00/06/2019 OYM

Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 AIATS Practice Test Time : 3 Hrs.

AIATS
(for NEETPractice
- 2020)

Test - 1
Topics Covered in Various Subjects :
Physics : Electricity-I : Electric Charges and Field, Electrostatics Potential (excluding capacitance)
Chemistry : Physical Chemistry-I : Solid State, Solution
Botany : Reproduction in Plants : Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Zoology : Reproduction in Organism, Human Reproduction

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Total electric flux through a closed surface enclosing 3. There are two conducting plates. If charge on 1st and
1 C charge is 2nd plates are Q, 2Q respectively, then charge on
2
(1) 0 (2) 0 face x is
2 1
(3) 0 (4) 0 Q 2Q
2. Two conducting plates have charge 3Q and 2Q and
separation between them is x, then potential
difference between the two plates is (plate area is A)
3Q 2Q x

(1) –Q

Q
(2) –
2
Q Q
(1) x (2) x (3) –2Q
A0 2 A0
Q 3Q 3Q
(3) x (4) x (4) –
3 A0 2 A0 2
(1)
Test-1 (OYM_A) AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020
4. A charge q is kept in a closed surface as shown. If (1) First increases then becomes constant
flux through each plane surface is , then flux (2) First decreases then becomes constant
through curved surfaces is
(3) Continuously decreases
(4) Continuously increases
7. A charge Q is kept at one vertex of a cube of side
l. The number of faces of the cube through which
electric flux is zero, is
q (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
q q
(1)  (2)  2 8. A plane surface having surface area of 10 m2 is kept
30 20
parallel to YZ plane, in a region where electric field
q q
(3)   3 (4)     N
0 0 is E  6iˆ  2 jˆ  3kˆ . The electric flux through the
C
5. A charge Q is kept at the centre of a hemisphere as plane is
shown. Total flux passing through the hemisphere is
(1) 20 Vm (2) 30 Vm
Hemisphere (3) 40 Vm (4) 60 Vm
R
9. W hich of the following represents variation of
potential (V) with distance (r) from centre of a charge
Q
metal sphere of charge Q and radius R?
Q Q
(1)  (2) 2  V V
0 0

Q Q
(3) 3  (4) 4 
0 0 (1) (2)
6. A long line charge having linear charge density r r
O R O R
( = 2 + 5x) is kept inside a cube of side L as
shown in the figure. If cube starts moving towards
right, then flux through the cube will
V V
Y

(3) (4)
r r
O R O R
L X
(0, 0) 10. The maximum charge that can be given to a
conducting sphere of radius 3 m when kept in air is
Cube (1) 3 nC (2) 3 C
L (3) 3 mC (4) 3 C
(Space for Rough Work)

(2)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)
11. Which of the following trajectory of a charged particle 16. Charges Q each are kept on x-axis at points 1 m,
is not possible in uniform electric field? 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, ..... upto infinity. The electric
potential at the origin, is
(1) Straight line (2) Parabolic
(3) Circular (4) Both (1) & (2) Q Q Q Q
O 1m 2m 4m 8m to 
12. Electric field at a point on the axis of an electric
dipole is E. If strength of dipole moment and distance
Q 2Q
are doubled, then new electric field at new point will (1) 4 (2) 4
be (dipole is ideal) 0 0

E E 3Q 4Q
(1) (2)
2 4 (3) (4)
40 40
E E
(3) (4) 17. Linear charge density on circumference of half ring
8 16
is . If a particle of mass m and charge q0 is kept
13. Which of the following represents correct variation of
at the centre of the ring, then acceleration of particle
electric potential due to an ideal electric dipole at
is (R = radius of half ring)
large distance r from it?
y
(1) V  r2 (2) V  r 
1 1
(3) V  (4) V 
r r2 q0
m x
14. An electric dipole of dipole moment Piˆ is kept in a
R
non-uniform electric field along x-axis, decreasing at
V
rate 2 . The force on dipole is
m2
 1 q0 ˆ  1 q0 ˆ
(1) a  i (2) a  – i
(1) Piˆ (2) 2Piˆ 20 Rm 20 Rm

(3) 2.5Piˆ (4) 1.5Piˆ  1 q0 ˆ  1 q0 ˆ

(3) a  i (4) a   i
40 Rm 40 Rm
15. A charge Q is kept at centre of a hemisphere S.
Another charge q is placed at any one point A, B, 18. Two protons are kept at some finite separation. If
C and D. At which point q should be kept so that they are allowed to move apart slowly, then (potential
Q is taken zero at infinity)
flux through hemisphere remains 2 ?
0 (1) Potential energy of system of protons will
A increase
S C
(2) Potential energy of system of proton will
B
decrease
Q D (3) Potential energy of system of proton will remain
(1) A (2) B constant
(3) C (4) D (4) Potential energy first decreases then increases
(Space for Rough Work)

