GG Wre

SSC-JE, AE(PSC), RRB etc.
Objective Questions
(01 to 15)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 1) Which of the following methods of applying water
may be used on rolling land
A. Boarder flooding
B. Check flooding
C. Furrow flooding
D. Free flooding
Answer A
Boarder flooding: - The land is divided into a number of strips,

separated by low levees called boardes.
Q. 2) If the electrical conductivity of water is in between
250 to 750 micro mhos/cm at 25 °C, then it is classified as
A. Low salinity water

B. Medium salinity water
C. High salinity water
D. Very high salinity water
Answer B
Answer C
Q. 4) The value of sodium absorption ratio for high sodium
water lies between
A. 0 to 10
B. 10 to 18
C. 18 to 26
D. 26 to 34
Answer C
Q. 5) Optimum depth of kor watering for rice is
A. 135 mm
B. 165 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 215 mm
Answer C
The first watering is known as kor watering and the depth

applied is known as kor depth.
The kor depth for rice is 190 mm.

Q. 6) Irrigation water having the concentration of Na++,
Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 milli equivalent per litre
respectively will be classified as
A. Low sodium water

B. Medium sodium water
C. High sodium water
D. Very high sodium water
Answer B
Q. 7) The relation between duty D in hectares/cumec,
depth of water Δ in metres and base period B in days is
given by
A. Δ = 1.98B/D
B. Δ = 8.64B/D
C. Δ = 5.68B/D
D. Δ = 8.64D/B
Answer B
Duty (D) : - duty is defined as the area of land expressed in

hectares that can be irrigated with unit discharge, that is, 1
cumec flowing throughout the base period, expressed in days.
Delta (Δ) : - Delta is the total depth of water required by a crop

during entire period the crop is in the field.
Base Period (B) : - when irrigation water is first issued for

preparation of the ground for planting the crop to, its last
watering before harvesting.
If we take a field of area D hectares, water supplied to the field
corresponding to the water depth Δ metres will be
= Δ × D hectare-metres
= D × Δ × 10⁴ m³.............. (1)
Again for the same field of D hectares, one cumec of water is
required to flow during the entire base period. Hence water
supplied to this field
= 1 × ( B × × 24 × 60 × 60) m³.............. (2)
equating equations (1) and (2), we get
D Δ = 8.64 B
Q. 8) The duty is largest
A. At the head of water course

B. On the field
C. At the head of main canal
D. Same at all places
Answer B
Q. 9) The “outlet discharge factor” is the duty at the head
of
A. Main canal
B. Branch canal
C. Watercourse
D. Distributory
Answer C
Q. 10) The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor periods is
14 days. The outlet factor for this will be
A. 637 hectares/m³/sec
B. 837 hectares/m³/sec
C. 972 hectares/m³/sec
D. 1172 hectares/m³/sec
Answer A
Q. 11) For supplying water to Rabi crop, kharif crop and
sugarcane, the channel is designed for a capacity equal to
the greater of water requirement of
A. Rabi or kharif
B. Rabi and kharif or sugarcane
C. Rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
D. Rabi or kharif or sugarcane
Answer C
Q. 12) The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the root
zone of the crops to the quantity of water actually
delivered in the field is known as
A. Water conveyance efficiency

B. Water application efficiency
C. Water use efficiency
D. None of the above
Answer B
In general, efficiency is the ratio of the water output to input.
1. Water conveyance efficiency: - Ratio of Water delivered to

farm or irrigation plot to water supplied from river or reservoir.
2. Water application efficiency: - Ratio of water stored in root

zone to water delivered to the farm.
3. Water use efficiency: - Ratio of water used consumptively to

water delivered.
Q. 13) The water utilizable by plants is available in soils
mainly in the form of
A. Gravity water
B. Capillary water
C. Hydroscopic water
D. Chemical water
Answer B
Water present in the soil may classified

1. Hygroscopic water: - When an oven dried sample is kept
open in the atmosphere, it absorbs some amount of water
from the atmosphere. This is known as hygroscopic water
2. Capillary water: - Excess of hygroscopic water which

exists in the pore space of soil by molecular attraction.
3. Gravity water: - Excess of hygroscopic and capillary

water which will move out of soil.
Q. 14) The amount of irrigation water required to meet the
evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its full growth
is called
A. Effective rainfall
B. Consumptive use
C. Consumptive to irrigation requirement
D. Net irrigation requirement
Answer C
Evapotranspiration rate is the amount of water that is lost to the

atmosphere through the leaves of the plant, as well as the soil
surface.
Q. 15) With the increase in the quantity of water supplied,
the yield of most crops
A. Increases continuously
B. Decreases continuously
C. Increases upto a certain limit and then becomes
constant
D. Increases upto a certain limit and then decreases
Answer D
The plant growth may be retarded if the soil moisture is either
deficient or excessive.
1. If the soil moisture is only slightly more than the wilting

coefficient, the plant must extend extra energy to obtain it, and
the plant will not grow healthy
# Wilting coefficient- That water content at which plants no
longer extract sufficient water from the soil for its growth.
2. Similarly, excessive flooding fills the soil pores with water, thus
driving out air. Since air is essential to satisfactory plant growth,
excessive water supply retard plant growth.
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Objective Questions
(16 to 30)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 16) Hydrograph is the graphical representation of
A. Runoff and time

B. Surface runoff and time
C. Ground waterflow and time
D. Rainfall and time
Answer A
Runoff is that portion of precipitation that is not evaporated. Which
ultimately runs to the ocean through surface or sub surface streams.
1. Surface runoff:- Water flows to land and is first to reach streams and
rivers, which ultimately discharge the water to the sea.
2. Interflow or sub surface runoff: - A portion of precipitation infiltrates

into surface soil and depending upon the geology of the basin runs as sub
surface runoff and reaches the streams and rivers.
3. Ground water flow or base flow: - It is that portion of precipitation,

which after infiltration, percolates down and join the ground water
Reservoir which is ultimately connected to the ocean.
Q. 17) Infiltration rate is always
A. More than the infiltration capacity

B. Less than the infiltration capacity
C. Equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
D. Equal to or more than the infiltration capacity
Answer C
Infiltration: - Water moving through a soil surface.
Infiltration rate: - That rate at which infiltration occurs, measured

in mm/hour or a similar unit
Infiltration capacity: -Maximum rate at which infiltration will

occur.
Q. 18) The depth of water required to bring the soil
moisture content of given soil upto it’s field capacity is
called
A. Hydroscopic water
B. Equivalent moisture
C. Soil moisture deficiency
D. Pellicular water
Answer C
Soil moisture deficiency:-

The difference between the
amount of water actually in the soil and the amount of
water that the soil can hold.
The amount of water the soil can hold is generally called

field capacity.
Q. 19) infiltration capacity
A. Is a constant factor
B. Changes with time
C. Changes with location
D. Changes with both time and location
Answer D
Q. 20) Infiltration is the
A. Movement of water through the soil

B. Absorption of water by soil surface
C. Both A and B
Answer A
Permeability
The ability of the ground surface to absorb water.
Q. 21) If the intensity of rainfall is more than the
infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will be
A. Equal to rate of rainfall

B. Equal to infiltration capacity
C. More than rate of rainfall
D. More than infiltration capacity
Answer B
Q. 22) Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air
mass due to
A. Pressure difference
B. Temperature difference
C. Natural topographical barriers
D. All of the above
Answer A
Precipitation is general term for all forms of moisture emanating from the
clouds and falling to the ground.
Types of precipitation
1. Cyclonic precipitation: - lifting of air masses converging into low

Pressure area or cyclone.
2. Convective precipitation: - Temperature difference may result from

unequal heating at the surface, unequal cooling at the top of the air layer.
3. Orographic precipitation: - Due to natural topographical barriers such

as mountains.
Q. 23) Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge
A. Tipping bucket type raingauge

B. Simon’s raingauge
C. Steven’s weighing type raingauge
D. Floating type raingauge
Answer B
Raingauge:- A device for collecting and measuring the amount of

rain which falls.
1. Non recording raingauge: -

a) Simon’s raingauge
2. Recording raingauge: -
a) Weighing bucket raingauge
b) Tipping bucket raingauge
c) Float type raingauge
Q. 24) A raingauge should be preferably be fixed
A. Near the building

B. Under the tree
C. In an open space
D. In a closed space
Answer C
Selection the site for a raingauge station.
1. The site where a raingauge is setup should be an open place.
2. Distance between the raingauge and nearest object should be at least

twice the height of the object.
3. The raingauge should never be situated on the side or top of a hill if the
suitable site on the level ground can be found.
4. In The Hills situated where wind does not cause eddies.
5. Protect the gauge from cattle etc.

Q. 25) If allowable percentage error in the estimate of
basic rainfall is E and coefficient of variation of rainfall is C,
then the optimum number of raingauge is given by
A. Cv/E
B. √(Cv/E)
C. (Cv/E)²
D. (Cv/E)^(3/2)
Answer C
Q. 26) Which of the following types of raingauge is used
for measuring rain in remote hilly inaccessible areas
A. Tipping bucket type

B. Weighing type
C. Floating type
D. Simon’s raingauge
Answer A
Q. 27) Rate of evaporation from a water surface increases if
i) difference of vapour pressure between water and air is
increased
ii) velocity of wind is decreased
iii) concentration of soluble solids in water is decreased
The correct answer is

A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer B
Factors affecting the evaporation are
1. Temperature: - ↑
2. Surface area: - ↑
3. Density: - ↓
4. Wind velocity: - ↑
Q. 28) A 70% index of wetness means
A. Rain excess of 30%

B. Rain deficiency of 30%
C. Rain deficiency of 70%
Answer B
Q. 29) Under the same conditions, which of the following
shapes of water surface will give the highest rate of
evaporation
A. Flat water surface

B. Convex water surface
C. Concave water surface
D. Independent of shape of water surface
Answer B
Q. 30) Assertion A: To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the
number of raingauge required per unit area is large for hilly areas
Reason R: Rainfall gradient system
Select your correct answer according to the coding system given

below
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer A
The broad guide lines set up for the required network of
rain-gauge stations as per World Meteorological
Organisation (WMO) is as follows:
For plain areas of the basin 1 rain-gauge for every 500 km2.
For hilly areas of the basin: 1 rain-gauge for every 150 km2.
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(31 to 45)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 31) When surface of transpiration is submerged under
water, then potential evapotranspiration is
A. Much more than evapotranspiration

B. Much less than evapotranspiration
C. Equal to evapotranspiration
D. Equal to or less than evapotranspiration
Answer A
Evaporation:- The water from the surface of ocean, rivers, lakes
and also from moist soil evaporates.
Transpiration:- Is the process of water being lost from the leaves

of the plants.
Evapotranspiration = Evaporation + Transpiration
Potential evapotranspiration (PET):- Is defined as the amount

of evaporation that would occur if a sufficient water source were
available.
Answer A
The coefficient of variation represents the ratio of the

standard deviation to the mean.
It is a useful for comparing the degree of variation from

one data series to another.
Q. 33) Unit of runoff in M.K.S. System is
A. Cubic metre/sec
B. Metre/sec
C. Cubic metre
D. Square metre
Answer A
Runoff would be expressed in the same units as stream

flow, cubic meter per second
Q. 34) The runoff Increases with
A. Increase in intensity of rain

B. Increase in infiltration capacity
C. Increase in permeability of soil
D. All of the above
Answer A
Runoff → The part of the water cycle that flows over land.
1. Amount of Rainfall:- The amount of rainfall directly affects the amount
of runoff. As expected, if more rainfall hits the ground, more rainfall will
turn into runoff.
2. Permeability: - The ability of the ground surface to absorb water will
affect how much surface runoff occurs.
The less water the ground can absorb, the more runoff on the surface
there will be.
3. Vegetation: - Vegetation needs water to survive, and a plant's root
system is designed to absorb water from the soil. There is less runoff in
highly vegetated areas.
4. Slope: - The steeper a surface is, the faster it will flow down the slope.
A flat surface will allow the water time to absorb.
Q. 35) The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is
100 square km and between 55 cm and 65 cm is 150
square km. The average depth of annual precipitation over
the basin of 250 square km will be
A. 50 cm
B. 55 cm
C. 56 cm
D. 60 cm
Answer C
Isohyet :-
A line on a map or
chart connecting
areas of equal
rainfall.
Q. 36) A current metre is used to measure the
A. Velocity of flow of water

