1.

The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent assembly set up in

(a) July 1948 (b) July 1950 (c) July 1946 (d) August 1947

2. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian
Constitution?

(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Tej Bahadur Sapru (c) C. Rajagopalachari (d) B. R. Ambedkar

3. The Constituent assembly which framed the Constitution for Independent India was set up in

(a) 1945 (b) 1946 (c) 1947 (d) 1949

4. Who among the following was a member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946?

(a) Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) K. M. Munshi (d) Abdul Kalam Azad

5. What is the special Constitutional position of Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) Indian laws are not applicable (b) It has its own Constitution (c) It is not one of the integral parts
of Indian Union (d) None of these

6. The idea of the Constitution of India was fi rst of all given by

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) M. N. Roy

7. The Indian Constitution was enforced on

(a) 30 January 1950 (b) 26 January 1950 (c) 15 August 1947 (d) 26 November 1949

8. The Constitution of India was adopted by the

(a) Governor General (b) British Parliament (c) Constituent Assembly (d) Parliament of India

9. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to fi nally pass the constitution?

(a) about 6 months in 1949 (b) exactly a year since 26 November 1948 (c) about 2 years since 15
August 1947 (d) about 3 years since 9 December 1946
10. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Rajendra Prasad (c) B. R. Ambedkar (d) C. Rajagopalachari

11. India became a sovereign, democratic republic on

(a) 15 August 1947 (b) 30 January 1948 (c) 26 January 1950 (d) 26 November 1929

12. The Constitution names our country as

(a) Bharat (b) India, that is Bharat (c) Hindustan (d) Aryavarta

13. A constitution is

(a) a set of ordinary laws (b) a set of offi cial laws (c) a set of fi nancial laws (d) the basic structure
defi ning the powers of the state and the rights and duties of the citizens

14. Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution? (a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Vallabhbhai Patel

15. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) B. N. Rau (d) Mahatma Gandhi 16. When did the fi rst
linguistic state of Andhra come into existence? (a) 2 October 1953 (b) 1 October 1953 (c) 1 April
1953 (d) 5 January 1953

17. Who was the fi rst speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) Malgaonkar (b) P. Upendra (c) Anantha
Sayanam Ayyanagar (d) Hukam Singh

18. The state of Bombay was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat on 1 May in the year

(a) 1958 (b) 1959 (c) 1962 (d) 1960

19. Which of the following Union Territories attained statehood in February 1987?

(a) Goa (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Pondicherry (d) Daman and Diu
20. The 25th Indian state to achieve statehood was

(a) Goa (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Mizoram (d) Sikkim

21. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India fi rst met on

(a) 6 December 1946 (b) 9 December 1946 (c) 20 February 1947 (d) 3 June 1947

22. The fi rst state to become bifurcated after independence was

(a) Bengal (b) Bombay (c) Punjab (d) Assam

23. When the Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India reassembled on 31 October 1947 its
reduced membership was

(a) 299 (b) 311 (c) 319 (d) 331

24. For the philosophy underlying our Constitution, the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ was moved in
the Constituent Assembly on 22 January 1947 by

(a) Dr B. R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr Rajendra Prasad (d) Dr S. Radhakrishnan

25. The Indian Constitution closely follows the Constitutional system of

(a) USA (b) UK (c) Switzerland (d) USSR

26. India opted for a federal form of government because of

(a) vast territory (b) cultural integration (c) linguistic and regional diversity (d) administrative
convenience

27. Which of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?

(a) A written and rigid Constitution (b) An independent Judiciary c) Vesting of residuary powers with
the Centre (d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and States

28. The concept of welfare state is included in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Preamble of the Constitution (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) 4th Schedule of the Constitution

29. Secularism means

(a) Suppression of all religions (b) Freedom of worship to minorities (c) Separation of religion from
State (d) A system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faith

30. Which of the following words were added to the ‘Preamble to the Constitution’ through the
42nd amendment? (a) Sovereign (b) Socialist (c) Secular (d) Democratic

31. The Constitution of India borrowed the Parliamentary system of Government from

(a) United Kingdom (b) France (c) Switzerland (d) USA

32. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government?

