Networking Fundamentals Lab

Mid Revision
1. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer
was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type
of threat is affecting this computer?
zero-day attack DoS attack spyware identity theft

2. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers,
customers and collaborators?
intranet extendednet Internet extranet

3. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their
personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?
online collaboration
cloud computing
bring your own device
video conferencing

4. What is an ISP?
It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.
It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

5. In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?

an apartment in a building with cable access to the Internet
a farm in a rural area without wired broadband access
any home with multiple wireless devices
an Internet cafe in a city

6. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications
without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?
reliability scalability quality of service accessibility

7. A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the ground to install a new water pipe
for the dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories
to the campus data center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a very
short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is shown here?
integrity
quality of service (QoS)
scalability
security
fault tolerance

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8. What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)
easily overloaded with increased traffic
offers limited number of applications
is not as reliable as a small network
suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion
grows in size without impacting existing users

9. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through
internetworks?
a router
a firewall
a DSL modem
a web server

10.Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building?
(Choose two.)
cellular
dialup
DSL
satellite
dedicated leased line

11.What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?
a local area network
an intranet
the Internet
an extranet

12.How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?
BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing the need for
organizational security policies.
BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops.
BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources.
BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are purchased by an organization.

13.An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest possible way.
What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company
network?
ACL BYOD VPN IPS

14.What is the Internet?

It provides connections through interconnected global networks.
It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.
It provides network access for mobile devices.
It is a network based on Ethernet technology.

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15.What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)
They originate the data that flows through the network.
They are the interface between humans and the communication network.
They filter the flow of data to enhance security.
They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.
They provide the channel over which the network message travels.

Module 2
1. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
It is stored in NVRAM.
It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.

2. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
All router commands are available.
Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
The device prompt for this mode ends with the ">" symbol.

3. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?
AUX port virtual terminal console line privileged EXEC

4. What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

VLAN1 VLAN100 VLAN999 VLAN99

5. When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part
of the guidelines? (Choose three.)
the hostname should begin with a letter
the hostname should contain no spaces
the hostname should be written in all lower-case characters
the hostname should end with a special character
the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length

6. What is the function of the shell in an OS?

It interacts with the device hardware.
It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.
It interfaces between the users and the kernel.
It provides dedicated firewall services.

7. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The
configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots
up, which mode will display?
setup mode privileged EXEC mode global configuration mode user EXEC mode

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8. An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device. What else must
be done in order to apply those changes to the device?

Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.

Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running configuration.
Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the configuration.
Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device take effect as soon as the
command is typed correctly and the Enter key has been pressed.

9. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is
restarted?
flash NVRAM RAM ROM

10.Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

to make a changed configuration the new startup configuration
to remove all configurations from the switch
to save an active configuration to NVRAM
to copy an existing configuration into RAM

11.Which functionality is provided by DHCP?

translation of IP addresses to domain names
end-to-end connectivity test
automatic assignment of an IP address to each host
remote switch management

12.Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS
CLI? (Choose two.)
allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key
determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command
providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted
displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode
selecting the best command to accomplish a task

13.Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?
RAM NVRAM flash ROM

14.To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?
10.0.0.0 10.1.0.0 10.1.100.32 10.1.100.0

Module 3
1. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)
IEEE MAC IANA TCP/IP IETF OSI

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2. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?
multicast
unicast
allcast
broadcast

3. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

to negotiate correct timing for successful communication
to interpret information
to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission
to break large messages into smaller frames

4. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message
simultaneously?
duplex
broadcast
unicast
multicast

5. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)
It assists in protocol design.
It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.
It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
It prevents designers from creating their own model.
It speeds up packet delivery.