B. Depth of flow of water
C. Discharge
Answer A
Current meter → Instrument for measuring the velocity of flow of
a fluid (Water) in a stream.
Q. 37) If it rains between 2 p.m. And 3 p.m. And the entire
basin are just starts contributing water at 3:00 p.m. To the
outlet, then time of concentration will be
A. 15 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Answer D
Time of Concentration:- Time taken by rain water that falls

at the farthest point to reach the outlet of a catchment.
Q. 38) The rainfall on five successive days were measured
as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm
respectively. If the infiltration index or the storm loss rate
for the catchment area is earlier estimated is 50 mm/day,
the total surface runoff will be
A. 50 mm
B. 60 mm
C. 90 mm
D. 140 mm
Answer C
Q. 39) The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B
and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm and 800 mm
respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B
and C were 100 mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then
the storm precipitation for station X will be
A. 70 mm
B. 80 mm
C. 90 mm
D. 105 mm
Answer A
Normal precipitation: - An average of the precipitation values over a 30-year period.
Q.40)The best unit duration of storm for a unit hydrograph
A. 1 hour
B. One-fourth of basin lag
C. One-half of basin lag
D. Equal to basin lag
Answer B
Unit hydrograph is a direct runoff hydrograph resulting from

one unit (one inch or one cm) of constant intensity uniform
rainfall occurring over the entire watershed/basin/catchment.
The concept of unit hydrograph is based on linear systems theory

and follow the principles of superposition and proportionality.
Experience has shown that the best unit duration is about one-
fourth of the basin lag, the time from the centre of mass of
rainfall to the peak of the hydrograph.
Q. 41) The unit hydrograph due to the storm may be
obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct runoff
hydrograph by
A. Direct runoff volume

B. Period of storm
C. Total rainfall
Answer A
Q. 42) The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be
used to evaluate the hydrograph of Storms of
A. Same duration only

B. Same and shorter duration
C. Same and longer duration
D. Any duration
Answer D
Q. 43) S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of
A. Shorter duration from longer duration

B. Longer duration from shorter duration
C. Both A and B
Answer C
The technique of constructing a S-hydrograph is very useful in
deriving unit hydrographs shorter duration from unit hydrograph
of longer duration and vice versa
Q. 44) If two 4-hour unit hydrographs are staggered by 4
hours and added graphically, the resulting hydrograph will
be
A. 4-hour unit hydrograph

B. 4-hour hydrograph with 20 mm runoff
C. 8-hour unit hydrograph
D. 8-hour hydrograph with20 mm runoff
Answer D
Q. 45) According to Dicken’s formula for estimating floods,
the peak discharge is proportional to
A. A
B. A½
C. A⅔
D. A¾
Where A is catchment area in square kilometres

Answer D
The design of structures on a river, such as dams, spillways,
earthen embankments, flood control reservoirs, etc., requires
information about the maximum (peak) flood discharge in the
river.
In 1985, Dickens made an empirical formula for determining the
maximum flood discharge Q (m3/sec) in a river.
Q = CA3/4
Where, A is the area of catchment in sq. Km
C is a constant whose value
between 2.8 to 5.6 for catchments in plains
and 14 to 28 for catchments in hills
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(46 to 60)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 46) The relation between Probability (P) and recurrence
interval (T) is given by
A. PT = 1
B. PT² = 1
C. P/T = 1
D. P/T² = 1
Answer A
Return period/recurrence interval/repeat interval:-

is an average time or an estimated average time between events
such as earthquakes, floods, landslides, or a river discharge flows
to occur.
100-year flood" to mean a "flood with a 1% probability of

occurring in any given year."
The probability (P) of an event with recurrence interval T is

P = 1/T
Q. 47) Dimension of coefficient of transmissibility are
A. M°L°T°
B. M°L¹T-1
C. M0L²T-1
D. M°L³T-1
Answer C
The coefficient of transmissibility (T) equals to the field
coefficient of permeability (k) multiplied by the aquifer
thickness (B)
T = B.k
T = m.m/Sec
T = M0L²T-1
Q. 48) If d is the depth of the aquifer through which water
is flowing, then the relationship between permeability k
and transmissibility T is given by
A. T = kd
B. T = k/d
C. T = √kd
D. k = √Td
Answer A
Q. 49) An artesian aquifer is the one where
A. Water surface under the ground is at atmospheric

pressure
B. Water is under pressure between two impervious strata
C. Water table serves surface as upper surface of zone of
saturation
Answer B
Aquifer:- is an underground layer of permeable rock ( sand, gravel etc)
which can contain or transmit groundwater.
1. Unconfined aquifer (water table/free/phreatic/non-artesian aquifer):-

Are those into which water seeps from the ground surface directly above
the aquifer.
2. Confined aquifers or artesian aquifer: -

Are those in which an impermeable layer exists that prevents water from
seeping into the aquifer from the ground surface located directly above.
Instead, water seeps into confined aquifers from farther away where the
impermeable layer doesn't exist.
Q. 50) A deep well
A. Is always deeper than a shallow well

B. Has more discharge than a shallow well
C. Is weaker structurally than a shallow well
D. Both A and B
Answer B
Q. 51) A multipurpose Reservoir is the one which is
A. Designed for one purpose but serves more than one

purpose
B. Planned and constructed to serve various purposes
C. Both A and B
Answer B
The term multipurpose reservoir includes all reservoirs actually designed
and operated to serve more than one function.
There can be several purposes for which a reservoir may be made .If
some of these purpose are combined there will be more effective
utilization of water and economical construction of a reservoir.
Preferable combinations for a multipurpose reservoir are:
1. Reservoir for Irrigation and Power
2. Reservoir for Irrigation, Power and Navigation.
3. Reservoir for Irrigation, Power and Water supply.
4. Reservoir for Recreation, Fisheries and Wild life.
5. Reservoir for Flood control and water supply.
6. Reservoir for Power and Water supply.
Q. 52) The useful storage is the volume of water stored in
the reservoir between
A. Minimum pool level and maximum pool level

B. Minimum pool level and normal pool level
C. Normal pool level and maximum pool level
D. River bed and minimum pool level
Answer B
Q. 53) The water stored in the reservoir below the
minimum pool level is called
A. Useful storage
B. Dead storage
C. Valley storage
D. Surcharge storage
Answer B
Dead or inactive storage refers to water in a reservoir that cannot
be drained by gravity through a dam's outlet. It can only be
pumped out.
Q. 54) For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is
equal to
A. Useful storage – Valley storage

B. Useful storage + surcharge storage
C. Useful storage + surcharge storage + Valley storage
D. Useful storage + surcharge storage – Valley storage
Answer D
Valley storage:- The volume of water held by the natural river

channel in its valley up to the top of its banks before the
construction of a reservoir is called the valley storage.
Q. 55) Trap efficiency of reservoir is a function of
A. Capacity/inflow ratio
B. Capacity/outflow ratio
C. Outflow/inflow ratio
Answer A
Trap efficiency:- Measure of reservoir sedimentation.
Trap efficiency is a function of the ratio of reservoir capacity to

total inflow.
Efficiency = f(capacity/inflow)
Q. 56) The total capacity of reservoir is 25 million cubic
metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic metre. If the
average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million
cubic metre per year, then the usefulness of the reservoir
will start reducing after
A. 50 year
B. 150 year
C. 200 year
D. 250 year
Answer A
usefulness of the reservoir will start reducing after dead storage
completely fill with sediment.
Given,
Dead storage = 5 million cubic metre
Average volume of sediment deposition = 0.10 million cubic
metre per year
→ 5/0.10 = 50 year
Q. 57) The forces, which are considered for the analysis of an
elementary profile of gravity dam under empty reservoir
condition, are
i) Water pressure
ii) Self weight
iii) Uplift
iv) Pressure due to earthquake

A. Only (ii)
B. (i), (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer A
Where,
P = water pressure
W = weight of the dam
U = uplift pressure
Q. 58) When the upstream face of gravity dam is vertical,
then the intensity of water pressure at the water surface
and at the base respectively will be
A. 0 and wH²/2
B. wH²/2 and wH²/3
C. wH and 0
D. 0 and wH
Where w is unit weight of water and H is the depth of

water
Answer D
Water pressure:-
This is the major
external force acting on a dam.
When the upstream face of the dam
is vertical, the water pressure acts
horizontally. The intensity of pressure
varies is triangularly with a zero
intensity at the water surface, to a
value wh at any depth h below water
surface.
Q. 59) The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by
i) Constructing cutoff under upstream face
ii) Constructing drainage channels between the dam and its
Foundation
iii) By pressure grouting in foundation

A. Only (i)
B. Both (i) and (ii)
C. Both (i) and (iii)
Answer D
The uplift pressure is defined as the upward pressure of water as
it flows or seeps through the body of the dam or it’s foundation.
Uplift pressure is generally reduced by

1. constructing drainage pipes between dam and its foundation
2. constructing cut off walls under the upstream face
3. pressure grouting the dam foundation.
Q. 60) The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery
in a dam is taken as
A. Hydrostatic pressure at toe

B. Average of hydrostatic pressure toe and heel
C. Two third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one third of
hydrostatic pressure at heel
Answer C
The uplift pressure is defined as the upward pressure of water as it flows

or seeps through the body of the dam or it’s foundation.
The uplift pressure intensities equal to hydrostatic pressure of water at
toe and heel joined by straight line in between. (Elementary profile)
Sometimes drainage galleries are also provided in the body of the dam
which releases the uplift pressure built up under it.
The magnitude of the uplift pressure at the face of gallery is equal to the
hydrostatic pressure at the toe plus 1/3rd the difference of the hydrostatic
pressure at the heel and toe.
Uplift pressure at heel = wH
Uplift pressure at toe = wH’
Uplift pressure at gallery = wH’ + ⅓w(H-H’)
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(61 to 75)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 61) Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in
A. Hydrodynamic pressure
B. Inertia force into the body of the dam
C. Both A and B
Answer C
Earthquake wave may travel in any direction. The general
direction of acceleration is horizontal and vertical.
1. Effect of horizontal acceleration:- causes two forces.
(i) Inertia force in the body of the dam:-

The inertia force acts in a direction opposite to the acceleration
imparted by earthquake forces and is equal to the product of the
mass of the dam and the acceleration.
Inertia force = mass × acceleration

(ii) Hydrodynamic pressure of water:-
The horizontal acceleration of the dam and foundation towards the
reservoir causes a momentary increase in the water pressure since the
water resists the movement owing to its inertia.
If the hydrodynamic pressure variation is assumed to be parabolic, the
increase in water pressure is given by,
p= 0.555 αwH²
and act at a height of (4H/3π) above the base.
2. Effect of vertical acceleration:-

Due to vertical acceleration, a vertical inertia force is exerted on the dam,
in the direction opposite to that of the acceleration.
Q. 62) Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a
height of
A. 3H/4π above the base

B. 3H/4π below the water surface
C. 4H/3π above the base
D. 4H/3π below the water surface
Where H is the depth of water

Answer C
Q. 63) The major resisting force in a gravity dam is
A. Water pressure
B. Wave pressure
C. Self-weight of dam
D. Uplift pressure
Answer C
Q. 64) Total force due to wave action on gravity dam acts
at a height of
A. hw/2 above the reservoir surface

B. 5hw/4 above the reservoir surface
C. 3hw/8 above the reservoir surface
D. 2hw/3 above the reservoir surface
Answer C
Q. 65) When the reservoir is full, the maximum
compressive force in a gravity dam is produced
A. At the toe
B. At the heel
C. Within the middle third of base
D. At centre of base
Answer A
Q. 66) The maximum permissible eccentricity for no
tension at the base of a gravity dam is
A. B/2
B. B/3
C. B/4
D. B/6
Answer D
Q. 67) Presence of tail water in a gravity dam
i) Increases the principal stress

ii) Decreases the principal stress
iii) Increases the shear stress
iv) Decreases the shear stress

A. (i) and (iii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer D
Q. 68) Neglecting the effect due to earthquake forces and tail
water pressure, the principal stress in a gravity dam is given by
A. Pv
B. Pv sec²θ
C. Pv tan²θ
D. Pv tanθ
where Pv is vertical direct stress and θ is angle of downstream

face of dam with the vertical.
Answer B
Q. 69) The elementary profile of a dam is
A. A rectangle
B. A trapezoidal
C. An equilateral triangle
D. A right angled triangle
Answer D
The elementary profile of

a dam, subjected only to the
external water pressure on
the upstream side, will be
right angled triangle, having
zero width at the water level
and a base width (B) at
bottom, i.e.. the point where
the maximum hydrostatic
water pressure acts.
Q. 70) In the empty condition of reservoir and with the
elementary profile of a dam, the vertical stress at heel and toe
respectively are given by
A. 0 and W/2B
B. W/2B and 0
C. 2W/B and 0
D. 0 and 2W/B
Where B is base width and W is self weight of unit length of dam

Answer C
Q. 71) Neglecting uplift pressure, the base width of an
elementary profile of a gravity dam shall be taken as
A. H/√G
B. H/μG
C. Lesser of H/√G and H/μG
D. Greater of H/√G and H/μG
Where H is depth of water, G is specific gravity of material and μ

is coefficient of friction.
Answer D
Q. 72) The maximum possible height of a safe dam having an
elementary profile is
A. f / w √(G+1)
B. f / w √G
C. f / w (G+1)
D. f / w √(G-1)
Where f = allowable stress of dam material

G = specific gravity of dam material
w = unit weight of water
Answer C
Q. 73) The focus of base parabola for a dam having a
horizontal drainage filter is at a distance of
A. B/2 from toe

B. (B-b) from toe
C. b from toe
D. b/2 from toe
Where B is base width of dam and b is width of horizontal

drainage filter.
Answer C
Q. 74) By providing a top width for roadway and freeboard
in the elementary profile of a gravity dam, the resultant
force for full reservoir condition will
A. Shift towards the heel

B. Shift towards the toe
C. Not shift at all
Answer A
Elementary profile of a given dam is only theoretical profile. Certain
changes have to be made in this profile in order to cater practical needs.
These needs are:
(i) Providing a top width for roadway construction.
(ii) Providing a free board over top water surface.
These additions of two provisions will cause the resultant force to shift
towards heel.
In order to avoid tension, some masonry or concrete will have to be

added on upstream side.
Q. 75) For wave action in dams, the maximum height of
freeboard is generally taken to be equal to
A. 0.5hw
B. 0.75hw
C. 1.25hw
D. 1.50hw
Where hw is height of wave.