(3)
Test-1 (OYM_A) AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020

  q (1) 35 volt (2) 34 volt

19. In Gauss’s law  E ·dA  0 , the electric field in the (3) 32 volt (4) 30 volt
equation is due to
 V
(1) Charge enclosed by Gaussian surface only 22. Electric field in a region is given as E  (3iˆ  2 ˆj ) .
m
(2) Charge outside the Gaussian surface only
If potential at origin is 10 volt, then potential at a
(3) Both charges inside and outside of Gaussian point P(4, 5) m is equal to
surface
(1) –6 volt (2) –9 volt
(4) Charge on the Gaussian surface only
(3) –12 volt (4) –13 volt
20. Equipotential surfaces are shown in the region in xy 23. A 20 C charge is kept at centre of a square as
plane. Electric field intensity in the region is shown in the figure. The work done in moving a
y charge 2 C from point D to B is
10 V 15 V 20 V
l
D C

l l
20 C
30° A B
x l
0 20 cm 40 cm
V (1) 18 × 10–3 J (2) 36 × 10–3 J
(1) 50 , 120° from +ve x-axis
m (3) 72 × 10–3 J (4) Zero
V 24. Electric potential in a region varies with distance as
(2) 50 , 60° from +ve x-axis
m V = 3x 2. The electric field strength at a point
P(2, 4, 2) m is
V
(3) 50 , 30° from +ve x-axis
m V
(1) 12 along +ve Y-axis
V m
(4) 50 , 150° from +ve x-axis
m V
(2) 12 along –ve Y-axis
V m
21. Uniform electric field of strength 20 is present in
m V
a region as shown in the figure. Points A and B are (3) 12 along +ve X-axis
m
separated by 20 3 cm . If potential at point A is V
(4) 12 along –ve X-axis
40 volt, then potential at B is equal to m
25. If W work is done in rotating a dipole in uniform
electric field from its stable equilibrium position to an
angle 30°, then torque needed to hold this dipole at
A B an angle 60° in the same electric field is
20 3 cm
30° 3W (2 – 3)W
(1) (2)
2– 3 3
3W (2 – 3)W
V (3) (4)
E = 20 m 2– 3 3
(Space for Rough Work)

(4)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)
26. Select correct statement regarding electric field due 31. Which of the following/s electric field line/s pattern is
 possible?
to a short electric dipole. [ E A = electric field on

axis, EB = electric field at a point on perpendicular
bisector. Points are at equal distances from dipole in
both cases]
  Conductor
A. E A  2EB (1)

 
B. E A  –EB

C. EA = 2EB
(1) A, B, C (2) A, C + – +
(2)
(3) B, C (4) C only
27. A point charge q = 20 C is kept at a point P(3, 4)
m. The electric field vector at point Q(9, –4) m, is

V V
(1) 3.60(3iˆ – 4 jˆ) (2) 360(3iˆ – 4 ˆj ) (3)
m m

V V
(3) 360(4iˆ – 3 ˆj ) (4) 3.6(4iˆ – 3 ˆj )
m m
(4) + –
28. Select incorrect statement
(1) Similar point charges always repel each other
32. The order of ratio of magnitude of electrostatic force
(2) Similar charged bodies always repel each other
and gravitational force between two protons when
(3) Similar charged bodies may attract each other kept r distance apart is
(4) Clouds get charged by friction (1) 1041 (2) 1039
29. Two point charges +Q and –Q are kept at point (3) 1038 (4) 1036
A(–a, 0) and B(a, 0). Electric field at point C(0, a) is 33. Gold leaf electroscope is used
(1) Along +ve X-axis (1) To detect charge on a body
(2) Along –ve X-axis (2) To give energy to charged particle
(3) Along +ve Y-axis (3) To measure electric potential
(4) Along –ve Y-axis (4) All of these
30. Dimensions of electrical permittivity of free space is 34. Electrostatic force between two point charges
(1) [M0L0T0A0] (1) Is conservative in nature
(2) [ML3T–4A–2] (2) Follows inverse square law
(3) [M–1L–3T–2A–2] (3) Is a central force
(4) [M–1L–3T4A2] (4) All of these
(Space for Rough Work)

(5)
Test-1 (OYM_A) AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020
35. Two identical conducting spheres A and B having 38. Three charges Q, Q and –Q are kept at three
charge 2Q and 4Q, are kept r distance apart and corners of an equilateral triangle of side l. The
force between them is F. Now they are touched and magnitude of net force on charge q0 at centroid O is
then separated again to same distance r. Now force
A Q
between them is F, then
q0
F 8 l l
(1) F   (2) F   F O
8 9
9 C B
(3) F   F (4) F = 8F –Q l Q
8
6 Qq0 3 Qq0
36. When two point charges are kept in vacuum force (1) (2)
40 l 2 40 l 2
between them is F o . Now they are kept in a
medium of dielectric constant K = 4, the force 3 Qq0 6 Qq0
(3) (4)
Fo 40 l 2 40 l 2
between them becomes F m. The ratio of is
Fm 39. Five corner of a regular hexagon has charge q each
(separation between charge is same in both cases) as shown. The force on charge q0 at centre is
F E
Fo 1 Fo 1 q q
(1) F  4 (2) F  2
m m q0
A q D
O
Fo Fo q q l
(3) 4 (4) 2
Fm Fm B C
l
37. Four equal charges (each Q) are kept at corners of 1 qq0 
(1) 4 towards OD
a square of side l. The force on charge at corner B 2
0 l
along a line perpendicular to diagonal DB is 
1 qq0
Q Q (2) 4 towards OA
l 0 l
2
D C
1 qq 
l (3) 5 0 towards OD
40 l2
A B 1 qq0 
Q Q (4) 4 5 2 towards OA
0 l
1 Q2  1 40. Two charges q and 5q are placed 20 cm apart. The
(1) 2 
40 l 2  2 point where a third charge of 1 C is in equilibrium,
is at x distance from charge q. Then x is
1 Q2  1  q 1C 5q
(2) 1
40 l 2  2  x
20 cm
1 Q2  1 
(3) 1
40 l 2  2
 (1) 4( 5 – 1) cm (2) 5( 5  1) cm

