Cambridge International AS & A Level

BIOLOGY 9700/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*8952450982*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 11_9700_11/4RP
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1 The photomicrograph shows part of a plant cell.

5 μm

What is the magnification of the cell?

A ×250 B ×400 C ×1000 D ×4000

2 Which row matches each organelle with its function?

rough endoplasmic
microtubules Golgi body centrioles
reticulum

A make cilia and separates some makes lysosomes assemble the

spindle processes from spindle during
cytoplasm nuclear division

B move vesicles assembles amino contains enzymes move

within the cell acids to make for destroying worn chromosomes apart
proteins out parts of the cell during anaphase

C move chromatids modifies proteins makes move cilia

apart during which may be glycoproteins
anaphase released from cell

D form part of the makes triglycerides modifies proteins move individual

cytoskeleton and phospholipids by adding cells
carbohydrates

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3 Where are 80S ribosomes found?

1 chloroplasts
2 cytoplasm of eukaryotes
3 mitochondria
4 cytoplasm of prokaryotes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 3 only C 2 only D 4 only

4 Which feature, when present in an organism, enables it to be identified as a prokaryote?

A cytoplasmic DNA
B cell wall
C nucleus
D ribosomes

5 What is the function of the nucleolus?

A the formation and breakdown of the nuclear envelope

B the formation of rough endoplasmic reticulum
C the synthesis of ribosomal proteins
D the synthesis of rRNA

6 The diagram shows the results of a number of tests on a solution of biochemicals.

solution of biochemicals

Benedict’s test non-reducing iodine test biuret test

blue sugar test blue-black blue
yellow

Which substances are present in the solution?

A non-reducing sugar and starch only

B protein, non-reducing sugar and starch
C starch and reducing sugar
D starch only

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7 Which diagram shows the ring form of β-glucose?

A B

CH2OH CH2OH

H C O OH H C O H
H H
C C C C
OH H OH H
HO C C H HO C C OH

H OH H OH

C D

CH2OH CH2OH

H C O H H C O H
H H
C C C C
OH OH H H
HO C C OH HO C C OH

H H OH OH

8 Which row correctly matches the example with the type of molecule?

disaccharide macromolecule monomer polymer

A fructose glycogen glucose starch

B starch haemoglobin ribose glycogen
C maltose ribonucleic acid sucrose cellulose
D sucrose cellulose fructose collagen

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9 The enzyme α-amylase hydrolyses amylopectin but it is not able to hydrolyse some of its
glycosidic bonds.

● It only hydrolyses 1,4 glycosidic bonds.

● It is not able to hydrolyse the last bond of a chain.
● It is not able to hydrolyse the bonds in a chain of three units attached by a
1,6 glycosidic bond to another chain.

Which glycosidic bond can be hydrolysed by α-amylase?

O O O
A
B

O O O O O O
D C

10 Molecule X is a lipid.

H H O H H H H H
H H H H H H
C C C C C C C C
HO C O C C C C C H
H H H H H H H
OH H H H H H

molecule X

Which row is correct for molecule X and a triglyceride?

molecule X contains triglyceride contains

A one unsaturated fatty acid saturated fatty acids

B no ester bonds three ester bonds
C one fatty acid three fatty acids
D two fatty acids three fatty acids

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11 Bread contains a mixture of polypeptides known as gluten.

Two of the polypeptides found in gluten are glutenin and gliadin.

Which statement describes the tertiary structure of a protein?

A Disulfide bonds form between glutenin and gliadin.

B A large proportion of the amino acids in gliadin are glutamine.

C α-helical sections are found in glutenin and gliadin.

D Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are found on the inside of glutenin.

12 A student was provided with two test-tubes, one containing 10 cm3 of solution P and one
containing 10 cm3 of solution Q. When these solutions were mixed together and left for 24 hours,
the concentration of P decreased but the concentration of Q remained the same.

The student wrote the following conclusions.

1 P may break down over time.

2 Q may be a biological catalyst.
3 P may be the substrate for Q.

Which conclusions could be supported by the information?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 only D 2 and 3 only

13 Which statements are correct for the lock and key hypothesis and the induced fit hypothesis of
enzyme action?

1 The substrate is the same shape as the active site.

2 The substrate is held in place in the active site by temporary bonds.
3 The enzyme and sometimes the substrate change shape slightly as the substrate
molecule enters the enzyme.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

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14 A student investigated the rate of enzyme activity with increasing substrate concentration. The
experiment was repeated with the addition of a reversible non-competitive enzyme inhibitor. A
graph was plotted to show the results.

Which graph represents the results of the two experiments?

