 200-300 adenylate residues are added at 3′-end in a template independent
manner.
(xi) Now the hnRNA undergoes a process where the introns are removed and exons are joined to
form mRNA called splicing.
Translation in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes is similar.
Q. 39. (a) Explain the process of aminoacylation of tRNA. Mention its role in translation.
(b) How do ribosomes in the cells act as factories for protein synthesis?
(c) Describe ‘initiation’ and ‘termination’ phases of protein synthesis. [CBSE (F) 2011]
Ans. (a) Aminoacylation is the process by which amino acids become activated by binding with its
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase in the presence of ATP.
If two charged tRNAs come close during translation process, the formation of peptide bond
between them in energetically favourable.
(b) The cellular factory responsible for synthesising proteins is the ribosome. The ribosome
consists of structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins. In its inactive state, it exists
as two subunits: a large subunit and a small subunit. When the small subunit encounters
an mRNA, the process of translation of the mRNA to protein begins. There are two sites in
the large subunit, for subsequent amino acids to bind to and thus, be close enough to each
other for the formation of a peptide bond. The ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA in
bacteria is the enzyme ribozyme) for the formation of peptide bond.
(c) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 17.

Q. 40. (a) Name the scientist who postulated the presence of an adapter molecule that can assist in
protein synthesis.
(b) Describe its structure with the help of a diagram. Mention its role in protein synthesis.
[CBSE (F) 2014]
Ans. (a) Francis Crick
(b) Refer to Basic Concepts Point 16 (Structure) and Fig. 6.13 for the structure.
The adapter molecule reads code with the help of anticodon loop and on the other end binds
specific amino acids by peptide bond.
Q. 41. (a) What is an operon?
(b) Explain how a polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter and a
combination of regulatory genes in a lac operon. [CBSE (AI) 2017]
Ans. (a) An operon is a polycistronic structural gene which is regulated by a common promoter and
regulator gene.
Q. 42. Study the schematic representation of the genes involved in the lac operon given below and
answer the questions that follow:
p i p o z y a
(i) Identify and name the regulatory gene in this operon. Explain its role in ‘switching off’ the
operon.
(ii) Why is lac operon’s regulation referred to as negative regulation?
(iii) Name the inducer molecule and the products of the genes ‘z’ and ‘y’ of the operon. Write
the functions of these gene products. [CBSE (F) 2010] [HOTS]
Ans. (i) i gene is the regulatory gene and codes of repressor which acts as inhibitor as inhibits the
transcription of structural genes.
The repressor of the operon is synthesised from the i gene. The repressor protein in the
absence of an inducer (lactose or allolactose) binds to the operator region of the operon and
prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes. Thus ‘switching off’ the
operon.
(ii) Regulation by lac operon is referred to as negative regulation because the repressor binds to
the operator for ‘switching off’ the operon.
(iii) Lactose or allolactose acts as an inducer. Gene z codes for β-galactosidase (gal) enzyme which
breaks lactose into galactose and glucose. Gene y codes for permease, which increases the
permeability of the cell to lactose.
Q. 43. Observe the representation of genes involved in the lac operon given below:
P i p o z y a
(a) Identify the region where the repressor protein will attach normally.
(b) Under certain conditions repressor is unable to attach at this site. Explain.
(c) If repressor fails to attach to the said site what products will be formed by z, y and a?
(d) Analyse why this kind of regulation is called negative regulation.
[CBSE Sample Paper 2016] [HOTS]
Ans. (a) The repressor protein will attach to operator region, o.
(b) In presence of an inducer, lactose, repressor is unable to attach.

(c) z—β galactosidase.
y—Permease

a—Transacetylase

(d) It is called negative regulation as it involves constitutive (all the time) repressor. The
operon is always in off position due to presence of repressor and is switched on only in
presence of an inducer. Inducer Lactose or allolactose interacts with repressor making it
inactive.
Q. 44. (a) Absence of lactose in the culture medium affects the expression of a lac operon in E. coli.
Why and how? Explain.
(b) Write any two ways in which the gene expression is regulated in eukaryotes.
Ans. (a) (i) When lactose is absent, i gene regulates and produces repressor mRNA which translate
repression.
(ii) The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and as a result prevents
RNA polymerase to bind to the operon.
(iii) The operon is switched off.
(b) Gene expression in eukaryotes is regulated at following levels:
Transcriptional level (formation of primary transcripts)
Processing level (regulation of splicing)
Transport of messenger RNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm
Translational level. (Any two)
Q. 45. (a) State the arrangement of different genes that in bacteria is referred to as ‘operon’.
(b) Draw a schematic labelled illustration of lac operon in a ‘switched on’ state.
(c) Describe the role of lactose in lac operon. [CBSE (AI) 2011]
Ans. (a) The operon has polycistronic structural genes, i.e., three structural genes adjacent to an
operator, a promoter and a regulator.
(b) Refer to Fig. 6.15(b).
(c) Lactose is the inducer that inactivates repressor. This allows RNA polymerase to access
promoter and initiate transcription of the structural genes or switch on the operon.
Q. 46. Describe how the lac operon operates, both in the presence and absence of an inducer in
E.coli. [CBSE (AI) 2014]
Ans. Refer to Fog. 6.15 (a) and (b).
The repressor is synthesised from the i gene. The repressor protein binds to the operator region
and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes zya. In the presence of an
inducer, the repressor is inactivated by interaction with inducer. This allows RNA polymerase
access to promotor and transcription proceeds.
Q. 47. Explain the role of lactose as an inducer in a lac operon. [CBSE Delhi 2016]
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 19 or Fig. 6.15.
Q. 48. Explain the steps of DNA fingerprinting that will help in processing of the two blood samples
A and B picked up from the crime scene.
Ans. Methodology and Technique:
(i) DNA is isolated and extracted from the cell or tissue by centrifugation.
(ii) By the process of polymerase chain reaction (PCR), many copies are produced. This step is
called amplification.
(iii) DNA is cut into small fragments by treating with restriction endonucleases.
(iv) DNA fragments are separated by agarose gel electrophoresis.

