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AT – Quizzer 8
Establishment of Materiality and Risk Assessment”

1. In planning an engagement, the internal auditor should establish objectives and procedures to
address the risk associated with the activity. Risk is defined as
a. The possibility that the balance or class of transactions and related assertions contains
misstatements that could be material to the financial statements
b. The uncertainty of the occurrence of an event that could affect the achievement of objectives
c. The failure to adhere to organizational policies, plans and procedures or to comply with
relevant laws and regulations
d. The failure to accomplish established objectives and goals for operations or programs

2. The reliance placed on substantive tests in relation to the reliance placed on internal control
varies in a relationship that is ordinarily
a. Parallel
b. Inverse
c. Direct
d. Equal

3. After performing a study and evaluation of the client’s system of internal control an auditor has
concluded that the system is well designed and is functioning as anticipated. Under these
circumstances the audit would most likely
a. Cease to perform further substantive tests
b. Not increase the extent of predetermined substantive tests
c. Increase the extent of an anticipated analytical review procedures
d. Perform all compliance tests to the extent outlined in the preplanned audit program

4. With respect to the auditor’s planning of a year-end examination, which of the following
statements is always true?
a. An engagement should not be accepted after the fiscal year ends
b. An inventory count must be observed at the balance sheet date
c. The client’s audit committee should not be told of the specific audit procedures which will be
performed
d. It is an acceptable practice to carry out substantial parts of the examination at interim dates

5. At interim dates, an auditor evaluates a client’s internal accounting control procedures and finds
them to be effective. The auditor performs a substantial part of the audit engagement in a
continuous basis throughout the year. At a minimum, the auditor’s year-end audit procedures
must include
a. Determination that the client’s internal accounting control procedures are still effective at year-
end
b. Confirmation of those year-end accounts that were examined at interim dates
c. Tests of compliance with internal control in the same manner as those tests made at the
interim dates
d. Comparison of the responses to the auditor’s internal control questionnaire with a detailed
flowchart at year-end

6. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. Materiality is relative rather than an absolute concept
b. Normally, the most important base used as the criterion for deciding materiality is Net Income
c. Qualitative factors as well as quantitative factors affect materiality
d. Given equal peso amounts, irregularities are usually considered more important than errors
AT Quizzer 8 ”Planning and Risk Assessment” 2

7. Regardless of how the allocation of the preliminary judgment about materiality was done, when
the audit is completed the auditor must be confident that the combined errors in all accounts are
a. Less than the preliminary judgment
b. Equal to the preliminary judgment
c. More than the preliminary judgment
d. Less than or equal to the preliminary judgment

8. Which of the following statements about the cycle approach to auditing is not correct?
a. There are differences among cycles in the frequency and size of expected errors
b. There are differences among cycles in the effectiveness of the internal control structure
c. There are differences among cycles on the auditor’s willingness that material errors exist after
auditing is completed
d. It is common for auditors to want an equally low likelihood of errors for each cycle after the
auditor is finished

9. When a different extent of evidence is needed for various cycles, the difference is caused by
a. Errors in the client’s accounting system
b. Client’s need to achieve an unqualified opinion
c. The auditor’s need to follow PSAs.
d. The auditor’s expectations of errors and assessment of the control structure

10. Which one of the following factors is not a good indicator of potential financial failure?
a. Client is constantly short of cash and working capital
b. Client’s retained earnings were reduced by half as a result of a large dividend payout
c. Client relies heavily on debt financing, especially by financing permanent assets with short-
term loans
d. Client has had increasing net losses for several years

11. Which of the following is not a consideration when auditor is attempting to assess the inherent
risk?
a. Nature of the client’s business
b. Existence of related parties
c. Frequency and intensity of top management’s review of the accounting transactions and
records
d. Susceptibility to defalcation

12. Which of the following discoveries by the auditor would not raise the red flag of increased inherent
risk?
a. Management bonuses are based on percentage of net income
b. A bond indenture requires a current ratio of at least three to one
c. Client makes extensive use of notes receivable and notes payable rather than buying and
selling an open account
d. Client is a parent company subsidiary

13. The auditor sets both control risk and inherent risk. On a typical engagement, the author would
not set both of these for
a. The overall audit
b. Each cycle
c. Each account
d. Each objective