(4) Zero (3) 5( 5 – 1) cm (4) 4( 5  1) cm

(Space for Rough Work)

(6)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)
41. Specific charge is maximum for 44. If a body has +4.8 × 10–10 C charge, then
(1) Electron (2) Proton (1) It has excess number of electrons
(3) Deuteron (4) -particle (2) It has lost some of its electron
42. Which is not the unit of electric charge? (3) It has gained some protons
(1) coulomb (2) e.s.u. (4) All of these
(3) e.m.u. (4) slug 45. Select incorrect statement regarding electric charge

43. How many electrons are present in 1 g of hydrogen (1) It is invariant

gas? (Given, NA = 6 × 1023) (2) It is quantised
(1) 6 × 1023 (2) 3 × 1023 (3) It can exist without mass
(3) 12 × 1023 (4) 1.5 × 1023 (4) It is conserved

CHEMISTRY
46. van’t Hoff factor for 0.2 M ideal solution will be 51. 0.004 M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with a 0.01
M solution of glucose at same temperature. Degree
(1) 0.2 (2) 1
of dissociation of the compound will be
(3) 1.2 (4) 1.5 (1) 25% (2) 50%
47. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M monobasic acid if its pH (3) 75% (4) 85%
is 2.0 at 25°C will be
52. A substance is completely trimerised on dissolution
(1) 2.1 atm (2) 2.69 atm in a solvent. The van’t Hoff factor i for solution will be
(3) 1.95 atm (4) 3.25 atm (1) 1 (2) 2
48. Equimolal solutions of NaCl and BaCl2 are prepared in 1
(3) 3 (4)
water. If the freezing point of BaCl2 solution is –3°C, 3
the freezing point of aqueous NaCl solution will be 53. Maximum osmotic pressure will be observed when
(1) –3°C (2) –2°C 0.1 mole of

(3) –1°C (4) –4°C (1) Acetic acid dissolved in benzene

(2) Acetic acid dissolved in water
49. Elevation in boiling point will be maximum if non-
electrolyte is dissolved in (3) Glucose dissolved in water

(1) H2O (2) Benzene (4) Both (1) & (2)

(3) CCl4 (4) CS2 54. Which of the following is colligative property?
(1) Vapour pressure (2) Boiling point
50. RBC shrink in NaCl solution having concentration
more than 0.9% is due to (3) Freezing point (4) Osmotic pressure

(1) Plasmolysis 55. Assuming salts to unionized in the solution which of

the following aqueous solution have highest osmotic
(2) Crenation pressure?
(3) Hemolysis (1) 1% NaCl (2) 1% MgCl2
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) 1% AlCl3 (4) 1% Al2(SO4)3
(Space for Rough Work)

(7)
Test-1 (OYM_A) AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020
56. Osmotic pressure of 20% w/v anhydrous Ca(NO3)2 62. Ethyl alcohol mixed with water will form
solution at 0°C will be nearly (assuming 100%
(1) Positive deviated solution
ionisation)
(1) 27.33 atm (2) 82 atm (2) Negative deviated solution

(3) 50 atm (4) 92 atm (3) Ideal solution

57. On adding NH3 in CuSO4 solution (4) Maximum boiling azeotropes
(1) Boiling point decreases 63. Solubility of which of the following solid in liquid
(2) van’t Hoff factor decreases decreases continuously on increasing temperature?

(3) Osmotic pressure remains same (1) NaCl (2) Na2CO3

(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Li2CO3 (4) All of these
58. Binary salt shows 50% dimerisation and 50%
64. Correct observation for mixing n-hexane and n-heptane
dissociation. van’t Hoff factor will be
will be
(1) 1.75 (2) 1.50
(1) Hmix = 0 (2) Vmix = 0
(3) 1.25 (4) 1.9
(3) Smix > 0 (4) All are correct
59. W hich of the following have highest freezing
temperature? 65. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
(1) 0.1 m sugar solution (1) Mass of the gas dissolved in liquid depends
(2) 0.1 m NaCl solution upon pressure of gas

(3) 0.1 m CaCl2 solution (2) Volume of the gas dissolved in liquid depends
upon pressure applied
(4) 0.1 m K4[Fe(CN)6] solution
(3) Value of KH decreases on increasing temperature
60. 10 g of NaCl on adding in water results in
(1) Decrease in VP (2) Increase in BP (4) Both (2) & (3)

(3) Decrease in FP (4) All of these 66. Molarity of Cl– when equal volume of 0.5 M AgNO3
solution and 0.5 M NaCl solution are mixed
61. Which of the following is correct for following graph?
(1) 0.5 M (2) 0.25 M
B
A (3) 0.125 M (4) Zero

C V.P. 67. Molarity of 200 g of pure water having density

1 g/cm3 will be
(1) 18 M (2) 55.5 M
Composition
(3) 33 M (4) 12 M
(1) At point C composition in vapour phase will be
same as in liquid phase 68. x g of NaCl is added into 100 ml of H2O to prepare
(2) Boiling point of azeotropes will be more than A y molar solution. 10 ml of its sample taken in
and B separate test tube. The molarity of the sample taken
in test tube will be
(3) At point C both component having same boiling
point (1) 10y M (2) 5y M
(4) All of these (3) y M (4) 2y M
(Space for Rough Work)

(8)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)
69. Which of the following is correct for solution? 77. W hich arrangement of electrons describes
(1) It consists of single phase ferrimagnetism?