(v) The separated DNA fragments are visualised under ultraviolet radiation after applying
suitable dye.
(vi) The DNA is transferred from electrophoresis plate to nitrocellulose or nylon membrane
sheet. This is called Southern blotting.
(vii) VNTR probes are now added which bind to specific nucleotide sequences that are
complementary to them. This is called hybridisation.
(viii) The hybridised DNA fragments are detected by autoradiography. They are observed as dark
bands on X-ray film.
(ix) These bands being of different sizes, give a characteristic pattern for an individual DNA. It
differs from individual to individual except in case of monozygotic (identical) twins.
Q. 49. (i) DNA polymorphism is the basis of DNA fingerprinting technique. Explain.
(ii) Mention the causes of DNA polymorphism. [CBSE (F) 2010]
Ans. (i) Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been described as a DNA polymorphism if its
frequency is greater than 0.01. Simply, if an inheritable mutation is observed in a population
at high frequency, it is referred to as DNA polymorphism. DNA fingerprinting is a technique
of determining nucleotide sequences of certain areas of DNA which are unique to each
individual.
Although the DNA from different individuals is more alike than different, there are many
regions of the human chromosomes that exhibit a great deal of diversity. Such variable
sequences are termed “polymorphic” (meaning many forms)
A special type of polymorphism, called VNTR (variable number of tandem repeats), is
composed of repeated copies of a DNA sequence that lie adjacent to one another on the
chromosome. Since polymorphism is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome,
therefore it forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting too.
(ii) The probability of such variations to be observed in non-coding DNA sequences would be
higher as mutations in these sequences may not have any immediate effect in an individual’s
reproductive ability. These mutations keep on accumulating generation after generation and
form one of the basis of variability. There is a variety of different types of polymorphisms
ranging from single nucleotide change to very large scale changes. For evolution and
speciation, such polymorphisms play very important role.
The single nucleotide polymorphisms are used in locating diseases and tracing of human
history.
DNA polymorphisms are due to mutations.
Q. 50. Two blood samples A and B picked up from the crime scene were handed over to the forensic
department for genetic fingerprinting. Describe how the technique of genetic fingerprinting is
carried out. How will it be confirmed whether the samples belonged to the same individual or
to two different individuals?
Ans. Refer to Basic Concepts Point 22 (Methodology and technique).
On comparing the DNA prints of blood samples A and B, it can be confirmed that the blood sample
picked up from the crime scene belongs to the same individual or to two different individuals by
matching the position and thickness of the bands.
Q. 51. Which methodology is used while sequencing the total DNA from a cell? Explain it in detail.
[CBSE Sample Paper 2015, 2017, 2018]
Ans. Methodologies of HGP:
OO For sequencing, the total DNA from cell is first isolated and broken down in relatively small
sizes as fragments.

OO These DNA fragments are cloned in suitable host using suitable vectors. When bacteria is used
as vector, they are called bacterial artificial chromosomes (BAC) and when yeast is used as
vector, they are called yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC).
OO Frederick Sanger developed a principle according to which the fragments of DNA are
sequenced by automated DNA sequences.
OO On the basis of overlapping regions on DNA fragments, these sequences are arranged
accordingly.
OO For alignment of these sequences, specialised computer-based programmes were developed.
OO These sequences were annotated and were assigned to each chromosome. Sequence of
chromosome 1 was completed only in May 2006. It was the last chromosome be sequenced).
OO Finally, the genetic and physical maps of the genome were constructed by collecting information
about certain repetitive DNA sequences and DNA polymorphism, based on endonuclease
recognition sites.
OO
Self-Assessment Test
Time allowed: 1 Hour Max. marks: 30
1. Choose and write the correct option in the following questions. (3×1 = 3)
(i) If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5'-AUG-3', the sequence of t RNA pairing with it
must be
(a) 5'-UAC-3' (b) 5'-CAU-3'
(c) 5'-AUG-3' (d) 5'-GUA-3'
(ii) The usual method of DNA replication is
(a) Conservative
(b) Dispersive
(c) Non-conservative
(d) Semi-conservative
(iii) A bacterium containing 100% N15 nitrogen bases is allowed to replicate in a medium containing
N14 bases. After one round of duplication, the result would be
(a) All individuals would be identical to parents
(b) All individuals would be radioactive but the percentage of radioactivity in DNA would
be 50%
(c) Only 50% individuals would be radioactive
(d) All individuals would be similar to parents but different among themselves
2. In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices. (3×1 = 3)
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