Answer D
Freeboard is the margin provided between the top of dam and

HFL in the reservoir to prevent the splashing of the waves over
the non-overflow section.
The freeboard usually provided is 1.50hw and not less than 0.9m
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(76 to 90)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 76) As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams
A. Are costlier
B. Are less susceptible to failure
C. Require sound rock foundations
D. Require less skilled labour
Answer D
Gravity dams:
It is made up of masonry or solid concrete
It can be constructed to any height
Less maintenance
Require skilled labour
Earthen dams:
It is made up of soil and gravel
It can be constructed to moderate height
It is cheaper
Require less skilled labour
Q. 77) The most suitable material for the central
impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is
A. Clay
B. Coarse sand
C. Silty clay
D. Clay mixed with fine sand
Answer D
1. Homogenous embankment type:-
-Homogenous type earth dam is composed of a single kind of material.
2. Non-Homogeneous (Zoned) embankment type:-

-Dam made up of more than one material.
-The outer shells are made of pervious, freely drainage material. The shells give
stability to the central impervious fill (clay and fine sand), and at the same time
distribute the load over a larger area in the foundation.
3. Diaphragm type embankment:-

The bulk of the embankment is constructed of previous material and a thin
diaphragm of impermeable material is provided to check the seepage.
Q. 78) Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam
is controlled by
A. Drainage filters
B. Relief wells
C. Drain trenches
D. Provision of downstream berms
Answer C
Q. 79) Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is
controlled by providing
A. Rock toe
B. Horizontal blanket
C. Impervious cut off
D. Chimney drain
Answer C
Q. 80) The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in
chute spillway and side channel spillway respectively are
A. At right angle and parallel to weir crest

B. Parallel and at right angle to weir crest
C. Parallel to weir crest in both
D. At right angle to weir crest in both
Answer A
-A spillway is a hydraulic structure built at a dam site for diverting the surplus
water from a reservoir after it has been filled to its maximum capacity.
-The weir is a solid obstruction put across the river to raise its water level and
divert the water into the canal.
-Chute or through spillway:-

Which passes the surplus discharge through a steep slopes open channel.
Its crest is kept normal to its center line.
This type of spillway is provided on earth or rockfill dam
-Side channel spillway:-

In which the flow, after passing over a weir crest, is carried away by a channel
running essentially parallel to the crest.
This type of spillway is suitable for earth or rock fill dam.
Q. 81) The discharge passing over an ogee spillway is given
by
A. CLH3/2
B. CHL3/2
C. CLH5/2
D. CLH1/2
Where, L is effective length of spillway crest and H is the
total head over the spillway crest including velocity head
Answer A
The discharge over an ogee shaped spillway is given by
Q = CLH3/2
where
Q = discharge
C = a variable coefficient of discharge which influenced by several factors
such as
1. Depth of approach
2. Relation of actual crest shape to the ideal nappe shape
3. Upstream face slope
4. Upstream apron interference and
5. Downstream submergence
Its value varies from 2.1 to 2.5
Q. 82) Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway
A. Depends on depth of approach and upstream slope

B. Depends on downstream apron interference and
downstream submergence
C. Remains constant
D. Both A and B
Answer D
Q. 83) Which of the following spillways is least suitable for
an earthen dam?
A. Ogee spillway
B. Chute spillway
C. Side channel spillway
D. Shaft spillway
Answer A
A spillway is a hydraulic structure built at
a dam site for diverting the surplus water
from a reservoir after it has been filled to
its maximum capacity.
A. Ogee spillways are most commonly
used in case of gravity dams
B. Chute spillway is a type of spillway in
which surplus water from upstream is
disposed to the downstream through a
steeply sloped open channel.
The slope of chute spillway is designed in
such a way that the flow should be
always in super critical condition.
C. Side channel spillway is similar to chute
spillway but the only difference is the crest
of side channel spillway is located on one of
its sides whereas crest of chute spillway is
located between the side walls.
D. A Shaft spillway is consists of a vertical

shaft followed by a horizontal conduit. The
surplus water enters into the vertical shaft
and then to the horizontal conduit and
finally reaches the downstream of the
channel.
Shaft spillway is recommended when there
is no space to provide for other types of
spillways
Q. 84) In case of non-availability of space due to
topography, the most suitable spillway is
A. Straight drop spillway

B. Shaft spillway
C. Chute spillway
D. Ogee spillway
Answer B
Straight Drop Spillway:-
A Straight drop spillway
consists of low height weir wall
having its downstream face
roughly or perfectly vertical.
When the water level in the
reservoir rises above the
normal pool level, the surplus
water falls freely from the
crest of the weir and hence it
is known as Straight drop
spillway or free overfall
spillway
Q. 85) In a chute spillway, the flow is usually
A. Uniform
B. Subcritical
C. Critical
D. Super critical
Answer D
The slope of chute spillway is designed in such a way that the
flow should be always in super critical condition.
When the actual depth is less than critical depth it is classified as

supercritical. Supercritical flow has a Froude number greater
than one.
Q. 86) For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most
adverse condition for stability of slope is
A. Sudden drawdown
B. Steady seepage
C. During construction
D. Sloughing of slope
Answer A
Upstream slope slide during sudden drawdown:-
For the upstream Slope the critical condition is when the reservoir is
suddenly emptied without allowing any appreciable change in the water
level within the saturated soil mass. The stage is known as sudden
drawdown. With complete drawdown, the hydrostatic force acting along
the upstream slope at the time of full reservoir is removed without the
hydrostatic pressure on the slope of counteract it.
Q. 87) If there are two canals taking off from each flank of
a river, then there will be
A. One divide wall and one undersluice

B. One divide wall and two undersluices
C. Two divide walls and one undersluice
D. Two divide walls and two undersluices
Answer D
Q. 88) Generally the weird is aligned at right angles to the
direction of the main river current because
A. It ensures less length of the weir

B. It gives better discharging capacity
C. It is economical
D. All of the above
Answer D
As far as possible, the weir should be aligned at right angle to the
direction of the main river current.
1. This ensures lesser length of the weir,
2. Better discharging capacity and
3. Lesser cost.
Sometimes, the weir may be aligned at an oblique angle to the

direction of the river current.
In such a case, the weir will be of greater length, will have less
discharging power and will be costlier.
Q. 89) The main function of a divide wall is to
A. Control the silt entry in the canal

B. Prevent river floods from entering the canal
C. Separate the undersluices from weir proper
D. Provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity
Answer C
A, B are correct for canal head regulator and D is correct for fish ladder.
The divide wall is a masonry or concrete wall constructed at right angle to

the axis of the weir.
It separates the ‘under-sluices’ with lower crest level from the ‘weir
proper’ with higher crest level.
Weir Proper: It is a barrier constructed across the river. It aims to raise the
water level in order to feed the canal.
Under-sluices: The under sluices are the openings provided at the base of
the weir. They are located on the same side as the off-taking canal.
Q. 90) A divide wall is provided
A. At right angle to the axis of weir

B. Parallel to the axis of weir and upstream of it
C. Parallel to the axis of weir and downsream of it
D. At an inclination to the axis of weir
Answer A
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(91 to 105)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 91) As compared to crest of the normal portion of the
weir, the crest of the undersluice portion of the weir is
kept at
A. Lower level
B. Higher level
C. Same level
D. Any of the above depending on the design
Answer A
Weir Proper: It is a barrier constructed across the river. It aims to raise the
water level in order to feed the canal.
Under-sluices: The under sluices are the openings provided at the base of
the weir. They are located on the same side as the off-taking canal.
The divide wall separates the ‘under-sluices’ with lower crest level from
the ‘weir proper’ with higher crest level.
Q. 92) Silt excluders are constructed on the
A. River bed upstream of head regulator

B. River bed downstream of head regulator
C. Canal bed upstream of head regulator
D. Canal bed downstream of head regulator
Answer A
Head regulator:- is a structure constructed at the head of a canal.

Function:- 1. To make the regulation of supply in the canal easy.
2. To control the silt entry into the canal.
3. To shut out river floods.
There are two types of special works constructed to control the silt
entering into the canal
1. Silt Excluder:-Is a device by which silt is excluded from water entering
the canal. It is constructed in the river bed upstream of head regulator.
2. Silt Extractor or silt Ejector:-Is a device by which the silt after it has
entered the canal is extracted. While a silt excluder is a preventive
measure, the silt extractor is a curative measure and is constructed in the
canal bed downstream of head regulator.
Q. 93) If h is the ordinate of hydraulic gradient line above
the top of the floor and G is specific gravity of floor
material, then the thickness of floor is given by the
formula
A. h/(G+1)
B. (h-1)/(G-1)
C. h/(G-1)
D. (h-1)/G
Answer C
If h is the ordinate of hydraulic gradient line above the top of the

floor and G is specific gravity of floor material, then the thickness
of floor is given by the formula h/(G-1).
Q. 94) According to Khosla’s theory, the exit gradient in the
absence of downstream cutoff is
A. 0
B. Unity
C. Infinity
D. Very large
Answer C
According to Khosla's theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a

downstream cutoff is infinity.
Q. 95) The minimum size of a stone that will remain at rest
in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic mean
depth R is given by
A. 4RS
B. 11RS
C. 7RS
D. 15RS
Answer B
Q. 96) The ratio of average values of shear stress produced
on the bed and banks of a channel due to flowing water is
A. Less than 1
B. Equal to 1
C. Greater than 1
D. Equal to zero
Answer C
Average shear stress on bed of a channel, τ1= γRs
Average shear stress on bank of a channel, τ2 = 0.75γRs
This ratio is, τ1/τ2 = yRS/0.75yRS = 4/3 > 1
where, τ is the fluid shear stress

γ is the specific gravity of water
R is the hydraulic radius (approximately mean depth)
s is the slope of the channel
Q. 97) If the critical shear stress of a channel is τc, then the
average value of shear stress required to move the grain
on the bank is
A. 0.5τc
B. 0.75τc
C. τc
D. 1.33τc
Answer B
Average value of shear stress required to move the grain on the

bank is = 0.75τc
Critical shear stress is same as shear stress required to move a

grain on bed.
Q. 98) A water shed canal
A. Irrigates only on one side

B. Is most suitable in hilly areas
C. Avoids the cross drainage works
D. Is generally aligned parallel to the contours of the area
Answer C
Clasification of canal based on its alignment
1. Contour canal:-
Is aligned nearly parallel to the contours.
It can irrigate only one side.
Is most suitable in hilly areas.
When it crosses a valley line, extra cost on cross drainage works is
required.
2. Ridge canal or watershed canal:-
It can irrigate on both sides.
No drainage can intersect a watershed and hence avoid cross drainage
work.
3. Side slope canal:-
Is aligned roughly at right angles to the contours of the country.
Cross drainage works are required.
Q. 99) A canal which is aligned at right angles to the
contour is called
A. Contour canal
B. Watershed canal
C. Branch canal
D. Side slope canal
Answer D
Q. 100) Garret’s diagrams are based on
A. Kennedy’s theory
B. Lacey’s theory
C. Khosla’s theory
D. Bligh’s theory
Answer A
Since two or three trials are required in designing the canal by Kennedy’s
theory, the numerical work and hence the solution takes a very long time.
Garret simplified the numerical work by providing diagrams with the help
of which design can be done more quickly.
Garret’s diagrams have been drawn for a semi-circular channel.
In these diagram, the bed slope of the canal is indicated on the vertical
axis while the discharge is plotted on the horizontal axis.
Q. 101) Garret’s diagrams have been drawn for
A. A semi-circular channel
B. A trapezoidal channel with side slope ½H:1V
C. A trapezoidal channel with side slope 1H:½V
D. Semi-elliptical channel
Answer B
Answer C
Lacey’s equations
1. Silt factor, f = 1.76 √mr

Where mr is mean particle diameter of silt in mm
2. Perimeter Discharge relation, P = 4.75 √Q
3. Velocity Discharge relation, V = (Qf²/140)1/6
4. Regime slope equation, S = f5/3/3340Q1/6
5. Regime scour depth relation, R = 1.35 (q²/f)1/3

Q. 103) According to Lacey’s theory, the silt supporting
eddies are generated from
A. Bottom of channel only

B. Sides of channel only
C. Bottom as well as sides of channel
Answer C
According to Lacey’s theory, the silt supporting eddies are

generated from perimeter of channel.
Answer C
Q. 105) As per Lacey’s theory, the silt factor is
A. Directly proportional to average particle size

B. Inversely proportional to average particle size
C. Directly proportional to square root of average particle
size
D. Not related to average particle size
Answer C
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(106 to 120)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Answer B
Lacey’s equations
1. Silt factor, f = 1.76 √mr

