EPFO GENERAL ABILITY

TEST – 13
EXPLANATION

PART – A

Q.1) Which one of the following statements about industrial relations is NOT correct?
(a) Industrial relations have to be managed in the interest of maintaining a viable collaborative
structure
(b) Formulation of rules by consensus and their implementation are core to industrial relations
(c) The pluralistic framework looks employee participation in industrial relations from a
disintegrative perspective
(d) The radicalists consider industrial relations in a distributive sense

Q.2) The Industrial Disputes Bill 1947 observed that ‘industrial peace will be most enduring where it is
founded on voluntary settlement’. Which one of the following machineries under the Industrial
Disputes Act 1947 was created for this purpose?
(a) Works Committee
(b) Board of Conciliation
(c) Court of Enquiry
(d) Labour Court

Q.3) Which one of the following statements with regard to the provision for ‘Welfare Officer’ is NOT correct?
(a) This provision is given in the Factories Act 1948
(b) This provision, in case of Mines and Plantations, is given in the central rules of these two
Acts but not in the main Acts
(c) For factories and plantations this provision is applicable when 500 or more workers are employed
(d) In mines this provision is made applicable when 500 or more workers are employed

Q.4) In India, which one of the following systems prevails in respect of adjudication in industrial disputes?
(a) Voluntary reference and voluntary acceptance of the award
(b) Voluntary reference but compulsory acceptance of the award
(c) Compulsory reference but voluntary acceptance of the award
(d) Discretionary reference and compulsory acceptance of the award

Q.5) ‘Audi alterampartem’ is associated with:

(a) Strikes.
(b) Disciplinary action.
(c) Trade Union.
(d) Closure.

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Q.6) Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, what is the maximum time period for which the
members of the executive and other office bearers of a trade union shall be elected?
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Four years
(d) Three years

Q.7) Provision related to Recognition of the Trade union is provided under

(a) Trade Union Act, 1926 (A)Sec 10 A
(b) Trade Union (Amendment} Act, 2001
(c) Trade Union (Amendment) Act 1947*
(d) Trade Union (Amendment) Act 1964

Q.8) What is the limitation period for filing a direct application by the workman to the labour court
under Section 2A of the Industrial Diaputea Act.1947?
(a) 6 month
(b) 1 year
(c) 3 years
(d) 4 years

Q.9) Voluntary reference of Dispute to ‘Arbitration Under The Industrial Disputes Act 1947 is stated in
(a) Sec 10A
(b) Sec 9A
(c) Sec 9B
(d) Sec 9C

Q.10) Under the Maternity Benefit Act 1961, what is the minimum number of days a woman employee
must have worked under an employer in the twelve months preceding the date of expected delivery
for becoming eligible for maternity benefit?
(a) 90 days
(b) 80 days
(c) 180 days
(d) 240 days

Q.11) Who among the following is NOT a dependent under the provisions of the Employees’ Compensation
Act 1923?
(a) A widower
(b) An adult widowed sister
(c) A parent other than a widowed mother
(d) A widowed daughter – in – law

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Q.12) Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, the average pay for a monthly paid
workman means the average of the:
(a) wages payable in six completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay
becomes payable.
(b) wages payable in three completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average
pay becomes payable.
(c) wages payable in four completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay
becomes payable.
(d) wages payable in twelve completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average
pay becomes payable.

Q.13) What is the time period within which the Grievance Redressal Committee constituted under the
provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 is to complete its proceedings on receipt of a written
application by or on behalf of the aggrieved party?
(a) 15 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days

Q.14) Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, what is the time period within which the
appropriate Government has to publish the award of a Labour Court, Industrial Tribunal and
National Tribunal from the date of receipt of the same?
(a) Thirty days
(b) Sixty days
(c) Ninety days
(d) Forty five days

Q.15) Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, which one of the following is considered to
be retrenchment?
(a) Voluntary retirement of a workman
(b) Termination of services of a workman, otherwise than as punishment inflicted by way of
disciplinary action
(c) Termination of service of workman on the ground of ill health
(d) Termination of service of a workman as a result of non-renewal of contract of employment between
the employer and workman concerned on its expiry

Q.16) What is the share of women representatives in the Advisory Committee to be constituted under the
Equal Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) One half of the total members
(b) One third of the total members
(c) One fourth of the total members
(d) Three fourth of the total member

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Q.17) Who out of the following do NOT fall in the definition of ‘unorganized worker’ under the Unorganized
Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008?
(a) Self employed worker
(b) Wage worker
(c) Contract worker
(d) Home based worker

Q.18) As per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, ‘An interim or a final determination of any industrial
dispute or of any question relating thereto by any Labour Court, Industrial Tribunal or National
Tribunal and includes an arbitration award made under Section 10A’ can be termed as:
(a) Award
(b) Bipartite settlement
(c) Judicial agreement
(d) Conciliation

Q.19) Right to collective bargaining between employers and workers in India is:
(a) a Constitutional right.
(b) voluntary under labour law.
(c) obligatory under labour law.
(d) a fundamental right

Q.20) Voluntary arbitration is a statutory recognized mode of settlement of dispute under:

(a) Trade Union Act, 1926
(b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(c) Factories Act, 1948
(d) Employee Compensation Act, 1923

Q.21) The term ‘Protected Workmen’ is defined in:

(a) Trade Union Act 1926.
(b) Industrial Disputes Act 1947.
(c) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970.
(d) Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service)
Act 1996.

Q.22) The provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936 shall be made applicable to an employed person
drawing a monthly wages NOT exceeding:
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 12,000
(d) Rs. 15,000

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Q.23) Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936, the total amount of fine that may be imposed
in any one wage period on any employed person shall NOT exceed an amount equal to:
(a) Four per cent of wages
(b) Five per cent of wages
(c) Three per cent of wages
(d) Six per cent of wages

Q.24) Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936, NO fine shall be imposed on any employed
person who is under the age of:
(a) Fifteen years.
(b) Sixteen years.
(c) Seventeen years.
(d) Eighteen years.