6. What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur
dictating the content of the message sent during communication
specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication
specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication

7. Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

source MAC address
source IP address
destination MAC address
destination IP address
destination port number

8. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking
model?
frame
protocol data unit
segment
packet

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9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)
BOOTP
PPP
IP
POP
ICMP

10.Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual
communications between end devices?
application
network
transport
presentation
session

11.Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host destinations simultaneously?
anycast unicast multicast broadcast

12.What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?
decoding
access control
encapsulation
flow control

13.What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.
It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.
It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.
It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

14.What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to
the destination?
encapsulation
access control
decoding
flow control

15.A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the
client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for
transmission?
HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

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 Module 4

1. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the

administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In
which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
network layer
data link layer
presentation layer
physical layer

2. What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router console port?
rollover
straight-through
crossover
coaxial

3. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
They increase the speed at which the data can travel.

4. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
requiring proper grounding connections
twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
avoiding sharp bends during installation

5. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.
It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.

6. A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and
wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?
The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.
The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.
The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.
The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

7. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

rollover console crossover straight-through

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8. What is the definition of bandwidth?
the speed of bits across the media over a given period of time
the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time
the speed at which bits travel on the network
the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time

9. Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?

It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at evenly spaced time durations.
It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a predictable pattern to help
distinguish data bits from control bits.
It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.
It generates the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the binary numbers of the
frame.

10.What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

cancellation
immunity to electrical hazards
cladding
woven copper braid or metallic foil

11.A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office that is occupied by the park ranger. The office
is located at the highest part of the national park. After network testing is complete, the technicians report that the
wireless LAN signal is occasionally affected by some type of interference. What is a possible cause of the signal
distortion?
the large number of trees that surround the office
the microwave oven
the number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN
the elevated location where the wireless LAN was installed

12.What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

controlling access to media
transmitting bits across the local media
exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media
performing error detection on received frames

13.Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires
the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point

14.What is indicated by the term throughput?

the measure of the usable data transferred across the media
the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP
the capacity of a particular medium to carry data
the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time
the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver
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15.Which standards organization oversees development of wireless LAN standards?
IEEE ISO IANA TIA

Module 5

1. What is the binary representation for the decimal number 173?

10101101
10100111
10100101
10110101

2. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this
represent in dotted decimal format?
236.17.12.10
234.16.12.10
234.17.10.9
236.17.12.6

3. How many binary bits exist within an IPv6 address?

256 64 128 48 32

4. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232?

11101000
11000110
11110010
10011000

5. Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length.
IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.
IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length.
IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.
IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length.
IPv4 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.

6. Which IPv4 address format was created for ease of use by people and is expressed as
201.192.1.14?
ASCII hexadecimal binary dotted decimal

7. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address

11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
203.0.113.211
192.0.2.199
209.165.201.223
198.51.100.201

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8. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101?
149
192
168
157

9. What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F?

77
93
87
63

10.What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address which is represented as the binary
string 00001010.01100100.00010101.00000001?
10.100.21.1
100.10.11.1
100.21.10.1
10.10.20.1

11.What is the decimal equivalent of 0xC9?

185 199 200 201

12.Which is a valid hexadecimal number?

h j g f

13.What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

11011010
10111010
11010101
11001010

14.How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

64
128
256
32

Module 6
1. What identifier is used at the data link layer to uniquely identify an Ethernet device?
sequence number
IP address
MAC address
TCP port number
UDP port number

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2. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?
attached Ethernet cable
TCP/IP protocol stack
MAC address
RJ-45 port
IP address

3. Which two engineering organizations define open standards and protocols that apply to the data
link layer? (Choose two.)
Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
Internet Society (ISOC)
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.

5. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

CSMA/CA
CSMA/CD
priority ordering
token passing

6. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high
level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other
node on the network?
bus
star
mesh
ring
hierarchical

7. Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data transmission?

Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction to many different destinations
simultaneously.
Data that is transmitted over the network can only flow in one direction.
Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction at a time.
Data that is transmitted over the network flows in both directions at the same time.

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8. Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?
to accept segments and package them into data units that are called packets
to define the media access processes that are performed by the hardware
to provide data link layer addressing
to identify which network layer protocol is being used

9. Which data link layer media access control method does Ethernet use with legacy Ethernet hubs?
determinism
token passing
turn taking
CSMA/CD

10.What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer? (Choose two.)
transport
MAC
LLC
physical
network access
internet

11.Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for
specific types of media?
physical
data link
application
transport

12.What type of physical topology can be created by connecting all Ethernet cables to a central
device?
mesh star bus ring

13.What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.
It provides media access control and performs error detection.
It determines the path to forward packets.
It fragments data packets into the MTU size.
It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.