Where mr is mean particle diameter of silt in mm
2. Perimeter Discharge relation, P = 4.75 √Q
3. Flow Velocity Discharge relation, V = (Qf²/140)1/6
4. Regime slope equation, S = f5/3/3340Q1/6
5. Regime scour depth relation, R = 1.35 (q²/f)1/3

Q. 107) Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a
discharge of 64 cumec as per Lacey’s theory will be
A. 19 m
B. 38 m
C. 57 m
D. 76 m
Answer B
As per Lacey’s theory, wetted perimeter,
P = 4.75 √Q
P = 4.75 √64
P = 38 m
Q. 108) Which of the following Canal structures is used to
remove surplus water from an irrigation channel into a
natural drain
A. Canal fall
B. Canlal outlet
C. Canal escape
D. Canal regulator
Answer C
A. Canal fall is a solid masonry structure which is constructed on the canal if the
natural ground slope is steeper than the designed channel bed slope.
B. Canal outlet or a module is a small structure built at the head of the water course
so as to connect it with a minor or a distributary channel.
C. Canal Escape It is the structure required to dispose of surplus or excess water

from canal from time to time. Thus, a canal escape serves as safety valve for
canal system.
D. Canal Regulators Constructed at the off taking point are called head regulators.
When it is constructed at the head of main canal it is known as canal head regulator.
And when it is constructed at the head of distributary, it is called distributary
head regulator.
To control the entry of silt into off taking or main canal.
Q. 109) For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is
A. Zero
B. Between zero and 1
C. 1
D. Greater than 1
Answer C
Flexibility (F) :-
It is the ratio of rate of change of discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of
discharge of the distributing channel.
F = (dq/q) /(dQ/Q)
Where, q = discharge through the outlet

Q = discharge of the distributing channel
1. Proportional outlet:- the rate of change of its discharge is equal to the rate of
change of the discharge of the distributing channel. F =1
2. Hyper-proportional outlet:- (dq/q) > (dQ/Q), F > 1
3. Sub-proportional outlet:- (dq/q) < (dQ/Q), F < 1
Q. 110) The sensitivity of a rigid module is
A. Zero
B. Between zero and 1
C. 1
D. Infinity
Answer A
Sensitivity (S):- it is defined as the ratio of the rate of change of discharge

of an outlet to the rate of change in the level of the distributing surface,
referred on the normal depth of the channel.
S = (dq/q) / (dG/D) (sensitivity of a rigid module is zero)
Where, q = discharge through the outlet

dq = change in the discharge of the outlet
G = gauge reading
D = depth of water in the distributing channel
Q. 111) Which of the following is a flexible outlet
A. Submerged pipe outlet

B. Kennedy’s gauge outlet
C. Gibb’s outlet
Answer B
A canal outlet or a module is a small structure built at the head of the water course
so as to connect it with a minor or a distributary channel.
Types of outlets
1. Non-modulur outlet:- in which the discharge depends upon the difference in
level between the water levels in the distributing channel and the water course.
Exmp: submerged pipe outlet, masonry sluice and orifices, and wooden shoots.
2. Semi-module or flexible outlet:- in which the discharge is affected by the
fluctuations in the water level of the distributing channel while the fluctuations
in the water levels of the field channel do not have any effect on its discharge.
Exmp: pipe outlet, Kennedy’s gauge outlet, crump’s open flume outlet and pipe-
cum-open flume outlet.
3. Rigid module:- in which maintain constant discharge, within limits, irrespective
of the fluctuations in the water levels in the distributing channel and field
channel. Exmp: Gibb’s rigid module
Q. 112) A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform
and baffle wall is called
A. Vertical dropfall
B. Glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. Inglis fall
Answer D
Canal fall is a solid masonry structure which is constructed on the canal if

the natural ground slope is steeper than the designed channel bed slope.
If the difference in slope is smaller, a single fall can be constructed. If it is
of higher then falls are constructed at regular suitable intervals.
The important types of falls is

1. Ogee falls 2. Rapids
3. Stepped falls 4. Trapezoidal notch falls
5. Well type falls 6. Simple vertical drop falls
7. Straight glacis falls 8. Montague type falls
9. Inglis falls or baffle falls
1. Simple Vertical Drop Falls (Sarda Type fall)
Consists, single vertical drop which allows the
upstream water to fall with sudden impact on
downstream. The downstream acts like cushion
for the upstream water and dissipate extra
energy. This type of fall is tried in Sarda Canal UP
(India) and therefore, it is also called Sarda Fall.
2. Straight Glacis Canal Falls

This is the modern type of construction, in which
a raised crest is constructed across the canal and
a gentle straight inclined surface is provided from
raised crest to the downstream. The water
coming from upstream crosses the raised crest
and falls on inclined surface with sufficient energy
dissipation.
3. Montague Type Canal Falls
Montage fall is similar to straight glacis fall but in
this case the glacis is not straight. It is provided
in parabolic shape to introduce the vertical
component of velocity which improves the
energy dissipation to more extent.
4. Inglis or Baffle Canal Falls

In this case, straight glacis fall is extended as
baffle platform with baffle wall. This is suitable
for any discharge. The baffle wall is constructed
near the toe of the straight glacis at required
distance in designed height. The main purpose
of the baffle wall is to create hydraulic jump
from straight glacis to baffle platform.
Q. 113) Which of the following types of falls use parabolic
glacis for energy dissipation
A. Vertical dropfall
B. Glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. Inglis fall
Answer C
Q. 114) In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for
discharge upto
A. 6 cumecs
B. 10 cumecs
C. 14 cumecs
D. 20 cumecs
Answer C
The rectangular crest is used for discharge up to 14 cumecs
The Trepezoidal crest is used for discharge over 14 cumecs

Q. 115) Which of the following can be used as a meter fall
A. Vertical drop fall

B. Flumed glacis fall
C. Unflumed glacis fall
D. All of the above
Answer A
Vertical drop fall can be used as a meter fall.

Q. 116) Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto
A. 0.5 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 3.5 m
D. 5.0 m
Answer B
Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto 1.5 m

Q. 117) Which of the following canal outlets maintains a
constant discharge
A. Non modular outlet

B. Flexible outlet
C. Rigid outlet
Answer C
Outlet:- is a small structure which admits water from the distributing channel to a
water course or field channel.
Types of outlets
1. Non-modulur outlet:- in which the discharge depends upon the difference in
level between the water levels in the distributing channel and the water course.
Exmp: submerged pipe outlet, masonry sluice and orifices, and wooden shoots.
2. Semi-module or flexible outlet:- in which the discharge is affected by the
fluctuations in the water level of the distributing channel while the fluctuations
in the water levels of the field channel do not have any effect on its discharge.
Exmp: pipe outlet, Kennedy’s gauge outlet, crump’s open flume outlet and pipe-
cum-open flume outlet.
3. Rigid module:- in which maintain constant discharge, within limits, irrespective
of the fluctuations in the water levels in the distributing channel and field
channel. Exmp: Gibb’s rigid module
Q. 118) The ratio of the of change of the discharge of an
outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of distributing
channel is called
A. Proportionality
B. Flexibility
C. Setting
D. Sensitivity
Answer B
Setting:- is the ratio of the depth of the crest level of the module
below the full supply of the distributing channel to the full supply
depth of the distributing channel.
Setting = H/D
Q. 119) The drainage water intercepting the canal can be
disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage is
A. Aqueduct and syphon aqueduct

B. Aqueduct and super passage
C. Super passage and canal syphon
D. Level crossing
Answer C
A cross drainage work is a structure carrying the discharge of a natural stream
across a canal intercepting the stream.
Types of cross-drainage works
A. CD work carrying canal over the drainage:-
1. Aqueduct:- The HFL (high flood level) of drain is much below the bottom of the
canal, and water flows freely under gravity.
2. Syphon aqueduct:- The HFL of the drain is much higher above the canal bed, and
the water runs under syphonic action through the aqueduct barrels.
B. CD work carrying drainage over the canal
1. Super-passage:- is similar to an aqueduct except that in this case the drain is over
the canal. The FSL (full supply level) of the canal is lower than the underside of the
trough carrying drainage water. Thus, the canal water runs under gravity.
2. Canal syphon:-The FSL of the canal is much above the bed level of the drainage
trough, so that canal is runs under syphonic action under the throug.
Q. 120) If the RL’s of canal bed level and high flood level of
discharge are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively, then cross
drainage work will be
A. Aqueduct
B. Superpassage
C. Syphon
D. Syphon aqueduct
Answer A
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(121 to 135)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 121) The aqueduct or superpassage type of works are
generally used when
A. High flood drainage discharge is small

B. High flood drainage discharges is large and short lived
C. High flood drainage discharge is large and continuous
for a long time
Answer A
1. Super-passage:- is similar to an aqueduct except that in this case the
drain is over the canal. The FSL (full supply level) of the canal is lower
than the underside of the trough carrying drainage water. Thus, the canal
water runs under gravity.
2. Canal syphon:-The FSL of the canal is much above the bed level of the
drainage trough, so that canal is runs under syphonic action under the
throug.
Q. 122) An aggrading river is
A. Silting river
B. Scouring river
C. Both silting and scouring river
D. Neither silting nor scouring river
Answer A
Agrading river (silting river):- The river builds up its bed by silting
or dropping its bed load.
Degrading river (Scouring river):- Scouring is the removal of

sediment from its bed.
Q. 123) Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
A. Meander belt to meander length

B. Meander length to meander belt
C. Curved length along the channel to the direct axial
length of the river reach
D. Direct axial length of the river reach to curved length
along the channel
Answer C
Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of curved length
along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach.
Tortuosity of meandering river is always > 1

Q. 124) The meander pattern of river is developed by
A. Average discharge
B. Dominant discharge
C. Maximum discharge
D. Critical discharge
Answer B
Dominant discharge varies from 1/2 to 1/3 of Qmax

Q. 125) The main cause of meandering is
A. Presence of an excessive bed slope in the river

B. Degradation
C. The extra turbulence generated by the excess of river
sediment during floods
Answer C
Meandering results from the local bank erosion and consequent

overloading and deposition of the river of the heavier sediments
moving along the bed.
According to Inglis, the primary cause of the meanderig is the
excess of total charge during floods when excess of turbulence a
developed.
Q. 126) Tortuosity of a meandering river is always
A. Equal to 1
B. Less than 1
C. Greater than 1
D. Less than or equal to 1
Answer C
Q. 127) Select the correct statement
A. A meander increases the river length but a cutoff

reduces the river length
B. A cutoff increases the river length but a meander
reduces the river length
C. Both meander and cutoff increase the river length
D. Both meander and cutoff decreases the river length
Answer A
During high floods, a cutoff may be developed by straightening

out the loop of the meander. After the formation of cutoff, the
river flows straight.
Q. 128) River training for depth is achieved by
A. Groynes
B. Construction of dykes or leavees
C. Both A and B
D. Groynes and bandalling
Answer D
A. Groynes or spurs are the structures that are constructed transverse to
flow and extend from bank to the river channel.
B. (तटबंध) levee, dike, dyke, embankment, floodbank or stopbank is an

elongated naturally occurring ridge or artificially constructed fill or wall,
which regulates water levels. It is usually earthen and often parallel to
river flow.
C. Bandalling is a locally bamboo made structure used for the river

course stabilization by river bank erosion protection.
Using spurs and Bandalling to contract the river channel and, thus,
increase its depth.
Q. 129) Main purpose of mean water training for rivers is
A. Flood control
B. To provide sufficient depth of water in navigable
channels, during low water periods
C. To preserve the channel in good shape by efficient
disposal of suspended and bed load
D. All of the above
Answer C
Types of river training works
1. High water training:- is also known as training for discharge. The cross-section
of the river is so developed near the works (i.e. Near weir, barrages or bridges)
that the maximum flood is passed over efficiently.
2. Low water training:- is also known as training for depth. This type of training is
adopted for navigation purpose where a certain minimum depth of flow is
maintained by contracting the width of the river channel.
3. Mean water training:- is also known as the training for sediment. The river is
trained to correct the configuration of river bed for the efficient transport of
sediment load, without either silting or scouring.
Q. 130) If D is the depth of scour below original bed, then
the width of launching apron is generally taken as
A. 1.2 D
B. 1.5 D
C. 2.0 D
D. 2.5 D
Answer B
To protect the face of the guide bank at the river bed level a thick stone
cover is laid on the bed. It is called an apron.
When the scour undermines the river bed the apron comes down
or launches to cover the face of the scour. Hence it is called Launching
apron also.
width of launching apron is generally taken as = 1.5 depth of scour below

original bed
Q. 131) Study the following statements
i) Levees are constructed parallel to river flow
ii) Spurs are constructed parallel to river flow
iii) levees are constructed transverse to river flow
iv) Spurs are constructed transverse to river flow
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Answer B
Groynes or spurs are the structure that are constructed
transverse to river flow and extend from bank to the river
channel.
(तटबंध) levee, dike, dyke, embankment, floodbank or stopbank is

an elongated naturally occurring ridge or artificially constructed
fill or wall, which regulates water levels. It is usually earthen and
often parallel to river flow.
Q. 132) A repelling groyne is aligned
A. Pointing upstream
B. Pointing downstream
C. Perpendicular to bank
D. Parallel to bank
Answer A
Q. 133) A river training work is generally required when
the river is
A. Aggrading type
B. Degrading type
C. Meandering types
D. Both A and B
Answer C
River training' refers to the structural measures which are taken to improve
a river and its banks. They are used to lower the river gradient in order to reduce
the water velocity and protect the river bed and banks from erosion.
A. Agrading river (silting river):- The river builds up its bed by silting or dropping its
bed load.
B. Degrading river (Scouring river):- Scouring is the removal of sediment from its bed.
C. Meandering rivers:- Meandering rivers erode sediment from the outer curve of
each meander bend and deposit it on an inner curve further down stream.
Q. 134) Length and width of meander are proportional to
A. Discharge
B. (Discharge)½
C. (Discharge)⅔
D. (Discharge)²
Answer B
Q. 135) A river bend in alluvial soil is characterized by
A. Scouring on concave side