Q.25) Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936, fine imposed on any employed person can
NOT be recovered after expiry of how many days from the day it was imposed?
(a) One hundred days
(b) Ninety days
(c) One hundred and twenty days
(d) One hundred and eighty days

Q.26) Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948, which one of the following is a component of
‘Wages’?
(a) Value of house accommodation
(b) Value of medical attendance
(c) Travelling allowance
(d) House rent allowance

Q.27) What is the extent of representation of independent persons in the Committees and Sub-Committees
constituted under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948?
(a) One- half of the total members
(b) One-fourth of the total members
(c) One-third of the total members
(d) Two-thirds of the total members

Q.28) Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948, which one of the following bodies is appointed
by the appropriate Government for the purpose of coordinating the works of the Committees and
Sub-Committees and for advising the appropriate Government in matters of fixing and revising
minimum wages?
(a) State Advisory Council
(b) Advisory Board
(c) State Monitoring Authority
(d) State Advisory and Monitoring Board

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Q.29) Under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970, how many members
may be nominated by the Central Government while constituting the Central Advisory Board?
(a) Not exceeding seventeen but not less than eleven
(b) Not exceeding fifteen but not less than ten
(c) Not exceeding twenty but not less than fifteen
(d) Not exceeding eleven but not less than seven

Q.30) According to Trade Union Act, 1926, for which one of the following purposes, the general funds of a
registered trade union may NOT be spent?
(a) The conduct of trade disputes on behalf of the trade union or any of its members
(b) The compensation of members for loss arising out of trade disputes
(c) The maintenance of any person who is a member of any legislative body constituted under
the Constitution or any local authority
(d) Allowances to +members or their dependents on account of death, old age, sickness or
unemployment
PART – B

Q.31) Consider the following statements regarding “Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage Policy
Framework and its Deployment Mechanism in India”.
1. It was released by the Ministry of Environment in India.
2. It will help India achieve its net zero target by 2070 by enabling the production of clean value-
added products despite utilizing coal.
3. It suggests CCUS technology for decarbonizing carbon dioxide (CO2) from high polluting sectors
such as steel, cement, oil, gas, petrochemicals, chemicals and fertilizers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
NITI Aayog released a study report on the Policy Framework of Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage
(CCUS).

Q.32) Which one of the following organized the Global Technology Summit in 2022 in India?
(a) Ministry of External Affairs
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Innovation
EXPLANATION:
https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Seventh-edition-of-Global-Technology-Summit-to-be-held-from-
Tuesday-in-New-Delhi&id=451505

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The Global Technology Summit is India’s flagship annual event on geotechnology that brings together
industry experts, policymakers, scientists and other key stakeholders from across the world to discuss
technology and changing geopolitics.
It was co-hosted by the Ministry of External Affairs and Carnegie India.

Q.33) The Agnikul Cosmos is recently seen in the news in the context of
(a) First robotics for Organ transplantation
(b) First Private satellite launchpad of India
(c) First Producer of machine for manual scavenging
(d) First producer of malaria vaccine in India
EXPLANATION:
Chennai-based space tech startup Agnikul Cosmos recently opened India’s first private launchpad and
mission control centre at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.

Q.34) In terms of sheer numbers and value, most electoral bonds sold since the introduction of the scheme
five years ago have been in
(a) Kolkata
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
EXPLANATION:
• In terms of sheer numbers and value, most electoral bonds sold since the introduction of the scheme
five years ago have been in Mumbai, followed by Kolkata and Hyderabad, with the highest amount being
enchased in Delhi.
• Mumbai accounted for 25.4 per cent of the total electoral bonds sold by value (Rs.2742 crore).
• Not even a single electoral bond was sold in Gangtok, Ranchi and Srinagar.
https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/delhi-news/in-5-yrs-most-number-of-electoral-bonds-sold-in-
mumbai-data-shows-101669661300470.html

Q.35) Ela Bhatt, noted Gandhian, leading women’s empowerment activist, was associated with
(a) Narmada Bachao Andholan
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Childline Foundation
(d) Self-Employed Women’s Association
EXPLANATION :
• Elaben Bhatt was the noted Gandhian, leading women’s empowerment activist, and renowned founder
of the Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA).
• Self Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) is the single largest Central trade union registered in 1972.
• It grew out of the Textile Labour Association - founded by Anasuya Sarabhai and Mahatma Gandhi in
1920.
Q.36) Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, contains provisions for
(a) Declaring educational qualifications by the legislators
(b) Declaring personal assets and property by the legislators
(c) Limiting the electoral expenses by the candidates
(d) Decriminalizing electoral politics

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EXPLANATION:
• Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, contains provisions for decriminalising
electoral politics.
• Provisions of laws such as the Customs Act, Protection of Civil Rights Act, Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Act etc are among the offences that entail disqualification regardless of the quantum of punishment.
• Laws for prevention of Sati, corruption, terrorism and insult to national flag and national anthem etc are
also part of this group.
• All other criminal provisions form a separate category under which mere conviction will not entail
disqualification.
• A sentence of at least 2 years in prison is needed to incur such disqualification.

Q.37) During the elections in India Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS), has been
proposed to which of the following category?
(a) Armed Forces personnel
(b) Persons aged above 80
(c) Government employees
(d) NRI Voters
EXPLANATION :
Earlier, the Chief Election Commissioner of India urged the NRIs to register as overseas electors and talked
about a proposal on Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (postal ballot) facility for NRIs.

Q.38) Consider the following statements regarding the sealed cover jurisprudence in India.
1. It is a practice used by the courts of asking for or accepting information from government agencies
2. It is clearly mentioned in the Indian Constitution and the Parliament also enacted a law in this
regard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION :
• The Supreme Court derives its power to use it from:
• Rule 7 of order XIII of the Supreme Court Rules - No party would be allowed to access the information
that the Chief Justice of India (CJI) or court has directed to be kept under sealed cover except if the CJI
himself orders to access it.
• Section 123 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872
• On hearing an appeal against the Centre’s ban in the Media One case, the SC said that it is not in favour
of sealed cover jurisprudence.

Q.39) Justice Sri Krishna Committee, often seen in news, is related with
(a) Sub-categorisation of OBCs
(b) Fixing the interest rate for small savings
(c) Framing new AI rules for India
(d) Setting out a data protection law

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EXPLANATION :
In 2010, it was to look into the demand for separate statehood for Telangana or keep the State united in the
present form, Andhra Pradesh.
Based on the recommendations of the Justice Sri Krishna Committee, the Digital Personal Data Protection
Bill was formulated in 2018 and 2019.

Q.40) Which of the following received this year’s Award of Excellence in UNESCO Asia-Pacific Awards for
Cultural Heritage Conservation?
(a) Monuments of Mahabalipuram
(b) Taj Mahal, Agra
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalaya
(d) Jantar Mantar in Jaipur
EXPLANATION :
• The Domakonda Fort of Telangana and Byculla Station of Mumbai received awards under the ‘Award of
Merit’ category.
• The stepwells of Golconda in Hyderabad was recognized under the ‘Award of Distinction’ category.
• The Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalaya was established in 1922 as the Prince of Wales
Museum of Western India.
• It is part of the ictorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai World Heritage property in India.
• This 100-year-old museum documents the history of India from prehistoric to modern times.
• It was established to commemorate the visit of the Prince of Wales (George V) to India.