14.Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?

the development of half-duplex switch operation
the use of CSMA/CA
the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds
the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses

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 Module 7
1. Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards.
It typically uses an average of 16 Mbps for data transfer rates.
It uses unique MAC addresses to ensure that data is sent to the appropriate destination.
It uses a ring topology.
It is supported by IEEE 802.5 standards.

2. What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?

They are only routable within the private network.
They have a 32-bit binary value.
They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.
They must be globally unique.

3. What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast MAC address transporting an
IPv4 packet?
FF-FF-FF
FF-00-5E
01-5E-00
01-00-5E

4. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a unicast destination MAC
address that does not match its own MAC address?
It will discard the frame.
It will remove the frame from the media.
It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.
It will forward the frame to the next host.

5. Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is
contained in the frame?
repeater
router
switch
hub

6. Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific destination based on the
information found in the MAC address table?
hub
modem
switch
router

7. Which function or operation is performed by the LLC sublayer?

It adds a header and trailer to a packet to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.
It performs data encapsulation.

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 It is responsible for media access control.
It communicates with upper protocol layers.

8. What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?

The frame is dropped.
The frame is sent to the default gateway.
The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.
The frame is returned to the originating network device.

9. What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?
the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets
the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames
the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets
the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames

10.What is auto-MDIX?
an Ethernet connector type
a feature that detects Ethernet cable type
a type of Cisco switch
a feature to automatically determine speed and duplex

11.What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?

an address that reaches one specific host
an address that reaches every host inside a local subnet
an address that reaches a specific group of hosts
an address that reaches every host in the network

12.Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.
A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.
MAC addresses are implemented by software.
The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.

13.What are the two sizes (minimum and expected maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)
64 bytes
128 bytes
1024 bytes
1518 bytes
56 bytes

14.Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)
It adds control information to network protocol layer data.
It handles communication between upper and lower layers.
It is responsible for Media Access Control.
It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.
It performs the function of NIC driver software.

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 Module 11
1. What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
/25
/28
/27
/26

2. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26
mask?
64
190
254
62
192

3. Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?

255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224

4. A network administrator subnet the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with /26 masks. How
many equal-sized subnets are created?
4 16 2 1 8 64

5. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

255.255.255.192
255.255.240.0
255.255.224.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.248

6. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

Each subnet is the same size.
The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.
Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

7. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet
mask?
to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
to identify the network address of the destination network
to identify the host address of the destination host
to identify faulty frames

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8. How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?
256 254 62 32 30 16

9. Which subnet mask would be used if exactly 4 host bits are available?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.248

10.Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

physical portion
logical portion
broadcast portion
network portion
subnet portion
host portion

11.If a network device has a mask of /26, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this
network?
30 62 32 14 16 64

12.What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

multicast address
host address
network address
broadcast address

13.If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this
network?
254 32 16 14 62 256

14.What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

to determine the subnet to which the host belongs
to mask the IP address to outsiders
to uniquely identify a host on a network
to identify whether the address is public or private

15.A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of
255.255.255.224. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide?
30 14 6 2 62

1. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a
computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the
computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?
DoS attack identity theft spyware zero-day attack

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2. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by
suppliers, customers and collaborators?
Internet
intranet
extranet
extendednet

9-What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media?
(Choose two.)
the types of data that need to be prioritized
the cost of the end devices utilized in the network
the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal
the number of intermediate devices installed in the network
the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

23. How is SSH different from Telnet?

SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.
SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user
authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.
SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used to
connect to devices through the use of Telnet.
SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used to connect to a
device from a console connection.

An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the
employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head
Office. What type of network would the employee access?
an intranet the Internet an extranet a local area network

7. Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.
A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.
A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.
Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.