A B

rate of rate of
enzyme enzyme
activity activity

substrate substrate
concentration concentration key
= without enzyme
= inhibitor
C D
= with enzyme
= inhibitor
rate of rate of
enzyme enzyme
activity activity

substrate substrate
concentration concentration

15 A cuboidal epithelium cell has a length of 2 µm.

The cell is an approximate cube shape.

What is the most accurate estimate of the surface area : volume ratio of this cuboidal epithelium
cell?

A 1:2 B 1:3 C 2:1 D 3:1

16 Which statement is correct for facilitated diffusion and active transport?

A As the direction of the concentration gradient changes so does the direction of movement of
the molecules.
B Molecules always move at the same rate as simple diffusion.
C Specific molecules are transported across a membrane.
D The molecule ATP is required to move specific molecules quickly through proteins in the
membrane.

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17 Equal sized potato pieces were placed into a test-tube and covered with a sucrose solution. The
test-tube was left for 30 minutes. All other variables were standardised.

After 30 minutes, the potato piece had not changed in size.

What can be concluded from this result?

A The concentration of sucrose is the same in the potato and in the solution and there is no
more movement of water into or out of the potato.
B The concentration of sucrose is the same in the potato and in the solution and there is no net
movement of water into the potato.
C The water potential is the same in the potato and in the sucrose solution and there is no
more movement of water into or out of the potato.
D The water potential is the same in the potato and in the sucrose solution and there is no net
movement of water into or out of the potato.

18 How many of these processes produce genetically identical cells?

● growth of plant roots

● replacement of dead human skin cells
● repair of damaged muscle tissue
● asexual reproduction of coral

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

19 Which row shows the correct number of each component of a single chromosome at the end of
prophase of mitosis?

polynucleotide
centromeres chromatids telomeres
strands

A 1 0 2 2
B 1 2 4 4
C 2 0 4 2
D 2 2 2 4

20 Which processes occur during interphase?

1 DNA replication
2 microtubule organisation
3 synthesis of ribosomes

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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21 Embryonic stem cells are able to replicate continuously.

What happens to the telomeres during repeated mitotic cell cycles of embryonic stem cells?

A Their lengths increase.

B Their lengths decrease.
C They are completely lost.
D They stay the same length.

22 Which nitrogenous bases are pyrimidines?

A adenine and thymine

B cytosine and guanine
C thymine and uracil
D uracil and guanine

23 DNA replication in bacteria was investigated. Bacteria were grown in a medium with only heavy
nitrogen, 15N, until all of the bacterial DNA was heavy.

These bacteria were moved from the heavy nitrogen medium and cultured in a medium with only
light nitrogen, 14N. This formed the first generation.

The bacteria continued to reproduce, and a sample of bacteria was collected from the second
generation and the DNA analysed.

Hybrid DNA contains heavy and light DNA.

Which row is correct for the second generation?

percentage of heavy percentage of hybrid

DNA strands DNA molecules

A 25 25
B 25 50
C 50 25
D 50 50

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24 The sequence shows the series of bases at the start of a gene.

TAC CGA CCA CCA CAA CCA CGA...

After transcription, the mRNA was translated via tRNA into a sequence of amino acids. When this
part of the polypeptide was analysed, it was found to contain the amino acids in the table.

amino acid number present

Ala 2
Gly 3
Met 1
Val 1

What is the sequence of amino acids in this part of the polypeptide?

A Met Ala Gly Ala Gly Gly Val

B Met Ala Gly Gly Val Gly Ala
C Met Gly Ala Ala Val Ala Gly
D Met Gly Ala Ala Gly Gly Val

25 The table shows the mode of action of two antibacterial drugs that can affect the synthesis of
proteins.

antibacterial
rifampicin streptomycin
drug
mode of binds to RNA causes errors in
action polymerase translation

If bacteria are treated with the drugs rifampicin and streptomycin, what will be the immediate
effects?

1 Transcription will stop but faulty proteins may continue to be synthesised.

2 If translation has started, proteins may be faulty.
3 Translation will be inhibited.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

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26 The electron micrograph shows a cross-section of a leaf vein and some neighbouring cells.

Which structure contributes to mass flow by the use of proton pumps?

27 The diagrams show some tissue types in plant organs.

1
2
4

Which row identifies the tissue types?

1 2 3 4

A phloem phloem phloem xylem

B phloem xylem phloem xylem
C xylem phloem xylem phloem
D xylem xylem phloem xylem

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28 Which description of xylem vessel elements is correct?

A cells joined to form a tube, pits at intervals, sieve plates between cells, surrounded by the
endodermis in roots
B contains cells joined end to end, containing cytoplasm, cell walls with lignin, located to the
outside of phloem in vascular bundles
C contains elongated cells with end walls broken down, located in vascular bundles in the stem
and leaves
D dead elongated cells, lignified cell walls with pits at intervals, associated with companion
cells in the roots only

29 Which properties of lignin are important for the function of xylem vessels in the stem of a tall
plant, such as a tree?