Q.41) The Muscat Ministerial Manifesto of 2022 is related with which of the following?
(a) Relaxation of patent for covid vaccines
(b) Increasing the crude oil production
(c) Antimicrobial Resistance
(d) Ban on Chemical weapons
EXPLANATION:
The World Antimicrobial Awareness Week 2022 concluded on November 25, with the endorsement of the
Muscat Ministerial Manifesto on AMR by several countries at the Third Global High-level Ministerial
Conference on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR).
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/world-antimicrobial-awareness-week-2022-ends-with-
muscat-ministerial-manifesto-on-amr-86219

Q.42) As per the World Intellectual Property Indicators 2022, the top two countries with highest number of
patent filings are
(a) Israel and USA
(b) South Korea and Japan
(c) India and China
(d) England and Germany
EXPLANATION:
• The World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) recently released the World Intellectual Property
Indicators 2022.
• The top two countries with highest number of patent filings are India and China.
• Local patenting activities in the US, Japan and Germany have declined in 2021.

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Q.43) Which one of the following recently released a paper titled “Illegal Wildlife Trade and Climate Change:
Joining the dots”?
(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(c) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
(d) Interpol
EXPLANATION:
It was released at the side event during the COP27 held in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/hunting-elephants-rhinos-and-pangolins-for-trade-may-
affect-climate-says-un-paper-here-is-how-86155

Q.44) Consider the following statements regarding Leith’s Softshell Turtle.

1. It is a large fresh water soft shelled turtle
2. It inhabits only oceans and seas
3. It is endemic to peninsular India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:
• India’s proposal for transferring Leith’s Softshell Turtle to Appendix I of CITES has been adopted by CoP-
19 to CITES at Panama.
• Its presence is substantial in the Cauvery, Tungabhadra, Ghataprabha, Bhavani, Godavari and Moyar
drainages.

Q.45) The Loss and Damage fund is related with which one of the following?
(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) None of the above is correct
EXPLANATION:
• The United Nation’s COP27 climate summit recently approved the creation of the “Loss and Damage”
Fund to compensate economically vulnerable countries for the damages caused by climate-linked
disasters.
• It is a special fund established to provide compensation to vulnerable countries for the damages they
suffered because of global warming.
• Its aim is to unlock a greater ambition to mitigate and adapt to climate change.

Q.46) Who is set to take over the chair of the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) for 2022-
23?
(a) Germany
(b) Japan

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 (c) India
(d) Israel
EXPLANATION:
• At the 3rd edition of the annual Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) summit that was held
in Tokyo with France as its chair, India took over as Council Chair of GPAI for 2022-23.
• The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is an international initiative to support
responsible and human-centric development and use of Artificial Intelligence (AI).
• The GPAI is the idea of G7 and launched in 2020 with 15 members.

Q.47) Which state is to get India’s first Marina?

(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamilnadu
(d) Karnataka
EXPLANATION:
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/karnataka-to-get-india-s-1st-marina-to-promote-coastal-tourism-
details-11677459565749.html
To promote coastal tourism in Karnataka, the country's first Marina will be constructed at Byndoor in the
Udupi district.

Q.48) Consider the following statements regarding the Bali yatra festival.
1. It commemorates the 2,000-year-old maritime and cultural links between India and West Asia.
2. It is considered to be one of Asia's largest open trade fairs held in Odisha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/baliyatra-celebrating-odishas-ancient-
links-with-indonesia-and-southeast-asia-8274632/
Baliyatra made it into the Guinness World Record for making 22,000 paper boats in 35 minutes.
The festival is held in Odisha (a state in eastern India), in the city of Cuttack at Gadagadia Ghata of the
Mahanadi river.

Q.49) Consider the following statements regarding the Koronivia Joint Work on Agriculture.
1. It is a landmark decision under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC).
2. It aims to minimize greenhouse gas emissions from the agriculture sector.
3. India was the founder signatory to this agreement held in November 2022.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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EXPLANATION:
1. It addresses 6 interrelated topics on soil, nutrient usage, livestock, water, methods for gauging
adaptation and socio-economic and food security dimensions of climate change across the agriculture
sector.
2. India opposed the Koronivia Joint Work on Agriculture
3. India held that emissions from the agricultural sectors are not “luxury” emissions but “survival
emissions” of the poor. It blamed the developed countries’ historic emissions for the current climate
crisis.

Q.50) The first-ever World Wildlife Trade Report was recently released by which of the following?
(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(c) Convention on Biological Diversity
(d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
EXPLANATION:
• The first-ever World Wildlife Trade Report was released at the 19th Conference of Parties to CITES, which
is being held in Panama from November 14 to 25 this year.
• Asia and Europe are the top exporters and importers of wildlife trade.
• This World Wildlife Trade Report is a first attempt to provide as comprehensive an overview of wildlife
trade as possible from all angles.

Q.51) With respect to Lachit Barphukan, recently seen in news, which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) He was a military commander in the Ahom Kingdom in 17th century.
(b) He was a social reformer in the 20th century in the North West region
(c) He was the first one to oppose the British in the 19 th in the coastal Karnataka region
(d) He was the first person to resist the invasion of Mughal kingdom in the Maratha regions.
EXPLANATION:
Lachit Borphukan, born on November 24, 1622, was a commander and Bophukan (councillor) in the Ahom
Kingdom, which reigned present-day Assam for over 600 years while successfully resisting the Mughal
Empire.

Q.52) Which of the following states have notified the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act rules
or PESA Rules in their states?
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Jharkhand
4. Odisha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above states
EXPLANATION:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1876869

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• With the objective of effective implementation of PESA, Ministry of Panchayati Raj circulated Draft Model
PESA Rules in 2009.
• Based on continuous advocacy and persuasion by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj eight States namely;
Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan
and Telangana have notified their State PESA Rules under their respective State Panchayati Raj Acts.
• Recently, State of Chhattisgarh has notified their PESA Rules on 8th August, 2022.
• In the States of Jharkhand and Odisha the process of inter-Departmental consultation is still in progress.
• Presently, 10 States viz. Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand,
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana, have Fifth Schedule Areas in their
respective States.

Q.53) The verdict by the supreme court in the Janhit Abhiyan v Union of India case of 2022 is related with
(a) Allowing the women into the Sabari Malai temple
(b) Upholding the reservation for Economically Weaker Sections
(c) Fixing the appointment procedure for Election Commissioner of India
(d) Decriminalising the same sex marriages
EXPLANATION:
https://www.deccanherald.com/opinion/panorama/the-ews-judgement-needs-to-be-reviewed-
1165298.html
By a majority of 3:2, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court has upheld the validity of the 103 rd
Constitutional Amendment, 2019.

Q.54) In 2023, the G20 troika consists of

(a) Indonesia, India and Brazil
(b) Indonesia, India and Egypt
(c) Indonesia, India and South Africa
(d) Indonesia, India and Russia
EXPLANATION :
The G20 Summit is held annually with a rotating presidency, and in 2023, India will hold the presidency.
The group does not have a permanent secretariat and is supported by the previous, current, and future
holders of the presidency, known as the troika. In 2023, the troika consists of Indonesia, Brazil, and India.