(i) Assertion : RNA does not have the ability to mutate.
Reason : RNA is unstable because of the presence of 2'–OH group.
(ii) Assertion : Replication of DNA in 3' → 5' strand is continuous.
Reason : DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyse polymerisation only in one direction.
(iii) Assertion : Lactose is known to be the inducer and the substrate for the enzyme
b-galactosidase.
Reason : Lactose binds to the operator region of the operon and prevents binding of RNA
polymerase.
3. What is Chargaff’s rule? (1)
4. Name the components ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the nucelotide with a purine, given below.
b
(1)
5. Given below is a part of the template strand of a structural gene:
TAC CAT TAG GAT
(i) Write its transcribed m RNA strand with its polarity.
(ii) Explain the mechanism involved in initiation of transcription of this strand. (2)
6. Draw a neat labelled sketch of a replicating fork of DNA. (2)
7. Study the given portion of double stranded polynucleotide chain carefully. Identify a, b, c and
the 5′-end of the chain. (2)
d H
| H
P C |
| P C
| OH
H
H
b
a
c
e
H H
OH | |
C P C
| P
H |
H

8. What is Central dogma? Who proposed it? (2)

9. Why is DNA considered a better hereditary material than RNA? [CBSE (F) 2012] (3)
10. (i) Differentiate between exons and introns.
(ii) State the contribution of Macleod, Mc Carty and Avery. (3)

11. The illustration below is of a DNA segment which constitute a gene. (3×1 = 3)
(i) Will the whole gene be transcribed in RNA primarily?

(ii) Name the shaded and unshaded part of the gene.
(iii) Explain how is gene expressed.
12. Name the scientists who proved experimentally that DNA is the genetic material. Describe their
experiment. [CBSE Delhi 2012] (5)
Answers
1. (i)—(b), (ii)—(d), (iii)—(b) 2. (i)—(d), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(b)
zzz

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Chapter–6

1. The Structure of Polynucleotide Chain

Fig. 6.2 A polynucleotide chain

2. Salient Features of Double Helical DNA

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 193

Fig. 6.3 DNA double helix

Following are some features of DNA:

3. Central Dogma of Molecular Biology

194 Xam idea Biology–XII

(i) Packaging of DNA in prokaryotes

(ii) Packaging of DNA in eukaryotes

S. No. Euchromatin Heterochromatin

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 195

virulent Non-Virulent Heat Killed Heat Killed S-cells +

Died Survived Survived Died

Virulent (S-cells) Virulent (S-cells)

6. Biochemical Characterisation of Transforming Principle

196 Xam idea Biology–XII

7. Proof for DNA as the Genetic Material

detected in bacterial cell pellet

Fig. 6.6 The Hershey–Chase experiment

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 197

of messenger and adapter.

9. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)

10. DNA Replication

198 Xam idea Biology–XII

At 0 minutes After 20 minutes After 40 minutes

Fig. 6.8 Meselson and Stahl’s experiment

(ii) Enzymes for DNA replication

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 199

(i) Act as substrate because deoxyribonucleotides are joined to form DNA.

(iii) Process of DNA Replication

200 Xam idea Biology–XII

Fig. 6.10 Schematic structure of a transcription unit

12. Transcription Unit and the Gene

13. Transcription in Prokaryotes

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 201

14. Transcription in Eukaryotes

202 Xam idea Biology–XII

Fig. 6.12 Post-transcriptional modifications in eukaryotes

15. Genetic Code

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 203

Salient features of genetic code

16. tRNA—the Adapter Molecule

204 Xam idea Biology–XII

Fig. 6.14 Process of translation

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 205

AA–AMP–Enzyme complex + tRNA AA–tRNA + AMP + Enzyme.

(ii) Elongation of polypeptide chain

(iii) Termination of polypeptide

18. Regulation of Gene Expression

206 Xam idea Biology–XII

Fig. 6.15 (a) The lac operon in absence of inducer

Fig. 6.15 (b) The lac operon in presence of inducer

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 207

20. Human Genome Project (HGP)

208 Xam idea Biology–XII

21. Salient Features of Human Genome

Rice Genome Project

Molecular Basis of Inheritance 209