(a) Executive is responsible to Judiciary (b) Executive is responsible to Legislature (c) Judiciary is
responsible to Executive (d) Legislature is responsible to Executive is responsible is responsible to
Executive

33. The Indian Constitution is regarded as

(a) Federal (b) Unitary (c) Parliamentary (d) Federal in form and Unitary in spirit

34. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of

(a) USA (b) Canada (c) Ireland (d) UK

35. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by

(a) Preamble (b) Directive Principle (c) Seventh Schedule (d) Judicial decision

36. The word ‘Economic Justice’ is found in

(a) Preamble (b) Preamble, Fundamental Rights (c) Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive
Principles (d) Preamble, Directive Principles

37. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution reads

(a) We, the people of India….adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution

(b) We, the people of Constituent Assembly…. adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution

(c) We, the citizens of India….adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution

(d) We, the people of India….in our Constituent Assembly…adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
constitution

38. The part of the constitution that refl ects the mind and ideals of the framers is

(a) Directive Principles (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Preamble (d) Citizenship

39. The insertion of ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was derived from (a) American revolution (b)
French revolution (c) Russian revolution (d) None of these

40. The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is

(a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic (b) Sovereign, Democratic republic (c) Sovereign,
Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic (d) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy

41. The source of India’s Sovereignty lies in the

(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) People of India (d) Preamble to the Constitution

42. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?

(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Ninth Schedule (c) Directive Principles (d) Preamble to the Constitution

43. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Presidential Government (b) Parliamentary Government (c) Federal Government (d)
Independence of the Judiciary

44. Which of the following is not a salient feature of our Constitution?

(a) A Parliamentary form of government (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic (c) Contains Directive
Principles of State Policy (d) A federal policy akin to the American model

45. In a parliament form of government, the real powers of the state are vested in the

(a) Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister (b) President (c) Government (d) Parliament

46. India is a democratic republic, because

(a) there is independence of the judiciary (b) the Head of the state is elected by the people (c) there
is a distribution of powers between the Centre and the States (d) there is a Parliamentary supremacy

47. The Constitution of India

(a) does not provide the Judicial Review (b) provides for Judicial Review on US pattern (c) provides
for Judicial Review with a limited scope (d) provides for Judicial Review as its integral part

48. The Preamble of our Constitution

(a) is a part of the Constitution (b) contains the spirit of the Constitution (c) is a limitation upon the
granted power (d) none of these

49. Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?

(a) Secularism (b) Socialism (c) Democratic Republic (d) Federalism

50. Which of the following Fundamental rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?

(a) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment

(b) Freedom of movement, residence and profession

(c) Protection from discrimination ongrounds of only religion, race, caste or sex

(d) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law

51. Which article says that there should be a President?

(a) Article 54 (b) Article 53 (c) Article 52 (d) Article 51

52. Who administers oath to the President?

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Vice-President (c) Prime Minister (d) Chief Justice of India

53. What is the salary of President?

(a) 45,000

(b) 50,000

(c) 30,000

(d) 1,50,000

54. Who holds the offi ce in the absence of President?

(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Prime Minister (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Vice President

55. In which house of the Parliament can the proceedings of impeachment of President be initiated?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (d) Either in Lok Sabha or in Rajya
Sabha

56. Who appoints the Attorney General of India?

(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Prime Minister (c) President (d) Vice-President

57. Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? (a) President (b) Vice-President (c)
Prime Minister (d) Chief Justice of India

58. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India? (a) President (b) Vice-President (c)
Prime Minister (d) Chief Justice of India

59. Who appoints the other Election Commissioners of India?

(a) President (b) Vice-President(c) Prime Minister (d) Chief Justice of India

60. Who appoints the Chairman of UPSC of India?

(a) President (b) Vice-President (c) Prime Minister (d) Chief Justice of India

61. Under which Article can the President declare National Emergency?

(a) Article 352 (b) Article 360 (c) Article 350 (d) Article 356

62. Under which Article can the President declare State Emergency?

(a) Article 352 (b) Article 360 (c) Article 350 (d) Article 356

63. Under which Article can the President declare Financial Emergency?

(a) Article 352 (b) Article 360 (c) Article 350 (d) Article 356

64. How many times has the National Emergency been declared in our country?

(a) Once (b) Thrice (c) More than 100 times (d) Not even once

65. How many times has the Financial Emergency been declared in our country? (a) Once (b) Thrice
(c) More than 100 times (d) Not even once