Q.55) Consider the following statements regarding the Special Marriage Act, 1954.
1. It was enacted to facilitate the marriage of couples professing different faiths and preferring a
civil wedding.
2. The marriage of any two persons may be solemnized under this Act, subject to the man having
completed 21 years of age and the woman 18.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Both should be capable of giving valid consent and should not suffer from any mental disorder of a kind
that renders them unfit for marriage.

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They should not be within the degrees of prohibited relationship in such a way that their religion does not
permit such marriages.

Q.56) The Global Dashboard for Vaccine Equity is an effort by

1. United Nations Development Programme
2. World Health Organization
3. University of Oxford
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the above
EXPLANATION:
The Global Dashboard for Vaccine Equity is a joint effort by the
• United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
• World Health Organization (WHO)
• University of Oxford
It combines the latest data on the global roll-out of COVID-19 vaccines with the most recent socio-economic
information.

Q.57) Since the Covid Pandemic 2020, who is the largest buyer of Gold in the World?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) USA
(d) Japan
EXPLANATION:
According to the World Gold Council (WGC), the demand for gold has risen by 28% this year
RBI was the third largest among the known buyers in Q3 of 2022 as it added 17.5 tonnes to the reserves.
RBI is also the largest buyer since the pandemic.

Q.58) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the concept of Greenwashing?
(a) To present misleading or dubious claims about their climate action
(b) To support the developing countries for Green Economy
(c) To assuring for the carbon neutral economy by 2030
(d) To assuring for complete switchover to clean energy
EXPLANATION :
Greenwashing refers to a range of activities that companies or even countries indulge in to present
misleading or dubious claims about their climate action.
Also known as "green sheen," greenwashing is an attempt to capitalize on the growing demand for
environmentally sound products.
Greenwashing help in boosting the image of the entity and help them garner benefits for things they do
nothing against climate change.

Q.59) The Climate Change Performance Index 2023 was recently released by
(a) United Nations Environment Program

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 (b) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(c) Paris Climate Change Convention
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
Climate Change Performance Index 2023 was released jointly by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute and
Climate Action Network.
It is released every year at the UN Climate Change Conference. It is an instrument that ensures transparency
in the national and international climate politics. Since 2005, it has provided standardized assessment of
countries’ climate protection performance.
It currently tracks the countries’ progress towards the goals set by the Paris Agreement.

Q.60) Who has become the 11th Member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
(a) Taiwan
(b) East Timor
(c) South Korea
(d) Papua New Guinea
EXPLANATION :
• The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional bloc founded on August 8, 1967 in
Bangkok, Thailand.
• Its member states are Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.
• East Timor was added as a new member of this regional grouping.
• Currently, two states are seeking accession to ASEAN: Papua New Guinea and East Timor.

Q.61) The Montreal Conference of 2022 is related with which of the following?
(a) Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF)
(b) Climate Change Agreement (CCA)
(c) Money laundering Framework
(d) Global Vaccine Platform
EXPLANATION :
The UN Biodiversity Conference (COP 15) has concluded in Montreal, Canada, promising to take urgent
action to protect and restore the world’s biodiversity that inhabit this planet.
The Montreal Conference has delivered a new agreement called the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF)
that need to be achieved by 2030.

Q.62) Consider the following statements regarding the e-Rupee.

1. It is an electronic version of cash in the form of a digital token
2. It is the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
3. It will be used only for the wholesale transactions and not for the retail transactions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
The Reserve Bank of India has recently launched the e-Rupee for retail users.

15
It will be primarily meant for retail transactions.
It is a fungible legal tender, for which holders need not have a bank account.
E-rupee will be issued in the same denominations as paper currency and coins, and will be distributed
through the intermediaries, that is banks.

Q.63) Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiri Tahr.

1. It is endemic to the northern portion of the Western Ghats in Karnataka and Maharashtra.
2. The species has been listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
3. Due to the numerous threats, it is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of
India, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
The Nilgiri Tahr is an ungulate that is endemic to the southern portion of the Western and Eastern Ghats
in Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It is mainly found the Nilgiri Hills. It is the state animal of Tamil Nadu. It is the
only mountain ungulate in southern India among the 12 species found in India.

Q.64) Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation process in India.
1. It is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state Assembly seats to represent changes
in population.
2. It is carried out by the Election commission of India alone.
3. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration
with the Election Commission of India.
4. Under Article 82, the Parliament is to enact a Delimitation Act after every Census.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION :
• Delimitation is carried out by Delimitation Commission, appointed by the Government of India under
the Delimitation Commission Act.
• The Constitution mandates that the Commission’s orders are final and cannot be questioned before any
court as it would hold up an election indefinitely.
• Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up the Delimitation Commission.
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) recently announced that it had commenced the process of
delimitation of state assembly and parliamentary constituencies of Assam. The last delimitation in
Assam happened in 1976. The current delimitation exercise is being conducted based on the 1971
Census.

Q.65) The Labour Ministry of India is currently mulling to shift from the “minimum wages” to “living wages”.
In this regard, consider the following statements.

16
 1. The Minimum wage is defined as the minimum income necessary for workers to meet their basic
necessities.
2. The living wage is the lowest amount of money a laborer can earn as mandated by the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION :
• The term “living wage” is the theoretical income level that enables an individual or a family to afford
adequate shelter, food, healthcare and other basic necessities. It is the minimum income of that
helps support a satisfactory standard of living and prevents individuals from falling into poverty.
• A living wage is defined as the minimum income necessary for workers to meet their basic necessities.
It is different from the minimum wage, which is based on labor productivity and skill sets.
• Minimum wage is the lowest amount of money a laborer can earn as mandated by the law. It does
not change based on inflation. It can increase only with the government intervention. This is not true
for the living wage.
• The living wage is determined by the average cost to live comfortably, while the minimum wage is the
fixed amount set by the government.

Q.66) The Stay Safe Online campaign & Digital Innovation Alliance was recently launched by
(a) G20
(b) BRICS
(c) SCO
(d) G7
EXPLANATION :
India launches ‘Stay Safe Online’ Campaign and ‘G20 Digital Innovation Alliance’ as part of India’s G20
presidency.

Q.67) The Zeliangrong United Front (ZUF) is an insurgent group very active at
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
EXPLANATION :
• A tripartite agreement was signed by the Indian Government, Manipur Government and an insurgent
group called Zeliangrong United Front (ZUF).
• This Naga insurgent group is actively operating in Manipur, claiming to safeguard the interests of
Zeliangrong Naga tribes in Manipur, Assam and Nagaland.
• Zeliangrong people are one of the major indigenous Naga communities living in the tri-junction region of
Nagaland, Manipur and Assam.

Q.68) The Amrit Bharat Station Scheme mainly aims at

(a) Introduce the speedy Vande Bharat trains in India
(b) Modernize railway stations across India
(c) Eliminate the diesel rail engines with Electric engines

17
 (d) Eliminate the all-manual railway crossings across the country

EXPLANATION :
The Union Ministry of Railways has launched a new scheme called Amrit Bharat Station Scheme to
modernize railway stations across India.