1 It is inflexible so does not bend easily.

2 It is not permeable to water.
3 It is strong to resist collapse under pressure.
4 It has weaker adhesion to water molecules than cellulose.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1, 2 and 4 C 1, 3 and 4 D 2, 3 and 4

30 Which row is correct for the sucrose concentrations and the water potentials in a source and
a sink in a potato plant, at 12:00 p.m.?

sucrose concentration water potential

source sink source sink

A higher lower higher lower

B higher lower lower higher
C lower higher higher lower
D lower higher lower higher

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31 The diagram shows one possible way in which sucrose may be loaded into a sieve tube element.

companion cell

1
protons move out
3 of the companion cell

sieve tube
element
protons move into
the companion cell
2
sucrose molecules move
into the companion cell

Which steps require ATP?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 1 only D 3 only

32 Which statements about arteries are correct?

1 Artery walls can resist high pressure.

2 Arteries pump blood out of the heart.
3 Blood in arteries has the same flow rate as in veins.
4 The pulse in arteries is the result of a surge in blood that causes expansion of the
artery wall.
5 There are semilunar valves at the junction of arteries with the heart.

A 1, 2 and 4 B 1, 3 and 5 C 1, 4 and 5 D 2, 3 and 4

33 What happens during ventricular systole in a mammalian heart?

1 The atrioventricular node transmits an electrical signal to the apex of the heart.
2 The pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure in the atria.
3 The atrioventricular valves close and the semilunar valves open.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

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34 A shortage of protein in the diet of children can lead to a disease that causes excess tissue fluid
to build up in the abdomen.

What explains why a build-up of excess tissue fluid can occur in this disease?

A A shortage of plasma proteins decreases blood water potential; less tissue fluid returns to the
blood.
B A shortage of plasma proteins increases blood water potential; less tissue fluid returns to the
blood.
C A shortage of protein in the diet causes weak cardiac muscle, reducing hydrostatic pressure.
D A shortage of protein in the tissue fluid decreases its water potential; more water leaves the
blood.

35 Red blood cells may contain a molecule known as 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG).

When 2,3-BPG binds to haemoglobin, a higher partial pressure of oxygen is needed to bring
about 50% saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen.

Which statements about the effect of 2,3-BPG are correct?

1 2,3-BPG in red blood cells causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the right.
2 The binding of 2,3-BPG to haemoglobin reduces the Bohr effect.
3 The binding of 2,3-BPG to haemoglobin lowers the affinity of the haemoglobin for
oxygen.
4 When 2,3-BPG is not present, oxyhaemoglobin is less likely to unload oxygen.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

36 Carbon dioxide is continually produced by respiring cells. It diffuses into red blood cells and
dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and hydrogen carbonate ions (HCO3–). HCO3– then diffuses
out of the cell in exchange for chloride ions (Cl –) in the chloride shift.

What is the importance of the chloride shift?

A It helps to maintain a neutral pH in the red blood cell by acting as a buffer.

B It maintains a balance of positive and negative charge between the cell and the plasma.
C It causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left, releasing more oxygen.
D It prevents carbon dioxide combining with haemoglobin, allowing haemoglobin to combine
with oxygen.

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37 The photomicrograph shows a section through a bronchus.

Which annotated label is correct?

C D
cartilage keeps squamous epithelium allows
the airway open for efficient gas exchange

B
elastic tissue
stretches when
breathing in
A
smooth muscle
changes the
diameter of
the airway

38 Penicillin is an antibiotic used to treat infections caused by bacteria.

Which events explain how bacteria become resistant to penicillin?

1 The number of bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin increases.
2 Resistance to penicillin is the result of a mutation in a bacterium.
3 Bacteria with the allele for resistance to penicillin pass the allele to their daughter
cells.
4 The mutation for resistance to penicillin is always caused by the presence of
penicillin.

A 1, 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

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39 Which statements explain why some vaccines can be taken by mouth but tuberculosis (TB)
vaccine has to be injected?

1 Macrophages present antigens in vaccines to stimulate an immune response.

2 The TB antigens necessary to produce an immune response are proteins which
would be digested in the stomach and small intestine.
3 There are no B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes in the stomach.

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only

40 A student wrote the following statements about the production of monoclonal antibodies.

Which statement is not correct?

A Non-self antigen is injected into a mammal.

B Plasma cells secrete the specific antibody in response to a non-self antigen.
C Selected hybridoma cells divide by mitosis to form a clone.
D T-lymphocytes are fused with cancer cells to form hybridoma cells.

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