8. A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a medical clinic. The technician
accidentally sets up the wireless network so that patients can see the medical records data of
other patients. Which of the four network characteristics has been violated in this situation?
fault tolerance
scalability
security
Quality of Service (QoS)
Reliability

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11. What type of network traffic requires QoS?
email
on-line purchasing
video conferencing
wiki
12. A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide
the minimum-security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)
implementing a firewall
installing a wireless network
installing antivirus software
implementing an intrusion detection system
adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device

13. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and
interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
Ethernet interface
boot IOS mode
privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode

14. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

the AUX interface
the console port interface
the switch virtual interface
the first Ethernet port interface

15. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?
It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

16. While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current
router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action
can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?
Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.
Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.
Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.
Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.

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17. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping
command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
to restart the ping process
to interrupt the ping process
to exit to a different configuration mode
to allow the user to complete the command

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If
the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to
access user EXEC mode?

letmein
secretin
lineconin
linevtyin

19. A technician configures a switch with these commands:

SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown
What is the technician configuring?
Telnet access
SVI
password encryption
physical switchport access

20. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the
command hierarchy?
end
exit
Ctrl-Z
Ctrl-C

21. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.
The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.
RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

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22. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices?
(Choose two.)
Branch2!
RM-3-Switch-2A4
Floor (15)
HO Floor 17
SwBranch799

25. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)

It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.
It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.
It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.
It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.
It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.
It is associated with VLAN1 by default.

26. What command is used to verify the condition of the switch interfaces, including the status of
the interfaces and a configured IP address?
ipconfig
ping
traceroute
show ip interface brief

29. In the show running-config command, which part of the syntax is represented by running-
config ?
the command
a keyword
a variable
a prompt

30. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy
running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

31. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a
configuration file?
(config)# enable password secret
(config)# enable secret Secret_Password
(config-line)# password secret
(config)# service password-encryption
(config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password

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32. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the
configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?
This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.
This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.
This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.
This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in
NVRAM.
This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are
required to do router maintenance.

33. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because
too much data is being sent too quickly?
encapsulation
flow control
access method
response timeout

34. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending
data to the network?
Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.
Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
35. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)
ARP
DHCP
DNS
FTP
NAT
PPP

37. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

bits
data
frame
packet
segment

38. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4
configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?
DNS server address
subnet mask
default gateway
DHCP server address

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39. What process involves placing one PDU inside of another PDU?
encapsulation
encoding
segmentation
flow control

40. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP
model?
internet
transport
network access
session

42. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a
host?
file
frame
packet
segment

43. Refer to the exhibit. ServerB is attempting to contact HostA. Which two statements correctly
identify the addressing that ServerB will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchB.
ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.
ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterB.
ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of HostA.
ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.

44. Which method allows a computer to react accordingly when it requests data from a server
and the server takes too long to respond?
encapsulation
flow control
access method
response timeout
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45. A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the perspective
of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to decode the received
transmission?
Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP

46. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of the TCP/IP
model? (Choose two.)
data link
network
physical
session
transport

47. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
transport layer

48. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?

They are sent to a select group of hosts.
They are sent to all hosts on a network.
They must be acknowledged.
They are sent to a single destination.

49. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.
They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.

50. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor.
A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data.
Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.
Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.

51. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take
through internetworks?
a router
a firewall
a web server
a DSL modem
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53. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
to enable the switch to be managed remotely
to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

54. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error
message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

55. What term describes a network owned by one organization that provides safe and secure
access to individuals who work for a different organization?
extranet
cloud
BYOD
quality of service

56. What term describes storing personal files on servers over the internet to provide access
anywhere, anytime, and on any device?
cloud
BYOD
quality of service
converged network

57. What term describes a network where one computer can be both client and server?
peer-to-peer
cloud
BYOD
quality of service

58. What term describes a type of network used by people who work from home or from a small
remote office?
SOHO network
BYOD
quality of service
converged network

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59. What term describes a computing model where server software runs on dedicated
computers?
client/server
internet
intranet
extranet