14. After obtaining and understanding of an entity’s internal control structure and assessing control
risk, an auditor may next
a. Perform tests of controls to verify management’s assertions that are embodied in the financial
statements
b. Consider whether evidential matter is available to support a further reduction in the assessed
level of control risk
c. Apply analytical procedures as substantive tests to validate the assessed level of control risk
d. Evaluate whether the internal control structure policies and procedures detected material
misstatements in the financial statements

15. When conducting an audit that arouse suspicion of fraud should be given greater attention than
other errors. This is an example of applying the criterion of
a. Reliability of evidence
b. Materiality
c. Risk
d. Dual-purpose testing
AT Quizzer 8 ”Planning and Risk Assessment” 3

16. The audit risk against which the auditor requires reasonable protection is a combination of two
separate risks. The first of these is that material errors will occur in the accounting process by
which the financial statements are developed, and the second is that
a. A company’s system of internal control is not adequate to detect errors and irregularities
b. Those errors that occur will not be detected in the auditor’s examination
c. Management may possess an attitude that lacks integrity
d. Evidential matter is not competent enough for the auditor to form an opinion based on
reasonable assurance

17. Which of the following procedures is not performed as part of planning an audit engagement?
a. Reviewing the working papers of the prior year
b. Performing analytical procedures
c. Tests of controls
d. Designing an audit program

18. Which of the following is not generally considered a financial statement audit risk factor?
a. Top management dominates management operating and financing decisions
b. A new client with no prior audit history
c. Rate of change in the entity’s industry is rapid
d. Profitability of the entity relative to its industry is inconsistent

19. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the auditor’s determination of materiality?
a. The planning level of materiality will normally be the larger of the amount considered for the
balance sheet vs. the income statement
b. The auditor’s planning level of materiality may be disaggregated into smaller “tolerable
misstatements” for the various accounts
c. Auditors may use various rules of thumb to arrive at an evaluation level of materiality, but not
for determining the planning level of materiality
d. The amount used for the planning will equal that used for evaluation

20. The system approach to an audit is least likely to be appropriate for

a. Clients with weak internal control
b. Clients that is large in size
c. Clients in specialized industries
d. Clients that are publicly held

21. Which of the following income statements is least likely to be verified in conjunction with the audit
of a balance sheet account?
a. Depreciation expense
b. Interest revenue
c. Travel and entertainment
d. Uncollectible accounts expense

22. Materiality should be considered by the auditor when

a. Determining the nature, timing and extent of auditor’s procedures
b. Evaluating the effect of misstatements
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

23. The type of transactions that ordinarily have a high inherent risk because they involve
management judgments or assumptions are referred to as
a. estimation transactions
b. non-routine transactions
c. routine transactions
d. related-party transactions

24. Which of the following descriptions best describes inherent risk?

a. Auditors fail to discover a material misstatement in the course of their audit and do not modify
their audit opinion
b. A company’s internal control fails to identify a material misstatements in a timely fashion
c. Auditing procedures fail to find a material misstatement
d. The possibility that a material misstatement will occur in any given account before considering
internal control
AT Quizzer 8 ”Planning and Risk Assessment” 4

25. While performing an audit, Manuel decides to restrict then risk of misstatement to 3%. What must
the acceptable level of detection risk be if inherent risk is 25% and control risk is 40%?
a. 0.3%
b. 30%
c. 12%
d. 33.3%

26. How frequently must an auditor test operating effectiveness of controls that appear to function as
they have in past years and on which the auditor wishes to rely in the current year?
a. Monthly
b. Each audit
c. At least every second audit
d. At least every third audit

27. An auditor may decide to assess control risk at the maximum level for certain assertions because
the auditor believes
a. Control policies and procedures are unlikely to pertain to the assertions
b. The entity’s control environment, accounting system, and control procedures are interrelated
c. Sufficient evidential matter to support the assertions is likely to be available
d. More emphasis on tests of controls than substantive tests is warranted

28. The auditor faces a risk that the examination will not detect material errors which occur in the
accounting process. In regard to minimizing this risk, the auditor primarily relies on
a. Substantive tests
b. Compliance tests
c. Internal control
d. Statistical analysis