Q.69) The Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Power Project was built for

(a) Bhutan
(b) Nepal
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Myanmar
EXPLANATION :
The Mangdechhu hydroelectric project (HEPP) is a 720MW run-of-river power plant built on the Mangdechhu
River in Trongsa Dzongkhag District, central Bhutan.

Q.70) Consider the following statements regarding the National Archives of India.
1. It is the repository of all non-current government records that can be used by administrators and
scholars.
2. It comes under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Culture.
3. It was established in 1947 after India attains its Independence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
• Its origins can be traced back to the Imperial Record Department, which was established in the British
India’s capital Calcutta in 1891.
• The NAI is currently located in Delhi and is involved in conserving government records.
• It had started holding records in 1748. These records are in English, Arabic, Hindi, Persian, Sanskrit
and Urdu languages.

Q.71) Which of the following statements regarding the Rushikulya river, is/are correct?
1. It is one of the major rivers in the state of West Bengal.
2. The large-scale nesting of olive ridley sea turtles was taking place near the mouth of the
Rushikulya River.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
• The place from where the river originates, Daringbadi is called the Kashmir of Odisha.
• About 6.37 lakh Olive Ridley Sea turtles have arrived for mass nesting at Rushikulya coast this year,
setting a new record for the beach in Odisha’s Ganjam district.

18
• Olive Ridley turtles also arrive at Gahirmatha beach in Odisha’s Kendrapara district, which is known as
the world’s largest known rookery.

Q.72) The Project Vaani is recently launched by

(a) Archeological survey of India
(b) Indian Institute of Sciences, Bengaluru
(c) Indian Institute of Technology, Madras
(d) All India Radio
Explanation
• Project Vaani will be implemented jointly by the Indian Institute of Sciences (IISc), ARTPARK (AI and
Robotics Technology Park), and Google to gather speech data from across India for the creation of an AI-
based language model that can understand diverse Indian languages and dialects.
• It is part of the Bengaluru-based IISc and Artpark’s Bhasha AI project that includes RESPIN (Recognizing
Speech in Indian languages) and SYSPIN (Synthesizing Speech in Indian languages).

Q.73) The Nine Charts 2022 report was recently released by

(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) World Economic Forum
EXPLANATION:
The report titled “2022 in Nine Charts” was released recently by the World Bank.
At the end of 2022, the world is experiencing the “steepest slowdown” since 1970. Currently, 685 million
people are living in extreme poverty. This makes 2022 the second-worst year for poverty reduction in the
past 20 years after the year 2020.

Q.74) Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Giant Tortoises.
1. It is listed as “critically endangered” on the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red
List of Threatened Species.
2. In India, the Nagaland Zoological Park has the highest number of Asian Giant Tortoises
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION :
In an effort to conserve one of the largest tortoise species in mainland Asia, ten captive-bred Asian Giant
Tortoises (Manouria emys) were recently released into Ntangki National Park in Peren district, India.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/10-asian-giant-tortoises-released-into-
nagaland-protected-area-for-rewilding-86675

Q.75) Consider the following statements regarding the Social Progress Index (SPI).
1. It was recently released by the NITI Aayog.
2. The index assesses states and districts based on 12 components across three critical dimensions
of social progress - Basic Human Needs, Foundations of Wellbeing, and Opportunity.
3. In this Puducherry has the highest SPI score in the country.

19
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
It was released recently by the Institute for Competitiveness and Social Progress Imperative.
Puducherry has the highest SPI score of 65.99 in the country, attributable to its remarkable performance
across components like Personal Freedom and Choice, Shelter, and Water and Sanitation. Lakshadweep
and Goa closely follow it with scores of 65.89 and 65.53, respectively. Jharkhand and Bihar scored the
lowest, 43.95 and 44.47, respectively.

Q.76) Recently the International Energy Agency (IEA) released the report “Coal 2022: Analysis and Forecast
to 2025”. In this regard, consider the following statements.
1. The domestic production of coal in India is expected to surpass a billion tonnes by 2025
2. India and China are the largest producers, consumers, and importers of coal.
3. India and China are the only two countries in the world that witnessed a surge in investment in
coal mine assets
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/energy/india-s-coal-production-to-surpass-a-billion-tonnes-by-
2025-iea-annual-report-86627

Q.77) Who is the first to introduce the Carbon Border Tax in the World?
(a) India
(b) European Union
(c) United States of America
(d) Japan

EXPLANATION:
• The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), also known as the carbon border tax, adds a
pollution price on certain imports to the EU.
• Many countries, including the United States, China, India, Brazil, South Africa, and least-developed
countries, have expressed concern over the EU’s carbon border tax
• The carbon border tax aims to raise the costs of such imports to deter EU-based companies from moving
production to jurisdictions with more relaxed environmental policies. This plan reinforces the EU's
commitment to net-zero carbons emissions by 2050.

Q.78) Consider the following statements regarding the Great Barrier Reef.
1. It is the world’s largest coral reef system
2. It is located off the coast of Queensland in Australia.

20
 3. It is suffering major bleaching events because of the raising ocean temperatures caused by
climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
Scientists, who are working on Great Barrier Reef, have succeeded in testing a new method for freezing and
storing coral larvae.
https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/great-barrier-reef-freeze-8333015/

Q.79) The Youth Co: Lab

1. Empowers youth to accelerate the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
through leadership, social innovation, and entrepreneurship.
2. Is the largest youth innovation movement in the Asia Pacific
3. Is launched jointly by the NITI Aayog and the United Nations Development Program (UNDP).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog and UNDP India jointly launched the 5th edition of Youth Co: Lab
on December 15, 2022.
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1883846

Q.80) The 2022 Global Food Security Index (GFSI) report was released by
(a) Global Food Safety Initiative
(b) International Food Policy Research Institute
(c) World Food Program
(d) The Economist
EXPLANATION:
The 2022 Global Food Security Index (GFSI) report was released by the British weekly The Economist. In
this report, South Africa overtook Tunisia to become the most food-secure country in Africa.

Q.81) India’s first indigenously developed vaccine, “CERVAVAC”, is used for

(a) Covid 19
(b) Cervical cancer
(c) Malaria
(d) Dengue
EXPLANATION :
• Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh announces India’s first indigenously developed vaccine, “CERVAVAC”
for the prevention of cervical cancer.
• Cervical cancer ranks as the 2nd most prevalent cancers in India and accounts for nearly one-fourth of
the world’s cervical cancer deaths despite being largely preventable

21
• It is known as a quadrivalent vaccine since it is capable of providing immunization against four different
strains of HPV – 6, 11,16 and 18
• It is India’s first indigenously developed Quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus vaccine (qHPV).
• It was developed by the Pune-based Serum Institute of India (SII) in collaboration with the Department
of Biotechnology (DBT), Science and Technology Ministry, and the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
• Until the launch of this vaccine, there were only two international HPV vaccines – Gardasil vaccine (first
ever vaccine approved by the FDA in 2006) and Cervarix.