B. Silting on convex side
C. Scouring on convex side and silting on cancave side
D. Scouring on concave side and silting on convex side
Answer D
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(136 to 150)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 136) Select the incorrect statement
A. Intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas

susceptible to water logging
B. Extensive irrigation should be adopted in areas
susceptible to water logging
C. Lift irrigation increases water logging
D. All of the above
Answer C
Lift irrigation:-
This is a curative measure. When the process of
waterlogging is starts, lift irrigation should be introduced along
with the canal irrigation. When water is pumped out from top
aquifer it depresses the water table and decrease water logging.
Q. 137) A land is known as waterlogged
A. When the permanent wilting point is reached

B. When gravity drainage has ceased
C. Capillary fringe reaches the root zone of plants
Answer C
→The dryer the soil the more difficult it is for the plant roots to extract.
The soil water content at the stage where the plant dies, is called
permanent wilting point. The soil still contains some water, but it is too
difficult for the roots to suck it from the soil.
→Waterlogged soil:- The soil pores within the root zones of crops become
fully saturated, and thus air circulation is completely cut-off.
Water logging is caused by the rise of sub-soil water level upto the
ground level, or sometimes upto the root zone of the crops.
The depth of water table at which it tends to make the soil water-logged
and harmful to the growth of plant life depends upon the height of
capillary fringe, which is the height to which water will rise due to
capillary action.
Q. 138) Lining of irrigation channels
A. Increases the water logging area

B. Decreases the water logging area
C. Does not change the water logging area
Answer B
Canal lining is the process of reducing seepage loss of irrigation water by adding
an impermeable layer to the sides and bed of the canal.
Advantages of lining:-
1. Due to reduction in percolation and seepage, decreases the water logging
area.
2. Increase in velocity of flow. 3. Increase in stability of banks.
4. Prevention of erosion 5. Increase in canal water power
6. Economical distribution 7. Improvement in water quality
Disadvantages:-
1. High initial cost
2. Difficulty in shifting the position of outlets.
Q. 139) A runoff river plant is
A. A low head scheme

B. A medium head scheme
C. A high head scheme
Answer A
A water power development scheme is known as hydro-electric scheme Or hydel
scheme.
The hydel plants can be classified according to their function
1. Runoff river plants:- Which utilize the river flow having no pondage at its
upstream. A wier or a barrage is constructed across the river, simply to raise the
water level slightly. Such a scheme is essentially a low head (which uses head less
than 15 metres) scheme, and is adopted in the case of a perennial river.
2. Storage plants:- Such a plant has a storage reservoir at its upstream. A dam is
constructed across the river and water is stored during the periods of excess
supply.
3. Pumped storage plants:- A pumped storage plant stores power in the form of
potential energy of water. The scheme is used to generate power only during the
peak hours.
Depending upon the available head, the hydel schemes may be
classified as under
1. Low head scheme:- which uses head of less than about 15
metres. It is essentially a run off river scheme.
2. Medium head scheme:- uses head between 15 to 60 metres.

Such a scheme is essentially a storage scheme.
3. High head scheme:- uses a head of more than 60 metres.

Q. 140) The net speed under which the turbine reaches its
peak efficiency is called
A. Design speed
B. Rated speed
C. Gross speed
D. Operating speed
Answer A
Hydraulic Efficiency:-
It is the ratio of the power developed by the runner
of a turbine to the power supplied at the inlet of a turbine.
Q. 141) A runoff river plant
A. Is a medium head scheme

B. Generates power during peak hours only
C. Is suitable only on a perennial river
D. Has no pondage at all
Answer C
Q. 142) The net head under which the turbine reaches its
peak efficiency in synchronous speed is called
A. Design speed
B. Rated speed
C. Gross speed
D. Operating speed
Answer A
Q. 143) The ratio of the average load to the installed
capacity of the plant whose reserve capacity is zero will be
equal to
A. Load factor
B. Plant factor
C. Utilisation factor
D. Both A and B
Answer D
1.Load factor:- is defined as the ratio of the average load over a certain
period to the peak load occurring during the same time.
If period chosen is one day, the load factor is known as the daily load
factor and similarly annual load factor.
2. Capacity factor or plant factor:- is the ratio of the average output of the
plant to the plant capacity. i.e.
Plant capacity factor = average load output/installed capacity
= average load output/1.1 (peak load)
if we take the reserve capacity as 10% of the peak load.
If the reserve capacity is zero, load factor on a particular day = capacity
factor for that day.
3. Utilization factor:- is the ratio of water actually utilized for power to
that available in the river.
Q. 144) A hydroelectric scheme operating under a head of
80 m will be classified as
A. Low head scheme

B. Medium head scheme
C. High head scheme
Answer C
Depending upon the available head, the hydel schemes may be classified
as under
1. Low head scheme:- which uses head of less than about 15 metres. It is
essentially a run off river scheme.
2. Medium head scheme:- uses head between 15 to 60 metres. Such a

scheme is essentially a storage scheme.
3. High head scheme:- uses a head of more than 60 metres.

Q. 145) A hyetograph is a graphical representation of
A. Rainfall intensity and time

B. Rainfall depth and time
C. Discharge and time
D. Cumulative rainfall and time
Answer A
A. Hyetograph is a graphical representation of rainfall intensity and time.
B. Rainfall intensity is a measure of the amount of rain that falls over

time. It is expressed in depth units per unit time, usually as mm per hour
(mm/h).
C. Hydrograph is a graphical representation of the rate of flow versus

time.
D. Mass Curve is plot of accumulated rainfall against time

Q. 146) Variability of rainfall is
i) Largest in regions of high rainfall
ii) largest in coastal areas
iii) largest in regions of scanty rainfall

A. Only (i)
B. (i) and (ii)
C. Only (iii)
D. (ii) and (iii)
Answer C
Regions of high rainfall: More than 200 cm average annual rainfall.
Regions of scanty rainfall: Less than 50 cm average annual rainfall.
→Variability is high in the regions of scanty rainfall.
Rainfall variability:- The degree to which rainfall amounts vary across an

area or through time.
There are two types of rainfall variability, areal and temporal.
1. Areal variability:- The variation of rainfall amounts at various locations
across a region for a specific time interval. (Time does not vary.)
Example: Annual average precipitation.
2. Temporal variability:- The variation of rainfall amounts at a given
location across a time interval. (Area does not vary.)
Q. 147) In India, which is the following is adopted as a
standard recording raingauge
A. Symon’s raingauge
B. Tipping bucket type
C. Natural syphon type
D. Weighing bucket type
Answer C
Types of Raingauges:-
1. Non-Recording Type Raingauge

a) Symon’s Raingauge
2. Recording Type Raingauges

a) Weighing bucket type
b) Tipping bucket type
c) Floating or natural syphon type raingauge
Q. 148) The maximum average depth due to one day
storm over an area of 100 km² is 100 mm. Depth area
duration (DAD) curves indicate that for the same area of
100 km² the maximum average depth of for 3 hours storm
will be
A. 100 mm
B. More than 100 mm
C. Less than 100 mm
Answer C
Q. 149) The maximum rainfall depth of 300 mm in 24
hours has a return period of 100 years. The probability of
24 hours rainfall equal to or greater than 300 mm
occurring at least once in 10 years is given by
A. (0.99)¹°
B. 1 – (0.99)¹°
C. (0.9)¹°°
D. 1 – (0.9)¹°°
Answer B
Q. 150) The most suitable chemical which can be applied
to the water surface for reducing evaporation is
A. Methyl alcohol
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Cetyl alcohol
D. Butyl alcohol
Answer C
The important factors affecting the natural evaporation such as
Temperature, Relative Humidity, Wind Velocity, Sunshine Hours, etc.
Cetyl and Stearyl Alcohols were selected to reduce the evaporation.
Different concentrations of Cetyl and Stearyl alcohols were used in

different pans.
The Cetyl alcohol individually gives the average reduction is 27% and the
Stearyl alcohol gives 27% and Both Cetyl and Stearyl Alcohol combine
gives the average reduction is 30%.
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(151 to 165)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 151) Interception losses are due to
i) Evaporation
ii) transportation
iii) stream flow
A. Only (i)
B. (i) and (ii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
Answer A
Interception loss is that part of the precipitation that falls on

plants and doesn’t reach the ground and returned to the
atmosphere by evaporation, this is termed as interception loss.
Q. 152) A 6 hours storm had 4 cm of rainfall and the
resulting runoff was 2 cm. If Φ index remains at the same
value, the runoff due to 10 cm of rainfall in 12 hours in the
catchment is
A. 4.5 cm
B. 6.0 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 9.0 cm
Answer B
Q. 153) Which of the following methods is used to
estimate flood discharge based on high water marks left
over in the past?
A. Slope-area method
B. Area-velocity method
C. Moving boat method
D. Ultra-sonic method
Answer A
Slope-area method is frequently used to estimate peak

discharges following a flood event, observation of high-water
marks after the passage of a flood is important.
Q. 154) In the moving boat method of stream flow
measurements, the following measurements are required
i) Velocity and direction of current metre
ii) Speed of the boat
iii) Depths and time interval between depth readings
A. (i) and (iii)

B. (ii) and (iii)
C. Only (ii)
Answer A
Q. 155) To determine the discharge at a section in a stream
from its rating curve, the required data are
are
i) Slope of water surface at a section
ii) Stage at the section
iii) Current metre readings at the section
A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)
C. Only (ii)
D. Only (iii)
Answer C
Rating curve is a graph of discharge versus stage for a given point

on a stream, usually at gauging stations, where the stream
discharge is measured across the stream channel with a flow
meter.
The rating curve is usually plotted as discharge on x-axis versus stage
(surface elevation) on y-axis.
Q. 156) The stage of river carrying a discharge of Q m³/sec
at a point is 10 m and slope of water surface is 1/4000.
The discharge of a flood at the same point and same stage
of 10 m with a water surface slope of 1/1000 will be
A. √2Q m³/sec
B. 0.5Q m³/sec
C. 2Q m³/sec
D. 4Q m³/sec
Answer C
Q. 157) The stream which does not have any base flow
contribution is called
A. Perennial stream
B. Intermittent stream
C. Ephimeral stream
Answer C
Base flow:- is the delayed subsurface flow at shallow depth (above GWT),
joining a nearby stream.
Ground water flow:- is the deep subsurface flow of ground water (below
GWT), joining a nearby stream or spring.
Perennial streams are different to intermittent streams; which normally

stop flowing for weeks or months each year.
They are also different to ephemeral streams that flow only for hours or
days after rainfall.
Q. 158) The flow mass-curve is graphical representation of
A. Cumulative discharge and time

B. Discharge and percentage probability of flow being
equalled or exceeded
C. Cumulative discharge, volume and time in chronological
order
D. Discharge and time in chronological order
Answer C
Q. 159) If the demand line drawn from a ridge in a flow
mass curve does not intersect the curve again, it indicates
that
A. Demand cannot be met by inflow

B. Reservoir was not full at the beginning
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer A
The demand cannot be met by the inflow as the reservoir will not refill.
Q. 160) The shape of recession limb of hydrograph
depends upon
A. Basin characteristics only

B. Storm characteristics only
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer A
A hydrograph of a catchment produced by a storm is a graphical representation
of discharge rate of a stream with respect to the time from the start of storm. It
is an inverted U shaped diagram.
Hydrograph generally contains the following three parts.