66. Which Article describes about the impeachment of President?

(a) Article 53 (b) Article 52 (c) Article 60 (d) Article 61

67. If both the President and Vice-President are not available, who performs the duties of the
President? (a) Chief Justice of India (b) Supreme Court Judge (c) Prime Minister (d) Governor

68. How many times has the Chief Justice of India performed the duties of President?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Not even once

69. Which Chief Justice of India has performed the duties of President? (a) Justice V. N. Khare (b)
Justice M. M. Punchi (c) Justice S. P. Barucha (d) Justice M. Hidaytullah

70. Which President of India was elected unopposed?

(a) N. S. Reddy (b) K. R. Narayanan (c) R. Venkataraman (d) S. D. Sharma

71. What is the salary of Vice-President of India?

(a) Rs 45,000 (b) Rs 30,000 (c) Rs 50,000 (d) Rs 1,25,000

72. Which Article says that there should be a Vice-President?

(a) Article 63 (b) Article 62 (c) Article 60 (d) Article 61

73. Which Article says that there should be a Governor? (a) Article 163 (b) Article 153 (c) Article 160
(d) Article 161

74. What is the salary of Governor of a State?

(a) Rs 45,000 (b) Rs 30,000 (c) Rs 1,10,000 (d) Rs 80,000

75. What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of the Parliament?

(a) One tenth of the total members of the House (b) One eighth of the total members of the House
(c) One fourth of the total members of the House (d) One sixth of the total members of the House

76. Chandigarh comes under which High Court?

(a) Punjab and Haryana (b) Haryana (c) Chandigarh (d) Punjab

77. Who administers oath to the Governor?

(a) President (b) Chief Minister (c) Chief Justice of India (d) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

78. Who appoints the Advocate General?

(a) President (b) Governor (c) Chief Minister (d) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

79. Who appoints the Chairman of State Public Service Commission?

(a) President (b) Governor (c) Chief Ministerd d) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

80. Which Union Territory has a representation in the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Lakshdweep (b) Delhi (c) Chandigarh (d) Andaman and Nicobar

81. Does the Governor have the powers to give pardon for the death sentence?

(a) Yes (b) No (c) With the advice of the President (d) With the advice of the Chief Minister of the
state concerned

82. How many members in the Rajya Sabha are nominated?

(a) 12 members (b) 10 members (c) 2 members (d) no member is nominated

83. Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning Commission?

(a) Planning Minister (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President

84. Who is the chairman of National Integration Council?

(a) Finance Minister (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President

85. Who is the chairman of Inter-State Council?

(a) Planning Minister (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President

86. Who is known as the keystone of the Cabinet arch?

(a) Planning Minister (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President

87. Who is known as Primus-Inter Pares?

(a) Planning Minister (b) President (c) Prime Minister (d) Vice-President

88. How many finance commissions have been constituted till now?

(a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 11

89. Which organ of the Constitution is known as the ‘Fifth wheel of the Coach’?

(a) Planning Commission (b) Finance Commission (c) Public Service Commission (d) None of the
above

90. By which constitutional amendment Panchayati Raj was introduced?

(a) 74th (b) 73rd (c) 42nd (d) 44th

91. From which country’s Constitution the Right to Equality have been borrowed?

(a) Irish (b) Canada (c) British (d) US

92. From which country’s Constitution the Judicial Review have been borrowed?

(a) Irish (b) Canada (c) British (d) US

93. Which Article defi nes Equality before law and equal protection of law?

(a) Article 16 (b) Article 14 (c) Article 20 (d) Article 21

94. Which Articles defi nes Protection of life and Personal liberty?

(a) Article 16 (b) Article 14 (c) Article 20 (d) Article 21

95. Which Article defines Judicial Review?

(a) Article 16 (b) Article 13 (c) Article 20 (d) Article 21 96. Which Article defines Protection in respect
of conviction for offences? (a) Article 16 (b) Article 14 (c) Article 20 (d) Article 21

97. Which Article defines Prohibition of discrimination only on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth?

(a) Article 16 (b) Article 14 (c) Article 15 (d) Article 21

98. What are the Articles which defines Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 36 to 51 (b) 36 to 51-A (c) 39 to 51 (d) 39 to 51-A

99. Which Article says for Uniform Civil Code?

(a) Article 43 (b) Article 40 (c) Article 44 (d) Article 45 100. Which part of Constitution defines
Fundamental Duties? (a) Part I (b) Part II (c) Part IV (d) Part IV-A

101. The Preamble of our Constitution includes all except

(a) Adult franchise (b) Equality of status(c) Fraternity (d) Justice

102. Protection of the interests of the minority is envisaged in which of the following articles?

(a) 14 (b) 19 (c) 29 (d) 32

103. The Fundamental Right that aims at the abolition of social distinctions is the right (a) to
property (b) against exploitation (c) to equality (d) to freedom

104. On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights?

(a) Parliament (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) State Legislature

105. In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientifi c temper, humanisms and
spirit of inquiry and reform are found in
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Preamble (c) Fundamental Duties (d) Directive Principles

106. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational Rights granted?