Q.82) Which state recently became the first state in India to launch its own climate change mission?
(a) Kerala
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Tamilnadu
(d) Gujarat
EXPLANATION:
https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chennai/tamil-nadu-climate-change-mission-mk-stalin-
inauguration-8316468/

Q.83) The Singapore Declaration 2022, is recently seen in the context of

(a) World Health organization
(b) International Labour Organization
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) United Nations Environment Program
EXPLANATION :
The International Labour Organisation (ILO) adopted a declaration which urges countries to ensure labour
protection.

Q.84) Which one of the following statements regarding the terms, Meizotropis pellita, Fritilloria cirrhosa
and Dactylorhiza hatagirea, is correct?
(a) New variants of Covid 19 found in India
(b) Medicinal plant species in the Himalayas
(c) New vaccines for Dengue in India
(d) New bacteria found in Himalayas

EXPLANATION:
Three medicinal plant species in the Himalayas have been included in the IUCN Red List of Threatened
Species. These are Meizotropis pellita (critically endangered), Fritilloria cirrhosa (vulnerable) and
Dactylorhiza hatagirea (endangered).

Q.85) The Wildlife Protection Act provides for the establishment of which of the following?
1. National and State Board for Wildlife
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority
3. Central Zoo Authority
4. National Green Tribunal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only

22
 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
National Green Tribunal (India) had been set up under National Green Tribunal Act as a statutory body in
year 2010 to deal with environmental cases and speedy implementation of decisions relating to it.

Q.86) Consider the following statements regarding the term Hyper-globalisation.

1. It is used to describe the dramatic increase in international trade witnessed from the early 1990s.
2. It believes that globalisation is happening and there is an emergence of a homogenous global
culture.
3. It is believed that China is a complete opposite to this concept.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Hyper globalization’s chief protagonist, however, was China that emerged as the “world’s factory” and a
“mega trader”.
In 2013, it is estimated that China’s share in world merchandise trade to have risen from 1.8% in 1990 to
11.1% in 2022.

Q.87) At present, which of the following parties will not be considered the National Party in India?
1. Aam Aadmi Party
2. Trinamool Congress
3. Nationalist Congress Party
4. Communist Party of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:
The Election Commission of India y withdrew the national party status of Trinamool Congress, Nationalist
Congress Party and the Communist Party of India (CPI) and recognized Arvind Kejriwal's Aam Aadmi Party
(AAP) as a national party.
For a party to be recognized as a state party, it requires:
1. At least 6 per cent vote share in the last Assembly election and have at least 2 MLAs; or have 6 per
cent vote share in the last Lok Sabha elections from the state and at least 1 MP from that state; or
2. At least 3 per cent of the total number of seats or three seats, whichever is higher, in the last
Assembly elections; or
3. At least 1 MP for every 25 members or any fraction allotted to the state in the Lok Sabha; or
4. At least 8 per cent of the total valid votes in the last state assembly election or Lok Sabha election
from the state.

23
Q.88) Consider the following statements
1. Goblin Mode is selected as the Oxford’s 2022 Word of the Year.
2. Ukraine President Volodymyr Zelensky was chosen as the 2022 Person of the Year by the Time
Magazine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
For the first time, the Oxford Word of the Year was chosen by the public.
Goblin mode is a slang term that describes a type of behavior that is unapologetically self-indulgent, lazy,
slovenly, or greedy, generally rejecting social norms and expectations.
It was followed by “Metaverse” and “#IStandWith”.

Q.89) The report titled “Global Status of Black Soils” was released by
(a) Convention on Biological Diversity
(b) International Union of Soil Sciences
(c) Food and Agriculture Organization
(d) United Nations Forum on Forests
EXPLANATION:
The report titled “Global Status of Black Soils” was released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
on the occasion of World Soil Day (December 5).

Q.90) Consider the following statements regarding the ChatGPT.

1. It is a chatbot powered by artificial intelligence that can be used to ask queries.
2. It was developed and released by the Google itself.
3. It is a natural language processing (NLP) model that works using a large corpus of conversational
data.
4. It was also trained using Reinforcement Learning from Human Feedback.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
ChatGPT is an artificial intelligence (AI) chatbot developed by OpenAI and released in November 2022.
Google is opening up access to Bard, its new AI chatbot tool that directly competes with ChatGPT.

Q.91) The Genome Valley, the first world-class Biotech cluster in India, was recently established in
(a) Mumbai
(b) Jaipur
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Ahmedabad
EXPLANATION:

24
Hyderabad is the Cybercity of India. The Genome Valley, the first world-class Biotech cluster in India was
established in the cyber city. Today, the State Government of Telangana, along with the Union Government,
and several other international organizations organize the BIO ASIA forum in the Genome Valley.

Q.92) Which one is the first district in India to register 10000 new MSMEs (Micro, Small, Medium
Enterprises)?
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Mumbai
(c) Lucknow
(d) Ernakulam
EXPLANATION:
The Kerala Government launched the Enterprises Campaign during its 2022-23 budget. Also, the state
government declared the financial year 2022-23 as the Year of Enterprises
The other districts such as Thrissur and Malappuram are also moving close to the number.

Q.93) Which union ministry is the top buyer of the goods from MSME sector (Micro, Small, Medium
Enterprises) in 2022?
(a) Union Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Union ministry of Defence
(c) Union Ministry of Heavy Industries
(d) Union Ministry of Finance
EXPLANATION:
The Ministry of Defence was the top procuring ministry of goods and services from MSME sellers in the
calendar year 2022, said the government’s public procurement e-commerce marketplace Government
eMarketplace (GeM).
https://www.financialexpress.com/industry/sme/msme-eodb-defence-ministry-top-buyer-of-msme-
goods-in-2022-gem/2963266/

Q.94) Consider the following statements regarding Atal pension Yojana.

1. The Maximum target of enrollment under this scheme is one crore only.
2. It is targeted only at the unorganized sector.
3. It is administered by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
It has recently crossed the landmark of 5 crore enrolments.
It is open to all bank account holders in the age group of 18 to 40 years.
Any citizen who is or has been an income-tax payer, shall not be eligible to join APY.

Q.95) The Annual Death penalty report in India is released by

(a) Central Bureau of Investigation
(b) Supreme Court

25
 (c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Project 39A

EXPLANATION:
The National Law University was established under the NLUA Act of 2007. Project 39A is a group associated
with the university and it recently released a report called the Annual Death Penalty Report, 2022.
According to the report, the number of death penalty prisoners in India increased to 539 in 2022.

Q.96) Consider the following statements regarding Trans-fat.