29. The auditor uses the assessed level of control risk (together with the assessed level of inherent
risk) to determine the acceptable level of detection risk for financial statement assertions. As the
acceptable level of detection risk decreases, the auditor may do one or more of the following,
except change the
a. Nature of substantive tests to more effective procedures
b. Timing of substantive tests, such as performing them at year-end rather than at an interim
date
c. Extent of substantive tests, such as using larger sample sizes
d. Assurances provided by substantive tests to a lower level

30. The auditor should perform which of the following as risk assessment procedures?
a. Analytical procedures
b. Confirmation
c. Recalculation
d. Reperformance

31. The concepts of audit risk and materiality are interrelated and must be considered together by the
auditor. Which of the following is true?
a. Audit risk is the risk that the auditor may unknowingly express a modified opinion when in fact
the financial statements are fairly stated
b. The phrase in the auditor’s standard report “present fairly, in all material respects, in
conformity with generally accepted accounting principles” indicates the auditor’s belief that the
financial statements taken as a whole are not materially misstated
c. If misstatements are not important individually but are important in the aggregate, the concept
of materiality does not apply
d. Material fraud but not material errors cause financial statements to be materially misstated

32. In financial statement audit, inherent risk represents the

a. Susceptibility of an account balance to error that could be material
b. Risk that error could occur and not be prevented or detected by the internal control structure
c. Risk that error could occur and not be detected by the auditor’s procedures
d. Risk that the auditor fails to modify materiality misstated financial statements

33. Which of the following statements about internal control is correct?

a. Properly maintained internal controls reasonably assure that collusion among employees
cannot occur
b. Establishing and maintaining internal control is the internal auditor’s responsibility
c. Exceptionally strong control allows the auditor to eliminate substantive tests of details
d. The cost-benefit relationship should be considered in designing internal controls
AT Quizzer 8 ”Planning and Risk Assessment” 5

34. When an organization has strong internal control, management can expect various benefits. The
benefit least likely to occur is
a. Reduced cost of an external audit
b. Elimination of employee fraud
c. Improvement in the reliability and integrity of information for decision-making purposes
d. Some assurance of compliance with governmental regulations

35. A potential business risk created by regulatory requirement may most likely include
a. Increased product liability
b. Increased legal exposure
c. The entity does not have the personnel or expertise to deal with the changes in the industry
d. Loss of financing due to the entity’s inability to meet financing requirements

36. Which of the following conditions and events may least likely indicate the existence of risks of
material misstatements?
a. Significant transactions with related parties
b. Entities or business segments likely to be sold
c. Significant amount of routine or systematic transactions
d. Changes in key personnel including departure of key executives

37. The auditor should determine overall responses to address the risks of material misstatement at
the financial statement level. Such responses most likely include
a. Assigning less experienced staff
b. Emphasizing to the audit team the need to maintain professional skepticism in gathering and
evaluating audit evidence
c. Performing predictable further audit procedures
d. Performing substantive procedures at an interim date instead of at period end

38. An independent auditor should perform tests of controls or those internal accounting controls:
a. That materially affects financial statement balances
b. That he plans to rely upon
c. Where instance of noncompliance were noted
d. That he relied on the prior year’s audit

39. The probability that an auditor will give an inappropriate opinion on financial statements is
a. Audit risk
b. Inherent risk
c. Control risk
d. Detection risk

40. Auditors would appear not to exhibit due audit care if there was a
a. high audit risk
b. low detection risk
c. high inherent risk
d. low control risk

41. An auditor who believes that a material irregularity may exist should initially
a. Withdraw from the engagement
b. Discuss the matter with higher level of management
c. Discuss the matter with those believed to be involved in the perpetration of the material
irregularity
d. Consult legal counsel

42. Investigation of new clients and reevaluation of existing ones is an essential part of deciding
a. inherent risk
b. acceptable audit risk
c. statistical risk
d. financial risk

43. An extensive understanding of the client’s business and industry and knowledge about the
company’s operations are essential for doing an adequate audit. For a new client, most of this
information is obtained
a. from the predecessor auditor
b. from the Securities and Exchange Commission
c. from the permanent file
d. at the client’s premises
AT Quizzer 8 ”Planning and Risk Assessment” 6