(a) Article 29 and 31 (b) Article 29 and 32 (c) Article 29 and 30 (d) Article 30 and 31

107. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy?

(a) To raise the level of nutrition (b) To develop the scientific temper (c) To promote economic
interests of weaker sections (d) To separate the Judiciary from the Executive

108. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(a) Right to Equality (b) Right against Exploitation (c) Right to Property (d) Right to Freedom of
Religion

109. Which part of the constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) Part III (b) Part IV (c) Part V (d) Part II

110. Protection and interests of the minorities is envisaged in which Article of the Constitution?

(a) Article 14 (b) Article 19 (c) Article 29 (d) Article 32

111. Which of the following is not specifi cally mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitution?

(a) Freedom of speech and expression (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (c) Freedom
to move freely (d) Freedom to the press

112. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under

(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Legal rights (c) Constitutional Rights (d) Natural Rights

113. Right to Property was removed from the last of Fundamental Rights by which amendment?

(a) 14th (b) 42nd (c) 39th (d) 44th

114. Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women (b) Uniform civil code for all citizens (c)
Separation of Judiciary from Executive (d) Promotion of cottage industries

115. Which of the following is Fundamental duty of an Indian citizen?

(a) To cast his vote during election (b) To develop scientifi c temper and spirit of inquiry (c) To work
for removal of illiteracy (d) To honour the elected leaders.

116. Untouchability is associated with

(a) Social inequality (b) Political inequality (c) Economic inequality (d) Religious inequality

117. Which of the following is a right against exploitation?

(a) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion. (b) Protection in respect of conviction for
offences. (c) Prohibition of employment of children in factories and hazardous employment. (d)
Protection of language, script or culture of minorities.

118. The prohibition of traffi c in human beings and ‘beggar’ comes under

a) Article 22 (b) Article 23 (c) Article 24 (d) Article 25

119. The Right to Property is a

(a) Legal Right (b) Fundamental Right (c) Free Right (d) Universal Right

120. Every person who is arrested or detained is required to be produced before the nearest
magistrate within a period of

(a) 24 hours including the time necessary for journey (b) 48 hours including the time necessary for
journey (c) 72 hours including the time necessary for journey (d) None of these

121. If the person is refused freedom of movement, it means denial of

(a) Civil Liberty (b) Economic Liberty (c) National Liberty (d) Political Liberty
122. Which one of the following fundamental rights has been described by Dr Ambedkar as the
‘heart and soul of the Constitution’? (a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Constitution Remedies (c) Right
to Freedom (d) Right against Exploitation

123. In Indian Constitution, there is no provision for

(a) Religious Rights (b) Political and Social Rights (c) Education Rights (d) Economic Rights

124. Chapter III on the Fundamental Rights contains twenty-four articles from

(a) Article 12 to 35 (b) Article 14 to 37 (c) Article 10 to 33 (d) Article 16 to 19

125. What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine?

(a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 16 years (d) 18 years

126. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(a) Right to strike (b) Right against exploitation (c) Right to equality (d) Right to freedom of religion

127. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc., (Article 15 of the Constitution of India)
is a Fundamental right classifi able under

(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion

(b) the Right against exploitation

(c) the Cultural and Education Rights

(d) the Right to Equality

128. The total number of Fundamental duties mentioned in the Constitution is

(a) 9
(b) 10

(c) 110

(d) 12

129. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution in

(a) 1971

(b) 1972

(c) 1975

(d) 1976

130. Which state government has prohibited use of the word ‘Harijan’ and replaced it with
‘Anusuchit Jati’ in offi cial work?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Jammu and Kashmir

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Uttar Pradesh

131. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented

(a) in the Supreme Court only

(b) in the High Court only

(c) either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court

(d) fi rst in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court

132. Which of the following signifi es an important distinction between fundamental Rights and
Directive Principles?

(a) While the former are rights of citizens, the latter are duties of the state.