(2) Composition remains same throughout (1)

(3) Milk is an example of solution (2)

(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3)
70. The appearance of colour in KCl when heated in the
atmosphere of K is due to (4) No one represent ferrimagnetism

(1) Frenkel defect (2) Interstitial defect 78. Total axis of symmetry present in cubic crystal will
be
(3) F-centre (4) Schottky defect
(1) 9 (2) 10
71. Solids having conductivity ranging between 10–10 to
10–20 ohm–1 m–1 are called (3) 13 (4) 23

(1) Conductor (2) Semiconductor 79. AB crystal is formed when B – ion occupies ccp
arrangement while A+ ion occupies all the octahedral
(3) Insulator (4) Super conductor sites. Total number of ions present in one unit cell
72. Number of atoms in 100 g of FCC crystal with when all ions along one of the body diagonal plane
density 10 g/cm3 and edge length 200 pm is equal are removed will be
to
5
(1) 3 × 1025 (2) 5 × 1024 (1) (2) 5
2
(3) 1 × 1025 (4) 2 × 1025
73. Density of crystal increases in 7
(3) (4) 7
2
(1) Schottky defect (2) Frenkel defect
80. A+ and B– have radii 88 pm and 200 pm respectively.
(3) Interstitial defect (4) All of these
The co-ordination number of A+ ion will be
74. In which of the following defect electrical neutrality is
(1) 4 (2) 6
maintained?
(3) 8 (4) 12
(1) Schottky defect (2) Frenkel defect
81. Total number of unit cell in 1 mole ZnS will be
(3) Impurity defects (4) All of these
75. Which of the following is correct for CaF2 unit cell? N0
(1) 4 × N0 (2)
(1) Co-ordination number of Ca2+ is 8 4

(2) F– occupies 100% tetrahedral void (3) N0 (4) 2 × N0

(3) Mass of unit cell will be 4 times mass of CaF2 82. If radius of Na+ is x pm and Cl– is y pm, the edge
length of unit cell will be
(4) All of these
(1) (x + y) pm
76. If CaCl2 is doped with 10–4 mol % of NaCl, the total
number of cation vacancies will be (2) (2x + y) pm

(1) 10–6 × N0 (2) 10–4 × N0 (3) 2(x + y) pm

(3) 10–3 × N0 (4) Zero (4) (2y + x) pm

(Space for Rough Work)

(9)
Test-1 (OYM_A) AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020
83. Correct statement is/are 86. Maximum packing fraction in
(i) Triclinic crystal system is the most symmetrical (1) Simple cubic
system. (2) Body centred cubic
(ii) Distance between two tetrahedral void on same (3) Face centred cubic
3 (4) Square close packing
body diagonal is a.
2 87. Volume of face centred cubic unit cell will be
(iii) ABAB … in 2D has maximum packing fraction
32 64
(if particle is assumed to be circle). (1) r3 (2) r3
2 3 3
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) 8r3 (4) 24 2r 3
(3) Only (iii) (4) Only (ii)
88. Ratio of octahedral void in hcp unit cell to ccp unit
84. Internuclear distance between Cs+ and Cl– in unit cell
cell will be
will be
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 6 : 6
a
(1) (2) 2a (3) 6 : 2 (4) 5 : 4
2
89. A atoms are present at corner while B atom
3 a occupies all the alternate face centred formula of the
(3) a (4)
2 2 compound will be
85. When pressure is applied on NaCl unit cell, then (1) AB2 (2) AB
(1) Molecular mass of unit cell decreases (3) A2B (4) AB3
(2) Density of crystal decreases 90. Which of the following have highest melting point?
(3) Number of ions per unit cell decreases (1) NaCl (2) NH3
(4) All of these (3) Mercury (4) Argon

BOTANY
91. The ploidy level of secondary nucleus in a female 93. During embryogeny in flowering plants
gametophyte which is developed by recurrent a. Zygote divides after the completion of endosperm
agamospermy from a hexaploid plant, is development.
(1) 3n b. Development occurs at micropylar end of embryo
(2) 6n sac.
(3) 12n c. Suspensor is multicellular and chalazal in
dicots.
(4) 9n
d. Zygote giv es rise to the proembryo and
92. The moisture content in dry seed is _______percent subsequently to the globular, heart shaped and
by mass. mature embryo.
(1) 0-5 (1) b, c and d are correct
(2) 5-10 (2) a and d are correct
(3) 10-15 (3) a and c are incorrect
(4) 20-30 (4) Only c is incorrect
(Space for Rough Work)