1. Trans fat, or trans-fatty acids, are unsaturated fatty acids that come from either natural or
industrial sources.
2. 2023 was the set year of the target to completely eliminate trans fats by the World Health
Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The World Health Organization recently released a report on “Global Trans – Fat Elimination”. WHO started
trans-fat elimination in 2018.
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has stated that all food items should contain less
than 2% of trans fat from Jan 2022.

Q.97) Justice Rohini commission, often seen in news, is related with

(a) Sub-categorisation of OBC
(b) Reservation for EWS
(c) SC status to converted religions
(d) Issue of caste census
EXPLANATION:
In 2017, the President of India constituted a Commission under Chief Justice of Delhi High Court Justice G
Rohini. The main objective of the commission was to prepare a report examining the OBC subcategories in
the country. The President formed the commission using his powers under Article 340.

Q.98) Consider the following statements regarding the All-India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE), 2020-
2021.
1. Enrolment in higher education decreased to 1 crore for the first time, due to covid impact.
2. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Rajasthan are the
top 6 States in terms of number of students enrolled.
3. Highest number of universities is in Rajasthan (92), Uttar Pradesh (84) and Gujarat (83).
4. In India, 43% universities and 61.4% colleges are located in Rural Areas
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

26
 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=1894517
The Ministry has been conducting All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) since 2011, covering all
higher educational institutions located in Indian Territory and imparting higher education in the country.
Enrolment in higher education increases to 4.14 crore, crossing the 4-crore mark for first time.
The total enrolment in higher education has increased to nearly 4.14 crore in 2020-21 from 3.85 crore in
2019-20.
Facts
• States with Highest college density: Karnataka (62), Telangana (53), Kerala (50), Himachal Pradesh (50),
Andhra Pradesh (49), Uttarakhand (40), Rajasthan (40), Tamilnadu (40).
• Top 8 Districts with Highest number of Colleges: Bangalore Urban (1058), Jaipur (671), Hyderabad (488),
Pune (466), Prayagraj (374), Rangareddy (345), Bhopal (327) and Nagpur (318).
• Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh,
Gujarat are top 8 States in terms of number of colleges.
• 43% universities and 61.4% colleges are located in Rural Areas.

Q.99) Which one is correct regarding iNCOVACC, recently seen in news?

(a) Imported vaccine for Dengue
(b) Indigenous vaccine for Malaria
(c) First Intranasal COVID-19 Vaccine
(d) First mRNA-based vaccine for Covid
EXPLANATION:
The Bharat Biotech recently launched an intranasal vaccine to treat COVID-19. It is called iNCOVACC. Intra-
nasal means the vaccine is administered through nose.
mRNA based vaccine (HGCO19) - has been developed by Pune-based biotechnology company Gennova
Biopharmaceuticals Ltd. in collaboration with HDT Biotech Corporation, USA.

Q.100) Consider the following statements regarding Khelo India Youth Games 2022.
1. It was hosted by the state of Maharashtra
2. Kayaking and Canoeing were introduced for the first time in this.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
To be held in eight cities namely Maheshwar, Balaghat, Jabalpur, Gwalior, Ujjain, Indore, and Bhopal in
MP.
The sports event is seen as the best gateway for Indian athletes to enter international events and bring pride
to the nations.

Q.101) Who was the chief guest for the Republic Day Parade 2023?
(a) Prime Minister of New Zealand
(b) New Crown of UAE
(c) President of Egypt

27
 (d) Vice President of USA

EXPLANATION:
2023 is the first republic day parade after the Raj Path was renamed as Kartavya Path. Egyptian President
Sisi was the chief guest

Q.102) Why in the recent times, India witnesses the increase in wheat prices?
1. Russia-Ukraine conflict
2. Rise in International energy prices
3. China-Taiwan conflict
4. High demand of Indian wheat in International Market
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Under the Open Market Sale Scheme, the Food Corporation of India sells surplus rice and wheat stocks.
Recently, the Government of India issued orders to the FCI to sell 30 LMT of wheat under the open market
sale scheme. The Union Government has taken this step to reduce the consistent price rise of wheat in the
country.

Q.103) Consider the following statements regarding the mandatory minimum sentences.
1. It refers to "a sentence which must be imposed without leaving any discretion to the court."
2. The judgments in which the level of punishment cannot be reduced in the future are called
mandatory minimum sentences.
3. It applies to all the offenses booked under the POCSO Act, that is, Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/mandatory-minimum-sentences-rationale-
behind-them-
8404166/#:~:text=The%20concept%20of%20mandatory%20minimum,State%20Of%20UP%20And%20Oth
ers'.
A CJI Chandrachud-led bench has decided to examine a petition challenging the constitutional validity of
Section 376 DB of the Indian Penal Code. This section describes the punishment for gangrape of a minor
under 12 years of age, to the extent that it prescribes a ‘minimum mandatory sentence’ of life imprisonment
for the remainder of the convict’s life and even death.
Mandatory minimum sentences are judgments that do not leave discretion to the court. Meaning the
punishment cannot be reduced in the future.

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Q.104) Which state recently launched India’s first migrant Labour survey?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka
EXPLANATION:
Jharkhand is not the only state to launch such states. Several other states like Tamil Nadu and Punjab had
already launched such surveys. Kerala has been a pioneer in this field.
But there is a basic difference in labour movement between Kerala and Jharkhand. In Kerala, workers mostly
go abroad (mainly to Gulf countries). However, the issue is internal migration in Jharkhand.

Q.105) The Indus Water Treaty was signed between the Government of India and the Government of Pakistan
in 1960. It was mediated by
(a) United Nations Development Program
(b) World Bank
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) International Criminal Court
EXPLANATION:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-notifies-pakistan-on-modification-of-indus-waters-
treaty/article66438780.ece
India announced that it wants to modify the 62-year-old Indus Water Treaty (IWT) with Pakistan, citing what
it called Pakistan’s “intransigence” in resolving disputes over the Kishenganga and Ratle hydropower
projects, both in Jammu and Kashmir.
India also protested Pakistan’s “unilateral” decision to approach a court of arbitration at The Hague.
The Indus Water Treaty allows India to use the waters of all the rivers for non – consumptive uses such as
hydroelectric power generation. And India was using this clause to use the Kishen Ganga Water (Jhelum) to
generate power.
India started the Kishen Ganga Project. According to Pakistan, Kishen Ganga is a tributary of Jhelum.
Jhelum waters belong to Pakistan under Indus Water Treaty.
The Rattle power project is located in the chenab river.

Q.106) Consider the following statements regarding the T+1 settlement Cycle in India.
1. It means that trade-related settlements must be done within a day, or 24 hours, of the completion
of a transaction.
2. In the World, India is the first country to move towards this kind of settlement.
3. It will free up the capital, which will increase the availability of funds to collateralize the risks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Earlier, trades on the Indian stock exchanges are settled in two working days after the transaction is done
(T+2).
India is the second biggest economy to move towards a T+1 settlement cycle after China.