1. Rising Limb
2. Peak (or Crest) Segment
3. Falling (or Recession) Limb
1. Rising Limb:- It is the ascending curved portion of the hydrograph. The rising
limb rises slowly in the early stage of the flood but more rapidly toward the end
portion. The shape of rising limb depends on duration and intensity distribution
of rainfall. This is because in early stages the losses is more and water reaches to
the stream faster.
2. Peak Segment (or Crest Segment) : Peak segment is shown by inverted
U in the hydrograph. This is the part which is taken as matter of interest
by hydrologists. Peak of hydrograph occurs when all parts of basins
contribute at the outlet simultaneously at the maximum rate. Depending
upon the rainfall-basin characterstics, the peak may be sharp, flat or may
have several well defined peaks.
3. Falling Limb (or Recession Limb) : Recession Limb represents the

withdrawal of water from the storage built up during the early phase of
hydrograph. It extends from the point of inflection at the end of the crest
to the beginning of the natural groundwater flow.
The shape of recession limb depends upon basin characteristics only and
independent of the storm.
Q. 161) Instantaneous unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of
i) Unit duration
ii) Unit rainfall excess
iii) Infinitely small duration
iv) Infinitely small rainfall excess
A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Answer C
The instantaneous unit hydrograph is defined as a unit

hydrograph produced by an effective rainfall of 1 mm and having
an infinitesimal reference duration (in other words the duration
tends towards zero).
Q. 162) For a catchment area of 120 km², the equilibrium
discharge in m³/hour of an S-curve obtained by the
summation of 6 hour unit hydrograph is
A. 0.2 × 106
B. 0.6 × 106
C. 2.4 × 106
D. 7.2 × 106
Answer A
Q. 163) A unit hydrograph has one unit of
A. Rainfall duration
B. Rainfall excess
C. Time base of direct runoff
D. Discharge
Answer B
The Unit Hydrograph of the catchment is defined as hydrograph of direct
runoff (DRH) results from 1cm depth of effective rainfall occurring
uniformly over the catchment at a uniform rate during a specified period
of time (D-hr).
Thus we can have 6-Hr Unit Hydrograph, 12-Hr Unit Hydrograph, etc.
6-Hr unit hydrograph will have an effective rainfall intensity of 1/6 cm/hr.
Q. 164) The peak of a 4 hour flood hydrograph is 240
m³/sec. If the rainfall excess is 80 mm and base flow which
is constant is 40 m³/sec, then the peak of 4 hours unit
hydrograph will be
A. 20 m³/sec
B. 25 m³/sec
C. 30 m³/sec
D. 35 m³/sec
Answer B
Storm/flood hydrograph = Direct runoff + ground water runoff/Base flow
Q. 165) A 4-hour direct runoff hydrograph of catchment is
triangular in shape with a time base of 100 hours and peak
flow of 50 m³/sec. The catchment area is 360 km². The
peak flow of this catchment area for a 4-hour unit
hydrograph is
A. 10 m³/sec
B. 20 m³/sec
C. 25 m³/sec
D. 50 m³/sec
Answer B
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(166 to 180)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 166) To estimate the magnitude of flood with a return
period of T years, Gumbel’s distribution method requires the
following data pertaining to annual flood series
i) Mean value
ii) Standard deviation
iii) Length of record
iv) Coefficient of skew
A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i), (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer B
Q. 167) For an annual flood series arranged in descending
order of magnitude, the return for a magnitude listed at
position period m in a total data N is
A. N/(m+1)
B. m/(N+1)
C. m/N
D. (N+1)/m
Answer D
The values of the annual maximum flood from a given catchment

area for large number of successive years constitute a
hydrological data series called the annual series.
The data are then arranged in decreasing order of magnitude and
the probability (P) of each being equal to or exceeded is
calculated by the plotting position formula
P = m/(N+1)
Where,
m = Order number of event
N = Total number of events in the data
Q. 168) If the risk of a flood occurring in the next 10 years
is accepted to 10%, then the return period for design
should be
A. 1 + (0.9)0.10
B. 1 – (0.9)0.10
C. 1/(1 – 0.90.10)
D. 1/(1 + 0.90.10)
Answer C
Q. 169) Partial duration series is mostly used for
A. Rainfall analysis
B. Flood analysis
C. Both A and B
Answer A
Because conditions of independency of events are easy to

establish in rainfall analysis.
Q. 170) If storage, inflow rate and outflow rate are
denoted by S, I and Q respectively, then the values of S in
Muskingham method of flood routing is given by the
expression
A. K(XI – XQ + Q)
B. K(XI + XQ – Q)
C. K(-XI + XQ + I)
D. KX(I – XQ – Q)
Where K and X are coefficients.

Answer A
Q. 171) Which of the following are Saint Venant’s equations for
unsteady open-channel flow?
i) Continuity equation
ii) Momentum equation
iii) Energy equation
A. Only (i)
B. (i) and (ii)
C. (i) and (iii)
Answer B
1. Continuity equation, outflow + change in storage = inflow
2. The momentum equation is derived from Newton’s second

law, Rate of change of momentum = net force
Q. 172) In case of channel routing, the storage is a function
of
A. Inflow discharge only
B. Outflow discharge only
C. Both A and B
Answer C
In reservoir routing, storage is a function of outflow discharge
only.
Q. 173) Muskingham method of flood routing is
A. Reservoir routing method

B. Channel routing method
C. Hydraulic method of flood routing
Answer B
Q. 174) Which of the following equations are used in
hydrological flood routing method
i) Continuity equation
ii) Equation of motion
iii) Energy equation
A. Only (i)
B. (i) and (ii)
C. (i) and (iii)
Answer A
In hydraulic method of flood routing, both the equation of

motion and continuity equation are used.
Q. 175) In linear reservoir, storage varies linearly with
A. Time
B. Inflow rate
C. Outflow rate
Answer C
Q. 176) The dimensions of storage coefficient is
A. M0 L¹ T-1
B. M0 L² T-1
C. M0 L3 T -2
D. Dimensionless
Answer D
Storage coefficient (storativity):- The volume of water given up

per unit horizontal area of an aquifer and per unit drop of the
water-table. It is a dimensionless ratio and always greater than 0
and less than unity.
Q. 177) The porosity of a sand sample is 50%. The specific
yield of an aquifer for containing this sand will be
A. Equal to 50%
B. Less than 50%
C. More than 50%
Answer B
Specific yield is defined as the volume of water released from

groundwater storage per unit surface area of aquifer per unit
decline of the water table.
Thus, specific yield, which is sometimes called effective porosity,
is less than the total porosity.
Q. 178) Discharge per unit drawdown at a well is called
A. Specific storage
B. Specific yield
C. Specific capacity
Answer C
A. Specific storage:- The specific storage is the amount of water that a portion of
an aquifer releases from storage
B. Specific Yield of Wells:- rate of water percolation in the well or yield of a well in
m3/hr under a head of one metre is called the specific yield of the well.
C. Specific capacity:- is a quantity that which a water well can produce per unit of
drawdown.
A well specific capacity equals the discharge rate (in gpm) divided by the water
level drawdown (in feet).
For example a well with a pumping rate of 200gpm (Gallons per minute) with a
10 foot drawdown has aspecific capacity of 20gpm/ft of drawdown.
Q. 179) Permeability of a soil sample a temperature of
20°C is 0.5 mm/sec. If the temperature is decreased to
15°C , the permeability of the same soil sample is
A. 0.5 mm/sec
B. Less than 0.5 mm/sec
C. More than 0.5 mm/sec
Answer B
The property of the soil that permits the flow of water through
its voids with ease is known as permeability.
An decrease in temperature of the permeant (pore fluid)

decreases the density marginally and increase the viscosity
significantly and vice versa.
Thus, decrease in temperature of the pore fluid
decreases the permeability of the soil.
Q. 180) Due to decrease in pressure, the water level in a
well penetrating a confined aquifer will
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Note change
Answer B
Aquifer:- is an saturated geological formation, underground layer of

water-bearing permeable and porous or unconsolidated materials
(gravel, sand, or silt) from which groundwater can be extracted using a
water well.
In un-confined aquifer cone of depression represent the drawdown water

table but in confined aquifer it represent the pressure drop (change in
piezometric head) around the well.
Drop in water table from previous static water table is termed as
drawdown depth or simply drawdown.
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(181 to 195)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 181) According to Indian standards, the number of
raingauge station for an area of 5200 km² in plains should
be
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 40
Answer A
According to Indian standards:
1. In Plains – 1 station for every 520 sq.km.

2. In region with average elevation 1000 m – 1 station per 260-
390 sq.km.
3. In hilly areas with heavy rainfall – 1 station for every 130 sq.km
4. In arid polar zone – 1 station for every 1500 – 10000 sq.km.
10% of the raingauges should be self recording raingauge.

Q. 182) For a storm of given duration, if the intensity of
storm corresponding to a return period of T is I, then the
intensity of storm for the same duration but corresponding
the return period of T1 ( where T1 > T) will be
A. Less than I
B. Equal to I
C. Greater than I
Answer C
Intensity of storm ↑ with ↓ Storm duration.

Intensity of storm ↑ with ↑ Return period.
Q. 183) What is the probability of flood equal to or greater
than 25 years flood occurring twice in the next three years
A. 24/625
B. 72/3125
C. 72/15625
D. 24/15625
Answer C
Q. 184) The rainfall in four successive 12 hours period on a
catchment are 40, 80, 90 and 30 mm. If the infiltration
index ∅ for the storm is 5 mm/hour, then the total surface
runoff will be
A. 0
B. 50 mm
C. 120 mm
D. 180 mm
Answer B
Q. 185) The 6-hour unit hydrograph of a catchment of area
180 km² is triangular in shape. If the peak ordinate of this
hydrograph is 10 m³/sec, then the time base is
A. 50 hours
B. 75 hours
C. 100 hours
D. 120 hours
Answer C
Q. 186) Percentage of raingauge stations which should be
equipped with self recording gauges for knowing the
intensity of rainfall should be about
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer B
World Meteorological Organization (WHO) recommendation:
1. In Plains – 1 station for every 520 sq.km.

2. In region with average elevation 1000 m – 1 station per 260 to
390 sq.km.
3. In hilly areas with heavy rainfall – 1 station for every 130 sq.km
4. In arid polar zone – 1 station for every 1500 to 10000 sq.km.
10% of the raingauges should be self recording raingauge.

Q. 187) If the same catchment area is situated in three
zones X, Y, Z where X, Y and Z represent flat regions of
tropical zone, mountaneous region of tropical zone and
arid zone respectively, then the relation between the
desirable number of raingauge stations in these three
zones Nx, Ny and Nz respectively
A. Nx > Ny > Nz
B. Ny > Nz > Nx
C. Ny > Nx > Nz
D. Nz > Ny > Nx
Answer C
Q. 188) If the coefficient of variation of rainfall values at 4
raingauge stations is 30% and permissible error in the
estimation of mean rainfall is 10%, then the additional
number of raingauge stations required in the catchment is
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 9
Answer C
= (30/10)² - 4
=9–4
=5
Q. 189) Assertion A: Under identical conditions, the evaporation
from sea water is less than that from fresh water.
Reason R: Vapour pressure of sea water is less than that of pure
water
Select your answer based on the coding system given below
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer A
Q. 190) In a siphon aqueduct the most severe condition of
uplift on the floor occurs when
A. Canal runs full, drain is dry but the water table is at

stream bed
B. Canal is dry and drain is at high flood level
C. Canal runs dry and the drain also runs dry
D. Both the canal and the drain run full
Answer B
1. Super-passage:- is similar to an aqueduct except that in this case the drain is over
the canal. The FSL (full supply level) of the canal is lower than the underside of the
trough carrying drainage water. Thus, the canal water runs under gravity.
2. Canal syphon:-The FSL of the canal is much above the bed level of the drainage
trough, so that canal is runs under syphonic action under the throug.
Q. 191) The double mass analysis is adopted to
A. Estimate the missing rainfall data

B. Open intensities of rainfall at various duration
C. Check the consistency of data
D. Obtain the amount of storage needed to maintain a
demand pattern
Answer C
A. The most common method used to estimate missing rainfall

data is Normal Ratio method. This method is based only on past
observations of that rain gauge and surrounding gauges.
C. Double-mass curve can be used to detect changes in the

consistency of precipitation records and to determine the
amount of adjustment to be applied to make them consistent.
Q. 192) Retrogression of downstream levels, generally
considered in the design of weirs or barrages, is
A. Higher at high foold stage then it low water levels

B. Same at high flood stage and at low water levels
C. Higher at low water levels stage than at high flood stage
D. Independent of the stage of flow
Answer C
Retrogression:- It is a temporary phenomenon which occurs after
the construction of weirs or barrages in the river flowing through
alluvial soil. As a result of back water effect and increase in the
depth, the velocity of water decreases resulting in deposition of
sedimentation load. The water flowing through the weirs or
barrages have less silt, so water picks up silt from downstream
bed. This results in lowering d/s river bed to a few miles. This is
known as retrogression.
Retrogression value is minimum for flood discharge and

maximum for low discharge. The values vary (2 - 8.5) ft.
Q. 193) Cross-regulators in main canals are provided to
A. Regulate water supply in the off-taking channel

B. Regulate water supply in the main channel
C. Regulate excessive flood water
D. Head up water for adequate supply into the off-taking
channel
Answer D
Cross Regulator:- It is a hydraulic structure constructed across the canal to
regulate the irrigation water supplies. It may be constructed across any
type of canal main, branch or a distributary.
Functions:-
(i) When due to inadequate supply the water level is lowered the off-
taking channels do not get their proper share. A cross regulator is
provided to raise the water level.
(ii) Sometimes it becomes necessary to carry out some necessary to carry
out some repair works on a canal. The cross regulator if existing above
that reach of the canal, it can be closed and repairs can be done
efficiently.
(iii) Sometimes it is necessary to close the canal below a particular point.
Say when there is no demand for irrigation water during a particular
period
(iv) When the costly headwork’s are not constructed in the initial stages, the
cross-regulator helps in regulating the canal supplies.
(v) Cross regulators divide long canal reach into smaller ones and make it possible
to maintain the reach successfully and efficiently. For efficient functioning they
should be spaced 10 to 13 km apart on the main canal and 7 to 10 km on the
branches.
2. Head Regulators:- It is a structure constructed at the entrance (head) of the

canal where it takes off from the river.
Functions:-
i. It regulates the flow of irrigation water entering into the canal.
ii. To shut out river flood.
iii. It regulates and prevents excessive silt entry into the canal.
3. Distributary Head Regulator:- It is a hydraulic structure constructed at the head

of a distributary. This regulator performs the same functions as that of a head
regulator.
Q. 194) For a barrage, the exit gradient is independent of
A. The applied head of water