(10)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)
94. Endosperm is completely consumed during 100. Select incorrect matching.
development of embryo before seed maturation in
Column I Column II Column III
(1) Castor (2) Barley
(1) Zostera Emerged flowers Hypohydrophily
(3) Onion (4) Beans
(2) Water hyacinth Large colourful Entomophily
95. The most common type of endosperm development flower
is formed from PEN after __________ and found in (3) Amorphophallus Foul odoured Entomophily
__________. flower
(1) Free nuclear mitosis, maize (4) Adansonia Flower produce Chiropterophily
nectar
(2) Cellular mitosis, Petunia
101. Which one of the following outbreeding devices
(3) Free nuclear mitosis, Petunia
prevents autogamy as well as geitonogamy?
(4) Cellular mitosis, cotton
(1) Monoecious condition
96. In artificial hybridisation, emasculation is not required
for (2) Dioecious condition
(1) Pea and mustard (3) Homogamy
(2) Castor and papaya (4) More than one option is correct
(3) Sunflower and china rose 102. How many features are shown by wind pollinated
(4) Wheat and rice plants?
97. Hanging drop method w.r.t. pollen germination is A. Colourful flower
(1) In-situ B. Foul odoured flowers
(2) In-vivo C. Feathery stigma
(3) In-vitro in 10% sugar solution D. Mucilagenous covering around pollen grains
(4) In-vitro in 20% sugar solution
(1) Two (2) One
98. In most of the flowering plants, entry of pollen tube
(3) Four (4) Three
in ovule is
(1) Porogamy (2) Basigamy 103. In which of the following plants the pollination is
genetically self but functionally cross?
(3) Chalazogamy (4) Mesogamy
(1) Viola (2) Pea
99. Growth of pollen tube is
A. Apical (3) Vallisneria (4) Maize

B. Intercalary 104. The inbreeding device which ensures cent percent

seed setting in Arachis hypogea is
C. Chemotactic
(1) Dichogamy (2) Cleistogamy
D. Chemotropic
(3) Bud pollination (4) Bisexuality
E. Through transmission tissue in solid style
F. Through transmission tissue in hollow style 105. The largest cell of embryo sac is

(1) A, C and E (2) A, D and E (1) Antipodal cell (2) Synergid

(3) B, D and F (4) B, D and E (3) Central cell (4) Egg
(Space for Rough Work)

(11)
Test-1 (OYM_A) AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020
106. In majority of flowering plants, the first cell of female 110. Read the statements carefully and select correct
gametophyte is option.
(1) Megasporocyte A. Pollen grains of carrot grass cause bronchial
afflictions.
(2) Microsporocyte
B. Pollen viability is maximum in wheat.
(3) Micropylar megaspore
C. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils due
(4) Chalazal megaspore
to pecto-cellulose.
107. A typical embryo sac is formed after A and D. Pollen grain aperture is devoid of sporopollenin.
consists of B .
(1) A and D (2) A and B
(1) A – Three cellular divisions (3) B and C (4) A, B and D
B – 7-cells 111. In flowering plants, megasporangia arise from the
(2) A – Three nuclear divisions (1) Ovary
B – 7-cells with new cell walls (2) Placenta
(3) A – Three mitotic division generations (3) Nucellus
B – Six of the eight nuclei surrounded by cell (4) Thalamus around ovary
walls
112. Which of the following statements for generative cell
(4) A – Three cellular divisions is incorrect?
B – Three celled diploid egg apparatus (1) Floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell
108. Majority of the flowering plants are represented by (2) Has abundant food reserve
A. Isobilateral pollen tetrad (3) Spindle-shaped
B. Tetrahedral pollen tetrad (4) Dense cytoplasm with a nucleus

C. Campylotropous ovule 113. Pollen grains are released from anther in 60% of
angiosperms
D. Anatropous ovule
A. With two male gametes
E. Monosporic embryo sac
B. After first mitosis
F. Nuclear endosperm
C. At two-celled stage
Correct option is
D. After second mitosis
(1) B, D, E and F (2) A, D, E and F
Mark the correct option
(3) C, D, E and F (4) B, C, E and F
(1) B and C (2) A and D
109. In China rose, pistil is
(3) A and B (4) A and C
A. Multicarpellary B. Syncarpous
114. Cells in which layer of anther wall possess dense
C. Apocarpous D. Pentacarpellary cytoplasm and more than one nucleus?
(1) A and C (2) B and D (1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium
(3) Only B (4) C and D (3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum
(Space for Rough Work)

(12)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)
115. A typical anther is 120. Interflowering period is a
I. Bilobed (1) Juvenile phase
II. Tetragonal (2) Recovery phase in radish
III. Bisporangiate (3) Part of the mature phase in marigold
IV. Tetrasporangiate (4) Recovery phase in jackfruit
(1) All are correct 121. The meiocyte in several organisms having haploid
(2) Only I and IV are correct plant body is