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https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/t1-settlement-cycle-comes-into-effect-
on-january-27-8406168/

Q.107) Which of the following will be considered as the stressed Assets in India, as per the RBI’s
classification?
1. Non – Performing assets
2. Written–off assets
3. Restructured loans
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
RBI brings out discussion paper on securitization of stressed assets.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/rbi-brings-out-discussion-paper-on-
securitisation-of-stressed-assets/article66433178.ece
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is planning to enable securitisation of non-performing assets (NPAs) through
the special purpose entity (SPE) route, on the lines of securitisation of standard assets, as an alternative
investment route in stressed assets.
Securitisation of Stressed Assets is a financial structure whereby an originator of NPAs sells these to a SPE
that funds such an acquisition by issuing securitisation notes, per the paper

Q.108) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the term India Stack?
(a) It is a set of application programming interface (API)
(b) It is newly developed wheat stock exported from India
(c) It is a kind of new material doll alternative to Plastic
(d) None of the above statement is correct
EXPLANATION:
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/technology/india-stack-2-0-to-be-more-nuanced-intelligent-
sophisticated-rajeev-chandrasekhar/articleshow/97339468.cms?from=mdr
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1893704
India Stack is the collection of Application Peripheral Interfaces launched by the Government of India. This
includes BHIM, Digilocker, UPI, and several other applications.
Some of them are UPI, Digi Locker, GSTN, Co-Win, Arogya Sethu, UMANG, m-Parivahan, and many more.

Q.109) Recently the UNESCO has presented the tag of World Heritage in Danger to Odesa. It is located at
(a) Turkey
(b) Syria
(c) Palestine
(d) Ukraine

EXPLANATION :
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/unesco-designates-ukraines-odesa-a-world-heritage-in-
danger-site/article66434893.ece

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Odesa is a strategic port city on Ukraine's Black Sea coast

Q.110) The World Economic Situation and Prospects 2023 Report was recently released by
(a) World Bank
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs
(d) International Monetary Fund
Explanation :
Global Economic Prospects – World Bank report
The United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs launched the “World Economic Situation
and Prospects” report or simply the World Economy Report. The report says that the economic growth of the
world is slowing down.

Q.111) Consider the following Pairs of festivals and states

Festivals States
1. Dree - Arunachal Pradesh
2. Majuli - Assam
3. Wangala - Meghalaya
4. Orange - Maharashtra
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION :
Orange festival – Nagaland
https://www.travelogyindia.com/north-east-india/festivals-in-north-east-india.html
https://www.tourmyindia.com/blog/most-famous-festivals-north-east-india/

Q.112) Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mission.
1. It aims to provide every rural household with tap water connection by 2024.
2. Goa has become the first state in India to provide 100 percent tap water connections in the rural
areas
3. It is being implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
11 Crore Rural Households in India now have access to tap Water Connection.
At the time of the launch of the Mission in 2019, out of 19.35 Crore rural households, only 3.23 Crore
(16.72%) had access to tap water.
It is being implemente d by the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

31
Q.113) Consider the following statements regarding Olive Ridely Turtles.
1. It is also known as the Pacific Ridley Turtles.
2. It is found in the Indian Ocean, Atlantic, and Pacific Oceans.
3. The IUCN categorizes these turtles as Critically endangered species.
4. 50% of the world’s Olive Ridley turtles can be seen in the state of Odisha.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
In India, the turtles’ nest in the Gahirmatha beach. The beach is one of the largest nesting sites of the Olive
Ridley Turtles in the world.
The IUCN categorizes these turtles as “Vulnerable”. CITES put them under “APPENDIX I”.
https://bit.ly/44iQ6Pu

Q.114) In 2023, which state in India has taken a massive action against the child marriage?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Odisha
(c) Assam
(d) Rajasthan
EXPLANATION:
The Assam State Government decided to launch a massive drive against child marriages in the state. The
Gram Panchayat Secretary was appointed as the Child Marriage Prevention Officer.

Q.115) Consider the following statements regarding the immune imprinting.

1. Immune imprinting is to become a hinder to the performance of Booster doses of COVID.
2. During immune imprinting, rather than producing new and more powerful antibodies, the
immune system creates “cross-reactive” antibodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
During immune imprinting, rather than producing new and more powerful antibodies (cells that fight
viruses), the immune system creates “cross-reactive” antibodies. These cross-reactive antibodies are not
effective.
These boosters will lose their importance because of the phenomenon called immune imprinting.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/immune-imprinting-boosters-effective-
explained-8397721/

Q.116) Consider the following initiatives.

1. Giving to Amplify Earth Action
2. FireAid initiative
3. Global Collaboration Village Mission

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 4. Cyber Resilience in Oil and Gas Initiative
The above given initiatives were recently launched by which one of the following?
(a) United Nations Environment Program
(b) World Bank
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) Convention on Biological Diversity
EXPLANATION:
https://www.business-standard.com/article/international/davos-2023-over-50-high-impact-initiatives-at-
wef-for-sustainable-world-123012100251_1.html

Q.117) The BharOS

1. Is a free and open-source operating system (OS) for use in government and public systems.
2. Is unique as it allows only safe and trusted applications to be installed on the OS.
3. Is a mobile operating system designed and developed by the National Informatics Centre.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
BharOS is a mobile operating system designed by IIT Madras.
The IIT Madras Pravartak Technologies launched this private organization along with others. It is funded by
the Science and Technology department of the Government of India.

Q.118) Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Waterbird Census.
1. Commonly known as the ‘January Census’, this exercise is undertaken to evaluate the health of
wetlands.
2. It is jointly coordinated by the Bombay Natural History Society and Wetlands International.
3. It runs parallel to other international censuses of waterbirds in Africa, Europe and Neotropics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION :
The census was initiated in 1987 in the Indian subcontinent, and has grown rapidly to cover 26 countries
of South Asia, East Asia, South East Asia, Pacific, as well as Russia Far East.
It is a citizen-science event that is a part of the global International Waterbird Census (IWC) coordinated by
Wetlands International.
Q.119) Which state becomes first in the country to ensure menstrual leave for students studying in the
state-run higher education institutions?
(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Kerala
(d) Punjab
EXPLANATION:

33
The Kerala government has announced menstrual leave for women students ... to sanction maternity leave
up to 60 days for students above 18.

Q.120) The World Economic Forum (WEF) has announced the establishment of a Centre for the Fourth
Industrial Revolution at
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Hyderabad

EXPLANATION
The World Economic Forum (WEF) has announced the establishment of a Centre for the Fourth Industrial
Revolution (C4IR Telangana) in Hyderabad.
https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/hyderabad/hyderabad-india-first-fourth-industrial-
revolution-centre-healthcare-life-sciences-8385592/

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