44. Research has indicated several factors which affect business risk and therefore acceptable risk.
Which of the following does not affect business risk?
a. The degree to which external users rely on the statements
b. The likelihood that client will have financial difficulties after the audit report is issued
c. The integrity of management
d. Weaknesses in client’s internal control structure

45. The audit risk against which the auditor requires reasonable protection is a combination of two
separate risks. The first of these is that material errors will occur in the accounting process by
which the financial statements are developed, and the second is that
a. a company’s system of internal control is not adequate to detect errors and irregularities
b. those errors that occur will not be detected in the auditor’s examination
c. management may possess an attitude that lacks integrity
d. evidential matter is not competent enough for the auditor to form an opinion based on
reasonable assurance

46. Which of the following statements concerning materiality thresholds is incorrect?

a. Aggregate materiality thresholds are a function of the auditor’s preliminary judgment
concerning audit risk
b. In general, the more misstatements the auditor expects, the higher should be the aggregate
materiality threshold
c. The smallest aggregate level of errors or fraud that could be considered material to any of the
financial statements is referred to as a “materiality threshold”
d. Materiality thresholds may change between the planning and review stages of the audit.
These changes may be due to quantitative and/or qualitative factors

47. Which of the following factors best describe the materiality of audit risk?
1. Volume of transactions
2. Degree of system integration
3. Years since last audit
4. Significant management turnover
5. Value of assets at risk
6. Average value per transaction
7. Results of last audit
a. 1 through 7
b. 2, 4 and 7
c. 1, 5 and 6
d. 3, 4 and 6

48. Which of the following concepts about materiality is incorrect?

a. Materiality is directly related to the acceptable level of detection risk
b. Materiality does not apply if internal control is highly effective
c. Materiality is a matter of professional audit judgment
d. Materiality is more closely related to fieldwork and reporting standards than to general
standards

49. Which type of audit risk does the management of a company have the most control over in the
short term?
a. Inherent risk
b. Control risk
c. Detection risk
d. Sufficiency risk

50. Auditors would perform the following steps in which order?

a. Determine audit risk; assess control risk; determine detection risk; set materiality
b. Set materiality; determine audit risk; assess control risk; determine detection risk
c. Set materiality; assess control risk; determine detection risk; determine audit risk
d. Determine audit risk; set materiality; assess control risk; determine detection risk

51. As the audit progresses and additional information about the client is obtained, the acceptable
level of audit risk
a. may be modified
b. may not be reduced because it would become statistically invalid, but it may be increased
c. may not be increased because it would become statistically invalid, but it may be reduced
d. may not be modified
AT Quizzer 8 ”Planning and Risk Assessment” 7

52. Which of the following is not a consideration when the auditor is attempting to assess the inherent
risk?
a. Nature of client’s business
b. Existence of related parties
c. Frequency and intensity of top management’s review of the accounting transactions and
records
d. Susceptibility to defalcation

53. Which of the following is an example of the concept of inherent risk?

a. Humans make more errors than computers, therefore a manual accounting system is riskier
than a computerized system
b. Accounting systems with vouchers have many more controls built in, so the risk that there will
be errors on the financial statements is reduced
c. Loans receivable for a finance company are less likely to be collectible than those of a bank
d. Audits with larger sample sizes are less risky than those with smaller sizes

54. Which of the following discoveries by the auditor would not raise the red flag of increased inherent
risk?
a. Management bonuses are based on a percentage of net income
b. A bond indenture requires a current ratio of at least three to one
c. Client makes extensive use of notes receivable and notes payable rather than buying and
selling on open account
d. Client is a parent company with a subsidiary

55. Inherent risk is reduced where the likelihood of defalcation is low. This would be true for an
account such as
a. Inventory
b. Marketable securities
c. Cash
d. Accounts receivable

56. Both control risk and inherent risk are set by the auditor. On a typical engagement, the auditor
would not set both of these for
a. the overall audit
b. each cycle
c. each account
d. each objective

57. Because control risk and inherent risk vary from cycle to cycle, account to account or objective to
objective,
a. acceptable audit risk must remain a constant
b. detection risk and required audit evidence will also vary
c. detection risk will vary but audit evidence will remain constant
d. detection risk will remain constant but audit evidence will vary