(3) I, II and IV are correct A. Zygote in bryophytes

(4) Only I and III are correct B. Gamete mother cell in algae

116. Select odd one w.r.t. post-fertilisation events. C. Zygote in algae

(1) Zygote  Embryo D. Sporocyte in bryophytes

(2) Integuments  Seed coat (1) C and D (2) A and B

(3) Megaspore  Embryo sac (3) A and C (4) B and D

(4) Ovary wall  Pericarp 122. Features represented by few algae and fungi are

117. The most vital event of sexual reproduction results in A. Isogametes

the formation of ______ which undergoes ________. B. Heterogametes
A. Gametes
C. Motile and gametes
B. Zygote
D. Stationary female gamete
C. Embryogenesis
(1) A and B (2) B and C
D. Gamete transfer
(3) B and D (4) A and C
(1) A and D (2) A and B
123. In which of the following organisms all the three
(3) B and C (4) C and D phases of life cycle are not distinct clearly?
118. How many features are shown by Chara?
(1) Monocarpic mostly (2) Annuals
A. Monoecious
(3) Biennials (4) Perennials polycarpic
B. Unicellular sex organs
124. Select incorrect statement for sexual reproduction.
C. Sex organs located on abaxial side of long (1) Slow, elaborate and rapid
lateral branch
(2) Involves meiosis and syngamy
D. Five shield cells form jacket in nucule
(3) Produces variations
E. Protandrous condition
(4) Uniparental also
(1) Two (2) Three
125. By which method of asexual/vegetative reproduction
(3) Four (4) One a plant can be developed with different number of
119. Find odd one (w.r.t. monoecious plant). diploid chromosomes in root and shoot system?
(1) Coconut (2) Cucurbits (1) Layering (2) Gootee
(3) Maize (4) Date palm (3) Grafting (4) Bulbil
(Space for Rough Work)

(13)
Test-1 (OYM_A) AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020
126. The adventitious buds as reproductive structure/unit C. Gametogenesis is exclusively absent in asexual
which arise from the notches present at margins of reproduction.
leaves in D. Organisms having a relatively simple organisation
(1) Adiantum (2) Bryophyllum reproduce commonly by asexual method.
(3) Oxalis (4) Dahlia (1) A & B are correct
127. Agave reproduces vegetatively by (2) A, B & C are incorrect
(1) Bulb (3) Only D is incorrect
(2) Modified vegetative bud (4) A, B & D are correct
(3) Specialised vegetative cell 133. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. the life spans
(4) Modified floral bud of organisms shown below diagrammatically?
128. Find odd one w.r.t. vegetative propagules in following
plants.
(1) Banana and gingers
(2) Onion and garlic
(3) Water hyacinth
A B C
(4) Amorphophallus
(1) A < B < C (2) C < B < A
129. In Penicillium, common asexual spore does not act
(3) C < A < B (4) B < A < C
as
134. The cell division is itself a mode of reproduction in
(1) Reproductive unit
(1) Algae and fungi
(2) Non-motile specialised part
(2) Monerans and protistans
(3) Perennating unit
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Chlamydomonas and Aspergillus

130. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of (4) Higher plants
attachment of scutellum is called 135. Consider the given statements and select correct
(1) Epiblast (2) Epicotyl set of features.

(3) Coleorhiza (4) Hypocotyl “Mango tree has a life span of 200 years while
peepal has a life span of about 2500 years.”
131. Common asexual spore in Chlamydomonas is
A. Specific trait of each organism.
(1) Motile with lateral flagella
B. Size of mango tree is smaller than peepal.
(2) Endogenous
C. Not correlated with complexity of organisms.
(3) Pyriform with heterokont condition
D. Correlated with metabolic diversity of organisms.
(4) Formed generally 1 or 2 as thick-walled structure
(1) A & B
132. Read the following statements.
(2) B & C
A. All organisms are mortal.
(3) A & C
B. Unicellular organisms reproducing by budding are
immortal. (4) All are correct, except D
(Space for Rough Work)

(14)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)

ZOOLOGY
136. During gastrulation rolling in of cells into interior is 140. Which of the following is not true about ectopic
called pregnancy?

(1) Involution (1) Blastocyst occasionally embeds and develops

within the fallopian tube
(2) Delamination
(2) This pregnancy is extremely fatal to mother
(3) Ingression
(3) Heavy bleeding generally occurs as the embryo
(4) Invagination grows
137. False statement about honey bees (4) The embryo can survive in the fallopian tube and
(1) In honey bees males are produced from on full term is delivered by caesarean section
unfertilized eggs by parthenogenesis called 141. Which of the following hormone, relaxes the pelvic
arrhenotoky joints soften the cervix of the uterus for easy
delivery?
(2) Queen and workers are diploid f emales
produced by sexual reproduction (1) Relaxin produced by corpus luteum

(3) Queen honey bee lays two types of eggs (2) Oestrogen from foetal adrenals
fertilised and unfertilised (3) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
(4) Drones have a father but not a grand-daughter (4) Fall in progesterone
138. Mark the correct statement 142. W hat is the duration of pregnancy in African
(1) In estrous cycle ovulation occurs at a time before elephant?
the endometrium has started to thicken (1) 280 days (2) 607 days
(2) Estrous cycle is not controlled by hormones (3) 320 days (4) 670 days
(3) Estrous cycle consists of cyclic changes in the 143. Relative size of egg cell, morula, blastocyst and
female reproductive system of non-mammalian gastrula cells are
vertebrates, whereas, mammals have menstrual (1) Egg cell is smallest and gastrula cell is largest
cycle
(2) All are of equal size
(4) These is no bleeding at the end of estrous
cycle, despite of the breakdown of tissue in the (3) Egg cell is largest and morula cell is smallest
female reproductive tract (4) Egg cell is largest and gastrula cell is smallest
139. Meiocytes are present in 144. In human beings implantation of embryo occurs in
(1) All sexually reproducing organisms (1) Blastocyst stage on 7th day after fertilisation
(2) Diploid sexually reproducing organisms (2) Morula stage on 7th day after fertilisation