61. What term describes a technology that allows devices to connect to the LAN using an
electrical outlet?
powerline networking
internet
intranet
extranet

62. What term describes a policy that allows network devices to manage the flow of data to give
priority to voice and video?
quality of service
internet
intranet
extranet

63. What term describes a private collection of LANs and WANs that belongs to an
organization?
intranet
internet
extranet
peer-to-peer

64. What term describes the ability to use personal devices across a business or campus network?
BYOD
internet
intranet
extranet

65. At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
network layer
data link layer
transport layer
application layer

66. At which OSI layer is a destination port number added to a PDU during the encapsulation
process?
transport layer
data link layer
network layer
application layer
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67. At which OSI layer is data added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
application layer
data link layer
network layer
transport layer

68. At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
network layer
data link layer
application layer
presentation layer

69. Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate
directly in network communication?
Servers
Intermediary device
Host
Media

70. At which OSI layer is a destination IP address added to a PDU during the encapsulation
process?
network layer
application layer
transport layer
presentation layer

71. At which OSI layer is a source MAC address added to a PDU during the encapsulation
process?
data link layer
application layer
transport layer
presentation layer

72. At which OSI layer is a source port number added to a PDU during the encapsulation
process?
transport layer
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
data link layer

73. At which OSI layer is a destination MAC address added to a PDU during the encapsulation
process?
data link layer
transport layer
application layer
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 network layer

74. When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?
Wireless
Fire optic cable
Copper cable

75. Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

Host
Router
Switch
Servers
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

controlling access to media
transmitting bits across the local media
performing error detection on received frames
exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media

Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
They allow for full-duplex connectivity.

Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires
the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point

Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

requiring proper grounding connections
twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
avoiding sharp bends during installation

7. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.
It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.

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8. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

9. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within
the cable pairs?
the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

10. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

STP
UTP
coax
fiber

11. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the communication
carried over UTP cables? (Choose two.)
crosstalk
bandwidth
size of the network
signal modulation technique
electromagnetic interference

12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

STP
UTP
coax
fiber

13. Which two devices commonly affect wireless networks? (Choose two.)
Blu-ray players
home theaters
cordless phones
microwaves
incandescent light bulbs
external hard drives

14. Which two statements describe the services provided by the data link layer? (Choose two.)
It defines the end-to-end delivery addressing scheme.
It maintains the path between the source and destination devices during the data transmission.
It manages the access of frames to the network media.
It provides reliable delivery through link establishment and flow control.
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 It ensures that application data will be transmitted according to the prioritization.
It packages various Layer 3 PDUs into a frame format that is compatible with the network
interface.

15. What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?
to verify the integrity of the received frame
to verify the physical address in the frame
to verify the logical address in the frame
to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame

16. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

logical address
physical address
data
error detection

17. Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of the data link layer?
They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.
Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination addresses.
They vary depending on protocols.
They include information on user applications.

18. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a
headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all,
remote sites?
mesh
partial mesh
hub and spoke
point-to-point

19. Which two fields or features does Ethernet examine to determine if a received frame is passed
to the data link layer or discarded by the NIC? (Choose two.)
auto-MDIX
CEF
Frame Check Sequence
minimum frame size
source MAC address

20. Which media communication type does not require media arbitration in the data link layer?
deterministic
half-duplex
full-duplex
controlled access

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21. Which statement describes an extended star topology?
End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other central
intermediate devices.
End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central intermediate device.
Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.
All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.

22. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same
network interface and media.
It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

23. What are three ways that media access control is used in networking? (Choose three.)
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.
Media access control provides placement of data frames onto the media.
Contention-based access is also known as deterministic.
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD.
Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.
Networks with controlled access have reduced performance due to data collisions.

24. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an
Ethernet network?
An IP address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.