(b) While the former relate largely to civic aspects, the latter relate to socioeconomic and
international aspects.

(c) While the former relate to the present, the latter are not so timebound.
(d) While the former are judicially enforceable the latter are not so enforceable.

133. Article 17 of the Constitution

(a) protects individual freedom

(b) grants right to equality

(c) abolishes untouchability

(d) grants right to Constitutional remedies

134. Contempt of Court places restriction on which fundamental Right?

(a) Right to Freedom

(b) Right against exploitation

(c) Right to Equality

(d) Right to constitutional Remedies

135. The writ of Prohibition is issued by the

Supreme court or a High Court against

(a) judicial or quasi judicial authorities

(b) administrative and judicial authorities

(c) administrative authorities and private individuals

(d) administrative authorities and government

136. Total number of members in a Legislative Council should not exceed that of a Legislative
Assembly by

(a) 1/3

(b) 2/3

(c) ½

(d) 1/4
137. For those Union Territories, which have no Legislative Councils of their own, laws are passed by

(a) Union Ministry

(b) President

(c) Parliament

(d) Appointed Administrator

138. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Constitutional amendment

(c) President

(d) None of these

139. The first woman fi lm star nominated/elected to the Rajya Sabha was

(a) Nargis Dutt

(b) Vyjayanthimala

(c) Hema Malini

(d) Jayalalitha

140. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Money Bills

(b) Bills pertaining to the removal of the President by impeachment

(c) Bills bringing a state under the President’s Rule

(d) Bills pertaining to the powers of the Supreme Court or State Judiciary

141. Which of the following best defines the Parliamentary term ‘Crossing the Floor’?

(a) Leaving the opposition to join the party in power or vice versa by a Parliamentarian
(b) An attempt to occupy the seat of some other Parliamentarian

(c) Leaving a House by minister in between in order to attend the other House

(d) Walk out by some Parliamentarians in order to boycott the proceedings of the House

142. An ordinance promulgated by the President

(a) will lapse automatically after 2 Months

(b) will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks from the meeting of the Parliament

(c) will automatically become a law after 6 months

(d) will continue to be in force till it is superseded by an Act of the Parliament

143. The President can promulgate an ordinance

(a) when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved

(b) when there is confl ict between the two Houses regarding a particular bill

(c) when a bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not passed by the Rajya Sabha

(d) when both the Houses of the Parliament are not in session

144. If the Minister of a State wants to resign, to whom should he address the letter of resignation?

(a) Chief Minister

(b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha

(c) Governor of the State

(d) Leader of his political party

145. To which of the following Bills, the President must accord his sanction without sending it back
for fresh consideration?

(a) Ordinary Bills

(b) Finance Bills

(c) Bills passed by both the Houses of the Parliament

(d) Bill seeking Amendment to the Constitution.

146. In the case of a confl ict between the Centre and State in respect of a subject included in the
Concurrent List

(a) the State Law prevails

(b) the Union Law prevails

(c) the matter is resolved by the Supreme Court

(d) the law which had been passed fi rst would prevail

147. Who is the highest Law Offi cer of a state?

(a) Attorney General

(b) Advocate General

(c) Solicitor General

(d) Secretary General Law Department

148. What is ‘zero hour’?

(a) When the proposals of the opposition are considered

(b) when matters of utmost importance are raised

(c) interval between the morning and afternoon sessions

(d) when a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha

149. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed by a resolution

(a) passed by 2/3rd majority of its total members present

(b) passed by a simple majority of its total members present

(c) moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok Sabha

(d) none of these

150. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively is

(a) 552 and 250

(b) 525 and 238

(c) 537 and 275

(d) 545 and 250

ANSWERS

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b) 31.
(a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a)
46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60.
(a) 61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (c)
75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (b) 81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89.
(a) 90. (b) 91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (c) 100. (d) 101. (a) 102. (c)
103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (c) 111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (d) 114. (d)
115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (a) 121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (b) 126. (a)
127. (d) 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (d) 131. (c) 132. (d) 133. (c) 134. (a) 135. (b) 136. (a) 137. (c) 138. (d)
139. (a) 140. (a) 141. (a) 142. (b) 143. (d) 144. (c) 145. (b) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (a)