(3) Haploid sexually reproducing organisms (3) Blastocyst stage on 4th day after fertilisation

(4) Diploid plants only (4) Morula stage in second week

(Space for Rough Work)

(15)
Test-1 (OYM_A) AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020
145. Which extraembryonic membrane in human prevents 151. If in the sperm the proximal centriole becomes non-
dessication of embryo inside the uterus? functional, which of the following shall not occur?
(1) Yolk sac (2) Amnion (1) First cleavage of zygote

(3) Chorion (4) Allantois (2) Acrosome reaction

(3) Maturation of oocyte
146. What is correct?
(4) Spermiogenesis
(1) Foetal heart is formed in second month
152. ‘Cells of Rauber’ are
(2) hPL has major role in parturition
(1) Trophoblast cells in contact with embryonic
(3) Decrease in progesterone and increase in mass
estrogen at the time of parturition will cause mild (2) Cells of inner mass
uterine contractions
(3) Uterine cells which divide rapidly and cover the
(4) Prostaglandins inhibit uterine contractions blastocyst
147. Foetal ejection reflex is induced by (4) Stem cells which have potency to given rise to
all the tissues and organs
(1) Release of oxytocin from maternal pituitary
153. Plug of mucus in the cervix formed during pregnancy
(2) Increase in progesterone is under the influence of
(3) Decrease in prostaglandins (1) FSH (2) LH
(4) Fully developed foetus and placenta (3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
148. After menopause the hormone which passes out in 154. Umbilical cord suspends embryo in amniotic cavity
urine is and is attached to the midgut region of the embryo.
It is formed of
(1) FSH (2) LH
(1) Yolk sac and amnion
(3) Progesterone (4) Estrogen
(2) Allantois and chorion
149. Which of the following is teratogenic abnormality (3) Yolk sac and chorion
caused due to consumption of thalidomide as an
anti-vomiting drug by pregnant mothers? (4) Allantois and yolk sac
155. Which of the following is not an important component
(1) Heart malformation
involved in parturition in humans?
(2) Phocomelia (1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(3) Deafness (2) Release of oxytocin
(4) Cataract and glaucoma (3) Synthesis of prostaglandins
150. Placenta in man during early weeks of pregnancy is (4) Prolactin increases several times

(1) Haemochorial : Diffuse 156. If the trophoblast layer failed to form in a mammalian
embryo, which of the following structure would not
(2) Epitheliochorial : Diffuse develop?
(3) Syndesmochorial : Cotyledonary (1) The blastopore (2) The inner cells mass
(4) Haemochorial : Metadiscoidal (3) The archenteron (4) The foetal placenta
(Space for Rough Work)

(16)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)
157. Which one of the following statements is false w.r.t. (1) A – Graafian follicle, containing primary oocyte,
viability of mammalian sperm? which forms a new membranae called zona
pellucida surrounding it
(1) Viability of the sperms is determined by its
motility (2) B – Tertiary follicle with antrum

(2) Sperms are viable for 24 hours in female (3) A – Tertiary follicle with antrum
reproductive tract (4) B – Corpus luteum which secretes large
amounts of progesterone which is essential
(3) The seminal fluid is set into a solid gel like
for maintenance of endometrium
coagulum after ejaculation in vagina
160. Choose the false statement
(4) Survival of the sperms depends on the pH of the
medium and are more active in alkaline medium (1) Normally about 30-50 ml of blood is lost in one
menstrual cycle
158. Given below is the structure of ovum, surrounded by
few sperms. Identify the structure labelled as A, (2) Menstrual blood does not clot because it has
along with the type of membrane it represents. already clotted and liquefied within the uterus
due to fibrinolysin
(3) On the day of ovulation there is a rise in
temperature due to thermogenic action of
progesterone
(4) If a woman has amenorrhoea, and is neither
pregnant nor lactating, we can establish fairly
A normal cycles by giving FSH and LH
161. What would happen to blood gonadotropin levels,
after the surgical removal of ovaries?
(1) They would remain the same
(1) A – Corona radiata, primary membrane (2) They would rise gradually
(2) A – Zona pellucida, primary membrane (3) Fall markedly

(3) A – Corona radiata, secondary membrane (4) Rise markedly

(4) A – Vitelline membrane, primary membrane 162. The production of estrogen and progesterone by
corpus luteum during pregnancy is stimulated by
159. Given below diagrammatic section view of ovary. which of the following hormones?
Select the option which correctly identifies the
(1) LH (2) HCG
structures A and B along with their description/
function (3) FSH and LH (4) hPL
163. The two morphogenetic movements that take place
A
during gastrulation are
(1) Involution and invagination
(2) Epiboly and emboly
(3) Invagination and ingression

B (4) Ingression and delamination

(Space for Rough Work)