B. The horizontal length of floor
C. The depth of upstream cutoff
D. The depth of downstream cutoff
Answer C
Q. 195) For the upstream slope of in earth dam, the most
critical condition is
A. Sudden draw down condition

B. Steady seepage condition
C. Neither sudden draw down nor steady seepage
condition
D. During construction when the reservoir is allowed to be
filled
Answer A
The most critical stage for the
1. Upstream slope:- Sudden drawdown condition
2. Downstream slope:- Steady seepage when the resevoir is full

🙏☺
Objective Questions
(196 to 210)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 196) Bligh’s creep theory of seepage assumes
A. Equal weightage to horizontal and vertical creeps

B. More weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
C. Less weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
D. Loss of head follows sine curve
Answer A
Concept of Bligh’s theory:-

Bligh assumed that the water which percolates into the foundation creeps
through the joint between the profile of the base of weir and the subsoil.
Of course water also percolates into the subsoil. The seeping water finally
comes out at the downstream end.
According to Bligh water travels along vertical, horizontal or inclined path
without making any distinction.
The total length covered by the percolating water till it emerges out at the
downstream end is called a creep length.
Bligh’s creep theory of seepage assumes equal weightage to horizontal

and vertical creeps.
Q. 197) The sequent peak algorithm is a method used in
the estimation of the
A. Maximum possible precipitation in a basin

B. Maximum possible flood peak in a catchment
C. Minimum Evapotranspiration from a catchment
D. Minimum reservoir capacity needed to meet a given
demand
Answer D
Probable maximum precipitation (PMP):-
-PMP is used in the design of major hydraulic structures such as spillways
in large dams.
-There appears to be a physical upper limit to the amount of precipitation
that can occur over a given area in a given time.
Probable maximum flood:-

-An extremely large but physically possible flood in the region.
-Used in situation where failure of structure cause life and severe damage
Evapotranspiration:- Evapotranspiration (ET) is an important component

of the water cycle and is composed of two subprocesses evaporation
from soil and vegetation surfaces and transpiration that consists of the
exchange of moisture between the plant and atmosphere.
Q. 198) The probable maximum flood is
A. The standard project flood of an extremely large river

B. A flood adopted in the design of all kinds of spillways
C. A flood adopted in all hydraulic structures
D. An extremely large but physically possible flood in the
region
Answer D
Spillway design flood:-
-Design flood specific for designing spillway of storage structure.
-Maximum discharge that can be passed in hydraulic structure without
causing change or threat to the stability of the structure.
Probable maximum flood:-

-An extremely large but physically possible flood in the region
-Used in situation where failure of structure cause life and severe
damage.
Standard project flood:-

-Used in situation where failure would cause less damage.
-40% to 60% of PMF for same basin.
Q. 199) The probable maximum precipitation at a station is
A. The greatest rainfall for a given duration that is

physically possible
B. The rainfall of a given duration with maximum
probability of occurance
C. The rainfall for a given duration that is impossible to
occur
Answer A
Probable maximum precipitation (PMP):-

-PMP is used in the design of major hydraulic structures such as
spillways in large dams.
-There appears to be a physical upper limit to the amount
of precipitation that can occur over a given area in a given time.
Q. 200) The flow duration curve is a plot of
A. Accumulated flow against time

B. Discharge against time in chronological order
C. The base flow against the percentage of time the flow is
equalled or exceeded
D. The stream discharge against the percentage of the
time the flow is equalled or exceeded
Answer D
B. A plot of the discharge in a stream plotted chronologically
against time is called a Hydrograph
D. A flow duration curve is a plot of discharge vs. percent of time

that a particular discharge was equalled or exceeded. The area
under the flow duration curve (with arithmetic scales) gives the
average daily flow, and the median daily flow is the 50% value.
Q. 201) The DAD (Depth Area Duration) analysis for a
catchment would indicate that
A. For a given storm, the maximum depth increses with

area
B. For a given area, the maximum average depth of rainfall
increases with strom duration
C. For a given area, the maximum average depth of rainfall
decreases with storm duration
Answer B
The purpose of a DAD analysis was to determine the maximum
precipitation amounts over various area sizes during the passage of
storms of say 6-, 12, or 24-hour durations to help in the computation of
probable maximum precipitation (PMP) estimates.
The x-axis of a DAD plot indicates the maximum average depth of

precipitation. The y-axis is the area size.
For a given area, the maximum average depth of rainfall increases with
strom duration
Q. 202) Permanent wilting point is
A. A characteristics of the plant

B. A soil characteristics
C. A soil characteristics modified by the crop
D. Dependent on soil water plant fertilizer interaction
Answer B
Field Capacity:- The maximum quantity of water which a soil can retain
against the force of gravity is known as field capacity.
The quantity of water greater than the field capacity simply passes away.
Permanent wilting Point:- is the moisture content at which the moisture is

no longer available in sufficient quantity so that the plants can sustain.
Even though the soil contains some moisture but it was so held by the
soil that roots of plants cannot uptake it and results in wilting of plant.
Available water:- The difference between two moisture contents ( field

capacity and permanent wilting point ) is known as available water.
It is the moisture content which is available for plants.
Q. 203) Conjunctive use of water in a basin means
A. Combined use of water for irrigation and for

hydropower generation
B. Combined use of surface and ground water resources
C. Use of irrigation water for both rabi and kharif season
D. Use of irrigation water by cooperative of farmers
Answer B
Conjunctive use of water relates to the combined use of ground
and surface water.
Q. 204) The tractive force method of designing stable channels is
applicable to channels
i) In coarse non-cohesive material
ii) In cohesive material
iii) Carrying clear water
iv) Carrying water containing suspended load
Of these statements
A. (i) and (iii) are correct
B. (ii) and (iii) are correct
C. (i) and (iv) are correct
D. (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer A
The force exerted by flowing water on bottom and sides of the
channel is called tractive force.
Q. 205) As per Shield’s criteria for the initiation of bed
motion, the entertainment function is a unique function of
A. Reynolds number
B. Shear Reynolds number
C. Froude number
D. Both B and C
Answer B
Sediment transport is the movement of solid particles (sediment),
typically due to a combination of gravity acting on the sediment, and/or
the movement of the fluid in which the sediment is entrained.
For a fluid to begin transporting sediment that is currently at rest on a

surface, the boundary (or bed) shear stress exerted by the fluid must
exceed the critical shear stress for the initiation of motion of grains at the
bed.
As per Shield’s criteria for the initiation of bed motion, the entertainment
function is a unique function of Shear Reynolds number.
Q. 207) In which of the following section a breast wall is
usually provided
A. Main canal
B. Under-sluice
C. Head regulator
D. Weir
Answer C
Canal Head Regulator:- Structure at the head of canal taking off
from a reservoir may consist of number of spans separated by
piers and operated by gates.
Regulators are normally aligned at 90° to the weir.
Q. 208) The most ideal condition for energy dissipation for
the design of spillways is when the tail water curve
A. Lies above jump height curve at all discharge

B. Coincides with jump height curve at all discharges
C. Lies below the jump height curve at all discharges
D. Lies above or below the jump height curve, depending
upon the discharge
Answer B
The water flowing over the spillways acquires a lot of kinetic energy by
the time it reaches near the toe of spillway. The dissipate this huge
energy of water and reduce the large scale of the scouring the structural
arrangement is made is called as energy dissipiators.
Hydraulic jump:- is the jump of water that takes place when a super-
critical flow changes into a sub-critical flow.
Tail water level:- Water located immediately downstream from a hydraulic

structure, such as dam.
Depending upon the relative position of TWC and jump height curve
energy dissipation arrangement can be provided below the spillway as
follow
A. Tail water curve coincides with jump height curve at all discharges
- This is most critical condition for jump formation.
- The hydraulic jump will form at the toe of jump formation.
B. Tail water curve lies above jump height curve at all discharge
- In this case jump height curve is always below tail water.
- Little energy will dissipated.
C. Tail water curve lies below the jump height curve at all discharges
- If the tail water is very low
D. Tail water curve lies above or below the jump height curve, depending
upon the discharge.
Q. 209) The ordinate of the Instantaneous Unit
Hydrograph (IUH) of a catchment at any time t, is
A. The slope of the 1-hour unit hydrograph at that time

B. The slope of the direct runoff unit hydrograph at that time
C. Difference in the slope of the S-curve and 1-hour unit
hydrograph
D. The slope of the S-curve with effective rainfall intensity of
1cm/hour
Answer D
The limiting case of a unit hydrograph of zero duration is known

as instantaneous unit hydrograph (IUH).
The ordinate of IUH of a catchment at any time ‘t’ is the slope of
S-curve of with effective rainfall intensity 1 cm/hr.
Q. 210) The leaching requirement of a soil is 10%. If the
consumptive use requirement of the crop is 90 mm, then
the depth of water required to be applied to the field is
A. 80 mm
B. 90 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 110 mm
Answer C
Leaching requirement
The total amount of water required to bring the soil salinity from
an initially high value down to an acceptable value in accordance
with the salt tolerance of the crops to be grown.
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(206 & 211 to 225)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 206) Rigid boundary canals, whose bed and banks are
made with non-erodibe materials, are in
A. True regime
B. Permanent regime
C. Final regime
Answer B
A channel is said to in regime, if there is neither silting nor scouring.
According to Lacey’s there may be three regime conditions
A. True regime:- A channel shall be in true regime if the following
conditions are satisfied
1. Discharge is constant, 2. Flow is uniform,
3. Silt charge is constant i.e. the amount of the silt is constant
4. Silt grade is constant i.e. the type and size of silt is always the same
5. Channel is flowing through a material which can be scoured as easily as
it can be deposited and is of the same grade as is transported.
But in practice, all these conditions can never be satisfied. And therefore
artificial channels can never be in “true regime” They can either be in
“initial regime” or “final regime”
B. Initial regime:-
1. Bed slope of a channel varies,
2. Cross-section or wetted perimeter remains unaffected.
C. Final regime:- All the variables such as perimeter, depth, slope etc. are
equally free to vary and achieve permanent stability, called final regime.
Permanent regime:- Rigid boundary canals, whose bed and banks are
made with non-erodibe materials.
Answer B
Siphon aqueduct:- The hydraulic structure in which irrigation canal is
passing over the drainage, but the drainage water cannot pass clearly
below the canal is known as siphon aqueduct.
In siphon aqueduct the H.F.L. of the drain is above the bed of the canal.
Canal siphon:- If two canals cross other and one of the canals is siphoned
under the other, then the hydraulic structure at crossing is called canal
siphon.
In canal siphon the F.S.L. of the canal is much above the bed level to the
drain.
Answer B
Q. 213) A 4-hour rainfall in a catchment of 250 km²
produces rainfall depths of 6.2 cm and 5.0 cm in successive
2-hour unit periods. Assuming the ∅ index of the soil to be
1.2 cm/hour, the run-off volume in ha-m will be
A. 16
B. 22
C. 1600
D. 2200
Answer C
Q. 214) A 3-hour unit hydrograph (UH) differs from a 6-
hour UH, for any catchment, in that
A. Both the time of rise and the peak ordinate for the former are
less than that for the latter
B. Both the time of rise and the peak ordinate for the former are
greater than that of the letter
C. The time of rise is less but the peak ordinate is greater for the
former as compared to that of the latter
D. The time of rise is greater but the peak ordinate is less for the
former as compared to that of the latter
Answer C
Q. 215) As per the recommendations of the ISI (NBS), the
shape of a lined canal is
A. Trapezoidal
B. Semicircular
C. Parabolic
D. Elliptic
Answer A
1. It is easier to build. As trapezoidal cross section does not need
vertical walls made of concrete and the lining can be easily done.
2. The trapezoidal section offers least frictional resistance.
3. It is easy to maintain.
Etc.
Answer C
Answer A
B. Drip irrigation is used for Sandy soil.
C. Consumptive water use is water removed from available

supplies without return to a water resource system (e.g., water
used in manufacturing, agriculture, and food preparation that is
not returned to a stream, river, or water treatment plant).
D. The Parshall flume is an economical and accurate way of

measuring the flow of water in open channels and non-full
pipes.
Q. 218) A tropical cyclone in the northern hemisphere is a
zone of
A. Low pressure with clockwise wind