25. What three items are contained in an Ethernet header and trailer? (Choose three.)
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
error-checking information

26. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

access method
flow control
message encapsulation
message encoding

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27. Which three basic parts are common to all frame types supported by the data link layer?
(Choose three.)
header
type field
MTU size
data
trailer
CRC value

28. Which statement is true about the CSMA/CD access method that is used in Ethernet?
When a device hears a carrier signal and transmits, a collision cannot occur.
A jamming signal causes only devices that caused the collision to execute a backoff algorithm.
All network devices must listen before transmitting.
Devices involved in a collision get priority to transmit after the backoff period.

29. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet
cable connection
the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

30. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination MAC address of the Ethernet frame as it leaves
the web server if the final destination is PC1?

00-60-2F-3A-07-AA
00-60-2F-3A-07-BB
00-60-2F-3A-07-CC
00-60-2F-3A-07-DD

31. A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port
connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this
task?
port-based buffering
level 1 cache buffering
shared memory buffering
fixed configuration buffering

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32. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)
store-and-forward switching
fast-forward switching
CRC switching
fragment-free switching
QOS switching

33. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to
detect errors before forwarding the frame?
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching
fragment-free switching
fast-forward switching

34. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?

to obtain the MAC address of the sending node
to verify the logical address of the sending node
to compute the CRC header for the data field
to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception

35. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

cut-through
store-and-forward
fragment-free
fast-forward

36. A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a straight-through cable.
The switches are new and have never been configured. Which three statements are correct about
the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)
The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is supported by both
switches.
The link between switches will work as full-duplex.
If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest speed.
The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the need for a crossover
cable.
The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a crossover cable.
The duplex capability has to be manually configured because it cannot be negotiated.

37. Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-
through switching method?
collision detecting
frame error checking
faster frame forwarding
frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

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38. When the store-and-forward method of switching is in use, what part of the Ethernet frame is
used to perform an error check?
CRC in the trailer
source MAC address in the header
destination MAC address in the header
protocol type in the header

39. Which switching method uses the CRC value in a frame?

cut-through
fast-forward
fragment-free
store-and-forward

40. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table
forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address
examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

41. Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in
Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)
Logical link control is implemented in software.
Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.
The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data.
The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite.
The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.

42. What is the auto-MDIX feature?

It enables a device to automatically configure an interface to use a straight-through or a
crossover cable.
It enables a device to automatically configure the duplex settings of a segment.
It enables a device to automatically configure the speed of its interface.
It enables a switch to dynamically select the forwarding method.

43. What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-
forward switching method?
has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames
makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame
has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications
provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds

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44. Which is a multicast MAC address?
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
5C-26-0A-4B-19-3E
01-00-5E-00-00-03
00-26-0F-4B-00-3E

46. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other
connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to
connect the devices?

1 - rollover, 2 - crossover, 3 - straight-through

1 - rollover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - crossover
1 - crossover, 2 - rollover, 3 - straight-through
1 - crossover, 2 - straight-through, 3 - rollover

48. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

49. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

50. What OSI physical layer term describes the process by which one wave modifies another
wave?
modulation
IEEE
EIA/TIA
Air

51. What OSI physical layer term describes the capacity at which a medium can carry data?
bandwidth
IEEE
EIA/TIA
Air

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53. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of bits across a medium
over a given period of time?
throughput
bandwidth
latency
goodput

54. What OSI physical layer term describes the amount of time, including delays, for data to
travel from one point to another?
latency
bandwidth
throughput
goodput

55. What OSI physical layer term describes the amount of time, including delays, for data to
travel from one point to another?
latency
fiber-optic cable
air
copper cable

56. What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of usable data transferred over a given
period of time?
goodput
fiber-optic cable
air
copper cable

57. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium which uses electrical pulses?
copper cable
fiber-optic cable
air
goodput

58. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium that uses the propagation of
light?
fiber-optic cable
goodput
latency
throughput

59. What OSI physical layer term describes the physical medium for microwave transmissions?
air
goodput
latency
throughput
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60. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI data link layer? (Choose
two.)
Adds Layer 2 control information to network protocol data.
Places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the
frame.
Controls the NIC responsible for sending and receiving data on the physical medium.
Implements a trailer to detect transmission errors.
Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same network interface and media.

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