58. After obtaining an understanding of an entity’s internal control structure and assessing control risk, an
auditor may next
a. perform tests of controls to verify management’s assertions that are embodied in the financial
statements
b. consider whether evidential matter is available to support a further reduction in the assessed
level of control risk
c. apply analytical procedures as substantive tests to validate the assessed level of control risk
d. evaluate whether the internal control structure policies and procedures detected material
misstatements in the financial statements

59. An auditor may compensate for a weakness in the internal control by increasing the
a. level of detection risk
b. extent of tests of controls (compliance tests)
c. preliminary judgment about audit risk
d. extent of analytical procedures

60. When conducting an audit, errors that arouse suspicion of fraud should be given greater attention than
other errors. This is an example of applying the criterion of
a. reliability of evidence
b. materiality
c. risk
d. dual-purpose testing
AT Quizzer 8 ”Planning and Risk Assessment” 8

61. When an independent auditor’s examination of financial statement discloses special circumstances
that make the auditor suspect that material errors and irregularities may exist, the auditor’s initial
course of action should be to
a. recommend that the client pursue the suspected fraud to a conclusion that is agreeable to the
auditor
b. extend normal audit procedures in an attempt to detect the full extent of the suspected fraud
c. reach an understanding with the proper client representative as to whether the auditor or the
client is to make the investigation necessary to determine if a fraud has in fact occurred
d. decide whether the fraud, if in fact it should exist, might be of such a magnitude as to affect
the auditor’s report on the financial statements

62. The audit risk against which the auditor requires reasonable protection is a combination of two
separate risks. The first of these is that material errors will occur in the accounting process by
which the financial statements are developed, and the second is that
a. a company’s system of internal control is not adequate to detect errors and irregularities
b. those errors that occur will not be detected in the auditor’s examination
c. management may possess an attitude that lacks integrity
d. evidential matter is not competent enough for the auditor to form an opinion based on
reasonable assurance

63. A CPA may reduce the audit work on a first-time audit by reviewing the working papers of the
predecessor auditor. The predecessor should permit the successor to review working papers
relating to matters of continuing accounting significance such as those that relate to
a. extent of reliance on the work of specialists
b. fee arrangement and summaries of payments
c. analysis of contingencies
d. staff hours required to compete the engagement

64. Which of the following procedures is not performed as a part of planning an audit engagement?
a. Reviewing the working papers of the prior year
b. Performing analytical procedures
c. Tests of controls
d. Designing an audit program

65. The risk of a material misstatement occurring in an account, assuming an absence of internal
control, is referred to as:
a. Account risk
b. Control risk
c. Detection risk
d. Inherent risk

66. Which of the following is not generally considered a financial statement audit risk factor?
a. Management operating and financing decisions are dominated by top management
b. A new client with no prior audit history
c. Rate of change in the entity’s industry is rapid
d. Profitability of the entity relative to its industry is inconsistent

67. The risk that the auditor’s procedures will lead them to conclude that a material misstatement does
not exist in an account balance when in fact such a misstatement does exist is referred to as :
a. Account risk
b. Control risk
c. Detection risk
d. Inherent risk

68. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the auditor’s determination of materiality?
a. The planning level of materiality will normally be the larger of the amount considered for the
balance sheet vs. the income statement
b. The auditor’s planning level of materiality may be disaggregated into smaller “tolerable
misstatements” for the various accounts
c. Auditors may use various rules of thumb to arrive at an evaluation level of materiality, but not
for determining the planning level of materiality
d. The amount used for the planning will equal that used for evaluation
AT Quizzer 8 ”Planning and Risk Assessment” 9

69. The auditors must consider materiality in planning an audit engagement. Materiality for planning
purpose is:
a. The auditor’s preliminary estimate of the largest amount of error that would be material to any
one of the client’s financial statements
b. The auditor’s preliminary estimate of the smallest amount of error that would be material to
any one of the client’s financial statements
c. The auditor’s preliminary estimate of the amount of error that would be material to the client’s
balance sheet
d. An amount that cannot be quantitatively stated since it depends on the nature of the item

70. Research has indicated several factors which affect business risk and therefore acceptable risk.
Which of the following does not affect business risk?
a. The degree to which external users rely on the statements
b. The likelihood that client will have financial difficulties after the audit report is issued
c. The integrity of management
d. Weaknesses in client’s internal control structure.

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