B. Low pressure with anticlockwise wind
C. High pressure with clockwise wind
D. High pressure with anticlockwise wind
Answer B
A cyclone's center (often known in a mature tropical cyclone as

the eye), is the area of lowest atmospheric pressure in the region
because of the Coriolis effect, the wind flow around a large
cyclone is anticlockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and
clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
Q. 219) If one wants to be 90% sure that the design flood
in a dam project will not occur during the design life
period of 100 years, the recurrence interval for such a
flood would be
A. About 90 years
B. Equal to 100 years
C. About 110 years
D. Roughly 1000 years
Answer D
Q. 220) A channel designed by Lacey’s theory has a mean
velocity of one m/s. The silt factor is unity. The hydraulic
mean radius will be
A. 2.5 m
B. 2 m
C. 1 m
D. 0.5 m
Answer A
Lacey’s channel design procedure:-
1. Calculate the velocity from equation, V = (Qf²/140)1/6
Where, Q in cumecs, V in m/sec, f is silt factor, f = 1.76 √mr
where mr is mean particle diameter of silt in mm
2. Workout the hydraulic mean depth, R = 5/2(V²/f) = 5/2(1×1/1) = 2.5 m

Where, V in m/sec and R in metre
3. Computer area of channel section, A= Q/V
4. Compute wetted perimeter, P = 4.75 √Q
5. Knowing these value, the channel section is known and finally the bed slop S is
determined by the equation, S = f5/3/3340Q1/6
Q. 221) Which one of the following constitutes the basic
assumption of unit-hydrograph theory?
A. Non-linear response and time invariance

B. Non-linear time invariance and linear response
C. Linear response and linear time invariance
D. Time invariance and linear response
Answer D
Time Invariance and linear response are the two basic
assumptions of UH-theory.
Other assumptions are:-
1. Rainfall excess occurs uniformly over the basin.
2. The distribution of storm over the basin is uniform.
Q. 222) The following parameters relate to the design of weirs on
permeable foundations:
1. Scour depth
2. Exit gradient
3. Uplift pressure
4. Unbalanced head
Design of the downstream end pile of the weir depends upon
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer C
Design principles for weirs on permeable foundation:-
(i) To counteract uplift pressure it is necessary to provide suitable

thickness of the floor at different points.
(ii) The exit gradient can be kept within permissible limit by

providing suitable depth of the sheet pile at downstream end of
the floor.
Q. 223) Given that the base period is 100 days and the
duty of the canal is 1000 hectares per cumec, the depth of
water will be
A. 0.864 cm
B. 8.64 cm
C. 86.4 cm
D. 864 cm
Answer C
Duty is the area of land that can be irrigated with a unit volume of water
supplied across the base period.
Delta is the total depth of water required to raise a crop over a unit area.
Q. 224) A pumped storage plant is a
A. High head plant

B. Run-off river plant
C. Peak load plant
D. Base load plant
Answer C
The hydel plants can be classified according to their function as follows:
1. Runoff river plants (Low head scheme, head < 15 m):-
Which utilize the river flow having no pondage at its upstream. A weir or barrage
is constructed across the river.
2. Storage plants (Medium head scheme, head between 15 to 60 m) :-

Such a plant has a storage reservoir at its upstream. A dam is constructed across
the river and water is stored during the periods of excess supply.
3. Pumped storage plants:-

The scheme of a storage reservoir at a higher level, and a turbine-cum-pump
installation. The scheme is used to generate power only during the peak hours of
demand. During the peak demand, water flows from the reservoir to the turbine
and power is generated.
Answer C
If basin or catchment area contains more than one raingauges station,
the computation of average precipitation or rainfall may be done by the
following methods
🙏☺
Objective Questions
(226 to 240)
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Q. 226) Depth-Area-Duration curves of precipitation are
drwan as
A. Minimising envelopes through the appropriate data points
B. Maximizing envelopes through the appropriate data points
C. Best fit mean curves through the appropriate data points
D. Best fit mean straight lines through the appropriate data
points
Answer B
The maximum depth area curve for a
given duration D is prepared by assuming
the area distribution of rainfall for smaller
duration to be similar to the total storm.
The procedure is then repeated for
different storms and the envelope curve
of maximum depth area for duration D is
obtained. A similar procedure for various
values of D results in a family of envelope
curves of maximum depth vs area,
duration as the third parameter. These
curves are called DAD curves.
Answer C
Q. 228) The following four hydrological features have to be estimated or
taken as inputs before one can compute the flood hydrograph at any
catchment outlet:
1. Unit hydrograph
2. Rainfall hydrograph
3. Infiltration index
4. Base flow
The correct order in which they have to be employed in the computation
is
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2,1,4,3
C. 2,3,1,4
D. 4,1,3,2
Answer C
First determine the rainfall hydrograph

and then infiltration index. The
effective rainfall can be determined
from the rainfall hydrograph and
infiltration index. Now multiply the
ordinates of unit hydrograph by
effective rainfall. This will give direct
runoff hydrograph (DRH). Finally add
base flow to the DRH and flood
hydrograph can be obtained.
Answer C
Q. 230) The Standard Project Flood is
A. Derived from the probable maximum precipitation in

the region
B. Derived from the severemost metrological conditions
anywhere in the country
C. The flood with return period of 1000 years
D. The same as the probable maximum flood
Answer B*
The flood that would result from a severe combination of
meteorological and hydrological factors that are reasonably
applicable to the region. Extremely rare combinations of factors
are excluded.
Answer B
A. Canal fall or drop is an irrigation
structure constructed across a
canal to lower down its bed level
to maintain the designed slope.
B. Canal Escape:- It is a side channel constructed to remove surplus water from

an irrigation channel (main canal, branch canal, or distributary etc.)
C. A cross regulator is a structure constructed across a canal to regulate the

water level in the canal upstream of itself.
D. A canal outlet or a module is a small structure built at the head of the water
course so as to connect it with a minor or a distributary channel. It acts as a
connecting link between the system manager and the farmers.
Q. 232) For medium silt whose average grain size is 0.16
mm, Lacey’s silt factor is likely to be
A. 0.30
B. 0.45
C. 0.70
D. 1.32
Answer C
Answer A
Q. 234) Mean precipitation over an area is best obtained
from gauged amounts by
A. Arithmetic mean method

B. Thiessen method
C. Linearly interpolated ishoyetal method
D. Orographically weighted ishoyetal method.
Answer D
Isohyets are contours of equal rainfall.

The orographically weighted isohyets are prepared by tracing
paper for mountainous areas and therefore they are more
accurate than linearly interpolated isohyets.
Q. 235) The following steps are involved in arriving at a unit hydrograph:
1. Estimating the surface runoff in depth
2. Estimating the surface runoff in volume
3. Separation of base flow
4. Dividing surface runoff ordinates by depth of runoff.
The correct sequence of these steps is:
A. 3,2,1,4
B. 2,3,4,1
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 4,3,2,1
Answer A
1. Separate the baseflow from the observed streamflow hydrograph in
order to obtain the Direct Runoff Hydrograph (DRH).
2. Compute the volume of Direct Runoff (VDRH).
3. Surface runoff in depth = VDRH/Abasin
4. Obtain a Unit Hydrograph by normalizing the DRH.
5. Normalizing implies dividing the ordinates of the DRH by the Surface

runoff in depth.
Q. 236) Probability of a 10-year flood to occur at least
once in the next 4 years is
A. 25%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 65%
Answer B
Q. 237) The following data were recorded from an irrigated field:
1. Field capacity:20%
2. Permanent wilting point:10%
3. Permissible depletion of available soil moisture:50%
4. Dry unit weight of soil:1500kgf/m³
5. Effective rainfall:25mm
Based on these data, the net irrigation requirement per metre depth of
soil will be
A. 75 mm
B. 125 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 25 mm
Answer C
Field Capacity:- The maximum quantity of water which a soil can retain
against the force of gravity is known as field capacity.
The quantity of water greater than the field capacity simply passes away.
Permanent wilting Point:- is the moisture content at which the moisture is

no longer available in sufficient quantity so that the plants can sustain.
Even though the soil contains some moisture but it was so held by the
soil that roots of plants cannot uptake it and results in wilting of plant.
Available water:- The difference between two moisture contents ( field

capacity and permanent wilting point ) is known as available water.
It is the moisture content which is available for plants.
Q. 238) Depth-area-duration curves would seem to resemble
A. Arcs of a circle concave upwards with duration increasing

outward
B. First quadrant limbs of hyperbolae with duration increasing
outward
C. Third quadrant limbs of hyperbolae with duration decreasing
outward
D. First quadrant limbs of hyperbolae with duration decreasing
outward
Answer A
Q. 239) The spacing of tile drains to relieve waterlogged
land is directly proportional to the
A. Depth of drain below the ground surface

B. Depth of impervious strata from the drain
C. Depth of drain below the water level
D. Coefficient of permeability of the soil to be drained
Answer D
Tile drainage is a type of drainage system that removes excess

water from soil below its surface.
The spacing of tile drains to relieve waterlogged land is directly
proportional to the coefficient of permeability of the soil.
Q. 240) The maximum permissible suction lift for
centrifugal pump in practice (at sea level and at 30°C) is
A. 12 m
B. 10 m
C. 6 m
D. 3 m
Answer C
🙏☺
(241 to 248 END)
LAST PART
Irrigation
&
Hydrology
Answer A
Q. 242) In a flow mass curve study, the demand line drawn
from a ridge does not intersect the mass curve again. This
implies that
A. The reservoir is not full at the beginning

B. The storage is not adequate
C. The demand cannot be met by the inflow as the
reservoir will not refill
D. The reservoir is wasting water by spill
Answer C
Mass Curve:- It is a plot of cumulative volume of water that can be stored
from a stream flow versus time in days, weeks or months.
Answer D
Q. 244) Consider the following statements:
1. A 100-year flood discharge is greater than a 50-year flood
discharge.
2. 90% dependable flow is greater than 50% dependable flow.
3. Evaporation from salt-water surface is less than that from
fresh-water surface.
Which of these statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer D
Evaporation from salt-water surface is less than that from fresh-

water surface because vapour pressure of salt-water is less than
that of fresh-water.
Q. 245) If a 4-hour unit hydrograph of a certain basin has a
peak ordinate of 80m³/sec, the peak ordinate of a 2-hour
unit hydrograph for the same basin will be
A. Equal to 80m³/sec
B. Greater than 80m³/sec
C. Less than 80m³/sec
D. Between 40m³/sec to 80m³/sec
Answer B
With the reduction of unit hydrograph duration, 1 cm excess

rainfall will occur in reduced period. So peak ordinate of UH will
increase and time base will decrease. Thus the peak ordinate of
2 hr UH will be greater than 80 m³/s
Answer C
Q 247) A culvert is design for a peak flow Qp on the basis
of rational formula. If a storm of the same intensity as
used in the design and twice the duration occurs, then the
resulting peak discharge will be
A. Qp
B. Qp/2
C. √2Qp
D. 2Qp
Answer A
Answer A
THE END
🙏☺

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SSC-JE, AE(PSC), RRB etc.

Boarder flooding: - The land is divided into a number of strips,

A. Low salinity water

The first watering is known as kor watering and the depth

The kor depth for rice is 190 mm.

A. Low sodium water

Duty (D) : - duty is defined as the area of land expressed in

Delta (Δ) : - Delta is the total depth of water required by a crop

Base Period (B) : - when irrigation water is first issued for

equating equations (1) and (2), we get

A. At the head of water course

A. Water conveyance efficiency

In general, efficiency is the ratio of the water output to input.

1. Water conveyance efficiency: - Ratio of Water delivered to

2. Water application efficiency: - Ratio of water stored in root

3. Water use efficiency: - Ratio of water used consumptively to

Water present in the soil may classified

2. Capillary water: - Excess of hygroscopic water which

3. Gravity water: - Excess of hygroscopic and capillary

Evapotranspiration rate is the amount of water that is lost to the

1. If the soil moisture is only slightly more than the wilting

A. Runoff and time

2. Interflow or sub surface runoff: - A portion of precipitation infiltrates

3. Ground water flow or base flow: - It is that portion of precipitation,

A. More than the infiltration capacity

Infiltration: - Water moving through a soil surface.

Infiltration rate: - That rate at which infiltration occurs, measured

Infiltration capacity: -Maximum rate at which infiltration will

Soil moisture deficiency:-

The amount of water the soil can hold is generally called

A. Movement of water through the soil

A. Equal to rate of rainfall

1. Cyclonic precipitation: - lifting of air masses converging into low

2. Convective precipitation: - Temperature difference may result from

3. Orographic precipitation: - Due to natural topographical barriers such

A. Tipping bucket type raingauge

Raingauge:- A device for collecting and measuring the amount of

1. Non recording raingauge: -

A. Near the building

Selection the site for a raingauge station.

1. The site where a raingauge is setup should be an open place.

2. Distance between the raingauge and nearest object should be at least

4. In The Hills situated where wind does not cause eddies.

5. Protect the gauge from cattle etc.

A. Tipping bucket type

The correct answer is

Factors affecting the evaporation are

A. Rain excess of 30%

A. Flat water surface

Reason R: Rainfall gradient system

Select your correct answer according to the coding system given

A. Much more than evapotranspiration

Transpiration:- Is the process of water being lost from the leaves

Evapotranspiration = Evaporation + Transpiration

Potential evapotranspiration (PET):- Is defined as the amount

The coefficient of variation represents the ratio of the

It is a useful for comparing the degree of variation from

Runoff would be expressed in the same units as stream

A. Increase in intensity of rain