(17)
Test-1 (OYM_A) AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020
164. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. 168. Which of the following is a correct match?
cleavage? (1) Endometrium – External thin membranous
(1) Cleavage is influenced by quantity and pattern of layer of uterus
distribution of yolk in the egg (2) Myometrium – Exhibits strong uterine
contractions during the
(2) No increase in the amount of cytoplasm however delivery of baby
there is marked increase in chromatin
(3) Uterus – Birth canal
(3) In mammals the cleavage divisions are rapid and
(4) Cervical canal – Womb
asynchronous from the very beginning; the and vagina
number of resultant cells increase, following
arithmetic progression 169. In a 24 days menstrual cycle, ovulation will occur on
day?
(4) In zygote nuclear/ cytoplasmic ratio is less as (1) 12 (2) 10
compared to blastomeres
(3) 7 (4) 14
165. Cessation of menstrual cycles in a woman with
170. Disintegration of endometrium leading to
previously normal periods is mainly due to menstruation, marking a new cycle, is because of
(1) Persistence of corpus luteum abrupt withdrawal of which of the following?
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone
(2) High levels of progesterone
(3) LH (4) FSH
(3) High levels of HCG
171. Which of the following is false w.r.t. the follicular
(4) Occurrence of pregnancy until proved otherwise phase of menstrual cycle?
166. Sometimes women wish to postpone the menstrual (1) The primary follicles in the ovary grow to become
bleeding for a few days to participate in some fully mature Graafian follicle.
competitive sports or religious function, she should (2) The endometrium of uterus regenerates through
take which of the following drugs? proliferation in presence of estrogen
(1) Estrogen for 14 days (3) Gonadotropins increase gradually
(4) Progesterone levels are high
(2) Estrogen for 25 days, adding progesterone from
day 15 to 25 172. If fertilisation has occurred, the corpus luteum is
rescued from regression by A , which is
(3) Progesterone like drugs which can be started
3-4 days before the expected date produced by B respectively. Which of the
following correctly fills in the blanks A and B?
(4) FSH and LH
(1) A – Luteinising hormone,
167. If a male's left vas deferens is blocked, how is his B – Anterior lobe of pituitary
sperm count affected ?
(2) A – Human chorionic gonadotropin,
(1) The sperm count will remain the same B – Trophoblast cells
(2) The sperm count is likely to be reduced to half (3) A – Progesterone,
(3) The sperm count will increase as the other B – Placenta
testis will start producing more sperms (4) A – Estrogen,
(4) The sperm count will markedly decline B – Placenta
(Space for Rough Work)

(18)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)
173. By the end of the first trimester which of the 177. Seminal plasma is rich in fructose, calcium and
following has occurred in the foetus? certain enzymes. Fructose is the secretion of which
(1) The foetus has lungs to breathe and major organ of the following accessory glands and its functions
is
systems are formed
(2) First movements of the foetus and appearance of (1) Seminal vesicle; provides energy to sperm
hair in the body (2) Prostate; provides energy to sperm
(3) Major organ system are formed, the limbs and (3) Bulbourethral ; helps in fertilisation
external genitalia are well developed
(4) Cowper's gland; makes the medium alkaline
(4) Embryo heart is formed and the body is covered
178. During spermatogenesis, the first meiotic division
with fine hair
leads to the formation of two equal, haploid cells
174. What induces the completion of the meiotic division called
of secondary oocyte?
(1) Primary spermatocytes
(1) Contact of the sperm with zona pellucida
(2) Secondary spermatocytes
(2) The entry of the sperm into the cytoplasm of
(3) Spermatids
ovum through zona pellucida and the plasma
membrane (4) Spermatogonia
(3) Capacitation 179. Which of the following is true for the follicular phase
of ovarian cycle?
(4) Acrosomal reaction
(1) Stops estrogen production
175. What do you think the doctors inject to induce
delivery? (2) Ends when ovulation occurs
(1) Oxytocin / Pitocin (3) Starts when fertilisation occurs
(2) Progesterone (4) Occurs when LH level drops to zero
(3) Estrogen 180. If due to some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
human reproductive system gets blocked the
(4) HCG
gametes will not be transported from
176. Which of the following hormones acts on the Sertoli
(1) Epididymis to rete testis
cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which
help in the process of spermiogenesis? (2) Vagina to uterus
(1) Inhibin (2) FSH (3) Testes to epididymis
(3) LH (4) GnRH (4) Testes to rete testis



(Space for Rough Work)

(19)
AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2020 Test-1 (OYM_A)

00/06/2019 OYW
Code-B1

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 AIATS Practice Test Time : 3 Hrs.

(for NEET - 2020)

Test - 1
ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (3) 109. (2) 145. (2)
2. (2) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (1) 146. (3)
3. (2) 39. (2) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (1)
5. (2) 41. (1) 77. (3) 113. (1) 149. (2)
6. (4) 42. (4) 78. (3) 114. (4) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (3) 151. (1)
8. (4) 44. (2) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (3) 46. (2) 82. (3) 118. (1) 154. (4)
11. (3) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (4) 49. (3) 85. (4) 121. (1) 157. (2)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (4) 122. (4) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (3) 87. (1) 123. (4) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (4) 88. (1) 124. (1) 160. (4)
17. (1) 53. (2) 89. (2) 125. (3) 161. (4)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (1) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (1) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (2)
20. (1) 56. (2) 92. (3) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (4)
22. (3) 58. (3) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (3)
23. (4) 59. (1) 95. (1) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (3) 61. (4) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (2) 63. (3) 99. (2) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (1) 136. (1) 172. (2)
29. (1) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (4) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (4) 102. (2) 138. (4) 174. (2)
31. (3) 67. (2) 103. (4) 139. (2) 175. (1)
32. (4) 68. (3) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (2)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (2)
35. (3) 71. (3) 107. (3) 143. (3) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (1) 144. (1) 180. (3)
(20)